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TEST 1 2017-2018
I. LISTENING ( 50 pts)
Part one. Questions 1-5, listen carefully and choose the right answer to each question.
1. What does the surgeon conclude in his study?
A. Air travel may cause headache
B. Air travel may result in insomnia
C. Air travel may result in blood clots
2. How long did the study last?
A. 8 months B. 8 weeks C. 8 years
3. How many air travellers are involved in the study?
A. 213 B. 200 C. 231
4. What drew media’s attention to the dangers of long-haul flights?
A. A British woman fainted on the plane
B. Many people claimed to have severe headaches
C. A British woman died after a long-haul flight
5. What do medical experts suggest travellers doing?
A. Sleeping as much as possible
B. Wearing warm clothes
C. Getting up and stretch the body.
Part 2. Listen to the exciting story of survival at sea, against all the odds. Decide whether following
statements are True (T) or False (F).
6. ------ Jane was sailing from Panama and had completed about a thousand miles.
7. ------Jane's boat hit a surface obstruction.
8. ------ Jane could have used the GPS to call for help.
9. ------ Jane wasn't concerned about her food rations.

10. ------Jane didn't panic because she didn't consider herself in danger.
11. ------Jane's first intention was to head further north.
12. ------Jane had more water than food.
13. ------She saw a Panamanian tanker in the first couple of days but it never stopped.
14. ------ It took more than a week before Jane began to really panic about her situation.
15. ------ If Angelo hadn't seen Jane when he did, she would probably have died.
Part 3: You are going to listen to news the world's fastest growing megacity -Draka. Fill in the missing
information with NO more than 3 words.
- (16) ---------- in Bangladesh is over 78 inches, and two-thirds of the country’s 64 districts experience
regular flooding.
- Dhaka is adding more than (17) ---------- a year.
- Micro-economies become even (18) ---------- because of floods.
- Many unskilled people find work in the (19) ---------- economy.
- In order to (20) ---------- to provide better services and solve problems like traffic congestion, the city
needs to bring these people out of the shadow economy.
- In Dhaka’s heyday, it was one of the (21) ---------- and (22) ----------ties on the planet.
- Dhaka fell into two centuries of (23) ---------- that saw its status decline.
- The great migration is (24) ---------- the city’s infrastructure and services.
- A dozen or more national authorities, mostly run by (25) ----------control Dhaka’s police, utilities and
roadways.
Your answers
Page 1 of 102 pages

16. 17.
18. 19.
20. 21.
22. 23.
24. 25.
II. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY ( 30 pts)

