Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 13

DAYANAND SCIENCE COLLEGE, LATUR

12th CET Div. IC-1, IC-2, A, B, C & General A (Revision Batch)

07 April, 2024 Questions : 150 Max. Marks : 200 Time : 180 Min

Roll No. 0 0 PHY, CHEM, MATHS Full Syllabus Test - 03

Important Instructions:
01. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on carefully with Blue/Black ballpoint pen only.
02. The Test is of 180 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 150 questions. Each question of Physics
and Chemistry carries 1 mark and Mathematics 2 Marks. There will be no Negative Marking,
however difficulty level will be at par with JEE (Main) for Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
03. Use Blue/Black Ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
04. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the test booklet only.
05. One completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before
leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away Test Booklet only with them.
06. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray make on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write you Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
Answer Sheet.
07. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
08. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
09. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the
Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and
dealt with as an unfair means case.
11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
12. The Candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the board with regard to their conduct in the
Examination Hall. All case of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
Physics: 50, Chemistry: 50 and Mathematics: 50 Questions each

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters): .................................................................................................... ..............................


.................................................................................................... ..............................

Mobile No.: .......................................................... Div.: ......................... Roll No.:

Candidate’s Signature: ......................................................... Invigilator’s Signature: .........................................................


DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 2 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024
PHYSICS 09. The surface tension of a liquid is 5 Nm–1. If a film
01. A cricket ball of mass 150 g has an initial velocity is held on a ring of area 0.02 m2 , its total surface
energy is about
u  (3iˆ  4ˆj)ms 1 and a final velocity a) 2 × 10–2 J b) 2.5 × 10–3 J
v   (3iˆ  4ˆj)ms 1 , after being hit. c) 2 × 10–1 J d) 3 × 10–1 J
10. The excess pressure inside a spherical drop of water
The change in momentum (final momentum – initial
is four times that of another drop. Then, their
momentum) is (in kg ms–1)
respective mass ratio is
a) zero b) (0.45iˆ  0.6ˆj) a) 1 : 16 b) 8 : 1
c) 1 : 4 d) 1 : 64
c) (0.9iˆ  1.2ˆj) d) 5(iˆ  ˆj)iˆ
11. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity
02. A body of mass m collides head on, elastically with in air 1 ms–1. The viscosity of air is 18 × 10–5 poise.
velocity u with another identical body at rest. After Find the viscous force on the rain drops.
collision, velocity of the second body will be
a) 5.02 × 10–7 N b) 1.018 × 10–7 N
a) zero b) u
c) 1.05 × 10–7 N d) 2.058 × 10–7 N
c) 2u d) Data insufficient
12. Temperature remaining constant, the pressure of
