CPJ Ultimate Atty - Fernandez Feb.2024

CHAPS ONLINE/ONSITE TUTORIAL SERVICES
CRIMINOLOGY ● PENOLOGY OFFICER EXAMINATION ● FIRE OFFICER EXAMINATION ● NAPOLCOM

3rd Floor Highland Lumber Bldg., cor. Macaraig St., Españ a Blvd., Sampaloc, Manila
Globe Contact no. (0926) – 056 – 8167; Email Address: noliboyingcad@gmail.com
FINAL COACHING IN CLJ
Compiled by Atty. Jingo G. Fernandez
Part 1
1. Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is not excluded by the law or these rules (rules of court) is a
statement that expresses:
A. Competent evidence C. Material evidence
B. Physical evidence D. Cumulative evidence
2. As a general rule, no evidence shall be admissible other than the original document itself, when the subject of inquiry is
its contents, expresses what rule?
A. Best evidence rule C. English rule
B. Parol evidence rule D. Secondary evidence rule
3. These are evidence which are addressed to the senses of the court.
I. Object evidence II. Circumstantial III. Real evidence IV. Documentary
A. I, II, III, IV C. II, IV
B. I, III D. I, II, III
4. A rule which states that when the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing, it is considered as containing all
the terms agreed upon and there can be, between the parties and their successors in interest, no evidence of such terms
other than the contents of the written agreement.
A. Best evidence rule C. Parol evidence rule
B. Secondary evidence rule D. Parole evidence
5. This is the declaration made by a person under the consciousness of an impending death.
A. Dying declaration
B. Declaration about pedigree
C. Declaration against interest
D. Post mortem statement
6. Statements made by a person while a startling occurrence is taking place or immediately prior or subsequent thereto,
with respect to the circumstances thereof is known as
A. Dying declaration C. Extrajudicial confession
B. Parts of the res gestae D. Admission
7. Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is not excluded by the law or the rules of court. The underlined
statement has reference to:
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Direct evidence
C. Cumulative evidence
D. Competency of evidence
8. Evidence must have such a relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its existence or non existence. Evidence on
collateral matters shall not be allowed except:
A. When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability or improbability of the fact in issue
B. When it directly imputes to the accused the commission of the crime
C. When it has tendency in reason to pinpoint the doer of the criminal act
D. When it changes the burden of proof
9. Which of the following does the court shall NOT or cannot make a judicial notice?
A. National customs and traditions
B. Existence and territorial extent of states
C. Forms of government and symbols of nationality
D. Admiralty and maritime courts of the world
10. Judicial notice may be either mandatory or discretionary. Which of the following statements may the court grant
discretionary judicial notice?
I. Matters which are of public knowledge
II. Matters which are capable of unquestionable demonstrations
III. Matters which are ought to be known to judges because of their judicial functions.
A. I, II C. II, IV
B. I, II, III D. I, III
11. An admission made by a party in the course of a proceeding does not require proof. How may the admitter contradict
such an admission?
I. Showing that the admission was made by palpable mistake
II. Showing that no such admission was made
III. Showing that he was compelled by the police to make such an admission
A. III only C. I, II, III
B. I, II D. II, IV
1
12. It consists of writings or any material containing letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols or other modes of written
expressions offered as proof of their contents.
A. Object evidence C. Documentary evidence
B. Prima facie evidence D. Real evidence
13. Which evidence that are addressed to the senses of the court?
A. Object evidence C. Expert evidence
B. Documentary evidence D. Circumstantial evidence
14. What are the qualifications of a witness?

a. Person who can perceive
b. Person who believes in God
c. Person who can make perception to others
A. a, b, c C. a, c
B. a, b D. c only
15. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, or descendants or ascendants or children is the
A. Family first doctrine C. Filial privilege
B. Parental privilege D. Parental and filial privilege
16. Declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged, or of any offense necessarily included therein
is known as-
A. Admission C. Extrajudicial confession
B. Confession D. Acknowledgement
17. It is the examination in chief of a witness by the party presenting him on the facts relevant to the issue:
A. Direct examination C. Re direct examination
B. Cross examination D. Clarificatory examination
18. Upon the termination of the direct examination, the witness may be cross examined by the adverse party as to any
matter stated in the direct examination or connected therewith to test his accuracy and truthfulness.
A. Direct examination C. Re direct examination
B. Cross examination D. Presentation of evidence
19. What do you call that question which suggests to the witness the answer which the examining party desires to hear;
therefore that question is not permitted?
A. Misleading question C. Leading question
B. Direct examination D. Control questions
20. What is that question where one assumes as true a fact not yet testified to by the witness, or contrary to that which he
has previously stated? Also this kind of questioning is not allowed in courts.
A. Misleading question C. Leading question
B. Interrogative question D. Peak of tension question
21. An extrajudicial confession made by the accused shall not be sufficient ground for conviction unless it is corroborated
by evidence of:
A. Two witnesses C. Prima facie evidence
B. Probable cause D. Corpus delicti
22. In cases filed before administrative or quasi judicial bodies, a fact may be deemed established if it is supported by
substantial evidence. What is substantial evidence?
A. That evidence which produces moral certainty
B. That evidence which produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind
C. That evidence which pinpoints a person as the absolute doer of an act
D. That amount of relevant evidence which a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to justify a conclusion.
23. How would you describe the testimonial knowledge rule?

A. A witness can only testify to facts derived from his own perception
B. A witness cannot be allowed to testify on what he overheard
C. A witness must be an adult and must be truthful
D. None of the above
24. What must evidence be in order that it may become relevant to the issue at point?
A. It must have a direct bearing and actual connection to the facts in issue
B. It must not be remote to the issue at point
C. It must not be excluded by the law, the rules and most especially the constitution
D. Both A and C
25. What do you call that recognition by the court without the introduction of evidence? It means that courts will admit
without proof of facts those matters of public concern which are known by all well-informed persons.
A. Judicial notice C. Extrajudicial confession
B. Judicial confession D. Hearsay
26. How would you classify maps, x-rays, charts and the like as evidence?
2
A. Physical C. Demonstrative
B. Object D. Real
27. In cases filed before administrative or quasi judicial bodies, a fact may be deemed established if it is supported by
or that amount of evidence which a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to justify a conclusion.
A. Substantial evidence
B. Preponderance of evidence
C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D. Clear and convincing evidence
28. Known as the duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by
the amount of evidence required by law.
A. Burden of evidence C. Corpus delicti
B. Burden of proof D. Prima facie
29. When an instrument is partly written in words and partly of a printed form, which of them shall prevail if they are
inconsistent to one another?
A. The former C. Either of them
B. The latter D. Both of them
30. What do you call that evidence which standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted, is sufficient to maintain the
proposition affirmed?
A. Expert evidence C. Prima facie evidence
B. Secondary evidence D. Direct evidence
31. Any evidence having any value in reason as tending to prove any matter provable in an action:
A. Object evidence C. Relevant evidence
B. Testimonial evidence D. False evidence
32. The opinion of a (ordinary) witness may be received in evidence regarding:

1. The identity of a person about whom he has adequate knowledge
2. A handwriting with which he has sufficient familiarity
3. The mental sanity of a person with whom he is sufficiently acquainted
4. Impressions of the emotions, behavior, condition or appearance of a person
A. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4 only
33. Which among the following is NOT an exception to the best evidence rule?
1. When the original has been lost or destroyed or cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on the part of the offeror;
2. When the original is in the custody or under the control of the party against whom the evidence is offered, and the latter
fails to produce it after reasonable notice;
3. When the original consists of numerous accounts or other documents which cannot be examined in court without great
loss of time;
4. When the original is a public record in the custody of a public officer or is recorded in a public office
5. When the original is already photocopied and the same is in the possession of the party offering to prove it as evidence
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only D. 5 only
34. Which among the following is NOT an instance of a disputable presumption?

1. A person on board a vessel lost during a sea voyage or an aircraft missing, who has not been heard of for four (4) years
since the loss of the vessel or aircraft is presumed dead.
2. A member of the armed forces who has taken part in armed hostilities, and has been missing for four (4) years is
presumed dead.
3. A person who has been in danger of death under other circumstances whose existence has not been known for four (4)
years is presumed dead
4. A married person who has been absent for four (4) consecutive years. If there is danger of death under the above
circumstances two years absent is only what is needed to presume him dead.
A. 1 and 2 C. 3 only
B. 4 only D. None
35. Exceptions to the Res Inter Alios Acta Alteri Noceri Non Debet Rule are:
1. Dying declaration
2. Admission by co partner
3. Admission by co conspirator
4. Admission by privies
5. Admission by silence
Which of the following is TRUE?

A. 1, 3 and 5 only C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3
36. A witness can only testify to facts which he knows of his personal knowledge, that is which are derived from his own
perception.
A. Testimonial knowledge
B. Character evidence rule
C. Hearsay evidence rule
D. Res gestae
37. How can evidence of survivorship be proven?

1. By direct evidence 2. By indirect evidence
3. By circumstantial evidence
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 only

38. Under the Revised Penal Code, if the rape victim is a minor, a higher penalty is imposed by the law for the crime
committed. What would be the best evidence to prove the actual age of a supposed rape victim?
I. Original birth certificate
II. Certified copy of the birth certificate
III. Testimony of the mother regarding age of her daughter
A. I, II, III C. I, III
B. I, II D. II, III
39. It means the cognizance of certain facts which judges take and act on without proof or introduction of evidence because
they already know them.
A. Judicial notice C. Extra sensory perception
B. Omnipotence D. Judicial supremacy
40. All of the following are exceptions to the parol evidence rule EXCEPT:
A. An intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the written agreement
B. The failure of the written agreement to express the true intent and agreement of the parties thereto;
C. The validity of the written agreement and the existence of other terms agreed upon to by the parties or successors in
interest after the execution of the written agreement.
D. The fairness of the terms and conditions in the written agreement of the parties.
41. Evidence obtained in violation of the constitutional rights of a person are NOT admissible because they are proscribed
by this rule:
A. Exclusionary rule C. Constitution
B. Miranda rule D. Bill of rights
42. If a document is executed in duplicate or multiplicate form, which shall be considered as the original?
A. The first one produced
B. The first document to be notarized
C. The first to be signed by the party
D. Each is deemed an original
43. In cases, an offer of compromise is not an admission of liability and is not admissible against the offeror.
A. Criminal C. Administrative
B. Civil D. Labor
44. How do you call an admission made by a party in the course of a judicial proceeding?
A. Extrajudicial confession C. Both A and B
B. Judicial confession D. Hearsay
45. How does one classify a carbon copy of a document?

A. It is a duplicate original B. It is neither of the above
C. A secondary evidence D. It is substitutionary evidence
46. It is the duty of a person to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by the
amount of evidence required by law.
A. Burden of evidence C. Preponderance of evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence D. Burden of proof
47. Where a private document is more than thirty (30) years old, is produced from a custody in which it would naturally
be found, and is unblemished by any alterations, then it may be called as:
A. Best evidence C. Corpus delicti
B. Documentary evidence D. Ancient document
48. An extrajudicial confession shall not be sufficient for conviction, unless corroborated by evidence of:
A. Two witness C. Corpus delicti
B. Affidavit D. Police blotter
49. This rule forbids the addition to or contradiction of the terms of a written agreement. Oral testimony cannot prevail over
the written agreement of the parties. The purpose of this rule is to give stability to agreements. It came from the French
word, meaning word of mouth or oral statement.
A. Best evidence rule C. Fruit of the poisonous tree
4
B. Exclusionary rule D. Parol evidence rule
50. Which of the following statement that may define original document?
1. The original of a document is one the contents of which are the subject of inquiry
2. When a document is in two or more copies executed at or about the same time, with identical contents, all such copies
are originals
3. When an entry is repeated in the regular course of business, one being copied from another at or near the time of the
transaction, all entries are originals
A. Only 1 C. 1, 2 and 3
51. Alibi is said to be the weakest defense. It is a plea that the accused is somewhere else at the time of the commission of
the offense. However, in what instance may the defense of alibi acquire a commensurate value in the defense of the accused?
A. Where no positive and proper identification of the accused has been satisfactorily made
B. When the accused attempts to flee from prosecution
C. When the evidence for the defense is equally weak
D. Where the judge is confused about the facts of the case thus necessitating the acquittal of the accused.
52. How may one prove the contents of an original document when it has become unavailable such as when it has been
lost or destroyed?
1. By a copy thereof
2. By recital of its contents in some authentic document
3. By the testimony of witnesses
4. Obtain certification of authenticity
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. only 1
B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only
53. When the original of a document is in the custody of a public officer or is recorded in a public office, how may one
prove its contents?
A. By Xeroxed copy thereof
B. By recital of its contents
C. By certified copy issued by public officer in custody
D. By having the document authenticated by the City Mayor
54. According to the disqualification by reason of marriage rule, neither the husband nor the wife during their marriage
may testify against the other without the consent of the affected spouse. This rule has no application in:
A. Civil case by one against the other spouse
B. Criminal case for a crime committed by one against the other or the latter’s ascendants or descendants
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
55. The Latin “Res Inter Alios Acta Nocere Non Debet” means:
A. The law may be harsh but it is the law
B. The welfare of the people is the supreme law
C. There is no crime if there is no law punishing it
D. The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of another.
56. A witness can only testify to those facts which he knows of his personal knowledge, that is which are derived from his
own perception. This rule illustrates what rule?
A. Hearsay rule C. Direct testimony rule
B. Res inter alios acta rule D. Both A and C
57. It is an old rule on evidence which states that where on one point the witness has lied, his testimony upon another point
may be disregarded because: false in one thing false in everything”.
A. Falsus in uno falsus in omnibus
B. Omnibus election code
C. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus
D. Par in parem non habet imperium
58. When an inculpatory circumstances are capable of two or more inferences one which is consistent with the presumption
of innocence and the other compatible with guilt, then the accused must be acquitted.
A. Corpus delicti
B. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C. Equipoise doctrine
D. Rule of presumption of regularity
59. A and B are husband and wife. C is their only daughter. C was raped by A while B was abroad. C confided to B that she
was raped by A. Can B testify against her own husband for the rape of her daughter?
A. No, because of the disqualification by reason of marriage
B. No, because only C, the victim may testify against A
C. Yes, because the disqualification by reason of marriage does not apply in a criminal case for a crime committed by one
against the other or the latter’s descendants or ascendants
D. Yes, if the judge permits B to testify without objection from the defense.
5
60. W is totally blind since birth. One night while walking on his way home, he heard the following utterances, “Pedro
patay ka na hayop ka!” Then another one uttered “Juan huwag, anung kasalanan ko sa iyo?” A few seconds thereafter
gunshots were heard and somebody died. Can W be presented as a witness?
A. No because he is blind and he did not see who the killer was
B. No because he can never be considered as an eyewitness
C. Yes because of what he heard and he can perceive and make this perception to others
D. Yes because aside from the fact that he is not disqualified W is also not a co conspirator to the killing
60. When may the accused file a motion to quash the complaint or information?
A. Anytime before conviction
B. Immediately after conviction
C. Anytime before entering his plea (or before arraignment)
D. Before the filing of the complaint or information
61. Which of the following is NOT a ground for a motion to quash?

