Part 2 Pre-Compre Q&A c.

Invasive alien species

d. None of the above
1. Is the variety of all life forms on 7. This refers to the interactions between
Earth – plants, animals, the human social system and the
microorganisms. ecosystem Interactions between the human
a. Water area social system and the ecosystem.
b. Saltwater a. Human Interactions
c. Forest Ecosystem b. Human-Ecosystem Interactions
d. Biodiversity c. Environmental Interactions
2. Is a community of trees, shrubs, herbs, d. Human-Environmental Interactions
microorganisms and animals, the trees 8. Also known as environmental and natural
being the most obvious living structure. resources law, is a collective term
a. Environment describing the network of treaties, statutes,
b. Freshwater regulations, common and customary laws
c. Forest Ecosystem addressing the effects of human activity on
d. Wetlands the natural environment.
3. Through the process of _________, a. Natural Law
green plants capture sunlight energy and b. Natural Resources Law
combine it with carbon dioxide and water to c. Environmental Treaties
produce carbohydrates and oxygen. d. Environmental Law
a. Chemosynthesis 9. Environmental laws cover a wide range of
b. Photosynthesis topics including the following, except.
c. Ecosystem a. Air Quality
d. Environment b. Water Quality
4. They break down dead bodies of plants c. Land Quality
and animals into simpler compounds and d. Waste Management
return inorganic nutrients to the soil 10. This refers to a group of indigenous
environment. plants in an ecosystem of a geographical
a. Consumers region.
b. Decomposers a. Flora
c. Primary producers b. Fauna
d. Buyer c. Plant
5. Is the capacity of natural processes and d. Animals
components to provide goods and services 11. This refers to any variety of means
that may satisfy human needs either directly employed to limit damage done to the
or indirectly.” environment by the discharge of harmful
a. Environment substances and energies.
b. Ecosystem function a. Pollution control
c. Ecosystem b. Environmental protection
d. Biodiversity c. Conservation
6. The following are the threats to d. Environmental sustainability
biodiversity, except 12. The following are the specific means of
a. Climate change pollution control, except.
b. Pollution a. Recycling
 b. hazardous-waste management b. Ecosystem components
c. disposal system c. Ecosystem
d. Deforestation d. Ecosystem function
13. Variability among living organisms from 20. Materials disposed of illegally are
all sources including, inter alia, terrestrial, generally considered abandoned, and
marine and other aquatic ecosystems subsequently, abandoned materials are
a. Biodiversity generally considered to be
b. Abiotic (Physical) Components a. Toxic
c. Biological Productivity b. Substance
d. Primary Producers c. Waste
14. The non – living elements such as d. Trash
sunlight, water, air and soil are called? 21. The following are examples of
a. Biodiversity environmental crimes, except.
b. Abiotic (Physical) Components a. illegal logging
c. Biological Productivity b. dumping of hazardous waste
d. Primary Producers c. regulated fishing
15. They are called the reducer organisms d. killing and destruction of wildlife
such as bacteria or fungi. 22. What do you call this process where the
a. Biotic Components green plants capture sunlight energy and
b. Trophic level combine it with carbon dioxide and water to
c. Decomposer produce carbohydrates and oxygen.
d. Food Chains a. Photosynthesis
16. Pathways along which nutrients pass b. Composition
through an ecosystem. c. Decomposition
a. Biotic Components d. Chemosynthesis
b. Trophic level 23. This refers to a straight line sequence of
c. Decomposer who eats whom in an ecosystem.
d. Food Chains a. food web
17. Is a complex system that deals with a b. food chain
network of living and non-living entities. c. man-made ecosystem
a. Environment d. natural ecosystem
b. Wildlife 24. This refers to a series of interlocking
c. Biodiversity food chains in an ecosystem.
d. Mother nature a. food web
18. Is the interaction of the community b. food chain
(living components) and the non-living c. man-made ecosystem
environment. d. natural ecosystem
a. Environment 25. Is the circulation of a chemical element
b. Ecosystem (e.g. carbon, nitrogen and oxygen) between
c. Biodiversity abiotic and biotic compartments of the
d. Mother nature ecosystem.