03. Two spheres of radii r and 2r are touching each gas is decreased by 20%. The percentage change
other. The force of attraction between them is in volume
proportional to
a) increases by 29% b) decreases by 20%
a) r6 b) r4
c) increases by 25% d) decreases by 25%
c) r2 d) r–2
13. A molecule of a gas has six degrees of freedom.
04. The ratio of mean distances of three planets from Then, the molar specific heat of the gas at constant
the sun is 0.5 : 1 : 1.5, then the square of time volume is
periods are in the ratio of
R
a) 1 : 4 : 9 b) 1 : 9 : 4 a) b) R
2
c) 1 : 8 : 27 d) 2 : 1 : 3
3R
05. The thermal conductivity of a rod depends on c) d) 3R
2
a) length
14. The unit of Wien’s constant b is
b) mass
a) Wm–2K–4 b) m–1K–1
c) area of cross-section
c) Wm2 d) m K
d) material of the rod
15. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken from A to B by
06. What does not change when sound enters from one
the following three ways p, q, r as shown in the
medium to another?
given p- V curve.
a) Wavelength b) Speed
c) Frequency d) None of these
07. A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular track
of radius 20 m. If the coefficient of friction is 0.64,
then the maxium velocity with which the car can
move is
a) 22.4 ms–1 b) 5.6 ms–1
c) 11.2 ms–1 d) None of these Then, amongst which of these ways, the internal
08. The moment of inertia of a flywheel having kinetic energy would be same?
energy 360 J and angular speed of 20 rad s–1 is a) p and r
a) 18 kg-m2 b) 1.8 kg-m2 b) q and r
c) 2.5 kg-m2 d) 9 kg-m2 c) p and q
d) For all the ways, internal energy is same
DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 3 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024
16. A system is provided with 200 cal of heat and the 22. A pipe of 60 cm long and open at both the ends
work done by the system on the surroundings is produces harmonics. Which harmonic mode of pipe
40 J. Then, its internal energy resonates a 2.2 kHz source? Given, speed of sound
a) increases by 600 J b) decreases by 800 J in air = 330 ms–1.
c) increases by 800 J d) decreases by 50 J a) Fifth harmonic b) Eighth harmonic
17. With same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands c) Third harmonic d) Second harmonic
from volume V1 to V2 in three different ways. The 23. Two sound waves of slightly different frequencies
work done by the gas is W1 , if the process is propagating in the same direction produce beats
isothermal, W2 if isobaric and W3 if adiabatic, then due to
a) W2 > W1 > W3 b) W2 > W3 > W1 a) interference b) diffraction
c) W1 > W2 > W3 d) W1 > W3 > W2 c) reflection d) refraction
18. Two particles are executing SHMs. The equations 24. The wavelength of sodium light in air is 5890 Å.
of their motions are The velocity of light in air is 3 × 108 m/s. The
wavelength of light in a glass of refractive index
   3  1.6 would be close to
y1  10 sin  t   ; y 2  sin  t  
 4  4 
 a) 5890 Å b) 3681 Å
The ratio of their amplitudes is c) 9424 Å d) 15078 Å
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 25. An object moving at a speed of 5 m/s towards a
concave mirror of focal length f = 1 m is at a
c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 3
distance of 9 m. The average speed of the image is
19. A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude a.
a) 1/5 m/s b) 1/10 m/s
When the PE of a particle is one-fourth of its
maximum value during the oscillation, its c) 5/9 m/s d) 2/8 m/s
displacement from the equilibrium position will be 26. A cube of side L encloses a charge Q at its centre,
a) a/4 b) a/3 electric flux through the cube is
c) a/2 d) 2a/3 Q Q
20. Frequency of oscillation is proportional to a)  b) 6L2 
0 0

