Vijay Path Test Series 6 Qp+Sol

Mark Group Class : 12th (2023-24) Date : 20/12/2023
720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 06(44) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version Question Paper Question Booklet Sr. No.
11 (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet) With Solutions
• Today’s Test Syllabus •
Physics : Rotational Motion + Centre of Mass + Collision
Chemistry : Periodic Table + p-Block Elements (Group 13, 14
Biology : Anatomy of Flowering Plants + Structural Organisation In Animals
• Next Test Syllabus • Date : 22/12/2023
Physics : Work, Energy and Power + Gravitation
Chemistry : Chemical Kinetics
Biology : Biomolecules + Excretory Products and Their Elimination
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC
PHYSICS 3. Analogue of mass in rotational motion is

Section : A [ NCERT Page-163]
1. In an inelastic collision [ NCERT Page-129] 1) Moment of inertia
1) Only momentum is conserved 2) Angular momentum
2) Only kinetic energy is conserved 3) Torque
3) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy is 4) none of these
conserved
Sol. (1) : Analogue of mass in rotational motion is
4) Both momentum and kinetic energy are moment of inertia.
conserved
4. A wheel of mass 10 kg has a moment of inertia
Sol. (1) : In an inelastic collision, only momentum is of 160 kg-m2 about its own axis, the radius of
conserved whereas in elastic collision both
gyration will be [ NCERT Page-164]
momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
1) 10 m 2) 8 m
2. Two balls at same temperature collide. What
is conserved? [ NCERT Page-129] 3) 6 m 4) 4 m
1) Temperature 2) Velocity Sol. (4) : Here, M = 10 kg, I = 160 kg m2, K = ?
3) Kinetic energy 4) Momentum I 160
2
From I  MK , K   4m
Sol. (4) : Conceptual M 10
PCB TEST : 06(44) 1 Date : 20/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
5. The instantaneous angular position of a point Sol. (1) :
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
on a rotating wheel is given by the equation
(t) = 2t 3 – 6t 2 . The torque on the wheel
becomes zero at [ NCERT Page-160]
1) t = 2 s 2) t = 1 s
3) t = 0.2 s 4) t = 0.25 s
d
Sol. (2) : Here,   2 r 3  6t 2  6t 2  12t
dt
d 2 8. The torque of a force 5iˆ  3 ˆj  7kˆ about the
  12t  12 Torque,   I  I (12t  12)
dt 2 origin is . If the force acts on a particle whose
For   0 , 12t – 12 = 0 or t = 1 s position vector is 2iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ , then the value of
6. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position  will be [ NCERT Page-155]
vectors iˆ  2 ˆj  k and 3iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ respectively.. 1) 11iˆ  19 ˆj  4kˆ 2) 11iˆ  9 ˆj  16kˆ
The magnitude of position vector of centre of
mass of this system will be similar to the 3) 17 iˆ  19 ˆj  4 kˆ 4) 17 iˆ  9 ˆj  16 kˆ
magnitude of vector [ NCERT Page-145]
Sol. (3) :
1) iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ 2) 3iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
3) 2iˆ  2 kˆ 4) 2iˆ  ˆj  2 kˆ
Sol. (1) :
9. A metre scale is balanced on a knife edge at its

centre. When two coins, each of mass 10 g are
put one on the top of the other at the 10.0 cm
mark the scale is found to be balanced at 40.0
cm mark. The mass of metre scale is fond to be
x × 10–2 kg. The value of x is [ NCERT Page-158]
7. Four particles A, B, C and 1) 60 2) 6
D with masses m A = m, 3) 0.06 4) 0.6
mB = 2 m, m C = 3 m and Sol. (2) :
m D = 4m are at the
corners of a square.
They have accelerations
of equal magnitude with
directions as shown. The
acceleration of the centre of mass of the
particles is [ NCERT Page-148]
a ˆ ˆ
1) (i  j ) 2) a
5
a ˆ ˆ
3) Zero 4) (i  j )
5
PCB TEST : 06(44) 2 Date : 20/12/2023

10. A bag of sand of mass 9.8 kg is suspended by 13. Statement I : A point particle of mass m moving
a rope. A bullet of 200g travelling with speed with speed  collides with stationary point
10 ms–1 gets embedded in it, then loss of kinetic particle of mass M. If the maximum energy loss
energy will be [ NCERT Page-129]
1 2  m 
1) 4.9 J 2) 9.8 J possible is given as f  mv  then f   .
2  Mm
3) 14.7 4) 19.6 J
Statement II : Maximum energy loss occurs
Sol. (2) : when the particles get stuck together as a result
of the collision. [ NCERT Page-131]
1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true,
Statement-II is the correct explanation of
Statement-I
2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true,
11. A body of mass M at rest explodes into three
Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
pieces, in the ratio of masses 1 : 1 : 2. Two
smaller pieces fly off perpendicular to each Statement-II.
other with velocities of 30 ms–1 and 40 ms–1 3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
respectively. The velocity of the third piece
4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
will be [ NCERT Page-129]
1) 15 ms–1 2) 25 ms–1 Sol. (4) :
3) 35 ms–1 4) 50 ms–1
Sol. (2) :
12. A body of mass 2 kg makes an elastic collision

with a second body at rest and continues to
move in the original direction but with one
fourth of its original speed. What is the mass
14. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless
of the second body? [ NCERT Page-129]
horizontal surface collides
1) 1.0 kg 2) 1.5 kg
with the spring of spring
3) 1.8 kg 4) 1.2 kg constant k and compresses
Sol. (4) : it by length L. The maximum momentum of
the block after collision is [ NCERT Page-130]
kL2
1) 2) Mk L
2M
ML2
3) 4) zero
k
PCB TEST : 06(44) 3 Date : 20/12/2023

Sol. (2) : 17. Two men are carrying a uniform bar of length
L on their shoulders. The bar is held
hori zontal such that y ounger m an gets 1/4th
load. Suppose the younger man is at the end
of the bar, what is the distance of the other
man from that end? [ NCERT Page-162]
1) L/3 2) L/2
3) 3L/4 4) 2L/3
15. Consider the following two statements Sol. (4) :
A. Linear momentum of a system of particles
is zero
B. Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero.
Then [ NCERT Page-130]
1) A does not imply B and B does not imply A
2) A implies B but B does not imply A
3) A does not imply B but B implies A
4) A implies B and B implies A
Sol. (3) : Kinetic energy of a system of particle is zero
18. The diameter of a flywheel is increased by 1%.
only when the speed of each particles is zero. This
Increase in its moment of inertia about the
implies momentum of each particle is zero, thus
central axis is [ NCERT Page-165]
liner momentum of the system of particle has to
be zero. 1) 1% 2) 0.5%
Also if linear momentum of the system is zero it 3) 2% 4) 4%
does not mean linear momentum of each particle Sol. (3) :
is zero. This is because linear momentum is a
vector quantity. In this case the kinetic energy of
the system of particle will not be zero.
 A does not imply B but B implies A.
16. Centre of mass of 3 bodies 10 kg, 20 kg and 30 kg 19. Two discs of the same material and thickness
is at (0, 0, 0). Where should a body of mass 40 kg have radii 0.2 m and 0.6 m. Their moments of
be placed so that the combination centre of mass inertia about their axes will be in the ratio
will be at (3, 3, 3) [ NCERT Page-147] [ NCERT Page-165]
1) (0, 0, 0) 2) (7.5, 7.5, 7.5) 1) 1 : 81 2) 1 : 27 3) 1 : 9 4) 1 : 3
3) (1, 2, 3) 4) (4, 4, 4) Sol. (1) :
Sol. (2) : 4
 0.2  1
  
