The algebraic expression consisting a sum of any B.

Reduced algebraic expression

number of terms is called a C. Rational algebraic expression
A. multinomial D. Complex algebraic expression
B. summation Answer: C
C. binomial
D. monomial A statement containing one or more variables and
Answer: A having the property that it becomes either true or
false when the variables are given specific values
An equation which is satisfied by all values of the from their domains.
variable for which A. Solution
the members of the equation defined is known as B. Problem
A. linear equation C. Open sentence
B. rational equation D. Worded problem
C. conditional equation Answer: C
D. irrational equation
Answer: B Any algebraic term is a/an _______ term in certain
representing numbers if it consists of the product of
An equation in which some or all of the known possible integral powers of these numbers and a
quantiles are factor not containing them
represented by letters is called A. Integral
A. redundant equation B. rational
B. literal equatior C. irrational
C. linear equation D. integral rational
D. defective equation Answer: D
Answer:B
An equation in x and y which is not easily solved for
An equation in which the variabte appear under the y in terms of x is called
radical symbol A. explicit
A. Irradical equation B. implicit function
B. Irrational equation C. discontinuity
C. Quadratic equation D. quadratic
D. Linear equation Answer: B
Answer: B
The numbers which are represented with letters
An equation which, because of some mathematical A. Variabies
process, has B. Unknown
required an extra root is sometimes called as C. Literal numbers
A. redundant equation D. Terms
B. literal equation Answer: C
C. linear equation
D. defective equation Equations whose members are squat only for
Answer: A gertain or possibly no value of the unknown.
A. Conditional equations
Any equation which, because of some B. Inequalities
mathematical process, has fewer roots than its C. Unconditional equations
original is sometimes called as D. Temporary equations
A. redundant equation Answer: A
B. literal equation
C. linear equation An algebraic expression consisting of one term.
D. defective equation A. Monomial
Answer: D B. Binomial
C. Linear
An algebraic expression which can be represented D. Monomode
as a quotient of Answer: A
two polynomals.
A. Irrational algebraic expression
In algebra, this consists of products and quotients A number that consists of an integer part (which
of ordinary may be zero) and a decimal part less than unity
numbers and letters which represent numbers. that follows the decimal marker, which may be a
A. Expression point or a comma.
B. Term A. Proper fraction
C. Equation B. Improper fraction
D. Coefficient C. Decimal fraction
Answer: B D. Mixed number
Answer: C
An expression of two terms is called
A. polynomial
B. duomial For a given function, it is found that fit) = f(-t). What
C. binomial type of
D.all of the above symmetry does f(t) have?
Answer: C A. odd symmetry
B. even symmetry
The degree of a polynomial or equation is the C. rotational symmetry
A. maximum exponent D. quarter-wave symmetry
B. maximum sum of exponents Answer: B
C. exponent of the first variable
D. maximum exponent of x Which number has four significant figures?
Answer: B A. 0.0014
B. 0.01414
What is the degree of the polynomial 3x4y + 2x3 z3 - C. 0.141
4yz2 ? D. 1.4140
A. 6th Answer: B
B. 5th
C. 4th Naperian logarithm have a base closest to which
D. 3rd number?
Answer: A A. 2.17
B. 2.72
Any fraction which contains one or more fractions in C. 3.14
either numerator or denominator, or both is called D. 10
A. compound fraction Answer: B
B. composite fraction
C. complex fraction If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is
D. all of the above equal to the negative of the equation of that same
Answer: C curve, the curve is
A. an exponential
A common fraction with unity for numerator and a B. a sinusoid
positive integer as denominator (i.e.1/n). C. a tangent
A. Ordinary fraction D. a parabola
B. Unit fraction Answer: B
C. Common fraction
D. Improper fraction To find the angle of a triangle, given only the
Answer: B lengths of the sides. one would use
A. the law a cosines
If the absolute value of the numerator of a fraction B. the law of sines
is smaller than the denominator, it is called C. the law of tangents
A. proper fraction D. the inverse-square law
B. improper fraction Answer: A
C. decimal fraction o
D. mixed number Which is true regarding the signs of the natural
Answer: A functions for angles between 90° and 180°?
A. The tangent is positive
B. The cotangent is positive
C. The cosine is negative Convergent series is a sequence of decreasing
D. The sine is negative number or when the succeeding term is
Answer: C the preceding term.
A. greater man
What is the inverse natural function of the B. equal to
cosecant? C. lesser than
A. secant D. none of the above
B. sine Answer: C
C. cosine
D. cotangent If a = b then b = a. This illustrates what axiom in
Answer: B algebra?
A. Symmetric axiom
B. Reflexive axiom
The graphical presentation of a cumulate frequency C. Transitive axiom
distribution in a set of statistical data is called D. Replacement axiom
_____. Answer: A
A. histogram
B. kurtosis A and B are independent events. The probability
C. lepticurtic that event A will occur is Pa and the probability that
D. Ogive A and B will occur is Pab. From these two
Answer: D statements, what is the probability that event B will
occur?
A statement of truth of which follows with little or no A. Pa - Pab
proof from a theorem. B. РЬ - Pab
A. Axiom C. Pa х Рb
B. Hypothesis D. Pab / Pa
C. Corollary Answer: D
D. Conclusion
Answer: C Two or more equations are equal if and only if they
have the same
It is a sequence of numbers such that the A. solution set
successive terms differ by a constant. B. degree
A. Arithmetic progression C. order
B. Infinite progression D. variable set
C. Geometric progression Answer: A
D. Harmonic progression
Answer: A In any square matrix, when the elements of any two
rows are exactly the same, the determinant is
A frequency curve which is composed of series of A. zero
rectangles constructed with the steps as the base B. positive integer
and the frequency as the height. C. negative integer
A. Histogram D. unity
B. Ogive Answer: A
C. Frequency distribution
D. Bar graph The ratio or product of two expressions in direct or
Answer: A inverse relation with each other is called
A. ratio and proportion
If the roots of an equation are zero, then they are B. means
classified as C. extremes
A. hyperbolic solution D constant of variation
B. zeros of function Answer: D
C. extraneous roots
D. trivial salution Is a sequence of terms whose reciprocals form an
Answer: D arithmetic progression?
A. Geometric progression
B. Harmonic progression
C. Algebraic progression C. Maxwell diagram
D. Ratio and proportion D. Cartesian Diagram
Answer: B Answer: A
An array of m x n quantities which represent a
single number system composed of elements in 7 + Oi is
rows and columns is known as A. an irrational number
A. Transposed matrix B. real number
B. Cofactor of a matrix C. imaginary number
C. Matrix D. a variable
D. Determinant Answer: B
Answer: C

Binary number system is a system of notation for The number of successful outcomes divided by the
real number that uses the place value method with number of possible outcomes is
2 as the base, What is another name of the binary A. odd
number system? B. combination
A. Binary digits C. permutation
B. Binumber system D. probability
C. Dyadic number system Answer: D
D. Bits
Answer: C If a two digit number has x for its unit digit and y for
its tens digit, the numeer is represented as
The number 0.123123123... is a/an A. x + y
A. irrational number B. y – x
B. surd C. 10y + x
C. rational number D. 10x – y
D. transcendental Answer: C
Answer: C

MCMXCIV is the Roman numeral equivalent to A statement of truth which is admitted without
A. 1974 proof.
B. 1984 A. Axiom
C. 1994 B. Theorem
D. 2994 C. Postulate
Answer: C D. Corollary
Answer: A
A sequence of numbers where the succeeding term
is greater than the preceding term is called The part of theorem which is assumed to be true.
A. dissonant series A. Corollary
B. convergent series B. Hypothesis
C. divergent series C. Postulate
D. isometric series D. Conclusion
Answer: C Answer: B

Terms that differs only in numeric coefficients are A statement of truth which follows with little or no
known as proof from the theorem.
A. unlike terms A. Corollary
B. unequartermis B. Axiom
C. like terms C. Postulate
D. similar equations D. Conclusion
Answer: C Answer: A

In complex algebra, we use diagram to represent Refers to the construction of drawing of lines and
complex plane commonly called figures the possibility of which is admitted without
A. Argand diagram proof.
B. Venn diagram A. Corollary
B. Theorem
C. Postulate
D. Hypothesis “The product of two or more number is the same in
Answer: C whatever order they are multiplied." This refers to
A. Associative law of addition
A mathematical statement which has neither been B. Associative law of multiplication
proved nor denied by counterexamples. C. Commutative law of multiplication
A. Fallacy D. Distributive law of multiplication
B. Conjecture Answer: C
C. Theorem
D. Paradox If a = b, then b can replace a in any equation. This
Answer: B illustrates what law of identity?
A. Reflexive law
A proved proposition which is useful mainly as a B. Law of symmetry
preliminary to the proof of a theorem. C. Transitive law
A. Lemma D. Substitution law
B. Hypothesis Answer: D
C. Postulate
D. Corollary If a = a, then it illustrates what law of identity?
Answer: A A. Reflexive law
B. Law of symmetry
C. Transitive law
D. Substitution law
Axioms are propositions of a general logical nature Answer: A
(about equal or Unequal) while ______are
propositions concerning obiects and constructions. If a = b, and b = c, then a = C. This illustrates
A. theoreme A. reflexive law
B. corollaries B. law of symmetry
C. conclusions C. transitive law
D. Postulates D. substitution law
Answer: D Answer: C

A ______ is an ancillary theorem whose result is The axiom which relates addition and multiplication
not target for the proof. is the _______ law.
A. postulate A. commutative
B. lemma B. associative
C. hypothesis C. distributive
D. conclusion D. none of the above
Answer: B Answer: C

Statements that are accepted without discussion or Any combination of symbols and numbers related
proof are called axioms. The word "axiom" comes by the fundamental operation of algebra is called
from the Greek "axioma" which means a/an
A. worth A. equation
B. correct B. algebraic expression
C. true C. term
D. perfect D. algebraic sum
Answer: A Answer: B

In mathematical and other fields of logical

reasoning, axioms are used as basis for the Considered as the "counting numbers".
formulation of statements called A. Integers
A. lemma
B. hypothesis B. Rational numbers
C. postulate
D. theorem C. Irrational numbers
Answer: B D. Natural numbers
 A positive integer which has no perfect-square
Answer : D factor greater than 1.

A number represented by a non-terminating, non- A. Radical expression C. Square integer

repeating decimal.
B. Square integer D. Square-free integer

A. Irrational number
Answer: D
B. Rational number
C. Natural number Numbers are used to describe a
D. Integer
A. magnitude
Answer: A B. position
C. magnitude and position
The completeness axiom proved that the real
number system has numbers other than D. none of the above

A. Integers Use
B. Rational numbers Answer: C
C. Natural number
D. Irrational numbers
Are symbols or combinations of symbols which
Answer: B describe a number.

A. Numerals
The concept of spread of a random variable or a
set of observations. B. Digits
C. Terms
A. variance
D. Notations
B. standard deviation
C. dispersion Answer: A
D. range
Which of the following is not classified as an
integer?
Answer: C

A. negative numbers
A number containing a non-terminating but
repeating decimal is a/an B. positive number
C. zero
A. integer
D. imaginary numbers
B. rational number
C. natural number Answer: D
D. irrational number
When an imaginary number is raised to an even
exponent, it
Answer: B

A. becomes infinite
B. becomes negative imaginary number D. real number
C. becomes relatively small number
Answer: B
D. becomes real number

A prime number has exactly how many divisors?

Answer D
A. 1
B. 2
The complex number is in the form of a + bi. If a = C. 3
0, what do you call the resulting number? D. 4
A. absolute value of the complex number
B. pure imaginary number Answer: B
C. argument
D. irrational number
A prime number is an integer greater than 1 which
has
Answer: B

For a complex number a + bi, the real number √a2+ A. 1 as its only positive divisor
b? is ______ of the complex number. B. Itself as its only positive divisor
C. 1 and itself as its only positive divisors
D. 1 and its additive inverse as its only positive
A. Absolute value divisor
B. Modulus
C. Magnitude Answer: C
D. All of the above
An integer which is the product of two integers,
Answer: D both different from 1 and -1 is called

The _____ of two complex number is found by A. Prime number

multiplying each term of the one by every term of B. Rational number
the other. C. Composite number
D. Compound number

A. Sum
Answer: B
B. Difference
C. Product A composite number has a least _____ divisors.
D. Quotient A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
Answer: C
D. 4

A number which can be expressed as a quotient of

Answer: C
two integers (division of zero excluded) is called

Two natural numbers a and b are ______ If their

A. Irrational number
greatest common divisor is 1.
B. rational number
C. imaginary number
A. Relatively prime
B. Relatively composite
C. Equal Answer: A
D. Reciprocal
An integer the sum of all its possible divisors except
Answer: A the number itself is less than the integer is called

Numbers used to count the objects or ideas in a

given collection. A. Abundant number
B. Amicable number
C. Friendly number
D. Defective number
A. Cardinal numbers
B. Ordinal numbers
C. Irrational numbers Answer: D
D. Numerals
What is the smallest perfect number possible?
Answer: A

A. 1
Numbers which is used to state the position of B. 6
individual objects in a C. 12
D. 8

A. Cardinal numbers Answer: B

B. Irrational numbers
C. Ordinal numbers
D. Numerals All perfect numbers are

Answer: C
A. even numbers
B. odd numbers
An Integer number that is equal to the sum of al its C. prime numbers
possible divisors the number itself is called D. composite numbers

Answer: A
A. Amicable number
B. Perfect number
C. Defective number Two integer numbers are said to be ____ if each is
D. Redundant number the sum of all possible divisors of the other.

Answer: B
A. Perfect numbers
B. Defective numbers
An integer the sum of all its possible divisors except C. Amicable numbers
the number itself is greater than the integer is D. Fermat’s numbers
called
Answer: C

A. abundant number
B. perfect number What is another name for amicable numbers?
C. defective number
D. amicable number
A. Compatible numbers Answer: A
B. Friendly numbers
C. Fermat’s numbers
D. Inconsistent numbers “Every sufficiently large off number can be
expresses as a sum o three prinme numbers”. This
Answer: B is known as

What is the smallest pair of friendly number?

A. Goldbach conjecture
B. Vinogradov’s theorem
C. Pascal’s Law
A. 180 and 190 D. Mersenne’e theorem
B. 200 and 120
C. 220 and 284
D. 220 and 264 Answer: B

Answer: C Term “ratio” comes from Latin verb “ratus” meaning

Prime numbers that appear in pair and differ by 2

(eg. 3 and 5, 11 and 13 etc.) are called
A. To divide
A. Mersenne primes B. To estimate
C. To get the mean
B. prime number theorem D. to make a proportion
C. twin primes
D. pseudo primes Answer: B

Answer: C In the proportion of four quantities, the first and

fourth terms are referred to as the

“Every even integer greater than 2 can be written

as the sum of two primes”. This is known as
A. means
B. extremes
C. denominators
A. Fermat’s last theorem D. numerators
B. Goldbach conjecture
C. Prime number theorem
D. Mersenne primes Answer: B

Answer: A The first term of a ratio is called

“Every positive integer greater than 1 is a prime or A. antecedent

can be expresses as a unique product of primes B. consequent
and powers”, This is known as C. mean
D. extreme

A. Fundamental theorem of arithmetic Answer: A

B. Pseudo prime theorem
C. Prime number theorem The second term of a ratio is called
D. Mersenne’s Theorem
A. antecedent
B. mean Answer: C
C. consequent
D. extreme
If an equality is true for all values of the variable, it
is a/an
Answer: C

The _____ is the square root of the product of the A. conditional inequality
extremes. B. equivalent inequality
C. absolute inequality
D. non-conditional inequality
A. antecedent
B. consequent Answer: C
C. mean proportional
D. mean
If the same number is added to both sides of an
inequality, the inequality
Answer: C

If the means of a proportion are equal, their A. becomes negative

common vafue is called B. becomes positive
C. is reversed
D. is preserved
A. mean
B. extreme Answer: D
C. mean proportional
D. extreme proportional
An inequality is preserved if both sides are
Answer: C multiplied by

The theorem that in every arithmetic progression a,

a + d, a = 2d ….. where a and d are relatively A. zero
prime. B. -1
C. a positive number
D. a negative number
A. Fibonacci Theorem
B. Gauss Theorem Answer: C
C. Lejeune Theorem
D. Dirichlet Theorem
An inequality is reversed if both sides are multiplied
by
Answer: D

A statement that one mathematical expression is A. Zero

greater than or less than another is called B. -1
C. a positive number
D. a negative number
A. absolute condition
B. non-absolute condition Answer: C
C. inequality
D. conditional expression
Division of a population or same into two groups
based either on measurable variables (e.g. age
under 18, age over 180) or on attributes (e.g. male, A. Numerator of a quotient
female). B. Denominator of a quotient
C. the quotient itself
D. none of the above
A. Decomposition
B. Denomination Answer: B
C. Deviance
D. Dichotomy
In any square matrix, when the elements of any tow
rows are exactly the same (i.e. row 1 = row 2 or
Answer: D row 1 = row 3, or row 2 = row 3 … ), the
determinant is
A 3 × 2 matrix can be multiplied to a

A. Zero
B. Positive integer
A. 3 x 2 matrix C. negative integer
B. 3 x 3 matrix D. unity
C. 2 x 5 matrix
D. row matrix
Answer: A
Answer: C
When the corresponding elements of two rows of a
determinant are proportional ,. Then the value of
If there are as many equations as unknowns, the the determinant is
matrix of the coefficient is a

A. One
A. row matrix B. Indeterminate
B. column matrix C. Infinite
C. square matrix D. Zero
D. rectangular matrix

Answer: D
Answer: C

An array of mxn quantities which represent a single

A method of solving linear equation with several number and is composed of elements in rows and
unknowns simultaneously using determinants. columns is known as

A. Simpson’s rule A. Transpose of a matrix

B. Cramer’s rule B. Determinant
C. Trapezoidal rule C. co-factor of a matrix
D. Chain rule D. matrix

Answer: B Answer: D

Using Cramer’s rule, the determinant of the When two rows are interchanged in position, the
coefficient is always is always the value of the determinant will
 C. Surd
D. Radicant
A. Remain unchanged
B. Be multiplied by -1
C. become zero Answer: C
D. become infinite value
The symbol ^n√ means the principal nth root “n” is
Answer: B called the

If every elements of a row (or column) are

multiplied by a constant, k. then the value of the A. Radicand
determinant is B. Radical
C. Radix
D. Index

A. multiplied by -k
B. zero Answer: D
C. one
D. multiplied by k In the preceding item, “b” is called the

Answer: A
A. Radicand
If the rows of a determinant are interchange, the B. Radical
determinant C. Radix
D. Index

A. changes sign Answer: A

B. changes sign and value
C. remain unchanged The symbol √ is called
D. becomes the inverse of the former

Answer: A A. Radical
B. Radical symbol
Which of the following cannot be an operation of C. Index
matrices? D. A or B

Answer: D
A. Addition
B. Subtraction The rules of combining radicals follow the rules for
C. Multiplication
D. Division

A. Signed numbers
Answer: D B. Logarithms
C. Fractional exponents
An irrational number which is a root of a positive D. Factoring
integer of fraction is called
Answer: C

A. Radical When a number has both a positive and negative

B. Radix nth root, the principal nth root is
 A radical expressing an irrational number is called a
A. The positive root
B. The negative root A. surd
C. Both the positive and negative root B. radix
D. None of the above
C. index
Answer: A D. complex number
Answer: A
Every positive number has ____ nth root.
A surd which contains at least one rational term.
A. Pure surd
A. Zero
B. Two B. Mixed surd
C. Two
D. Three C. Binomial surd

Answer: B D. Conjugate surd

Answer: B
The principal nth root of a negative number is the
negative roof if n is A surd that contains no rational number, that is, all
its factors or terms are surds, example: √3 or √3+
√2
A. Even A. Mixed surd
B. Odd
C. Positive B. Pure surd
D. Negative
C. Binomial surd

Answer: B D. Conjugate surd

Answer: B
To eliminated a surd, multiply it by its
The process of removing surd from a denominator
is to
A. Square A. rationalize the denominator
B. Cue
C. Reciprocal B. invert the divisor and proceed to multiplication
D. Conjugate
C. get its multiplicative inverse

Answer: D D. multiply it why its additive inverse

Answer: A

A radical which is equivalent to a non-terminating

A quadratic equation of the form a x²+c=0, without
and non-repeating decimal.
the coefficient of the first degree term is a/an
A. Irrational number
A. general quadratic equation
B. Natural number
B. pure quadratic equation
C. Surd
C. quadratic polynomial
D. Transcendental number
D. incomplete quadratic equation
Answer: C
Answer: B B. B²+4AC
C. B²-4AC
In the quadratic equation A x²+Bx+C=0, when the
two roots are multiplied, the result is
D. √B²+4AC
A. C /A
Answer: B
B. -B / A
C. -C / A What determines the nature of the roots of a
quadratic equation?
D. A / C
A. Coefficient
Answer: A
B. Discriminant
In the quadratic equation A x²+Bx+C=0, when the C. Factors
two roots are added, the result is
D. All of the above
A. C / A
Answer: B
B. -B / A
C. -C / A The real roots of a cubic equation are the
D. A / C A. points of inflection of the graph of the equation
Answer: B B. points of intersection of the graph of the equation
with the x-axis
If the discriminant of a quadratic equation of a C. points of intersection of the graph of the
quadratic equation is less than zero, the equation equation with the y-axis
has
D. obtained by using the quadratic formula
A. no real root
Answer: B
C. two real roots
B. one root only For a cubic equation, if the discriminant is equal to
zero, we produce
D. none of the above
A. three equal real roots
Answer: A
B. one real root and two conjugate complex roots
When can we say that the two roots of a quadratic C. three distinct real roots
equation are equal?
D. three real roots, of which two are equal
A. when discrimant is greater than 1
Answer: D
B. when discriminant is zero
C. when the coefficient of the second degree term A succession of numbers in which one number is
is equal to the coefficient of the first degree term designated as first, another as second, another as
third and so on is called
D. none of the above
A. series
Answer: B
B. arrangement
What is the discriminant of the quadratic equation C. arrangement
Ax²+Bx+C=0 ?
D. sequence
A. √B²+4AC
Answer: D
An indicated sum a1+a2+a3+… is called The sum of the terms of an arithmetic progression
A. series A. Arithmetic means
B. sequence B. Arithmetic sequence
C. arrangement C. Arithmetic series
D. partial sum D. All of the above
Answer: A Answer: C

The repeating decimal 0.333… is a geometric The harmonic mean between a and b
series of a1 = 0.3 and r =
A. (a+b) / 2
A. 3 / 10
B. 2 a b /(a+b)
B. 1 / 10
C. (a+b) / a b
C. 10
D. a b /(a+b)
D. 5
Answer: B
Answer: B
The arithmetic mean of a and b is
A progression whose reciprocal forms an arithmetic
progression A. (a+b) / 2

A. arithmetic means B. 2 a b /(a+b)

B. harmonic means C. (a+b) / a b

C. geometric progression D. a b /(a+b)

D. harmonic progression Answer: A

Answer: D
The geometric mean of a and b is

The number between two geometric terms. A. (a+b) / 2

A. Means B. 2(a+b)

B. Arithmetic means C. a b /(a+b)

C. Geometric means D. √ab

D. Median Answer: D

Answer: C
Are numbers which can be drawn as dots and
arranged in triangular shape (i.e. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15,
The sum of the first n terms of a series is called the 21..)
nth
A. Triangular number
A. sum
B. Square numbers
B. sequence
C. Pentagonal numbers
C. arrangement
D. Tetrahedral numbers
D. partial sum
Answer: A
Answer: D
 D. Triangular numbers

A figure numbers which can be drawn as dots and Answer: A

arranged in square shape (i.e. 1,4,9,16,25…
A. Cubic numbers A sequence of numbers where the number is equal
to the sum of the two preceding numbers such as
B. Square numbers 1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21… is called
C. Pyramid numbers A. Fermat’s numbers
D. Pentagon numbers B. Fibonacci numbers
Answer: B C. Gaussian numbers
D. Archimedean numbers
A sequence 1,5,12,22,35… is known as
Answer: B
A. Oblong numbers
B. Pentagonal numbers What is the multiplicative inverse of the integer 5?
C. Cubic numbers A. 1
D. Pyramid numbers B. 5
Answer: B C. -5
D. 1 / 5
Answer: D
A sequence 1,8,27,64,125,216… is known as
A. Pyramid numbers What is the additive identity element?
B. Cubic numbers (correct) A. 0
C. Tetrahedral numbers B. 1
D. Square numbers C. -1
Answer: B (Answer C if the same choices) D. infinity
Answer: A
A sequence 1,4,10,20,35,56 is known as
A. Pyramid numbers What is the multiplicative identity element?
B. Cubic numbers A. 0
C. Tetrahedral numbers B. 1
D. Square numbers C. -1
Answer: C D. infinity
Answer: B
A sequence of numbers where every term is
obtained by adding all the preceding terms a
square number series such as 1,5,14,30,55, 91 The number 0 such that 0+a=a for all a is called the

A. Pyramid numbers A. additive inverse

B. Tetrahedral numbers B. additive identity

C. Euler’3 numbers C. commutative law of addition

D. associate law of addition D. a-bi
Answer: B Answer: B

The additive inverse of a complex number a+bi is What is the multiplicative inverse of a + bi?
A. a-bi A. 0
B. a+bi B. 1
C. -a-bi C. -a-bi
D. -a+bi D. (a(a²+b²)-bi(a²+b²))
Answer: C Answer: D

All real numbers have additive inverse, commonly Which of the following is NOT a property of a
called binomial expansion of (x+y) ^n?
A. reciprocals A. Power of x is decreasing
B. opposites B. Power of y is increasing
C. addends C. Sum of exponents in each term =n
D. equivalent D. Number of terms =n-1
Answer: B Answer: D

All real numbers except zero have multiplicative A triangular array numbers forming the coefficient
inverses, commonly called of the expansion of a binomial is called
A. equivalents A. Egyptian triangle
B. factors B. Golden triangle
C. opposites C. Pascal’s triangle
D. reciprocals D. Bermuda triangle
Answer: D Answer: C

The number zero has no The coefficient of the second term of the expansion
of (x+y) ^n is always equal to
A. multiplicative inverse
A. n
B. additive inverse
B. n-1
C. multiplicative identity
C. n+1
D. additive identity
D. n / 2
Answer: A
Answer: A
What is the additive inverse of a+bi?
How is a number in the Pascal’s triangle obtained?
A. bi
A. By getting the product of the two numbers
B. -a-bi directly above it.
C. 1 / (a+b i) B. By getting the sum of the two numbers directly
above it.
C. By getting the difference of the two numbers Answer: A
directly above it.
D. By getting the mean of the two numbers directly Is the arrangement of objects regardless of the
above it. order they are arranged.
Answer: B A. Permutation
B. Combination
If the sign between the terms of the binomial is
negative, its expansion will have signs which are C. Probability

A. all positive D. Any two of the above

B. all negative Answer: B

C. alternate starting with positive

D. alternate starting with negative
Answer: C
In the absence of the Pascal’s triangle, the
coefficient of any term of the binomial expansion
can be obtained by dividing the product of
coefficient of the preceding term and exponent of x
of the preceding term by of the preceding term.
The shifting of the entire order sequence of
elements one or more steps forwards to backward
– the first element taking the position of the last, or
vice versa without changing the order of the
elements in the sequence is called
A. inversion
B. cyclic permutation
C. transposition

A. the exponent of y D. identical elements

B. the exponent of y+1 Answer: B

C. the exponent of y-1

The number of elements in the collection being
D. the square root of y permuted is the of the permutation.
Answer: B A. degree
B. sum
The fundamental principle of counting states that id
one thing can be done in “m “different ways and C. index
another thing can be done in “n “ different ways, D. all of the above
then the two things can be done in different ways.
Answer: A
A. m+n
B. (m x n) The ratio of the successful outcomes over the total
C. m! + n! possible outcomes is called

D. m^n A. combination

Answer: B B. permutation
C. probability
Is the arrangement of the objects in specific order. D. speculation
A. Permutation Answer: C
B. Combination
C. Probability The value of probability of any outcome will never
be equal to nor exceed
D. Any two of the above
A. 0.1
B. 0.5 Answer: A
C. 0.75
The difference between the highest score and the
D. 1 lowest score in the distribution.
Answer: D A. Deviation
B. Range
If two events A and B are mutually exclusive events
and the probability that A will happen is Pa and the C. Median
probability that B will happen is Pb, then the
probability that A or B happen is D. Mode

A. Pa + Pb Answer: B

B. Pa x Pb
The second power of the standard deviation is
C. Pa/Pb called
D. Pb/Pa A. mode
Answer: A B. central tendency
C. variance
A and B are two independent events. The
probability that A can occur is p and that for both A D. dispersion
and B to occur is q. The probability that event B Answer: C
can occur is
A. p+q A graph of cumulative frequency distribution plotted
B. p-q at class marks and connected by straight lines.

C. p / q A. Histogram

D. q / p B. Venn diagram

Answer: D C. ogive
D. Scattergram
If the probability of occurrence of a is Pa, what is Answer: C
the probability that will nor occur?
A. 1/ Pa
A point in the distribution of scores at which 50
B. 1- Pa percent of the scores fall below and 50 percent of
C. 1+ Pa the scores fall above.

D. √Pa A. Mode
B. Mean
Answer: B C. Median
D. Range
In statistics, a pictorial description of the probability Answer: C
concepts of independent and dependent events is
called A number that occurs most frequent in a group of
numbers.
A. Venn diagram
A. Median
B. histogram B. Mode
C. Means
C. frequency polygon
D. Standard deviation
D. ogive
Answer: B
The difference between an approximate value of a C. Tens digit
quantity and its exact value or true value. D. Units digit
A. Relative error Answer: B
B. Absolute error
C. Mistake It is any one of the digit from 1 to 9 inclusive, and 0
D. Relative error except when it is used to place a decimal.

Answer: B A. Leading digit

B. Significant figure
It is the quotient of the absolute error divided by the C. Decimal number
true value. D. Numerals
A. Relative error Answer: B
B. Relative change
C. Absolute error In algebra, the operation of the root extraction is
D. Mistake called

Answer: A A. evolution
B. involution
Refers to a value which is not exact but might be C. revolution
accurate enough for some specific considerations. D. indexing
A. Approximate value Answer: A
B. Absolute value
C. Relative value The operation of raising to the integral power
D. Accurate value known as

Answer: A A. evolution
B. involution
If the absolute error does not exceed a half unit in C. revolution
the last digit, this digit is usually referred to as the D. indexing
A. significant digit Answer: B
B. leading digit
C. reliable digit Each of two or more numbers which is multiplied
D. relative digit together to form a product are called

Answer: C A. terms
B. expression
The most significant digit of the number 0.2015 is C. dividends
D. factors
A. 0
B. 1 Answer: D
C. 2
D. 5 When the factors of a product are equal, the
product is called a ____ of the repeated factor.
Answer: C
A. coefficient
The ____ is stated in the magnitude of the absolute B. identity
or relative error of the approximated value. C. power
D. algebraic sum
A. precision
B. accuracy Answer: C
C. mistake
D. error A relation in which every ordered pair (x,y) has one
and only one value of y that corresponds to the
Answer: B value of x is called
The first non-zero digit from the left of the number. A. term
B. coordinates
A. Whole number C. function
B. Leading digit D. domain
Answer: C Answer: C
Indicate the false statement In the equation n x m = q, n is called the
A. The objects in a set are called its elements. A. multiplier
B. Ever number is either rational or irrational. B. minuend
C. The additive inverse of number "a" is 1/a. C. multiplicand
D. The negative of zero is zero. D. product
Answer: C Answer: C
A symbol holding a place for an unspecified Any one of the individual constants of an expressed
constant is called sum of constant is called
A. arbitrary constant A. addend
B. parameter B. multiple
C. variable C. factor
D. all of the above D. summation
Answer: D Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT true about significant In the equation 5 + 2 = 7, 5 is known as
figures?
A. augend
A. All non-zero digits are significant. B. minuend
B. Any zero between non-zero digits are C. dividend
significant. D. addend
C. Any zero not needed for placing a decimal
point is not significant. Answer: A
D. Zeros used for the purpose of placing a A number of the form a + bi with a and b real
decimal point are not significant. constant and i is the square root of -1.
Answer: C A. Imaginary number
B. Complex number
The sum of any point number and its reciprocal is C. Radical
D. Compound number
1. always less than 2
2. always equal to 2 Answer: B
3. always greater than 2 The absolute value of a non-zero number is
4. always equal to the number's additive
inverse A. always zero
B. always negative
Answer: C C. always positive
What is the absolute value of a number less than D. sometimes zero and sometimes positive
one but greater than negative one raised to Answer: C
exponent infinity?
A polynomial which is exactly divisible by two or
A. Infinity more polynomials is called
B. Zero
C. One A. least common denominator
D. Indeterminate B. common multiple
C. factors
Answer: B D. binomial
If a is an odd number and b is an even number, Answer: B
which of the following expression must be even?
A polynomial with real coefficient cam be factored
A. a+b into real linear factors and irreducible ____ factors.
B. a-b
C. ab A. linear
D. a/b B. quadratic
C. cubic D. a+b=c+d
D. repeated
Answer: A
Answer: B
Any number divided by infinity equals
If the degree of the numerator is one more than the
degree of the denominator, the quotient is a ____ A. 0
polynomial. B. 1
C. infinity
A. linear D. indeterminate
B. quadratic
C. cubic Answer: A
D. quartic The study of the properties of positive integers is
Answer: A known as

Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Number of Theory

B. Theory of equation
A. The sum of even number is even. C. Set Theory
B. The difference of even number is even. D. Arithmetic
C. The product of even numbers is even.
D. The quotient of even numbers is even. Answer: A

Answer: D Indicate the FALSE statement.