QL2
c) d) zero
0
3k k 27. In p-n junction depletion region layer is caused by
a) b) a) drift of electrons
m m
b) migration of impurity ions
2k m c) drift of holes
c) d)
m 3k d) diffusion of charge carriers
21. Two waves y1 = A1 sin(t –  1 ), 28. The source of monochromatic and coherent light
y2 = A2 sin(t – 2) superimpose to form a resultant beam should be narrow to produce stable
wave whose amplitude is interference, because narrow sources can have
a) approximately equal intensities
a) A12  A 22  2A1A 2 cos  1   2  b) approximately equal and small intensities
c) approximately equal and long intensities
b) A12  A 22  2A1A 2 sin  1  2  d) small number of point sources to maintain
c) A1 + A2 coherency
d) |A1 + A2 |
DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 4 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024
29. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of balancing point is obtained at 80 cm from left. When
wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a single a 10  resistance is connected in parallel to X the
narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused balancing point is 50 cm from left. The values of X
by a convex lens on a screen placed on the focal and Y, respectively are
plane. The first minimum will be formed for the a) 40 , 9  b) 30 , 7.5 
angle of diffraction equal to c) 20 , 6  d) 10 , 3 
a) 0° b) 15° 35. Two cells of emfs E 1 and E 2 (E 1 > E 2 ) are
c) 30° d) 60° connected as shown in figure.
30. The headlights of a truck are 1.22 m apart and light E1 B E2
of wavelength 5000 Å is used for the headlights. A C
The pupil of the eye of the observer has a diameter When a potentiometer is connected between A and
of 1 mm. What should be the maximum distance of B the balancing length of the potentiometer wire is
the truck from the observer, so that the headlights 300 cm. On connecting the same potentiometer
are just separated for him ? between A and C, the balancing length is 100 cm.
a) 2 km b) 1.5 km E1
c) 3 km d) 3.5 km The ratio E is
2
31. Three capacitors C1 , C2 and C3 are connected as
shown in the figure to a battery of V volt. If the a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 3
capacitor C3 breaks down electrically, the change c) 2 : 3 d) 3 : 2
in total charge on the combination of capacitors is 36. Magnetic field induction at the centre ‘O’ of a
square loop of side ‘a’ carrying current I as shown
C2 in figure.
V C1 B
C3 a a
I O C
  C3  A
a a
a) (C1  C 2 ) V 1   C  C  C  
 1 2 3  D
+ –
  C1  C 2    0I
b) (C1  C 2 ) V 1   C  C  C   0I
a) b) 2 2
 1 2 3  2 a a
  C3  0 I
c) (C1  C 2 ) V 1    c) zero d)
2 a
  C1  C2  C3  
37. A beam of ions with velocity 2 × 105 m/s enters
  C2  normally into a uniform magnetic field of
d) (C  C ) V 1   
1 2
  C1  C2  C3   4 × 10–2 T. If the specific charge of the ions is
5 × 107 C/kg, the radius of the circular path
32. A hallow metallic sphere of radius 10 cm is charged
described will be
such that potential of its surface is 80 V. The
potential at the centre of the sphere would be a) 0.10 m b) 0.16 m
a) 80 V b) 800 V c) 0.20 m d) 0.25 m
38. The dimensional formula for the magnetic field is
c) zero d) 8 V
a) [MT–2 A–1] b) [ML2T–1A–2]
33. In bringing an electron towards another electron,
c) [MT–2A–2] d) [MT–1A–2]
the electrostatic potential energy of the system.
39. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is  at
a) becomes zero b) increases
127°C. At what temperature, its susceptibility will
c) decreases d) remains same
be reduced to half to its original value ?
34. Two unknown resistances X and Y are connected
a) 327°C b) 427°C
to left and right gaps of a meter bridge and the
c) 527°C d) 627°C
DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 5 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024
40. For paramagnetic substances permeability is always recoil speed of hydrogen atom is almost
a) less than 1 b) equal to 1 (mass of proton  1.6 × 10–27 kg)
c) greater than 1 d) less than or equal to 1 a) 10 m/s b) 2 × 10–2 m/s
41. The turn ratio of a transformer is given as 2 : 3. If c) 4 m/s d) 8 × 102 m/s
the current through the primary coil is 3A, then the 48. A radioactive substance has an average life (mean
current through load resistance will be life) of 5 hours. Then, in this time
a) 1 A b) 4.5 A a) all active nuclei will decay
c) 2 A d) 1.5 A b) less than 50% of the active nuclei will decay
42. emf induced in a coil does not depend on c) less than 60% of the active nuclei will decay
a) number of turns in coil d) more than 70% of the active nuclei will decay
b) resistance of coil 49. For a transistor is common base configuration if 
c) rate of change of flux is 100, the value of current gain is
d) magnetic field a) 1 b) 0.99
c) 0.1 d) 0.01
43. The average power dissipation (loss) in a pure
capacitance is 50. Digital circuit can be made by the repetition of
frequently used gates which are
1
a) CV 2 b) CV 2 a) OR gate b) AND gate
2
c) NOT gate d) NAND gate
1 2
c) CV d) zero
4
CHEMISTRY
44. Susceptance and admittance are respectively the
51. The volume occupied by 0.2 mole of methane at
reciprocals of
N.T.P. is
a) resistance and capacitance
a) 4.48 dm3 b) 8.96 dm3
b) capacitance and resistance
c) 4.4 dm3 d) 2.24 dm3
c) reactance and impedance
52. A 10 g of a gas at atmospheric pressure is cooled
d) impedance and reactance from 273°C to 0°C keeping the volume constant
45. de-Broglie wavelength  is its pressure would be
a) proportional to mass
1 1
b) proportional to impulse a) atm b) atm
2 273
c) inversely proportional to impulse
d) independent of impulse c) 2 atm d) 273 atm
53. The oxidation state of Mn in MnO4– – is
46. When a certain metal surface is illuminated with
light of frequency , the stopping potential for a) + 7 b) + 6
photoelectric current is V0. When the same surface c) + 5 d) + 4
54. The correct IUPAC name of