A. That the facts charged do not constitute an offense
B. That the court trying the case has no jurisdiction over the offense charged
C. That more than one offense is charged except when a single punishment for various offenses is prescribed by law
D. That the accused is not the real perpetrator of the crime charged
62. The head of the office to whom the warrant of arrest was delivered for execution shall cause the warrant to be executed
within days from its receipt.
A. 5 C. 15
B. 10 D. 20
63. A term use to the security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or a bondsman, to
guarantee his appearance before any court is .
A. Bribe money C. Bribe
B. Payola D. Bail
64. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan Trial Court, Municipal Trial Court, or Municipal Circuit Trial Court and
before conviction by the Regional Trial Court of an offense not punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life imprisonment
all persons in custody shall be admitted to bail as a matter of:
A. Right C. Optional
B. Discretion D. If the price is right
65. It is an offense which, under the law existing at the time of its commission and of the application for admission to bail
may be punished with death.
A. Continuing offense C. Complex crime
B. Transitory crime D. Capital offense
66. It is an undertaking constituted as a lien on the real property given as security for the amount of bail.
A. Cash bond C. Property bond
B. Corporate surety D. Recognizance
67. The following are instances of permissible warrantless arrests, EXCEPT:

A. Arrest in flagrante delicto C. Arrest of escape prisoners
B. Arrest effected in hot pursuit D. Arrest of suspected criminal
68. The requirements for the issuance of a search warrant are more stringent than the requirements for the issuance of a
warrant of arrest because:
I. In a warrant of arrest, the person to be arrested can always post bail to prevent deprivation of his liberty
II. The right against search and seizure is implicit in the natural right to life, liberty and property
III. The violation of the right to privacy produces a humiliating effect which cannot be rectified anymore
IV. The search warrant is more difficult to execute
A. I, II and III C. I and III

B. I, II, III and IV D. II and IV
69. All criminal actions either commenced by a complaint or information shall be prosecuted under the direction and control
of a:
A. Private prosecutor C. Public prosecutor
B. Judge D. Pao lawyer
70. In case of heavy work schedule or lack of public prosecutor, the private prosecutor may be authorized in writing by
which of the following to prosecute the case subject to the approval of the court?
I. Chief prosecution office
II. Regional state prosecutor
III. Judge
IV. Chief, Public Attorneys’ Office
A. I, II, III, IV C. III, IV

B. I, II D. I, III, IV
71. One is NOT a requisite for the plain-view doctrine to apply.
6
A. There must have been a prior valid intrusion based on the warrantless arrest in which the police are legally present in
the pursuit of their official duties;
B. The evidence was accidentally or unintentionally discovered by the police who had a right to be where they are and the
evidence must be immediately seen or viewed
C. There was no need for further search
D. The seizure is a result of a tip of a reliable informant
72. In case of doubt, that is, the inculpatory facts and circumstances are capable of two or more explanations, one of which
is consistent with the guilt of the accused and the other consistent with the innocence of the accused, then the evidence:
A. Fulfills the test of moral certainty and therefore warrants a conviction
B. Does not fulfill the test of moral certainty; hence, not enough to produce a conviction
C. Is sufficient to convict the accused beyond reasonable doubt
D. Proves the accused guilt beyond reasonable doubt
73. What are the circumstances that the court may modify its judgment of conviction?
A. Before the decision becomes final
B. On motion of the accused and on motion of the prosecution
C. Motu propio, the Court with the consent of the accused
D. Upon reversal by the appellate court
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
74. Of the four (4) requisites for issuing search warrant, one of the following is NOT included.
A. The warrant issued must particularly described the person who committed the crime
B. Must be issued upon probable cause
C. The probable cause must be determined by the judge himself and not by the applicant or any other person
D. In the determination of probable cause, the judge must examine under oath or affirmation the complainant and such
witness as the latter may produce
75. When a sworn written statement, charging a person with an offense is filed at prosecutor’s office, it may be subscribed
by:
1. The offended party
2. Any peace officer
3. Other public officers charged with the law violated
4. The fiscal
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4
76. What is that sworn statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer, or
other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated?
A. Complaint C. Blotter
B. Information D. Affidavit
77. Judgment culminates the end of the proceeding in the trial court. When does judgment in of acquittal in criminal case
becomes final?
A. After 15 days from promulgation
B. After entry in the criminal docket
C. Immediately upon promulgation
D. After the lapse of perfecting an appeal which is 15 days from rendition of judgment
78. In trial, cross examination is one of the most important process. Which of the following is NOT one of the purpose of
cross examination?
A. To ask him misleading questions C. To discredit the testimony of the witness
B. To discredit the witness D. To elicit admission from a witness
79. When does a complaint or information may be amended in form or in substance, without leave of court?
A. Before pre-trial
B. At any time
C. At any time before the prosecution rest its case
D. At any time before the accused enters his plea
80. Which of the following cases that preliminary investigation is required?

A. Offense punishable by 6 years imprisonment without regard to fine
B. Offense punishable by at least 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day and 5,000 pesos fine
C. Offense punishable by at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day, without regard to fine
D. Offense punishable by 3 years, 6 months, and 1 day without regar to the fine
81. Jose, married to Joana, caught the latter in the act of copulating with Diego, Jose’s half brother. Jose filed a case of
adultery against Joana. Will the case prosper?
A. Yes, because she clearly violated the Revised Penal Code
B. No, because he did not include Diego in the case
C. Yes, because Diego should not be included in the charge, being a relative of Jose
D. No, because the act of copulation is not habitual
7
82. If the person arrested is not delivered to the authorities, the private individual making the arrest incurs criminal liability
for:
A. Unlawful arrest C. Arbitrary detention
B. Illegal detention D. Kidnapping
83. If the offender is a public officer is vested with power to arrest and detain and he detained a person without legal
grounds, the crime committed is:
A. Unlawful detention C. Illegal detention
B. Arbitrary detention D. Abduction
84. M arrested N without legal ground and for the purpose of delivering him to the proper authorities. If the arrest is made
without a warrant and under circumstances not allowing a warrantless arrest just so to charge him for a crime he did not
commit, the crime committed is:
A. Illegal arrest C. Unlawful arrest
B. Illegal detention D. Incriminatory machinations
85. A woman of 18 years old, went to the house of her boyfriend. When the man woke up, he was surprised to find her
beside him on the bed. As they were in love with each other, they had sexual intercourse without the man promising
anything to the girl. What crime was committed?
A. Abduction – taking with lewd design C. Consented abduction
B. Seduction - sexual intercourse with consent D. No crime was committed
86. When a woman is kidnapped with lewd or unchaste designs, the crime committed is:
A. Forcible abduction to abuse her C. Illegal detention
B. Kidnapping D. Coercion
87. When the kidnapping is without lewd designs, the crime committed is:
A. Illegal detention C. Forcible abduction
B. Coercion D. Kidnapping
88. But where the offended party was forcibly taken to the house by the offender to force her to marry him, the crime
committed is:
A. Coercion C. Forcible abduction
B. Illegal detention D. None of the above
2 acts of coercion
1. Compulsion violence
2. Prevention
89. X a taxi driver, saw a bag left by one of his passengers which when he opened contained valuables amounting to 20
thousand of pesos. Assume that he deliberately fail to return the bag and its contents to the passenger would X be held
liable and for what crime?
A. Yes, for theft = intent to gain.
B. No crime he did not take the money by force
C. Yes, for qualified theft = because no grave abuse of confidence
D. No crime he did not have criminal intent
Lost / civil code
90. Assume that X is an honest taxi driver and is now asking you as a as to whom shall he return the bag considering that
he does not know its owner?
A. I will advise him to return the bag to Ben Tulfo
B. I will advise him to return the bag to the nearest police station
C. I will advise him to give the bag to me and I will give it back to the owner
D. I will advise him to give the bag to the mayor of the city or municipality.
91. Assume that X returned the bag to a local radio station for its safekeeping and eventual return to the owner instead of
handing it over to the proper authorities. Question is X guilty of any crime?
A. Yes because the law specifically enumerate the proper person to return lost property and he failed to do this.
B. Yes if the local radio station failed to return the bag X is guilty as an accomplice in the crime
C. Yes because by returning the lost property to the media, X’s real purpose is only to gain media exposure and not really
of his desire to return the bag.
D. No, because there is absence of criminal intent which is an element of felonies.
92. X wanted to kill Y. One night he saw Y deep in his sleep in his room. X went out of the house bought gasoline pour it
on Y’s house and set it on fire. As a result of the fire Y died. What crime was committed by X?
A. Arson = intent to burn property C. Murder
B. Arson with homicide D. Qualified arson
On occasion or by reason of arson, homicide was committed = RA 7659 / PD 1613
93. Assume that X did not know that Y was inside the house. He poured gas to Y’s house and set it on fire. His only intention
was to burn the house. But again, as earlier stated Y was inside the burning house which caused his death. What crime
was committed by X?
A. Arson C. Arson with homicide/qualified arson
B. Murder D. Technical arson
94. Assume that X entered Y’s room and while the latter was sleeping, stabbed him to death. X in order to hide any traces
of the crime decided to burn the house. What crime was committed by X?
A. Complex crime of murder with arson C. Heinous crime
B. Plain murder D. Murder and arson
8
95. What crime is committed by say more than ten (10) unarmed persons who gather together in a meeting for the purpose
of committing theft?
A. Conspiracy = Preparatory act GR: incurring criminal liability C. Illegal associations = establishment, formation,member
B. No crime D. Attempted theft
96. What acts are made punishable by law committed by 1. imputing to an innocent person the commission of a crime or
2. imputing to him things calculated to blemish the honor or reputation of a person by means of intrigue.
A. Libel C. Incriminatory machinations
B. Slander D. Incriminating innocent persons
97. A and B were having a heated altercation over some trivial traffic misunderstanding. The Barangay Captain who
happened to pass by saw the two while they were involved in exchanging unpleasantries. The Barangay Captain tried to
pacified A and B but A resented this intervention and punched the Brgy. Captain causing the latter to break his jaw
requiring more than thirty (30) days hospitalization and incapacity. What crime was committed by A?
A. Serious Physical injuries
B. Assault upon a person in authority
C. Serious physical injuries with assault upon a person in authority
D. Assault upon a person in authority resulting to serious physical injuries.
98. X was arrested by PLT Mills because the former parked his motor vehicle in a no parking area. What felony was
committed by PLT Mills?
A. Illegal arrest C. Delay in the delivery of detained person
B. Arbitrary detention D. Unlawful arrest
99. X and Y are next door neighbors. X became irritated by the constant barking of Y’s dog so one night he shot the dog
causing the dog to die. What crime was committed by X?
A. Homicide C. Malicious mischief = personal property
B. Murder D. Physical injuries
100. Supposing after killing the dog, X realized that he missed dinner that night and that he was so hungry so he took the
dog’s carcass and cooked it and thereafter ate it. What crime was committed by X?
A. Theft = intent to gain C. Complex crime
B. Malicious mischief D. Cruelty to animals
Force upon things = maliciously damaging the thing. They removed and used whatever fruit obtained.
101. Supposing X realized after killing the dog that he could be held criminally liable for his act. So he decided to do away
with the evidence of the crime. He hid the gun which he used to kill the dog inside the drawer of Z another next door
neighbor so as to make it appear that the gun belonged to Z. What crime was committed by X with respect to this latest
act?
A. Intriguing against honor C. Incriminating innocent person
B. Libel D. Slander by deed
102. Qualified rape by sexual intercourse is committed by the