Part 1. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences.
26. Let’s ________the place, it looks so gloomy and unpleasant.
A. miss B. abandon C. depart D. disappear
27. The party was already in full ________when we arrived.
A. flood B. swing C. cry D. career
28. She went under ________as a waiter to write an article on tipping.
A. mask B. act C. pose D. cover
29. There is a new _____ to our family. My mother has just given birth to a baby.
A. growth B. admission C. topping D. addition
30. The bus arrived _____ on time.
A. slim B. clean C. dead D. live
31. I don’t want to burden my daughter with my problems; she’s got too much _____
A. up her sleeve B. in her mind C. in effect D. on her plate
32. Because so much wheat has been sold to other countries, local supplies are _____ .
A. expanded B. depleted C. apprehended D. preoccupied
33. That human rights are _____ is unacceptable in a civilized society.
A. infringed B. impeached C. abrogated D. quashed
34. The government has promised to reduce _____ to enable companies to implement their plans more
quickly.
A. piecework B. subsidies C. red tape D. industrial espionage
35. We live in a _____ society where shopping is all-important.
A. customer B. consumer C. consumption D. civil
Your answers
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
Part 2: The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the corrections in te
corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
1 It is ironic that the very things that are supposed to provide access of the upper floors of
2 buildings – stairs – often, in fact, make them accessible. For many elder people and
3 others with limited mobility, getting upstairs can be a daily problem to be overcome.
4 However, stairlifts have been helping people solve that problem since they first appeared
5 in the US in the 1930s. Designs have undergone many changes over the years and
6 stairlifts have become progressive safer and easier to use. Mostly consist of a seat which
7 moves along rails that run along the wall.
8 The user controls how rapid the seat moves along the rails as it travels from the
9 bottom of the stairs to the landing at the top. In today’s models, the movement is
10 controlled by computers to give a smooth ride and the components are designed to
11 withstand constantly use. Many people have been given a new lease of life by the
stairlift.
Page 2 of 102 pages
Part 4: Complete each space in the text with a word formed from the word in capitals
This famous (0) sailing ship was built in 1869 and originally used for the
(46) _____transportation of tea between China and England. However, the SAIL
(47) _____of steam ships and the opening of the Suez Canal, which was (48) 46. SPEED
_____for such ships as the Cutty Sark, stole 47. CONSTRUCT
some of her initial glory. 48. PASS
She was not a strong (49) _____in the sea races from China to England but 49. COMPETE
later, between 1885 and 1895, she was (50) _____for speed as she carried 50. RIVAL
wool between Melbourne and New York. After working history and several 51. OWNER
changes in (51)_____, the ship was (52) _____restored in the fifties and a 52. LOVE
dry dock was built so that the Cutty Sark could be used as a museum. (53) 53. DONATE
_____ are once again being requested as there is urgent need of (54) _____ 54. FAR
work on the ship. 55. DERIVE
Strangly, the figurehead represents a beautiful witch in a Scottish poem who
was pursuing a man at great speed on a grey horse. At the time, she had
been wearing only a short shirt or “Cutty Sark”. Few people know that this
is the(55) _____of the name.
III/ READING
Part 1: For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context.
Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near future because
they have been (56)_______ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are found
nowhere else in the world but they are (57)_______ by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs,
rodents and (58)_______ plants.
The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to (59)_______ the extinction of the 182 rare
Hawaiian plants with fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the (60)_______ . Since 1990, (61)_______ a
result of their "Plant Extinction Prevention Program", sixteen species have been brought into (62)_______
and three species have been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and fencing put
up in order to (63)_______ plants in the wild.
In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (64)_______ collecting genetic material
from the remaining plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to manage
wild populations and where possible reintroduce species into (65)_______ .
56. A. developed B. reduced C. disappeared D.increased
57.A. conserved B. guarded C. invested D. threatened
58. A. native B. national C. international D. non-native
59. A. prevent B. influence C. encourage D. stimulate
60.A. wild B. sky C. hole D. atmosphere
61. A. so B. due C. as D. but
62. A. contamination B. production C. cultivation D. generation
63. A. derive B. vary C. remain D. protect
64. A. at B. on C. with D. for
65. A. shelters B. reserves C. gardens D. halls
Part 4: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions that follow by
circling A,B,C or D.
Page 3 of 102 pages

Many prehistoric people subsisted as hunters and gatherers. Undoubtedly, game animals, including some
very large species, provided major components of human diets. An important controversy centering on the
question of human effects on prehistoric wildlife Line concerns the sudden disappearance of so many
species of large animals at or near the end of the Pleistocene epoch. Most paleontologists suspect that abrupt
changes in climate led to the mass extinctions. Others, however, have concluded that prehistoric people
drove many of those species to extinction through overhunting. In their "Pleistocene overkill hypothesis,"
they cite what seems to be a remarkable coincidence between the arrival of prehistoric peoples in North and
South America and the time during which mammoths, giant ground sloths, the giant bison, and numerous
other large mammals became extinct.
Perhaps the human species was driving others to extinction long before the dawn of history. Hunter-
gatherers may have contributed to Pleistocene extinctions in more indirect ways. Besides overhunting, at
least three other kinds of effects have been suggested: direct competition, imbalances between competing
species of game animals, and early agricultural practices. Direct competition may have brought about the
demise of large carnivores such as the saber-toothed cats. These animals simply may have been unable to
compete with the increasingly sophisticated hunting skills of Pleistocene people. Human hunters could have
caused imbalances among game animals,
leading to the extinctions of species less able to compete. When other predators such as the gray wolf prey
upon large mammals, they generally take high proportions of each year crop of young. Some human
hunters, in contrast, tend to take the various age-groups of large animals in proportion to their actual
occurrence. If such hunters first competed with the larger predators and then replaced them. They may have
allowed more young to survive each year, gradually increasing the populations of favored species As these
populations expanded, they in turn may have competed with other game species for the same environmental
niche, forcing the less hunted species into extinction. This theory, suggests that human hunters played an
indirect role in Pleistocene extinctions by hunting one species more than another.
Questions:
86. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The effects of human activities on prehistoric wildlife
(B) The origins of the hunter-gatherer way of life
(C) The diets of large animals of the Pleistocene epoch
(D) The change in climate at the end of the Pleistocene epoch
87. The word "Undoubtedly" in line I is closest in meaning to
(A) occasionally (B) unexpectedly (C) previously (D) certainly
88. The word "components" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) parts (B) problems (C) changes (D) varieties
89. Which of the following is mentioned as supporting the Pleistocene overkill hypothesis?
(A) Many of the animals that became extinct were quite large.
(B) Humans migrated into certain regions around the time that major extinctions occurred.
(C) There is evidence that new species were arriving in areas inhabited by humans.
(D) Humans began to keep and care for certain animals.
90. The word "Besides" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) caused by (B) whereas (C) in addition to (D) in favor of
91. The author mentions saber-toothed cats in line 16 as an example of a carnivore that
(A) became extinct before the Pleistocene epoch (B) was unusually large for its time
(C) was not able to compete with humans (D) caused the extinction of several species
92. The word "they" in line 20 refers to
(A) human hunters (B) game animals (C) other predators (D) large mammals
93. According to the passage, what is one difference between the hunting done by some humans and the
hunting done by gray wolves?
Page 4 of 102 pages