is illuminated by light of frequency , the stopping N  C – CH = CH – C  N
2
a) 1,2-dicyanoethene
V0 b) But-2-en, 1,4-dinitrile
potential is , the threshold frequency of
4 c) Dibut-2-en-1,4-dinite
photoelectric emission is d) Pent-2-en-1,3-dinitrile
  55. Two solution of a substance are mixed in the
a) b) following manner 480 ml of 1.5 M. First solution
6 3
and 250 ml of 1.2 M second solution. What is
2 4
c) d) molarity of final mixture ?
3 3
a) 1.20 M b) 1.344 M
47. A hydrogen atom emits a photon corresponding to
c) 1.50 M d) 2.70 M
an electron transition from n = 5 to n = 1. The
DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 6 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024
56. For which among the following equimolar aq. 67. Which of the following has higher strength of oxo-
solutions vant Hoff’s factor has lowest value ? acid ?
a) AlCl3 b) K2 SO 4 a) HClO4 b) HClO3
c) NH4 Cl d) Urea c) HClO2 d) HClO
57. The molal depression constant depend upon 68. Which of the following have higher M.P. ?
a) Nature of the solute a) F2 b) Cl2
b) Nature of the solvent c) Br2 d) I2
c) Vapour pressure of the solution 69. The general electronic configuration of 3d series is
d) Heat of solution a) [Kr] 3d1 - 10 4s1 or 2
58. G is –ve for b) [Ar] 3d1 - 10 4s1 or 2
a) H < 0 b) S > 0 c) [He] 3d1 - 10 4s1
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) H > 0 d) [Xe] 3d1 - 10 4s1
70. Which of the following do not have unpaired
59. Which of the following is an intensive property ?
electron ?
a) Enthalpy b) Mass
a) Sc b) Mn
c) Temperature d) Volume
c) Cu d) Zn
60. The first law of thermodynamic for isothermal
71. Which of the following is present in haemoglobin ?
process is
a) Fe b) Au
a) q = – W b) U = W
c) Pb d) Cd
c) U = qv d) U = – qv
72. An example of bidentate ligand is
61. Specific conductance is more for
a) Ethylene triamine b) Cyanide ion
a) 1 M C6 H12 O6 b) 1 M KCl c) Ethylene diamine d) EDTA
c) 1 M C12 H22 O11 d) 1 M urea 73. Cis platin compound is used in treatment of
62. In the cell represented by a) Malaria b) AIDS
Pb(s) | Pb++(1 M) || Ag+(1 M) | Ag c) Leukemia d) Yellow fever
The reducing agent is
74. Sodium alkoxide Ether..
R–X 
a) Pb b) Pb++
c) Ag d) Ag+ The reaction is known as
63. Dependence of rate on concentration is expressed a) Finkelstein reaction b) Swart reaction
by c) Frankland reaction d) Williamson reaction
a) Rate law b) Order of reaction NH3
Br 
75. Mg  x, x = ?
c) Molecularity d) Law of mass action
a) CH3 –CH2 –CH3 b) CH 4
64. Number of reactant molecule taking part in a
reaction is c) CH2 =CH2 d) CH3 –CH3
a) Order of reaction Me. chloride
76. Chloro benzene 
Sodium / Dryether y, where
b) Molecularity of reaction
c) Rate of reaction y is
d) Complex reaction a) 2-methyl chlorobenzene
65. Which o f t he fo llowing can be used as b) 4-methyl chlorobenzene
anaesthesia ? c) Methyl benzene
a) N2 O b) NO d) 2,4,6-trimethyl chlorobenzene
c) NCl3 d) NO 2 77. The alcohol used as beverage ?
66. Oxidation state of perhalic acid is a) Methyl alcohol b) Ethyl alcohol
a) + 4 b) + 5 c) n-propyl alcohol d) Iso-propyl alcohol
c) + 6 d) + 7
DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 7 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024