19. This refers to a functional unit of nature a. food web
consisting of abiotic and biotic components. b. food chain
a. Ecosystem structure c. biogeochemical cycle
 d. natural ecosystem
26. Fundamental allocation of costs but not
automatically also as a principle of
allocation of responsibility. Cost incurred to
avoid, remove and compensate damage
should be allocated to the party responsible
a. Polluters Pay principle
b. Principle of prevention
c. Principle of Cooperation
d. Principle of Responsibility
27. When was the International Union for
Conservation of Nature’s Red List of
Threatened Species established?
a. 1954
b. 1964
c. 1955
d. 1965
28. It is a powerful tool to inform and
catalase action for biodiversity conservation
and policy change, critical to protecting the
natural resources we need to survive. It
provides information about range,
population size, habitat and ecology, use
and/or trade, threats, and conservation
actions that will help inform necessary
conservation decisions.
a. IUCN Red list
b. UN Red lis
c. UCIN Red list
d. NCUI Red list
29. The court shall have this period from the
filing of the complaint to try and decide the
case in relation to environmental cases.
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 6 months
d. 3 years
30. Any private person who is authorized or
deputized by the court to serve summons,
orders and other court processes.
a. Clerk of the court
b. Judge of the court
c. Officer of the court
d. Deputy of the court
31. This court can issue a TRO or writ of
preliminary injunction against lawful actions
of government agencies that enforce
environmental laws or prevent violations
thereof.
a. Precautionary principle
b. Continuing mandamus
c. Strategic lawsuit against public
participation (SLAPP)
d. Supreme Court
32. Refers to an action whether civil,
criminal or administrative, brought against
any person, institution or any government
agency or local government unit or its
officials and employees, with the intent to
harass, vex, exert undue pressure or stifle
any legal recourse that such person,
institution or government agency has taken
or may take in the enforcement of
environmental laws, protection of the
environment or assertion of environmental
rights.
a. Precautionary principle
b. Continuing mandamus
c. Strategic lawsuit against public
participation (SLAPP)
d. Supreme Court
33. Is a writ issued by a court in an
environmental case directing any agency or
instrumentality of the government or officer
thereof to perform an act or series of acts
decreed by final judgment which shall
remain effective until judgment is fully
satisfied.
a. Precautionary principle
b. Continuing mandamus
c. Strategic lawsuit against public
participation (SLAPP)
d. Supreme Court
34. States that when human activities may
lead to threats of serious and irreversible
damage to the environment that is
scientifically plausible but uncertain, actions
shall be taken to avoid or diminish that
threat.
a. Precautionary principle
b. Continuing mandamus
c. Strategic lawsuit against public
participation (SLAPP)
d. Supreme Court
35. Refers to a judicially-approved
settlement between concerned parties
based on public interest and
public policy to protect and preserve the
environment.
a. Environmental protection order
(EPO)
b. Mineral
c. By-product or derivatives
d. Consent decree
36. Means any part taken or substance
extracted from wildlife, in raw or in
processed form including stuffed animals
and herbarium specimens.
a. Environmental protection order
(EPO)
b. Mineral
c. By-product or derivatives
d. Consent decree
37. Refers to all naturally occurring
inorganic substances in solid, gas, liquid, or
any intermediate state excluding energy
materials such as coal, petroleum, natural
gas, radioactive materials and geothermal
energy
a. Environmental protection order
(EPO)
b. Mineral
c. By-product or derivatives
d. Consent decree
38. An order issued by the court directing or
enjoining any person or government agency
to perform or desist from performing an act
in order to protect, preserve or rehabilitate
the environment.
a. Environmental protection order
(EPO)
b. Mineral
c. By-product or derivatives
d. Consent decree
39. Under what branch of government does
the EPA belong?
a. Executive branch
b. Judicial branch
c. Legislative branch
d. Law enforcement branch
40. Who may file an action to enforce rights
or obligations under environmental laws?
a. any person
b. any filipino citizen
c. any person with legal age
d. all of the above
41. This law articulates that the state shall
promote national awareness of the role of
natural resources in economic growth and
the importance of environmental
conservation and ecological balance
towards sustained national development.
a. RA 9512
b. RA 6969
c. PD 1586
d. RA 9003
42. The law ensures proper segregation,
collection, storage, treatment and disposal
of solid waste through the formulation and
adaptation of best eco-waste products
a. RA 9512
b. RA 6969
c. PD 1586
d. RA 9003
43. What does "biodiversity" refer to?
a. The number of people living in a
particular area.
b. The variety of plant and animal
species in an ecosystem.
c. The amount of water available in a
region.
d. The average temperature in a given
year.