(A) Some humans hunt more frequently than gray wolves.
(B) Gray wolves hunt in larger groups than some humans.
(C) Some humans can hunt larger animals than gray wolves can hunt.
(D) Some humans prey on animals of all ages, but gray wolves concentrate their efforts on young
animals.
94. The word "favored" in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) large (B) escaping (C) preferred (D) local
95. According to the passage, the imbalances discussed in paragraph 3 may have resulted from
(A) the effect of climate changes on large game animals
(B) large animals moving into a new environment
(C) humans hunting some species more than others
(D) older animals not being able to compete with younger animals
PART IV: WRITING (60 pts)

Part 1:
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given.
Don’t change the word given. You must use between three and eight words including the word given.
96. Pete meant well so you musn’t be offended by his comments. AMISS
→ Please ……………………………………………………………because he meant well.
97. Jane said she was unlikely to be going to the reunion that evening. OF
→Jane said there ……………………………………………………………to the reunion that evening.
98. He’s afraid that his company will make him redundant. RANKS
→ He fears that he will ……………………………………………………………
99. I promised her that the situation would not be repeated in the future. WORD
→ I ……………………………………………………………no repetition of the situation in the future.
100. Only the usual, everyday things happen here. OUT
→ Nothing ……………………………………………………………
Essay: It is generally believed that some people are born with certain talents, for instance for sport or
music, and others are not. However, it is sometimes claimed that any child can be taught to become a good
sports person or musician.
Discuss both these views and give your own opinion.
I. LISTENING
Part one. Questions 1-5, listen carefully and choose the right answer to each question.
Your answer:
1.C 2.A 3.C 4.C 5.C
Part 2. Listen to the exciting story of survival at sea, against all the odds. Decide whether following
statements are True (T) or False (F).
6.F 7.T 8.F 9.T 10.F
11.T 12.T 13.F 14.T 15.T
Part 3: You are going to listen to news the world's fastest growing megacity -Draka. Fill in the missing
information with NO more than 3 words.
Your answers
16.Annual rainfall 17.400,000 residents
18.less sustainable 19.off-the books
20.raise revenue 21.wealthiest
Page 5 of 102 pages

22.most preperous 23.turmoil
24.overwhelming 25.political appointees
II. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY

26.B 27.B 28.D 29.D 30.C
31.D 32.B 33.A 34.C 35.B
Part 2: The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the corrections in the
Line Mistake Correction
36. 1 Of to
37. 2 Elder elderly
38. 6 Mostly Most
39. 7 Rapid rapidly
40. 11 Constantly constant
Part 3. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition or a particle to complete the following sentences
41.on 42.up for 43.away 44. on 45.off
Part 4: Complete each space in the text with a word formed from the word in capitals
46.speedy 47.construction 48.impassable 49.competitor 50.unrivalled