For every law of addition and subtraction, there is a A. A quotient of two polynomials is called as
parallel law for multiplication and division, except rational algebraic expression.
division by B. a³ - b³ = (a + b)(a² - ab + b²)
C. The equation ax + b = 0 has exactly one
A. negative values root.
B. zero D. The equation 3x² + 2y² - 3x + 2y = 10
C. one
D. positive value Answer: B

Answer: B A number is said to be in ____ when it is written as

the product of a number having the decimal point
Indicate the FALSE statement. just after the leading digit, and a power of 10.
A. The multiplicative identity is 1. A. scientific notation
B. The product of a positive number and a B. exponential
negative number is negative. C. irrational
C. ab = ba is the associative law for D. logarithm
multiplication.
D. x² - y² = (x + y)(x - y) Answer: A

Answer: C A number which cannot be a root of an integral

rational equation is called
For any two rational number a/b and c/d, which of
the following relations is true? A. transcendental number
B. Euler's number
A. a/b + c/d = ab/cd C. irrational number
B. a/b + cd = (ab + cd)/ad D. natural number
C. a/b + c/d = (ad + bc)/bd
D. ab + cd = ac/bd Answer: A

Answer: C Refers to the numbers which are not the roots of

any algebraic equation.
Two rational numbers a/b and c/d are said to be
equal if A. Irrational numbers
B. Transcendental numbers
A. ad = bc C. Imaginary numbers
B. ac = bd D. Composite
C. ab = cd
Answer: B A. Fermat's last theorem
B. Fibonacci numbers
All number multiplied by ____ equals unity. C. Goldbach conjecture
A. negative of the number D. Triangular numbers
B. one Answer: B
C. conjugate
D. its reciprocal It was conjecture that the number in the form Fp =
2p + 1 will always result to a prime number,
Answer: D however proved wrong. What do you call the
The number denoted as "e" and equal to 2.718... is numbers obtained using the said formula?
called the A. Mensens numbers
A. Einstein constant B. Fermat numbers
B. Euler's number C. Euler numbers
C. Fibonacci number D. Pseudo prime
D. Fermat's number Answer: B
Answer: B A theorem which states that if n > 2, the equation
xn + yn = zn cannot be solved in positive integers x,
A notation that represent the product of all positive y and z.
integers from 1 to a number, n, inclusive A. Pythagorean theorem
A. Factorial B. Mersenne theorem
B. Exponent C. Goldbach conjecture
C. Summation D. Fermat's theorem
D. All of the above Answer: D
Answer: A The number π = 3.141592563... If only four
Simplify n!/(n - 1)! decimals are required, it becomes 3.1415. This
process is called
A. n+1
B. n-1 A. rounding off
C. (n + 1)! B. truncation
D. n C. rounding up
D. rounding down
Answer: D
Answer: B
The factorial symbol (!) was introduced in 1808 by
A set of all subsets of a given set, containing the
A. Christian Goldbach empty set and the original set.
B. Christian Kramp
C. Christian Leatner A. Empty
D. Robert Hooke B. Null
C. Power set
Answer: B D. Union
The conjecture that every even number (except 2) Answer: C
equals the sum of two prime numbers.
A. Goldbach conjecture A set containing the elements that is common to
B. Fibonacci series the original sets.
C. Number conjecture
D. Fermat's last theorem A. Union
B. Intersection
Answer: A C. Normal set
D. Subset
The unending sequence of integers formed
according to the rule that each integer is the sum of Answer: B
the preceeding two.
If an infinite series has a finite sun, it is referred to QED is often written at the end of a proof to
as a indicate that its conclusion has been reached. This
means
A. convergent series
B. divergent series A. quod erat daciendum
C. geometric series B. duod erat demonstrandum
D. none of the above C. quod erat decientrandum
D. none of the above
Answer: A
Answer: B
If an infinite series has no sum, it is referred to as a
A sequence of numbers where the succeeding term
A. convergent series is greater than the preceeding term.
B. divergent series
C. geometric series A. Isometric series
D. none of the above B. Divergent series
C. Dissonant series
Answer: B D. Convergent series
The sum of the factorial infinite 1 + 1/1! + ½! + ⅓! + Answer: B
¼! + ... is
The process of reasoning wherein a final
A. π conclusion is obtained by experimental method.
B. e
C. √2 A. mathematical deduction
D. √3 B. mathematical opposition
C. mathematical conversion
Answer: B D. mathematical induction
Refers exclusively to equations with integer Answer: A
solutions.
The set of all subsets of a given set, containing the
A. Determinate equations empty set and the original set.
B. Indeterminate equations
C. Diophantine equations A. Intersection
D. L'Hospital's equations B. Power set
C. Proper subset
Answer: C D. Improper subset
Answer: B
"My Dear Aunt Sally" is the basic rule used I
operation of algebra. Which is used in determining A sequence having a defined first and last terms is
the signs of trigonometric functions in all quadrants. called
A. All chemists thick solution. A. infinite sequence
B. All students can think. B. convergent sequence
C. All students take chemistry C. divergent sequence
D. All teachers can sing. D. finite sequence
Answer: C Answer: D
The investigation of numbers, space and many A series is said to be ____ if it converges when the
generalizations of these concepts by the intellectual terms are replaced by their absolute value.
genius of man.
A. absolute convergent
A. Science B. conditional convergent
B. Arts C. infinite convergent
C. Mathematics D. finite convergent
D. Astronomy
Answer: A
Answer: C
A convergent series is said to be ____ if it diverges The angular distance of a point on the terrestrial
when the terms are replaced by their absolute sphere from the north pole is called
values.
A. coaltitude
A. absolute convergent B. latitude
B. conditional convergent C. altitude
C. infinite convergent D. codeclination
D. finite convergent
Answer: A
Answer: B
Csc 520° is equal to
Refers to the product of the several prime numbers
occurring in the denominations, each taken with its A. cos 20°
greater multiplicity. B. csc 20°
C. tan 45°
A. Least Common denominator D. sin 20°
B. Least common multiple
C. Least square Answer: B
D. A or B What is the sine of 820°?
Answer: A A. 0.984
The sum of the exponents of the several variables B. 0.866
of the term is referred to as the ____ of the term. C. -0.866
D. -0.5
A. power
B. degree Answer: A
C. partial product The logarithm of the negative number is
D. Absolute power
A. imaginary
Answer: B B. irrational
Venn diagram is a pictorial representation which C. real
helps us visualize the relations and operations with D. rational
sets. This was introduced by Answer: A
A. John Venn The sum of the squares of the sine and cosine of
B. Jan Michael Venn an angle.
C. James Venn
D. Stephen Venn A. 0
B. 1
Answer: A C. 2
The symbol of equality (=) was introduced in 1557 D. 3
by Answer: B
A. Bhaskara The logarithm of a number to the base e(2,7182….)
B. Brahmagupta is called
C. Leonhard Euler
D. Robert Recorde A. Napierian logarithm
B. Characteristic
Answer: D C. Mantissa
D. Briggsian logarithm
Answer: A
Sin A cos B = cos A sin B is equivalent to
The characteristic is equal to the exponent of 10,
A. cos(A – B)
when the number is written in
B. sin(A – B)
C. tan(A – B) A. exponential form
D. cos 2 (A -B) B. scientific notation
C. logarithmic form
Answer: B
D. irrational number The angle which the line of sight to the object
makes with the horizontal which is above the eye of
Answer: C the observer is called
Napierian logarithms have a base closest to which A. angle of depression
number? B. angle of elevation
A. 2.72 C. acute angle
B. 2.82 D. bearing
C. 2.92 Answer: B
D. 10
Lag M-log N id equal to
Answer: A
A. log MN
The logarithm of 1 to any base is B. log(m – N)
A. indeterminate C. logMN
B. zero D. log(N-M)
C. infinity Answer: C
D. one
The other form of log, N = b is
Answer: B
A. N = ba
Sin (270 +β) is equal to B. N = ab
A. -cosβ C. N = ab
B. Sinβ D. N = ab
C. -sinβ Answer: B
D. Cosβ
The point of concurrency of the altitude of the
Answer: A triangle
The sum of the angles in an octant spheric triangle A. orthocenter
is B. centroid
A. 180° C. metacenter
B. 270° D. incenter
C. 360° Answer: A
D. 540°
The point of concurrency of the perpendicular
Answer: B bisector of the sides of the triangle.
The median of a triangle is the line connecting the A. orthocenter
vertex and the midpoint of the opposite side. For a B. circumcenter
given triangle, these median intersects at a point C. centroid
which is called the D. incenter
A. orthocenter Answer: B
B. circumcenter
C. centroid The point of concurrency of the angle bisector of
D. incenter the triangle in called
Answer: C A. orthocenter
B. circumcenter
The altitudes of the sides of the triangle intersects C. centroid
at the point known as D. incenter
A. orthocenter Answer: D
B. circumcenter
C. incenter The logarithm of the reciprocal of N is called
D. centroid the of N
Answer: A A. antilogarithm
B. cologarithm Log x = In x
C. natural logarithm
D. Briggsian logarithm A. 0.434
B. 10
Answer: B C. 2.303
D. e
The inverse function of a logarithm is known as
Answer: A
A. antilogarithm
B. cologarithm Inx = log x
C. antiderivative
D. antecedent A. 0.434
B. 10
Answer: A C. 2.303
D. e
The cologarithm of a number is the of the
logarithm of a number Answer: C
A. positive Which of the following cannot be a base for a
B. absolute value logarithm?
C. negative
D. reciprocal A. 10
B.
Answer: C C. 1
D. E
The first table logarithms with 10 as base was
developed in 1615 by Answer: C
A. James Naismith The integral part of a common logarithm is
B. Henry Briggs
C. John Napier A. 10
D. John Wallis B. e
C. mantissa
Answer: B D. characteristic
Who invented logarithms in 1614? Answer: D
A. John Wallis The mantissa of a logarithm is a
B. Henry Briggs
C. John Napier A. positive value only
D. L’Hospital B. negative value only
C. positive value, negative value or zero
Answer: C D. positive value or zero
The number b is called the of the system of Answer: D
base a with respect to the system of base b.
For 0 < x < 1, ln x is
A. coefficient
B. logarithm A. positive
C. module B. zero
D. exponent C. negative
D. between 0 and 1
Answer: C
Answer: C
Napierian logarithm has a base of
If 1< N < 10, then
A. A. 1 < log N < 2
B. 10 B. 0 < log N < 1
C. 1 C. 2 < log N < 3
D. e D. -1 < log N < 0
Answer: D Answer: A
To change to N B. Positive
C. Negative
multiply N by D. zero or positive
A. b Answer: D
B. a
C. a The characteristic is the exponent of 10,
D. b when the number is written in scientific notation.
Answer: B A. equal to zero
B. greater than
The number b and a are C. less than
A. equal D. none of the above
B. equal but different in signs other Answer: A
C. reciprocal to each other
D. negative reciprocal to each other If logarithm to base 10 (denoted as ) is called
common logarithm, is called natural logarithm, what
Answer: C do you call the logarithm of base 2 (denotes as lb)?
Logarithm using 10 as base. A. Binary logarithm
A. Decimal logarithm B. Bit logarithm
B. Scientific logarithm C. Bilogarithm
C. Common logarithm D. All of the above
D. Natural logarithm Answer: A
Answer: C If the unknown is a conditional equation occurs as
The logarithm of a product is the of the an exponent, the best way to solve the unknown is
logarithm, and the logarithm of a quotient is by
the of the logarithms, A. raising the power of both sides
A. sum, difference B. taking the logarithm of both sides
B. difference, sum C. extracting the root of both sides
C. quotient, product D. applying the Newton’s method
D. product, quotient Answer: B
Answer: A Angles of rotation with the same initial side and
When a logarithm is expressed as an integer plus a terminal side.
decimal (between 0 and 1), the integer is called A. Terminal angles
A. Briggsian logarithm B. Conjugate angles
B. Napierian logarithm C. Coterminal angle
C. Mantissa D. Supplementary angles
D. Characteristic Answer: C
Answer: D An angle equal to one revolution of 360”
The characteristic of a logarithm is 3. The number A. Perigon
between B. Explement angle
A. 1 and 10 C. Reflex angle
B. 10 and 100 D. Supplement angle
C. 100 and 1000 Answer: A
D. 1000 and 10000
The angle which the line of sight to the object
Answer: D makes with the horizontal is above the eye of an
The characteristics of the common logarithm of a observer
number greater than 1 is A. Angle of depression
A. Zero B. Angle of elevation
C. Acute angle Answer: B
D. Bearing
In an isosceles right triangle, the hypotenuse
Answer: B is times as long as each of the legs.
The angle which the line of sight to the object A. 2
makes with the horizontal is below the eye of an B. 3
observer. C. 2
D. 3
A. Angle of depression
B. Angle of elevation Answer: A
C. Acute angle
D. Bearing Which of the following is not a secondary part of a
triangle?
Answer: A
A. Altitudes
A triangle inscribed in a given triangle whose B. Medians
vertices are the feet al the three perpendiculars to C. Exterior angles
the sides from same point inside, the given triangle. D. Sides
A. Inscribed triangle Answer: D
B. Primitive triangle
C. Pedal triangle Which of the following is not a property of a
D. Obtuse triangle triangles?

Answer: C A. The sum of the three angles is always equal

to two right angles.
The triangle with minimum perimeter but maximum B. The sum of two sides. Is less than the third
area inscribed in another triangle is known as side.
C. If the two sides are equal, the angles
A. Pedal triangle opposite are unequal
B. Euclid’s triangle D. The altitudes of the triangle meet in a point.
C. Primitive triangle
D. None of the above Answer: B
Answer: A Given the sides of a triangle as 3 m and 5 m. The
third side is
A right triangle whose length of sides may be
expressed as ratio of integral units A. between 3 m and 8 m
B. greater than 8 m
A. Pedal triangle C. from 3m to 7 m
B. Isosceles triangle D. from 2 m to m
C. Scalene triangle
D. Primitive triangle Answer: C
Answer: D A straight from the vertex of a triangle to the
midpoint of the opposite side is known as
A triangle with no side equal is known as
A. altitude
A. acute triangle B. median
B. oblique triangle C. height
C. equilateral triangle D. A or B
D. scalene triangle
Answer: B
Answer: D
Indicate the false statement:
If two triangles have congruent bases, then the
ratio of their areas equal the ratio of A. An altitude of a triangle is a perpendicular
drop from any vertex to the opposite side.
A. their perimeter s B. Three or more lines which have one point in
B. the lengths of their altitudes common are said to be coplanar.
C. their sides C. The altitudes of a triangle meet in a point
D. none of the above
D. A locus is a figure containing all the points C. tangent
and only those which fulfill a given requirement D. cotangent
Answer: B Answer: C
The case of the solution of the triangle in the plane How many formulas may be derived from using the
where the given data lead to two solutions. Napier’s Rules
A. Axioms of Euclid A. 5
B. Absurb case B. 6
C. Ambigous case C. 8
D. All of the above D. 10
Answer: C Answer: D
The most proved theorem in Mathematics The sum of all interior angles in a spherical triangle
is always
A. Gauss lemma
B. Fermat’s theorem A. greater than 180° but less than 270°
C. Ptolemy’s theorem B. greater than 180° but less than 300°
D. Pythagorean theorem C. greater than 180° but less than 540°
D. greater than 270° but less than 540°
Answer: D
The least proved theorem in Mathematics Answer: C

A. Goldbach conjecture The maximum value for the longitude is

B. Fermat’s last theorem
C. Mersennes’s proportion A. 90° C. 45°
D. Pappus proportions B. 180° D. 360°

Answer: B Answer: B

Equations used for checking the solution to a plane The maximum value for a latitude is
triangle using law of sine’s are as follows
a+bc= cos12(A-B)sine12C and a-bc= sin12(A- A. 90° C. 180°
B)cos12C B. 45° D. 360°
These equations are called
Answer: A
A. Diophantine equations
B. Mollweide’s equations If R is the radius of a sphere and E is an apherical
C. Mohr equations excess (in radians), then the area of a spherical
D. Gauss equations triangle is

Answer: B A. πR²E C. ½ R²E

B. R²E D. R²/E
Napier’s rule states that the sine of any middle part
is equal to the product of the of the opposite Answer: B
parts.
One minute of the great circle arc on the surface of
A. Sine the earth is equivalent to
B. Cosine
C. Tangent A. 1 statute mile nautical mile
D. secant B. 1 nautical mile
C. 60 statute mile
Answer: B D. 60 nautical mile
Napier’s rule states that the sine of any middle part
Answer: B
is equal to the product of the of the adjacent
parts. A spherical triangle with all angles equals to a right
A. sine triangle is called_______ spherical triangle.
B. cosine A. birectangular C. trirectangular
B. quandrantal D. right B. between 0° and 90°
C. between 90° and 180°
Answer: A D. between 0° and 90° or both between 90° and
180°
A spherical triangle with at least one side is a quarter
of a great circle is called ______spherical triangle. Answer: D
A. octant C.trirectangular Spherical degree is a unit of a spherical area taken
B. quadrantal D. birectangular as 1/720 of the surface of the sphere. How many
spherical degrees a hemisphere have?
Answer: C
A. 360° C. 180°
One of the two great circles intersecting at right B. 720° D. 270°
angle at the piles and dividing equinoctial points and
ecliptic into 4 parts. Answer: A
A. Nadir C. Declination Which of the following statements is false about
B. Zenith D. Colure spherical trigonometry?
Answer: D A. If two angles of a spherical triangle are equal,
the sides opposite are equal and conversely
The radius of the earth used in spherical B. If two angles of a spherical triangle are
trigonometry is unequal, and the greater side lies opposite the
A. 3989 statute miles greater angle, and conversely.
B. 3979 statute miles C. The sum of two sides of a spherical triangle
C. 3969 statute miles is greater than the third sides.
D. 3959 statute miles D. The sum of all interior angles of a spherical
triangles is 360°
Answer: D
Answer: D
The difference between a nautical mile and a statute
mile. The sum of the sides of a spherical triangles is
always less than
A. 800 feet C. 1000 feet
B. 900 feet D. 500 feet A. 270° C. 540°
B. 360° D. 180°
Answer: A
Answer: B
Manila has a longitude of 121°05'E. What is the time
difference between Manila and Greenwich, England The sum of any two angles of a spherical triangle is
which is at prime meridian? A. greater than 180°
A. 8 hours and 40 minutes B. less than 180°
B. 8 hours and 34 minutes C. less than 180° + the third angle
C. 8 hours and 14 minutes D. greater than 180° + the third angle
D. 8 hours and 4 minutes Answer: C
Answer: D Refers to the angular distance from the equator
The earth is divided into how many time zone? measured along a meridian.

A. 24 C. 16 A. Longitude C. Meridian
B. 18 D. 12 B. Latitude D. Declination

Answer: A Answer: B

In a spherical triangle, two angles (or sides) are on Refers to the angle at either pole between the
the same species if they are both meridian passing through a point and some fixed
meridian known as the prime meridian.
A. between 0° and 180°
A. Longitude C. Declination Answer: D
B. Latitute D. Equinox
An oblique equilateral parallelogram:
Answer: A
A. square C. rectangle
Is half of a great circle terminated by the North Pole B. rhombus D. trapezoid
and South Pole
Answer: C
A. Longitude C. Declination
B. Latitude D. Meridian Mil is a unit of

Answer: D A. angle C. angle and length

B. length D. weight
When the hypotenuse of a right spherical triangle is
less than 90° Answer: C

A. the two legs are on the same quadrant PLANE & SOLID GEOMETRY
B. the two legs are on the different quadrant
C. one leg is one the first quadrant and the other An annulus is a plane figure which is composed of
on the second quadrant two concentric circles. The area of the annulus can
D. none of the above be calculated by getting the difference between the
area of the larger circle and the area of the smaller
Answer: A circle. Also, its area can be calculated by removing
the hole. This method is called
When the hypotenuse of a right spherical triangle is
greater than 90°, A. Law of extremities
B. Law of reduction
A. the two legs are on the same quadrant C. Law of deduction
B. the two legs are on the different quadrant D. Sharp theorem
C. one leg is one the first quadrant and the other
on the second quadrant Answer: A
D. none of the above
Each of the faces of a regular hexahedron is a
Answer: C
A. square C. rectangle
The point where a ray from the center of the earth B. triangle D. hexagon
through an observer's position on it intersects the
celestial sphere is call the observer's Answer: A

A. zenith C. pole It is a polyhedron of which two faces are equal

B. nadir D. equinox polygons in parallel planes and the other faces are
parallelograms.
Answer: A
A. Tetrahedron C. Frustum
The point that is diametrically opposite the zenith is B. Prism D. Prismatoid
called
Answer: B
A. paler C. nadir
B. equinox D. celestial meridian The apothem of a polygon is_____ of its inscribed
circle.
Answer: C
A. radius C. diameter
The great circles through the north and south B. circumference D. length
celestial poles are called
Answer: A
A. hour circles
B. celestial meridians Each angle of regular dodecagon is equal to
C. elevated poles A. 135 C. 125
D. A and B B. 150 D. 105
Answer: B B. 57.3° D. 33°

The area bounded by two concentric circles is called Answer: B

A. ring C. annulus Prisms are named according to their

B. disk D. sector
A. diagonals C. vertices
Answer: C B. sides D. bases

One-fourth of a great circle is called Answer: D

A. cone C. quadrant In plane geometry, two circular arcs that together

B. sector D. arc make up full circle are called

Answer: C A. coterminals arcs

B. conjugate arcs
Points that lie on the same plane are called C. congruent arcs
D. half arcs
A. coplanar C. collinear
B. parallel D. oblique Answer: B
Answer: A Polygons are classified according to the number of
The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the A. Vertices C. Diagonals
product of its base and altitude. B. Sides D. angels
A. Axiom C. Theorem Answer: B
B. Postulate D. Corollary
When two planes intersects with each other, the
Answer: C amount of divergence between the two planes is
expressed by measuring the
The study of properties of figures in three
dimensions. A. dihedral angle C. polyhedral angle
B. plane angle D. reflex angle
A. Physics
B. Plane trigonometry Answer: A
C. Solid Geometry
D. Trigonometry An angular unit equivalent to 1/4000 of the
circumference of a circle is called
Answer: C
A. Mil C. radian
A plane closed curve, all points of which are the B. degree D. grad
same distance from a point within, called the center.
Answer: D
A. polyhedron C. cirote
B. polygon D. ellipse Express 45° in mils.

Answer: C A. 80 C. 1600
B. 800 D. 2700
What is the angle of π and less than 2π?
Answer: B
A. Straight line
B. Obtuse angle The arc length equal to the radius of the circle is
C. Oblique angle called
D. Acute angle
A. Radian C. sector
Answer: B. quarter sector D. semicircle

What is the value in degrees of 1 radian? Answer: A

A. 90° C. 60° A five-pointed star is also known as

A. pentagon C. pentagram
B. pentatron D. quintagram Answer: D

Answer: C An angle whose vertex is a point on the circle and

whose sides are chords is known as
If two or more lines have a single point which lies on
all of them, then they are A. interior angle
A. collinear C. concurrent B. vertical angle
B. coplanar D. conjugate C. acute angle
D.inscribed angle
Answer: C
Answer: D
The action of bringing one geometric figure into
coincidence with another is calledl An angle greater than the right angle but less than
a straight angle.
A. Transposition
B. Translation A. Acute angle
C. Superposition B. Obtuse angle
D. Projection C. Reflex angle
D. Oblique angle
Answer: C
Answer: B
A line that intersect two or more lines at distinct
points. Any angle greater than a straight angle but less
than two straight angles is known as ____ angle.
A. Tangent line
B. Transversal A. compliment
C. Binector B. supplement
D. Median C. complex
D. reflex
Answer: B
Answer: D
An arc length equal to the radius of a circle.
The angle formed by the prolongation of one side
A. Grad and the adjacent
B. Radian side of the polygon.
C. Degree
D. Mil A. Interior angle
B. Acute angle
Answer: B C. Exterior angle
D. Explementary angle
An angle which is 1/400^th of the full revolution.
Answer: C
A. Gon
B. MiI Two angles which have the same vertex and the
C. Degree sides of one are
D. Radian form by extending the sides one are form by
extending the sides of
Answer: A the other.

Another term for gon. A. Adjacent angles

B. Vertical angles
A. Grad C. Vertical angles
B. Mil D. Deflection angles
C. Centesimal degree
D. A and C Answer: C
 D. always greater than 180°
Another term for exterior angle.
Answer: A
A. Vertical angle Inscribed angle
B. Inscribed angle The measure of 2.25 revolutions counterclockwise
C. Reflex angle is
D. Deflection angle
A. 835°
Answer: D B. 805°
C. 810°
What is the sum of all deflection angles in given D. 815°
polygon?
Answer: D
A. always less than 300°
B. always equal to 360° Solid angles are measured in
C. always greater than 360°
D. always equal to 180° A. mil
B. radians.
Answer: B C. steradians
D. circular mils
The coterminal angle is 120° is
Answer: C
A. 240°
B. -240° What is the largest measure (in steradians) of a
C. 480° solid angle
D. -480°
Α. 2π
Answer: B B. 4π
C. 8π
Two planes intersect each other. What is the term D. π
for the angle formed perpendicular to the
Intersection of two planes? Answer: B

A. Solid angla Steradians measure in space in analog of ____

B. Plane angle measured in the plane.
C. Base angle
D. Dihedral angle A. radians
B. degrees
Answer: D C. mils
D. grads
When a terminal side of an angle coincides with an
axis, the angle is Answer: A

A. co-terminal angle A part of a circle is called

B. right angle
C. quadrantal angle A. sector
D. reflex angle B. segment
C. chord
Answer: C D. arc

If the exterior angle of a polygon is obtuse, its Answer: D

corresponding interior angle is
It is a union of the chord of a circle and the
A. an acute angle intercepted arc.
B. also an obtuse angle
C. a reflux angle A. Sector
B. Segment C. An inscribed angle is measured by one half of
C. Lune the intercepted arc.
D. Zone D. The arcs of two circles subtended by equal
central angles are always equal.
Answer: B
Answer: D
A_____ of a circle in the figure bounded by two
radii and the intercepted arc. All circles having the same center but of unequal
radil are called
A. major arc
B. minor arc A. concentric circles
C. segment B. eccentric circles
D. sector C. inner circles
D. Pythagorean circles
Answer: D
Answer: A
The apothem of a polygon is the____ of its
inscribed circle. Two chords of a circle which joins a point on the
circle to the end points of a diameter and forms a
A. radius right angle.
B. circumference
C. diameter A. Complementary chords
D. length B. Supplementary chords
C. Focal chords
Answer: A D. Chords of contrast

As the area of the circle increases, the ratio of its Answer: B

circumference to its diameter
The center of the inscribed circle of a triangle is
A. increases known as known as ____ of the triangle.
B. remains constant
C. decreases A. circumcenter
D. will be equal to 1 B. incenter (correct)
C. excenter
Answer: B D. orthocenter

A circle is said to be____ to a polygon having the Answer: B

same perimeter with that of the circle.
Supplementary chords are two chords which join a
A. congruent point on the circle to the endpoints of a diameter.
B. isoperimetric The supplemental chords subtend
C. proportional a/an____ angle.
D. convex
A. acute
Answer: B B. right
C. obtuse
Which of the following is NOT a property of a D. reflex
circle?
Answer: B
A. Through 3 points not in a straight line, only one
circle can A circle or radius R has a curvature of
be drawn.
B. A tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the A. R²
radius at the B. 1/R
point of tangency and conversely. C. 2R
D. √R
 C. Undecagon
Answer: B D. Dodecagon

A polygon is ____ when no side, when extended, Answer: C

will pass through the interior of the polygon.
Pentagon is to 5 sides as ____ is to 11 sides.
A. convex
B. equilateral A. heptagon
C. isoperimetric B. septagon
D. similar C. unidecagon
D. hendecagon
Answer: A
Answer: D
A polygon is said to be a regular polygon if its is
A polygon having 12 sides is called
A. Convex
B. all sides are congruent A. bidecagon
C. all angles are congruent B. dodecagon
D. all of the above C. nonagon
D. pentedecagon
Answer: D
Answer: B
Polygon inscribed in the same circle called
A polygon of 100 sides is called
A. concentric polygons
B. ocentric polygons A. chilliagon
C.concyclic polygons B. ennagon
D. orthocentric polygons C. perigon
D. milliagon
Answer: C
Answer: A
If n is the number of sides of a polygon, then the
sum of all interior angles of a polygon is expressed The highest point of a figure relative to a baseline
as or plane is called

A. (n+2)180° A. summit
В. (n/2)180° B. summit
C. (n-2)180° C. highest ordinate
D. (n/2)(n-3) D. terminal point

Answer: C Answer: B

If n is the number of sides of a polygon, then the Indicate the false statement.
number of diagonals of a polygon is expressed as
A. A trapezold is a quadrilateral two and only two of
A. n! whose sides are parallel,
B.(n-1)! B. The sum of two sides of a triangle is greater than
С. (n/2)(n-3) the third side and their difference is less than the
D. (n/3)(n-2) third side.
C. A diagonal of a polygon is a iine joining any-non-
Answer: C consecutive vertices.
D. Two angles are complementary if their sum is
What do you call a polygon with 11 sides? equal to 180°

A. Unagon Answer: D
B. Unogon
Which of the following statements is correct?
A rhombus
A. All right-angled triangles are similar. B. diamond
B. All isosceles triangles are similar. C. lozenge
C. All equilateral triangles are similar. D. all of the above
D. All rectangles are similar.
Answer: D
Answer: C
A non-convex quadrilateral with two pairs of
A quadrilateral with no sides parallel. adjacent equal sides is called

A. Trapezoid A. trapezium
B. Rhombus B. kite
C. Rhomboid C. deltroid
D. Trapezium D. diamond

Answer: D Answer: C

What is another term for a parallelogram?

A. Rectangle
Which of the following BEST describes Ptolemy's B. Quadrangle
theorem? C. Diamond
D. Rhomboid
A. It is use only for quadrilaterals.
B. It is just a modification of Brahmagupta's Answer: D
theorem.
C. It is used only for cyclic quadrilaterals. Prisms are classified according to their
D. The sum of the square of the sides is equals to
the square of the diagonals of a given quadrilateral. A. bases
B. prism
Answer: C C. truncated prism
D. prismatoid
The five-pointed star described by the diagonals of
a regular pentagon. Answer: A

A. Perigon A Solid cut of a given solid by two non parallel

B. Pentegram planes is called
C. Penacle
D. Pentegram or penacle A. frustum
B. prism
Answer: D C. truncated prism
D. prismatoid
The geometric figure remaining after a
parallelogram has been. removed from one comer Answer: C
of a larger similar polygon,
A polyhedron having bases two polygons in parallel
A. Google planes and for lateral faces triangles or trapezoids
B. Gnomon with one side lying on the other base of the
C. Gaussian plane polyhedron.
D. Lozenge
A. Pyramid
Answer: B B. Cone
C Prismatoid
A oblique-angled parallelogram with for sides equal D.Truncated prism.
is called
Answer: C
A portion of the surface of a sphere included
Portion of regular solid left after cutting off the between two parallel planes.
upper part by a plane parallel to the base.
A. Spherical excess
A Frustum B. Spherical segment
B. Ungula C. Zone
C. Truncated solid D. Lune
D. Prismatoid
Answer: C
Answer: A
If R is the radius of the sphere and his the distance
Body or space bounded by surface every point of between two parallel plane, the area of the zone is
which is equidistant
from a point within A. 2πRh
B. 4πRh
A. Circle C. πh² (3R-h)/3
B. Sphere D. 4π(R-h)
C. Spheroid
D. Ellipsoid Answer: A

Answer: B The solid bounded by two great circles and the

surface of a sphere is known as

A. spherical zone
B. spherical segment
A solid bounded by a zone and the planes of the C. spherical cone
zone's base. D. spherical wedge

A. Spherical sector Answer: D

B. Spherical segment
C. Lune A cone or cylinder with its top cut off by plane
D. Spherical excess oblique to the base.

Answer: B A. Frustum
B. Prismoid
The intersection of the sphere and the plane C. Prismatoid
through the center is called D. Ungula

A great circle Answer: D

B. small circle
C. poles A term given to cylinder with elliptical cross-section.
D. polar distance
A. Cylindroid
Answer: A B. Cylindoid
C. Ovaloid
The portion of a sphere enclosed between two D. Deltroid
great semi-circles having common and points,
including the semi-circle. Answer: A

A. Spherical excess A ooughnut-like surface of revolution generated by

B. Spherical segment rotating the circle
C. Zone through 360 in space about a line in its plane but
D. Lune now passing
through the circle.
Answer: D
A. Torus dodecahedron B. hexahedron tetrahedron D.
B. Annulus octahedron
C. Anchor
D. All of the above Answer: B

Answer: A The face of a regular tetrahedron is a

A regular solid star in a shape that is radiating from square B. pentagon

center like rays of star hexagon D. triangle

A. Pentagram Answer: D
B. Pentegon
C. Stellated solid The face of a regular octahedron is a
D. Archimedean solid.
square B. pentagon
Answer: C hexagon D. triangle

Formed by intersection of rays from one point Answer: D

reflected or refracted from a curvature surface.
The face of a regular dodecahedron is a
A. Envelop square B. pentagon
B. Caustic hexagon D. triangle
C. Evolute
D. Pencil Answer: B

Answer: The face of a regular icosahedron is a

square B. pentagon
The regular polyhedron is a solid with all its faces hexagon D. triangle
identical regular polygons. The regular polyhedrons
are also known as Answer: D
A Euclidean solids Which regular polyhedron does not have a face
B. Pythagorean solids a triangle?
C Platonic solids
D. Newtonian solids Tetrahedron B. Octahedron
Icosahedron D. Dodecahedron
Answer: C
Answer: D
There are how many regular polyhedra known to
man? How many edges are there in a dodecagon?
A 5 B. 3
7 D. 10 6 B. 12
C. 30 D. 8
Answer: A
Answer: C
An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron of ____
faces A tetrahedron has Vertices.
A. 4 B. 3
12 B. 14 C. 6 D. 5
16 D. 20
Answer: A
Answer: D
Given two solids and a plane. Supposed that every
A regular polyhedron with 6 sides is called plane parallel to the given plane intersecting one of
the two solids also intersects the other and gives
cross-sections with the same area, then the two I and III B. IV C. II and IV D. III
solids have the same volume. This is known as the
Answer: C
Unit postulate B. Plane postulate
C Parallel postulate D. Cavalier’s postulate The Cartesian or rectangular coordinates system
was first introduces By
Answer: D
A.Newton
Who formulated the Cavalieri’s Principle? B. Galileo
C. Descartes
Harold Cavalieri B. Buenventura Cavalieri Jostry D. Euclid
Cavalieri D. Carl Caballer
Answer: C
Answer: B
Also known as the x-coordinate.
A line segment that is divided into two segments, a
greater a and a smaller b such that the length of a Abscissa
+ b is to a and a is to b. Division is known as B. Ordinate
C. Polar ordinate
A Golden segment B. Golden ratio D. Radius vector
Golden proportion D. All of the above
Answer: A
Answer: B
The x-coordinate of a point is positive in what
The volume of a paraboloid is equal to ____ the quadrants?
volume o circumscribing cylinder.
I and II B. II and IV C. I and IV D. II and III
1/3 B. ½
¼ D. 2/3 Answer: C

Answer: B The y-coordinate of a point is positive in what

quadrants?
Is the locus of a point that moves in a plane so that
the difference of the distances from two fixed points II and III
of the locus is constant B. I and II
C. III and IV
Ellipse B. Circle C. Parabola D. Hyperbola D. II and IV

Answer: D Answer: B

The semi-conjugate axis of the hyperbola State the quadrants in which the coordinates (15, -
2) lies.
X²/9 - y²/4 = 1
3 B. -3 C. -2 D. 2 I B. II C. III D. IV
Answer: D
Answer: D
The rectangular coordinates system used to
The length of the latus rectum of the parabola y represent a complex number.
=4px² id
Argand diagram
4p B. 2p C. 1/4p D. -4p B. Venn diagram
Complex diagram
Answer: C D. Maxwell’s diagram

The tangent function is negative in what quadrants? Answer: A

A Cartesian coordinates system in which the axes Zero
are not perpendicular. B. one
C. infinity
A. Parallelogram coordinates system D. either zero or infinity
B. Oblique coordinates system
C. Polar coordinates system Answer: C
D. Argand diagram
A horizontal line has a slope of
Answer: B
Zero
The angle of rotation about the origin of the positive B. negative
x-axis into the point with rectangular coordinates (a, C. infinity
b), representing the complex number a +bi is called D. positive
____of the complex number.
Answer: A
amplitude
B. argument A line parallel to the y-axis at a directed distance x,
C. phase angle has the equation
D. all of the above
Y = y1
Answer: D B. x = x1
C. y=x1
The rectangular coordinates system in space is D. x = y1
divided into eight compartments called
Answer: B
A.quadrants
B. ociants Let m, and m2 be the respective slopes of two
C. cubicles perpendicular lines.Then
D. octodrants
M1 + m2 = 1
Answer: B. B. m1 +m2 = 0
C. m1m2 = 1
The angle of inclination of a straight line is the D. m1m2= -1
angle it makes with the
Answer: D
positive x-axis
B. negative x-axis If all the y-terms have even exponents, the curve is
positive y-axis symmetric with respect to the Line 45° with the
D. negative y-axis
axis
Answer: A B. x-axis
C. y-axis
The points where the curve crossed the D. origin
coordinates axes are called As the ____ with the
axes. Answer: B.