44. The following are rights of the
Indigenous cultural communities that should
be exercise under the Republic Act 837
except_______?
a. Right to redemption
b. Right to transfer land/property
c. Right to Ancestral domain
d. Right to travel and ask support
45. The following acts and omissions shall
be considered unlawful under Republic Act
6969 except.
a. Knowingly use a chemical substance
or mixture which is imported,
manufacture, processed, or
distributed in violation of this Act or
implementing rules and regulations
or orders;
b. Failure or refusal to submit reports,
notices or other information, access
to records as required by this Act, or
permit inspection of establishment
where chemicals are manufactured,
processed, stored or otherwise held
c. Failure or refusal to comply with the
pre-manufacture and pre-importation
requirements
d. Habitat loss and degradation cut
across ecosystems and impacts on
other due to their interrelatedness
and interconnectedness.
46. What does Green Laws primarily
focused on?
a. Habitat function
b. Public safety and welfare
c. Environmental protection and
conservation
d. Regulation of alcohol sales
47. Considered as one of the most
influential aspects that affect values and the
environment.
a. Religion
b. Church
c. Government
d. Community
48. Brown Laws are associated for the
purpose of ___________?
a. Laws governing firearms and
weapons
b. Environmental regulations on waste
management
c. Regulations for tobacco and
smoking
d. Animal rights and protection
49. RA 7586 An Act Providing for The
Establishment and Management of National
Integrated Protected Areas, the following
categories are protected areas under this
law except.
a. Natural monument
b. Wildlife sanctuary
c. Reservoir
d. Resource reserve
50. Which of the following "Kyoto Protocol"
an international treaty that addresses for?
a. Ozone depletion
b. Climate change
c. Desertification
d. Primary Producers
51. Which of the following is an abiotic
factor in an ecosystem?
a. Predators
b. Plants
c. Soil
d. Herbivores
52. In cases of referral to mediation, the
court shall immediately refer the parties or
their counsel, and if authorized by their
clients, to the Philippine Mediation Center
(PMC) unit for purposes of mediation. When
does the mediation conducted from the
receipt?
a. Within the period of 30 days
b. Within the period of 15 days
c. Within the period of 10 days
d. Within the period of 65 days
53. Within ________from the time the
petition is submitted for decision, the court
shall render judgment
granting or denying the privilege of the writ
of kalikasan.
 a. within 30 days
b. within 60 days
c. within 1 year
d. within 90 days
54. In the conduct of ocular inspection the
order of motion must show the necessary
things to establish the magnitude of
violation and supported by ____________
having the personal knowledge of the
violation or threatened violation of
environmental law.
a. Affidavit of the Petitioner
b. Affidavit of the desistance
c. Affidavit of the Court
d. Affidavit of the witness
55. Within how many days upon the filing of
a citizen suit, the court shall issue an order
which shall contain a brief description of the
cause of action and the reliefs prayed for,
requiring all interested parties to manifest
their interest to intervene in the case?
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
56. This principle is based on the concept of
balance to maintain economic development
on the one hand and environmental
protection on the other hand.
a. Polluter Pays Principle
b. User Pays Principle
c. Precautionary Principle
d. Principle of Proportionality
57. This approach aims the study of
relations between humans or society and
nature, through a multidisciplinary
approach.
a. Adhoc Approach
b. Human Ecology Approach
c. Political Approach
d. Ecosystem Approach
58. Which law recognizes and protects the
rights of indigenous peoples in the
Philippines?