Al2O3 89. DMT and glycol is used in preparation of


78. Cu
A  CH 3  CH 2  OH  B, a) Nylon-6 b) Nylon-6,6
A and B respectively are c) Polyester d) Bakelite
a) Alkene, alkanal b) Alkyne, alkanal 90. Which of the following is not example of ionic
c) Alkanal, alkene d) Alkanal, alkyne hydride ?
79. Phenol react with bromine water in the ratio of a) NaH b) CaH2
......... to give 2,4,6-tribromo phenol. c) CsH d) GeH
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 91. Fire extinguisher contain H2SO4 and
c) 1 : 3 d) 2 : 1 a) NaHCO 3 b) Na 2 CO 3
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) CaCO 3
80. Clemmensen reduction is .......... reaction.
a) Dehydration b) Deoxygenation H2S
92. MgBr   x, where x is
c) Decarboxylation d) De-electronation
a) b)
81. Ketone HCN  x, where x is
c) d)
a) Cyanohydrine b) Cyanide
c) Alkane d) Alkene Baeyers
93.  A, where A is
Reagent 
CH3
82. on reductive ozonolysis yields. a) Aldehyde b) Ketone
c) Glycol d) Carboxylic acid
a) 6-oxo heptanal b) 6-oxo heptanoic acid 94. Which of the following do not undergo hydrolysis?
c) 6-hydroxy heptanal d) 3-hydroxy pentanal a) NaCl b) NH4 Cl
83. Benzene diazonium chloride react with HBF4 to c) CH 3 COONa d) CH 3 COONH 4
give fluorobenzene. This reaction is known as 95. Acidic buffer contain
a) Sandmeyers b) Gattermann a) Weak acid + its salt of weak base
c) Balz-schiemann d) Friedal Craft b) Strong acid + its salt of weal base
84. Which of the following is basic in nature ? c) Weak acid + its salt of strong base
d) Weak acid + its salt of weak acid
a) Valine b) Tyrosine
96. Which among the following solid is non-polar solid?
c) Arginine d) Leucine
a) Hydrogen chloride b) Sulphur dioxide
85. Aniline treated with nitrous acid, followed by
c) Water d) Carbondioxide
hydrolysis gives
97. Semi-conductor are manufactured by addition of
a) Cumene b) Phenyl cyanide
impurities of
c) Carbolic acid d) Phenyl isocyanide
a) s-block b) actinoids
86. The action of nitrous acid on aliphatic primary amine
c) lanthanoids d) p-block elements
gives
98. Which of the following show Frenkel and Schottky
a) Alkyl nitrile b) Alkyl isocyanide
defect ?
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) Alcohol a) AgI b) NaCl
87. .......... contain code of life. c) AgCl d) KCl
a) Vitamin b) Carbohydrates 99. Nono material in which one dimension is less than
c) Nucleic acid d) Minerals 100 nm is used for making ?
88. The monomer used in preparation of teflon a) Nano ring b) Micro capsule
a) CCl2 =CCl2 c) Nano wire d) Thin film
b) CF2 =CF2 100. The EAN of [Mn(Cl)6] – is4

c) E caprolactum a) 33 b) 34
d) Hexa methylene diamine c) 35 d) 36
DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 8 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024
MATHEMATICS c) (~ p  ~ q)  (~ p  ~ q)
101. cos2 48° – sin2 12° = d) (~ p  ~ q)  (~ p  ~ q)
108. p  (q  r) is logically equivalent to
5 1 5 1 a) (p  q)  r b) (p  q)  (~ r)
a) b)
4 8 c) (p  q)  r d) (p  q)  (~ r)