Asymptotes If the equation is unchanged by the substitution of -

B. intercepts x for x an -y for y simultaneously, its curve is
C. intersections symmetric with respect to the
D. tangent and normal
X-axis
Answer: C B. y-axis
C. line 45° with the axes
A line which is perpendicular to the x-axis has slope D. origin
equal to
Answer: D
If all of the terms of an equation have even Answer: B
exponents of if all of the terms have odd exponents,
the curve is symmetric with respect to the In polar coordinates system, the length of the ray
segment from a fixed origin is known as
X-axis
B. y-axis amplitude
C. line 45° with the axes B. radius vector
D. origin hypotenuse
D. minimum point
Answer: D
Answer: B
If two linear equations, the x-coefficient of the first
is equal to the y- coefficient of the send and the y- Given the equations 3x²+2x-5y+7=0. Determine the
coefficient of the first is numerically equal but of curve.
opposite sign to the x-coefficient of the second, or
vice- versa, the lines represented are Ellipse
B. Parabola
A. parallel to each other Hyperbola
B. perpendicular to each other D. Circle
C. at 45° with each other
D. none of the above Answer: B

Answer: B If eccentricity is less than one, then the curve is

A cubic equation has either three real roots or one parabola B. ellipse
real root and two conjugate imaginary roots. The hyperbola D. circle
real roots are the points of intersection with Answer: B

The x-axis If what quadrant is A, if sec A is positive and csc A

B. the y-axis is negative?
C. the z-axis
D. the line 45° with the x-axis IV
B. 1
Answer: B III
D. II
In general quadratic equation, if the discriminant is Answer: A
zero, the curve is a figure that represent a/an
If the general equation of the conic is Ax²+2Bxy + -
parabola Cy²+ Ey + F = 0, and B²-4AC > 0, then the conic is
B. circle a/an
ellipse
D. hyperbola circle
B. parabola
Answer: A hyperbola
D. ellipse
Equations relating x and y that cannot readily be
solved explicitly for nonetheless determine y as a Answer: C
function of x or vice versa, such y as a function of x
or for x as a function of y. Such equations may What type of conic has equation of Ax² + Cy²+ Dx +
function is called Ey + F = 0 ?
logarithmic function circle
B. Implicit function B. parabola
explicit function ellipse
D. continuous function
D. hyperbola B. y-axis
origin
Answer: C D. line 45° with the axes

4x2-256=0 is the equation of a/an Answer: B

parabola What type of curve is generated by a point which

B. parallel lines moves in uniform circular motion about an axis,
circle while traveling with a constant speed parallel to the
D. ellipse axis?

Answer: A Spiral of Archimedes

B. Epicycloid
The graph of r = a+b cos θ is a Cycloid
D. Helix
Lemniscate
B. Lituus Answer: D
Limacon
D. Cardioid What is the graph of the equation Ax² + Bx + Cy² +
Dy + Ex+F=0?
Answer: C
In an eclipse, a chord which contains a focus and circle
isin line perpendicular to the major axis is called B. ellipse
parabola
Focal width D. hyperbola
B. conjugate axis
Focal chord Answer: B
D. latus rectum
It represents the distance of a point from the y-axis.
Answer: A Ordinate
If all the y-terms have even exponents, the curve is B. Abscissa
symmetric with respect to the Coordinates
D. Polar distance
x-axis
B. origin Answer: B
y-axis
D. line 45° with the x-axis A line passing through the focus and perpendicular
to the directrix of a parabola is called
Answer A
A.axis of parabola
It can be defined as the set of all points in the plane B. tangent line
the sum of whose distances from two fixed points is secant line
a constant. D. latus rectum

Circle Answer: A
B. Hyperbola
Parabola Locus of points on a side which rolls along a fixed
D. Ellipse line.

Answer: D cardioid
B. epicycloid
If the equation is unchanged by the substitution of - cycloid
x fox, its curve is symmetric with respect to the D. hypocycloid

x-axis Answer: C
 Answer: B
What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve
x2 = 20y?

5 in a linear equation Ax + By + C = 0, if B = 0, then

B. 20 the equation has the form of x = -C/A. this line is
√20
D. √5 A. 45° with the axis

Answer: B B. Intersecting the origin

If the product of the slopes of any two straight lines C. parallel to the x-axis
is negative 1, one of these is said to be ______to
the other. D. parallel to the y-axis

parallel Answer: D
B. skew
non-intersecting
D. perpendicular
The straight lines 4x – y + 3 = 0 and 8x – 2y + 6 = 0
are
Answer: D
A. perpendicular to each other
What is the curve represented by the equation r =
a@?
B. Intersecting but not perpendicular
Spiral of Archimedes C. parallel to each other
B.Rosette
Cardioid D. are coincident
D. Lemniscate
Answer: D
Answer: A

If two equations have the same line as their graph, Which of the following is the intercept form of an
the equations are said to be equation for straight lines

A. dependent A. y= mx + b

B consistent B. ( x / a) + ( y / b) = 1

C. independent C. y – y1 =m (x – x )

D. Linear D. (x-a) +(y-b)=1

Answer: A Answer: B

The point (a, 1) (b, 2) (c, 3) are collinear. Which of

the following is true?
A straight line where the curve approaches more
A. c – b = c - a and more closely but never touches it except at a
limiting point of infinity.
B. c -b=b-a
A. asymptotes
C. c – a = a - b
B. axis of symmetry
D. c – a = b – a
C. tangent
D. normal D. a cone and an axis

Answer: A Answer: C

Who coined the word "asymptote"? When the ellipse approaches a circle as a limiting
shape, its eccentricity approaches
A. John Venn
A. 0
B. John Navier
B. 1
C. Thomas Hobbes
C. -1
D. John Wallis
D. infinity
Answer: C
Answer: A

The path of a point which moves according to a

given law or equation The set of points in a plane, the sum of whose
distances form a fixed points is a constant, is
A. cycloid
A. circle
B. asymptote
B. parabola
C. locus
C. hyperbola
D. directrix
D. ellipse
Answer: C
Answer: A

The curve traced by a point moving in a plane is

shown as the ______ of the point lf a right circular cone is cut by a plane parallel to
its bas, it would reveal a/an
A. parameter
A. circle
B. pattern
B. parabola
C. formula
C. ellipse
D. locus
D. hyperbola
Answer: D
Answer: A

A conic section is curve which is the intersection of

A _____ to a circle is a line that has exactly one
A. two cones point in common with the circle.

B. a cone and a line A. diameter

C. a cone and a plane B. secant

C. normal A locus of a point which move so that it is always
equidistant from a fixed point (focus) and from the a
D. tangent fixed straight line (directrix)

Answer: D A. circle

B. ellipse

A conic section whose eccentricity is always less C. parabola

than 1
D. hyperbola
A. parabola
Answer: C
B. circle

C. ellipse
The angle between the tangents at the end points
D. hyperbola of the latus rectum of a parabola is

Answer: C A. 45°

B. 75°

A locus of appoint which moves so that the sum of C. 75°

the distances from two fixed points (foci) is constant
and is equal to the length of the major axis D. 90°

A. parabola Answer: D

B. circle

C. ellipse The tangents to the parabola at the end points of

its latus rectum intersect
D. hyperbola
A. at a distance equal to the length of the length of
Answer: C the latus rectum from the focus

B. at the vertex

if the distance from the center to the focus of an C. at the directrix

ellipse is c, from the center to the vertex is a and
from the center to the directrix is D, its eccentricity, D. none of the above
is
Answer: C
A. D/c

B. D/a
in general equation of a conic section Ax² + Bxy +
C. c/D Cy² + Dx + Ey + F = 0, if A and C have different
signs, then the curve is a/an
D. c/a
A. circle
Answer: D
B. parabola

C. ellipse

D. hyperbola
Answer: D Answer: C

if the discriminant of a quadratic equation is The eccentricity of a regular hyperbola is

greater than zero, the graph is a/an
A. √2
A. circle
B. √3
B. parabola
C. 2
C. ellipse
D. 1.5
D. hyperbola
Answer: A
Answer: D

A parabola has an eccentricity

A chord passing through the focus of a parabola
and perpendicular to the axis of symmetry A. equal to 1

A. directrix B. less than 1

B. translated axis. C. greater than 1

C. latus rectum D. of infinity

D. axis Answer: A

Answer: C

The axis of the parabola that passes through the

The latus rectum of the parabola x² =4ay is foci, vertices and center called

A. a A. conjugate axis

B. 4a B. transverse axis

C. 2√a C. major axis

D. 16a² D. minor axis

Answer: B Answer: B

if a and b are lengths of the semi-major and semi- The locus of a moving point in a plane so that the
minor axis of an ellipse respectively, then what is difference of its distance from two fixed points (foci)
the length of its latus rectum? is constant.

A. 2 ab A. circle

B. 4 ab B. parabola

C. 2b²/a C. ellipse

D. 2a²/b D. hyperbola
Answer: D D. A conjecture is an axiom

Answer: D

What is the term given to a circle with radius equal

to half the transverse axis of the hyperbola or major
axis of an ellipse and its center is the center of the if an ellipse and hyperbola have the same foci,
conics? they are said to be

A. auxiliary circle A. central conics

B. unit circle B. quartic conics

C. inscribed circle C. confocal conics

D. concentric circle D. congruent conics

Answer: A Answer: C

Which of the following is NOT a central conic? The parabola y=-x² +x+1 opens

A. circle A. to the right

B. parabola B. to the left

C. ellipse C. upward

D. hyperbola D. downward

Answer: B Answer: D

Confocal conics are conics A line segment joining two of its points and passing
through a focus of a conic
A. having the same foci.
A. latus rectum
B. having no focus
B. focal radius
C. whose foci coincide with the origin
C. focal chord
D. whose foci coincides with the vertices
D. chord contrast
Answer: A
Answer:

Which of the following is NOT true?

given the polar equation
A. A confocal ellipse and hyperbola always
intersect at right angle r =3 / (1 + 3 cos θ) this is a graph of a/an

B. A prime number is not a composite number A. ellipse

C. a cosecant curve is a periodic function of period B. parabola

360°
C. circle C. cycloid

D. hyperbola D. envelope

Answer: D Answer: A

The equation r = 4 cos θ is a/an A plane curved traced by a fixed point on a circle as
it rolls along the inside of a fixed circle
A. ellipse
A. epicycloid
B. circle
B. hypocycloid
C. hyperbola
C. cycloid
D. parabola
D. envelope
Answer: B
Answer: B

In polar coordinates system, the distance of any

point P from the origin is called The equation x³ + y³ - 3axy = 0 represent a

A. distance A. cardioid

B. polar angle B. lemniscate

C. polar distance C. folium Descartes

D. radius vector D. strophoid

Answer: D Answer: C

The plane curve traced out by a fixed point on the Continuous curve traced by a point moving around
circle as the circle rolls along a line fixed point in same plane are steadily increasing or
decreasing distance
A. envelope
A. spiral
B. epicycloid
B. helix
C. lemniscate
C. lemniscate
D. cycloid
D. limacon
Answer: D
Answer: A

A plane curve traced out by a fixed point on the

circle as the as it rolls along outside of a fixed circle Curve which is locus of centers of curvature of
another curve envelope of all its normal.
A. epicycloid
A. helix
B. hypocycloid
B. evolute B. lemniscate

C. spiral C. rosette

D. cardioid D. spiral

Answer: B Answer: C

Locus of the ultimate intersections or curves in a The locus of a point which rolls on a straight line (x-
system of curves. axis)

A. evolute A. cycloid

B. pencil B. epicycloid

C. envelope C. astroid

D. helix D. trochoid

Answer: C Answer: D

Curve formed by uniform chain hanging freely from The equation r a (1 + cosθ) is a polar equation of
two points
A. hypocycloid
A. trisectrix
B. cycloid
B. parabola
C. cardioids
C. hyperbola
D. spiral
D. catenary
Answer: C
Answer: D

The equation r² = a² cosθ is a

The locus of a point such that its radius vector is
proportional to its vectorial angle A. rosette

A. folium of Descartes B. limacon

B. spiral of Archimedes C. lemniscates

C. spiral of Pythagoras D. spiral

D. helix Answer: C

Answer: B

The graph of the equation r = a cos2θ is The equation r = a cos θ is a

a
A. rosette
A. limacon
B. limacon
C. lemniscates D. fishmouth

D. spiral Answer: B

Answer: A
The equation (x² + 2ay - 8²)" = y² (a² - x²)

is a
The equation r - a θ = 0 is a
A. rosette
A. rosette
B. cocked hat.
B. limacon
C. fishmouth
C. lemniscates
D. spiral
D. spiral
Answer: B
Answer: D

The equation x² + y² = a² is a

The equation a cos θ + b is a A. cocked hat

A. rosette B. fishmouth

B. limacon C. trisectrix

C. lemniscates D. lames quartic

D. spiral Answer: D

Answer: B

The equation ax² = y²(2a - y) is the equation of

The equation r = a( sec θ – tan θ) is a A. the top

A. rosetter B. cocked hat

B. strophoid C. fishmouth

C. trisectrix D. lames quartic

D. lemniscate Answer: A

Answer: B

The equation (x² + y²)² =ax²y is an equation of

The equation r= = a (4 cos θ – sec θ) is a A. bifolium

A. cardioid B. cocked hat

B. trisectrix C. spiral

C. strophoid D. limacon
Answer: A D. parabola

Answer: C

The equation y² - (x² + 1)² (2- x²)³ is an equation of

A. cocked hat When f(x) is negative the curve of y = f(x) is

concave
B. fishmouth
_____.
C. spiral A. downward C. upward
D. lemniscate B. to the right D. to the left

Answer: B Answer: A
If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is
equal to the negative of the equation of the same
A curve or surface that is tangential to each of the
curve,
family of curves or surfaces
the curve is _____.
A. envelope
A. a paraboloid C. a cissoid
B. pencil
B. a sinusoid D. an exponential
C. family
Answer: B
D. cusp A function of F(x) is called ____ of f(x) if F’(x) = f(x).
Answer: A A. explicit function C. implicit function
B. derivative D. antiderivative
Answer: D
A curve that describes the locus of the center of
curvatures of another curve to which its tangents Points of derivatives which do not exists (and so
are normal equals
A. involute zero) are called ________.

B. evolute A. stationary points C. maximum points

C. cusp B. minimum points D. minimum and

maximum points
D. lemniscate
Answer: D
Answer: B
At a point of infliction where x = a,
A. f “(a) ≠ 0 C. f “(a) > 0
________ is formed by intersection of rays from B. f “(a) = 0 D. f “(a) < 0
the point reflected or refracted from a curve surface
Answer: B
A. envelope
At the minimum point, the slope of the tangent line
B. evolute is___.

C. caustic A. negative C. positive

B. infinity D. zero lnu du
Answer: D dx
What is the point where the second derivative is
zero?
D. u
A. Maxima C. Inflection point
a
B. Minima D. Point of intersection
lnu du
Answer: C
dx
The point on the curve where the second derivative
of
Answer: A
function is equal to zero is called
If y = tanhx, find dy/dx.
A. Maxima C. Point of inflection
A. sech2 x C. sech x tanh x
B. Minima D. Critical point
B. -sech2 x D. -sech x tanh x
Answer: A
Answer: B
The field of mathematics which rest on upon the
Evaluate the integral of tanh u du.
A. ln sinh u + c C. cosh u + c fundaments concept of limits and was created by
Newton
B. ln cos h u + c D. coth u + c
and Leibniz.
Answer: B
A. Physics C. Boolean Algebra
The derivative of a
B. Calculus D.Quantum Mechanics
Answer: B
u with respect to x is
The ______ of a relation is the set of second
elements
A. a of the pair in the relation.
u A. domain C. graph
lna du B. range D. function
dx Answer: B
A relation in which there is exactly one range
element
C. u
associated with each domain element.
a
A. Graph C. Formula
lna du
B. Set D. Function
dx
Answer: D
The ______ of a relation is the set of first elements
B. a
of
u
pairs in the relation.
A. domain C. graph The critical points of a graph occur when the
derivative
B. range D. function
of a function is
Answer: A
A. zero C. Zero or approaches infinity
B. Approaches Infinity D. Either 1 or -1
Any set of ordered pair is called a
Answer: C
A. relation C. domain
At point of inflection,
B. range D. graph
A. y’ = 0 C. y” is negative
Answer: A
B. y” = 0 D. y” is positive
Any pair of elements (x , y ) having a first element x
a Answer: B
second element y is called The point where y’ = 0, if Y changes from positive
to
A. range C. coordinates
negative as x increases.
B. domain D. ordered pair
Answer: D
A. y is minimum C. y is maximum
The operation of finding the derivative of a function.
B. x is minimum D. x is maximum
A. Differentiating C. Differential
Answer: C
B. Differentiation D. Integrating
The point where the secondary motive of a function
Answer: B
is
The derivative of a function is identical to the _____ zero.
of
A. Maximum point C. Point of intersection
the graph of the function.
B. Minimum point D. Point of Inflection
A. tangent C. slope
Answer: D
B. secant D. normal
The point where the first derivative of a function is
Answer: C
zero
The _______ derivative of the function is the rate of
and the second derivative is positive.
change of the slope of the graph.
A. Maximum point C. Point of inflection
A. first C. third
B. Minimum point D. Critical point
B. second D. fourth
Answer: B
Answer: B
A point at which the curve changes from concave
A point on the graph where the tangent line is either upward

horizontal or vertical is known as to concave downward and vice versa is known as

A. point of inflection C. stationary point A. point of intersection C. point of inflection

B. critical point D. all of the above B. point of deflection D. yield point

Answer: B Answer: C
At the point where y’ = 0, if y changes from positive A. 0
to
0
negative as x increases
A. y is maximum C. x is maximum
C. ∞. ∞
B. y is minimum D. x minimum
B. 0. ∞ D. ∞0
Answer: A
Answer: C
At maximum point,
The derivative of csc θ is
A. the curve is concave downward
A. sec θ tan θ C. −csc θ cot θ
B. y” is negative
B. −csc2 θ D. −csc θ tan θ
C. y’ = 0
Answer: C
D. all of the above
Catenary is the shape assumed by perfectly flexible
Answer: D
uniform cable hanging between supports. It is a
______ is also known as the composite function graph of
rule.
A. parabola C. y = cosh x
A. L ’Hospital rule C. Simpson’s rule
B. y = sinh x D. x = cosh y
B. Trapezoidal rule D. Chain rule
Answer: C
Answer: D
The quantity 2/(0
The L’ Hospital rule was formulated by
1—0
A. Marquis de l’Hospital C. J. Bernoulli
-1
B. Marrione de l’Hospital D. I. Newton
) is equal to
Answer: D
A. cosh x C. csch x
B. tanh x D. sech x
A collective term for maxima or minima, whether
Answer: C
absolute or relative is called
What is 1 − tan h
A. infinitium C. domain
B. externa D. none of the above
2x is equal to?
Answer: B
Which of the following is not determinate form?
A. sec h
A. ∞. ∞ C. −∞ − ∞
2 x C. cot h2 x
B. ∞ + ∞ D.∞
B. cos h
∞
2 x D. csc h2 x
Answer: A
Answer: D
In calculus, all functions are classified as either
Which of the following is determinate? algebraic
or transcendental. Which of the following is NOT an B. Dummy variable D. limits range
algebraic function? Answer: B
A. Rational integral function The value of x in trigonometric substitution with an
B. Irrational function integrand involving (a
C. Rational fractional function 2−x
D. Exponential logarithmic function 2
Answer: D ) is
A. a sec θ C. a cos θ
The integral sinm θ cosn θ dθ can easily be B. a tan θ D. a sin θ
determined by using Wallis formula provided the Answer: D
limits
The area of the surface generated by rotating any
are form
plane curve about a certain axis and its plane id
A. 0 to π C. 0 to π/4
equal to the product of the length of the arc and the
B. 0 to π/2 D. 0 to 2π
distance traveled by its centroid.
Answer: B
A. Varignon’s theorem
The integral of any quotient was numerator is the
B. First proposition of Pappus
difference of the denominator is the ______ of the
C. Method of section
denominator.
D. Second proposition of Pappus
A. reciprocal C. logarithm
Answer: D
B. product D. derivative
Answer: C
The volume of any solid revolution is equal to the
Many integrals may be evaluated by introducing a
generating are times the circumference of the circle
new
described by the centroid of the area. This is known
variable of integration in place of the original
as
variable, the
A. First proposition of Pappus
two variables being connected by some suitable
B. Cavalien’s theorem
formulas. This process is called
C. Second proposition of Pappus
A. integration by parts C. partial derivatives
D. Simpson’s rule
B. integration by substitution D. the chain rule
Answer: C
Answer: B
The variable inside the integral is called variable of Newton was inspired by an apple. Pappus
propositions
integration or integration variable. It is sometimes
were inspired by what fruits?
referred to as
A. Apple and pear
A. calculus variable C. limits variable
B. Lemon and orange
C. Apple and lemon 2 + a3 x
D. Apple and banana 3 + ...
Answer: C
A. Fourier series C. McClaurin serires
When the ellipse is rotated about the shorter axis,
the B. Taylor’s series D. Power series

ellipsoid is Answer: D

A. Paraboloid C. Spheroid Who invented the symbol “∝” for infinity?

B. Prolate D. Oblate A. John Stockton C. John Wallis
Answer: D
B. John Venn D. John Napier
When the ellipse is rotated about its longer axis, the
Answer: C
ellipsoid is
Calculus was invented by
A. Paraboloid C. Spheroid
B. Prolate D. Oblate A. Newton C. Gauss

Answer: B B. Leibniz D. Newton and Leibniz

When a catenary ( y =cosh x ) is rotated about its Answer: D

axis of
Varignon’s theorem is used to determine
symmetry it generates a solid called _________.
A. paraboloid C. catenoid
A. location of centroid C. mass moment of inertia
B. conoid D. hyperboloid
B. moment of inertia D. moment of area
Answer: C
Answer: A
A solid revolution of a parabola is known as
A. paraboloid C. catenoid
B. hyperboloid D. conoid PHYSICS

Answer: A
A _______ section of a surface of revolution is the
In physics, If Lf and Lv are the latent heat of fusion
section containing the access of revolution. and vaporization, respectively, which of the following
equations apply in determining the amount of energy
A. right C. median
needed to freeze a liquid?
B. central D. meridian A. Q = -mLf
Answer: D B. Q = -mlV
C. Q = mLv
An infinite series in which successive terms are of D. Q = mLf
the Answer: A
form of constant times successive integral power of ________ is the quality of being physically
the elongated

variable it takes the form of a0 + a1 x + a2 x A. Flexibility

B. Ductility
C. Malleability C. Deceleration
D. Plasticity D. Velocity
Answer: D Answer: A
When the total kinetic energy of system is the same Centrifugal Force is ________
as before and after collision of the two bodies, it is
called A. Directly proportional to the radius of the
curvature
A. Plastic Collision B. Directly proportional to the square of the
B. Inelastic Collision tangential velocity
C. Elastic Collision C. Inversely proportional to the square of the
D. Static Collision tangential velocity
D. Directly proportional to the square of the
Answer: C weight of the object
Momentum is a property related to the object’s Answer: B
_________
The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This
A. Motion and Mass is known as
B. Mass and Acceleration
C. Motion and Weight A. Pascal’s Principle
D. Weight and Velocity B. Bernoulli’s Theorem
C. Ideal Fluid Principle
Answer: A D. Archimedes Principle
The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid Answer: A
is
The reciprocal of hulk modulus of any fluid is called
A. Condensation
B. Cold Fusion A. Volume Stress
C. Latent Heat of Fusion B. Compressibility
D. Solid Fusion C. Shape Elasticity
D. Volume Strain
Answer: C
Answer: D
The energy stored in a stretched elastic material
such as a spring is Momentum is the product of mass and _________
A. Mechanical Energy A. Acceleration
B. Elastic Potential Energy B. Velocity
C. Internal Energy C. Force
D. Kinetic Energy D. Time
Answer: B Answer: B
According to this law, “The force between two One horsepower is equivalent to _____________
charges varies directly as the magnitude of each
charge and inversely as the square of the distance A. 746 watts
between them”. B. 7460 watts
C. 74.6 watts
A. Law of Universal Gravitation D. 7.46 watts
B. Coulomb’s Law
C. Newton’s Law Answer: A
D. Inverse Square Law What is the latent heat fusion required to turn ice to
Answer: B liquid?

A free-falling body is a body in rectilinear motion and A. 2,256 kJ/kg

with a constant __________ B. 970 Btu/lbm
C. 334 kJ.kg
A. Acceleration D. 168 Btu/lbm
B. Speed
Answer: C D. Destructive interference always results
What is the value of the work down for a closed Answer: D
reversible, isometric system?
Linear Momentum is the product of mass and
A. Positive or Negative velocity and this can be expressed also as a function
B. Negative of ___________
C. Positive
D. Zero A. Force, Acceleration, Time
B. Force, Velocity, Time
Answer: D C. Force, Time
D. Force, Displacement
The sum of pressure head, evaluation head and the
velocity head remain constant. This is known as Answer: C
______________
The transmission of heat from one to another by fluid
circulation between the spots of different
temperature is called __________
A. Boyle’s Law
B. Torrecellos’s Theorem A. Convection
C. Archimedes Principle B. Radiation
D. Bernoulli’s Theorem C. Conduction
D. Conservation
Answer: D
Answer: A
A leak from the faucet comes out in separate drops.
Which of the following is the main cause of this It is the measure of randomness of the molecules of
phenomenon? a substance.

A. Surface Tension A. Entropy

B. Air Resistance B. Enthalpy
C. Gravity C. Internal Energy
D. Viscosity of the Liquid D. Kinetic Energy

Answer: A Answer: A

Absolute Viscosity is essentially independent of the The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature
pressure and is primarily dependent on of one pound of that substance one-degree
Fahrenheit is ____________
A. Temperature
B. Density A. Specific Heat
C. Specific Gravity B. BTU
D. Velocity C. Latent Heat
D. Kinetic Energy
Answer: A
Answer: B
It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area
and is expressed in lumens per square meter What is the gage used to measure 0.001 to 1 atm
pressure?
A. Illuminance
B. Luminance A. Bourdon
C. Luminous Intensity B. Water Nanometer
D. Radiance C. Mercury Nanometer
D. Metallic Diaphragm
Answer: A
Answer: C
When two waves of the same frequency, speed and
amplitude travelling in the opposite directions are One of the types of non-material nuclear radiation is
superimposed. __________

A. Standing waves are produced A. Transmission Radiation

B. Constructive interference always results B. Walton Radiation
C. The phase difference is always zero C. Gamma Radiation
D. Betatron Radiation deformation and when deformation forces have
been removed.
Answer: C
A. Elasticity
A flower pot falls of a ledge of the 5th floor window, B. Malleability
just as it passes the third-floor window, someone C. Ductility
accidentally drops a glass of water from the window. D. Plasticity
Which of the following is true?
Answer: A
A. The flower pot hits the ground at the same
time as the glass When two waves of the same frequency, speed and
B. The glass hits the ground before the flower amplitude travelling in opposite directions
pot superimposed.
C. The flower pot hits the ground first and with
the higher speed than the glass A. Destructive interference always results
D. The flower pot and the glass hit the ground B. Standing waves are produced
at the same time C. Constructive interference always results
D. The phase difference is always zero
Answer: C
Answer: A
Whenever a net force acts on the body, it produces
an acceleration in the direction of the resultant force, What is the name of the vector that represents the
an acceleration which is directly proportional to the sum of two vectors?
resultant force and inversely proportionally to the A. Scalar
mass of the body. This theory is popularly known as B. Tensor
________ C. Resultant
A. Newton’s First Law of Motion D. Reaction
B. Faraday’s Law of Force Answer: C
C. Newton’s Second Law of Motion
D. Hooke’s Law The standard acceleration due to gravity is
Answer: C A. 32.2 ft/s2
B. 980 ft/s2
Any two points along the streamline in an ideal fluid C. 9.81 ft/ss
in steady state flow, the sum of pressure, the D. 23.3 ft/s2
potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic
energy per unit volume has the same value. This Answer: A
concept is known as the
A. Pascal’s Theorem Ivory soap floats in the water because
B. Bernoulli’s Energy Theorem
A. All matter has mass
C. Fluid Theorem
B. The specific gravity of ivory soap is less than
D. Hydraulic Theorem
of water
Answer: B C. The density of ivory soap is unity
D. The specific gravity of ivory soap is less than
that of water
Inelastic collision is a collision in which the total Answer: D
kinetic energy after the collision is _______ before
collision One gram of Ice at 0o C is place on the container
containing 2,000,000 cubic meters of water at 0o C,
A. Equal to Zero Assuming the heat loss, what will happen?
B. Equal
C. Less Than A. Ice will become water
D. Greater Than B. Some part of ice will not change
C. The volume of ice will not change
Answer: C D. All of the above
The property by virtue of which a body tends to Answer: C
return to its original size of the shape after
Melting Point of Ice is ___________ A. 1.0
B. 1000
A. 373 K C. 62.4
B. 273 K D. 0.5
C. 100o C
D. 4o C Answer: A
Answer: B What is another term for density?
The standard meter is defined as ___________ A. Specific Gravity
wavelengths in a vacuum of the orange-red line of B. Specific Weight
the spectrum of krypton 86. C. Inertia
D. Malleability
A. 1,560,763.73
B. 1,650,763.73 Answer: B
C. 1,750,763.73
D. 1,850,763.73 Which of the following is NOT a density of water?

Answer: B A. 1000 kg/m3

B. 9.81 kN/m3
Originally defined as the fraction 1/86400 of the C. 1 gram/cc
mean solar day and now defined as the duration D. 64.2 lb/ft3
9,192,631,770 periods of the radiation of a certain
state of the cesium- 133 atom. Answer: D

A. Second What is the specific gravity of mercury?

B. Minute A. 1.0
C. Hour B. 0.8
D. Day C. 7.5
Answer: A D. 13.6

The ration of the density of the substance to the Answer: D

density of water Absolute zero temperature is
A. Specific Weight A. 32o F
B. Relative Weight B. 0o C
C. Specific Gravity C. 4o C
D. Mass D. 0o K
Answer: C Answer: D
The _________ of a substance is its density relative At what temperature reading do the Fahrenheit and
to that of pure water. Celsius have the same value?
A. Density A. -30o
B. Specific Weight B. -35o
C. Specific Gravity C. -40o
D. Pressure D. -45o
Answer: C Answer: C
What is another name for specific gravity? Densed condition of the water is at what
A. Density temperature?
B. Relative Density A. 0o C
C. Specific Weight B. 2o C
D. Mass C. 4o C
Answer: B D. 100o C

What is the specific gravity of water? Answer: C

Indicated the FALSE statement about temperature?
A. Boiling point of centigrade scale is 100o C Answer: B
B. Fahrenheit scale was invented by a German
C. Absolute Temperature scale is expressed in At constant pressure, the volume is directly
o
K proportional to temperature. This is known as
D. Absolute Zero in Fahrenheit scale is -273o A. Boyle’s Law
Answer: D B. Charles’ Law
C. Gay-Lussa Law
Standard atmospheric pressure. D. Ideal Gas Law
A. 9810 N/m2 Answer: A
B. 13.7 psi
C. 0.5 bar At constant temperature, the volume is inversely
D. 760 mm of Hg proportional to the pressure. This is known as

Answer: D A. Boyle’s Law

B. Charles’ Law
Absolute pressure equals C. Gay-Lussac Law
D. Ideal Gas Law
A. Gauge Pressure
B. Atmospheric Pressure Answer: A
C. Gauge Pressure + Atmospheric Pressure
D. Barometric Pressure All are scalar quantities except

Answer: C A. Acceleration
B. Speed
The difference between the absolute pressure and C. Energy
the atmospheric pressure is called D. Temperature
A. Gauge Pressure Answer: A
B. Barometric Pressure
C. 1 torr All are vector quantities except
D. All of the above A. Displacement
Answer: A B. Electric Field Intensity
C. Torque
Under normal condition, the gauge pressure at water D. Mass
surface us a
Answer: D
A. Less than zero
B. Equal to zero A vector is a straight-line segment that has a definite
C. Greater than zero A. Length and Direction
D. Half of the atmospheric pressure B. Direction and Sense
Answer: B C. Length and Sense
D. Length, Direction and Sense
An instrument used to measure air pressure is the
Answer: D
A. Thermometer
B. Barometer
C. Wind Vane
D. Pitot Tube
Answer: B
The barometric pressure at mean sea level is known The scalar product of two vectors are sometimes
as the standard atmospheric pressure and is equal known as
to how many psi?
A. Dot Product
A. 13.7 B. Result
B. 14.7 C. Cross Product
C. 15.7 D. Magnitude
D. 16.7
Answer: A
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Which of the following is incorrect?
A. The weight and mass of a body depends on its
A. All vector quantities have magnitudes location.
B. All scalar quantities have directions
C. All scalar quantities have magnitudes B. The mass of the body is dependent on its
D. All vector quantities have directions location.
Answer: B C. The weight of a body is independent on its
location.

The____________ of two vectors is obtained by D. The weight of a body depends on its location
adding one vector to the negative of the other. while the mass is independent of its location.

A. magnitude answer: D

B. sum
Which of the following is true about the weight of an
C. product object?
D. difference A. It is the force with which it is attracted to the
earth.
answer: D
B. It is the same as the mass of the object.
The distance per unit time. C. It is equivalent to the mass of the object divided
by the
A. Speed C. Acceleration
D. It is constant anywhere in the universe.
B. Velocity D. Motion
answer: A
answer: A

A measure of inertia of a body, which is its

The displacement per unit time. resistance to a change in velocity.
A. Speed C. Acceleration A. Force C. Acceleration
B. Velocity D. Motion B. Mass. D. Moment of lnertia
answer: B answer: B

Defined as the gravitational force exerted on an A quantitative measure of inertia.

object because of its attraction to some other
masses such as the earth. A. Weight C. Force
A. Weight C. Inertia B. Mass D. Acceleration
B. Mass D. Either mass or answer: B
weight
answer: A Indicate the FALSE statement.
A. Weight of body is a gravitational force.
Defined quantitatively as the amount of matter of
which the object is made. It also refer to the B. Mass is the measure of the response of the body
measure of the object's inertia to an applied force

A. Weight C. Relative density C. Weight of the body varies with its location

B. Mass D. Specific weight D. Weight of the body is always equal to its mass

answer: B answer: D
 answer: C
A cart loaded with gravel is hard to get started
rolling because of its Iarge _______.
Which of the following is NOT a unit or work?
A. mass C. density
A Joules C. Erg
B. weight D. volume
B. Kilowatt-hour D. Slug
answer: A
answer: D

The mass to which a force of one pound will give

an acceleration of one foot per second per second. What is the Sl unit of work?