 0.6  81
20. A small part of the rim of a fly wheel breaks

off while it is rotating at a constant angular
speed. Then its radius of gyration will
[ NCERT Page-164]
1) increase
2) decrease
3) remain unchanged
4) nothing definite can be said
PCB TEST : 06(44) 4 Date : 20/12/2023

24. A solid sphere of mass 1 kg and radius 5 cm is
Sol. (2) : rotating about an axis passing through its
centre with an angular speed of 10 rad/s. Its
rotational KE is [ NCERT Page-174]
21. M.I. of a circular loop of radius R about the 1) 0.01 J 2) 0.05 J
axis of rotation parallel to horizontal diameter
3) 1 J 4) 10 J
at a distance R/2 from it is [ NCERT Page-167]
1 Sol. (2) :
1) MR2 2) MR2
2
3
3) 2MR2 4) MR2
4
Sol. (4) :
22. The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass M 25. Statement I : Two particles moving in the same
and radius R about an axis passing through direction do not lose all their energy in a
its centre is 2/5 MR2. The radius of gyration of completely inelastic collision. [ NCERT Page-129]
the sphere about a parallel axis to the above
Statement II : Principle of conservation of
and tangent to the sphere is [ NCERT Page-167] momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions.
7 3 1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true,
1) R 2) R
5 5 Statement-II is the correct explanation of
 7  3 Statement-I
3)   R 4)  R 2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true,

 5  5 Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
Sol. (3) : Statement-II.
3) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
4) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
Sol. (1) : In completely inelastic collision, all initial
kinetic energy is not lost but loss in kinetic energy
23. Three point masses, each of mass M are placed is as large as it can be. Linear momentum remain
at the corners of an equilaterial triangle of side conserved in all types of collision. Statement-2
L. The moment of inertia of this system about explains statement-1 correctly because applying
an axis along one side of the triangle is the principle of conservation of momentum, we
[ NCERT Page-163] can get the common velocity and hence the
1 3 kinetic energy of the combined body.
1) ML2 2) ML2
3 2 26. A flywheel rotating about a fixed axis has a KE
of 360 J, when its angular speed is 30 rad/s. What
3
3) ML2 4) ML2 is the moment of inertia? [ NCERT Page-174]
4
1) 0.4 kg m2 2) 0.6 kg m2
Sol. (3) :
3) 0.8 kg m2 4) 1.0 m2
Sol. (3) :
PCB TEST : 06(44) 5 Date : 20/12/2023

27. A pot maker rotates pot making wheel of radius 30. M atch the col umns: [ NCERT Page-165]
3 m by applying a force of 200 N tangentially.
Column-I Column-II
1
If wheel completes exactly 1 revolution, a) Moment of inertia of disc p) 1
2 MR2
work done by him is [ NCERT Page-170] about axis perpendicular 2
1) 5654.86 J 2) 4321.32 J
to plane passing through
centre of disc
3) 4197.5 J 4) 5000 J
Sol. (1) :
b) Moment of inertia of disc q) 5
MR2
about axis tangent to disc 4
perpendicular to plane
c) Moment of inertia of disc r) 1
28. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg m 2 MR2
about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of about axis tangent to disc 4
60 rpm about this axis. The torque which can in the plane
stop the wheel’s rotation in one minute d) Moment of inertia of disc s) 3
would be [ NCERT Page-171] MR2
about diameter of disc 2
  1) a–r, b–s, c–p, d–q 2) a–p, b–q, c–s, d–r
1) Nm 2)  Nm
25 15
3) a–p, b–s, c–q, d–r 4) a–p, b–s, c–q, d–r
 2 Sol. (4): Conceptual
3) – Nm 4) Nm
18 15 31. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is
Sol. (2) : rotating with a constant angular velocity
2 rad s–1 in a horizontal plane about an axis
vertical to its plane and passing through the
center of the ring. If two objects each of mass m
be attached gently to the opposite ends of a
diameter of ring, the ring will then rotate with
an angular velocity (in rad s–1) [ NCERT Page-173]
29. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere along
a diameter is I. It is then cast into 8 small M ( M  2 m)
identical spheres. What is the moment of 1) 2)
( M  m) 2M
inertia of each small sphere about its diameter?
[ NCERT Page-165]
2M 2( M  2m)
1) I/8 2) I/24 3) 4)
( M  2 m) M
3) I/16 4) I/32
Sol. (3):
Sol. (4) :
PCB TEST : 06(44) 6 Date : 20/12/2023

32. A uniform rod AB of 35. The position of a particle is given by
 
mass m and length r  (iˆ  2 jˆ  kˆ ) and momentum p  (3iˆ  4 jˆ  2kˆ ) .
L is free to rotate
The angular momentum is perpendicular to
about A. The rod is
released from rest in [ NCERT Page-171]
1)x–axis
horizontal position. The initial angular
2)y–axis
acceleration of the rod will be [NCERT Page-171]
3)z–axis
2g 3g 4)line at equal angles to all the three axes
1) 2)
3L 2L  
Sol. (1) : Here, r  (iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ ) and p  ( 3iˆ  4 ˆj  2 kˆ )
2g 3g
3) 4)   
5L 4L L  r  p  ( iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ )  ( 3iˆ  4 ˆj  2 kˆ )
Sol. (2) : iˆ jˆ kˆ
1 2  1  iˆ( 4  4)  ˆj( 2  3)  kˆ( 4  6)
3 4 2
33. The graph between the angular momentum J 

and angular velocity  for a body in pure
L   ˆj  2 kˆ
rotational motion will be [ NCERT Page-172] Section : B
36. A object of mass m1 collides with another
object of mass m2 , which is at rest. After the
collision the objects move with equal speeds
1) 2) in opposite direction. The ratio of the masses
m2 : m1 is [ NCERT Page-129]
1) 2 : 1 2) 3 : 1
3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 1
Sol. (2) :
3) 4)
Sol. (1) :
34. Two identical balls A and B having velocities

of 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s respectively collide
elastically in one dimension. The velocities
of B and A after the collision respectively
will be [ NCERT Page-129]
1) 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
2) –0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s
3) 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s
4) –0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
Sol. (4) :
PCB TEST : 06(44) 7 Date : 20/12/2023

37. If the earth is point mass of 6 × 10 24 kg 40. Consider a 20 kg uniform
revolving around the sun at a distance of circular disk of radius 0.2
1.5 × 108 km and in time T = 3.14 × 107 s, then m. It is pin supported at its
the angular momentum of the earth around centre and is at rest
the sun is [ NCERT Page-156] initially. The disk is acted
upon by a constant force F
1) 1.2 × 1018 kg m2/s = 20 N through a massless
2) 1.8 × 1028 kg m2/s string wrapped around its
periphery as shown in the figure. Suppose the
3) 1.5 × 1037 kg m2/s
disk makes n number of revolutions to attain
4) 2.7 × 1040 kg m2/s an angular speed of 50 rad s–1. The value of n,
to the nearest integer, is _____.
Sol. (4) : (Given : In one complete revolution, the disk
rotates by 6.28 rad) [ NCERT Page-171]
1) 20 2) 2
3) 200 4) 0.2
38. A heavy ball moving with speed v collides
with a tiny ball. The collision is elastic, Sol. (1) :
then immediately after the impact, the second
ball will move with a speed approximately
equal to [ NCERT Page-130]
1) v 2) 2v
3) v/2 4) v/3
Sol. (2) :
m1  m2
 m  m1   2m1 
v '2   2  v2    v1
 m1  m2   m1  m2 
41. A ‘T’ shaped object with
dimensions shown in
the figure, is lying on a

smooth floor. ' F ' is
39. The momentum of a system with respect to
applied at the point P
center of mass [ NCERT Page-149] parallel to AB, such that
1) is zero only if the system is moving uniformly the object has only the translational motion
2) is zero only if no external force acts on the without rotation. Find the location of P with
system respect to C. [ NCERT Page-145]
3) is always zero 3 2
1) l 2) l
4) can be zero in certain conditions 2 3
Sol. (3) : Conceptual 4