1. use of deadly weapon
2. committed by 2 or more persons
3. the victim has become insane
4. the accused is a relative by the victim
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
103. X was driving his car when he bumped run over a pedestrian crossing the street. The pedestrian died. What crime was
committed by X?
A. Reckless imprudence C. Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
B. Homicide D. Homicide thru reckless imprudence
104. PLT Mills arrested X on suspicion of a crime. He interrogated X in the police precinct and when he failed to illicit any
information from X, he caused the torture of the hapless X. What crime was committed by PLT Mills?
A. Physical injuries = to harm C. Grave coercion
B. Illegal detention = private individual to deprive liberty D. Arbitrary detention = to violate the liberty & rights
 Prisoner = detainee / final judgement of conviction= maltreatment of prisoner
105. A is the son of B. B incurred debt to Don Pedro. Since B did not have the money to pay Don Pedro, Don Pedro required
A to work for him for the purpose of paying off the indebtedness of B. This scheme is against the will of A but he cannot do
anything as he is being forced by Don Pedro. What crime was committed by Don Pedro?
A. Inducing a minor to abandon home C. Exploitation of child labor
B. Child abuse D. Exploitation of minor
106. What crime is committed by a notary public who would issue a copy of a deed of sale purporting that A sold his house
and lot to B where in fact no such transaction ever existed?
A. Estafa C. Forgery
B. Falsification D. Falsification by a private individual
107. There is a treasury warrant that is payable to X. Y unlawfully took possession of that warrant, wrote the name of X,
endorsed it by signing X’s name and thereafter he was able to encash it. What crime was committed by Y?
A. Forgery C. Theft thru falsification
9
B. Falsification D. Estafa
10
108. X is less than three (3) days old. X was killed by his own father because the father is afraid that his real wife would
discover that he (the father) had sired X with Y. What crime was committed by the father?
A. No crime C. Parricide
B. Infanticide D. Murder
109. X (man) married Y (woman) in the Philippines. Later X went to the USA and married Z. When Y learned of this, he
filed a case against X. What crime was committed by X?
A. Adultery C. Bigamy
B. Concubinage D. Immorality
110. In the above case supposing that, X and Z took a vacation in the Philippines. They rented a condominium unit and
were always seen caressing each other in public places. Are they liable for any crime?
A. Yes for bigamy C. Yes for concubinage
B. Yes for adultery D. No because they are not caught having sex
111. Let us suppose that while in the Philippines a serious misunderstanding took place between X and Z. X therefore killed
Z. What crime was committed by X?
A. Murder or homicide C. Infanticide
B. Parricide D. Rape
112. X is a teller of Banco Filipino Españ ol. He received a deposit of P5000 from a depositor, which he pocketed instead of
crediting it to the account of the depositor. The transaction was evidenced by an official receipt. What crime was
committed by X?
A. Theft C. Qualified theft
B. Estafa D. Malversation of public property
113. X a jail guard while escorting a prisoner en route to the Regional Trial Court allowed the latter to answer the call of
nature without taking precaution to prevent his escape as indeed the prisoner escaped through the windows of the
comfort room. What is the liability of the jail guard?
A. No liability as it is not required that X would even go to the extent of escorting the prisoner inside the comfort room,
otherwise the job of a jail guard would be unbearable
B. No liability because he was not in conspiracy with the prisoner
C. Evasion of service of sentence
D. Evasion through negligence.
114. X (a man) forcibly grabbed Y (a woman) by the waist and dragged her to a place hidden from the public view about 20
meters from the place where the latter was standing. Due to Y’s constant screaming X became afraid and immediately run
away leaving Y alone. What crime was committed by X?
A. Illegal detention C. Attempted rape
B. Acts of lasciviousness D. Grave coercion
115. What crime is committed by a man who would forcibly enter another person’s house without the knowledge of the
owner but once inside, immediately and peacefully left the house the moment he was discovered by the owner of the house?
A. Attempted robbery C. Trespass to dwelling
B. Frustrated robbery D. Qualified trespass to dwelling
116. X became enraged with Y. X was so mad he wanted to get even with Y. At the spur of the moment Y took the clothes of
Y from the drawer and burned them to ashes. What crime was committed by X?
A. Theft C. Malicious mischief
B. Robbery D. Arson
117. X threatened Y that he would kill the latter if Y would not give Five hundred pesos (P500). What crime was committed
by X?
A. Grave coercion C. Attempted murder
B. Grave threats D. Attempted homicide
118. Which among the following is considered as slight physical injuries only?
A. Maltreatment C. Loss of one’s reproductive organ
B. Loss of one’s tooth/eye D. Burning the skin of another
119. Bruhilda slapped the face of Banahaw in front of a many people. What crime did Bruhilda commit?
A. Unjust vexation C. Libel
B. Slander by deed D. Slight physical injury
120. What time of physical injury is committed by one who shall wound, beat, assault another causing the offended party
to be incapacitated for labor for ten (10) days or more (but should not exceed 30 days)?
A. Serious physical injuries C. Less serious physical injuries
B. Slight physical injuries D. Maltreatment
121. When any person (man or woman) by means of force, threat or intimidation, and others means specified in article
266- A, inserts his penis into another person’s mouth or anal orifice, or any instrument or object, into the genital or anal
orifice of another person the technical term for the crime is:
A. Qualified rape C. Statutory rape
B. Rape by sexual intercourse D. Rape by sexual assault
11
122. X is the boyfriend of Y. One night against Y’s will, X forcefully had sex with Y. X now is facing charges for rape.
Assuming that Y agrees to the proposal of marriage by X, what will happen to X’s criminal liability if marriage takes place?
A. Criminal liability is partially extinguished
B. Criminal liability is totally extinguished
C. It has no effect because rape now is a private crime where the state can prosecute the case alone
D. Actually the marriage has no bearing because the two are sweethearts and therefore it is the perfect right of X to rape Y.
123. X was staging a bank robbery alone. The responding police arrived and surrounded the bank where X and the male
bank manager were physically trapped at the time. X used the bank manager as a hostage. After e few minutes of
negotiations X finally was convinced to surrender.
With respect to the hostage incident (never mind the attempted bank robbery) what possible crime could be charged against
X?
A. Kidnapping & serious illegal detentionC. Grave coercion
B. Slight illegal detention D. Arbitrary detention
124. It is defined as any human conduct which, although not productive of some material or physical harm would however,
unjustly annoy or vex an innocent person.
A. Unjust vexation C. Provocation
B. Light coercion D. Unlawful aggression
125. Crimes Against Religious Worship is a section to be found in Title Two of the Revised Penal Code which is Crimes
against the Fundamental Laws of the State. Which of the following crimes fall under crimes against religious worship?
1. Interruption of religious worship
2. Offending the religious feelings
3. Prohibition of peaceful meetings
4. Illegal associations
A. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. Only 1
126. Which among the following is a qualifying circumstance of murder?