A. Slug C. Erg A. Joule C. N- cm

D. Dyne D. Joule B. Kg -m D. Foot - pound

answer: A answer: A

The tendency of any object to remain at rest or to The work done by the external force on particles is
continue in motion is called equal to the of the particle,

A. equilibrium C. inertia A. change in momentum C. change in kinetic

energy
B mass D. static
B. impulse D. change in
answer: C potential energy
answer: C
Any influence capable of producing change in the
motion of an object is called
The work done by all forces except the gravitational
A Force C. acceleration force is always equal to the_________ of the
system.
B. velocity D. vector
A. total potential energy C. total mechanical
answer: A energy
B. total impulse D. total momentum
Which of the following is NOT a unit of force?
answer: C
A. Pound C. Dyne
B. Erg D. Newton There is no Work done when
answer: B A. the force is parallel to the displacement
B. the force is perpendicular to the displacement
The unit of force which is equivalent to 1 gram-
cm/sec2. C. there is an angle between the force and the
displacement
A Joule C. Dyne
D. all of the above
B. Slug D. Newton
answer: B
answer: C

The work done by a force of 1 newton acting

The product of force and displacement is called through a distance of 1m is known as
A. energy C. work A. watt C. joule
B. power D. momentum B. erg D. Btu
answer: C
Joules is an SI unit of
The work done in lifting an object of mass "m" to a A. work C. power
height "h” is
B. inertia D. momentum
A. mh C. mh/g
answer: A
B. mgh D. mgh/2
answer: B Why it is that the power delivered by any machine
is always less than the power supplies to it?
Indicate the false statement about work. A. due to its efficiency
A. Work = force x distance B. due to the presence of the potential energy
B Work is a scalar quantity. C, due to its speed
C. The unit of work in the SI system is joules and D. due to the presence of friction
erg in the English system
answer: D
D. Work = power x time
answer: C The capacity to do work is called
A. power C. momentum
The force due to gravity does not work on objects
that B. energy D. impulse

A. fall to the ground answer: B

B. Is moved vertically upward

Kinetic energy equals
C. is moved parallel to the surface of the earth
A. ½mass x velocity C. mass X acceleration
D. all of the above
B. mass x velocity D. ½mass x velocity2
answer: C
answer: D

The rate of doing work.

An energy by virtue of the object's motion is called
A. Force C. Power
A rest energy C. thermal energy
B. Energy D. Momentum
B. potential energy D. kinetic energy
answer: C
answer: D

What is the SI unit of power?

An energy by the virtue of the object's position of
A. joule C. horsepower elevation is called
B. kilowatt-hour D. watt A rest energy C. thermal energy
answer: D B potential energy D. kinetic energy
answer: B
All are units of power except
A. watt C. Newton-meter/second An energy by the virtue of the object's mass is
called
B. horsepower D. joules
A rest energy C. thermal energy
answer: D
B. potential energy D. kinetic energy
answer: A What will happen to the kinetic energy of the body it
its velocity doubled?
The energy of an object due to its vertical A. Doubled
separation from the earth's surface.
B. Quadrupled
A Thermal energy
C. Tripled
B. Rest energy
D. Remains the same
C. Gravitational potential energy
answer: B
D. Elastic potential energy
answer: C
Thermal energy refers to the random kinetic energy
of all __________ in a substance.
The energy stored in a stretched or compressed A. atoms
elastic material such as a spring is called B. molecules
C. masses
A. thermal energy C. kinetic energy
D. atoms and molecules
B. elastic potential energy D. elastic kinetic
energy Answer: D

answer: B A vector quantity which is a product of mass and

velocity of the body.
A. Momentum
The kinetic energy of the atoms and molecules due
B. Impulse
to their random motion is called
C. Energy
A. thermal energy C. rest energy D. Displacement
B. elastic potential energy D. heat energy Answer: A
answer: A
The product of a force and the time during which it
acts is known as
The change in gravitational potential energy A. momentum
depends on the of the object. B. impulse
C. coefficient of restitution
A. initial and final vertical position D. Impact
B. path followed in moving between two positions
Answer: B
C. initial and final velocity
Momentum is the product of mass and
D. all of the above
A. acceleration
answer: A B. velocity
C. force
D. time
Kinetic means that it is
A. in motion Answer: B

B. subjected to a force Change of momentum is equal to

A. displacement
C. is in equilibrium B. impulse
D. is subjected to friction C. power
D. kinetic energy
answer: A
Answer: B

What is the SI unit of impulse?

A. N-s B. colliding objects continue its motion in the same
B. kg-m/s direction with reduced speed
C. Slugs/s C. the colliding objects continues its motion in the
D. N-m/s same direction the same speed
D. the lighter the object bounces off the heavier one
Answer: A
Answer: B
What is the Si unit of momentum?
A. N-s For perfect elastic collision, the coefficient of
B. kg-m/s restitution, e, is equal to
C. Slugs/s A. O
D. N-m/s B. 1
C. negative value
Answer: A D. infinity

Which of the following is true about collision? Answer: B

A. In elastic collision, no kinetic energy is lost.
B. In elastic collision, the two colliding bodies stick If the velocity of the body doubled in value, its
together after impact. __________ doubled. will also
C. In completely inelastic collision, no kinetic A. acceleration
energy is lost. B. impulse
D. Kinetic energy is not conserved in an elastic C. momentum
collision D. kinetic energy

Answer: A Answer:: C

At what situation when the colliding objects stops For perfect inelastic collision, the coefficient of
and the target moves off with the same speed after restitution, e, is equal to
collision? A. O
A. When their masses are equal to the target is B. 1
stationary. C. negative value
B. When the target is stationary even if their D. infinity
masses are not equal.
C. When their masses are equal and the target is Answer: A
moving with a speed less than that of the colliding
body. The negative ration of the relative velocity after a
D. When their masses are equal and the target is collision to the relative velocity before a collision.
moving with a speed greater than that of the A. Coefficient of friction
colliding body. B. Coefficient of sliding
C. Coefficient of kinetic friction
Answer: A D. Coefficient of restitution

If the colliding object has a mass less than that of Answer: D

the stationary target, after impact, the;
A. colliding object stops A collision in which the total kinetic energy after
B. the colliding object continues its motion in the collision is less than that before collision.
same direction with reduced speed A. Elastic collision
C. the colliding object continues its motion in the B. Inelastic collision
same direction with the same speed C. Straight line collision
D. the lighter object bounces off the heavier one D. Off center collision

Answer: D Answer: B

If the colliding object has a mass greater than that When the colliding bodies stick together on impact
of the stationary target, after impact, the which results in the maximum possible loss in
A. colliding object stops kinetic energy, it is said to be
collision. The accurate formulation of the laws of motions, as
A. elastic well as of gravitational was made by
B. inelastic A. Galelio
C. completely inelastic B. Kepler
D. none of the above C. Varignon
D. Newton
Answer: C
Answer: D
In an elastic collision,
A. the kinetic energy is conserved The law which describes the motion of stars,
B. the kinetic energy is not conserved planets and comets.
C. the objects sticks together after impact A. Law of universal gravitation
D. the loss of kinetic energy is maximum B. Newton's law of motions. theory
C. Kepler's laws
Answer: A D. Big bang and black hole

"For every action, there is always an equal and Answer: C

opposite reaction". This is known as
A. Newton's first law Which of the following does not describe the object
B. Newton's second law as observed from earth?
C. Newton's third law A. Apogee
D. Law of inertia B. Perigee
C. Eccentricity
Answer: C D. Focus

"Everybody continues in its state of rest or at Answer: D

constant speed in a straight line motion, it is
compelled to change that state because of forces If an external pressure is applied in a confined fluid,
acting on it". This is known as the pressure will be increased at every point in the
A. Newton's first law fluid by the amount of external pressure. This is
B Newton's second law known as
C. Newton's third law A. Archimedes principle
D. Kepler's law B. Pascal's law
C. Boyle's law
Answer: A D. Bernoullis theorem

"An unbalanced force acting on an object will cause Answer: B

the object to accelerate in the direction of the
force". This is known as
A. Newton's first law In the equation E = mc2, c is
B. Newton's second law A. the distance between the neutral axis to the
C. Newton's third law outermost fiber
D. Kepler's law B. Einstein constant
C. speed of light
Answer: B D. speed of sound

Newton's second law of motion states that the rate Answer: C

of change of momentum with respect to time is
A. force The range of a projectile depends on
B. energy A. Initial velocity only
C. power B. initial velocity and weight of the body
D. work C. initial velocity and angle of projection
D. Initial velocity, weight of the body and angle of
Answer: A projection

Answer: C
 Answer: B
In a trajectory, air resistance decreases
A. the speed "Whenever a net force acts on a body, it produces
B. the maximum height an acceleration in the direction of the resultant
C. the range of projectile force, an acceleration that is directly proportional to
D. all of the above the mass of the body. This theory is popularly
known as
Answer: D A. Faraday's law of forces
B. Newton's second law of motion
In the absence of air resistance, a projectile sent off C. Newton's first law of motion
at an angle of above the horizontal with an initial D. Hooke's law of equilibrium
velocity of V has a horizontal range of
A. R=(V2/g) sin20 Answer: B
B. R=(2Vsine)/g
C. R=(V/g) sin20 A measure of the resistance of a body it offers to
D. R=(2Vsine)/g any changes in its angular velocity, determined by
its mass and distribution of its mass about the axis
Answer: A of rotation is known as
A. moment of inertia
In the preceding question, the time of flight is B. friction
A. t = (2V sin2 8)/g C.torsion
B. t = (V2 sin20)/g D.angular acceleration
C. t = (v2/g)sin 20
D. t = (2V sine)/g Answer: D

Answer: D If an object is thrown vertically upward, its

acceleration
The trajectory of a projectile is a graph of A. is smaller than that of the object thrown vertically
A. circle downward
B. parabola B. is equal to that of an object thrown vertically
C. ellipse downward
D. hyperbola C. greater than that of the object thrown vertically
downward
Answer: B D. zero until the object reaches maximum point

According to this law: "The force between two Answer: B

charges varies directly as the magnitude of each
charge and inversely as the square of the distance The acceleration is ________ the resultant force on
between them". the object.
A. Law of universal gravitation A. directly proportional to
B. Coulomb's law B. inversely proportional to
C. Newton's law C. directly proportional to the square of
D. Inverse-square law D. inversely proportional to the square of

Answer: B Answer: A

"At any two points along a streamline in an ideal The acceleration is ____________ the mass of the
fluid in a steady flow, the sum of the pressure, the object.
potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic A. directly proportional to
energy per unit volume has the same value". This B. inversely proportional to
concept is known as C. directly proportional to the square of
A. Pascal's Theorem D. inversely proportional to the square of
B. Bernoulli's theorem
C. Hydraulic theorem Answer: B
D. Ideal fluid theorem
Refers to the vertical speed at which the force of air
resistance is just sufficient to balance the body's Calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to
weight. raise a temperature of ____of water 1°C.
A. Gravitational acceleration
B. Terminal speed A. 1 gram
C. Drag B. 1 kilogram
D. Lift C. 1 pound
D. 1 ton
Answer: B Answer: A
The amount of heat needed to change the
Objects falling in air from the same height will not temperature of a unit quantity of it by 1°
reach the ground at the same time because:
A. BTU
A. air resistance increases with velocity B. Heat transfer
B. Falling body will eventually reaches terminal C. Temperature
velocity. D. Specific heat capacity
C. If it reaches terminal velocity, it cannot fall
any faster than that. Answer: D
D. all of the above
What is specific heat?
Answer: D
A. A temperature of 1 kg sample reported in
A point on the object from which it can be °C.
suspended in any orientation without tending to B. The heat needed to raise the temperature of
rotate. 1 pound of water 1°F
C. The energy needed to raise the temperature
A. Center of gravity of 1 gram of a substance 1°C
B. Barycenter D. Any of the above
C. Centroid
D. All of the above Answer: B

Answer: D What is the specific heat capacity of water in kJ/kg

°C?
What is another term for centroid?
A. 4.19
A. Center of gravity B. 3.89
B. Center of mass C. 2.19
C. Barycenter D. 1.49
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Answer: D
The amount of heat must be supplied to change 1
Centrifugal force is directly proportional to kg of the substance at its boiling point from the
liquid state to the gaseous state.
A. the square of the tangential velocity
B. the tangential velocity A. Heat of fusion
C. radius of curvature B. Heat of evaporation
D. the weight of object C. Specific heat
D. BTU
Answer: A
Answer: B
The amount of heat required to change the
temperature of 1 pound of water 1°F. The amount of heat that must be supplied to
change 1 kg of the substance at its melting point
A. Calorie
from the solid to the liquid state.
B. Thermal energy
C. Specific heat A. Heat of fusion
D. British Thermal unit (BTU) B. Heat of evaporation
C. Specific heat
Answer: D
D. BTU
Answer: A Actual mechanical advantage is the ratio between:
“Anybody immersed in a fluid is subjected to a A. output force to input force
buoyant force which is equal to the weight of the B. input distance to output distance
fluid displaced.” This is known as: C. Output work to input work
D. power output to power input
A. Pascal's Law
B. Bernoulli's theorem Answer: A
C. Archimedes principle
D. Venturi’s principle
MECHANICS & STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
Answer: C
The total hydrostatic force on plane area is directly Study of motion with reference to the force which
proportional to causes the motion is
A. density of fluid A. statics
B. square of the pressure head B. dynamics
C. square of the area C. kinetics
D. cube of the area D. kinematics
Answer: A Answer: C
Buoyant force is equal to An impulse causes
A. density of fluid x total volume A. the object's momentum to change
B. density of fluid x volume above the surface B. the object's momentum to decrease
C. density of fluid x volume submerged C. the object's momentum to increase
D. specific gravity of fluid x volume submerged D. the object's momentum to remain constant
or be conserved
Answer: C
Answer: A
Refers to the tendency of the liquid surface to
contact to the minimum possible area in any Momentum is a property related to the objects
situation.
A. motion and mass
A. Ductility B. mass and acceleration
B. Viscosity C. motion and velocity
C. Surface tension D. weight and velocity
D. Capillarity
Answer: A
Answer: C
Centrifugal force is
Refers to the measure of the fluid's internal friction
A. directly proportional to the radius of the
A. Capillarity curvature
B. Viscosity B. directly proportional to the square of the
C. Surface Tension tangential velocity
D. Laminar flow C. inversely proportional to the square of the
tangential velocity
Answer: B D. directly proportional to the square of the
The______ of a machine equals to the ratio weight of the object
between its actual and its theoretical Answer: B
mechanical advantage.
A measure of the resistance of a body it offers to
A. output any change in its angular velocity, determined by
B. input the mass and distribution of its mass about the axis
C. efficiency of rotation is known as
D. power
A. moment of inertia
Answer: C B. torsion
C. friction
D. angular acceleration Answer: A
Answer: D Branch of mechanics which deals with bodies in
motion.
Momentum is the product of mass and
A. Statics
A. acceleration B. Dynamics
B. velocity C. Kinetics
C. force D. Kinematics
D. time
Answer: B
Answer: B
The action of a force is characterized
Moment of inertia of a plane figure, ____
A. its magnitude
A. increases as distance of the axis moves B. the direction of its action
farther from the centroid C. point of application
B. is maximum at the centroidal axis D. all of the above
C. is zero at the centroidal axis
D. decreases as the distance of the axis Answer: D
moves farther from the centroid
For a system to be in equilibrium,
Answer: A
A. the force polygon must close
To maximize the horizontal range of the projectile, B. all forces must be concurrent, if not acting
which of the following applies? parallel
C. it must satisfy the 3 static equations
A. Maximize velocity D. all of the above
B. Maximize the angle of elevation
C. Maximize the angle of elevation Answer: D
D. The tangent function of the angle and
velocity must be equal to 1 A pair of forces equal in magnitude, opposite in
direction, and not in the same line is called
Answer: D
A. moment
Moment of inertia of any plane figure is expressed B. torque
in units of length of the C. couple
D. all of the above
A. first power
B. second power Answer: C
C. third power
D. fourth power The___ exerted by a force on a body is the
measure of its effectiveness in turning the body
Answer: D about a certain pivot.
A branch of physical science which deals with state A. couple
of rest or motion of bodies under the action of B. torque
forces. C. moment arm
D. all of the above
A. Mechanics
B. Kinematic Answer: B
C. Kinematics
D. Statics
A body is said to be in "rotational equilibrium" when
Answer: A
A. no net torque acts on it
A branch of mechanics which deals with bodies at B. no net force acts on it
rest. C. its vector sum of the forces is zero
D. the forces acting on the body are non-
A. Statics concurrent
B. Dynamics
C. Kinetics Answer: A
D. Kinematics
A couple consists of two forces __________ in D. coefficient of sliding
magnitude, parallel and oppositely directed.
Answer: A
A. directly proportional
B. equal The moment of inertia of a triangle with
C. unequal
respect to the base b is
D. inversely proportional
Answer: B A. bh3/12

The_____ of the body or system is the point about B. bh3/6

with the product of the mass and moment arm C. bh3/36
sums up to zero.
D. bh3/3
A. Center of gravity
B. Center of mass Answer: A
C. centroid
D. all of the above The moment of inertia a triangle with

Answer: B respect to the base is time its moment of

The point through which the resultant of the inertia with respect to its centroidal axis?
distributed gravity force passes regardless of the
orientation of the body is space. A. 2

A. center of inertia B. 3
B. center of mass
C. 4
C. Center point
D. Center of gravity D. 5
Answer: D Answer: B

If an object exerts a normal force on a

What is the moment of inertia of a circle of
surface, then its normal force is
A. πr4/16
A. equal to the weight of the object
B. πr4/12
B. less than the frictional force
C. πr4/24
C. parallel to the surface
D. πr44
D. perpendicular to the surface
Answer: D
Answer: D

The moment of inertia of the circle with

Whenever the surfaces of two bodies are in
respect to its tangent is ___ times its
contact, there will be a limiting amount of
centroidal moment of inertia.
resistance to sliding between them. This is
A. 2
known as
B. 3
A. friction
C. 4
B. coefficient of friction
D. 5
C. angle of friction
Answer: D
 D. bridge
The moment of inertia of a rectangle with Answer: B
respect to the base is ___ times its moment
of inertia with respect to the centroid. Another term of moment of inertia
A. 2 A. Moment of area
B. 3 B. Second moment of area
C. 4 C. Moment of mass
D. 5 D. All of the above
Answer: C Answer: B

What is the mass moment of inertia of a The diagram of an isolated body with the
sphere of mass m and radius r? representation of all external forces acting
A. 1⁄2 mr2 on it is called
B. 1⁄4 mr2 A. Maxweil diagram
C. 1⁄3 mr2 B. Stress-strain diagram
D. 2⁄5 mr2 C. free body diagram
Answer: D D. shear and moment diagram
Answer: C
Given a cylinder of radius r, altitude h and
mass m. What is its mass of inertia? A framework composed of members joined
A. 1⁄2 mr2 at their ends to form a rigid structure
B. 1⁄4 mr2 A. Machine
C. 1⁄3 mr2 B. Truss
D. 2⁄5 mr2 C. Joist
Answer: A D. Purlin
Answer: B
A structure is called ____ if at least one of
its individual members is a multiforce The moment of the resultant of two
member. concurrent forces with respect to a center of
A. Truss their planes is equal to the algebraic sum of
B. Frame the moments of the components with
C. three-hinged arc respect to the same center.
A. Law of reaction
B. Varignon’s theorem d’Alembert’s principle?
C. Mass moment of inertia A. F = ma
D. Law of inertia B. First law of motion
Answer: B C. Stress is directly proportional to
strain
The condition exist I structures where the D. F = kx
reactive forces exceed the number of Answer: A
independent equations for equilibrium Such
case is called The theorem which is closely related to
A. statically determine d’Alembert’s theorem is the
B. statically indeterminate A. Newton’s first law of motion
C. static equilibrium B. Newton’s third law of motion
D. none of the above
Answer: B C. Newton’s second law of motion
D. Bernoulli’s theorem
Two lengths of a steel wire are used to Answer: C
support a chandelier of weight A The
tension in the wire must _____ is the quality of being plastically
A. each be W/2 elongated
B. each be W A. Flexibility
C. have a vector sum of magnitude W B. Plasticity
D. have a vector sum of magnitude >W C. Malleability
Answer: C D. Ductility
Answer: B
The built-in or fixed support is capable of
supporting It is the ratio of the ultimate stress to the
A. an axial load allowable stress.
B. a transverse load A. Proportionality constant
C. a bending moment B. Strain
D. all of the above C. Factor of safety
Answer: D D. Modulus
Answer: C
Which of the following BEST describes
The greatest unit pressure the soil can What is the value of the modulus of
continuously stand is called elasticity of steel?
A. bearing strength A. 200 GPa
B. yield strength B. 200 MPa
C. ultimate strength C. 150 MPa
D. fatigue strength D. 150 GPa
Answer: A Answer: A

The distance that the top surface is The slope of the stress-strain diagram in the
displaced in the direction of the force linearly elastic region is called
divided by the thickness of the body is A. yield strength
known as B. proportional limit
A. longitudinal strain C. elastic limit
B. linear strain D. modulus of elasticity
C. shear strain Answer: D
D. volume strain
Answer: C The modulus of elasticity in shear is
commonly called as
The ratio of the tensile stress to tensile A. modulus of rigidity
strain B. Young’s modulus
A. Shear modulus C. bulk modulus
B. Modulus of elasticity D. deformation
C. Bulk modulus Answer: A
D. Hooke’s law
Answer: B A kind of stress caused by forces acting
along a parallel to the area resisting the
Another term for modulus of elasticity forces
A. Bulk modulus A. Tangential
B. Shear modulus B. Compressive mass
C. Young’s modulus C. Shearing stress
D. Moment of inertia D. Tensile stress
Answer: C Answer: C
A kind of stress caused by forces acting Answer: B
perpendicular to the area resisting the
forces. For symmetrically loaded simple beam, the
A. Tangential stress maximum moment occurs at
B. Shearing stress A. the midspan
C. Diagonal stress B. the support
D. Bearing stress C. 1⁄3from the support
Answer: D D. 1⁄4 from the support
Answer: A
Refers to the highest ordinate on the stress-
strain diagram. Poisson ratio is
A. the ratio of the stress to strain
A. Rapture strength B. the other term for slenderness ratio
B. Ultimate strength C. the other term for factor of safety
C. Yield strength D. the ratio of the unit lateral
D. Allowable strength deformation to the unit longitudinal
Answer: B deformation
Answer: D
At highest or lowest point on the moment
diagram, Which of the following is NOT a method of
A. Shear is maximum determining the bar force of a truss member
B. Shear is zero A. Method of joints
C. Shear is half the maximurn moment B. Method of section
D. Shear is negative C. Method of virtual work
Answer: B D. Maxwell diagram
Answer: D
For symmetrically loaded simple bam the
maximum shear occurs at The actual stress the material has when
A. the midspan under load
B. the support A. Allowable stress
C. 1⁄3 from the support B. Ultimate stress
D. 1⁄4 from the support C. Working stress
D. Factor of safety
Answer: C C. Elongation
D. Elasticity
The ratio of the volume stress to the volume Answer: A
strain is called
A. Young’s Modulus What is the SI unit for stress?
B. Shear Modulus A. Pascal
B. Joules
C. Bulk Modulus C. psi
D. Hooke’s Law D. kg/cm2
Answer: C Answer: A

A kind of stress that is caused by forces Unit strain is

acting along or parallel to the area resisting
the force A. inversely proportional to the unit
A. Tensile stress stress
B. Bearing stress B. expressed in pascals
C. Shearing stress C. unitless
D. Tangential stress D. directly proportional to the length of
Answer: C the object
Answer: C
Stress is proportional to strain. The constant
of proportionality is called as Young’s The ratio of the unit deformation or strains in

modulus. Who introduced this in 1807? a transverse direction is constant for

A. Sean Young stresses within the proportional limit. This is

B. Neil Young known as

C. James Young A. Hooke’s Law

D. Thomas Young B. Mohr’s circle

Answer: D C. Poisson ration

D. Slenderness ratio

Obtained by dividing the differential load dP Answer: C

by the differential area dA over which it acts The stress beyond which the material will

A. Stress not return to its original shape when

B. Strain unloaded but will retain a permanent

deformation. 3
A. Proportional limit 36
B. Elastic limit Answer: C
C. Yield Limit In general design, stress and factor of
D. Yield strength safety are related as follows
Answer: B A. Design stress = Ultimate stress x
A simple beam carrying a uniform load of w factor safety
throughout it entire length L has maximum
moment of B. Factor of safety =
A. wL
2 Design stress
B. wL Ultimate stress
2
2 C. Design stress =
C. wL
2 Ultimate stress
4 Factor of safety
D. wL
2 D. Ultimate stress =
8
Answer: D Factor of safety
Moment of inertia of a rectangular whose Design stress
base is B and height H, about its base is
A. bh Answer: C
3 The dimensions of Acceleration x Mass” is
12 the same as that to
B. bh A. Power
2 B. Length
4 C. Work
C. bh D. Weight
3 Answer: D
3 Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron
D. bh coated with
A. Aluminum cost
B. Magnesium Answer: A
C. Tin An economic study is made of the total
D. Zinc amount (C) for a series of alternative
Answer: D investment (P) for a given project. If C is
In a cantilever beam with a concentrated plotted as the ordinate versus P, the most
load at the free moment is desirable occurs when
A. maximum at the wall A. dC/dP = 1
B. 1⁄4 maximum half way out on the B. dC/dP = CO
beam C. dC/dP = 0
C. constant along the beam D. dC/dP = +1
D. maximum at the free end Answer: C
Answer: A Reduction in the level of national income
The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces and output usually accompanied by the fall
A. depends on the composition of the in the general price level
materials only A. devaluation
B. depends on the materials and the B. deflation
finish condition on the surfaces C. inflation
C. depends only on the finish condition D. depreciation
on the surfaces Answer: B
D. does not depend on the materials It is a series of equal payment occurring at
Answer: B equal interval of the time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS the beginning of the payment
Which one of the following contains only A. Annuity
items which are considered fixed charges? B. Debt
A. Interest, taxes, amortization, C. Amortization
insurance, rent D. Deposit
B. Amortization, insurance, steam cost, Answer: A
painting, cleaning The place where buyers and sellers come
C. Interest, taxes, replacement, labor together
for repairs A. Market
D. Interest, taxes, rent, power cost, oil
B. Business D. Private
C. Recreation center Answer: C
D. Buy and sell section Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and
Answer: A direct materials cost are the costs of all
A market whereby there is only one buyer of materials that go into production. The sum
an item for which there are no good of these two direct costs is known as
substitute A. GS and A expenses
A. Monopsony B. Operating and maintenance costs
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly C. Prime cost
D. Oligopsony D. O and M costs
Answer: A Answer: C
It is a series of equal payments occurring at An index of short term paying ability is
equal interval of time where the first called
payment is made after several periods, after A. Receivable turn-over
the beginning if the payment. B. Profit margin ratio
A. Perpetuity C. Current ration
B. Ordinary annuity D. Acid-test ration
C. Annuity due Answer: D
D. Deferred annuity An artificial expenses that spreads the
Answer: D purchase price of another property over a
The total income equals the total operating number of years.
cost A. Depreciation
A. Balanced sheet B. Sinking fund
B. In-place value C. Amnesty
C. Check and balance D. Bond
D. Break even-no gain no loss Answer: A
Answer: D Estimated value at the end of the useful life
Kind of obligation which has no condition A. Market value
attached B. Fair value
A. Analytic C. Salvage Value
B. Pure D. Book value
C. Gratuitous Answer: C
Consists of the accrual counting or offered for sale at a certain price at a given
determination of the act of the materials on place and time
hand as of a given date A. Demand
A. Physical Inventory B. Supply
B. Material update C. Stocks
C. Technological assessment D. Goods
D. Material Count Answer: B
Answer: A Work-in process is classified as
Additional information of prospective A. An asset
bidders on contract documents issued prior B. A liability
to bidding date C. An expenses
A. Delict D. An owner’s equity
B. Escalatory Answer: A
C. Technological assessment What is the highest position in the
D. Bid bulletin corporation?
Answer: D A. President
B. Board od Directors
An evil wrong committed by a person C. Chairman of the Board
damaged another person’s property or D. Stockholders
reputation is Answer: C
A. Tort
B. Material breach Type of ownership in business where individuals
exercise and enjoy the right in their own interest.
C. Negligence
D. Fraud A.Equitable C.Private
Answer: A B. Public D. Pure
A series of uniform accounts over an infinite Answer: C
period of time
Decrease in the value of a physical property due to
A. Depreciation the passage of time.
B. Annuity
A.Inflation C.Recession
C. Perpetuity
B.Depletion D.Depreciation
D. Inflation
Answer:D
Answer: C
The quantity of a certain commodity that is
An association of two or more individuals for the
purpose of operating business as co-owners for A.Perfect competition C.Monopoly
profit.
B.Oligopoly D.Elastic demand

A.Sole proprietorship C.Partnership Answer:A

B.Company D.Corporation
These are products or services that are desired by
Answer:C human and will be purchased it money is available
affter the required necessities have been obtained.

We may classify an interest rate, which specifies A.Utilities C.Luxuries

the actual rate of interest on the principal for one
year as B.Necessities D.Product goods and services
Answer:C
A.nominal rate C.exact interest rate
B.rate of return D.effective rate These are the products or services that are
required to support human life and activities, that
Answer:D willbe purchased in somewhat the same quantity
even though the price varies considerably.
Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is
not considered intelligent. A.Utilities C.Luxuries
B.Necessities D.Product goods and services
A. Dead person C.Demented person
Answer:B
B.Senior citizen D.Minors
Answer:C A condition where only few individuals produce a
certain product and that any action of one will lead
to almost the same action of the others.
It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to
satisfy human want.
A.Oligopoly C.Monopoly
A.Discount C.Necessity B.Semi-monopoly D.Perfect competition
B.Luxury D.Utility Answer:A
Answer:B
Grand total of the assets and operational capability
of a corporation.
It is the amount in which a willing buyer will pay to a
willing seller for a property where each has equal
advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or A.Authorized capital C.Subscribed capital
sell.
B.Investment D.Money market

A.Fair value C.Book value Answer:A

B.Market value D.Salvage value

The worth of the property equals the original cost
Answer:B less depreciation.

This occurs in a situation where a commodity or A.Scrap value C.Market value

service supplied by a number of vendors entering
the market. B.Face value D.Book value
Answer:D
 Answer:B
Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
Worth of the property as shown in the accounting
A. Discount C.Interest records of an enterprise
B. Credit D.Profit
A.Fair value C.Salvage value
Answer:C
B.Market value D.Book value
Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that Answer:D
can be converted quickly into cash, such as
accounts receivable and merchandise are called
Those funds that are required to make the
enterprise or project a going concern.
A.total assets C.current assets
B.fixed assets D.none of the above A.Initial investment C.Working capital
Answer:C B.Current accounts D.Subscribed capital
Answer:C

The length of time which the property may be

operated at a profit. A market situation where there is only one seller
with many buyer.

A.Physical life C.Operating life

A.Monopoly C.Oligopoly
B.Economic life D.All of the above
B.Monopsony D.Oligopsony
Answer:B
Answer:A

The provision in the contract that indicates the

possible adjustment of material cost and labor cost. A market situation where there are few sellers and
few buyers.

A.Secondary clause C.Contingency clause

A.Oligopoly C.Bilateral oligopoly
B.Escalatory clause D.Main clause
B.Oligopsony D.Bilateral oligopsony
Answer:B
Answer:C

The present worth of all depreciation over the

economic life of the item is called A market situation where there is one seller and
one buyer.

A.book value C.depreciation recovery

A.Monopoly C.Bilateral monopoly
B.capital recovery D.sinking fund
B.Monopsony D.Bilateral monopsony
Answer:C
Answer:C

Gross profit, sales less cost of good sold, as a A market situation where there are only two buyers
percentage of a sales is called with many sellers

A.profit margin C.net income A.duopo C.duopsony

B.gross margin D.rate of return B.oligopoly D.oligopsony

Answer:C
The interest rate at which the present work of the
cash on a project is zero of the interest earned by
The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money an investment.
value of an event, based on the earning power of
equivalent invested funds capital should or will
earn. A.Effective rate C.Rate of return
B.Nominal rate D.Yield
A.Present worth factor C.Time value of
money Answer:C

B.Interest rate D.Yield

The ratio of the interest payment to be principal for
Answer:C a given unit of time and usually expressed as a
percentage of the principal
Defined as the future value minus the present
value. A.interest C.investment
B.interest rate D.all of the above
A.interest C.discount
Answer:B
B.discount D.capital
Answer:C The true value of interest rate computed by
equations for compound interest for a 1 year period
is known as
The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a
given project is called
A.expected return C.nominal interest
A.capital recovery C.economic return B.interest D.effective interest
B.cash flow Answer:D
D.earning value
Answer: B The intangible item of value from the exclusive right
of a company in a stated region of the country.

The profit derived from a project or business A.Market value C. Goodwill value
enterprise without consideration of obligations to
financial contributions or claims of other based on B.Book value D. Franchise value
profit. Answer:D

A.Economic return C.Earning value The recorded current value of an asset is known as
B.Yield D.Expected yield
Answer:A A.scrap value C.book value
B.salvage value D.present worth
The payment for the use of borrowed money is Answer:C
called

Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as

A.loan C. interest
B.maturity value D. principal A.book value C. replacement value
Answer:C B.salvage value D.future value
Answer:B A type of annuity where the payments are made at
the start of each period, beginning from the first
period.
Sometimes called second hand value.

A.Ordinary annuity C. Deferred annuity

A.Scrap value C.Book value
B.Annuity due D. Perpetuity
B.Salvage value D.Going value
Answer:B
Answer:B

Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary

An intangible value which is actually operating annuity?
concern has due to its operation.

A.The amounts of all payments are equal.

A.Book value C.Goodwill value
B.The payments are made at equal interval of time.
B.Fair value D.Going value
C.The first payment is made at the beginning of
Answer:D each period.
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the
The value which has a disinterested third party, annuity
different from the buyer and seller, will determine in
order to establish a price acceptable to both Answer:C
parties.

A.Market value C.Fair value A is periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then
present worth of a perpetuity
B.Goodwill value D.Franchise value
A. Aiⁿ C. Aⁿ/i
Answer:C
B. Aiⁿ D. A/
A type of annuity where the payments are made at Answer: D
the end of each payment period staring from the
first period A mathematical expression also known as the
present value of a n annuity of one called.