3) l 4) l
3
PCB TEST : 06(44) 8 Date : 20/12/2023

Sol. (4) : Sol. (3) :
44. For the same total mass, which of the
following will have the largest moment of
inertia about an axis passing through the
centre of mass and perpendicular to the plane
of the body [ NCERT Page-163]
1) a disc of radius R
2) a ring of radius R
3) a square lamina of side 2R
4) four rods forming a square of side 2R
42. Assertion : Body ‘P’ having mass M moving with Sol. (4) :
speed ‘u’ has head-on collision elastically with
another body ‘Q’ having mass ‘m’ initially at rest. 45. Four point masses P, Q, R and S with
If m << M, body ‘Q’ will have a maximum speed respective masses 1 kg , 1kg , 2 kg and 2 kg
equal to ‘2u’ after collision. [ NCERT Page-130] form the corners of a square of side a. The
Reason : During elastic collision, the momentum center of masses of the system will be farthest
and kinetic energy are both conserved. from [ NCERT Page-147]
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and 1) P only 2) R and S
Reason is the correct explanation
3) R only 4) P and Q
2) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct
3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct Sol. (4) :
4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Reason is NOT the correct explanation of
Assertion
Sol. (1) :
43. A shell initially at rest explodes into two pieces

of equal mass, then the two pieces will 46. A bullet of mass 4g is fired horizontally with
[ NCERT Page-149] a speed of 300 m/s into 0.8 kg block of wood at
1) Be at rest rest on a table. If the coefficient of friction between
2) Move with different velocities in different the block and the table is 0.3 , how far will the
direction block slide approximately? [ NCERT Page-129]
3) Move with the same velocity in opposite 1) 0.19 m 2) 0.379 m
directions
3) 0.569 m 4) 0.758 m
4) Move with the same velocity in same direction
PCB TEST : 06(44) 9 Date : 20/12/2023

Sol. (2) : Sol. (3) :
49. Two billiard balls of mass 0.05 kg each moving
in opposite directions with 10 ms–1 collide and
rebound with the same speed. If the time
duration of contact is t = 0.005 s, then what is
the force exerted on the ball due to each other?
[ NCERT Page-159]
47. When net force on a system of particles is zero,
then [ NCERT Page-148] 1) 100 N 2) 200 N 3) 300 N 4) 400 N
Column I Column II Sol. (2) :
Velocity of individual
A) p) zero
particles
Velocity of centre of
B) q) may be zero
mass
Momentum of centre
C) r) constant
of mass
Acceleration of centre may be
D) s)
of mass constant 50. A circular hole of radius
1) A-(s,q); B-(r,q); C-(r,q); D-(p) a
2) A-(p); B-(r,p); C-(r,p); D-(p,q)  2  is cut out of a circular
 
3) A-(r,p); B-(r,p); C-(p,q); D-(p) disc of radius ‘a’ as
4) A-(p); B-(p); C-(p,q); D-(r,p) shown in figure. The
Sol. (1) : When a net force on a system of particles is centroid of the remaining
zero, the velocity of individual particles may be circular portion with respect to point ‘O’ will be
zero for some and not zero for others. Velocity [ NCERT Page-147]
of centre of mass is constant (including zero).
Momentum of centre of mass shall be constant 1 10 5 2
1) a 2) a 3) a 4) a
including zero. Acceleration of centre of mass 6 11 6 3
shall be zero. Sol. (3) :
48. Two bodies of the same mass are moving with
the same speed, but in different directions in a
plane. They have a completely inelastic collision
and move together thereafter with a final speed
which is half of their initial speed. The angle
between the initial velocities of the two bodies
M 3
(in degree) is______. [ NCERT Page-131] Ma  a
Xcom  4 2 5a
1) 60° 2) 30° M 6
M
3) 120° 4) 90° 4
PCB TEST : 06(44) 10 Date : 20/12/2023

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
CHEMISTRY 54. Select correct statement(s)
SECTION : A [New NCERT Page-89]
51. Statement-I : Energy is always required to i. Generally when an electron is added to the
remove electrons from an atom and hence atom, energy is released and hence electron
ionization enthalpies are always positive. gain enthalpy is negative.
Statement-II : The second ionization enthalpy ii. Noble gases have large negative electron
may or may not be higher than the first ionization gain enthlapies.
enthalpy. iii. Group 17 elements have very low negative
electron gain enthalpies.
[New NCERT Page-88]
1) only (i) 2) only (ii)
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3) only (i and iii) 4) i, ii and iii
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are Sol. (1)
incorrect
55. Select the correct order of electronegativity.
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is [New NCERT Page-91]
incorrect
1) S > C > N = Cl > O 2) S = C > N = Cl > O
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 3) O > N = Cl > C = S 4) O > N > Cl > C > S
correct
Sol. (3)
Sol. (3)
56. Column-II
52. In which of the following options the order Column-I
(Nature of oxide)
of arrangement does not agree with the
variation of property indicated against it? a. Cl2O7 i. Neutral
b. NO ii. Acidic
1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size)
c. N2O iii. Amphoteric
2) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation
d. As2O3 iv. Basic
enthalpy)
e. Al2O3
3) Li < B < Be < C (increasing first ionisation
f. Na2O
enthalpy)
[New NCERT Page-94]
4) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
1) a-i, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-iii, f-iv
Sol. (2)
2) a-ii, b-i, c-i, d-iii, e-iii, f-iv
53. The electronic configuration of the element 3) a-ii, b-i, c-i, d-ii, e-ii, f-iv
which is just above the element with atomic
4) a-ii, b-ii, c-ii, d-ii, e-iii, f-iv
number 43 in the same group is ............
Sol. (2)
1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s2 57. Slect the correct order of ionic radius for the
2 2 6 2 6
2) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p5 3 6 given isoelectornic species:
[New NCERT Page-96]
3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 4s2
1) N > O > F > Al > Mg+2 > Na+
–3 –2 – +3
2 2 6 2 6 7 2
4) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s
RCC** RCC** RCC**
2) Na+ > Mg+2 > Al+3 > F– > O–2 > N–3
Sol. (1)
3) N–3 > O–2 > F– > Na+ > Mg+2 > Al+3
4) Na–3 > O–2 > F– > Mg+2 > Na+ > Al+3
Sol. (3)
PCB TEST - 06(44) 11 Date : 20/12/2023

58. Statement-I : The effective nuclear charge 62. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
experienced by a valence electron in an atom will elements is [New NCERT Page-309]
be more than the actual charge on the nucleus
1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
because of shielding effect.
2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
Statement-II : Electrons present in same shell or
outer shell provide shielding to electron present 3) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
in inner shell. 4) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
[New NCERT Page-89] Sol. (3)
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
63. Identify the wrong statement in the following
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
1) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the
incorrect
positive charge on the cation, smaller is the
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is ionic radius.
incorrect
2) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic
correct radius.
Sol. (2)
3) Effective nuclear charge increases one moving
59. The element expected to form largest ion to left to right across a period
achieve the nearest noble gas configuration
4) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one
is:
moves across from left to right in the 2 nd
1) O 2) F period of the periodic table.
3) N 4) Na Sol. (1)
Sol. (3)
64. Considering the elements B, C, N, F, and Si,
60. Select correct statement(s) : the correct order of their non-metallic
[New NCERT Page-84] character is
i. Actinoid elements are radioactive. 1) B > C > Si > N > F 2) Si > C > B > N > F
ii. Many of the actinoid elements are made in 3) F > N > C > B > Si 4) F > N > C > Si > B
nanogram quantities or even less by
nuclear reactions. Sol. (3)
iii. Elements having atomic number 92 or more 65. Statement -I : First electron gain enthalpy is
are called transuranium elements. generally Negative
1) i and iii only 2) i and ii only Statement -II : Second electron gain enthalpy
3) ii and iii only 4) i, ii and ii is always positive
Sol. (2) 1) Both statement I and II are correct
61. Select incorrect option :[New NCERT Page-79] 2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
Element Atomic no. Group Period
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) Zr 40 4 5 incorrect
2) S n 50 14 5
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
3) Hg 80 12 6 correct
4) Ce 58 4 6 Sol. (1)
Sol. (4)
PCB TEST - 06(44) 12 Date : 20/12/2023