A. Treachery C. Relationship
B. Habitual delinquency D. Intoxication
127. X was able to pocket one pack of detergent soap while inside SM Supermarket. He was about to leave the premises of
SM when he was accosted by an undercover SM agent and was immediately brought to the police precinct. What crime
was committed by X?
A. Consummated theft C. Attempted theft
B. Frustrated theft D. Qualified theft
128. X uttered the following remarks to a certain family of policemen, “Kayong mga Brucelo mga magnanakaw, buwaya,
mangongotong, mga walanghiya mga bastos.” What crime was committed by X?
A. One count of libel
B. As many counts of libel as there are
C. One count of grave oral defamation (slander) family
D. As many counts of grave oral defamation (slander) as there are Brucelo family
129. All of the following are the preferred witnesses in cases of a lawful search of another’s premises. Which among the
following is not qualified to act as a witness or perhaps the least preferred among them?
A. Members of media
B. Owner of the property being searched
C. In the absence of owner any family member
D. Two witnesses residing in the same locality
130. May the crime of coup d’ etat be possibly committed by a single person?
A. No C. Impossible
B. Yes D. Yes but it is an impossible crime
131. Which among the following is NOT a way of committing alarms and scandals?
A. Any person who within any town or public place shall discharge any firearm, rocket, firecracker or explosives calculated
to cause alarm or danger
B. Any person who shall instigate or take an active part in any charivari or disorderly meeting offensive to another or
prejudicial to public tranquility
C. Any person while wandering about at night or while engaged in nocturnal amusement shall disturb the public peace.
D. Any person who habitually associate himself with prostitutes and profit by it.
132. What crime is committed by anyone who shall bury with pomp the body of a person who has been legally executed?
A. Alarms and scandals
B. Contempt of court
C. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
D. Charivari
133. What is that defense in a criminal case for rape wherein the accused says that he and the supposed rape victim are
sweethearts and therefore sexual intercourse was consensual between the two of them?
A. Sweetheart defense or theory C. Admission
12
B. Alibi D. Justifying circumstance
134. X is a detention prisoner. One night together with others as his cohorts while his jail guard was not looking, he was
able to surreptitiously slip away from the provincial jail and managed to escape. What crime did he commit?
A. Delivering prisoners from jail C. Violation of pardon
B. Evasion of service of sentence D. No crime
135. In the above case what crime was committed by the jail officer concerned?
A. Delivering prisoners from jail
B. Evasion of service of sentence
C. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
D. Evasion through negligence
136. X told Y that he will use the latter as a false witness in a crime in which X was a party. Y agreed and the two together
with X’s lawyer invented a story wherein it was made to appear that Y was a witness to a certain transaction. If X would
introduce the testimony of Y in court, Y would be liable for the crime of “Offering false testimony in evidence”. This crime
is also known as:
A. Deceit
B. False testimony favorable to the defendant
C. Subordination of perjury
D. Estafa
137. X a woman, was caught in flagrante delicto in the act of having sexual intercourse with Y a man. Investigation revealed
that X had sex with Y in consideration of fifty (P50) pesos only. Assume that it was proven that X committed the act of
having sex for a fee for the first and that precise time only, may X be legally considered a prostitute?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes if Y testifies that X is already as expert even it was her first time
D. No, because the fifty pesos consideration is so cheap
138. This felony is committed by any person who shall intentionally mutilate another by depriving him, of some essential
organ for reproduction.
A. Castration C. Mutilation
B. Cutting of happiness D. Physical injury
139. Cain and Abel are brothers. One day while Abel was in the fields, Cain stabbed his brother Abel from behind. Abel
died. What crime was committed by Cain?
A. Murder C. Infanticide
B. Homicide D. Parricide
140. Any of the following circumstances will qualify the felony of piracy EXCEPT:
A. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by boarding or firing upon the same
B. Whenever the pirates have abandoned their victims without means of saving themselves;
C. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, homicide, physical injuries or rape
D. Whenever the pirates commit onanism in front of the lady passengers.
141. Whenever an officer has lawfully arrested a person without a warrant, he must make sure that he delivers that
person arrested within certain prescribed periods to the proper authorities, otherwise he might be held liable for delay in the
delivery of detained persons to proper judicial authorities. Which of the following periods prescribed is NOT CORRECT:
A. 12 hours for crimes or offenses punishable by light penalties
B. 18 hours for crimes or offenses punishable by correctional penalties
C. 24 hours for crimes or offenses punishable by accessory penalties
D. 36 hours for crimes or offenses punishable by afflictive or capital penalties
142. The felonies of arbitrary detention, violation of domicile, expulsion and others are contained in TITLE TWO (2) Book
TWO (2) of the Revised Penal Code. They are all under the title “Crimes against the fundamental law of the state.” Why are
they so called?
A. Because they violate certain provisions of the bill of right in the constitution
B. Because that is what the authors of the RPC wanted their title to be
C. Because they are the most heinous crimes in the RPC
D. Because I do not know the answer
143. This is committed by an accountable public officer who, shall appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall consent, or
through abandonment or negligence shall permit another person to take public funds or property.
A. Direct bribery C. Malversation of public funds
B. Technical malversation D. Graft and corruption
144. This is committed by a public officer who shall consent to the escape of a prisoner in his custody.
A. Evasion of service of sentence
B. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
C. Evasion through negligence
D. Other cases of evasion
13
145. This is committed by any public officer or employee who shall overdo himself in the correction or handling of a prisoner
or detention prisoner under his charge by the imposition of punishment not authorize by the regulations or inflicting
punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner.
A. Police brutality C. Maltreatment of prisoners
B. Sadism D. Physical injuries
146. He is any person who, by direct provision of law, popular election or appointment by competent authority, shall take
part in the performance of public functions in the government, or shall perform in said government duties as an employee,
agent or subordinate official, of any rank or class.
A. Public officer C. Person in authority
B. Public employee D. Agent in authority
147. This one is committed by public officers or employees who, in dereliction of the duties of his office, shall maliciously
refrain from instituting prosecution for the punishment of violators of law, or shall tolerate the commission of offenses.
A. Direct bribery
B. Indirect bribery
C. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in prosecution of offenses
D. Qualified bribery
148. What crime is committed by any public officer or employee who shall agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in
connection with the performance of his official duties, in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present received by such
officer, personally or through the mediation of another.
A. Direct bribery
B. Indirect bribery
C. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in prosecution
D. Qualified bribery
149. He is any person who having no apparent means of subsistence, who has the physical ability to work and neglects to
apply himself to some lawful calling.
A. Vagrant C. Destitute
B. Prostitute D. Vagrant
150. Refers to any women who, for money or profit, habitually indulge in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct is
known as .
A. Call girl C. Prostitute
B. Vagrant D. Street Walker
151. This is committed either by: a. By giving to a treasury or bank note or any instrument payable to bearer or to order,
the appearance of a true and genuine document; or b. By erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or altering by any means the
figures, letters, words or signs contained therein.
A. Falsification C. Estafa
B. Alteration D. Forgery
152. What felony is committed by any person who shall knowingly and falsely represent himself to be an officer, agent or
representative of any department or agency of the Philippine or any foreign government, or who under pretense of official
position shall perform any act pertaining to any person in authority or public officer of the Philippine or foreign government,
or any agency thereof, without being lawfully entitled to do so.
A. Estafa
B. Falsification
C. Usurpation of authority or official functions
D. Illegal use of uniform
153. This is committed by any person who shall publicly and improperly make use of insignia, uniform or dress pertaining
to an office not held by such person or to a class of person of which he is not a member.
A. Illegal use of uniform or insignia
B. Usurpation of official functions
C. Usurpation of authority
D. Using fictitious name
154. This felony is committed by any person who shall offend against decency or good customs by any highly scandalous
conduct not expressly falling within any other article of the RPC.
A. Indecency C. Grave scandal
B. Public display of affection D. Exhibitionism/Lady Godiva Syndrome
155. What felony is committed by person or persons who belong to the military or police organizations or those who hold
public office or employment who shall make a swift attack directed against duly constituted authorities, or any military
camp or installation, communications network or public facilities for the purpose of seizing state power.
A. Rebellion C. Insurrection
B. Coup d’etat D. People power
156. What crime is committed by a public officer or employee who shall arrest or search any member of Congress while
Congress is in regular or special session, except when such member has committed a crime punishable under the RPC by
a penalty higher than prision mayor.
A. Unlawful arrest C. Arbitrary detention
B. Illegal detention D. Violation of parliamentary immunity
14
157. The felony of by any founder, director, and presidents of associations organized for the purpose of committing
any of the crimes punishable under the RPC or for some purpose contrary to public morals.
A. Illegal assemblies C. Terrorism
B. Illegal associations D. Unlawful association
158. This is committed by any person who shall attack, employ force, or seriously intimidate or resist any person in authority
or his agents while engaged in the performance of his duties or on the occasion of such performance.
A. Direct assault C. Attempted murder
B. Indirect assault D. Disrespect of rank
159. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a member of some court or governmental
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed to be .
A. Agent of person in authority C. Public employee
B. Public officer D. Person in authority
160. A person who by direct provision of law or by election or by appointment by competent authority, is charged with the
maintenance of public order and the protection and security of life and property such as policemen and any person who
comes to the aid of persons in authority shall be deemed to be .
A. Person in authority C. Agent of a person in authority
B. Public officer D. Officer of the law
161. This is committed by any person who shall remove from any penal establishment any person confined therein or shall
help the escape of such person by means of violence intimidation or bribery.
A. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners C. Conniving to evasion
B. Delivering prisoners from jail D. Evasion of service of sentence
162. This felony is committed by any convict who shall evade the service of his sentence by escaping during the term of his
imprisonment by reason of final judgment.
A. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners C. Consenting to evasion
B. Delivering prisoners from jail D. Evasion of service of sentence
163. D, a barangay captain intervened to prevent a violent encounter between C and a group of men led by E. Seeing that
D was outnumbered, F came to the aid of D. H, who knew only G from among the persons involved, also intervened to help
out G who aided F. If as a result, only D was attacked, badly beaten and killed by E’s group. The perpetrators should be
charged with:
A. Direct Assault
B. Homicide and Direct Assault separately
C. Complex Crime of Homicide with Direct Assault
D. Complex Crime of Homicide with Indirect Assault
164. If as a result, only G was attacked, badly beaten and killed by E’s group. The perpetrators should be charged with:
A. Direct Assault
B. Homicide and Indirect Assault separately
C. Complex Crime of Homicide with Direct Assault
165. If as a result, only H was attacked, badly beaten and killed by E’s group. The perpetrators should be charged with:
A. Homicide
B. Indirect Assault
C. Homicide and Indirect Assault separately
166. What crime is committed by one who on the high seas or in Philippine waters shall attack or seize a vessel or, not being
a member of its complement or passengers, shall seize the whole or part of the cargo of said vessel, its equipment or personal
belongings.
A. Robbery
B. Terrorism
C. Piracy on the high seas or Philippine water
D. Robbery
167. This felony is committed by any public officer or employee, who without legal ground such as violent insanity or the
commission of a crime, shall detain another.
A. Arbitrary detention C. Illegal arrest
B. Kidnapping D. Grave coercion
168. This felony is committed by a public officer or employee who, not being authorized by judicial order, shall enter the
dwelling of another against the will of its owner.
A. Trespass to dwelling C. Abuse of authority
B. Violation of domicile D. Police brutality
169. This crime is committed by rising publicly and taking arms against the Government for the purpose of removing from
the allegiance to said government the territory of the RP or any part thereof, or deprive the Chief executive or Congress any
of their powers or prerogatives.
A. Coup d’ etat C. Murder
B. Sedition D. Rebellion
15
170. X, pretending to be an NBI agent, ask the jailer to turn over to him prisoner B on the pretext that he will investigate
him for a crime he committed. The guard granted the request and so B and the NBI agent went to a nearby restaurant only
to have a drinking spree being friends for a long time. After one hour, X returned B to the jailer. What crime was committed?
A. Delivering persons from jail
B. Jail breaking for B
C. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners
D. Escape of the prisoners from jail
171. Edward arrested Richards for pick pocketing after chasing him. Richard pleaded that Edward let him go as he needed
to urgently buy medicine for his very chick child. After having been shown a prescription, Edward let Richard go. What is
the liability of Edward
A. conniving with or consenting to evasion
B. evasion through negligence
C. escape of prisoner under the custody of a person not a public officer
D. no liability
172. Mario was caught by his wife and bestfriend having sexual intercourse with his mistress in a motel, after the wife tailed
Mario and barged into the motel room. What is the liability of Mario?
A. concubinage
B. adultery
C. No liability
D. Acts of lasciviousness
173. A foreigner was caught in a car fondling the private part of a boy under twelve (12) years of age. After investigation,
the boy admitted that he offered himself to the foreigner for a fee. What is the liability of the foreigner?
A. No liability as the victim is a boy
B. Rape
C. Acts of lasciviousness
D. Acts of lasciviousness with consent of the offended party
174. Where X and others grabbed a 16-year old girl, dragged her to nearby forest and there brutally ravished her, the
crime is:
A. kidnapping with rape
B. rape only
C. Kidnapping only, rape being a mere incident thereof, possibly aggravating the same.
D. forcible abduction with rape.
175. Carlo robbed Mike by poking a gun at him and divesting him of his wallet, cell phone, lap top and watch. Thereafter,
as part of his plan he makes mike make a run for his life and then, he shoots mike while he was running away. What is
Carlo’s liability?
A. robbery with murder
B. robbery with homicide
C. robbery with violence or intimidation
D. robbery with force upon things
176. When homicide is committed by one of the robbers by reason or on the occasion of robbery, all those who participated
as principals in the robbery will be held liable as principals in the crime of robbery with homicide:
A. Except for those who did not agree to the killing and were un aware that their cohort had one the same.
B. Except for those who did not take part in the killing and endeavored to prevent the same.
C. Pursuant to the principle that in conspiracy, the act of one is the act of all.
D. Conspiracy being readily deducible from their collective act of robbery
177. Where X entered the house of Y, a woman, took her money and jewelry, raped her and then, killed her, the crime
committed is:
A. Robbery with rape
B. Robbery with rape, aggravated by homicide
C. Robbery with homicide only
D. Robbery with homicide, aggravated by rape.
178. Where a policeman is attacked and killed by the offender by means of his blows. Knowing the former to be a
policeman, while in the performance of duty, albeit none of the circumstances enumerated in Art. 248, RPC, attended the
killing, the offender commits the crime of:
A. Simple direct assault.
B. Qualified direct assault
C. Direct assault with homicide
D. Direct assault with murder
179. An act of robbery or forcible depredation committed in a vessel while on the high seas is:
A. Always piracy
B. Piracy but only if not commited by members of the complement or crew or passengers of the vessel; otherwise, robbery.
C. Always robbery, no doubt, that is, no “ifs” and “buts”
D. piracy but only if committed by members of the complement or crew or passengers of vessel; otherwise, robbery.
180. The nature of the relationship of the offender and the victim in parricide must be by blood, legitimate and:
A. Ascending line C. Collateral
16
B. Direct line D. Descending line
181. In the crime of discharge of firearm it is necessary that the firearm be discharged at another but without:
A. Bullets C. Hitting the victim
B. Intent to kill D. Killing the victim
182. Qualified piracy where physical injury, rape, murder or homicide is committer, as a result or on the occasion of
piracy, is:
A. A special complex crime C. A continuing crime
B. An ordinary complex crime D. A many-splendored crime
183. The crime of inciting to sedition is committed by:

A. inciting others, by means of speeches, to prevent the execution of any law;
B. shouting in a public place in a manner tending to incite others to prevent the execution of any law;
C. making speeches encouraging disobedience to the law
D. knowingly concealing the evil practices of publishing scurrilous libels against the government which incite riots.
184. A felony is when the offender performs all the acts of execution which should produce the felony as a
consequence but which, nevertheless, do not produce it by reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator.
A. Consummated felony C. Attempted felony
B. Frustrated felony D. Infraction of law
185. What aggravating circumstance generally can be applied to all offenses/crimes like recidivism, dwelling, price, etc?
A. Specific C. Inherent
B. Generic D. Qualifying
186. How do you call an offender who within a period of ten (10) years from the date of his release or from the date of his
release or last conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, robo (robbery) hurto (theft) estafa or
falsification is found guilty of any of said crimes a third time or oftener?
A. Recidivist C. Reiteration
B. Quasi recidivist D. Habitual delinquent
187. What is the prescriptive period of crimes punishable by death reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal?
A. 5 years C. 15 years
B. 10 years D. 20 years
188. What characteristics of criminal law says that “criminal laws undertake to punish crimes committed in Philippine
territory?”
A. General C. Territorial
B. Prospective D. Extraterritorial
189. It is an aggravating circumstance done by the offender by which means are resorted to in order to conceal his identity
such as covering his face with a bonnet/handkerchief at the time of the commission of the crime.
A. Craft C. Disguise
B. Fraud D. Ignominy
190. There is when a person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to some other person or
persons.
A. Conspiracy C. Collusion
B. Proposal D. Collaboration
191. Those where the act committed is a crime, but for reasons of public policy no penalty is imposed is known as .
A. Absolutory causes C. Mistake of fact
B. Exempting circumstances D. Instigation
192. In the old days what was followed was the retreat to the wall doctrine. NOW, it has given way to the stand ground
when in the right doctrine which means:
A. Where the accused/defender is where he has the right to be, the law does not require him to retreat when his assailant
is advancing upon him with a deadly weapon.
B. The accused/defender must as much as possible retreat when his opponent is attacking him and fight only when there
is no other way of escaping such as when cornered against the wall.
C. The accused/defender must not fight in any event
D. The accused/defender must stand and wait for the fatal blow until he dies.
191. What crime is committed which is made against persons or property but which is of impossible accomplishment
because of its inherent impossibility or on the account of the employment of ineffectual or inadequate means.
A. Continuing crimes C. Compound crime
B. Impossible crimes D. Attempted crimes
192. This takes place when the offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts, and does not
perform all the acts of execution which should produce the felony by reason of some cause or accident other than his own
spontaneous desistance.
A. Consummated felon C. Attempted felony
B. Frustrated felony D. Initial stage
17
193. Rhea was driving her car when he bumped Mario. Mario died as a result. At the trial of the case the prosecutor was
able to prove that Rhea had the “mens rea” when he bumped the victim Mario. Hence the information for Reckless
Imprudence resulting in Homicide was dismissed and a new information for murder was filed against Rhea. What is meant
by “mens rea”?
A. It means that Rhea had menstruation at the time of the crime which might exempt her.
B. It means Rhea had her monthly period at the time of the commission of the crime.
C. Mens Rea means Rhea is a men’s woman.
D. Means Rea simply means “criminal intent” that is the act of Rhea was intentional and not accidental.
194. What kind of executive clemency wipes away the guilt of the convicted person. As the name implies it is exercised by
the President subject to certain constitutional limitations. In the language of the revered Luis B. Reyes book, it is an act of
grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution of the laws which exempts the individual on whom it is
bestowed from the punishment the law inflicts for the crime he has committed.
A. Pardon C. Commutation
B. Amnesty D. Parole
195. What is incurred by one who commits a felony although the wrongful act is different from that which he intended?
A. Reward C. Imprisonment
B. Punishment D. Criminal liability
196. What is that cause which, in natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause, produces
the injury, and without which the result would not have occurred.
A. Efficient intervening cause C. Proximate cause
B. Indeterminate offense D. Immediate cause
197. It is a rule regarding the jurisdiction of a coastal state whenever a crime is committed aboard a foreign merchant
vessel whenever that merchant vessel is within the jurisdiction of that coastal state. According to this rule such crimes are
triable in that country, unless their commission affects the peace and security of the coastal state.
A. French Rule C. English Rule
B. Filipino Rule D. American Rule
198. Acts and omissions punishable by law (RPC) are known as .