A.Ordinary annuity C. Deferred annuity A. load factor C. sinking fund-

B.Annuity due D. Perpetuity B. demand factor D. present worth factor

Answer:A Answer: D
As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of
the initial cost by a periodic changes to operation as
It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal in depreciation or the reduction by a debt by either
intervals of time where the first payment is made periodic or irregular prearranged program reduction
after several periods, after the beginning of the is called
payment A. Annuity C. annuity factor
B. capital recovery D. amortization
A.Deferred annuity C.Progressive annuity
Answer: D
B.Delayed annuity D.Simple annuity
The reduction of the value of an asset due to
Answer:A constant use and passage of time.
A. Scrap value C. Depreciation
B. Depletion D. Book value D. Demand factor
Answer: С Answer: A
A method of computing depreciation in which the The first cost of any property includes.
annual charge is a fixed percentage of the
depreciation book value at the beginning of the year A. The original purchase price and height and
to which the depreciation applies. transportation charges
B. Installation expenses
A. Straight lime method C. SYD method C. Initial taxes and permits fee.
D. All of the above
B. Sinking fund method D. Declining balance
method Answer: D
Answer: D In SYD method the sum of years digit is calculated
using the formula with n = number of useful years of
A method of depreciation whereby the amount to the equipment.
recover is spread uniformly over the estimated life of
the asset in terms of the periods or units of output. A. nn-12
A. Straight line method C. nn+1
B. Sinking fund method B. nn+12
C. Declining balance method D. nn-1
D. SYD method Answer: D
Answer: C Capitalized cost of any properly is equal to the
Which of the following depreciation methods cannot A. Annual cost
have a salvage value of zero? B. First cost + interest of the first cost
C. First cost + interest of perpetual maintenance
A.Straight line method D. First cost + salvage value
B..Sinking fund method Answer: C
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method The lessening of the value of an asset due to the
decrease in the quantity available (referring to the
Answer: C natural resources, coal, oil, etc,.)
A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of A. Depreciation
money is regularly deposited at compound interest
in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate C. Inflation
and equal to the total depreciation of an asset at the
end of the asset’s estimated life. B. Depletion

A. Straight line method D. Incremental cost

B. Sinking fund method Answer: B

C. Declining balance method Is the simplest form of a business organization.

D. SYD method A. Sole proprietorship

Answer: B C. Partnership

The function of interest rate and time that determines B. Enterprise

the cumulative amount of a sinking fund resulting D. Corporation
from specific periodic deposits.
Answer: A
A. Sinking fund factor
An association of two or more persons for a purpose
C. Capacity factor of engaging in a profitable business
B. Present worth factor
 A. Sole proprietorship D. The partners may sell stock to general
additional capital.
C. Partnership
Answer: C
B. Enterprise
Which is TRUE about partnership?
D. Corporation
A. It has a perpetual life
Answer: C B. It will be dissolved if one of the partners
A distinct legal entity which can practically transact ceases to be connected with the partnership.
any business transaction which a real person could C. It can be handed down from one generation
do. of partners to another.
D. Its capitalization must be equal for each
A. Sole of proprietorship partner.
C. Partnership Answer: B
B. Enterprise Which is true about corporation?
D. Corporation A. It is the not best form of business
organization
Answer: D
B. The minimum number of incorporators to
Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business start a corporation is three.
organization? C. Its life is dependent on the lives of the
incorporators.
A. Sole partnership D. The stockholders of the corporation are only
C. Corporation liable to the extent of their investments

B. Partner Answer: D

D. Enterprise Represent ownership and enjoys certain

preferences than ordinary stock.
Answer: C
A. Authorization capital stock
Which is NOT a type of business organization?
C. Common stick
A. Sole of proprietor
B. Preferred stock
C. Enterprise
D. Incorporator’s stock
B. Corporation
Answer: B
D. Partnership
Represent the ownership of stockholders who have
Answer: C a residual claim on the assets of the corporation after
all other claims have been settled.
What is the minimum number of incorporators in
order that a corporation be organized? A. Authorized capital stock
A. 3 C. 10 C. Incorporators stock
B. 5 D. 7
B. Preferred stock
Answer: B
D. Common stock
In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,
Answer: D
A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of
the partnership. The amount of company’s profit that the board of
B. The partnership assets (excluding the directors of the corporation decides to distribute to
partners personal assets) only will be used to pay ordinary shareholders.
the liabilities. A. Dividend
C. The partners personal assets are attached to
the debt of the partnership. C. Share stock
 B. Return C. Registered bond
D. Par value B. Debenture bond
Answer: A D. Collateral trust bond
The amount of indebtness of a corporation usually Answer: A
for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed
by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation. A type of bond whose guaranty is in line on railroad
equipments.
A. Bond
A. Equipments obligations bond
C. Preferred stock
C. Registered bond
B. T-bill
B. Debenture bond
D. Common stock
D. Infrastructure bond
Answer: A
Answer: A
A form of fixed-interest security issued by central or
local government, companies, banks or other If the security of the bond is a mortgage on certain
institutions. They are usually a form of long-term specified asset of a corporation, this bond is
security, buy may be irredeemable, secured or classified as
unsecured. A. Registered bond
A. Bong C. Coupon bond
C. Certificate of deposit B. Mortgage bond
B. T-bill D. Joint bond
D. All of these Answer: B
Answer: A A type of bond where the corporation’s owners name
A type of bind where the corporation pledge are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to
securities which it owns (l, e, stocks, bonds of its the owners with their asking for it.
subsidiaries). A. Registered bond
A. Mortgage C. Incorporators bod
C. Coupon bond B. Preferred bond
B. Registered bond D. All of these
D. Collateral trust bond Answer: A
Answer: D Bond to which are attached coupons indicating the
A type of bond which does not have security except interest due and the date when such interest is to be
a promise to pay by the issuing corporation. paid.

A. Mortgage bond A. Registered bond

C. Collateral trust bond C. Mortgage bond

B. Registered bond B. Coupon bond

D. Debenture bond D. Collateral trust bond

Answer: D Answer: B

A type of bond issued jointly by two or more An amount of money invested at 12% interest per
corporations. annum will double in approximately

A. Joint bond A. 4 years C. 6 years

B. 5 years D. 7 years A current assets B. trade investments
Answer: C C. fixed assets D. Intangible assets
The 72 rule of thumb is used to determine ANSWER: C
A. How many years money will triple
B. How many years money will be double An increase in the value of a capital asset is called
C. How many years to amass 1 million
D. How many years to quadruple the money A profit B. capital gain

Answer: B C. capital expenditure D. capital stock

To triple the principal, one must use ANSWER: B

A. Integration
The reduction in the money value of a capital asset
C. logarithms is called capital expenditure
B. Derivative A. capital expenditure B. capital loss
D. implicit functions C. loss D. deficit
Answer: C ANSWER: B
A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for
which the demand is consistently high in relation to It is a negotiable claim Issued by a bank in lieu of a
its supply. term deposit.
A. Money market A. Time deposit B. Bond
C. Treasury bill C. Capital gain' D. Certificate of deposit
B. Hard currency ANSWER: D
D. Certificate of deposit
Any particular raw material or primary product (e.g.
Answer: B cloth, wool, flour, coffee..) is called
Everything a company owns and which has a money A. utility B. necessity
value is classified as an asset. Which of the following
is classified as an asset C. commodity D. stock
A. Intangible assets ANSWER: C
C. Trade investments
It denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one
B. Fixed assets currency in terms of others. The term usually
D. All of these applies to floating exchange rates

Answer: D
A. currency appreciation

Which an example of an intangible asset? B. currency devaluation

A. Cash C. currency float

C. Investment in subsidiary companies D. currency depreciation
B. Furniture ANSWER: D
D. Patents Answer: D
The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation's
currency in terms of the accepted standard (Gold,
Land, buildings, plant and machinery are examples American dollar or the British pound)
of
 C. Capital gain D. Internal rate of return
A. currency appreciation
ANSWER: C
B. currency devaluation
C. currency float The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered
for sale at a certain price at a given time and place.
D. currency depreciation
ANSWER: B
A. Demand B. Supply
The residual value of a company's assets after all C. Utility D. Market
outside liabilities shareholders excluded) has been
allowed for. ANSWER: B
A. Dividend B. Equity
The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought
C. Return D. Per value at a certain price given time and place.
ANSWER: B A. Demand B. Supply
C. Market D. Utility
ANSWER: A

A saving which takes place because goods are not

available for consumption rather than the consumer "When free competition exists, the price of a
really want to save. product will be that value where supply is equal to
the demand".
A. compulsory saving
A. A Law of diminishing return
B. consumer saving
B. Law of supply
C. forced saving
C. Law of demand
D. all of these
D. Law of supply and demand
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D

A document that shows proof of legal ownership of

a financial security. "When one of the factors or production is fixed in
quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the
A. bond B. bank notes other factors of production will result in a less than
proportionate increase in output".
C. coupon D. check
ANSWER: C A. Law of diminishing return
B. Law of supply
Defined as the capacity of commodity to satisfy
human want. C. Law of demand
A. Discount B. Necessity D. Law of supply and demand
C. Luxuries D. Utility ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C
The place where sellers and buyers come together.
It is the profit obtained by selling stocks at a higher A. Department store B. Market
price than its original purchase price.
C. Mall D. Shopping center
A. Debenture B. Goodwill
ANSWER: B

GATT stands for
A. General Agreement of Tariff and Trade
B. General Arrangement of Tariff and Trade
C. Global Agreement of Tariff and Trade
D. Global Arrangement of Tariff and Trade
ANSWER: A
A. he has 4 years practice as a MPE
B. If he graduated with a BSME degree and has a 4
years of practice as a RME
C. If he has a BSME degree, passed the
examinations for RME and has 4 years practice as
RME
D. none of these
ANSWER: A

The letter D in the Roman numerals is

A. 50 B. 100
C. 500 D. 1000
The only country that recognizes the mechanical
ANSWER: C engineering licensure of Filipinos issued by the
Professional Regulation Commission and allowed
to used the practice as RME
A. America. B. Canada
C. Japan D. none of these
ANSWER: D

The ratio between the average load and total

available capacity
A. load factor B. power factor

ELEMENTS C. demand factor D. Capacity factor

IN ANSWER: D
LAWS, ETHICS
(MISCELLANEOUS ELEMENTS) In Roman numerals, the doorframe written with the
letter indicates that the number equivalent to the
letter is to be multiplied by
To comply with the requirement of the Mechanical
Engineering Law complement of mechanical A. 100 B. 1,000
engineers combine prime movers rating of 373 KW C. 100,000 D. 1,000,000
must have in its on the minimum plant with a
employ the following: ANSWER: C
A 1 PME, 1 RME, and 1 CPM
In Roman numerals, the bar written above the letter
B. 1 RME, 2 CPM indicates that number equivalent to the letter is to
C. 1 PME, 2 RME be multiplied by

D.01 RME is charge of every shift A. 100 B. 1,000

Note: the plant is operating in 3 shifts C. 10,000 D. 100,000

ANSWER: B ANSWER; C

Mechanical Plant Engine ME(MPE) may be allowed Indicate the false statement about rules of
to take the licensure examination for if divisibility.
A. The number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its
digits is divisible by 9. A number system using a place value (or base) of
10.
B. The number is divisible by 12 if it is divisible by 4
and 3 A. Decimal number system
C. The number is divisible by 4 if the number B. Denary number system
formed by the last 2 digits by the last 2 digits is
divisible by 3. C. Denary number system

D. The number is divisible is divisible by 5 if it ends D. All of the above

with 5 or 0. ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C
What is the radix of the binary number system?
The base number of the number system. A 10 B. 16 C. 8 D. 2
A. Index B. Radix ANSWER: D
C. Cologarithm D. Logarithm
ANSWER: B A number system which needs sixteen symbols,
the 10 numerals and the letters A, B, C, D, E and F
is called
What is another name of octal number system?
A. Octal number system
A. Octonary number system
B. Duodecimal number system
B. Octenary number system
C. Vigesimal number system
C. Octonumber system
D. Hexadecimal number system
D. Octonumerals
ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B

A number system using a plane value or base of The terms "dozen" and "gross" used what number
20. system?
A. Sexagesimal number system A. Decimal number system
B. Duodecimal number B. Duodecimal number decimal
C. Bidecimal number system C. Bidecimal number system
D. Vigesimal number system D. Vigesimal number system
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B

1 gross is equivalent to
A number system using a place value (or base) of
60. A. 10 dozens B. 144 pieces

A. Sexagesimal number system C. 5 dozens D. 100 pieces

B. Septenary number system ANSWER: B

C Senary number system,

The number 1 followed by 100 zeros or 10^100 is
D. Sexadecimal number system called
ANSWER: A A. centillion B. chiliagon
C. milliagon D. google Answer: B
ANSWER: D He radius of the Earth’s orbit around the Sun (the
average distance between the Sun and Earth) is
The speed of 10 exponent google or 10900 is known as
called A. lightyear C. astronomical unit
B. astronomical orbit D. steradian
A. millgoogle B. centigoogle
Answer: C
C. googleplex D. myriad
ANSWER: C N astronomical unit is approximately equal to
A. 100 million km C. 150 million km
B. 125 million km D. 175 milion km
The speed of light is nearly
A. 3 x 10^5 km/s B. 3 x 10^6 km/s Answer: C

C. 3 x 10^4 km/s D. 30,000,000 m/s Absolute zero is

A.0°C C.0 R
ANSWER: A B.0°F D.0 K

Answer: D
If deka means 10–¹ and kilo means 10–³, then 10–²
is The gravitational constant is equivalent to N.m²/kg²
A. Deci C. hector A. 6.67×10–⁹ C. 6.67×10–¹¹
B. tera D. atto B. 6.67×10–¹⁰ D. 6.67×10–¹²

Answer: C Answer: C

1 cubic meter is equivalent to 1 Btu is equivalent to how many Joules?

A. span C. scruple A. 1054 C. 1036
B. section D. stere B. 1045 D. 1064

Answer: D Answer: A

The number 1 followed by 15 zeros is known as The pressure of 1 torr is equivalent to how many
A. one billion C. one quadrillion Pascals?
B. one trillion D. one quintillion A. 100.0 C. 166.7
B. 133.3 D. 200.0
Answer: C
Answer: B
100 kilograms is equivalent to 1
A. ton C. section
B. quintal D. stere 1 horsepower is equivalent to how many Watts?
A. 764 C. 874
Answer: B B. 476 D. 748
Answer: D
One section is equivalent to 1 1 electron volt is equivalent to how many Joules?
A. square foot C. square nautical mile A. 1.803×10–¹⁰ C. 1,602×10–¹⁴
B. square meter D. square statute mile B. 1.602×10–¹⁰ D. 1.602×10–¹²

Answer: D Answer: A

One foot is equivalent to how many hands? Which is not equivalent to 1 atm?
A. 2 C. 4 A. 1.013×10⁵ Pa C. 14.7 psi
B. 3 D. 5 B. 1.013 bar D. 1000 kg/cm²
Answer: D

The value of (3³)²is

A. 54 C. 243
B. 81 D. 729
Answer: D Point “A”In an irregular shaped rotating body
is from an instantaneous axis. At the same instant
The number of board feet in a plank 3 inches a point “B” In the body in to nave twice the velocity
thick,1 foot wide and 20 foot length is A. 5 ft B 240 inches
A. 60 C. 360 C. 305 cm D 6.2 meter
B. 120 D. 720
Answer: B
Answer: A
Circular pitch time diametral pitch equals
The following type item, which is common to both A. π C.1.0
the fixed and operating cost of an enterprise is B. 1/π D. π³
A. interest C. taxes
B. depreciation D. supplies Answer: A

Answer: C A general principle in the motion of a body can be

sinted as follows F = force, M= mass, V=
The center of gravity of an isosceles triangle whose velocity, ∆=change,T= time
height \( H \) is on the median line A. FT=MV C. FT=M∆V
A. 2/3 from the vertex C. 2/3 from the vertex B. F∆T=MV² D. F∆T=M∆V
C. 1/3 from the vertex D. ¾ H from the vertex
Answer :C
Answer: C
In mechanics, if mass (M), length’ (L), and time (T)
The number of the board feet in a plank 2 inches are selected as primary units, force (F) will have the
thick, one foot wide and 20 feet long is following equation
A. 400 C. 40 A F=M L T C. F=M L T–²
B. 20 D. power B. F=M T–² L–¹ D. F=M L–¹} T–²

Answer: C Answer:C

The nearest whole number to the value of 2/3 For a simple beam supported at each end and
(700)⅔ is: which is uniformly baded
A. 312 C. 12,433 A. the shear at the center of the beam is zero
B. 1,243 D. 54 B. the moment diagram is a straight line
C. the shear at the reaction is a minimum
Answer: D D. the maximum moment occurs at the reaction

Ninety degrees is equal to Answer: A

A. 1,500 radians C. 1,57 rad
B. 3.142 rad D. 1,000 rad The use of carbon in steel
A. increases the hardness
Answer:C B. increases the ductility
C. increases the resistance to shock
The standard acceleration due to gravity, g is equal D. decreases the resistance to fatigue
to:
A. 64.34 ft/sec² C. 980 ft²/sec Answer: A
B. 32.2 ft/sec D. 35.30 km/hr/sec
The loss of the weight of the body submerged in a
Answer: D fluid is
A. proportional to the depth of submergence
B. equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
C. independent of the specific gravity of the liquid A. theorem C. valuation
D. proportional to the weight of the body B. proportion D. power factor

Answer: B Answer :B

The difference between the book value and the A plane closed curve, all points of which are the
actual lower resale value is same distance from a point within, called the center
A. sunk cost C. fixed cost is
B. salvage value D. resale value A. radius C. arc
B. circle D. chord
Answer :A
Answer: B
It occurs when a unique product or service is
available only from a tingle supplier and entry of all Which of the following is the definition of the Joule?
other possible suppliers prevented: A. a unit of power C. a kg/ms²
A. inventory C. competition B. a Newton meter D. a rate of change of
B. monopoly D. profitability energy

Answer :B Answer :B

What is the equivalent expression for sin 2×?

A.½ sin x cos x C. 2sin x/ sec x
Two triangles are congruent if two angles and the B. 2 sin x Cos (1/2×) D. -2 sin x cos x
included side of the are equal respectively to two
angles and the included side of the other Answer :C
A. theorem C. axiom
B. corollary D. postulate Series expression for cos x contains which power
of x?
Answer : A A.0,2,4,6,8,… C. 1,2,3,4,5,…
B. 1,3,5,9,… D ½,3/2,5/2,7/2,…
The side opposite the right angle of a right triangle
A. median C. quadrilateral Answer : A
B. apothem D hypotenuse
All of the following statements about photons are
Answer : 0 correct, EXCEPT:
A.Photon s are small quanta of electromagnetic
An instrument for measuring specific density of energy.
fluids B. Energy of photons varies according to E= hf,
A. hygrometer C. clinometer where h is Planck’s
B. flowmeter D. Hydrometer C. Photon energy varies with source
intensity, ie a bright light source emits
Answer: D photons of higher energy than a dim source
D. Velocity of photons in vacuum is c, the
Output over input speed of light, 3x1010 cm/sec
A. annuity C. rate of return Answer: C
B. efficiency D. bond
Answer: B A one-candle power light source radiates luminous
flux at the rate of
The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the a. 1 lumen
product of its base and altitude b. 2 tumens
A. corollary C. axiom c. 𝝅 lumens
B. postulate D. theorem d. 4𝝅 lumens
Answer: D
Answer: D
A principal sum P is invested at a nominal interest
A statement of equality between two ratios: rate r, compounded m times a year, for n years.
The accumulated amount at the end of this period C. Straight line depreciation plus average
will be interest
D. Capital recovery with a return
Answer: C
A. P(1+r/m)r
B. P(1+r/m)n/m An annuity is defined as
C. P(1+r/m)m
D. None of these
Answer: D A. Earned interest due at the end of each
interest period
In the formula P+ F(1+i)-n the factor (1+i)-n is called B. Cost of producing a product or rendering a
the service
C. A series of equal payments occurring at
equal periods of time
A. Sinking fund factor D. Total annual overhead assigned to a unit of
B. Single payment present worth factor production
C. Single payment compound amount factor Answer: C
D. Capital recovery factor
Answer: B If the sine of angle A is given as K, what would be
the tangent of angle A?
A fund is established to produce a desired amount
at the end of a given period by means of series of
payments throughout the period is called a sinking A. aK/h
fund, and is represented by the formula: B. hK/a
C. Ha/k
D. oK/a
A. A = F i(1+i)n-1 Answer: B
B. A = P(1+I)-n
C. A = F(1+i)n-1(1+i)n-1 In finding the distance, d, between two points which
D. A = F (1+i)ni equation is the appropriate one to use?
Answer: A

Which of the following relationships between A. D = x1- x22+ y1 - y22

compound interest factors is NOT correct? B. D = x12-x22+ y12- y22
C. D = x1- y12+ x2 - y22
D. D = x2- x12+ y2 - y12
A. Single payment compound amount factor
and single payment present worth factor and are Answer: D
reciprocals
B. Sinking fund factor and uniform series The equation y = a1 + a2x is an algebraic
compound amount factors are reciprocal expression for the following choices?
C. Capital recovery factor and sinking fund
factor are reciprocals
D. Capital recovery factor equals sinking fund A. A cosine expansion series
factor plus the interest rate B. Projectile motion
Answer: C C. Projectile energy
D. A straight line
In determining the average annual cost of a project, Answer: D
the formula P - Sn + (P-S)i2n+1n + Si represents
the economic method of What is the name for a vector that represents the
sum of two vectors?

A. Sinking fund depreciation plus interest on

first cost A. Scalar
B. Straight line depreciation plus interest on B. Resultant
first cost C. Tensor
D. Moment C. Field intensity changes take place, but no
Answer: D displacement of mass occurs in the path of
electromagnetic waves
What type of curve is generated by a point which D. Electric field maxima and minima occur out
moves uniform circular motion about an axis, while of phase with those of the associated magnetic field
traveling with a constant speed , parallel to the Answer: D
axis?
All of the following statements about sound are
correct, EXCEPT
A. A cycloid
B. A epicycloid
C. A hypocycloid A. Sound is propagated by longitudinal
D. A helix compressional waves
Answer: D B. Velocity of sound in solids may be
calculated from their elastic modulus and density
All of the following statements about the electron C. Velocity of sound in gasses is independent
structure of atoms are correct, EXCEPT: of pressure
D. Sound waves do not exhibit refraction in
passing between media
A. Electrons of highest energy are located in Answer: D
the outer orbitals
B. Each orbital can contain one electron Frequency f of monochromatic yellow light which as
C. K, L, M, etc. shells are designation a wavelength of 598 nm (nanometers) in vacuum
representing the principal quantum number n = 1, is nearest to
2, 3 etc.
D. Each shell may contain up to n2 orbitals but
not exceeding A. 295, 0000 Ghz
Answer: B B. 510, 000 Ghz
C. 589, 000 Ghz
All the following are characteristics of waves D. 1,020,000 Ghz
EXCEPT: Answer : B

What is a possible outcome of an experiment

A. Energy of a wave varies with the square of called?
its amplitude
B. Interference is the interaction of waves. The
observed effect is based on the principle of A. A sample space
superposition B. A random point
C. Wave frequency changes on entering a C. An event
medium where the velocity of propagation is D. A finite set
changed Answer: C
D. Diffraction, or bending of a wave occurs
around the edges of obstacles In probability theory, what is the set of all possible
Answer: C outcome of an experiment is called?

All of the statements about electromagnetic waves

are correct, EXCEPT: A. A set of random events
B. A fuzzy set
C. A cumulative distributive
A. Electromagnetic waves are transverse D. A sample space
waves that consist of mutually occupied, changing Answer: D
eclectic and magnetic fields
B. Directions of the electric field of the How can the values of a random variable is defined
magnetic field, and or propagation are mutually over a sample space be described?
perpendicular
A. Always continuous D. Hydration
B. Always numerical Answer: D
C. Strictly nonzero
D. Defined only over a finite horizon An amphotenic hydroxide is one which
Answer: B

If two random variables are independently A. Has valence of -2

distributed, what is their relationship? B. Has been creed by bombardment with high
energy protons
C. Reacts violently with water
A. They are not identically distributed D. May act as either a base or an acid in
B. They are mutually exclusive chemical reactions
C. They are uncorrelated Answer: D
D. A or B
Answer: C The element tin has ten different stable isotopes.
The atomic nuclei of all the isotopes have the
Which of the following probability is not valid? same:

A. The probability of an event is always A. Number neutrons

positive and less than or equal to one B. Number of protons
B. If E0 is an event which cannot occur in the C. Radius
sample space, the probability of E0 is zero D. Mass
C. If the E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive, then Answer: B
the probability of both events occurring is zero.
D. If events E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive, If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is
then P(E1 + E2) = P(E2) - P(E1E2) proportional to the negative of the equation of the
Answer: D same curve, what is the curve?

If y = cos x, what is dydx?

A. A hyperbola
B. A square wave
A. Sec x C. A sinusoid
B. -Sec x D. A cycloid
C. Csc x Answer: C
D. -sin x
Answer: D Consider a strictly convex function of one variable,
x, with a lower bound and upper bound on x. For
Which of the following does not illustrate the effect what value(s) of x will the function be minimized?
of temperature or pressure on gas solubility?

A. At the upper bound of

A. Air bubbles form on the sides of a warm B. Strictly between upper and lower bounds of
glass of water x
B. Soda pop is bottled under pressure C. At the lower bound of c
C. Boiling frees water of gasses D. A or B or C
D. Air is more humid on rainy days Answer: D
Answer: D
Consider a strictly concave function in one variable
The chemical process which occurs when water is x, with a lower bound and an upper bound on c. For
added to cement is what values of x will the function be minimized?

A. Oxidation A. At the upper bound of x

B. Brownian movement B. At the lower bound of x
C. Plastic flow
Which of the following metals, has the highest
specific heat capacity at 100°C? How is the capital recovery factor (A/P, i, n) related
A. Aluminum C. copper to the uniform series sinking fund factor factor (A/F,
B. Bismuth D. iron i, n)? i is the effective annual rate of return, and n is
in years.
Answer: A A. (A/P, i, n)=(A/F, i, n) + i
B. (A/P, i, n)=(A/F, i, n)/i
Which of the following is a member of the halogen C. (A/P, i, n)=(A/F, i, n) - i
family? D. (A/P, i, n)=((A/F, i, n) +1)/n
A. Sodium C. hydrogen chloride
B. Fluorine D. phosphorus Answer: A

Answer: B To determine the chemical formula of a compound,

we need to know all of the following EXCEPT the:
A sample of a substance, to which a chemical
formula can be assigned, whose weight is equal to
its formula weight is equal to its formula weight is A. elements that compose the compound. B.
termed : density of the compound.
A. molecule C. gram equivalent weight C. molecular weight of the compound
B. mole D. one normal D. atomic weights of the elements in the compound
solution
Answer: B
Answer: B
The number of molecules in 22.4 liters (under
Hydrogen is common to all standard conditions) of a substance in its gaseous
A. acids C. oxides state, is called
B. salts D. metals
A. Dulong's number C. Avogadro's
Answer: A number
B. Petit's number D. Gay-Lussac's
The integral of a function between certain limits number
divided by the difference in abscissas between
those limits gives of the function. Answer: C
A. average C. intercept
B. middle D. asymptote Which of the following metals is the best heat
conductor?
Answer : A A. aluminum C. gold
B. copper D. silver
How can the differential equation a (d²x/dt²) + B(t)
dx/dt + C = D(t) best described? Answer: C
A. linear, homogeneous, and first order
B. homogeneous and first order When exposed to the atmosphere, which of the
C. linear, second order, and nonhomogeneous following liquids is coldest?
D. linear, homogeneous and second order
A. oxygen C. Nitrogen
Answer: C B. argon D. helium

The differential equation given is correctly Answer: D

described by which one of the following choices?
a (d²y/dx²) + bxy(dy/dx) =f(x) Hard water is water which contains soluble salts of
A. Linear, second order, homogeneous which of the following elements?
B. Nonlinear, second order, homogeneous
C. Linear, second order, non homogeneous A. Sodium C. Calcium
D. Nonlinear, second order, nonhomogeneous B. Sulfur D. chlorine

Answer: D Answer: С

What is an annuity?
A. the future worth of a present amount
B. a series of uniform amounts over a period of
time
C. an annual repayment of a loan
D. a lump sum at the end of the year
Answer: B
Which of the following expression is incorrect?
A. the future worth of a present amount, (F/P. i, n)=
1/(P/F, i, n)
B. the future worth of an annuity, (F/A, i, n)= -
1/(A/F, i, n)
C. the present worth of an annuity, (P/A, i,
n)=1/(A/P, i, n)
D. (A/F, n) - i =(A/P, i, n)
Answer: D
When using net present worth calculations to
compare two projects, which of the following could
invalidate the calculation?
A. Differences in the magnitudes of the projects
B. Evaluating over different time periods
C. Mutually exclusive projects
D. Nonconventional cash flows
Answer: B
Assuming i= annual rate of return, n number of
years, F = future worth, and P= present worth, what
is the future worth of a present amount P (F/P, i,
n)?
A. P(1+i)^n C. P(1+i)^-n
B. P(1+1)^n-1 D. P(1+i)^i
Answer: А
What must two investments with the same present
worth and unequal lives have?
A identical salvage values
B. identical equivalent uniform annual cash flows
C. different salvage values
D. different equivalent uniform annual cash flows
Answer: D
What is the formula of a straight-line depreciation
rate?
A. 100%-%Net Salvage Value/Estimated Service
Life
B. % Net Salvage Value/Estimated Service Life
C. 100% Net Salvage Value/Estimated Service Life
D. Average Net Service Value/Estimated Service
Life
Answer: A
Which of the following statements about stagnation
properties is least correct?
A. For a compressible fluid, KE change is
converted to stagnation temperature rise, and
pressure rise is isentropically calculated.
B. Stagnation temperature is related to
aerodynamic heating of leading edges of aircraft
wings.
C. In a fluid at Mach number greater than 1, an
isentropic calculation of stagnation properties is
valid.
D. For an incompressible fluid impacting a pitot
tube, KE change may be converted to pressure
rise.
Answer: C
Which of the following statements about Mach
number (M) is FALSE?
A. Mach number is the ratio of velocity to sonic
velocity.
B. Mach number has the dimensions of velocity.
C. The Mach 1 is the maximum attainable velocity
in a nozzle throat.
D. Mach angle ∝, or angle the shock front makes
with the velocity vector of a moving source, and
Mach number are related by Msin∝=1.
Answer :B
During combustion of hydrocarbon fuels with less
than stoichiometric air, the products depend on the
amount of air supplied and could be all of the
following EXCEPT:
A Unburned fuel, C, CO2, and H2O
B. Unburned fuel, C CO and H2O
C. C, CO, CO2 and H2O
D. C. CO and H2O
Answer: A
The rate of heat transfer through a given section of
a uniform wall for a given temperature difference is:
A. Directly proportional to the thermal conductivity
and to the thickness of the wall.
B. Inversely proportional to the thermal conductivity
and directly proportional to the thickness of the
wall.
C. Directly proportional to the thermal conductivity
and inversely proportional to the thickness of the
wall.
D. Inversely proportional to the thermal conductivity
and to the
Thickness of the wall.
Answer: C
Which of the following is true regarding the
minimum attractive Tine of return used in judging
proposed investments?
A. It is the same for every organization.
B. It is larger than the interest rate used to discount
expected
Cash flow form investments.
C. It is frequently a policy decision made by an
organization’s management.
D. It is not relevant in engineering economy
studies.
Answer: C
Which of the following situation has a conventional
cash flow so that an interest rate of return can be
safely calculated and used?
A. You purchase a house and pay the bank in
monthly installments.
B. You lease a car and pay by the month.
C. Your company undertakes a mining project in
which the land must be reclaimed at the end of the
project.
D. You invest in a safe dividend stock and receive
dividends each year.
Answer: D
The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is defined as
the order quantity which minimizes the inventory
cost per unit time. Which of the following is not an
assumption of the basic EOQ model with no
shortages?
A. The demand rate is uniform and constant.
B. There is a positive cost on each unit inventoried.
C. The entire reorder quantity is delivered
instantaneously.
D. There is an upper bound on the quantity
ordered.
Answer: D
Which of the following events will cause the optimal
lot size, given by the classic EOQ model with no
shortages, to increase?
A. a decrease in inventory carrying cost
B. a decrease in demand
C. an increase in demand
D. (A) or (C)
Answer: D
Which of the following statements is FALSE
concerning the deviations of real gases from ideal
gas behavior?
A. Molecular attraction interactions are
compensated for in the ideal gas law.
B. Deviations from ideal gas behavior are large
near the saturation curve.
C. Deviations from ideal gas behavior become
significant at pressures above the critical point.
D. Molecular volume becomes significant as
specific volume is decreased.
Answer: A
All of the following statements about wet bulb
temperature are true EXCEPT:
A. wet bulb temperature equals adiabatic saturation
temperature.
B. wet bulb temperature lies numerically between
dew point and dry bulb temperature for unsaturated
system.
C. wet bulb temperature equals both dry bulb and
dew point temperature at 100% relative humidity.
D. wet bulb temperature is the only temperature
necessary to determine grains of water per lb. of
dry air.
Answer: D
A small plastic bat is filled with moist air at 50%
relative humidity, sealed and placed in an
environmental chamber whose temperature and
pressure may be independently varied. The relative
humidity in the bag will be lowered under which of
the following conditions?
A. pressure Is increased
B. temperature is decreased
C. pressure is decreased
D. temperature is decreased and pressure is D. Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold, no
increased change in inventory value, and no change in
retained earnings.
Answer: C
Answer: B

What is a borrower of a particular loan almost Power may be expressed in units of

always required to do during payment? A. ft - lbs
B. BTU/hr
C. HP - hours
A. Pay exactly the same amount of interest D. kw-hours
each payment
B. Repay the loan over an agreed - upon Answer: B
amount of time
C. Pay exactly the same amount of principal Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is the
each payment most efficient?
D. (A) or © A. Carnot
B. Brayton
Answer: B C. Otto
D. Diesel

What work-in-process classified as? Answer: A

A. an asset
B. a liability Which air-standard power cycle do the P-V and T-
C. an expense S diagrams on the next page represent?
D. a revenue A. Otto cycle
B. Reheat cycle
Answer: A C. Carnot cycle
D. Brayton cycle
What is the indirect product cost (IPC) spending
variance? Answer: D

A. the difference between actual IPC and IPC Equilibrium conditions exist in all EXCEPT which of
absorbed the following
B. the difference between actual IPC and IPC
volume adjusted budget
C. the IPC volume adjusted budget (fixed + volume A. in reversible processes.
(variable (PC rate)) B. in processes where driving forces are
D. the IPC volume adjusted' minus the total IPC infinitesimals.
absorbed C. along ideal frictionless, nondissipative paths
where forward and reverse processes occur at
Answer: B equal rates.
D. In an steady state flow process.
Film A uses full absorption costing while firm B
uses variable product costing. How will the financial Answer: D
statements of these companies differ?
Name the process that has no heat transfer.
A. Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold and A. Isentropic
therefore, smaller profit. B. Isothermal
B Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, higher C. Quasistatic
inventory value, and higher retained earnings. D. Reversible
C. Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold and a
larger profit. Answer A
 D. Company B's profits will be higher than A's,
but inventory book value will be lower.

Answer:C

Enthalpy of ideal gas is function only of: What is the acid test ratio?

A. internal energy
B. entropy A. the ratio of owner's equity to total current
C. the product of pressure and specific volume liabilities
D. temperature B. the ratio of all assets to total liabilities
Answer: D C. the ratio of current assets (exclusive of
inventory) to total current liabilities
How is the material purchase price variance D. the ratio of gross margin to operating,
defined? sales, and administrative expenses.

Answer: C
A. (quantity purchased x actual price) -
(quantity purchased x standard price) Which of the following is not a unit of work?
B. (quantity issued - standard quantity)
(standard price)
C. (actual price - standard price) (quantity A. N.m
used) B. Erg
D. (quantity purchased - standard quantity) C. kg·m2/s2
(actual price) D. Dyne

Answer: A Answer: D

Which of the following does not affect owner's If heat transfer of the previous problem were
equity? reversible, and if the turbine operated
isentropically, what is the entropy gained or lost
by the low temperature reservoir?
A. dividends paid
B. invested capital
C. license to start business A. Indeterminate
D. expense to get license of start business B. 0
C. +0.240 BTU ºR
Answer: C D. +0.50 BTU ºR

Answer: C
Companies A and B are identical except for their
inventory accounting systems. Company A uses For spontaneously occurring natural process in
the last-in, first-out convention while company B an isolated system which expression best
uses the first-in n first-out convention. How will expresses dS?
their financial statements differ in an inflationary
environment?
A. dS = dQ/T
B. dS = 0
A. Company A's profits will be higher and the C. dS > 0
book value of their inventory will be higher than for D. dS < 0
company B .
B. Company A's profits will be higher and the
book value of their inventory will be lower than for
company B .
C. Company B's profits and inventory book Which the following statements about entropy is
value will be higher than for company A. FALSE?
A. Entropy is a mixture is greater than that of A. Quantity of discharge through an orifice
its components under the same condition. B. Velocity of flow in a closed conduit
B. An irreversible process increases entropy of C. Length of pipe in a closed network
the universe. D. Friction factor of a pipe
C. Entropy has the units of heat capacity
D. Entropy of a crystal at 0ºF is zero Answer: A

Answer: D The hydraulic radius of an open-channel section is

defined as:
Work or energy can be a function of all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. The wetted perimeter divided by the cross
sectional area.
A. Force and distance B. The cross sectional area is divided by the
B. Torque and angular rotation total perimeter.
C. Power and time C. The cross sectional area divided by the
D. Force and time wetter perimeter.
D. One-fourth the radius of a circle with the
Answer : D same area.