72. Boron is unable to form BF63– ions due to
66. Which of the following process refers to
ionisation enthalpy?
[New NCERT Page-312]
1) X(s)  X+(g) + e– 2)X(g) + aq  X+(aq)+ e–
1) non-availability of d-orbitals
3) X(g)  X+(g) + e– 4) X(g) + e–  X–(g)
2) small size of boron atom
Sol. (3)
3) non-metllic nature
67. Select correct option: [New NCERT Page-79]
4) less reactivity towards halogens
Element Atomic no. Electronic confn
Sol. (1)
1) Pd 48 4d10 5s0
2) La 57 5f1 6s2 73. Which of the following compounds is not
matched correctly with its structure?
3) Co 27 3d7 4s2
4) Ni 28 3d10 4s0
Sol. (3)
68. Configuration of the element with the highest
ionisation energy is 1) - Borazine
1) [Ne]3s1 2) [Ne] 3s2 3p3
3) [Ne] 3d10 4s2 4p3 4) [Ne] 3s2 3p4
Sol. (2)
69. Assertion (A) : Nitrogen has higher ionisation 2) - Diborane
enthalpy than oxygen.
Reason (R) : In a period, ongoing from left to
right, ionisation enthalpy increases. 3) - Aluminium chloride
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
4) - Boron trichloride
correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct Sol. (3)
Sol. (2) 74. Assertion(A) : Although aluminium is above
70. Artificial gem used for cutting glass is hydrogen in electrochemial series, it is stable in
air and water.
1) graphite 2) diamond
3) SiC 4) CaCN2 Reason (R) : The thin protective layer of oxide
(Al2O3) on aluminium is stable in air and water.
Sol. (3)
71. Group 13 elements show +1 and +3 oxidation 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
states. Relative stability of +3 oxidation state correct explanation of (A)
may be given as [New NCERT Page-310] 2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
1) Tl3+ > In3+ > Ga3+ > Al3+ > B3+ correct explanation of (A)
RCC** RCC** RCC**
2) B3+ > Al3+ > Ga3+ > In3+ > Tl3+ 3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) Al3+ > Ga3+ > Ga3+ > In3+ > B3+ 4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Al3+ > B3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+ Sol. (2)
Sol. (2)
PCB TEST - 06(44) 13 Date : 20/12/2023

78. In the structure of [B4 O5 (OH)4 ]2–
75. Which one of the following structure is
correctly represented?
1) All four B atoms are trigonal planar
2) One B atom is tetrahedral and the other three
B atoms are triogonal planar
1) 3) Three B atoms are tetrahedral and one B atom
is trigonal planar
4) Two B atoms are tetrahedral and other two
are trigonal planar
2) Sol. (4)
79. Hexaborane (10) is [New NCERT Page-313]
1) B6 H8 2) B6 H10
3) B6 H12 2) B6 H6
3)
Sol. (2)
80. Thalium (Tl) exhibits monovalency where as
Al exibhits trivalency. This is due to
4) [New NCERT Page-309]

1) The enery required to unpaired outer s-
electrons in Tl exceeds the energy invovled in
Sol. (3)
bond formation
76. The stability of monohalides of group 13
2) Tl has only one electron in its outermost
elements [New NCERT Page-311]
orbital
1) Increases down the group
3) Al can use its vacant d-orbitals for the bond
2) Decreases down the group formation
3) First increases and then decreases 4) Tl is a non-metal
4) First decreases and then increases Sol. (1)
Sol. (1) 81. AlCl3 is an electron-deficient compound but
77. Which is correct for the structure of diborane? AlF3 is not, due to [New NCERT Page-311]
[New NCERT Page-313] 1) Atomic size of F is smaller than Cl, which

makes AlF3 more covalent
1) It contains four (2c, 2e) covalent bonds and
two (3c, 2e) covalent bonds 2) AlCl3 is a covalent compound while AlF3 is an
ionic compound
2) It contains three (2c, 2e) covalent bodns and
three (3c, 2e) covalent bonds 3) Al in AlCl3 is sp3 hybridisation but in AlF3, Al
is sp3 hybridised
RCC** RCC** RCC**
3) It contains two (2c, 2e) covalent bonds and

four (3c, 2e) covalent bond. 4) AlCl3 exists as a dimer but AlF3 does not
4) It contains six (2c, 2e) covalent bonds Sol. (2)
Sol. (1)
PCB TEST - 06(44) 14 Date : 20/12/2023

82. Interayer distance in graphite is SECTION : B
[New NCERT Page-318] 86. The shapes and hybridisation of BF3 and BH4–
respectively are [New NCERT Page-311]
1) Very small, the layers being tightly packed
1) BF3 - Trigonal, sp2 hybridisation; BH4– - square
2) Many times larger than the covalent radius of
planar, sp3 hybridisation
carbon
3) More than twice the covalent radius of carbon 2) BF 3 - Triangular, sp 3 hybridisation; BH4 – -
hexagonal, sp3d hybridisation
4) The same as the covalent radius of carbon
3) BF 3 - Trigonal, sp 2 hybridisation; BH4 – -
Sol. (3) Tetrahedral, sp3 hybridisation
83. Which of the following statements is false 4) BF 3 - Tetrahedral, sp 3 hybridisation; BH4 – -
about carbon? [New NCERT Page-318] Tetrahedral, sp3 hybridisation
1) C60 is also one of the allotrope of carbon Sol. (3)
2) It has crystalline as well as amorphous 87. Trimethylammonium is pyramdial whereas
allotropes trisilyammonia is a planar molecule. Why?
3) It can form p–p bond with other C-atoms
SiH3 ••
N
4) It cannot form p–p bond with atoms such
N H3C CH3
as N and O H3Si SiH3 CH3
Sol. (4)
84. The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb
increases steadily in the sequence 1) In silicon atom, the electron pair of nitrogen
is invovled in p-d bonding.
2) In nitrogen, lone pair of electron is present at
1) PbX2 < SnX2 < GeX2 < SiX2 nitrogen hence it has pyramidal shape
2) GeX2 < SiX2 < SnX2 < PbX2 3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
3) SiX2 < GeX2 < PbX2 < SnX2 4) Both (1) and (2) are wrong
4) SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 < PbX2 Sol. (3)
Sol. (4) 88. Assertion (A) : Carbon atom is tetravalent
85. Select incorrect statement through it has two unpaired electrons.
[New NCERT Page-317] Reason (R) : Carbon has unique ability to form
p-p multiple bonds like C=C, C=C.
1) Stability of hydrides of 14 group elements is :
CH4 > SiH4 > GeH4 > SnH4 > PbH4 [New NCERT Page-319]
2) The tendency for catenation of 14 group 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
elements is; C > > > Si > Ge = Sn > > > Pb correct explanation of (A)
3) During freezing winter, Sn is converted to 2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
grey powder due to the formation SnO2 correct explanation of (A)
RCC** RCC** RCC**
4) When Cl2 is passed through molten Sn, SnCl4 3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
is formed 4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Sol. (3) Sol. (2)
PCB TEST - 06(44) 15 Date : 20/12/2023