3 1 3 1  2 3
c) d) 109. If A =   then adj.A =
4 2 2 4 1 

102. The locus of a point whose difference of distance  1 3  1 3


a)   4 2  b)   4 2 
from the points (3, 0) and (– 3, 0) is 4 is    

x2 y 2 x2 y 2 1 3   1 3
a)  1 b)  1 c)  4 2  d)   4 2 
4 5 5 4    
 1 2 3
x2 y 2 x2 y 2 110. If A =  2 4 5 , then A–1 =
c)  1 d)  1
2 3 3 2  
 3 5 6
103. The equation of the tangents to the circle
x2 + y2 – 20x + 12y + 11 = 0 having slope – 2 are 1 3 2  1 3 2 
 
a) y = – 2x + 11 and y = – 2x + 39 a)  3 3 1 b)  3 3 1
 
b) y = – 2x – 15 and y = – 2x + 39  2 1 0  2 1 0
c) y = – 2x – 11 and y = – 2x + 35  1 3 2 1 3 2 
d) y = – 2x – 11 and y = – 2x + 39  1  
c)  3 3  d) 1 2 1
104. Variance of the numbers 3, 7, 10, 18, 22, is equal  2 1 0 1 1 2 
to
111. The minimum value of z = 3x + y, subject to
a) 12 b) 6.4
2x + 3y  6, x + y  1, x, y  0 occurs at
c) 49.2 d) 49.2 a) (0, 2) b) (3, 0)
105. The probabilities of a student getting first class or c) (0, 1) d) (2, 1)
second class or third class in an examination are 112. The constraints – x1 + x2  1, – x1 + 3x2  9,
2 3 1 x1 , x2  0 define on
, , respectively. The probability that the a) bounded feasible space
7 5 10
student fails is b) unbounded feasible space
c) both bounded and unbounded space
6 11 d) no feasible space
a) b)
70 70
b sin B  c sin C
3 1 113. In  ABC, with usual notations 
c) d) sin (B  C)
35 70
a) c b) a + b + c
106. Which of the following is not a compound
c) b d) a
statement?
114. Principal solutions of the equation sin
a) It is cold or it is raining
2x + cos 2x = 0 where  < x < 2 are
b) Ram and Shyam are two brothers
c) Sita and Gita are dancing 7  11  9  13 
a) , b) ,
d) The sun has not set 8 8 8 8
107. Inverse of statement pattern (p  q)  (p  q) is 11  15  15  19 
a) (p  q)  (p  q) c) , d) ,
8 8 8 8
b) ~ (p  q)  (p  q)
DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 9 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024

 1  xy  1   1  yz  1   1  zx  1 
x  a y b z c
115. cot  c)  
  cot    cot   0 1 0
 xy   yz   zx 
a) 0 x  a y b z c
d)  
b) 1 1 0 1
c) cot –1 x + cot –1 y + cot –1 z 122. The equation of the perpendicular from the point
d)  (, , ) to the plane ax + by + cz + d = 0 is
116. In ABC, with usual notations, if b = 6, c = 3 and a) x + y + z = abc
b) a (x – ) + b (y – ) + c (z – ) = 0
 BC 1
tan    , then area of ABC = ? c) a (x – ) + b (y – ) + c (z – ) = abc
 2  3
a) 6 sq. units b) 18 sq. units x  y  z  
d)  
c) 12 sq. units d) 9 sq. units a b c
117. The unit vector parallel to the resultant vector of 123. The acut e angle bet ween t he line

2 iˆ  4 ˆj  5 kˆ and iˆ  2 ˆj  3 kˆ is 
r  iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ     iˆ  ˆj  kˆ  and the plane

a)
3 iˆ  6 ˆj  2 kˆ
b)
iˆ  ˆj  kˆ 
r  2 iˆ  ˆj  kˆ   5 is
7 3
1  2  1  2 
iˆ  ˆj  2 kˆ  iˆ  ˆj  8 kˆ a) cos  3  b) sin  3 
c) d)    
6 69