A. Felonies C. Culpa
B. Fault D. Crimes
199. Who grants absolute pardon the effect of which will extinguish criminal liability?
A. Chief Executive or President C. Offended party
B. Board of Pardon or Parole D. Supreme Court
200. There is when the criminal act is performed with deliberate intent.
A. Freedom of action C. Fault
B. Fault D. Dolo or deceit
201. When the wrongful act results from imprudence, negligence, lack of foresight or lack of skills then there is:
A. Dolo C. Fault or culpa
B. Deceit D. Malice
202. These are circumstances which are grounds for exemption from punishments because there is wanting in the agent
of the crime any of the conditions which make the act voluntary or negligent.
A. Exempting circumstances C. Alternative circumstances
B. Justifying circumstances D. Mitigating circumstances
203. What do you mean by the Latin, “NULLUM CRIMEN NULLA POENA SINE LEGE”?
A. There is no crime if the offender is able to bribe the police officer handling his case.
B. There is no crime if the offender is able to bribe the fiscal prosecuting his case.
C. Ignorance of the law excuses one from compliance therewith.
D. There is no crime if there is no law punishing it.
204. It is the moving power which impels one to action for a definite result.
A. Intent C. Motive
B. Malice D. Lack of foresight
205. What crime exists when a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies or when an offense is a
necessary means of committing the other?
A. Continuing crime C. Habitual delinquency
B. Transitory crime D. Complex crime
206. “Aberratio Ictus” simply means .

A. Mistake in the blow C. Result greater than intended
B. Mistake in the identity D. Mistake of fact
207. Jun, an epileptic patient was violently thrashing on his bed due to his illness. His feet kicked the dextrose Metal and
stand which fell down and injured another patient. Jun’s best defense is-
A. His act is not proximate cause C. Insanity
B. The injury was unintentional D. Absence of voluntariness
18
208. Material crimes are crimes that have three stages namely attempted, frustrated and consummated stages. Which
crimes that are consummated in one instant, that is it may not have an attempted or a frustrated stage such as acts of
lasciviousness, slander, false testimony etc.?
A. Formal crimes C. Continuing crimes
B. Material crimes D. Complex crimes
209. Generally, light felonies are punishable only when they are , with the exception of those committed against
persons or property.
A. Consummated C. Attempted
B. Frustrated D. None of the above
210. One of the theories in criminal law which states that man is subdued occasionally by a strange and morbid
phenomenon which constrains him to do wrong in spite of or contrary to his own volition.
A. Positivist theory C. Neo classical theory
B. Classical theory D. Ecclectic theory
211. Suppose that the reason why A shot X is because of self-defense. What is the most important requisite of self-defense
that without which there could be no self-defense?
A. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repeal the attack
B. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending himself
C. In case the provocation is given by the person attacked, that the person making the offense has no part therein
D. Unlawful aggression
212. Suppose that at a time of the trial of this present case, A has already served another offense of equal or greater penalty,
how will this affect the criminal liability of A?
A. Mitigating circumstance C. Aggravating circumstance
B. Justifying circumstance D. Alternative circumstance
213. An act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for past offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a single individual
and is usually granted to certain classes of persons usually political offenders, who are subject to trial but not yet convicted
is .
A. Pardon C. Parole
B. Commutation D. Amnesty
214. The period of prescription of penalties shall commence to run from the date when the convict
A. Gives himself up
B. Evades the service of his sentence:
C. Escapes to a country where the Philippines has no extradition treaty
D. Commits another crime.
215. When impossible crime becomes punishable?

A. When it is consummated C. When it is attempted
B. When it is frustrated D. When it is intentional
216. The phrase “Stand ground when in the right” means .

A. A person need not retreat against an unlawful aggressor but he is not expected to fight back
B. A person need not retreat against an unlawful aggressor but must defend himself by fighting back
C. A person attacked must retreat but must fight back when caught by his aggressor
D. A person must launch a counter-attack when attacked by his aggressor
217. A person who has cooperated in the commission of the crime by previous or simultaneous act is known as .
A. Principal by induction
B. Principal by indispensable cooperation
C. Principal by direct participation
D. Accomplice
218. Danilo was charged with murder for killing Daniel. Convicted by final judgment by the Regional Trial Court, he died
while his case is pending appeal. Which of the following is true with regards to Danilo’s Liability?
A. His criminal liability will be extinguished
B. His criminal liability will be extinguished but not is civil liability
C. His criminal and civil liability will both extinguished
D. His criminal and civil liabilities will both survived
219. Statements below are true EXCEPT:

A. A motor boat attacked a moving vessel by boarding or firing upon the same and once inside the complements of the motor
boat raped the woman passengers. Qualified piracy js committed.
B. The penalty of evasion of service will be increased if the evasion or escape was attendant by means of unlawful entry,
using picklocks and conspiring with other convicts or guards or other persons.
C. Preventive imprisonment occurs even the offense charged is bailable and/or the offense is bailable but the accused could
not put up the bail or the bail is insufficient
D. The following enjoy diplomatic immunity from prosecution of a crime committed in the Philippine are minister
plenipotentiary, ambassador charge d' affairs.
220. X had committed kidnapping a boy or let us say, for the crime of carnapping. He is being pursued by authorities but
his brother hid X and even gave him money to escape. Is the brother liable?
19
A. Not liable as an accessory because he is a private individual and for him to be liable, the person whom he assisted must
have committed treason, murder, parricide and attempt to kill the person.
B. Liable as an accessory for helping escape his brother
C. Liable as an accomplice
D. Not liable as principal by indispensable cooperation
221. Suppose in the same problem, the crime committed is parricide or murder, but the father of the offender helped him
escaped by giving him money and motorcycle. Is the father liable?
A. Yes as an accessory but exempted by virtue of his relationship with the offender.
B. Yes as an accessory and he is liable.
C. No, because of his relationship with the offender
D. No, even as an accessory to the crime
222. The battered woman who killed her tormenting husband is entitled to the benefit of self-defense and as such she is
exempt from:
A. Criminal liability C. criminal liability only but not of civil liability
B. Criminal and civil liability D. punishment only
223. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

A. X saw Y opens his car and so X asked him who he was but he did not answer instead he raised his hands; hence, X shot
him. X is criminally liable because the raising of hand is not unlawful aggression.
B. Serious physical injuries cannot be qualified even there is treachery or evident premeditation
C. Death penalty is prohibited under Republic Act 9346.
D. Republic Act 10586 penalizes persons driving under the influence of alcohol, dangerous drugs and similar substances
224. The Battered Woman Syndrome is:

A. Exempting circumstances C. Mitigating circumstances
B. Justifying circumstances D. Alternative circumstances
225. A and B forcibly taken C from his house and killed him away from his house. What aggravating circumstances is
present?
A. Dwelling because the aggression started from the dwelling of C.
B. Dwelling not an aggravating circumstance because C was killed away from his house.
C. Abuse of superior strength because A and B use their number to take advantage upon C
D. A and C
226. Z was charged and convicted with an offense and sentenced to suffer imprisonment of 6 years and 1 day and to pay of
fine of P3,000.00. Z was not able to pay the fine. Choices:
A. Z should not suffer subsidiary imprisonment because the principal penalty imposed is higher than prision correctional.
B. Z should not suffer subsidiary imprisonment because fine is an accessory penalty.
C. Z should suffer a subsidiary imprisonment on the account of his failure to pay
D. A and C
227. Tito went to Saudi Arabia after legally marrying Tita. Then he married another Filipina in Arabia. Choices:
A. Tito committed bigamy but he is not liable because of the principle of territorialitv of Philippine Criminal Law.
B. Tito did not commit bigamy because the crime was committed outside the Philippine territory.
C. Tito committed bigamy because he is already married to Tita and is liable under the law.
D. Tito is liable for concubinage because because she is already marriage when he contracted subsequent marriage in
Saudi Arabia
228. The penalty of destierro which is banishment or exile of the convict like those found guilty of death under
exceptional circumstances or to a concubine found guilty of concubinage, to a distance of
A. Not less than 30 kilometers but not more than 250 kilometers radius.
B. Not less than 25 kilometers but not more than 250 kilometers radius.
C. No limit provided that the offender must not be seen in the place of the commission of crime D. Not less than kilometers
only
229. Bogart, a 4th year college student, boxed and kicked his professor while smoking in front of their school. What crime
is committed? 1. Serious physical injuries with the aggravating circumstances of disrespect due to the rank of the offended
party if the attack was not due to past performance of the professor's duty. 2. If the attack was due to the fact that the
professor failed the student in his class last semester the crime committed is direct assault upon a person in authority
with serious physical injuries.
A. No. 1 is correct C. No. 1 and 2 are both correct
B. No. 2 is correct D. Neither 1 and 2 are correct
230. A killed B by means of treachery. A called for his adopted son to bury the dead body of B whom he killed to prevent
its discovery which he did. What is the liability of the adopted son? A. He is an accessory and he is liable
B. He is an accessory but he is exempt from liability bv reason of relationship which includes legally adopted son
C. He is a co-conspirator of murder
D. he is an accomplice
231. X is courting C. During the birthday of C, X gave her a gold necklace and earring as a gift. C did not know that X stolen
these from a jewelry store. Is C an accessory?
A. C is not an accessorv because she had no knowledge in the commission of the crime.
B. C is an accessory because she profited by the effects of the crime.
20
C. C is not an accessory because she had no intention of profiting from the fruits of the crime
D. C is an accessory because she did not verify the source of the gold necklace
232. M and N are common-law spouse for several years and with 2 children. N stole the P5.000.00 from M’ s wallet. Choices:
A. N committed theft but is exempt from criminal liability because of the exemption bv reason of relation in theft, swindling,
or malicious mischief which includes common-law spouses.
B. N committed theft and is liable because she benefited from the crime
C. N did not commit any crime because she is a spouse of M
D. N committed no crime on the account of her relationship with M who is her common-law spouse
233. When the aggravating circumstance of recidivism is present in commission of a crime, the offender is called a:
A. Quasi-recidivist C. Recidivist
B. Habitual criminal D. Habitual delinquent
234. An ordinary mitigating circumstance reduces the penalty only as to the:

A. Minimum period C. Degree
B. Indeterminate Sentence Law D. Probation Law
235. To overcome intelligence as an element of criminal liability one has to prove –

A. Deprivation of cognition C. Mistake of fact
B. Compulsion of an irresistible force D. Mistake of identity
236. In mala prohibita , the criminal liability of the offender is determined by his–
A. criminal intent
B. intent to perpetrate the act
C. negligence, lack of foresight, lack of skill
D. ignorance of the law
237. In light felonies the following are criminally liable –

A. Principal only C. Accessories only
B. Accomplices only D. Principal and Accomplices only
238. Proximate cause means:

A. the motivate in committing the crime
B. the unlawful intent in committing in committing the crime
C. the efficient cause uninterrupted by any supervening event without which the result would not have occurred
D. the reason of the offender in committing the crime
239. What is meant by the term “mens rea” ?

A. No intent to commit so grave a wrong
B. Good faith in the commission of the crime
C. No malice in committing the crime
D. Unlawful intent
240. Statement No. 1. Subsidiary imprisonment is not an accessory penalty and it is not imposed unless expressly
provided for in the sentence of conviction. Furthermore, when it is imposed only as a fine, the subsidiary imprisonment
shall not exceed 6 months. Statement No. 2. Quasi-recidivism is applicable only to six felonies, to wit: Serious physical
injuries, less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa and falsification.
A. Statement no. 1 is correct, while statement no. 2 is wrong
B. Statement no. 1 is wrong, while statement no. 2 is correct
C. Statements no.1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statements no.1 and 2 are both wrong
241. Which of the following penalty under the Revised Penal Code is NOT considered afflictive?
A. Reclusion perpetua C. Prision mayor
B. Reclusion temporal D. Arresto mayor
242. Under which of the following that the maximum duration of the convict’s sentence shall not be more than three (3)
times the length of time corresponding to the most severe penalties imposed upon him which however shall not exceed forty
(40) years?
A. Supreme Court Ruling
B. Revised Penal Code
C. 1987 Constitution
D. Three fold rule in the service of sentence
243. The imposition of death penalty to heinous crimes is prohibited by which law?
A. Republic Act 9262 C. Republic Act 9211
B. Republic Act 9346 D. Republic Act 9344
244. Under the Revised Penal Code, the first and indispensable requisite of self defense is .
A. Unlawful aggression
B. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it
C. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending himself
D. the person defending be not induced by hatred, revenge or other evil motive.
21
245. This exists when two or more persons come to an agreement concerning the commission of a felony and decide to
commit it. It refers to .
A. Conspiracy C. Proposal
B. Piracy D. Criminal agreement
246. Which characteristics of criminal law that states that criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in the
Philippines regardless of sex, age and nationality?
A. General C. Territorial
B. Practical D. Prospective
247. Anti-Fencing Law (PD 1612) will apply only when the valuable articles proceed from what crimes?
A. Only to proceeds of theft or robbery
B. Only to proceeds of estafa
C. Also to proceeds of usurpation
D. Proceeds of murder or homicide
248. United Nations defined human rights as those rights, which are in our nature and without which we cannot
live as human beings.
A. inherent C. prescribed by law
B. constitutionally provided D. protected by the government
249. Which of the following rights that CANNOT be considered as inherent upon a person?
A. Right against self-incrimination C. Right to dignity
B. Right to life D. None of them
250. Based on the components of Philippine criminal justice system, you shall exclude which of the following?
A. Public Attorney’s Office
B. National Bureau of Investigation
C. Philippine National Police
D. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
251. Basically, law enforcement plays three roles in the criminal justice system. Among the choices A, B, C and D, which of
them is NOT one?
A. Crime Prevention and public service
B. Investigation of crime
C. Arrest of suspected criminal
D. Refer the case and the suspects to the office of the public prosecutor for preliminary investigation
252. The taking of a person into custody so that he may bound to answer for the commission of an offense is legally called
arrest, which has two kinds:
1. In flagrante delicto arrest
2. Arrest by virtue of a warrant
3. Hot pursuit arrest
4. Arrest without warrant warrant
5. Arrest of a wanted person
A. 1, 3 and 5 only C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
253. At present, the Philippine National Police is the Philippines’ primary law enforcement agency whose creation is
mandated by the 1987 Constitution. Its character is –
A. Uniformed C. Civil servant
B. Military D. Civilian
254. Criminals are called by different nomenclatures, in legal context, a criminal is a person –
A. Who committed a crime
B. Who underwent judicial process and found guilty
C. Who passes all the components of Criminal Justice System such as law enforcement, prosecution, courts and
subsequently reintegrated to the community
D. Who was found guilty of a crime and punished
255. Statement No. 1 The State must be proactive to enable the individuals to enjoy their rights.
Statement No. 2 The State must formulate a preventive measures against private individuals, groups or entities from
interfering with the individual rights.
Which of the statement or statements is/are true or false?
A. Only statement No. 1 is true
B. Statement No. 1 and 2 are both false
C. Statement No. 1 is true, while statement No. 2 is false
D. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
256. It means that human rights cannot be rightfully taken away from a free individual.
A. Inherent C. Inalienable
B. Indivisible D. Indivisible
257. Person’s human rights does not lost even if he fails to use or assert them? Which of these?
22
A. Fundamental C. Inprescriptible
B. Universal D. Indivisible
258. Human rights are because it can be enforced without national borders.
A. Universal C. Inherent
B. Interdependent D. Fundamental
259. Rights that can be abolished by the act of Congress are –