a. Indigenous Peoples' Rights Act
(IPRA)
b. Cultural Heritage Preservation Act
c. National Cultural Heritage Act
d. Indigenous Cultural Protection Act
59. Which law is primarily concerned with
the preservation and protection of tangible
and intangible cultural heritage in the
Philippines?
a. Indigenous Peoples' Rights Act
b. National Cultural Heritage Act
c. Cultural Preservation and
Recognition Act
d. Heritage Conservation and
Protection Act
60. This is called a finished or unfinished
wood product whose components or parts
are taken apart for ease in packing,
handling, and transporting to the market or
end-users?
a. certificate of verification
b. Finished Product
c. Semi-finished product
d. Knocked-down
61. Refers to networks from compromised
computers that are controlled externally by
remote hackers.
a. DDoS Attacks
b. Botnets
c. Cyberstalking
d. PUPs
62. This cybercrime occurs when a criminal
gains access to a user’s personal
information to steal funds, access
confidential information, or participate in tax
or health insurance fraud.
a. Online Scams
b. Prohibited/Illegal
c. Identity Theft
d. Phishing
63. Cyber terrorism is one distinct kind of
crime in this category.
a. Cybercrimes Against Property
b. Cybercrimes Against Person
 c. Cybercrimes Against Government c. Hacking
d. Cybercrimes Against Terrorism d. Phishing
64. They are readymade tools criminals can 70. This type of training includes email
buy online and use against anyone with a simulated phishing campaigns to
computer. employees, monitoring results, reinforcing
a. Botnets training, and improving on simulation
b. Exploit kits results.
c. PUPs a. Phishing awareness training
d. Phishing b. Compromised credentials detection
65. Also known as orgware or humanware. c. Ransomware prevention
a. Computer software d. Threat intelligence program
b. Computer System 71. This type of cyberattack can make life
c. Computer hardware easier in the moment, but can come back to
d. Liveware haunt that user later on.
66. It refers to the physical, tangible a. Ddos attack
computer equipment and devices, which b. Credential Reuse
provide support for major functions such as c. Malware
input, processing (internal storage, d. Phishing
computation, and control), output, 72. This happens when an attacker sends
secondary storage (for data and programs), you an email that appears to be from
and communication. someone you trust, like your boss or a
a. INPUT DEVICES company you do business with.
b. KEYING DEVICES a. Malware
c. SOFTWARE b. Online Scam
d. HARDWARE c. Phishing
67. It temporarily stores information that d. Cyberattack
theCPU uses while the computer is on. 73. It effectively employs malicious codes
a. ALU and manipulates backend databases to
b. RAM access information that is not intended to be
c. ROM displayed.
d. CPU a. SQL attack
68. It is a medium that connects different b. XSS attack
computers altogether and makes sure that c. Password attack
the connection is eternal. d. DDos attack
a. Server 74. This type of cybercrime is also known as
b. Internet sniffing or snooping.
c. Transmission Lines a. Insider Threat
d. Clients b. Eavesdropping attack
69. It is any form of malicious activity c. Drive by attack
targeting IT systems and/or the people d. Phishing attack
using them to gain unauthorized access to 75. It causes fragmentation in the general
systems and data they contain. sequence of Internet Protocol (IP) packets
a. Cybercrime and sends these fragmented packets to the
b. Cyberattack victim’s machine.
 a. Trojan Horse 80. Crimes that primarily target computer
b. Malware networks or devices may include:
c. Teardrop attack a. Denial-of-service attacks
d. PUPs b. Computer viruses
76. It is a type of malicious software c. Malware
program that attempts to disguise itself to d. All of the foregoing
appear useful, it appears like a standard 81. It includes laws related to computer
application but causes damage to data files crimes, internet crimes, information crimes,
once executed. communications crimes, and technology
a. Trojan Horse crimes.
b. Virus a. Cybercrime
c. Malware b. Cybercrime Laws
d. Web Attack c. Anti-cybercrime Laws
77. It is a type of hacking that the hackers d. Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012
sometimes request money in return for 82. It is the taking and maintaining of
promising to stop the attacks, or sometimes measures to manage data safely, such as
just want to cause preventing security breaches or the loss or
chaos or impairment in operation. damage of data, and guaranteeing the
a. Identity Theft safety and reliability of information and
b. Cyber Extortion telecommunications systems and networks
c. Cyber Blackmail in Japan.