118. If a  iˆ  ˆj  2 kˆ , b  2 iˆ  ˆj  kˆ , c  3 iˆ  kˆ and 1  2  1  2 
c) tan  3  d) sin  
c  m a  nb , then m + n =    3

a) 0 b) 1 124. If the slopes of the lines Kx2 – 4xy + 5y2 = 0 differ


by 2, then K =
c) 2 d) – 1
119. If the vectors a iˆ  ˆj  kˆ, iˆ  b ˆj  kˆ, iˆ  ˆj  c kˆ, 21 21
a) b)
5 5
(a  b , c  1) are coplanar, t hen
1 1 1 5 4
   c) d)
1 a 1 b 1 c 21 5
a) 1 b) – 1 125. The orthocentre of the triangle formed by the lines
c) – 2 d) 5 x – 2y = 10 and 6x2 + xy – y2 = 0 is
a) (2, 4) b) (– 2, – 4)
120. If a line makes angles , ,  with co-ordinate
axes, then cos 2 + cos 2 + cos 2 = c) (– 2, 4) d) (2, – 4)
a) 0 b) – 1 100
 1 i 
c) 2 d) 1 126. If    a  bi, where a, b  R and
 1 i 
121. The equation of line passing through the point
(a, b, c) and parallel to Z-axis is i  1, then (a, b) is equal to
x  a y b z c a) (0, 1) b) (2, – 1)
a)  
1 1 0 c) (1, 0) d) (– 1, 2)