A. natural rights C. Constitutional rights
B. statutory rights D. legal rights
260. It enable a citizen to participate in running the affairs of the government.

A. Civil rights C. Right of suffrage
B. Economic and social rights D. Political rights
261. The following are classified as civil rights, EXCEPT –

A. Right to property and education
B. Right against involuntary servitude
C. Constitutional right of the accused
D. Liberty of abode
262. Civil and political rights are classified as –

A. Fourth generation rights
B. Third generation rights
C. Second generation rights
D. First generation rights
263. Statement No. 1- Right to freely move, depending upon the circumstances may be suspended or restricted.
Statement No. 2- Right to freedom of thought or conscience cannot be suspended or taken away.
A. Statement No. 1 is TRUE while Statement NO. 2 is FALSE
B. Statement No. 1 is FALSE while Statement NO. 2 is TRUE
C. Statements No. 1 and 2 are BOTH true
D. Statements No. 1 and 2 are BOTH false
264. Rights which the law is enforced at the instance of private individuals for the purpose of securing to them the
enjoyment of their means of happiness is known as –
A. Human rights C. Social rights
B. Economic rights D. Civil rights
265. Which rights are classified as Second Generation Rights which originated in the socialist tradition and have been
variously promoted by revolutionary struggles and welfare movements?
A. Political rights
B. Economic, social and cultural rights
C. Right of people to development
D. Right to healthy environment
266. Rights of a private individuals for the purpose of securing to them the enjoyment of their means of happiness.
A. Civil rights C. Natural rights
B. First generation rights D. Constitutional rights
267. Rights that enable a person to participate in running the affairs of the government.
A. Protective rights C. Electoral rights
B. Legal rights D. Political rights
268. Known as the right against discrimination is .

A. Aboriginal right C. Right of equality
B. Reproductive right D. Social justice right
269. Rights of the people to be free from colonial rule and decide their own destiny. This refers to what category of human
rights?
A. Right of self determination
B. Minority group rights
C. Reproductive rights
D. Economic, social and cultural rights
270. Human rights as defined by the United Nations refers to:

A. The aggregate privileges, claims, benefits, entitlements, and moral guarantees that pertain to man because of his
humanity.
B. The system of values or elements which are inherent to human dignity.
C. The rights that are inherent upon human being and without which, he/she cannot live as human.
D. Supreme, inherent and inalienable rights to life, dignity and self-development. It is the essence of these rights that makes
man human.
271. EXCEPT one, the following are classified as First Generation Rights:
A. Reasonable standard of living, food, shelter and health care
23
B. Life, liberty and security of the individual
C. Freedom from torture and slavery
D. Political participation
272. Right to the development of healthy environment is classified as -

A. First generation rights
B. Second generations rights
C. Third generation rights
D. Fourth generation rights
273. Which component of human rights that is consist of set of measures, approaches, and initiatives designed to realize
the right concerned?
A. Subject or a Right-Holder
B. Duty Holder
C. Object
D. Implementation
274. Respect to human rights is an obligation by the which is commanded to refrain from restricting the exercise
such rights.
A. Police C. Military
B. State D. Government
275. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

A. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day.
B. more than four years, two months and one day
C. less than four years, two months and one day
D. six years, one day and above
276. It is the actual restraint of a person into custody of the law in order for him to answer for the commission of an offense.
A. Arrest C. investigation
B. invitation D. seizure
277. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing the law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan.
A. Instigation C. Entrapment
B. Investigation D. Raid
278. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or interdependent from any branch of government.
A. prosecution C. correction
B. court D. community
279. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who directs the prosecution of the offense and he/she did it on the
behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the higher court such as Court of Appeals, who represents the State in the
prosecution of the offense?
A. Chief State Prosecutor C. Solicitor General
B. National or provincial prosecutor D. Judge
280. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement officer after a person has been taken into custody.
A. custodial investigation C. interview
B. inquest D. interrogation
281. In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade 27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art. 210 to
212 of the Revised Penal Code a complaint should first be filed to the office of for the conduct of the required
preliminary investigation.
A. Ombudsman C. Solicitor General
B. Judge of MTC D. Sandiganbayan
282. In flagrante delicto means ?

A. caught in the act C. caught after commission
B. instigation D. entrapment
283. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or try cases submitted to for adjudication. What term is use in
referring to the authority or power to hear and decided cases.
A. Jurisdiction C. Venue
B. Jurisprudence D. Territory
285. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the first time to the exclusion of other courts.
A. original jurisdiction C. exclusive jurisdiction
B. appellate jurisdiction D. concurrent jurisdiction
286. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules of conduct necessary to protect life and property and to maintain
peace and order?
A. Criminal Justice System C. Criminology
B. Criminal law D. Criminal jurisprudence
24
287. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case which would convince a reasonable mind based on moral certainty
but which nevertheless does not preclude the possibility of error.
A. Preponderance of evidence
B. Clear and convincing evidence
C. substantive evidence
D. proof beyond reasonable doubt
288. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby the prosecutor
uses discretion to obtain from the judge a lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering a guilty plea.
A. arraignment C. preliminary investigation
B. pre-trial D. plea bargaining
289. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the country which is under the ?
A. DOJ C. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM D. DSWD
290. A person who is under custodial investigation is basically protected by a number of rights mandated under the
constitution and this was even expounded in the legislative act known as ?
A. Miranda Doctrine C. R.A. 7438
B. Bill of Rights D. R.A. 6975
291. A body officially assembled under authority of law in which judicial power is vested or the administration of justice is
delegated.
A. court C. corrections
B. prosecution D. law enforcement
292. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and property and
ensure public safety.
A. police C. prosecution
B. court D. corrections
293. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation and treatment of persons convicted of committing crime.
A. police C. prosecution
B. court D. corrections
294. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.

A. R.A. 8294 C. R.A. 7080
B. R.A. 1379 D. R.A. 3019
295. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six years.
A. Supreme Court C. RTC
B. Court of Appeals D. MTC
296. Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted offenders sentenced to more than three (3) years of
imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-Roman word ?
A. Presinto C. Precindio
B. presidio D. precinto
297. There are how many members the composed the Lupon?
A. 3 members C. 5 to 10 members
B. 10 to 20 members D. 5 members
298. It is granted to convicted offenders who have served a portion of their service granted by the Board of Pardons and
Parole.
A. Pardon C. Probation
B. Amnesty D. Parole
299. They serve as the conciliation panel consisting of three (3) members.
A. Lupon tagapagkasundo C. Pangkat tagapagkasundo
B. Lupon Tagapamayapa D. Pangkat tagapamayapa
300. It is a security facility, usually operated by the police stations, for the temporary detention of persons held for
investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation before the prosecutor.
A. Lock-up jail C. Ordinary jail
B. workhouses D. prison
Part 2
1. Which of the foregoing statements refer to "corpus delicti"

I. Corpus delicti is the body or substance of the crime.
II. Corpus delicti is the fact that a crime has actually been committed.
III. Corpus delicti is the body of the person who is a victim of the homicide or murder.
a. II, III b. I, II c. I, III d. I, II, III
2. What is the crime committed if the offender killed a person whose age is less than 12 years of age?
25
a. Homicide, in the absence of any qualifying circumstances under Article 248.
b. Murder, if not attended by circumstances under Article 246.
c. Murder, even if the offender is any of the parent.
d. Parricide, regardless of relationship by consanguinity.
3. As a general rule, what does the constitution provide in so far as search and seizure is concern?
a. Search must be done by the police only.
b. Search must be upon order of the court.
c. Search should be conducted when there is a warrant.
d. Search must not deprive the person of his property.
4. The person was arrested without a warrant. His request for preliminary investigation was granted. However, the conduct
of preliminary investigation was not terminated and it already exceeded the period allowed by the rules. What should the
police officer in custody of the detained person do?
a. The police should not release the person, otherwise he will be administratively liable.
b. The police should release the person from detention.
c. The police should not release the person subject to the receipt
d. None of the above.
5. The person is suspected of committing a crime which is punishable by imprisonment of at least 4 years, 2 months and 1
day. The person was not subject to warrantless arrest. How will you proceed with the case?
a. Report the matter to my superior and let them decide what to do with the situation.
b. Exert effort to arrest a person even without a warrant for the commission of the crime.
c. File a direct complaint with the prosecutor's office for inquest proceedings.
d. File a direct complaint with the prosecutor's office for preliminary investigation
6. The PHASE in the commission of the crime when the person is from the point of beginning or within the point where he
can still decide to desist or continue the commission of the crime is the phase.
a. Objective b. Internal
c. Subjective d. External
7. The accused in criminal proceeding has in his favour the rule that criminal laws has should be construed liberally in his
favor because .
a. Of the requirement of the observance of due process
b. The prosecution has the burden of proof
c. The police is presumed to performed there duty with regularity
d. The accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty
8. After the decision was rendered with the trial court, the accused found a new evidence. What remedy should do based on
the new evidence?
a. File the motion for reconsideration b. File the motion for new trial
c. File a notice of appeal d. File a petition for certiorari
9. The declaration of the accused acknowledging his guilt of offense charged, or of any offense necessarily included therein
is .
a. Liability b. Confession
c. Admission d. Responsibility
10. A police officer testifying in court is allowed to refer to his/her notes or memorandum
a. to help him in the prosecution of the case
b. in order to refresh his memory
c. as it is his right as a police officer
d. as his codigo and his personal record
11. The constitutional limitation of the ex post facto law in the enactment of criminal laws simply means that our criminal
law shall applied .
a. Retroactively b. In favor of the accused
c. Prospectivity d. In against the state
12. Preliminary investigation is, a matter of right when the penalty for the crime is .
a. Not exceeding six years of imprisonment
b. Imprisonment of at least 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day regardless of fine
c. Imprisonment of 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day regardless of fine
d. Less than four years of imprisonment
13. Police officer JAIMES arrested DANIEL without legal ground and without a warrant. JAIMES committed a crime of
.
a. Violation of domicile b. Illegal arrest
c. Arbitrary detention d. Unlawful arrest
14. The crime committed is punishable by imprisonment of at least 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day. The crime was committed
in metro manila or chartered cities. Where should a complaint be filed in order to initiate the criminal action?
a. To file the complaint directly with the municipal trial court
b. at the police station for warrantless arrest and inquest proceeding
c. At the prosecutors office for the conduct of preliminary investigation
26
d. To file the information directly with the Regional Trial Court
15. Which of the following is NOT a secondary evidence?

a. A testimony of witness as to the contents of the original
b. A tape recorded recital of the contents of the original
c. A recital of the contents in the original in the authentic document
d. A copy of the original document
16. What is this rule in the evidence which states that when the terms of an agreement have been reduced to considered as
containing all the terms agreed upon and there can be between the parties and their successor in interest no evidence of
the written agreement?
a. Secondary evidence
b. Best evidence rule
c. Exclusionary rule
d. Parol evidence rule
17. The form of evidence that is subject to the senses of the court is .
a. Physical b. Object
c. None of these d. Real
18. The crime committed is punishable by imprisonment of 4 years, 2 months, and less. The crime was committed in the
province. Where should the complaint be filed in order to initiate the criminal action?
a. May file the complaint directly with the Municipal Trial Court
b. At the police station for warrantless arrest and inquest proceeding
c. May file the information directly with the Regional Trial Court
d. At the prosecutors office for the conduct of preliminary investigation
19. Which of the following circumstance make the evidence incompetence?