Energy changes are represented by all EXCEPT Answer: B

which one of the following?
Which of the following is true for a fluid?

A. -Vdp
B. Tds -PdV A. It cannot sustain a shear force
C. TdS + VdP B. It cannot sustain a shear force at rest
D. DQrev / T C. It is a liquid only
D. It has very regular molecular structure
Answer: D
Answer: B
( U+ PV) is quatity called
Which of the following is not a basic component of
motion element?
A. Flow energy
B. Shaft work
C. Entropy A. Twist
D. Enthalpy B. Rotation
C. Angular distortion
Answer: D D. Volume distortion

Answer: A
E. In flow process, neglecting KE and PE
changes, -Vdp represents which item ? Which of the following must be satisfied by the flow
of any fluid,real, or ideal?

A. Heat work
B. Shaft work I.Newton’s second law of motion
C. Closed system II.The continuity equation
D. Flow energy III.The requirements of uniform velocity distribution
IV.. Newton’s law of viscosity
Answer: B V.The principle of the conservation energy

The hydraulic formula CA 2gℎ is used to find the

A. I,II, and III A. Gravity
B. I,II,and, IV B. Air resistance
C. I,II, and V C. Viscosity of the fluid
D. I,II, and IV] D. Surface tension

Answer: C Answer: D

What is the definition if pressure? Equation of state for a single component can be
any of the following, EXCEPT:

A. AREA/FORCE
B. force/area A. The ideal gas law, Pv= RT
C. force/area B. The ideal gs law modified by insertion of a
D. area/force compressibility factor, Pv = ZRT
C. Any relationship interrelating 3 or more
Answer: C states
D. A mathematical expression defining a path
For a fluid, viscosity is defined as the constant of between ways
proportionality between shear stress and what
other variable?

Which of the following describes shear stress in a

A. The time derivative of pressure moving fluid?
B. The spatial derivative of velocity
C. The time derivative of density A. it is proportional to the absolute viscosity
D. The spatial derivative of density B. it is proportional to the velocity
C. it is non-existent
Answer: B D. both A and B gradient at the point of interest
Answer: D
In the design of waterways, the “hydraulic jump” is
sometimes used for
The state of thermodynamic system is always
defined by its
A. Energy dissipation
A. absolute temperature
B. Elimination for turbulence
B. process
C. Prevention of sedimentation
C. properties
D. Measurement of flow
D. temperature and pressure
Answer: A Answer: C

The rate of laminar water flow in a saturated soil

can be calculated using: If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the
velocity gradient, which of the following describes
fluid?
A. A Moody diagram A. it is inviscid
B. The Bernoulli equation B. it is a Newtonian gas
C. Darcy’s law C. it is perfect gas
D. The Hazen-William’s formula D. it is a constant temperature
Answer: D Answer: B

A leak form a faucet comes out in separate drops.

Which the following is the main cause of How are lines of constant pressure in a fluid related
phenomenon? to the force field?
A. they are parallel to the force field
B. they are perpendicular to the force field
 C. they are 45˚angles to the force field Answer: D
D. they are perpendicular only to the force of
gravity
For a given curve f(x, y) = 0, it is found that f(x, y) =
Answer: B f(x, -y). This means that:
A. The curve is unsymmetrical
Which of the following is the most accurate about a B. The curve is symmetrical to both x-axis
streamline? C. The curve is symmetrical to the x-axis
D. The curve is symmetrical to the y-axis
I.It is a mathematical concept.
II.It cannot be crossed by the flow Answer: C.
III.It is a line of constant entropy
A. I only The expression 6!3!0! is equal to
B I and II A. ∞ C. 120
C. II only B. 2! D. 0
D. I and III Answer: C
Answer: B
Under what condition is mass conserved in fluid
flow?
Mathematically, a thermodynamic property is which
of the following? A. The fluid is baratropic
B. It is always conserved
A. a point function C. The flow is isentropic
B. a path function D. The flow is adiabatic
1. c. an inexact differential
C. discontinuous Answer: B
Answer: A
What is the absolute value of a real fluid at a
surface?
In finding the distance between two points P1 (x1,
y1) and P2(x2, y2), the most direct procedure is to A. the same as the bulk fluid velocity
use: B. the velocity of the surface
C. Zero
A. The translation of the axes D. proportional to the smoothness of the
B. The slope of the line surface.
C. The Pythagorean theorem
D. The derivative Answer: B
Answer: C
Which of the following statements is true concerning
the following continuity equation?
To cut a circular cone in such a way as to reveal a
parabola, it must be cut: ∂ρ∂t+∂(ρμ)∂x+∂(ρv)∂y+∂(ρω)∂z=0
A. perpendicular to the axis of symmetry where: = density
B. at any acute angle to the axis of symmetry
C. at any obtuse angle to the axis of symmetry = velocity in x direction
D. none of this v = velocity in y direction
Answer: D. = velocity in z direction
A. it is valid only for incompressible flow
Naperian logarithms have a base of:
B. it is derived from the principle of conservation of
A. 3.1416 C. 2.171828 mass.
B. 10 D. 2.71828 C. it is valid only for steady flow
 D. it is derived from the principle of conservation of A. a standard distance
energy. B. central tendency
C. a normal distance
Answer: C D. dispersion
Answer: D
What is the origin of the energy conservation
equation used in flow system?
If a right circular cone is cut parallel with the axis of
A. Newton’s first law of motion symmetry, you would reveal:
B. Newton’s second law of motion
C. the first law of thermodynamics A. circle C. hyperbola
D. the second law of thermodynamics
B. ellipse D. parabola
Answer: C
Answer: C.

Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law

of fluid flow? If the first derivative of the equation of a curve is a
constant, the curve is a:
A. the principle of conservation of mass
B. the principle of conservation of energy A. circle C. hyperbola
C. the continuity equation B. parabola D. straight line
D. Fourier’s Law
Answer: D
Answer: B

What are the units of Reynolds number for pipe

Under which of the following conditions is Bernoulli’s flow?
equation valid?
A. m/s C. lbm/ft-sec2
A. the fluid must be incompressible
B. all points evaluated must be on the same B. ft2/sec D. none of the above
streamline
Answer: D.
C. the fluid must be inviscid
D. all of the above
Which of the following ratios is correct in providing a
Answer: D
physical meaning for the Reynolds number, Re?
A. Re = bouyant forcesinertial force
Under certain flow conditions, the expression for the
B. Re = drag forceviscous forces
first law of thermodynamics for a control volume
C. Re = viscous forcesinertial forces
reduces to Bernoulli’s equation:
D. Re = inertial forcesviscous forces
gz1+v22+p1p=gz2+ v222+p2p
Answer D.
Which combination of the following conditions is
necessary and sufficient to reduce the first law for a
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
control volume to Bernoulli’s equation?
A. The Reynolds number is the ration of the
I.Steady flow
viscous force to the inertial force.
II.Incompressible
B. Steady flows do not change with time at any
III.No frictional losses of energy
point.
IV.No heat transfer or change in internal energy
C. The Navier-stroke equation is the equation of
A. I and II C. I and IV motion for a viscous Newtonian fluid
D. Bernoulli’s equation only holds on the same
B. I, III, IV D. I, II, III, and IV streamline.
Answer: D Answer: A

In statistics, the standard deviation measures:

 The following is a characteristic of all trigonometric For fully developed laminar flow of fluids through
functions: pipes, the average velocity is what fraction of the
maximum velocity in the pipe?
A. The values of all functions repeat themselves
every 45 degrees A. 1/8 C. ½
B. All functions are units of length or angular
measure B. ¼ D. ¾
C. The graphs of all functions are continuous Answer: C
D. All functions are dimensionless units
Answer: D Which of the following is not true regarding the
Blasius boundary layer solution?
Where does the Moody diagram for friction factors A. It is valid only for potential flow
for pipe flow come from? B. It is valid for laminar flow
A. Calculations based on potential flow C. It permits one to calculate the skin friction
B. Experimental results for inviscid fluids bon a flat plate.
C. Applying the principle of conservation of Answer: A.
mass
D. Experimental results for viscous fluids For a system to be in equilibrium, the sum of the
external forces acting on the system must be:
Answer: D
A. equal to unity
What is the friction factor for fully developed flow in B. Indeterminate
a circular pipe where Reynolds number is 1000?
C. a maximum
A. 0.008 C. 0.08
D. zero
B. 0.064 D. 0.10
Answer: B Answer: D

For pipe flow in laminar flow region, how is the The mass moment of inertia of the cylinder about
friction factor related to the Reynolds number? its central axis perpendicular to a circular cross
section is:
A. fa 64Re C. faRe
A. directly proportional to its radius
B. fa 1Re D. faRe2
B. Independent of its radius
Answer: A
C. directly proportional to its length
Which of the following flow meters measure the D. Independent of its length
average fluid velocity in a pipe rather than a point or
Answer: C
local velocity?
I.Venturi meter
Which of the following properties are intensive
II.Pitot tube
properties
III.Impact tube
IV.Orifice meter I.Temperature
V.Hot wire anemometer II.Pressure
III.Composition
A. I only C. I and IV
IV.Mass
B. II only D. II and IV
Answer: C A. I only
B. IV only
C. I and II
D. I, II, and III C. speed
Answer: D D. displacement
Answer: C
How many independent properties are required to
completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure
gaseous compound? The stress in an elastic material is:

A. 0 A. inversely proportional to the material’s yield

strength
B. 1
B. inversely proportional to the force acting
C. 2
C. proportional to the displacement of the material
D. 3 acted upon by the force
Answer: C D. inversely proportional to the strain
Answer: C
Which of the following thermodynamic relations is
incorrect?
The “ SLENDERNESS RATIO” of a column is
A. Tds=dU-pdV generally defined as the ratio of its:
B. Tds=dH-Vdp A. length to its maximum width
C. U=Q-W B. unsupported length to its maximum radius of
gyration
D. H=U-pV
C.length to its moment of inertia
Answer: D
D. unsupported length to its least radius of gyration
The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be Answer: D.
expressed in units of length to the:
A. First power The relationship between the extension of a spring
and the force required to produce the extension is:
B. Third power
A. F=ma
C. Second power
B. F=mv²/R
D. Fourth power
C. F=uN
Answer: D.
D. F=kx
The vector which represents the sum of a group of Answer: D
force vectors is called the:
A. Magnitude The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of
steel is known as the:
B. sum
A. modulus of elongation
C. resultant
B. irreversible range
D. Phase angle
C. plastic range
Answer: C
D. elastic range
Which pf the following is not a vector quantity? Answer: D
A. velocity
Principal stresses occur on those planes:
B. acceleration
A. where the shearing stress is zero Answer: C
B. which are 45 degrees apart
The differential of the shear equation is which one
C. where the shearing stress is maximum of the following?
D. multiplied by the bending moment to determine A. load on the beam
the stress
B. tensile strength of the beam
Answer: C
C. bending moment of the beam
When an air entrainment agent is introduced into a D. slope of the elastic curve
concrete mix:
Answer: A
A. the strength will increase
B. the strength will decrease Homogeneous round bar of diameter D, length L,
and total weight W hung vertically from one end. If
C. the strength will not be affected E is the modulus of elasticity, what is the total
D. the water/cement ration must be reduced from elongation of the bar?
10-15% A. WL/πD²E
Answer: B B. WL/2πD²E
C. 2WL/πD²E
Structural steel elements subjected to torsion
develop: D. 2WLE/πD²
A. tensile stress Answer: C
B. shearing stress
Which of the following is true for water at reference
C. comprehensive stress temperature where enthalpy is zero?
D. bending stress A. internal energy is negative
Answer: B B. Entropy is non-zero
C. Specific volume is zero
Which of the following relation defines enthalpy?
D. vapor pressure is zero
A. h=u+p/t
Answer: A
B. h=u+pV
C. h=u+p/V An ideal gas mixture of constituents i and j. What is
D. h=pV+T the mole action xi equal to?

Answer: B A. Ti/Ti+Tj
B. Zi/Zi+Zj
The deflection of the beam is: C. Pi/Pi+Pj
A. directly proportional to the modulus of elasticity D. PiVi/RT
and moment of inertia
Answer: C
B. inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity
and length of the beam cubed
The compressibility factor, z , is used for predicting
C. inversely propotional to the modulus of elasticity the behaviour of an ideal gases. How is
and moment of inertia compressibility factor defined relative to ideal gas?
D. Inversely proportional to the weight and length (Subscript “C” refers to the critical value.)
A. Z=P/Pe C. Second
B. Z=PV/RT D. Fourth
C. Z=T/Tc Answer: A
D. Z= (T/Tc)(Pc/P)
A thin wall pressurized vessel consists of a right
Answer: B circular cylinder with flat ends. Midway between the
ends of the stress is greatest in what direction?
In what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted? A. longitudinal
A. p-V B. circumferential
B. p-T C. radial
C. h-s D. at an angle 45° to the longitudinal and
D. s-u circumferential direction

Answer: C Answer: B

How is the quality Xi , of a liquid-vapor mixture During an adiabatic, internally reversible process,
defined? what is true about the change in entropy?

A. the fraction of the total volume that is saturated A. it is always zero

vapor B. It is always greater than zero
B. the fraction of the total volume that is saturated C. It is always less that zero
liquid
D. it is temperature dependent
C. the fraction of the total mass that is saturated
vapor Answer: A
D. the fraction of the total mass that is saturated
liquid For an irreversible process, what is true about the
total change in entropy of the system and
Answer: C surroundings?
A. ds=dQ/T
What is the expression for the heat vaporization?
B. ds=0
Hg=enthalpy of the saturated vapor
C. ds>0
Hf=enthalpy of the saturated liquid
D. ds<0
A. Hg
Answer: C
B. Hf
C. Hg-Hf For which type of process does the equation
D. Hg²-Hf dQ=Tds hold?

Answer: C A. irreversible
B. isothermal
A vertically loaded beam, fixed at one end and C. reversible
simply supported at the other indeterminate to what
degree? D. isobaric
A. First Answer: C
B. Third
Which of the following is true for any process?
A. ∆Ssurroundings+ ∆Ssystem≥ 0
B. ∆Ssurroundings+ ∆Ssystem≤ 0
C. ∆Ssurroundings+ ∆Ssystem< 0
D. ∆Ssurroundings+ ∆Ssystem> 0
Answer: A
The bending moment at a section of a bean is
derived from the:
A. Sum of the moments of all external forces on the
one side of the section
B. Difference between the moments on one side of
the section and the opposite side
C. Sum of the moments of all external forces on
both sides of the section
D. Sum of the moments of all external forces
between supports
Answer: A
The stress concentration factor
A. is a ratio of the average stress on the section to
the allowable stress
B. cannot be evaluated for brittle material
C. is the ratio of areas involved in a sudden change
of cross section
D. is the ratio of the maximum stress produced in a
cross section to the average stress over the section
Answer: D.
Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the
A. Unit lateral to the unit longitudinal deformation
B. Unit stress to unit system
Answer: D
Modulus of Resilience is:
A. the same as the modulus of elasticity
B. a measure of a materials ability to store strain
energy
C. the reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity
D. a measure of the deflection of a member
Anwer B
Imperfections within metallic crystal structures may
be all of the
Following, EXCEPT:
A. lattice vacancies, or extra interstitial atoms
B. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystals (Shotky
imperfections)
C. Displacement to form mirror images along a low
energy boundary or crystal plane.
D. Linear defects, or slippage dislocations caused
by shear
Answer: B
All of the following statements about strain energy
are correct,
EXCEPT:
A. It is caused by generation and movement of
dislocations through shear or plastic deformation
B. It results from trapped vacancies in the crystal
lattice
C. It is proportional to length of dislocation, shear
modulus, and shortest distance between equivalent
lattice sites (points)
D. It is less for sites at grain boundaries than for
internal sites within the crystal structure
Answer: D
For a heat engine operating between two
temperatures (T2 > T1), what is the maximum
efficiency attainable?
A. 1-T2/T1
B. 1-T1//T2
C. T1/t2
D. 1-(T1/T2)^r
Answer:B
Which of the following is not an advantage of a
superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an open
Rankine cycle?
A. lower equipment costs
B. increased turbine work output
 C. increase efficiency
D. increased boiler life
Answer: D
Which of the following statements regarding
Rankine cycles is not true?
A. Use of a condensable vapor in the cycle
increases the efficiency of the cycle.
B. The temperatures at which energy is transferred
to and from the working liquid are less separated
than in a Carnot cycle.
C. Superheating increases the efficiency of a
Rankine cycle.
D. In practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine
materials to corrosion is not a key limitation on the
operating efficiency.
Answer: D
Which of the following set of reversible process
describes an ideal Otto cycle?
I.Adiabatic compression, Isometric heat addition,
adiabatic expansion, isometric heat rejection
II.Isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition,
isothermal expansion, is
All of the following statements about diffusion and
grain growth are correct, EXCEPT
A. Vacancies and interstitial atoms affect
diffusion, whose net result is movement of atoms to
produce a structure of less strain and of uniform
composition
B. Diffusion is irreversible and requires an
activation energy; Its rate increases exponentially
with temperature. It follows the diffusion equation
where flux equals diffusivity times concentration
gradient
C. Activation energy for diffusion through
structures is inversely proportional to atomic
packing factor in the lattice
D. Activation energy for diffusion through
structures inversely proportional to atomic packing
factor in the lattice Atoms can diffuse both within
crystal and across grain (crystal) boundaries
Answer C
All the following statements about slip are correct,
EXCEPT:
A. Slip, or shear along crystal planes, results in an
irreversible plastic deformation or permanent set
B. It involves only a few atoms at a time in a series
of small dislocation movements
C. Slip planes lie in the direction of the longest
distance between neighboring sites in the crystal
lattice
D. Ease of slippage is directly related to number of
low energy slip planes existent in the lattice
structure
Answer: C
When a metal is cold worked all of the following
generally occur EXCEPT:
A. Recrystallization temperature decreases
B. Ductility decreases
C. Grains become equl-axed
D. Tensile strength increases
Answer C
All of the following statements about strain
hardenings are correct, EXCEPT:
A. Strain hardening strengthens metals. Resistance
to deformation increases with the amount of strain
present.
B. Strain hardening is relieved during softening,
annealing above the recrystallization temperature.
C. Strain hardening is produced by cold working
(deformation below the recrystallization
temperature).
D. More strain hardening requires more time-
temperature exposure for relief.
Answer: D
A. Carnot operates between two reservoirs. One
reservoir is at a higher temperature, TH, and the
other is a cooler temperature, Tc, What is the
coefficient of performance, COP, of the
refrigerator?
A. TH/Tc
B.Th-Tc/TH
C. 1- Tc/TH
D. Tc/TH-Tc
Answer D
All of the following processes strengthen metals, A. all isothermal
EXCEPT: B. all adiabatic
C. two isothermal and two isentropic
A. Annealing above the recrystallization D. two adiabatic and two isentropic
temperature

B. Work hardening by mechanical Answer: C

deformation below the recrystallization temperature
(cold working)
What is the temperature difference of the cycle if
C. Heat treatment such as quenching and the entropy difference is AS, and the work done is
tempering, for production of a finer W?
microstructure
D. Precipitation processes, such as age A. W-DeltaS
hardening, which produce high strength B. W/DeltaS
by formation of sub microscopic phases C. DeltaS/W
during low temperature heat treatment D. W(DeltaS)

The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is:

A. A function of the length and depth.

The valence band model used to explain metallic B. defined as the unit shear stress divided
conduction is based on all the following statements, by the unit shear deformation.
EXCEPT: C. Equal to the modulus of elasticity divided
by one plus Poisson's ratio.
Heat treatment such as quenching and D. Defined as the length divided by the
tempering, for production of a finer moment of inertia.
microstructure
C. Shear strain to compressive strain
D. Elastic limit to proportional limit Answer: B
Answer A A thin homogeneous metallic plate containing a
Hooke'sLaw for an isotropic homogeneous medium hole is heated sufficiently to cause expansion. If the
experiencing on-dimensional stress is: coefficient of surface expansion is linear, the area
of the hole will:
A. Stress = E(strain)
B. (Force) (area)= A. increase at twice the rate the area of the
(change in length)/ metal increases
(length) B. B. increase at the same rate as the area of
C. StrainE(stress) the metal increases
D. Force/ Area =length/Area change in C. decrease at twice the rate as the area of
length the metal increases
D. decrease at the same rate as the area of
Answer A the metal increases

Answer: B
Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is the The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of
most efficient? steel is known as the:
A. Carnot A. modulus of elasticity
B. Rankine B. Plastic range
C. Brayton C. irreversible range
D. combined Brayton-Rankine
D. elastic range
Answer A Answer D

The ideal, reversible Carnot cycle involves four The maximum bending moment of a beam simply
basic processes. What type of processes are they? supported at both ends and subject to a total load
W uniformly distributed over its length L is C. Density and velocity of sound in the
expressed by the formula: material
D. Density and inter- atomic spacing in the
A. WL/8 material
B. WL^2/8
C.WL/2 Answer: C
D. WL^2/2
The difference between the starting and the ending
Answer A inventory valuations, a term that represents an
inventory account adjust is called:
In a long column (slenderness ratio> 160) which of
the following has the greatest influence on its B
tendency to buckle under a compressive load A. cost of goods sold
B. physical inventory system perpetual
A. The modulus of elasticity of the material inventory system
B. The compressive strength of the material C. periodic inventory system
C. The radius of gyration of the column D.
D. The length of the column

Answer: D
The area of the shear diagram of a beam between
any two points on the beam is equal to the:
A. Change in shear between the two points
B. Total shear beyond the two points
C. Average moment between the two
points
D. Change in moment between the two
points
Answer: D
Answer: A
How is the material purchase price variances
defined?
A. (quantity issued - std. quantity) (std.
price)
B. (actual price std. price) (quantity used)
C.(quantity purchased-quantity used)
(actual price)
D. (quantity purchased x actual price) -
(quantity purchased x std. price)

Answer: D
Poisson's ratio is principally used in:
How many significant digits do 10.097 have?
A. The determination of the capability of a
material for being shaped A. 2
B. The determination of capacity of a B. 3
material C. 4
C. Stress-strain relationships where D. 5
stresses are applied in more than one
direction Answer D
D. The determination of the modulus of
toughness Angles are measured from the positive horizontal
axis, and the positive direction is counterclockwise.
Answer C What are the values of sin B and cos B in the 4th
quadrant?
Young's modulus of elasticity for a material can be
calculated indirectly from which of the following A. sin B 0 and cos B < 0
properties of the material? B. sin 80 and cos B>0
C. sin B <0 and cos B<0
A. Temperature coefficient of expansion and D. sin b < 0 and cos B> 0
dielectric constant Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically conducive,
with electrons as majority carriers, when doped with
B. Temperature coefficient of expansion and
which of the following?
specific heat
A. nothing C.
boron B.
antimony D. germanium
Answer: B
Which of the following is standard temperature and
pressure (STP)?
A. 0 K and one atmosphere pressure
B. 32°F and zero pressure
C. 0℉ and zero pressure
D. 0°C and one atmosphere pressure
Answer: D
When the emitter to base of an npn transistor is
forward biased, and base to collector is reverse
biased, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
A. Electrons are majority carriers in the n - emitter
and n -collector regions.
B. Electrons are minority carriers in the p - base
region.
C. Holes are majority carriers in the p - base region.
D. The emitter is positive with respect to the
collector.
Answer: D
All of the following statements about solid solution
are correct,
EXCEPT:
A. Solid solutions can result when basic structure of
the solvent can accommodate solute additions
B. In solid solution larger solute atoms occupy the
interstitial space between solvent atoms that are
located at the lattice sites
C. Solid solutions may result by substitution of one
atomic species for another, provided radii and
electronic structure are compatible
D. Order - disorder transitions that occur at elevated
temperature in solid solutions involve changes due
to thermal agitation from preferred orientation to
random occupancy of lattice sites
Answer: B
All of the following statements about ferromagnetism
are correct, EXCEPT:
A. Magnetic domains are small volumes existent
within a single crystal where atomic magnetic
moments are unidirectionally aligned
B. Domains are randomly oriented when
unmagnetized. On magnetization, domains oriented
with the external field grow at the expense of
unaligned domains.
C. Impurities, inclusions and strain hardening
interfere with change of domain boundaries, and add
to the permanency of a magnet.
D. High magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic
materials disappears below the Curie temperature.
Answer: D
All of the following statements about steels are
correct, EXCEPT:
A. Yield strength of commercially available heat
treated alloy steels does not exceed 200,000 psi
B. High temperature alloys used in jet engine turbine
blades can withstand 2000°℉ continuously over
extended periods
C. Intergranular corrosion of chromium - nickel
stainless steels is reduced when stabilized by
addition of columbium (niobium), titanium or
tantalum to preferentially form carbides and prevent
chromium depletion and chromium carbide
precipitation is grain boundary areas
D. Abrasion resistance of extra strength steels may
be obtained by increasing hardness to 225-400
Brinell at the expense of some ductility and
toughness
Answer: A
Steels can be strengthened by all of the following
practices, EXCEPT:
A. annealing
B. work hardening
C. quenching and tempering
D. grain refinement
Answer: A
 C. Halides aggravate rusting, a process which
All of the following statements about the austenite - involves electrochemical oxidation-reduction
martensite -bainite transformation in steel are reactions.
correct, EXCEPT:
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen - rich anodic areas, and
the rust is deposited nearby.
A. Martensite is fine grained oc-ferrite,
supersaturated with carbon, in a metastable body
Answer: D
centered tetragonal structure.It forms by shear
(slippage) during the rapid quench of face centered
Which statement about area moments of inertia is
cubic austenite (δ-ferrite)
false?
B. Martensite is strong and hard, but brittle,
Tampering toughens it and reduces britlleness. A. 1=∫d2(dA)

C. Tempering of maternsite is done by judicious B. The area moment of inertia arises whenever the
reheating to produce, by diffusion, a fine - grained magnitude of the surface forces varies linearly with
tough strong microstructures. distance.

D. Bainite and tempered martensite have C. The moment of inertia of a large area is equal to
distinctively different microstructures. the large area.

Answer: D D. The area closest to the axis of interest are the

most significant.
All of the following statements about mechanical
failure are true, EXCEPT: Answer: D

Which of the following affects most of the electrical

A. Brittle fracture occurs with little plastic and thermal properties of materials?
deformation and relatively small energy absorption

B. Ductile fracture is characterized by significant A. the atomic weight expressed in grams per gram-
amounts of energy absorption and plastic atom
deformation (evidenced by elongation and reduction
in cross-sectional area) B. the electrons, particularly the outermost ones

C. Ductile - brittle transition in failure mode occurs at C. the magnitude of electrical charge of the protons
reduced temperatures for most materials, because D. the weight of the atoms
fracture strength remains constant with temperature
while yield strength increases as temperature is
reduced. At high temperatures yield strength is least; Answer: B
at low temperatures fracture strength is least.
Which of the following is not a method of non-
D. Fatigue failure due to cyclic stress frequency destructive testing of steel casting and forgings?
dependent.
A. radiography
B. magnetic particle
Answer: D
C. ultrasonic
D. chemical analysis
All of the following statements about rusting of iron
are correct, EXCEPT:
Answer: D

A. Contact with water, and oxygen are necessary for Compressive strength of fully cured concrete is most
rusting to occur. directly related to:

B. Contact with a more electropositive metal A. sand-gravel

reduces rusting.
B. water-cement ratio
C. aggregate gradation
D. absolute volume of cement
Answer: B
According to the ACI code, the modular ratio, n, of
structural concrete with a 28 - day ultimate
compressive strength, f’c, of 3000 is nearest to:
A. 7 C. 9
B. 8 D. 10
Answer: C
What are valence electrons?
A. the outer shell electrons
B. electrons with positive charge
C. the electrons of the complete quantum shells
D. the K-quantum shell electrons
Answer: A
What is the strong bond between hydrogen atoms
known as?
A. the ionic bond
B. ionic and metallic bond
C. the metallic bond
D. the covalent bond
Answer: D
What are Van der Waals forces?
A. weak secondary bonds between atoms
B. primary bonds between atoms
C. forces between electrons and protons
D. forces not present in liquids
Answer: A
All of the following statements about air entrained
concrete are correct, EXCEPT:
A. Air entrained is recommended when concrete is
exposed to severe frost action.
B. With air entrainment, the quantity of water to
produce a
C. With air entrainment, the quantity of water to
produce a
D. Air entrainment reduces resistance to the freeze
-thaw that occurs when salt is used to melt ice or
snow.
Answer: D
In the design of a reinforced concrete structure,
tensile strength of the concrete is normally:
A. Assumed to be 1/10 of the 28-day compressive
strength.
B. Determined by beam tests.
C. Neglected.
D. Assumed to be 200 psi.
Answer: C
All of the following groups of plastics are
thermoplastic, EXCEPT:
A. Polyvinylchloride (PVC) and polyvinyl acetate
B. Polyethylene, polypropylene, and polysterene
C. Tetrafluoroethylene (Teflon) and other
fluorocarbons
D. Phenolics, melamine and epoxy
Answer: D
Compare the metallic iron atom Fe and the ferric
ions: Fe3+ and Fe3+. Which has the smallest atomic
radius? (Assume all are at the same temperature.)
A. Fe
B. Fe2+
C. Fe3+
D. They have the same radii
Answer: C
Cesium (Cs) and sodium (Na) both have the same
valence (+1),yet with chlorine (CI), cesium has a
coordination number of 8 in CsCl, while sodium has
a coordination number of only 6 in NaCl. What is the
main reason for this difference?
A. The atomic weight of Cs is larger
B. Cs contains more electrons than the weight of
Na.
C. Cs forms covalent bonds in CsCl. B. Density, shear stress and angular deformation
rate
D. Cs is too large to be coordinated by only 6 C. Density and shear stress
D. Shear stress and angular deformation rate
chloride ions.
Answer: D

Answer: D Total energy of a compressible or incompressible

fluid flowing across any section in a pipeline is a
Which of the following statements is false? function of:

A. Ceramics are inorganic, nonmetallic solids that A. pressure and velocity

B. pressure, density and velocity
are processed or used at high temperature. C. flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum,
and internal energy
B. Metals are chemical elements that form D. pressure density, velocity and height above
datum
substances that are opaque, lustrous, and good
Answer: C
conductors of heat and electricity.
Which of the following is not a viscoelastic
C. Oxides, carbides, and nitrides are considered to material?

be within the class of materials known as glasses. A. plastic

B. metal
D. Most metals are strong, ductile, and malleable. In C. rubber
D. Glass
general, they are heavier than most other
Answer: B
substances.
In molecules of the same composition, what are
variations of atomic arrangements known as?
Answer: C
A. polymers
Kinematic viscosity may be expressed as: B. isomers
C. monomers
D. crystal system

A.ft2sec Answer: B

Which of the following accurately describes

B sec2t differences between crystalline polymers and
simple crystals?
C. SlugSec2ft
I.Crystalline polymers are made of folded chains of
D. slugssec atoms unlike simple crystals.
II.Crystal size can be increased by raising the
crystallization temperature only in polymers
III.While a simple crystal may be totally crystallized, a
polymer can reach only partial crystallization.

Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with pressure A. I only

and temperature and is defined as a function of B. II only
C. III only
A. Density and angular deformation rate D. I and III
 D. Dynamic
Answer: D
Answer: A
Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to
have which of the following? Flow nets are drawn to show all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. small side groups
B. only one repeating unit A. Streamlines spaced to bound streamtubes of
C. an atactic configuration of side groups equal volume flow rate, q.
D. small chain lengths B. Flow and pressure drops in distribution systems.
C. Paths of particles in 2-and 3-dimensional flow.
Answer: C D. Equipotential lines perpendicular to streamlines

Answer: B

The locus of the elevations to which water will rise Which of the following constitutes a group of
in a piezometer tube is termed: parameters with the dimensions of power?

A. stagnation pressure A. ρAV

B. the energy gradient B. DVρ/μ
C. the hydraulic gradient C. PAv
D. friction head D. ρv2/P

Answer: C Answer: C

Which of the following statements most nearly At or below critical velocity in small pipes or at very
approximates conditions in turbulent flow? low velocities, the loss of head due to friction

A. Fluid particles move along smooth, straight

paths A. varies directly as velocity.
B. Energy loss varies linearly with velocity B. can be ignored.
C. Energy loss varies as the square of the velocity C. is infinitely large.
D. Newton's law of viscosity governs the flow D. varies as the velocity squared.