92. In SiF62– and SiCl62–, which one is known and
89. Aluminium chloride exits as a dimer, Al2Cl6
in solid state as well as in solution of non- wh y? [New NCERT Page-317]
polar solvents such as benzene. When
1) SiF62– because of the small size of F
dissolved in water, it gives:
2) SiF62– because of the large size of F
3) SiCl62– because of the small size of F
1) Al3+ + 3Cl–
4) SiCl62– because of the large size of F
2) Al2O3 + 6HCl
3) [Al(H2O)6 ]3+ + 3Cl– Sol. (1)
4) [Al(OH)6]3– + 3HCl 93. Select the correct statement(s) about fullerenes

(C 60 )
Sol. (3)
i) C60 structure has 12 five membered and 20
90. Consider the following statement for
six membered rings
diborane:
ii) Six membered rings are fused to other six
membered as well as to five membered
rings
iii) Five membered rings are fused to only six
membered rings
i. Boron is approximately sp3 hybridised
iv) There are alternate single and double bond
ii. B–H–B angle is 180°
and each atom is sp 2 -hybridised with
iii. There are two terminal B–H bonds for each extensive delocalized molecular orbital
boron atom.
iv. There are only 12 bonding electrons
available of these statement 1) i and ii only 2) ii and iii only
[New NCERT Page-313] 3) i and iii only 4) i, ii, iii and iv

1) i, iii and iv are correct Sol. (4)
2) i, ii and iii are correct 94. Assertion (A): The exact size of an individual
3) ii, iii and iv are correct atom cannot be measured.
4) i, ii and iv are correct Reason(R) : The size of an atom is very small

and the electron cloud surrounding the atom
Sol. (1)
does not have a sharp boundary.
91. Boron does not form B3+ ion, due to
[New NCERT Page-86]
i) Energy required to form B3+ ion is very high
which will not be compensated by lattice 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
enthalpies or hydration enthalpies of such correct explanation of (A)
ion. 2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
ii) Boron is a non-metal correct explanation of (A)
iii) Boron is a metaloid 3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
RCC** RCC** RCC**
[New NCERT Page-309] 4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

1) i only 2) ii only Sol. (1)
3) i and ii only 4) i, ii and iii
Sol. (1)
PCB TEST - 06(44) 16 Date : 20/12/2023

95. Statement-I : If element having atomic number Sol. (3)
(z) = 117 gets discovered, then it would be placed 99. The formation of the oxide ion O2– (g), from
in 15th group. oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and
Statement-II : The electronic configuration of then an endothermic step as shown below :
element having Z = 117, would be
[Rn] 5f 14 6d10 7s 2 7p 5 [New NCERT Page-84] O(g) + e–  O– (g); f HO = –141 kj mol–1
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct O– (g) + e–  O2– (g); f HO = +780 kJ mol–1
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Thus process of formation of O2– in gas phase
incorrect
is unfavourable even though O 2– is
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact
incorrect
that.
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct 1) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability
Sol. (4) gained by achieving noble gas configuration
96. Select the incorrect statement(s) : 2) O– ion has comparatively smaller size than
i. d-block elements have general outer oxygen atom
electronic configuration (n – 1)d 1–10 ns 0-2 3) Oxygen is more electronegative
exccept for Pd where its electronic
configuration is 4d105s0. 4) Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger
size of the ion.
ii. They form coloured ions and exhibit fixed
valency. Sol. (1)
iii. Zn, Cd and Hg show most of the properties 100. Match Column - I with Column - II.
of transition elements.
1) ii and iii only 2) i and iii only Column-I Column-II
3) i and ii only 4) i, ii and iii Element with largest size
a. i. Boron
Sol. (1) in second period
97. For the second period elements the correct Element with smallest size
b. ii. Fluorine
increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy in group 13
is Element with maximum
1) Li<Be<B<C<N<O<F<Ne c. iii. Bromine
non- metallic character
2) Li<B<Be<C<O<N<F<Ne Element with smallest size
3) Li<B<Be<C<N<O<F<Ne d. iv. Lithium
in fourth period
4) Li<Be<B<C<O<N<F<Ne Element with most metallic
e. v. Lead
Sol. (2) character in group 14
98. Column-I Column-II Column-III
1) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - v, e - iii
a. Unniltrium i. Rutherfordium (Rf) p. Z = 102
b. Ununoctium ii. Lawrencium (Lr) q. Z = 104 2) a - i, b - iv, c - ii, d - iii, e - v
c. Unnilquadium iii. Nobelium (No) r. Z = 107
3) a - iv, b - ii, c - i, d - iii, e - v
d. Unnilbium iv. Oganesson (Og) s. Z = 103
e. Unnilseptium v. Bohrium (Bh) t. Z = 118 4) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii, e - v
RCC** RCC** RCC**
[New NCERT Page-80] Sol. (4)

1) a-ii,s b-i,t c-ii,q d-iii,p e-v,r
2) a-i,t b-iv,t c-v,r d-iii,p e-ii,q
3) a-ii,s b-iv,t c-i,q d-iii,p e-v,r
4) a-i,t b-ii,q c-iv,p d-iii,r e-v,s
PCB TEST - 06(44) 17 Date : 20/12/2023

Section-C : Biology 106. Epiblema of roots is equivalent to
[ NCERT Pg. 88-89]
Section-A
1) Pericycle 2) Endodermis
101. Which of the following is not a meristematic 3) Epidermis 4) Stele
tissue? [ NCERT Pg. 85]
Ans. (3)
1) Intrafascicular cambium
107. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry
2) Apical meristem
weather. Select the most appropriate reason
3) Intercalary meristem
from the following: [ NCERT Pg. 94]
4) None of the above
1) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
Ans. (4)
2) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
102. As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has
3) Tyloses in vessels
[ NCERT Pg. 91]
4) Closure of stomata
1) more abundant secondary xylem
Ans. (1)
2) many xylem bundles
108. In an dorsiventral leaf palisade parenchyma is
3) inconspicuqus annual rings towards : [ NCERT Pg. 94]
4) relatively thicker periderm 1) Abaxial surface 2) Adaxial surface
Ans. (2) 3) Around the midrib 4) Near the stomata.
103. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other Ans. (2)
epidermal cells in having [ NCERT Pg. 89] 109. A major characteristic of the monocot root is the
1) Chloroplast presence of [ NCERT Pg. 91]
2) Cytoskeleton 1) Vasculature without cambium
3) Mitochondria 2) Cambium sandwiched between phloem and
4) Endoplasmic reticulum xylem along the radius
Ans. (1) 3) Open vascular bundles
104. Identify the simple tissue from among the 4) Scattered vascular bundles
following [ NCERT Pg. 86] Ans. (1)
1) Parenchyma 2) Xylem 110. Diagram of a conducting tissue is given. In
3) Epidermis 4) Phloem which plants this structure can be observed?
Ans. (1) [ NCERT Pg. 87]
105. Select the option with correct identification of
diagram : [ NCERT Pg. 94]
1) Young monocot stem