a. Evidence obtain in accordance with the constitution
b. Evidence obtained through third-degree method of investigation
c. Evidence obtain in accordance with the law or statue
d. Evidence obtain in accordance with the Rules
20. A person is lawfully arrested maybe search for anything .

a. That the police at this description has deemed to be proper
b. Even if not connected to the commission of an offense
c. Which may have been used or constitute for the commission of the offense
d. That may be ordered by the court as its discretion
21. What is the purpose why independent relevant evidence is admitted by courts?
a. To show that a certain fact occurred, whether true or not
b. To prove to the court the allegations.
c. To prove that the fact is true.
d. To prove that the fact is not true
22. When the person is called to testify in court as an accused, on what matters may the prosecution cross-examine the
accused?
I - In matters that was only touched upon in the direct testimony
II - In matter surrounding the circumstances the crime committed
III - in all matters that will test the credibility of the testimony
a. I, II, III b. I, II c. II, III d. I, III
23. In order that a person accused of a crime should be bound to answer the accusation against him, what should a police
officer do?
a. Wait for the issuance of the warrant of arrest
b. Let the court proceedings take its course and allow the issuance of warrant
c. Arrest the person accused of a crime even without a warrant
d. Do the arrest only when requested by the offended party
24. Venue of the criminal case refers to the place .

a. Of trial where the parties agree
b. Where the trial courts designates
c. That acquired jurisdiction over the case
d. Where the crime was committed
25. If a person commits an act or omission which is provided by Revised Penal Code as amended or modified, the crime
committed or omitted is .
a. Crime b. Ordinance c. Offense d. Felony
26. Our criminal law may be applied extraterritoriality which simply means that .
a. Our criminal law may be enforced by another sovereign country
b. Our criminal law may be applicable even outside of our territory
c. Foreigners here in our country may be charged for violation of our criminal law
d. Those accused of crime may be arrested even outside of our territory
27
27. The extrajudicial confession of an accused is sufficient for conviction .
a. Provided that it is freely, intelligently and voluntarily given
b. When it is corroborated by evidence of corpus delicti
c. Even it is not corroborated by evidence of corpus delicti
28. Which of the following is NOT considered as authorized person to file the complaint before the municipal trial court
a. Any peace officer
b. Any law enforcement officer authorized by law
c. The offended party
d. The witnesses to the crime committed
29. Which of the following is NOT hearsay?

a. The testimony of the witness concerning the letter he receive from somebody
b. The information received by a police officer from the neighborhood regarding the existence drug den in the area.
c. The affidavit of the witness who has not presented to the witness stand for cross examination
d. The statement given by the informant to the police officer
30. Ped xing is a Chinese citizen who killed a Filipino on board Philippine commercial vessel on the high seas. Based on the
given situation, based on territoriality principle, Philippine criminal law is .
a. Not applicable because the crime was committed outside of the Philippine territory
b. Not applicable because the offender is not a Filipino
c. Applicable in this situation although the crime was committed on the high seas
d. Applicable even if the crime was committed by a Filipino
31. The act or omission of a person who after hearing or seeing something that requires him/her to do comment if it is not
true and was given the opportunity is .
a. Admission b. Admission against interest
c. Confession d. Admission by silence
32. Which of the following situations is NOT valid search without a warrant?
a. Search plain view
b. Search incidental to stop and frisk
c. Search at the discretion of a police officer
d. Search incidental to a lawful arrest
33. Dodong Badong after trial was found guilty of a despicable act. However, the court found out that there is no law
punishing the said act. May the court punish Dodong Badong of any penalty which it deemed appropriate?
a. Yes, the act committed is despicable that it should be punished
b. No, the law cannot punish because the law does not know the applicable law
c. No, the law cannot punish an act if at the time was committed is yet punishable
d. All of these
34. An act or omission punishable by the Revised Penal Code

a. Act or omission b. Offense
c. Felony d. Crime
35. When the search and seizure conducted by the police is placed on a search warrant, this presupposes search and seizure
.
a. May be questionable
b. Is without probable cause
c. Violates of the rights of a person to privacy
d. Is with legal ground
36. Ryan was convicted for several crimes; Homicide, the penalty imposes is minimum of 6 years and 1 day to 8 years;
physical injuries, the penalty 4 years 1 day to 6 years; and Parricide, penalty is Reclusion Perpetua, Ryan should serve
successive service of sentence by serving first the penalty of .
a. Any of the conviction b. 4 years 1 day to 6 years
c. 6 years and 1 day to 8 years d. Reclusion Perpetua
37. What is this right that the accused may invoke during trial to avoid statement against himself?
a. Right not to be a witness for his behalf
b. Right against self incrimination
c. Right to assistance to counsel
d. Right to remain silent
38. The power or authority to hear and decide a case is .

a. Judicial b. Jurisdiction
c. Venue d. Mandate
39. The reading of the decision of the court convicting the accused appears to be NOT based on the evidence on record or
applicable law. What remedy should the accused do in the hope that the court may be reverse its decision?
a. File a motion for reconsideration b. File a notice of appeal
c. File a motion for new trial d. Petition for certiorari
40. In arbitrary detention it is required that the offender must be a
28
a. A person in authority or agent
b. Any person
c. A public officer or employee
d. Supreme court
41. The venue to hear criminal cases may be changed when the .
a. Prosecution and the accused agree
b. Complainant opted to change it
c. Trial court so ordered
d. Supreme court so ordered
42. When a Filipino kills a Chinese on board a vessel bearing the flag of Mexico while the vessel is inside Philippine internal
waters, may the criminal law of the Philippine apply?
a. Yes, the Philippine criminal law is applicable
b. Yes, since the offender is a Filipino
c. No, it is the Mexican criminal law that applies
d. No, the Philippine criminal law is not applicable
43. If the crime is committed in the province and the penalty thereof is one that does not require preliminary
investigation, the complaint shall be filed .
a. Directly with the appropriate Municipal Trial Court
b. At the Prosecutors Office for the inquest proceedings
c. Directly with the appropriate Regional Trial Court
d. In the barangay first for conciliation proceedings
44. To produce conviction, the extra judicial confession must be supported by .

a. The testimony of the counsel who assisted during the investigation
b. The testimony of the accused affirming his extra-judicial confession
c. The testimony of the investigating officer who obtained the confession
d. The presentation of corroborative evidence of corpus delicti
45. The following are elements of FRUSTRATED stage in the commission of the crime EXCEPT
a. The acts performed would produce the felony as a consequence
b. But the felony is not produced
c. By the reason of spontaneous desistance of the accused
d. The offender performs all acts of execution
46. Which of the following are NOT among the exceptions to the hearsay evidence?
a. Learned treatise b. Commercial lists
c. Privileged communication d. Entries in official records
47. The accused with lewd design brought a woman who is a minor in a secluded place but with consent of the latter. The
accused is liable for the crime of .
a. Simple seduction b. Forcible abduction
c. Qualified abduction d. Consented abduction
48. Rebellion and coup de' etat when committed by military personnel will subject them to court martial proceedings. What
is the NATURE of court martial proceeding?
a. Civil b. Administrative
c. Sui generis d. Consented abduction
49. The process required to determine probable cause based on direct filing of a complaint so that the information may be
filed in court is .
a. Ex parte - examination of complaint
b. Preliminary examination
c. Inquest proceedings
d. Judicial determination of probable cause
50. During arraignment, the accused is required to enter plea. So that the accused may be intelligently understand the
consequences of his plea, what is the mandatory requirement in entering the plea?
a. The accused should be assisted by his witness
b. The accused should be assisted by the court of competent jurisdiction
c. The prosecution should offer lower and irresistible offer
d. The accused should be assisted by competent and independent counsel
51. Mistake of fact is distinguished from mistake of identity in that in mistake of facts the .
a. Offender has the intention to commit a crime
b. Accused is certain about who is the victim
c. Accused is without intention to commit a felony
d. Offender is related the victim
52. When the crime was committed on board on a US Warship while it was in the Philippine waters, the .
a. Philippine criminal law shall not be applicable
b. US Military law shall be applicable
c. US criminal law shall be applicable in our courts
29
d. Philippine criminal law shall be applicable
53. The person was arrested without a warrant for the crime the penalty of which is imprisonment of at least 4 years 2
months and 1 day. He asked for preliminary investigation what is required of the person arrested in order that preliminary
investigation may be conducted?
a. He should ask for the presence of a counsel while being detained.
b. He should ask for his right to remain silent in the course of the preliminary investigation.
c. He should ask for his right to informed of the nature of the cause accusation against him
d. He should waive his right under Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code
54. When a case is file in this court, bail become a matter of right before or after conviction, which court is it?
a. Regional trial court b. Municipal/Metropolitan Trial Court
c. Court of Appeals d. Sandiganbayan
55. BABE is a police officer, he arrested BHOY without a warrant for a crime which is considered as less grave offense. For
BABE to be NOT liable for the crime of arbitrary detention, he must deliver BHOY to proper judicial authorities within
from the time of the arrest.
a. 12 hours b. 18 hours
c. 36 hours d. 32 hours
56. The police officer testifying in court can refer to his/her notes or memorandum .
a. As his codigo and his personal records
b. As it is his right as a police officer
c. In order to refresh his memory
d. To help him in the prosecution of the case
57. The crime committed when a person killed his/her illegitimate daughter who is a minor under the circumstances
provided by Article 247 is were it not for the exceptional circumstances applicable.
a. Infanticide b. Murder
c. Homicide d. Parricide
58. The constitutional limitation of bill of attainder in the enactment of criminal laws simply means that our criminal law
shall .
a. Decrease the imposed penalty to favor the accused
b. Impose the penalty even without hearing and trial
c. Applied the penalty only sparingly in favor of the state
d. Impose the penalty only after due hearing and trial
59. The prosecution shall offer in evidence its documentary evidence

a. At any time the prosecution may be proper at its discretion to offer
b. After the presentation of testimonies of witness have been terminated
c. None of these
d. After the presentation of the witnesses of the defense are terminated
60. The crime of adultery is committed by any married woman who shall .
a. Have sexual intercourse with a man under scandalous circumstances
b. Enter into marriage with another man is other that her husband
c. Have sexual intercourse with a man who is not her husband
d. Live in conjugal dwelling with a man who is not her husband
61. Because the burden of proof rest with the prosecution, the duty convict the person belongs to .
a. None of these
b. The strength of the prosecution's evidence
c. The courts discretion based on evidence
d. The weakness of the accused's evidence
62. The new and independent act which is the immediate cause of the injury which breaks the connection between the
original wrong and the injury is referred to as the cause.
a. Affective intervening b. Causal connection
c. Efficient intervening d. Efficient connecting
63. PEPE saw FUFU with angry expression on his face while holding a firearm moving towards his direction. When FUFU
was already near him, PEPE picked up a 2x2 hard wood and hit FUFU on both his arms, resulting injuries to the latter. It
was revealed during the investigation that FUFU is without bad intention against PEPE. PEPE was charged for serious
physical injuries. The situation fits the principal of .
a. Mistake of identity b. Mistake of fact
c. Mistake of the blow d. Ignorance of the law
64. Which of the following illustration BEST exemplifies the concept of complex crimes?
a. ION wanted to kill JHONG, ION set the house of JHONG resulted to the death of JHONG.
b. ION steal the chicken of JHONG, while at it, took the chicken of VHONG and that of JHUGGZ.
c. ION killed JHONG, after a week, raped VHONG and later steal the chicken of JHUGGZ
d. ION wanted to kill JHONG, he threw a grenade against JHONG. It killed JHON and injured JHUGGZ
65. Exclusion of evidence simply means .
30
a. None of these
b. That evidence obtained unlawfully shall be excluded by the court and not admitted
c. That evidence which are testimonial but objectionable shall be excluded
d. The witnesses not subject for examination should be excluded from the court
66. A person who is committing an act in violation of a special penal laws is committing .
a. A crime b. An offense
c. A felony d. An act or omission
67. What is this STAGE in court proceedings where the prosecution and accused may agree on matters that will promote a
fair and expeditious trial of the case?
a. Trial proper b. Preliminary investigation
c. Inquest proceedings d. Pre-trial
68. A Filipino killed a Chinese on board a vessel bearing the flag of Mexico while the vessel is in the Philippine territorial
waters, should the criminal law of the Philippines apply?
a. No, because the crime was committed on board a Mexican vessel
b. Yes, because the crime was committed within the Philippine territory
c. Yes, because the offender is a Filipino
d. No, because the offended party is a Chinese
69. Police officer testifying before the court is allowed to refer to his/her memorandum respecting a matter of .
a. Opinion of an expert
b. Fact recorded by his superior
c. Fact he recorded a long time ago
d. Question of law
70. The place of the commission of the crime is a consideration to determine the .
a. Territory b. Venue
c. Area of responsibility d. Jurisdiction
71. The party is deemed to have rested its case .

a. Once the party agreed as stated in the Pre Trial
b. As may be ordered by the court
c. After the court ruled on the formal offer of evidence
d. After the prosecution has offered its evidence
72. What is the form of evidence consisting of letters, symbols, numbers or any inscription?
a. Parole evidence b. Original evidence
c. Best evidence d. Documentary evidence
73. The following are the sources of criminal law EXCEPT .

a. Special laws b. Ordinances
c. Special penal laws d. Revised penal code
74. Conclusive presumption is also known as "presumption juris et de jure" disputable presumption is .
a. Presumption of regularity b. Dying declaration
c. Presumption of innocence d. Presumption jurist tantum
75. The questioning initiated by law enforcement authorities after a person is taken into custody or otherwise
a. Illegal detention b. Arbitrary detention
c. Custodial investigation d. Preliminary investigation
76. The authority to enact national penal statutes is lodged in the .