x  a y b z c
b)  
0 0 1
DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 10 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024
127. If [x] is gr eat est int eger funct ion and 134. The maximum value of the function
2 [2x – 5] – 1 = 7, then x lies in
y  e5 3 sin x  cos x is
9  9 
a)  , 5 b)  , 5  a) e2 b) e5
2  2 
c) e7 d) e8
9  9 
c)  , 5  d)  , 5 135. If P is a point on the segment AB of length 12 cm,
2  2  then the position of P for AP2 + BP2 to be minimum
4 x 3
is such that
 8 x 2  5 x  3  8 x 1
128. lim    a) P is the midpoint of segment AB
x  2 x 2  7 x  5
  b) P divides AB in the ratio 2 : 3 internally
a) 4 b) 2 c) P divides AB in the ratio 4 : 3 internally
1 d) P divides AB in the ratio 2 : 1 internally
c) 2 d)
2 2x
129. If the function f (x) is continuous on its domain 136. The function f ( x)  log (1  x)  is increasing
2 x
[– 2, 2], where
on
 sin ax a) (– 1, ) b) (– , )
 x 3 , 2  x  0
 c) (– 5, ) d) (– , 0)
f ( x)   x  5 , 0  x 1 ,
 2 137. A bakerman sells 5 types of cakes. Profit due to
 x  8  b, 1 x  2 sale of each type of cake is respectively ` 2, ` 2.5,
 ` 3, ` 1.5 and ` 1. The demands for these cakes
then 7a + b + 1 is equal to are 20 %, 5 %, 10 %, 50 % and 15 % respectively,
a) 12 b) 14 then the expected profit per cake is
c) 10 d) 11 a) ` 1.725 b) ` 0.1725
130. There are 6 periods in each working day of a c) ` 17.25 d) ` 0.01725
school. The number of ways one can arrange 5 138. It is observed that 25 % of the cases related to
subjects such that each is allowed at least one period child labour reported to the police station are
is solved. If 6 new cases are reported, then the
a) 720 b) 725 probability that at least 5 of them will be solved is
c) 3600 d) 5
19 19
2 a) b)
d x 1025 2048
131. If x2 + y2 = 1, then 
dy 2 6
a) x 3 b) y3 19 1
c) d)  
1 4096  4
c) – y3 d) 
x3 139. The p.d.f. of a continuous random variable X given
by
1 1  cos x dy
132. If y  tan , then 
1  cos x dx 1
f ( x )  , if 0  x  2
3 2
a) b) 0  0, otherwise
2
1 1 3
c) 1 d)  
2 and if a  P  X   , b  P  X   , t hen
 2  2
 dy  relation between a and b is
133. If y = 2ax and  dx   log 256, then a =
  x 1 a) a – b = 0 b) 2a = b = 0
a) 8 b) 4 c) 3a – b = 0 d) a – 2b = 0
c) 2 d) 3
DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 11 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024
146. The area of the region included between the
1 x4
140. If  dx  f ( x)  c, then  x  x5 dx  parabola y = x 2 and the line y = x is
x  x5
1 1
a) log x – f (x) + c b) f (x) + log x + c a) sq. units b) sq. units
3 6
1 5
c) f (x) – log x + c d) x f ( x)  c 1 2
5 c) sq. units d) sq. units
4 3
x 4  x2  1 147. The degree of t he different ial equat ion
141.  x 2  x  1 dx  2/3 1/2
 d2y   dy 
 2 y  are
x3 x 2 x3 x 2  dx   dx 
a)   xc b)   xc
3 2 3 2
a) 4 b) 2
3 2 3 2 c) 3 d) 1
x x x x
c)   xc d)   xc
3 2 3 2 148. The differential equation of y = eax is
dy dy
1 x  a)  y log x b)  x log x
142. If  1  sin x dx  tan  2  a   b, then a = dx dx
dy dy
  c) x  y log y d) y  x log y
a) b)  dx dx
4 6
149. The differential equation of all non vertical line in a
  plane is
c) d) 
3 4
d2y d 2x
1 a) 0 b) 0
| x2| dx 2 dy 2
143.  dx is
1
x2
dy dx
c) 0 d) 0
a) 1 b) 0 dx dy
c) 2 d) – 1 150. Radium decomposes at the rate proportional to the
 /2
1
amount present at any time; if p percent of amount
144.  dx is disappears in one year, what percent of amount of
5  4 cos x
0 radium will be left after 2 years ?
 p  p2 
a)  b)  10 
2 a) 10   % b)  %
 10   10 
2 1 
c) tan 1   d) 2 2
3 3 6  p  p 
c)  10   % d)  10   %
 10   100 
 /2

145. If y = log (cot x), then  y dx 


0


a) b) 2
2
c) 1 d) 0
DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 12 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024

Space for Rough Work


DSCL_2023-2024 PCM - 13 MHT-CET Full Sy. Test-03_07.04.2024

12th CET - Full Syllabus Test-03_ 2023-24


Date : 07/04/2024

PHYSICS
01. c 02. b 03. d 04. c 05. d 06. c 07. c 08. b 09. c 10. d
11. b 12. c 13. d 14. d 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. a
21. a 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. a 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. a
31. a 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. a 38. a 39. c 40. c
41. c 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. d

CHEMISTRY
51. a 52. a 53. b 54. b 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. c 60. a
61. b 62. a 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. d 67. a 68. d 69. b 70. d
71. a 72. c 73. c 74. d 75. d 76. c 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. b
81. a 82. a 83. c 84. c 85. c 86. d 87. c 88. b 89. c 90. d
91. c 92. a 93. c 94. a 95. c 96. d 97. d 98. a 99. d 100. c

MATHEMATICS
101. b 102. a 103. d 104. d 105. d 106. b 107. d 108. a 109. a 110. b
111. c 112. b 113. d 114. c 115. a 116. d 117. a 118. c 119. a 120. b
121. b 122. d 123. b 124. a 125. d 126. c 127. c 128. c 129. a 130. c
131. d 132. d 133. c 134. c 135. a 136. a 137. a 138. c 139. a 140. a
141. a 142. d 143. c 144. c 145. d 146. b 147. a 148. c 149. a 150. c

You might also like