2) Old dicot root 1) Angiosperms 2) Gymnosperms
3) Dicot leaf 3) Bryophytes 4) Pteridophytes.
Ans. (1)
4) Monocot leaf.
Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 06(44) 18 Date : 20/12/2023
111. Ground tissue consists of [ NCERT Pg. 89] 118. Observe the diagrams and select the option with
1) All tissues internal to endodermis their incorrect occurrence. [ NCERT Pg. 86]
2) Epidermis and cortex
3) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
4) All tissue external to endodermis
Ans. (3)
112. Vascular bundles in dicot stem are : 1) Hypodermis of dicot stem
2) Leaves of tea
[ NCERT Pg. 92]
3) Pulp of sapota
1) Conjoint, open and exarch
4) Fruit wall of nuts.
2) Conjoint, open and endarch
Ans. (1)
3) Conjoint, closed and exarch
119. Which of the following provides mechanical
4) Conjoint, closed and endarch.
support to the growing parts of plants like young
Ans. (2) stem and petiole of a leaf? [ NCERT Pg. 86]
113. In grasses, shape of guard cells in stomata is : 1) Sclerenchyma 2) Collenchyma
[ NCERT Pg. 89] 3) Parenchyma 4) Xylem vessels
1) Dumb - bell shaped Ans. (2)
2) Bean shaped 120. Sclerenchyma is observed in all of the following
3) Spindle shaped except one - [ NCERT Pg. 86-87]
4) Pyriform shaped. 1) Pulp of guava
Ans. (1) 2) Major components of organs
114. Which of the following is not the part of ground 3) Leaves of tea
tissue system? [ NCERT Pg. 89-90] 4) Fruit wall of nuts
1) Vascular bundles 2) Pericycle Ans. (2)
3) Pith 4) Cortex. 121. Seed coat of legumes is expected to have rich
Ans. (1) quantity of - [ NCERT Pg. 87]
115. Fibres for commercial use, obtained from which 1) Parenchyma 2) Xylem
plant are not bast fibres : [ NCERT Pg. 86] 3) Sclerenchyma 4) Collenchyma
1) Jute 2) Cotton Ans. (3)
3) Hemp 4) Flax 122. Parenchyma and xylem, both are examples of:
[ NCERT Pg. 86-87]
Ans. (2)
1) Simple tissue
116. Root hairs and trichomes are respectively :
2) Complex tissue
[ NCERT Pg. 89]
3) Permanent tissue
1) Unicellular and unicellular
4) Secondary meristematic tissue.
2) Unicellular and multicellular
Ans. (3)
3) Multicellular and unicellular
123. Cell having common origin, similar function and
4) Multicellular and muticellular. devoid of power of division are :
117. Out of the four components of xylem - tracheids, 1) Primary meristem
vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma, 2) Secondary meristem
how many are dead? [ NCERT Pg. 87]
3) Permanent tissue
1) None 2) one
4) Apical meristem.
3) two 4) three
Ans. (3)
Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 06(44) 19 Date : 20/12/2023

124. Section of shoot apex is shown in the diagram. 129. Casparian strips are found in the cells of
Select the option with correct identification of [ NCERT Pg. 91]
labelling and one of its features. [ NCERT Pg. 85] 1) Leaves 2) Roots
3) Stem 4) Meristem
Ans. (2)
130. Stele consists of [ NCERT Pg. 91]
1) Endodermis, pericycle and vascular bundles
2) Vascular bundles only
3) Vascular bundles and pith
4) Pericycle, vascular bundes and pith
Ans. (4)
1) A - Plumule, gives rise to shoot. 131. Cellular layers outside the endodermis having
2) B - Shoot apex, possess apical meristem. intercellular spaces constitute [ NCERT Pg. 90-91]
3) C - Meristematic zone, cells are actively 1) Epidermis 2) Hypodermis
dividing giving rise to trichomes 3) Cortex 4) Pericycle
4) D - Leaf primordium, give rise to leaves and Ans. (3)
lateral brances 132. In leaves protoxylem elements occur towards
125. Cellular layer present on the surface of plant 1) Adaxial surface
organ is [ NCERT Pg. 89] 2) Abaxial surface
1) Cuticle 2) Endodermis 3) Face laterally
3) Hypodermis 4) Epidermis 4) Are surrounded by metaxylem
Ans. (4) Ans. (1)
126. The most common tissue present in the interior 133. Largest number of chloroplasts in a leaf occur
of plant organ is [ NCERT Pg. 86] in [ NCERT Pg. 94]
1) Collenchyma 1) Spongy paraenchyma
2) Parenchyma 2) Palisade parenchyma
3) Guard cells
3) Sclerenchyma
4) Bundle sheath cells
4) Epidermis
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
134. What is true of a monocot leaf? [ NCERT Pg. 94]
127. Vascular bundles with strip of cambium is
1) Reticulate venation
[ NCERT Pg. 90]
2) Absence of motor cells from epidermis
1) Conjoint 2) Open
3) Well differentiated mesophyll
3) Closed 4) Collateral 4) Mesophyll not differentiated into palisade and
Ans. (2) spongy tissue.
128. A conjoint and open vascular bundle will be Ans. (4)
observed in the transverse section 135. As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root
[ NCERT Pg. 90-92] possesses [ NCERT Pg. 91]
1) Monocot root 1) More abundant secondary xylem
2) Monocot stem 2) Many xylem bundles
3) Dicot root 3) Relatively thicker periderm
4) Dicot stem 4) Inconspicuous annaul ring.
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 06(44) 20 Date : 20/12/2023

Section-B 140. Statement I : Root hairs are unicellular elongation
136. The transverse section of a plant shows of epidermal cells. [ NCERT Pg. 89]
following anatomical features [ NCERT Pg. 92] Statement II : On the stem the epidermal hairs
a. Large number of scattered vascular bundles are called trichomes which are usually
surrounded by bundle sheath. multicellular.
b. Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue. 1) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
c. Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. 2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
d. Phloem parenchyma absent. 3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Identify the category of plant and its part : 4) Both statement I and II are correct.
1) Monocotyledonous root
Ans. (4)
2) Dicotyledonous stem
141. Function of companion cell is [ NCERT Pg. 88]
3) Dicotyledonous root
4) Monocotyledonous stem 1) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements by
Ans. (4) passive transport
137. An open collateral bundle is the one in which 2) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements
[ NCERT Pg. 90] 3) Providing energy to sieve elements for active
1) Xylem and phloem lie side by side transport
2) Xylem and phloem are separated by combium 4) Providing water to phloem
3) Cambium occurs on the outside of bundle
Ans. (2)
4) Cambium does not occur in the bundle
142. A typical dicot stomata is shown in the diagram
Ans. (2)
with labelling A-D. Which labelling is not
138. In primary xylem of dicot stem, protoxylem is correctly matched with its feature / function?
located towards __1__ and metaxylem is towards
[ NCERT Pg. 89]
__2__. This condition is known __3__.
[ NCERT Pg. 87]
1) centre, periphery, exarch
2) centre, periphery, endarch
3) periphery, centre, exarch
4) periphery, centre, endarch.
1) B - These are specialized epidermal cells.
Ans. (2)
2) A- Parenchymatous cell with abundant cytoplasm.
139. Section of a dicot root is given. Select the option
with correct information? [ NCERT Pg. 91] 3) D - Opening and closing is related with K+ and
ABA.
4) C - Inner wall is thicker than outer wall.
Ans. (2)
143. Out of the following, how many features belong
to monocot root : [ NCERT Pg. 91]
A. Radial vascular bundles
B. Closed vascular bundles
C. Endodermis absent
1) A - Root hair, multicellular. D. Pith developed
2) E is protoxylem and F is metaxylem which
E. Polyarch condition
means condition is exarch.
1) One 2) Two
3) G is well developed while B is parenchymatous.
4) C is pericycle and D is endodermis. 3) Three 4) Four
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 06(44) 21 Date : 20/12/2023