a. Respective sanggunian of LGUs b. Respective Mayor of LGUs
c. Congress of the Philippines d. Trial courts in the Philippines
SITUATIONAL
Situation 1 - CHUCHU is an investigator. CHACHA is the suspect. CHICHI is the victim with STAB WOUNDS. The identified
witness to the crime committed is CHOICHOI.
77. From the foregoing situation, suppose CHOICHOI has personal knowledge of the crime committed. However, CHOICHOI
has been previously convicted for the crime of robbery. Which of the following statements BEST describes the qualification
of CHOICHOI as a witness?
a. He is not competent to testify because of his previous conviction
b. He is not qualified to testify because of his previous conviction
c. He is qualified to testify subject to the approval of the court
d. He is qualified to testify despite his conviction of the crime of robbery
78. From the foregoing situation, suppose that CHOICHOI is merely 6 years old. Which of the following statement BEST
describes the qualification of CHOICHOI as a witness?
a. He is qualified so long that he can express his thought before the court
b. He is not qualified because a minor is susceptible of being coached by lawyers
c. He is not qualified because he is still a minor
d. He is qualified because he can perceive and perceiving can convey his perception to another
31
79. From the foregoing situation, suppose that CHOICHOI merely heard from CHACHUUU the information that it was
CHACHA who killed CHICHI. Which of the statement below CORRECTLY describes the admissibility of CHOICHOI's
testimony.
a. The testimony is admissible if only supported by other evidence
b. The testimony is not admissible as it is declaration against interest
c. The testimony is admissible only as independent relevant statement
d. The testimony is not admissible as it serves only his own interest.
80. From the foregoing situation, suppose that CHOICHOI merely heard from CHACHUUU the information that it was BOB
ONG who killed CHICHI. Which of the statement below CORRECTLY describes the admissibility of CHOICHOI's testimony.
a. It is not admissible for being independent relevant statement
b. It is admissible if it is supposed by evidence of corpus delicti
c. It is admissible if CHOICHOI is qualifies as a witness
d. It is not admissible for being hearsay evidence
81. During arraignment, the accused is required to enter his/her plea. What is the mandatory requirements so that the
accused may intelligently understand the consequences of his/her plea?
a. The accused should be assisted by his witnesses.
b. The accused to be assisted by competent and independent counsel.
c. The prosecution should offer lower and irresistible offer in exchange to a plea of guilty.
d. The accused should be assisted by the court of competent jurisdiction.
82. In criminal proceedings, the accused enjoys a rule that criminal laws should be construed liberally in favor of the cues
because .
a. Police is person to perform the duty with regularity.
b. The accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty.
c. The prosecution has the burden of proof
d. Requirement of due process
83. After the decision was rendered by the court disposing of the case, which of the following remedies allow the presentation
of new evidence?
a. Notice of Appeal b. Petition for Review
c. Motion for reconsideration d. Motion for new trial
84. Under article 3 of the revised penal code, felony is an act or omission which is punishable by law. The question is " an
act or omission of the offender is not malicious or intentional. It is merely the incident of another's act performed without
malice."
a. Intentional felony b. Culpable felony
c. Accidental felony d. Incidental felony
85. Under the ruling of criminal procedure, the discharge of the accused person to stand as the state witness to the
prosecution will?
a. Serve as a mitigating circumstance
b. Serve as an exempting circumstance
c. Operates as an acquittal
d. Operates as an admission of the offense
86. In order for the prosecutor who conducted the preliminary investigation in a criminal case can file an information with
a court, the evidence needed is?
a. Prima facie b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. Probable cause d. Testimonial
87. PO3 Bags enter the dwelling of Tot's against the latter's will on suspicion that Tots keep unlicensed firearms in his
home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bags?
a. Trespass to dwelling b. Violation of domicile
c. Usurpation of authority d. Forcible trespassing
88. One of the rulings of criminal procedure is the process of pretrial conference. Is pretrial conference composer in criminal
case?
a. Yes b. No
c. Maybe d. Sometimes
89. If the accused who is found guilty by the competent court is dissatisfied with the education and wanted to question the
decision within the 15 day-period, what remedy is available to him?
a. Demurrer to evidence b. Motion to quash
c. Motion for reconsideration d. Appeal
90. If there was an error or irregularity in the course of trial, which remedies available to the accused who was found guilty?
a. Demurrer to evidence b. Motion to quash
c. Motion for reconsideration d. Appeal
91. It is very evident that a certain building is keeping prohibited drugs and so that it would be legally checked, the needed
order is?
a. Warrant of arrest b. Subpoena
c. Summon d. Search warrant
32
92. Bart and Beta had been married for more than 6 months. They lived together with their children of Beta from her first
husband. Bert had a sexual relationship with Bea, the 14 year old daughter of Beta. Bea love Bert very much. What was
the crime committed by Bert?
a. Simple seduction b. Consented abduction
c. Qualified seduction d. Rape
93. In the philippines, there a different courts having its own jurisdiction and function. One of the causes of function that
can be trial and appellate court?
a. RTC b. SC
c. CA d. MTC
94. One of the titles under book 2 of the revised penal code is crimes against chastity. Is virginity important in crimes
against chastity?
a. Yes b. No
c. Maybe d. Sometimes
95. Under the rule of evidence, an object presented to court proceeding as exhibition is called?
a. Prima facie evidence b. Real evidence
c. Documentary evidence d. Material evidence
96. Revised code of the Philippines penalizes different types of crime. An act or omission is considered as a crime if it is?
a. Punishable by law b. Committed by dolo
c. Intentional d. Committed by culpa
97. Under the principle of criminal law as to generally, the following are exempted to our criminal law except?
a. Consul b. Head of the state
c. Ambassador d. Charge d'affaires
98. It refers to the mental capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong as determined by child's
appearance, attitude, compartment and behavior not only before and during the commission of the offense but also after
and during the trial?
a. Discipline b. Decision
c. Discretion d. Discernment
99. When bail is discretionary?

a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment
b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20 years who is recidivist
c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20 years when there is a risk that he may commit
another crime during the pendency of the appeal
d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20 years who has previously escape from legal
confinement.
100. Felony can be committed by dolo or culpa. It can be imprudence, negligence, lack of foresight or lack of skill.
Deficiency of action refers to?
a. Felony b. Crime
c. Imprudence d. Negligence
101. While undergoing custodial investigation, police officers Donny and Daniel inflicted acts of torture upon Andrea for
allegedly killing Kathryn. Andrea confessed some acts with the coercion of the two law enforcers. When can the confession
of Andrea be admissible in evidence?
a. None at all since it is covered by the exclusionary rule.
b. Only in case when the police officers are the ones accused of torturing Andrea.
c. When the court issued a subpoena for the production of Andrea’s confession.
d. As ordered by the court in case of national security concerns.
102. The Anti-Terrorism Law enacted in 2020 punishes acts of terrorism regardless of the stage of execution when the
purpose is:
a. To intimidate the general public or a segment thereof, create an atmosphere or spread a message of fear.
b. To provoke or influence by intimidation the government or any international organization, or seriously destabilize or
destroy the fundamental political, economic, or social structures of the country, or create a public emergency or seriously
undermine public safety.
c. Only B d. Only A e. Both A and B
103. Which are not acts of terrorism?

a. Advocacy b. Protest c. Dissent d. Stoppage of work e. All of the above
104. Republic Act 10175 or the Cybercrime Prevention Act provides that access to the whole or any part of a computer
system without right shall be called as the crime of:
a. Illegal access b. Illegal interception
c. Cybersquatting d. Cybersex
105. Under Republic Act 11053, amending Republic Act 8049, the presence of any person, even if such person is not a
member of the fraternity, sorority, or organization, during the hazing:
a. Is prima facie evidence of participation therein as a principal.
b. Provides no liability at all.
33
c. Is an automatic participation in such crime.
d. Will make all persons present as accomplices.
106. Daniel, in the course of taking Kathryn’s Rolls-Royce Rose Phantom, killed Andrea who was just taking a joyride with
Kathryn. Daniel committed:
a. Carnapping b. Carnapping and homicide
c. Carnapping and robbery d. Carnapping with homicide
107. To be considered as covered transactions under Republic Act 11521 amending Republic Act 9160 or the Anti-Money
Laundering Act, it must be:
a. Php500,000 in one banking day.
b. In the amount over Php500,000 in two banking day.
c. In total amount in excess of Php500,000 in one banking day.
d. At least Php500,000 in two banking day.
108. Daniel purchased a brand-new cellphone from Joshua for only Php5,000 which was originally priced at Php75,000.
Daniel was apprehended and prosecuted for violating PD 1612 being a fence. He alleged that he did not know that such a
cell phone was stolen by Joshua from Kathryn. May Daniel’s conviction proceed under PD 1612?
a. Yes, because he benefited from the original price of the cell phone.
b. Yes, mere possession of any good which has been the subject of stealing is prima facie evidence of fencing.
c. No, because this crime requires actual knowledge that such article of value be a product of robbery or thievery.
d. No, since there should first be a court conviction of the robber or the thief for PD 1612 violation to arise.
109. In the crime of plunder, when the main plunderer is identified, his co-conspirator may as well be punished. The
amount therefore shall be subject to accumulation to attain the total amount of at least Php50,000,000. In committing
plunder may either be:
a. Series or combination of overt criminal acts.
b. Any overt criminal acts
c. Consummated overt criminal acts.
d. Predicate preparatory acts.
110. Republic Act 9208, as amended by Republic Act 10364, punishes acts of human trafficking which has for its purpose
exploitation which includes at a minimum, the exploitation or the prostitution of others or other forms of sexual exploitation,
forced labor or services, slavery, servitude or the removal or sale of organs. How can human trafficking be committed?
a. Recruitment, obtaining, hiring, providing, offering, transportation, transfer, maintaining, harboring, or receipt of
persons with or without the victim’s consent or knowledge, within national borders.
b. Recruitment, obtaining, hiring, providing, offering, transportation, transfer, maintaining, harboring, or receipt of
persons with or without the victim’s consent or knowledge, within national borders across national borders.
c. By means of threat, or use of force, or other forms of coercion, abduction, fraud, deception, abuse of power or of position,
taking advantage of the vulnerability of the person, or, the giving or receiving of payments or benefits to achieve the consent
of a person having control over another person
d. All of the above.
34

CPJ Ultimate Atty - Fernandez Feb.2024

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

CPJ Ultimate Atty - Fernandez Feb.2024

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CPJ Ultimate Atty - Fernandez Feb.2024

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CHAPS ONLINE/ONSITE TUTORIAL SERVICES

CRIMINOLOGY ● PENOLOGY OFFICER EXAMINATION ● FIRE OFFICER EXAMINATION ● NAPOLCOM

14. What are the qualifications of a witness?

23. How would you describe the testimonial knowledge rule?

32. The opinion of a (ordinary) witness may be received in evidence regarding:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only

34. Which among the following is NOT an instance of a disputable presumption?

Which of the following is TRUE?

37. How can evidence of survivorship be proven?

A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 only

45. How does one classify a carbon copy of a document?

61. Which of the following is NOT a ground for a motion to quash?

67. The following are instances of permissible warrantless arrests, EXCEPT:

A. I, II and III C. I and III

A. I, II, III, IV C. III, IV

71. One is NOT a requisite for the plain-view doctrine to apply.

80. Which of the following cases that preliminary investigation is required?

102. Qualified rape by sexual intercourse is committed by the

126. Which among the following is a qualifying circumstance of murder?

183. The crime of inciting to sedition is committed by:

198. Acts and omissions punishable by law (RPC) are known as .

206. “Aberratio Ictus” simply means .

215. When impossible crime becomes punishable?

216. The phrase “Stand ground when in the right” means .

219. Statements below are true EXCEPT:

223. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

224. The Battered Woman Syndrome is:

234. An ordinary mitigating circumstance reduces the penalty only as to the:

235. To overcome intelligence as an element of criminal liability one has to prove –

237. In light felonies the following are criminally liable –

238. Proximate cause means:

239. What is meant by the term “mens rea” ?

A. 1, 3 and 5 only C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

259. Rights that can be abolished by the act of Congress are –

260. It enable a citizen to participate in running the affairs of the government.

261. The following are classified as civil rights, EXCEPT –

262. Civil and political rights are classified as –

268. Known as the right against discrimination is .

270. Human rights as defined by the United Nations refers to:

272. Right to the development of healthy environment is classified as -

275. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

282. In flagrante delicto means ?

294. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.

1. Which of the foregoing statements refer to "corpus delicti"

15. Which of the following is NOT a secondary evidence?

19. Which of the following circumstance make the evidence incompetence?

20. A person is lawfully arrested maybe search for anything .

a. I, II, III b. I, II c. II, III d. I, III

24. Venue of the criminal case refers to the place .

29. Which of the following is NOT hearsay?

34. An act or omission punishable by the Revised Penal Code

38. The power or authority to hear and decide a case is .

40. In arbitrary detention it is required that the offender must be a

44. To produce conviction, the extra judicial confession must be supported by .

59. The prosecution shall offer in evidence its documentary evidence

65. Exclusion of evidence simply means .

71. The party is deemed to have rested its case .

73. The following are the sources of criminal law EXCEPT .