Answer: C Answer: A
At constant pressure P all of the following
For turbulent flow of a fluid in a pipe, all of the statements about low rate, q in turbulent flow in a
following are true, EXCEPT: pipe are true. EXCEPT:

A. q varies approximately as (diameter, D)2

A. The average velocity will be nearly the B. q decreases as pipe surface roughness ratio,
same as at the pipe center. ∈/D
B. Energy lost due to turbulence and friction varies increases
with kinetic energy C. q varies as (velocity, V)2
C. Pipe toughness affects the friction factor D. q decreases inversely as (fluid density, ρ)1/2
D. Reynolds number will be less than 2000.
Answer: C
Answer: D
What is the atomic packing factor for a simple cubic
In fluid flow, if the fluid travels parallel to the crystal?
adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles
do not cross, the flow is said to be: A. 0.48
B. 0.52
A. laminar C. 1.00
B. turbulent D. 1.05
C. critical
Answer: B A. kinetic energy
B. pipe diameter
Which of the following statements is false? C. friction factor
D. volume flow rate

A. Both copper and aluminum have a face- Answer: A

centered crystal structure.
B. Both magnesium and zinc have a The vena contracta of a sharp hydraulic orifice
hexagonal close-packed crystal structure. usually occurs:
C. Iron can have either a face-centered or a
body-centered cubic crystal structure.
D. Both lead and cadmium nave a hexagonal close- A. At the geometric center of the orifice.
packed crystal structure. B. At a distance of about 10% of the orifice
diameter upstream from the plane of the orifice.
Answer: D C. At a distance equal to about two orifice
Which of the following statements is false? diameters downstream from the plane of the orifice.
D. At a distance equal to about one-half the orifice
A. The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a diameter downstream from the plane of the orifice.
boy- centered cubic unit cell are: 0, 0, 0 and 1/2,
1/2, 1/2 Answer: D
B. The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a
face- centered cubic unit cell are 0, 0, 0; 1/2, 1/2, 0, Modes of extinguishing obligations when auditor
1/2, 0, 1/2: and 0, 1/2, 1/2. abandons his right to collect:
C. The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a
simple cubic unit cell are: 0, 0, 0.
D. The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a A. condonation
rhombohedral unit cell are 1/2, 1/2, 1/2. B. forfeiture
C. debt cancellation
Answer: D D. liquidated damages

Which crystal structure possesses the highest Answer: A

number of close- packed planes and close-packed
direction? With regard to corrosion of metals, passivation is
the process that;
A. simple cubic
B. body-centered cubic
C. face-centered cubic A. intensifies deterioration temporarily
D. close-packed hexagonal B. inhibits further deterioration
C. changes the composition of the metal
Answer: C D. after the grain size of the metal

What are most common slip planes for face- Answer: B

centered cubic and body-centered cubic structures,
respectively? Cavitation is the result of

A face-centered: (111), body-centered: (110)
B face-centered: (100), body-centered: (110)
C. face-centered : (110), body-centered: (111)
D face-centered: (111), body-centered: (100)
Answer: A
Entrance losses between tank and pipe, or losses
through elbows, fittings and valves are generally
expressed as functions of
A. static pressure in a fluid becoming less than fluid
vapor pressure.
B. rivets under impact load.
C. exposure of concrete to salt water.
D. heat treatment of a low carbon steel.
Answer: A
On doubling the speed. N. of a centrifugal pump
following are true, EXCEPT:
A. Head, H is increased by a factor of 4. describes the interplanar distance d' in a cubic
B. Horsepower, P is increased by a factor of 8. crystal?
C. Head, horsepower and volume flow rate are
independently variable.
D. Volume flow rate, Q is increased by a factor of 2. A. d=2a(1ℎ)2+(1k)2+(1l)2
B. d=a1ℎ+1k+1l
Answer: C C. d= a2ℎ2+k2+l2
D. d= aℎ2+k2+l2
The first law of thermodynamics states that:
Answer: D

A. heat energy cannot be completely Entropy is the measure of

transformed into work.
B. internal energy is due to molecular motion.
C. heat can only be transferred from a body of A. the change in enthalpy of a system
higher B. the internal energy of gas
temperature to one of lower temperature C.the heat capacity of a substance
D. energy can be neither created nor destroyed. D. randomness or disorder
Answer: D
Answer: D
In any non-quasistatic thermodynamics process,
the overall entropy of an isolated system will:
Which of the following statements is not true
A. Increase and then decrease regarding X-ray diffraction?
B. Stay the same
C. Decrease and then increase A. The geometrical structure factor F (hkl) is
D. Increase only the ratio of the amplitude of the X-ray
reflected from a plane in a crystal to the
Answer: D amplitude of the X-ray scattered from a
single electron.
Comparing the face-centered cubic lattice with the B. X-ray diffraction is only useful for studying
hexagonal close-packed lattice, which of the
simpler crystal such as the body-centered
following features describes the hexagonal close-
packed structure only? cubic structure, rather than more complex
crystals like the hexagonal close-packed
structure.
A. It has the closest pecked lattice structure. C. X-ray diffraction can be used to determine
B. Its coordination number is 2. the grain size of a specimen.
C. Its deformation properties are more directional. D. X-ray diffraction can be used to detect
D. Its stacking order is ABCABC.
micro-stresses in a crystal.
Answer: C ANSWER: B
In a crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom?
A plane intercepts the coordinate axis x = 1, y = 1,
z = 2. What are the Miller indices of the plane? A. An extra atom sitting at a non-lattice point
B. An atom missing at a lattice point
A. (132) C. A different element at a lattice point
B. (123)
D. A line defect
C. (623)
D. (326) ANSWER: A
Which of the following is a line defect in a lattice
Answer: C
crystal structure?
Given that a is a lattice constant that h, k, and I are A. Tilt boundary
the Miller indices, which of the following equations B. Screw dislocation
C. Vacancy
 D. Schottky imperfection What is the Arrhenius equation for the rate of a
ANSWER: B thermally activated process? (A=reaction constant,
T = absolute temperature, R = gas constant, Q
It is often desired to know the number of atoms, n, =activated energy)
in a crystal structure that possess more than a
specified amount of energy E. Which of the A. rate =AΘ-Q/RT
following equations gives n, given that N is the total B. rate = AΘ-QRT
number of atoms present, M is a constant, k is the C. rate = AΘ Q/RT
Boltzman constant, and 0 is the temperature of the D. rate = AΘQ/RT
specimen? ANSWER: A
A. n=M / N e^ -ke/T Which of the following statements is false?
B. n= EM/N e^-kT
C. n=MNe^-E/kT A. The surface energy of a liquid tends toward
D. n= MNe^-kT/E a minimum.
ANSWER: C B. The surface energy is the work required to
create a unit area of additional space.
Which of the following describes diffusion in a C. The energy of an interior atom is greater
crystal structure? than the energy of an atom on the surface
A. It is not possible of a liquid.
B. It occurs only in alloys, never in pure crystal. D. Total surface energy is directly proportional
C. It often uses an exchange or vacancy to the surface area.
mechanism. ANSWER: C
D. It occurs primarily as a result of mechanical Which of the following best describe the 0.2% offset
work. yield stress?
ANSWER: C
A. It is elastic limit after which a measurable
What is Fick’s first law for one-dimensional, steady plastic strain has occurred.
state diffusion? C is the volume concentration of B. It is the stress at which the material
atoms, x is the distance along which diffusion plastically strains 0.2%.
occurs, D, is the diffusion coefficient, and J is the C. It is the stress at which the material
flux or current density.
elastically strains 0.2%.
A. J= -D ᵊc/ᵊx D. It is 0.2% below the fracture point of the
B. J= C ᵊD/ᵊx material.
C. J= -1/D ᵊC/ᵊx ANSWER: B
D. J= 2D ᵊC/ᵊx
Which of the following is true regarding the ductile
ANSWER: A to brittle transition temperature?
Which of the following are true about Fick’s first law I. It is important for structure used in cold
for diffusion?
environments
I. It is only applicable to liquids, not solids. II. It is the point at which the size of the
II. The law states that the flux moves from shear lip or tearing rim goes to zero.
high to low concentration. III. It is the temperature at which 20 Joules
III. J, the flux, may be in units of cm3/cm2.s. of energy causes failure in Charpy v-
notch specimen of standard dimensions.
A. I only
A. I only B. I and II
B. II only C. II and III
C. III only D. I and III
D. II and III ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D
Which of the following are true regarding creep?
 I. It is caused by the diffusion of vacancies A. Plastic deformation
to edge discolations, permitting B. Slow equilibrium cooling
dislocation climb. C. Quenching
II. It involves the plastic deformation of D. Irradiation with high energy particles
materials at loads below the yield stress. ANSWER: B
III. It may involve whole grain sliding.
Which of the following are true statements about
A. I only
the modulus of elasticity, E?
B. II only
C. I and III A. It is the same as the rupture modulus.
D. I, II, and III B. It is the slope of the stress-strain diagram in
ANSWER: D the linearly elastic region.
C. It is the ratio of stress to volumetric strain.
As the amount of slip increases, additional
D. Its value depends only on the temperature
deformation becomes more difficult and decrease
of the material.
until the plastic flow finally stops. Slip may be again
ANSWER: B
only if a larger stress is applied. What is this
phenomenon known as? What is the proper relationship, between the
A. Cooling modulus of elasticity, E, the Poisson ratio, v, and
the bulk modulus of elasticity, K?
B. Crowding
C. Strain hardening A. E = K (1-2v)
B. E = K (1=v)
C. E = 3K/ 1-2v
D. Twinning D. E = 3K (1-2v)
ANSWER: C ANSWER: D

Which word combination best completes the If G is the shear modulus, b is the Burgers vectors,
following sentence? and r is half the distance between particles, what is
the local stress, r, required to bend dislocations
“Plastic deformation of a single crystal occurs either around a particle?
by ____ or by ___ but ___ is the more common
method.” A. r = Gb/r
B. r = Gbr
A. High pressure, high temperature, high C. r = br/G
pressure
D. r= Gr/b
B. High temperature, high pressure, high ANSWER: A
temperature
C. Slip, twinning, slip Given that d is the distance between dislocations,
D. Twinning, slip, twinning and b is the Burgers vector, what is the expression
ANSWER: C for the misorientation angle Θ of a tilt boundary?

Which of these statements is true and for twinning? A. sin Θ = d/b

B. tan Θ = b/d
A. It occurs at a lower shear stress than slip C. Θ = b/d
B. It is the most significant form of plastic D. Θ = d/b
deformation. ANSWER: B
C. It cannot be caused by impact or thermal
treatment.
D. It frequently occurs in hexagonal close-
packed structures.
In general, what are the effects of cold-working a
ANSWER: D
metal?
Which of the following does not produce vacancies,
A. Increase strength and ductility
interstitial defects, or impurity defects in a material?
 B. Decrease strength, increased ductility
C. Decreased strength and ductility
D. Increased strength, decreased ductility
ANSWER: D
Which of the following does cold-working cause?
A. Elongation of grains in the flow direction, an
increase in dislocation density, and overall
increase in energy of the metal
B. Elongation of grains in the flow direction, a
decrease in dislocation density, and an
overall decrease in energy of the metal
C. Elongation of grains in the flow direction, a
decrease in dislocation density, and an
overall increase in energy of the metal
D. Shortening of grains in the flow direction, a
decrease in dislocation density, and an
overall decrease in the energy of the metal
ANSWER: A
Which of the following statements is false?
A. The amount or percentage of cold work
cannot be obtained from information about
change in the area of thickness of a metal.
B. The process of applying force to metal at
temperature below the temperature of
crystallization in order to plastically deform
the metal is called cold-working.
C. Annealing eliminates most of the defects
caused by the cold-working of metal.
D. Annealing reduces the hardness of the
metal.
ANSWER: A
Which of the following statements is false?
A. There is a considerable increase in the
hardness and the strength of a cold-working
metal.
B. Cold-working a metal significantly reduces
its ductility.
C. Cold-working causes a slight decrease in
the density and electrical conductivity of a
metal.
D. Cold work decreases the yield point as well
as the strength and hardness of the metal.
ANSWER: D
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Hot-working can be regarded as the
simultaneous combination of cold-
working and annealing.
B. Hot-working increases the density of the
metal.
C. One of the primary goals of hot-working
is to produce a fine-grained product.
D. Hot-working causes much strain
hardening of the metal.
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is false?
A. Grain size is of minor importance in
considering the properties of polycrystalline
materials.
B. Fine-grained materials usually exhibit
greater yield stresses than coarse-grained
materials at low temperature.
C. At high temperature, grain boundaries
become weak and sliding occurs.
D. Grain sliding can cause the formation of
voids along the boundary.
ANSWER: A
Which of the following correctly describes
atoms located at grain boundaries?
A. They are subjected to the same type of
interatomic forces that are presented in the
interior atoms of the crystal
What causes the vinyl interiors of automobiles to
crack when subjected to prolonged sunlight?
A. The vitalization (evaporation) of plasticizers
B. Repetitive expansion and contraction of the
plastic
C. Additional polymerization
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Low density polyethylene undergoes extensive
elongation (over 100%) prior to rupture, while
polystyrene undergoes only 1 to 2 elongation. What
is the main reason for this difference?
A. The polyethylene isles dense.
 B. The large styrene groups in the polystyrene
prevent slippage.
C. More cross linking occurs in the polystyrene.
D. Polyethylene is less crystalline.
D. I and III
Answer: D
Which of the following is not an important criterion
for formatting a complete binary solid solution?

Answer: B A. The difference is radii should be less than 15

%.
Which of the following describe the modulus of
elasticity of an elastomer? B. The constituent elements must have the same
crystal structure.
I. It is directly proportional to the number of cross
links in the elestomer. C. The atoms should be close to one another in
the periodic table.
II. Its value increases with temperature.
D. The difference in atomic numbers should be
III. It is directly proportional to the number of small.
double bonds in the chemical structure.
Answer: D
A. I only

B. II only How can an ordered solid solution be distinguished

from a compound?
C. IIl only
A. In an ordered solid solution, the solute atoms
D. I and II occupy interstitial positions within the lattice
Answer: D B. The solute atoms in an ordered solid solution
substitute for atoms in the parent lattice.
Of the following inorganic glasses, which have C. The atoms in an ordered solid solution form
tetrahedral lattice structures? layers in the lattice structure.
SiO2,B2O3,BeF2,GeO2
D. When heated, an ordered solid solution
A. SiO2 and B2O3 becomes disordered before melting.
B. SiO2 and BeF2 Answer: D
C. SiO2, B2O3, and BeF2

D. SiO2, BeF2, and GeO2 What is transformed in a eutectoid reaction?

A. One solid is transformed into two solids of

Which of these statements describe the glass different composition.
transition temperature? B. A solid becomes a liquid at the eutectic
I. It is the temperature at which the rate of volume temperature.
contraction increases abruptly. C. A liquid becomes a solid at the solidus
II. It is the temperature at which residual stresses temperature.
in the glass can be relieved. D. A solid becomes a liquid at the liquidus
III. It is the point where the material behaves temperature.
more like a solid than viscous liquid. Answer: A
A. I only

B. I and II Which of the following is in correct representation of

a eutectic cooling reaction? (The subscripts denote
C. Il and IIl composition.)
 A. (liquid)→(solid)1+(solid)2
B. (solid)1→(solid)2+(solid)3
C. (solid)1+(liquid)→(solid)2
D. (solid )1+(solid)2 →(solid)3
Answer: A
Two pieces of copper are brazed together using a
eutectic alloy of copper and silver. The brazed
material melts at 780 °C. If a second braze is
attempted in order to attach another piece of copper,
which of the following is true?
A. The first braze will melt if the braze
temperature is again 780 °C.
B. The braze temperature must be lowered
below 780 °C.
C. The first braze will partially melt, causing the
parts to slide.
D. The first braze will not melt at 780 °C, but the
second braze will.
Answer: D
On an alloy phase diagram, what is the solidus
temperature?
A. The point at which all solids completely reach
the liquid stage.
B. The temperature of the liquid phase at which
the first solid forms for a given overall
composition.
C. The temperature of the solid phase at which
the first liquid forms for a given overall
composition.
D. The temperature at which the solid is at
equilibrium.
Answer: C
Which of the following is not a structural class of
steels?
A. carbon
B. high-strength, low-alloy
C. low-alloy
D. tool and die
Answer: D
Which of the following phases of steel has a face-
centered cubic structure?
A. ferrite
B. cementite
C. cemenlite
D. austenite
Answer: D
Low-carbon steels are generally used in the "as
rolled" or "fabricated" state. What is the reason for
this?
A. They come in many different shapes and
thicknesses.
B. Their strength generally cannot be increased
by heat treatment.
C. They degrade severely under heat treatment
D. Their chromium content is so low.
Answer: B
The equilibrium cooling of a steel containing 0.8%
carbon results in a product with little use because it
is extremely brittle. Which of the following is the
primary reason for this poor characteristics?
A. The material has not been cold-worked
B. The austenite grains are too small, and the
carbide grains are too large.
C. Thick layers of iron carbide surround the
coarse ferrite grains.
D. The carbide forms thin plates that are brittle.
Answer: D
Ductile cast iron and gray oast iron both contain 4%
carbon. Ductile cast iron, however, has a higher
tensile strength and is considerably more ductile.
Which of the following is the major difference that
accounts for the superior properties of the ductile
iron?
 A. The gray cast iron contains iron carbide,
whereas the ductile iron contains graphite.
B. The gray cast iron contains flakes of graphite,
whereas the ductile iron contains spheroids of
graphite .
C. The ductile iron is tempered to give better
properties.
D. The ferrite grains in the gray cast iron are
excessively large.
Answer: B
In preparing a metallographic iron specimen, the
grain boundaries are made most visible by which of
the following steps?
A. grinding the sample with silicon carbide
abrasive
B. polishing the sample with AI2O3
C. mounting the sample in an epoxy resin mold
D. etching the sample in a 2% solution of nitric
acid in alcohol
Answer: D
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Low-alloy steels are a minor group and are
rarely used
B. Low-alloy steels are used in the heat-treated
condition.
C. Low-alloy steels contain small amounts of
nickel and chromium.
D. In the AISI and the SAE steel specifications,
the last two digits define the carbon content of
the steel in weight.
Answer: A
A concrete highway curve with a radius of 500 ft is
banked to give lateral pressure equivalent to f=0.15.
For what coefficient of friction will skidding impend
for a speed of 60 mph?
A. <0.360
B. >0.360
C. >0.310
D. <0.310
Answer: D
Which of the following statements is false?
A. High-strength low-alloy steels are not as
strong as non-alloy low carbon steels.
B. Small amounts of copper increase the tensile
strength of steels.
C. Small amounts of silicon I steel have little
influence on toughness or fabricability.
D. Additions of small amounts of silicon to steel
can cause a marked decreased in yield strength
of the steel.
Answer: D
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Stainless steels contain large amounts of
chromium.
B. There are three basic types of stainless steels
martensitic. austenitic, and ferritic.
C. The non-magnetic stainless stegls contain
large amounts of nickel.
D. Stabilization of the face-centered cubic crystal
structure of staintess steels imparts a non-
magnetic characteristic to the alloy.
Answer: B
Which of the following would most likely require a
steel containing 0.6% carbon that has been
spheroldized, cold-drawn. and slightly tempered?
A. a bridge beam
B. a water pipe
C. a cutting tool
D. a ball bearing
Answer: C
A circuit draws 5000 kVA with a power factor of 0.72
. What size capacitor is require to increase the power
factor to 0.86 ? The 60Hz line voltage is 220V( rms
).
 A. 0.07 F B. plane load

B. 14 F C. high load

C. 0.04 F D. repeated load

D. 160 F Answer: D

Answer: A
A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is
removed, the strain disappears. From this
For a completely corrosion-resistant stainless steel, information, which of the following can be deduced
what minimum percentage of chromium in the alloy about this material?
is required?
A. It is elastic
A. 1.1%
B. It has a high modulus of elasticity
B. 3.2%
C. It is plastic
C. 8.3% D. It does not obey Hookie’s law
Answer: A
D. 11%

Answer: D Which of the following may be the Poisson ratio of

a Material?
A. 0.45 C. 0.55
Where do stress concentrations occur? B. 0.50 D. 0.60
Answer: A
I. near the points of application of concentrated loads
The shear strain, ∈, along a shaft is: ∈ =d∅dx r is
II. along the entire length of high distributed loads the shaft radius, and d∅dx is the change of the
angle of twist with respect to the axis of the shaft.
III. at discontinuities
Which condition is not necessary for the above
A. I and II equation to be valid?
A. The area of interest must be free of
B. I and III connections and other load applications
B. The material must be isotropic and
C. II and lll homogeneous
C. The loading must result in the stress being a
D. I, II, and III couple acting along the axis
D. r must be the full radius of the shaft
Answer: B
Answer: D

In a stress-strain diagram, what is the correct term In bending of a rectangular beam under axial
for the stress level £=0.2 offset? loading, where is the location of maximum shear
stress?
A. the elastic limit A. At the top edge
B. At the bottom edge
B. the plastic limit C. At the neutral axis
D. At a location between the top edge and the
C. the offset rupture stress neutral edge
D. the offset yield stress Answer: C

Answer: D How many degrees of freedom does a coin rolling

on the ground have?
A. One C. three
Under which type of loading does fatigue occur? B. Two D. four
Answer: C
A. static bond
 What is the definition of instantaneous velocity? II.The electron orbits the proton in certain orbits that
A. V=dxdt C. v= dxdt can be found by assuming that its angular
B. V=xdt D. v=tx momentum is quantized.
Answer: C III.Because of the quantization of angular momentum,
calculations using the Bohr model and those based
Which of the following statement is false? on classical physics can never give same results
A. The time rate of change of the angular IV.When an electron orbiting a proton changes states
momentum about a fixed point is equal to the to a lower energy level, the frequency of the
moment of the external forces acting on the same radiation given off is proportional to the change in
system about the point. energy. This accounts for the hydrogen spectrum.
B. The coefficient of restitution can be less A. I and II C. I, II, and IV
than zero. B. II and IV D. II, III, and IV
C. The frictional force always acts to resist Answer: B
motion.
D. Momentum is conserved during elastic Consider the binding energy of an electron in the K-
collisions. shell (Ek) and L-shell (EL) of the same metal.
Answer: B Which of the following statements is true?
A. Ek= EL4 C. Ek= EL
Which of the following is false? B. Ek= EL2 D. Ek= 4EL
A. Kinematics is the study of the effects of Answer: D
motion, while kinetics is the study of the causes of
motion. Which of the following statements concerning
B. The radius of gyration for a mass uniform quantum theory and the shell model of the atom are
thickness is identical to that for a planar are the false?
same shape.
C. Angular momentum for rigid body may be
regarded as the product of angular velocity and I.The energy of an atom is dependent upon all four
inertia. of the quantum number (n, I, m, ms) associated
D. The acceleration of a body rotating with a with it, except for hydrogen, which only depends on
constant angular velocity is zero. n.
Answer: D II.According to the Pauli exclusion principle, two
electrons in an atoms may have same number for
Which of the following statements is false? quantum number n, l, and m only.
A. Wavelength of visible light > wavelength of III.The three quantum numbers n, l, and m arise from
microwaves boundary conditions in the solution of Schodinger’s
B. Frequency of radio waves < frequency of equation.
infrared waves IV.There is a fourth quantum number associated with
C. Wavelength of x-rays > wavelength of the spin of the electron, ms which can only have
gamma rays values +1/2 and -1/2.
D. Frequency of ultra violet > frequency of V.If an atom in the ground state has its last electron in
infrared the M-shell (n=3), there must be at least ten
Answer: A electrons in that atom.
A. I only C. II and III
What type of materials usually has a higher index B. IV only D. II and V
of reflection? Answer: D
A. Lighter materials
B. Heavier materials In an atom such as sodium, there is one electron in
C. Denser Materials the outermost sell (in this case n=3). Which of the
D. Less dense materials following statements is true regarding the energy
Answer: C required to excite an electron in n=1 shell
compared to that required to excite an electron in
According to Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the n=2 shell?
which of the following statements are true? A. It is greater because the electron is closer
I.As the electron orbits the proton, it constantly than the proton, and thus the Columb attractive
radiates light with a frequency equal to its force is much stronger.
frequency of revolution
B. It is greater because the shell next to it is What is the total relativistic energy of a particle if its
full. Thus, by the Pauli exclusion principle, it must mass is equal to 1 slug when it is travelling with a
jump to the first shell which is not full, in this case, certain speed, v?
n=3 shell. A. 1 C. c2
C. It is greater because an electron must first B. c2-1 D. c2+1
jump to n=3 shells form the 2 shell. Then the Answer: C
electron form the n=1 shell can jumps to the n=2
shell A sequence denotes _______
D. It is equal to the energy required to excite A. Order C. combination
an electron in the n=2 shell because in both cases B. Permutation D. series
the electron makes a jump to the next shell. Answer: A
Answer. B
A series defined as the _______
A particle is in one-dimensional box of length 2L. A. Sum C. difference
What is the energy level of the ground state? B. Quotient D. product
A. h232mL2 C. h28mL2 Answer: A

If the series has an infinite number of terms, then it

B. h216mL2 D. h24mL2 is ________
Answer: A A. An infinite series C. a finite series
B. A series D. a function
Electrons are in a one-dimensional box of length Answer: A
2L. What is the relationship between EF, the Fermi
energy, and Ē, the average energy? If the sequence has n terms, then it is ____
A. E=EF4 C. E=EF2 A. A finite series C. a series
B. An infinite series D. a function
Answer: A
B. E=EF3 D. E= EF
Answer: B The terms of an arithmetic sequence have a
common ________
A state of energy E1 with a lifetime of 1 decays into A. Factor C. product
the state of energy E2. The state of E2 then decays B. Difference D. Quotient
with a lifetime of 2 into the state of E3. It is known Answer: B
that 1=22. Initially, all of the atoms (quantity N0) are
in the E1 state. Calculate the number of atoms N2 The sum of the terms of an arithmetic sequence is
which are in the state E2 at any constant in time t. called:
A. N0[e(-t1)- e(-2t1)] A. Arithmetic series
B. 2N0[e(-t1)- e(-2t1)] B. The last term of the sequence
C. N0[e(-t1)+ e(-2t1)] C. Geometric sequence
D. 2N0[e(-t1)+ e(-2t1)] D. The common difference
Answer: A Answer: A

Which of the following statements about nuclear A geometric sequence is characterized by a

fusion is false? constant ________
A. A typical fusion reaction releases less A. Ratio C. number of terms
energy than a typical fusion reaction. B. Difference D. sum
B. Because of the energy required to produce Answer: A
nuclear fusion, it cannot yet be used by man.
C. A typical fusion reaction releases more A sequence {tn} is function whose domain is the set
energy per unit mass than a typical fusion reaction. of ___________
D. Fusion has advantages over fission A. Real numbers
because of a greater availability of fuel and lack of B. Positive integers
some of the danger’s fission. C. Number of terms
Answer: B D. Infinite series
Answer: A
The sequence (1,2,3,4) in terms of the number of
elements is called The logarithm of 1 to any base is:
A. Infinite sequence
B. Finite series a.) indeterminate c.) infinity
C. An infinite set b.) zero d.) one
D. Infinite sequence Answer B
Answer: B
Form of business/company ownership:
The sequence (1,2,3,4) is an example of ______
A. An arithmetic sequence a.) partnership c.) single proprietor
B. Harmonic sequence b.) corporation d.) a, b & c
C. Geometric sequence Answer D
D. Fibonacci sequence
Answer: A Form of summary of assets and liabilities and net
worth:
In finding the sum of a geometric sequence, the
common ratio r, should not equal to___ a.) balance method c.) balance sheet
A. Zero C. The common difference b.) break even point d.) production
B. 1 D. The first term Answer C
Answer: B
In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the
The geometric mean of two numbers is equal to free end, the moment is:
________
A. Square root of the product of two numbers a.) constant along the beam
B. The difference of two numbers b.) ¼ maximum half way out on the beam
C. The product of two numbers c.) maximum at the wall
D. The quotient of the two numbers d.) maximum at the free end
Answer: A Answer C

The defining equation of an arithmetic sequence is The ideal reversible Carnot cycles involves four
________ basic processes. What type of processes are they?
A. A cubic function
B. Quadratic function a.) all isentropic
C. Not a linear function b.) all isothermal
D. Linear function c.) two adiabatic and two isentropic
Answer: D d.) two isothermal and two isentropic
Answer D
In the equation of an arithmetic sequence, tn=
t1+n+1d the y intercept is____ What is the expression for the heat of vaporization?
A. tn C. n hg = enthalphy of the saturated vapor
B. t1 D. d hf = enthalpy of the saturated liquid

The set A consists of elements (1, 3, 6), and the set a.) hf c.) h2g
B consists of elements (1, 2, 6, 7). Both sets come b.) hg d.) hg - hf
from the universe of (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8). What is Answer D
the intersection AB?
What is the origin of the energy conservation
a.) (2, 7) c.) (2, 3, 7) equation used in flow system?
b.) (2, 4, 5, 7, 8) d.) (4, 5, 8)
Answer A a.) First Law of Thermodynamics
b.) Second Law of Thermodynamics
The length of the time during which property may be c.) Newton’s Second Law of Motion
operated at a profit: d.) Newton’s First Law of Motion
a.) life c.) physical life Answer A
b.) length of time d.) economic life
Answer D
What is the name for a vector that represents the H = the inventory storage cost (P per item
sum of vectors? per unit time)

a.) scalar c.) resultant Answer C

b.) tensor d.) tangent
Answer C Ductile cast iron and gray cast iron both contains 4%
carbon. Ductile cast iron, however, has a higher
The worth of a property which is equal to the original tensile strength and is considerably more ductile.
cost less depreciation: Which of the following is the major difference that
accounts for the superior properties of the ductile
a.) earning value c.) book value iron?
b.) scrap value d.) face value
Answer C a.) The gray cast iron contains flakes of graphite,
whereas the ductile iron contains spheroids of
graphite.
b.) The gray cast iron contains iron carbide whereas
the ductile iron contains graphite.
A situation whereby payment is made for work not c.) The graphite particles of the gray cast iron are
done. The term also applies to the case where more excessively large.
workers are used than are a reasonable requirement d.) The ductile iron is tampered to give better
for efficient operation. properties.
a.) Check - in pay c.) Downtime pay Answer A
b.) Feather bedding d.) Moon lightning
Answer B When using net present worth calculations to
compare two projects, which of the following could
Locus on points on a side which rolls along a fixed invalidate the calculations?
line:
a.) mutually exclusive projects
a.) cardioid c.) cycloid b.) evaluation over different time periods
b.) epicylcoid d.) hypocycloid c.) nonconventional cash flows
Answer C d.) difference in the magnitude of the projects
Answer B
Grand total of the assets and operational capability
of a corporation: The loss of weight of a body submerged in a fluid is:

a.) authorized capital c.) earning value
b.) investment d.) money market
Answer A
The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is defined as
the order quantity which minimizes the inventory
cost per unit time. Which of the following is not an
assumption of the basic (EOQ) with no shortages?
a.) proportional to the weight
b.) proportional to the depth of submergence
c.) equal to the weight of the fluid displaced
d.) independent of the volume of the body
Answer C

a.) The demand rate is uniform and constant.

b.) There is a positive cost on each unit inventoried.
c.) There is an upper bound in the quantity ordered.
d.) The entire reorder quantity is delivered
instantaneously.
Hydraulic power is expressed in whp in English units
NOTE: There is no upper bound on the quantity , in SI it is expressed in:
ordered.
EOQ = 2aKh a.) kilowatt hour c.) water hp
Where: a = the constant depletion rate (items per b.) wkw d.) 1 hp
unit) Answer B
K = the fixed cost per order, P
In the design of grit chambers
The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously
a.) there should be a 5 to 1 ratio of length to depth withstand:
b.) baffles are essential
c.) the maximum velocity of flow is 1 ft/sec a.) yield point c.) ultimate strength
d.) temperature is an important factor b.) bearing strength d.) point of rupture
Answer C Answer B

The difference between the starting and the ending Cost of things that are neither labor or materials:
inventory valuations, a term that represents an
inventory account adjust is called: a.) labor cost c.) investment
b.) construction cost d.) expenses
a.) cost of good sold Answer D
b.) perpetual inventory system
c.) physical inventory system
d.) periodic inventory system
Answer A

How is the material purchase price variances

defined?

a.) (quantity issued – std. quantity) (std. price)

b.) (actual price – std. price ) (quantity used)
c.) (quantity purchased – quantity used) (actual
price)
d.) (quantity purchased x actual price) - (quantity Which of the following statements is false?
purchased x std. price)
Answer D a.) The addition of small amounts of molybdenum to
low -alloy steels makes it possible to harden and
Additional information to prospective bidder on strengthen thick pieces of the metal by the heat
contract documents issued prior to bidding date: treatment.
b.) Low-alloy steels are a minor group and are rarely
a.) delicts c.) technological assessments used.
b.) escalatory clause d.) bid bulletin c,) Low-alloy steels are used in the heat-treated
Answer D condition.
d.) Low-alloy steels contain small amount of nickel
and chromium.
Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a Answer B
percentage of sales is called:
10 to the 12th power is the value of the prefix:
a.) ROI ratio c.) gross margin
b.) profit margin d.) price earnings a.) micro c.) tera
Answer C b.) femto d.) atto
Answer C
Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is
not considered intelligent: How many significant digits do 10.097 have?

a.) dead person c.) demented person a.) 2 c.) 4

b.) senior citizens d.) minors b.) 3 d.) 5
Answer C Answer D

An index of short term paying ability is called: The arithmetic mean of a and b is __________.

a.) receivable turn-over c.) current ratio a.) ab c.) ab2

b.) profit margin rate d.) acid-test ratio b.) a + b2 d.) a - b2
Answer D Answer B
 In an Imhoff tank:
What expression is equivalent to log [x/(y + z)] A. the effluent contains very little dissolved
oxygen
a.) log (x) + log (y) + log (z) B. there are no setting compartments
b.) log (x) - log (y + z) C. the sludge and raw sewage are not mixed
c.) log (y) + log (x + z) D. the sludge and fresh sewage are well mixed
d.) log (x) - log (y) - log (z) to give complete digestion
Answer B ANSWER: C

What is the acid test ratio?