d. Feed Hacking a. Computer Crimes Act
78. This happens when criminals approach b. PIPEDA
and coerce children through chat rooms in c. Basic Act on Cybersecurity
order to get media files afterwards exploited d. Act on Computer Crimes
for pornographic reasons. 83. This refers to a set of instructions
a. Child Pornography executed by the computer to achieve
b. Cybersex intended results.
c. Child soliciting and Abuse a. Computer
d. Trafficking b. Computer data
79. It can be as simple as constant contact c. Computer system
with a person (ex: send an e-mail) who has d. Computer program
said they want no further contact with the 84. It is the act of listening to, recording,
sender, or it may also include sexual monitoring or surveillance of the content of
remarks, threats, harassment, pejorative communications, including procuring of the
labels, making someone the subject of content of data, either directly, through
ridicule in forums, and posting false access and use of a computer system or
statements that aims to humiliate an indirectly, through the use of electronic
individual. eavesdropping or tapping devices, at the
a. Cyber extortion same time that the communication is
b. Cyber Stalking occurring.
c. Cyber Bullying a. Access
d. Cybersquatting b. Interception
c. Wiretapping
 d. Alteration d. Data hiding analysis
85. A computer or a computer network, the 90. Analysis is the process of interpreting
electronic medium in which online the extracted data to determine their
communication takes place. significance to the case.
a. Internet a. True
b. Cyber b. False
c. Social Media c. Maybe true
d. Cybercrime d. Maybe false
86. The intentional or reckless alteration, 91. Data investigation does not require to
damaging, deletion or deterioration of maintain a copy of chain of custody
computer data, electronic document, or documentation.
electronic data message, without right, a. True
including the introduction or transmission of b. False
viruses. c. Maybe true
a. Data Interference d. Maybe false
b. Illegal Access 92. Never turn on or operate a suspect's
c. Illegal Interception computer during investigation if it is off.
d. System Interference Determine disk structure, model and size.
87. It is the information stored or transmitted a. True
in binary form that may be relied on in court. b. False
It can be found on a computer hard drive, a c. Maybe true
mobile phone, among other places. d. Maybe false
a. Computer data 93. In the preparation phase, its goal is to
b. Cyber collect, preserve, analyze the physical
c. Internet evidence and reconstruct what happened in
d. Digital evidence the crime scene.
88. First responders should remember that a. True
digital evidence may also contain physical b. False
evidence such as DNA, fingerprints, or c. Yes
serology. Physical evidence should be d. No
preserved for appropriate examination. 94. This warrant requires any person or
a. True service provider to
b. False disclose subscriber's information, traffic
c. Maybe true data, or relevant data in his/her or its
d. Maybe false possession or within 72 hours from receipt
89. During this stage the extraction of the of the order.
data from the drive is based on the file a. WDCD
system(s) present on the drive b. WSSECD
and may include data from such areas as c. WICD
active files, deleted files, file slack, and d. WECD
unallocated file space. 95. This type of warrant authorizes the law
a. Physical extraction enforcement authorities to listen to, record,
b. Logical extraction monitor, or conduct surveillance of the
c. Analysis of extracted data content of communications, including the
use of electronic eavesdropping or tapping
devices.
a. WDCD
b. WICD
c. WSSECD
d. WECD
96. Where to file the warrant to obtain
computer data?
a. MTC
b. RTC
c. Supreme Court
d. Court of Appeals
97. Who promulgated the Rule on
Cybercrime Warrants in 2018?
a. President
b. Supreme Court
c. RTC
d. Court of Appeals
98. How many days is the effective date of
the warrant to obtain computer data?
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
99. How many hours is the disclose
subscriber's information, traffic data, or
relevant data in his/her or its possession or
control upon receipt of warrant?
a. 24 hrs
b. 36 hrs
c. 72 hrs
d. 3 days
100. What type of warrant is similar to a
search warrant, except the subject matter is
computer data.
a. WDCD
b. WICD
c. WSSECD
d. WECD