144. Select the correct option(s) : [ NCERT Pg. 89, 91, 92] 147. A simple permanent tissue is shown in the
A. Pericycle of dicotroot is responsible for diagram. Identify the correct option with one of
secondary root formation. the feature. [ NCERT Pg. 86]
B. Cuticle is formed by secretion of cutin and
wax by epidermal cells and is absent in roots.
C. Hypodermis in Sclerenchymatous in monocot
stem.
D. Pith is present in Dicot root and monocot
stem.
E. Xylem is exarch in stems. 1) Sclerenchyma, mechanical strength
1) B, C and D 2) Sclerenchyma, photosynthesis
2) A, B and C 3) Collenchyma, mechanical strength
3) A, C and D 4) Parenchyma, major part of organs in plants.
4) C, D and E Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) 148. Read the following statements about the
145. Which of the following is correct about the vascular bundles : [ NCERT Pg. 90]
vascular bundles in a dicot leaf? [ NCERT Pg. 94] a. It roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular
1) All are of uniform size. bundle are arranged in an alternate manner
2) Size is variable which is dependent on size of along the same radii.
vein / veinlet. b. Conjoint closed vascular bundle do not
3) Surrounded by mesophyll cells immediately. possess cambium.
4) Radial arrangement. c. In open bundles, cambium is present in
between xylem and phloem.
Ans. (2)
d. The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem
146. Read the following statements about the
posses endarch protoxylem.
vascular bundles: [ NCERT Pg. 90-91]
e. In monocotyledonous root, usually there are
a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular
more than six xylem bundles present.
bundle are arranged in an alternate manner
along the different radii. Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not
possess cambium 1) a, b, c and d only
c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is 2) a, c, d and e only
present in between xylem and phloem 3) a, b and d only
d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem 4) b, c, d and e only
possess endarch protoxylem Ans. (4)
e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are 149. Match the following and choose the correct
more than six xylem bundles present option from below. [ NCERT Pg. 91, 94, 89]
Choose the correct answer from the options
Column-I Column-II
given below:
a Cuticle i Guard cells
1) (a), (b) and (d) Only
b Bulliform cells ii Single layer
2) (b), (c),(d) and (e) Only
c Stomata iii Waxy layer
3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) Only d Epidermis iv Empty colourless cells
4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) Only
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Ans. (4)
3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
Ans. (1)
PCB TEST : 06(44) 22 Date : 20/12/2023

150. Select the correct option(s) : [ NCERT Pg. 94] 155. Which of the following correctly describes the
A. Stomata are present on both surfaces of salivary gland?
epidermis in monocot leaf. 1) Multicellular glandular epithelium
B. The vascular bundles in monocot leaves are 2) Compound epithelium
conjoint, bicollateral and open. 3) Unicellular glandular epithelium
C. Bulliform cells in adaxial epidermal cells
4) Connective tissue
regulate curling and uncurling of leaves.
Ans. (1)
D. When Bulliform cells are flaccid, they make
the leaves uncurl. 156. Trapped dust particles are pushed out of
E. Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade respiratory tract by [ Page. 101]
and spongy parenchyma in monocot leaf. 1) squamous epithelium
1) A, C and E 2) A, B and C 2) glandular epithelium
3) B, C and D 4) C, D and E 3) ciliated epithelium
Ans. (1) 4) compound epithelium
Section-D : Biology Ans. (3)
Section-A 157. In which type of epithelial cells nuclei are
151. “Irregular bounderies” is the feature of which present at the base of the cell.
type of epithelium. [ Page. 102] [ Page. 101]
1) Simple cuboidal 1) columnar 2) Cuboidal
2) Simple squamous 3) Squamous 4) All of these
3) Simple columnar Ans. (1)
4) compound epithelium 158. In all of the following connective tissues cells
Ans. (2) secrete fibres of structural protein called elastin
152. Smooth muscles are [NEET-II 2016] or collagen except [ Page. 103]
1) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated 1) Blood
2) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical 2) Aveolar connective tissue
3) involuntary, cylindrical, striated 3) Adipose connective tissue
4) voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate. 4) Bone
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)
153. Our skin has 159. Which of the following property is not provided
[ 11th, Pg. 101, para 1st, last line] by elastin and collagen fibre to connective tissue
1) Compound epithelium [Most IMP] [ Page. 103]
2) Simple squamous epithelium 1) Rigidity 2) Elasticity
3) Simple caboidal epithelium 3) Flexibility 4) Strength
4) Ciliated epithelium Ans. (1)
Ans. (1) 160. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
154. Endothelium [wall] of blood vessels is made up from [NEET-2020]
of [ 12th, Page-101] 1) Squamous epithelial cells
1) Simple columnar epithelium 2) Columnar epithelial cells
2) Simple squamous epithelium 3) Chondrocytes
3) Simple cuboidal epithelium 4) Compound epithelial cells
4) Compound epithelium
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 06(44) 23 Date : 20/12/2023

161. Stratified squamous epithelium [Compound 168. Tissue is a group of ___________ cells.
Epithelium] is found in [ Page. 103] [ 11th, Pg. 100, Line 11, 12]
1) buccal cavity 2) stomach 1) Similar
3) intestine 4) spleen
2) Common
Ans. (1)
3) Intercellular cells
162. Goblet cells secrete [ Page. 102]
4) More than one are correct
1) mucus 2) enzymes
Ans. (1)
3) HCl 4) hormones
Ans. (1) 169. On the basis of structural modification, simple
epithelium is classified as
163. ____ has hard and non pliable ground substance
rich in calcium salt and collagen fibres [ 11th, Pg. 101, para 2nd]
[ Page. 104] 1) Squamous, cuboidal, columnar
1) White fibrous tissue 2) Simple and compound.
2) Bone 3) Unicellular and multicellular
3) Cartilage 4) More than one are true
4) yellow fibrous tissue
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
170. Which of the following epithelium is not called
164. Matrix of cartilage is secreted by as “ciliated epithelium”.
[ 11th, Page-104, Line-4,5,6. Read carefully]
[ 11th, Pg. 101, last 5 lines]
1) Chondrocytes 2) Fibroblats
1) Simple squamous
3) Lacunae 4) Collagen fibres
2) Simple cuboidal
Ans. (1)
165. Cells and fibres are arranged loosly in ______ 3) Simple columnar
connective tissue 4) More than 1 correct
[ 11th, Pg. 103, 2nd Para, Line 1, 2] Ans. (1)
1) Areolar 2) Adipose 171. Which of the following structure increases area
3) Both of these 4) None of these of absorption. [ Based PYQ]
Ans. (3) 1) Microvilli 2) Brush border
166. Cells of heart muscles contract as a unit, becuase 3) Cilia 4) More than 1 correct
[ 11th, Pg. 105, See cordia muscles, line 3, 4,5] Ans. (4)
1) They have cylendrical shape
172. On the basis of mode of pouring, glands are
2) They are uninucleated but appears as classified as [ 11th, Pg. 102, Line 8, 9, 10]
multinucleat structure
1) exocrine and endocrine
3) They have intercalated discs
2) unicellular and multicellular
4) All of these
Ans. (3)
3) ciliated and nonciliated
167. Which of the following is not the site where 4) more than one correct
compound epithelium is present Ans. (1)
[ 12th, Pg. 102, 2nd para] 173. Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in
1) Dry surface of skin animal body is [ 11th, Pg. 102, last para]
2) Inner lining of duct of salivary gland 1) Epithelium 2) Connective
3) Podocytes of nephrons 3) Neural 4) Muscle
4) Pancreatic duct Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 06(44) 24 Date : 20/12/2023