A. the ratio of owner’s equity to total current
Angles are measured from the positive horizontal liabilities
axis, and the positive direction is counterclockwise. B. the ratio of all assets to total liabilities
What are the values of sin B and cos B in the C. the ratio of gross margin to operating sales
4thquadrant? and administrative expenses
D. The ratio of current assets (exclusive of
a.) sin B > 0 and cos B < 0 inventory) to the total current liabilities
b.) sin B < 0 and cos B < 0 ANSWER: D
c.) sin B > 0 and cos B > 0
d.) sin b < 0 and cos B > 0 What is the formula for a straight-line
Answer D depreciation rate?
A. 100% -% net salvage value
What conic section is described by the following estimated service life
equation? 4x2-y2+8x+4y=15 B. % net salvage value
estimated service life
a.) parabola c.) hyperbola C. 100% net salvage value
b.) ellipse d.) circle estimated service life
Answer C D. average net salvage value
estimated service life
One Joule of work is done by a force of one Newton ANSWER: A
acting through a distance of:
Liquid assets such as cash and other assets
a.) one meter c.) a foot that can be converted quickly into cash,
b.) one inch d.) one cm such as accounts receivable, and
Answer A merchandise are called:
A. current assets
The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect to B. fixed assets
time is: C. total assets
D. land and buildings
a.) power c.) momentum ANSWER: A
b.) work d.) force
Answer A A term used to describe payment of an
employee for time spent on the property of
the employer through not actually working at
the job, e.g. time spent changing clothes to
get ready for work or time spent traveling
from plant entrance to the place of work.
In a centrifugal pump, if the impeller is kept the A. portal-to-portal pay
same and the speed varied, the pump output B. downtime pay
shall change in accordance to the equation: C. all-in pay
D. lost time pay
A. Q1/Q2 = N2/N1 ANSWER: A
B. Q1 = Q2
C. Q1 + N1 = Q2 + N2 Which of the following methods suited in
D. Q2/Q1 = N2/N1 evaluating/comparing alternatives with
ANSWER: D different (finite) lives?
A. rate of return method ANSWER: A
B. present worth method
C. urgency rating method A thermodynamic system which undergoes
D. uniform annual cost method a cyclic process during a positive amount of
ANSWER: D work is done by the system:
A. reversed Rankine cycle
Those funds that are required to make the B. heat pump
enterprise on project a going concern C. reversible-irreversible
A. working capital D. heat engine
B. accumulated amount ANSWER: D
C. banking
D. principal or present worth The transmission of heat from a hot body to
ANSWER: A a cold body by electromagnetic waves is
called
A diagram drawn to help visualize and A. conduction
simplify problem having diverse receipts B. absorption
and disbursements C. convection
A. budget D. radiation
B. investment ANSWER: D
C. year-end-convention
D. cash-flow With regard to corrosion of metals,
ANSWER: D passivation is the process that:
A. intensifies deterioration temporarily
The peso amount as earned from B. changes the composition of the metal
investment or project is called C. inhibits further deterioration
A. ROI D. alter the grain size of the metal
B. surplus ANSWER: C
C. interest
D. ROR (u + pv) is a quality called
ANSWER: A A. flow energy
B. shaft work
The length of time, usually in years, for the C. enthalpy
cumulative net annual profit to equal the D. internal energy
initial investment is called: ANSWER: C
A. receivable turnover
B. return on investment
C. price earning ratio An adiabatic process with no work done is:
D. payback period A. isometric
ANSWER: D B. throttling
C. isobaric
Modes of extinguishing obligations when D. polytrophic
auditor abandons his right collect: ANSWER: B
A. condonation
B. forfeiture If an initial volume of an ideal gas is
C. debt cancellation compressed to one-half its original volume
D. liquidated damages and to twice its original temperature, the
ANSWER: A pressure:
A. doubles
Instead of the profits being paid out to the B. quadruples
stockholders or owners as dividends, they C. remains constant
are retained in the business and used to D. halves
finance expansion. This is called: ANSWER: B
A. retained earnings
B. flow rate The increase in enthalpy of a substance
C. bonds when it undergoes some phase change at
D. deposits constant pressure and temperature:
A. heat of fusion B. Class B Fire – fire caused by oil and other
B. heat of vaporization hydrocarbons
C. heat of transformation C. Class C Fire – electrical fire
D. heat of crystallization D. Class A Fire – fire caused by light
ANSWER: B combustible materials like paper and wood
ANSWER: A
If the anti-freeze at a certain temperature
has a concentration of a known value, what All heavy machinery should be supported
will be its behavior as it progressively cools? on solid foundations of sufficient mass and
A. It remains a liquid until the temperature base area to prevent or minimize
drops to a certain point transmission of
B. Cooling the solution below the limit liquefies A. objectionable vibration to the building and
the entire mixture occupied space
C. It freezes out most of water into ice B. objectionable vibration of forces from
D. Its stoppage in cooling will result in water nearby machine
and ice mixture C. better control of the drainage system
ANSWER: A D. objectionable sound coming from the
exhaust
ANSWER: A
Dew point is which of the following?
A. adiabatic saturation temperature On existing installation boiler, the lowest
B. temperature of grains of moisture per lb of factor of safety permissible shall be
bone dry air A. 7
C. temperature of 50% RH B. 6
D. wet bulb temperature C. 5
ANSWER: A D. 4.5
ANSWER: D
Air used for comfort cooling shall maintain a
movement of from: The age limit of a horizontal return tubular
A. 4570 to 7620 mm/min flue or cylinder boiler having a longitudinal
B. 7800 to 9200 mm/min lap joint and operating at a pressure in
C. 8500 to 10,000 mm/min excess of 0.345 MPa or 3.45 bar gage shall
D. 8.00 to 10.0 mm/min be:
ANSWER: A A. 18 years
B. 35 years
A type of boiler which incorporates furnace C. 30 years
water cooling in the circulatory system is D. 20 years
otherwise known as: ANSWER: C
A. integral-grate boiler
B. none of the above Which of the process where work done is
C. integral-furnace boiler zero?
D. integral-cogeneration boiler A. isentropic
ANSWER: C B. polytropic
C. isometric
Once of the best known safety practices in D. isobaric
industrial plant is: ANSWER: C
A. To provide alert security guards
B. To provide machines with appropriate A specimen is subjected to a load. When
guards the load is removed, the strain disappears.
C. To maintain a fire brigade From this information, which of the following
D. To train delivery personnel can be deduced about this material?
ANSWER: B A. It is elastic
B. It is plastic
Which of the four does not belong to the C. It has a high modulus of elasticity
group? D. It is ductile
A. Class D Fire – fire caused by LPG ANSWER: A
 The difference between the sum of the
The parabola y= -x2 + x + 1 opens: absolute dynamic head at the outlet of the
A. to the right pump and the sum of the absolute dynamic
B. to the left head at the inlet, corrected to the centerline
C. downward of the pump is:
D. upward A. total dynamic suction lift
ANSWER: C B. net positive suction head
C. total dynamic head
The equation Ax2 + Bx + Cy2 + Dy + E = 0 is: D. developed head
A. circle ANSWER: C
B. hyperbola
C. parabola
D. ellipse The measure of the fluid’s resistance when he
ANSWER: D acted upon by an external force is called:

One radian is equivalent to:

A. 52 degrees A. Tackiness C. flash point
B. 45 degrees B. Density D. viscosity
C. 90 degrees
D. 57.3 degrees Answer: D
ANSWER: D
A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drop.
In a quadratic equation, if the quantity under Which of the following is the main cause of this
the radical is equal to “0” the roots are: phenomenon?
A. imaginary
B. real and unequal
C. complex and unequal
D. real and equal A. Surface tension C. air resistance
ANSWER: D B. Viscosity of the fluid D. gravity
Answer: A
2
Log to the base 10 of 3 =
A. Log to the base 19 of 8 A concrete mixture of 1:3:5 means a mixture of:
B. Log to the base 10 of 9
C. Log to the base 10 of 6
D. 2 Log to the base 10 of 3
ANSWER: D A. 6 measures of gravel; 1 measure of the
sand and 3 of cement
Which of the statements below is not
correct?
A. d(en) = en du B. 1 measure of Portland cement; 3 measure
B. d(u/v) = (vdu –udv) /v2 of gravel; 5 of sand
C. d(cos u) = -sin u du
D. d)sin u) = -cos u du
ANSWER: D C. 1 measure of cement; 3 measure of sand; 5
measure of gravel
The equation of a straight line is y = mx + b,
where m is the slope and b is the intercept.
If two straight line are perpendicular, their D. 1 measure of cement; 3.5 measure of the
slopes are: sand and 5 of the gravel
A. negative
Answer: C
B. negative reciprocals
C. positive
D. equal The heat transfer posses in a cooling tower
ANSWER: B consists of a transfer of heat from water to:
A. None of the above C. unsaturated air A. Gas dynamic C. psychometrics
B. Ice D. vapor B. Thermodynamics D. atmospherics
Answer: C Answer: C

A process has a pressure range of 0.001-1

atmosphere. A pressure measuring instrument to One of the two types of the nonmaterial nuclear
register the pressure at all times, the instrument radiation is:
needed for the job is :
A. Mercury manometer C. water manometer
B. Metallic diaphragm D. Bourdon A. Rutherford radiation C. transmutation
pressure radiation
Gauge B. Betatron radiation D. atmospherics
Answer: A Answer: D

The amount of heat needed to raise the A ton of the refrigeration is the amount of cooling
temperature one lb. of that substance one degree produces by one ton of ice (2000 lbs) melting over
Fahrenheit. a period of 24 hrs. It is equivalent to
A. BTU C. latent heat
B. Specific heat D. relative heat
A. 4.76 kW C. 3.516 kW
Answer: A B. 0.746 kW D. 1.341 kW
Answer: C
The system refrigeration which uses heat energy to
change the condition required in the refrigeration
cycle: The stroke whereby burned gases are discharged
through the upward movement of the piston in a
valve of an ICE which is open.
A. Absorption refrigeration C. steam-
jet
refrigeration A. Intake stroke C. power stroke
B. ICE refrigeration D. vapor B. Exhaust stroke D. compression stroke
Compression
Answer: B
Answer: A
In the flow process, neglecting KE and PE
The temperature of the air that has gone through changes, -V dp represent which item below?
an adiabatic saturation process:

A. Enthalpy change C. shaft work

A. Kelvin temperature C. dew point B. Flow energy D. heat transfer
temperature
B. Boiling temperature D. wet bulb Answer: C
Temperature
Answer: D Worth of property as shown on the accounting
records of an enterprise:

The study of the properties and behavior of the

atmospheric air is known as:
A. Use value C. market value
B. Fair Value D. book value Decrease in the value of a physical property with
the passage of time:
Answer; D

Form of business/company ownership: A. Valuation C. depletion

B. Depreciation D. interest
Answer: B
A. Corporation C. partnership
B. a, b, & c D. single proprietor
When vane control is used for mechanical drafts
Answer: B fans and where a wide load range is required, it is
advisable to use a
Profit margin ratio is the percentage of each peso
of sales that is net income and the profit margin is
equal to: A. Two-spread-drive motor
B. Single-speed-drive motor
C. C. Four- speed-drive motor
A. ROR D. Triple-speed-drive- motor
B. Price earnings Answer: A
C. Net income before taxes/net sales
D. Net income owner’s quity
Association of two o more individuals for the
Answer: C purpose of operating a business as co-owners of
profit
Financial statement which compare the revenues of
the period with the expenses incurred to gain those
revenues: A. Organization C. partnership
B. Company D. corporation
Answer: C
A. Liquidated damages
B. Book value
C. Statements of assets and liabilities What is the work-in-process classified as?
D. Profit and Ios
Answer: D
A. An asset C. a liability
B. A revenue D. an expertise
Cost of things that are neither labor or material:
Answer: A

A. Investment C. expenses If a cost is a function of the independent variable,

B. Construction cost D. labor cost the cos is said to be a:
Answer: C

A. Incremental cost C. direct cost

A series of equal payments occurring at equal B. Fixed cost D. variable cost
periods of time:
Answer: D

A. Installment C. amortization
B. Perpetuity D. annuity
Which of the following five situations are examples
Answer: D of making mutually exclusive decisions?
 I.The maintenance department has requested a new
air compressor an either a larger paint booth or an The highest space in the organizational chart of a
addition air compressor. corporation is always occupied by:
II.The machine shop needs new inspection and
locating equipment.
III.The steno pool needs either a new, faster word
processor or an additional office assistant. A. Board of Directors C. Chairman
IV.The budget committee must decide among building B. President D, Stock Holders
an employee’s convenience store, an on-site Answer: A
cafeteria, an enclosed pool, or an in-house exercise
room.
V.The newly elected union representative must resign In a business environment, balancing the books
due to a conflict of interest. means reconciling checkbook and the bank
statements and posting all accounting entries in
such a way as to maintain the equality of the basic
A. I, II and IV C. I, III, and IV accounting equation
B. II, III, and IV D, I, II, and V
Answer: A
A. Plant, property and equipment and the other
assets
Type of ownership in the business where the B. Assets=current liabilities + owner’s equity
individua exercise and enjoy rights in their own C. Owner’s and stockholders equity and
interest: liability
D. Assets=liabilities + owner’s equity
Answer: D
A. Equitable C. private
B. Public D. pure
To be the binding and enforceable, written contract
Answer: C documents must satisfy the basic requirements,
thus, there must be clear, specific and definite offer
All proposed installation, addition or alterations with no room, for misunderstanding; there must be
involving machinery, mechanical equipment or some form of conditional future consideration, (i.e.
processes shall be covered by plans and payments), and
specifications prepared by or under the supervision
of a:
A. Mechanical Plant Engineer (MPE) A. There must be a third party
B. Professional Mechanical Engineer (PME) B. There must be an acceptance of the offer
C. Registered Mechanical Engineer (RME) C. There must be a bond
D. Certified Plant Mechanic (CPM) D. There must be an arbitrator

Answer: B Answer: B

Which of the following is the basis of Bernoulli’s law

of fluid flow?
Penal provision of a contract to compensate for the
losses incurred by one party due to the failure to
comply with the contract provisions: A. The principle of conservation of energy
B. The principle of conservation of mass
C. The continuity equation
A. Dacion-en-pago C. liquidated D. Forier’s Law
damages Answer: A
B. Force majecure D. quasi-delicts
Answer: C
The source of power which acts as the prime mover
for the generator, with horsepower ranging from
100 to 5000. A. Straight angle C. reflex angle
B. Obtuse angle D. related angle
Answer: C
A. Steam engine C. gasoline engine
B. Motor D, diesel engine
What type of curve is generated by a point which
Answer: D moves in uniform circular motion about an axis,
while travelling at a constant speed, v, parallel to
the axis
The property of a circuit or circuit element to
impede current flow A. spiral of Archimedes
B. helix
C. cycloid
D. hypocycloid
A. Inductance C. Capacitance
B. Conductivity D. Resistance Answer: B
Answer: D The balance sheet is a statement showing financial
status of the company at any given time. Which of
the statements is not a part of the balance sheet?
The logarithm of negative number is:
A. liabilities
B. cost of goods and sold
C. asset
A. Irrational number C. real number D. net worth
B. Imaginary number D. complex
number Answer: B
Answer: D Cash money credit necessary to establish and
operate an enterprise:
The general second degree equation has the form A. funds
Ax^2 + Bxy + Cy^2 + Dx + Ey +F = 0 and describes B. assets
an ellipse if: C. capital
D. liabilities
Answer: B
A. B^2 – 4AC = 0 C. B^2 -4AC > 0
B. B^2 – 4AC = 1 D. B^2-4AC < 0 The worth of property which is equal to the original
cost less depression:
Answer: D
A. scrap value
B. book value
In the general triangles the expression (sin C. earning value
A)/a=(sin B)/b=(sin C)/c is called: D. face value
Answer: B

A. The law of sines C. Law of Cosine Intangible assets of a corporation or company.

B. Euler’s formula D. Pythagorean A. investment
Theorem B. dacion-en-pago
Answer: A C. equity
D. patents

An angle more than πradian but less than 2π Answer: D

radians is: Refers to cost of merchandise which excludes
freight and insurance.
A. freight on board A. volocity2
B. debentures B. velocity
C. sunk cost C. 12velocity
D. book value D. Time
Answer: D Answers: D
This form of business ownership legal entity The impulse and momentum principle is mostly
possessing many of the legal powers of individuals. useful for solving problem involving:
It can hold title to property, sue and be sued in its
own name. It is called: A. velocity, acceleration, and time
B. force, acceleration, and time
A. corporation C. force, velocity, and time
B. general partnership D. force, velocity, and acceleration
C. company
D. Individual proprietorship Answer: C

Answers: A The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously

withstand:
Additional information to prospective bidders on
contract documents issued prior to bidding date: A. yield point
B. point of rapture
A. technological assessment C. beating strength
B. delicts D. ultimate strength
C. bid bulletin.
D. escalatory clause Answer: C

Answers: C The hardness of steel may by increased by heating

to approximately 1500°F and quenching in oil or
A fund into which annual deposits of A are made in water if:
order to accumulate fund F at N years in the future:
A. the carbon content is above 3.0%
A. amortization B. the carbon content is 0.2% to 2.0%
B. depreciation C. the carbon is below is 0.2%
C. annuity D. the steel has been hot rolled instead of cast
D. sinking fund
Answer: B
Answer: D
A process of wielding materials in a molten or in
A civil wrong committee by one person causing vaporous state without application of mechanical
damage to another person or his property or pressure or below. Such welding may be
reputation. accomplished by the oxy-acetylene or by hydrogen
flame of by electro arc. It is called:
A. tort
B. material breach A. cold welding
C. negligence B. MIG welding
D. fraud C. TIG welding
D. fusion welding
Answer: A
Answer: D
Formation of bubbles in a low-pressure area in a Used as a guide to selecting most efficient
centrifugal pump and later their sudden collapse is centrifugal pump:
called:
A. Specific speed
A. corrosion B. Bernoulli’s equation
B. cavitation C. Impeller typer
C. compression D. Overall efficiency
D. explosion
Answer: A
Answer: B
Which of the following is not true regarding to the
Momentum = Force x Blasius boundary layer solution?
A. It permits one to calculate the skin friction in A. radiator cooler
a flat plate. B. shell and tube cooler
B. It is an approximate solution C. plate cooler
C. It is valid for laminar flow D. disk cooler
D. It is valid only for potential flow
Answer: A
Answer: D
An instrument for measuring high temperature
A chemical method of feedwater treatment wherein gases:
water is passed through a bed of sodium zeolite
Nasub2Z which reacts with calcium and magnesium A. monometer
salts: B. pyrometer
C. plenometer
A. thermal treatment D. anemometer
B. lime soda treatment
C. ion exchange treatment Answer: B
D. demineralization process In energy transformation process in which resultant
Answer: C condition lacks the driving potential need to reverse
the process. The measure of this loss is expressed
The hardness of water is given in ppm (parts per as:
million. i.e., pounds per million pounds of water).
This harness is: A. entropy decrease of the system
B. specific heat ratio of the system
C. entropy increase of the system
D. enthalpy increase of the system
A. the total number of pounds of calcium and
magnesium bicarbonate in the water. Answer: D
B. the total number of pounds of sodium The system is said to be in Thermodynamic
carbonate in the water per million pounds of water. equilibrium:
C. the total number of pounds of salt (sodium
chloride) in the water per million pounds of water. A. where there is no tendency towards
D. the total number of pounds of dissolved spontaneous change
solids in the water per million pounds of water. B. when all its parts are at the same
temperature
Answer: A C. If it has no tendency to undergo further
Heat transmission carried by the movement of chemical reaction
heated fluids away from a hot body, as in the healing D. when the system is not accelerating
of water by a hot surface. Answer: A
A. radiation The equilibrium temperature that a regular
B. absorption thermometer measures if exposed to atmospheric
C. convection air is:
D. conduction
A. wet bulb temp
Answer: C B. dry bulb temp
For comfort cooling. At an air movement of 4.57 C. scavenging
m/min to 7.62 m/min with the loving zone and 55 to D. turbo-changing
60% relative humidity. The effective temperature to Answer: B
be maintained shall be:
The power output of the engine is increased through:
A. 18°- 20.5°C
B. 24°- 26°C A. all
C. 22°- 25°C B. super-changing
D. 20°- 23.3°C C. scavenging
D. turbo-changing
Answer: D
Answer: B
The type of cooler extensively used for medium and
large size of diesel engines:
A closed vessel intended for use in heating water or A. tin
for application of heat to generate or other vapor to B. magnesium
be use externally to itself is called: C. zinc
D. aluminum
A. Unfired pressure vessel
B. Steam generator Answer: C
C. Boiler or Steam vessel
D. Boiler The sun of the sides of a polygon:

Answer: C A. perimeter
B. hexagon
The sum of the three types of energy at any point in C. square
the system is called: D. circumference
A. pressure head Answer: A
B. Bernoulli's theorem
C. enthalpy A plane closed curve, all points of which are the
D. 25-28°C same distance from a point within, called the center:

Answer: B A. arc
B. radius
The temperature of the air with humidity of 55-50% C. circle
to be used for comfort cooling shall maintained at: D. chord
A. 24-27°C Answer: C
B. 16-19°C
C. 20-23°C One-forth of a great circle:
D. 25-28°C A. cone
Answer: C B. circle
C. quadrant
Entropy is the measure of: D. sphere
A. the change in enthalpy of a system Answer: C
B. randomness or disorder
C. the heat capacity of a substance Points that lie on the same plane:
D. the internal energy of gas A. coplanar
Answer: B B. parallel
C. oblique
On the hoist or load block or some visible space of D. collinear
every hoist designed to lift its load vertically shall be
legibly marked: Answer: A

A. it's brand and model The study of properties of figure in three

B. it's motor horsepower of kW dimensions:
C. it's electrical voltage A. physics
D. it's rated load capacity B. plane geometry
Answer: D C. solid geometry
D. Trigonometry
The percent of total solids in the most domestic
approximately: Answer: C
The volume of a cylinder is equal to the product of
A. 1.0 its base and attitude.
B. 0.1 A. Axiom
C. 0.01 B. postulate
D. 10 C. theorem
D. corollary
Answer: B Answer: C
Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron coated What is an annuity?
with
A. A series of equal payments at equal time Mechanically and electrically operated brakes shall
periods be inspected:
B. The cost of manufacturing a product A. every time there is complaint
C. An investment that yields an equal amount B. periodically
of interest each year C. every month
D. The overhead cost per unit of production D. as often as necessary
Answer: A Answer: B
An index of short-term paying ability is called: For a fixed curing time, the ultimate strength of
A. receivable turn-over concrete
B. profit margin ratio A. is independent of water content if tuned for
C. current ratio a sufficiently long time
D. acid-ratio test B. increases with a decrease in water content
Answer: D C. decreases with a decrease in water content
Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and direct D. in independent of curing pressure
materials costs are the costs of all materials that go Answer: B
into production. The sum of these two direct costs Reynolds number maybe calculated from:
are known as: A. diameter, density and absolute viscosity
A. GS & A expenses B. diameter, velocity and absolute viscosity
B. Operation and Maintenance costs C. characteristics length, mass flow rate per
C. Prime cost unit area, and absolute viscosity
D. O & M costs D. diameter, velocity and surface tension
Answer: C Answer: C
An artificial expense that spreads the purchase When the thin-bore, hollow glass tube is inserted
price of an asset or other property over a number of into a container of mercury, the surface of the
years: mercury in the tube
A. depreciation A. is below the container surface due to
B. sinking fund adhesion
C. amnesty B. is below the container surface due to
D. bond cohesion
Answer: A C. is level with the surface of the mercury in
Estimated value at the end of the useful life: the container
A. salvage value D. is above the container surface due to
B. compounded annually cohesion
C. economic life Answer: B
D. balance sheet Absolute viscosity is essential independent of
Answer: A pressure and primarily dependent on
Consists of the actual counting or determination of A. temperature
the actual quantity of the materials on hands as of a B. density
given date: C. specific gravity
A. physical inventory D. velocity
B. material update Answer: A
C. technological assessment The sum of the pressure head, and the velocity
D. material count head remains constant, this is known as:
Answer: A A. Boyle’s Law
The total income equals the total operating cost: B. Archimedes Principle
A. balance sheet C. Torrecelli’s Theorem
B. in-place value D. Bernoulli’s Theorem
C. check and balance Answer: D
D. break-even-no-gain-no-loss A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops.
Answer: D Which of the following is the main cause of this
Kind of obligation which has no condition attached: phenomenon?
A. analytic A. surface tension
B. pure B. hydrometer
C. gratuitous C. gravity
D. private D. viscosity of fluid
Answer: C Answer: A
An instrument for measuring specific gravity of A. PH 8 to pH 9
fluids. B. pH 9 to pH 10
A. hygrometer C. pH 8 to pH 10
B. hydrometer D. PH 10 to pH 11
C. flowmeter Answer: D
D. psycrometer What is the value of the work done for a closed,
Answer: B reversible, isometric system?
A type of compressor which is often used for A. positive or negative
supercharging diesel engines. B. negative
A. centrifugal compressor C. positive
B. axial compressor D. zero
C. roots blower Answer: D
D. rotative compressor Turboject engine thrust is produced by:
Answer: A A. The thrust reaction of the turbine blading.
The ratio of the weight of the water vapor mixed B. The additional weight of the injected fuel.
with a-kg of dry air to the weight of saturated vapor C. The "ram: effect of the intake air.
at the same temperature mixed with a kg of dry air: D. The acceleration of the gases through the
A. relative humidity engine.
B. saturation ratio Answer: D
C. humidity ratio The second law of thermodynamics states that:
D. specific gravity A. Energy cannot be neither created nor
Answer: B destroyed.
What is the latent heat of fusion required to turn ice B. Heat energy cannot be completely
to liquid? transformed into work.
A. 2256 kJ/kg C. There is no tendency towards spontaneous
B. 970 Btu/lbm change.
C. 334 kJ/kg D. Mass is indestructible.
D. 166 Btu.bm Answer: B
Answer: C How much must the valve raised from its seat to
The ratio between average demand and the obtain a full opening to the size of the valve?
maximum demand. A. ½ of diameter
A. load factor B. ¼ of diameter
B. demand factor C. ¾ of diameter
C. power factor D. ⅜ of diameter
D. capacity factor Answer: B
Answer: A Which of the statements is not true? In a simple
If an initial volume of saturated steam is expanded parallel circuit with only one active source and three
isothermally to twice the initial volume, the pressure resistive loads. Rsub2 and Rsub3.
A. halves A. The reciprocal of the equivalent resistance
B. remains the same is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual
C. increases resistance.
D. decreases B. The total current is the sum of the leg
Answer: D currents.
Each miniature boiler shall be provided with a blow- C. The equivalent resistance is the sum of the
off connection, not less than 12.7 mm iron size, in reciprocals of the individual resistances.
direct connection with the: D. The voltage drop is the same across all
A. side of the lowest water space legs.
B. none Answer: C
C. lowest water space A polygon having 5 sides:
D. 5 mm above the lowest water space A. square
Answer: C B. hexagon
Where ground water or surface water are used for C. triangle
feedwater, water hardness of 0-10 ppm shall be D. pentagon
considered and alkalinity of: Answer: D
b to the m/n th power equals
A. nth root of b to the m power
B. 1/n square root of b to the m power A. combined
C. b to the m + n power B. indicated
D. b to the m power over n C. brake
Answer: A D. friction
All circles having the same center but with one Answer: D
equal radii are called: The study of the properties and behavior of
A. tangent circles atmospheric air is known as
B. unequal circles A. gas dynamics
C. eccentric circles B. psychrometrics
D. concentric circles C. thermodynamics
Answer: D D. atmospheric
A plane with closed broken line is a:
A. sector The Energy that changes the phase of a substance
B. arc
C. polygon
D. circle A. Specific
Answer: C B. Fusion
Provisions in a contract for construction to allow C. Latent
cost adjustments due to changes in cost of D. Sensible
materials and statutory minimum wage: Answer: C
A. escalatory clause
B. specifications The velocity of an object divided by the velocity of
C. general conditions sound called
D. quasi-delicts
Answer: A A. Micreslson’s number
Money paid for the use of borrowed capital. B. Planck’s number
C. Velocity factor
D. Mach number
A. depletion cost Answer: D
B. discount
C. interest Acid will react with fly-ash in cooler areasof the
D. overhead cost boiler to form hygroscopic salts. Which of the
Answer: C following belongs to the group hygroscopic salts?
Minimum grade of Mechanical Engineer required to
supervise operation of a 500 kW diesel engine A. hydrogen disulfide
A. RME B. Sodium bisulfate
B. PME C. Ammonuim trisulfate
C. CPM D. All of these
D. MPE Answer: B
Answer: A
What is the work process classified as: The purpose of the multi stage compression is to
A. a revenue
B. a liability A. Prevent its ignition should be temperature
C. an expense becomes to high
D. an asset B. Reduce compressor work and thus save
Answer: D power
Damages that are specified in the contract to insure C. Prevent vaporization of the lube oil
that if the contract becomes disputed the amount of D. All of these
damages are agreed upon in advance. Answer: B
A. liquidated damages
B. nominal damages What is the temperature at which water
C. general damages. freeze using the kelvin scale?
D. special damages
Answer: A
Represents the loss due to mechanical function of A. 373
the moving parts of the engine expressed in hp as: B. 273
C. 237 A. Voltage
D. 406 B. Current measured in amperes
Answer: B C. Resistance measured in ohms
D. Power in watts
Followng the ASA code for the pressure pipping, Answer: A
which pipe is used in power plants for small control
control lines, condenser tubes and for tubular water A zener diode can be used in a circuit to provide a
heaters? stable reference for

A.Current
A. Copper alloy B.voltage
B. Cast iron C.impedance
C. Carbon street D.resistance
D. Wrought iron
Answer: C

The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly

composed of: Basic unit of length of the SI system

A. Carbon monoxide
B. Nitrogen A. Meter
C. Methane B. Decimeter
D. Hydrogen sulfide C. Milimeter
Answer: C D. Centimeter
Answer: A
Vickers, knoop and brinell are all:
In mounting a machine, it should be leveled by
driving wedges between the machine base and
A. Hardness test concrete foundation and with aid of:
B. Magnetic const
C. Nobel winners in metallurgy
D. Thermo const A. A hose and water
Answer: A B. A tri-square
C. A steel rule
Dichlorodiflouromethane is D. A spirit level
Answer: D

A. Freon 22 Any influence capable of producing a cvhange in

B. Freon 21 the motion of an objecr is called:
C. Butane
D. Freon 12 A. Force
Answer: D B. Acceleration
C. Vector
Si systems for power D. Velocity
Answer: A

A. Joule In an AC circuit, the opposition to current flow due

B. Pascal to combination of resistance and reactance is
C. Newton called:
D. Watt
Answer: D
A. Capacitance
In electrical circuits, the potential difference across B. Impedance
terminal of circuit elements is called: C. Resistance
D. Inductive reactance
Answer: B
Part of diesel plant that supplies sufficient diesel
The unit prefix nano is opposite to: fuel during operation:

A. Mega A. Fuel storage tank

B. Giga B. Lub oil tank
C. Tera C. Surge tank
D. Exa D. Compressed air tank
Answer: B Answer: A

A statement the truth of which follow with little or no The machine should be placed on new foundation
proof from a theorem: until ____ Days have elapsed depending upon the
A. Axiom volume of the foundation
B. Hypothesis
C. Conclusion
D. Corollary A. 4 to 7
Answer: D B. 7 to 10
C. 5 to 6
D. 3 to 6
Answer: B
It is the series of equal payments occuring at equal
intervals of time:
32.2 Ft/s^2 in SI is equivalent to:
A. Annuity
B. Debt A. 9.81 m/s^2
C. Amortization B. 9.18 m/s^2
D. Deposit C. 9.88 m/s^2
Answer: A D. 9.82 m/s^2
Answer: A
The quantity of the certain commodity that ois
offered for sale at a certain price 1 calorie is equivalent to:
At a given place and time.

A. Demand A. 4.187 J
B. Supply B. 252 Btu
C. Stocks C. 4.187 kJ
D. Goods D. 778 ft-lb
Answer: B
The rate of heat conduction in a certain direction is
The place where buyers and sellers come together: proportional to the temperature gradient in that
direction. This law is known as:
A. Market
B. Business
C. Recreation center A. Zeroth’s Law
D. Buy and sell section B. Kirchoff’s Law
Answer: A C. Fourier’ Law
D. Joules - Thompson Law
1 torr is equivalent to pressure of Answer : C

What is the standard temperature in the US?

A. 1 atmosphere
B. 2mm Hg
C. 14.7 psia A. Fahrenheit
D. 1/760 atmosphere B. Rankine
Answer: D C. Celcuis
D. Kelvin
Answer: A
A. Firm a has a higher cost of goods sold and
What is anuuity? therefore, smaller profit
B. Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold,
higher inventory value, and a higher retained
A. A series of equal payments at equal time earnings
periods C. Firm a has a smaller cost of goods sold and
B. The cost of manufacturing the product a larger profit
C. The overhead cost per unit of production D. There are no difference
D. An investment that yields an equal amount Answer: B
of interest each year
Answer : A What property in real number is A+(B+C)=(A+B)+C

An Adiabatic process
A. Associative
B. Distributive
A. Allows heat process into the system but not C. Commulative
out of the system D. Derivative
B. Allows heat transfer out of the system but Answer: A
not into the system
C. May be reversible A place close curve, all points of which are the
D. Is one in which enthalpy remains same distance from a point within called the center
unchanged is:
Answer: C

A. Hyperbola
B. Circle
C. Ellipse
Which of the statement is true? D. Parabola
Answer: B

A. Entropy always decreases What conic section is represented by x^2 -4y^2 +

B. Entropy increases up to the critical 8x + 4y = 15
temperature, then it decreases
C. Theoretically, entropy may be zero at a less
enough temperature A. Circle
D. Entropy does not change in a throttling B. Ellipse
process. C. Hyperbola
Answer: C D. Parabola
Answer: C
One of the main differences between cast iron and Tera is opposite to
steel is that:

A. Nano
A. Steel has higher silicon content B. Pico
B. Steel has lower carbon content C. Giga
C. Steel always contains alloying metals such D. Deca
as nickel, chrumium, manganese and vanadium Answer: B
D. Steel cannot be annealed whereas cast iron
can The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect to
Answer: B time is:

Firm A use full absorption costing while firm b was

variable product costing. How will the finance A. Momentum
statements of these companies differ. B. Power
C. Energy Answer: C
D. Work
Answer: B Maximum plant capacity in which a licensed ME is
allowed to operate, tend or maintain:
Maintenance shop and machine room shall be at a. 300 kw c. 2000 kw
least_____ mm in height b. 1000 kw d. 6000
From the floor to the ceiling kw
Answer: C
A. 3000
For a mechanical plant with capacity of 100 kw or
B. 2500
over but not more than 300 kw, the personnel
C. 2000
required must be at least one
D. 1500
Answer:A a. CPM c. CPM,
ME OR PME
b. ME d. PME
What is acid test radio?
Answer: A
A legally binding agreement between two persons
A. The ration of the owner’s equity to total
having an agreement:
current liabilities
B. The ratio of all assets to total liabilities a. Sign-
C. The ration of current assets, exclusive of up c. contract
inventory, to total current ablities b. Agreement d. deal
D. The ratio of profit after taxes of equity
Answer: C Answer: C
A tax on import is called:
Grand total of the assets and operational capability
of a corporation a. Export tax c. export
tariff
b. Import tax d. import
A. Autorized capiital tariff
B. Assets
C. Capital Answer: D
D. Total capital Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
Answer: A
a. Deal c.
gratuitous
b. Agreement d. favor
Which of the following methods is most suited in
Answer: C
evaluating/comparing alternative with difference
finite lives? Time rate of doing work
a. ROR a. power c. energy
b. Distributive annual cost method b. heat d.
c. ROI momentum
d. Uniform annual cost method
Answer: A
Answer: D
Which is true about water as a reference
The new Mechanical Engineering Law which was temperature when/if enthalpy is zero
signed last February 12, 1998 is known as:
a. vapor pressure is zero
a. RA 8945 c. RA b. internal energy is negative
8495 c. entropy is non-zero
b. RA 8954 d. RA d. Specific volume is zero
8549
Answer: B
Which of the following is the correct formula for a. kinetics c.
kinematics
specific speed of pump? b. acceleration d.
motion
a.
Answer: A
What is the gauge used to measure 0.001 to 1atm
pressure?
a. barometer c.
b. psychometer
b. mercury manometer d.
hydrometer
Answer: B
c.
What is the latent heat of fusion required to turn ice
to liquid?
a. 2545 kJ/kg c. 433
d. kJ/kg
b. 334 kJ/kg d. 343
Answer: A kJ/kg
The standard acceleration due to gravity in English Answer: B
unit
Which of the statements is not true? In a simple
a. 35.2 ft/sec2 c. 45.2 ft/sec2 parallel circuit with only one active source and three
b. 32.2 ft/sec2 d. 23.2 ft/sec2 resistive loads, R1, R2, and R3.
Answer: B a. The equivalent resistance is equal to the
reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of the
Nickel – molybdenum alloys are: individual resistances
a. hastelloys c. invars b. The equivalent resistance is not equal to the
b. hastalloys d. martensites sum of the individual resistances
c. The equivalent resistance is not equal to the
Answer: A sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances
d. The equivalent resistance is the sum of the
Which is a family of halogen?
reciprocals of the individual resistance
Answer: Fluorine
Answer: D
PV=constant us what law?
The center of gravity of an isosceles triangle whose
a. Charles law c. Boyle’s law height is H on the median line
b. Pascal’s law d. Zeroth’s law
a. 2/3 H from the base
Answer: C b. 3/4 H from the vertex
c. 1/3 H from the vertex
d. 2/3 H from the vertex
The topmost ring in a piston
Answer: D
a. Compression ring c.
scraper ring Share of participation a corporation:
b. Oil ring d. O ring
a. partnership c.
Answer: A franchise
b. stock d.
The study of motion with reference to the forces monopoly
which causes the motion is called
Answer: B
Which is not a qualification of an applicant for ME Answer: A
board examination?
The standard equation of a straight line y-y1=m(x-
a. He must be a holder of BSME degree x1) is called:
b. He must be a citizen of the Philippines
c. He must be at least 18 years’ old a. point-slope form c. slope-
d. He must be a Certified Plant Mechanic intercept form
b. slope form d. two-
Answer: D point form
What is the unit of force in SI? Answer: A
a. Joule c. Watt
b. Newton d. Hp Which of the following is most suited in evaluating
and comparing alternatives with different lives?
Answer: B
a. ROR method c.
Any influence capable of producing a change in the present worth method
motion of an object b. ROI method d. uniform
a. force c. annual cost method
velocity Answer: D
b. vector d.
acceleration Adding gallium to pure germanium is an example of
the process
Answer: A
a. P-type doping c.
Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called blassing
a. composition of forces c. b. N-type doping d.
resolution of forces seeding
b. concurrent forces d. Answer: A
collinear forces
To be responsible and in-charge of the preparation
Answer: A of the plans, design and estimate of a mechanical
If the impeller is held constant and the speed plant.
varied, the following ratio can be maintained a. PME c. ME
b. CPM d. CPM,
ME, or PME
Answer: A
a.

b.

c.

d.