174. The connective tissue, which can be included 181. Match the correct pairs of muscles with their
in both soft and specialised connective tissue. unique feature.
[ 11th, Pg. 103 line 1 to 5]
Column-I Column-II
1) Areolar 2) Blood
a Fusiform muscle i Smooth muscle
3) Adipose 4) Cartilage fibres
Ans. (3) b Syncytium ii Cardiac muscle
175. Ground substance of connective tissue ___ is in c Branched fibres iii Skeletal muscle
nature [ 11th, Page-103, Line-4,5,6] d Intercalated disc
1) Protein 2) Carbohydrates
1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iii 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-ii
3) Fat 4) Steroid
3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
176. Which of the following is a “modified
182. Which is the fluid connective tissue?
polysaccharide” in connective tissue
[ 11th, Page-104, Para-3rd]
[ 11th, Page-103, Line-4,5,6]
1) Areolar
1) Ground substance
2) Elastin 2) Adepose
3) Collagen 3) Blood
4) None of these 4) Cartilage
Ans. (1) Ans. (3)
177. Which of the following types of connective 183. Which one of the following is not a connective
tissues are present beneath skin tissue? [ Exempar]
1) Areolar 1) Bone
2) Adipose 2) Cartilage
3) Dense regular 3) Blood
4) More than 1 correct 4) Muscles
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
178. Matrix of the cartix is secreted by 184. Which of the following types of cell is involved
in making of the inner walls of large blood
[ 11th, hidden informates, page 104, line-2,3]
vessels? [ Exempar]
1) Chondrocyte 2) mast cells
1) Cuboidal epithelium
3) fibroblast 4) fibrocyte
2) Columnar epithelium
Ans. (1)
3) Squamous epithelium
179. Which of the following is not related with bone
4) Stratified epithelium
a) Hard and non pliable matrix
Ans. (3)
b) Hard due to calcium salts
185. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
c) Collagen fibres gives strength to bones
[NEET-2018]
1) a, b 2) b, c
1) Proteins and lipids
3) a, b, c 4) none of these
2) DNA and RNA
Ans. (4)
3) Nucleic acids and SER
180. The space called “Lacuna” is present in
4) Free ribosomes and RER
[ 11th, Page 104, 2nd and 3rd para]
Ans. (4)
1) Bones 2) Cartilage
3) Blood 4) 1 and 2
Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 06(44) 25 Date : 20/12/2023

Section-B 190. Which of the following is true about neural
186. Statement 1 : Organs of animal body are formed tissue
by four types of tissue. a) Neuroglial cells make up more than one half
Statement 2 : Tissues are organised in specific of volume of neural tissue in our body
proportion and pattern to form different organs. b) Neural signals passes through the plasma
Out of the above statements, correct statement/ membrane (axolemma) of neuron
s is/are [ Page. 100, 1st para] c) Neurons are the only excitable cells in neural
1) 1 only 2) 2 only tissue
3) 1 and 2 both 4) None of these 1) a, b 2) b, c
Ans. (3) 3) a, c 4) a, b, c
187. Which of the following is/are the functions of Ans. (4)
fibroblast cell in connective tissue 191. The connective tissue present beneath the skin
a) Secretion of “fibres of structural proteins” and present in the skin are respectively.
i.e. elastin and collagen a) Areolar and DEnse irregular.
b) Secretion of matrix (ground substance) b) Adipose and Dense regular
c) Formation of mast cells c) Adipose and Dense irregular
[ 11th, Page-103, 1st-Para] d) Areolar and Dense regular
1) a, b 2) b, c 1) a & b only
3) a, c 4) a, b, c 2) c & d only
Ans. (1) 3) a & c only
188. Which of the following is true for epithelium. 4) b & c only
[ 11th, Pg. 101, para 1st] Ans. (3)
a) Cells are compactly packed with significant 192. Match the correct pairs of a tyre of muscle and
intercellular space. their examples. [ 11th, Page-105]
b) Has good nerve supply but poor blood Column-I Column-II
supply. a Cardiac muscle i Walls of blood vessel,
c) Free surface of epithelium faces either body stomach and intestine
fluid or outside environment. b Skeletal muscles ii Biceps
1) a, b 2) b, c c Visceral muscles iii Heart
3) a, c 4) a, b, c 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii 2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
Ans. (2) 3) a-iii, b-ii, c-ii 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
189. Match the correct pairs of types of connective Ans. (2)
tissue and it’s examples
193. Cartilage is present at [ Page. 104]
[ 11th page 103, last para]
a) Tip of nose
Column-I Column-II b) Between adjacent bones and vertebral
a Dense regular i Bone column
b Dense irregular ii Beneath skin c) outer ear joints
c Specialised iii Tendon 1) (a) and (b)
iv In the skin 2) (b) and (c)
1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv 3) (a) and (c)
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii 4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i 4) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 06(44) 26 Date : 20/12/2023

194. Identify the type of tissue shown in the figure 198. Match the correct pairs of sites of nephron and
given below. their type of epithelium.
[ 11th, Pg. 101, last para]
Column-I Column-II
a PCT i Cuboidal epithelium
1) Squamous epithelium b Tubular part of ii Columnar epithelium
2) Compound epithelium Nephron
3) Glandular epithelium c Podocytes iii Squamous epithelium
4) Columnar epithelium 1) a - i, b - ii, c - iii 2) a - iii, b - ii, c - i
Ans. (2) 3) a - ii, b - iii, c - i 4) a - i, b - i, c - iii
195. Match the correct pairs. [NEET-2022] Ans. (4)
199. Which of the following is incorrect with respect
Column-I Column-II
to junction and its function?
a Bronchioles i Dense Regular
[ Page. 102]
connective tissue
b Goblet cell ii Loose Connective 1) Tight junction – Promotes leaking of
tissue substances across a tissue
c Tendons iii Glandular Tissue 2) Adhering junction – Keeps neighbouring cells
d Adipose Tissue iv Ciliated Epithelium together
3) Gap junction – Connects the cytoplasm of
1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions and
2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) small molecules
3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 4) Gap junction – Facilitates the cells to
4) (a)-(iii), (b)- (iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) communicate with each other
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)
196. Inter calated disc contains. 200. Which of the follwoing is/are true statements.
a) Gap Junctions a) Bones are hard nonpliable due to deposition
b) Tight junctions of calcium in bone cells.
c) Desmosomes (Type of Anchoring junction) [ 11th, Pg. 104, See - Bone]
[ 11th, Pg. 104, 2nd para NCERT bases Que.] b) Cartilage is solid and plable & resists
compression.
1) a & b only 2) b & c only
3) a & c only 4) a, b & c [ 11th, Pg. 104, See-cartilage]
c) In sponges, water acts as body fluids.
Ans. (4)
[ 11th, Pg. 278, Line 7, 8]
197. Match the correct pairs.
1) a & b only
[ 11th, Pg. 101, Last para]
2) b & c only
Column-I Column-II
3) a & c only
a Simple squamous i Absorption and
epithelium secretion
4) a, b & c
b Simple caboidal ii Diffusion Ans. (2)
epithelium bounderis
c Compound iii Protection
epithelium
1) a - ii, b - i, c - iii 2) a - i, b - ii, c - iii

3) a - iii, b - ii, c - i 4) a - ii, b - ii, c - i
Ans. (1)
PCB TEST : 06(44) 27 Date : 20/12/2023

Vijay Path Test Series 6 Qp+Sol

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Mark Group Class : 12th (2023-24) Date : 20/12/2023

720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 06(44) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

11 (Write this number on

PHYSICS 3. Analogue of mass in rotational motion is

PCB TEST : 06(44) 1 Date : 20/12/2023

9. A metre scale is balanced on a knife edge at its

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12. A body of mass 2 kg makes an elastic collision

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20. A small part of the rim of a fly wheel breaks

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33. The graph between the angular momentum J 

34. Two identical balls A and B having velocities

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Sol. (3) : Conceptual 4

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Sol. (4) : Sol. (3) :

43. A shell initially at rest explodes into two pieces

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Column I Column II Sol. (2) :

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4) [New NCERT Page-309]

[New NCERT Page-313] 1) Atomic size of F is smaller than Cl, which

3) It contains two (2c, 2e) covalent bonds and

4) It contains six (2c, 2e) covalent bonds Sol. (2)

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4) [Al(OH)6]3– + 3HCl 93. Select the correct statement(s) about fullerenes

[New NCERT Page-313] 3) i and iii only 4) i, ii, iii and iv

4) i, ii and iv are correct Reason(R) : The size of an atom is very small

[New NCERT Page-309] 4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

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[New NCERT Page-80] Sol. (4)

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1) Young monocot stem

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1) a - ii, b - i, c - iii 2) a - i, b - ii, c - iii

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