51.ownership 52.lovingly 53.Donations 54.further 55.derivation
III/ READING
Part 1: For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context.
56.B 57.D 58. D 59.A 60.A
61.C 62.B 63.D 64.A 65.B
Part 2: You are going to read an extract from an article about modern art and whether it can be called
'art'. For questions 66-75, choose from the people (A, B, C or D). The people may be chosen more than
once.
1. C 2. D 3.A 4.B 5.A
6.D 7.C 8.B 9.C 10.D
Part 3: Read the passage and do the tasks.
76.C 77.G 78.B 79.A
80.H 81.D 82.E 83.F
Questions 84-85:
84.Perseverance 85.catapult
Part 4: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions that follow by
circling A,B,C or D.
86.A 87.D 88.A 89.B 90.C
91.C 92.C 93.D 94. C 95.C
PART IV: WRITING.

Part 1:
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given.
Don’t change the word given. You must use between three and eight words including the word given.
96. ……….don’t take Pete’s comments amiss
97. ……….. there was a little likelihood/chance of her going ……..
98. ………joins the ranks of the ……
Page 6 of 102 pages

99. I gave her my word that there would be ……
100. …….. out of the ordinary (ever) happens
TEST 2
I. LISTENING (50 points)
Part 2: Listen to a TED Talks speech entitled ‘The Danger of Silence’. For questions 6-10, choose the correct
answer (A, B or C) for each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes.
6. The speaker refers to Dr Martin Luther King in order to _______.
A. condemn ignorance and silence
B. elucidate his pedagogies and principles of teaching poetry
C. vindicate the Civil Rights Movement by his internalisation
7. The speaker feels that he has spent his life _______.
A. compromising the truth to please others
B. doing whatever is needed to expose the truth
C. making no sacrifices to reveal the truth
8. The speaker looks back, with hindsight, on various instances of injustice with _______.
A. dignity of the right thing he did
B. remorse for his indifference
C. revulsion against the world he lives in
9. The speaker feels we should be focusing more on _______.
A. being all ears
B. silence and contemplation rather than nonsense talk
C. what is usually taken as read
10. At the end of his speech, the speaker undertakes to be more _______.
A. accommodating
B. outspoken
C. self-sacrificing in the interests of others
Part 3: Listen to part of a National Geographic documentary. For questions 11–15, decide which statements
are TRUE or FALSE according to what you hear. Write NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the
statement. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
11. ............................................................................................................................................................ S
teve McCurry studied journalism at college.
12. ............................................................................................................................................................ H
e once wanted to be a travel photographer.
13. ............................................................................................................................................................ H
e’s retiring after 30 years with National Geographic.
14. ............................................................................................................................................................ H
e’s looking for 36 shots to take on the roll of film.
15. ............................................................................................................................................................ H
e’s decided to shoot all the frames at Grand Central Station.
Part 4: Listen to some pieces of VOA news. For question 16-25, write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes.
In just two weeks, China has announced and has now voted with near unanimous approval to amend
(16)___________and give the party state's powerful leader Xi Jinping a mandate to stay in office indefinitely.
Page 7 of 102 pages

On Sunday, an amendment to cancel a two-term limit on the office of the president was approved along with
(17)___________. The amendments passed smoothly in the rubber-stamp National People's Congress.
Hong Kong saw low turnout numbers for an election Sunday to replace four lawmakers disqualified over oaths
last year that the Chinese (18)___________
Fifteen candidates are running to fill the four seats that were vacated when the oaths by pro-democracy
lawmakers were declared invalid, a move that critics say was (19)___________. China on Sunday said it does
not intend to ignite a trade war with the U.S. because that would be disastrous for the entire world.
The Minister of Commerce Zhong Shan said at China's annual parliamentary session, "China does not wish to
fight a trade war, nor will China initiate a trade war, but we can handle any challenge and will resolutely defend
the interests of our country and our people.”
All 11 people aboard a private Turkish jet died Sunday after the jet crashed into a mountainside and
(20)___________during heavy rain in southern Iran.
Mattis said on Sunday that "right now" the United States is "getting reports" that Syrian President Bashar al-
Assad's forces are (21)___________in their three-week-long advance against the rebels outside the capital,
Damascus. In that advance, nearly 1,000 people have died, 200 of them children.
People in Cameroon have freed 40 of the more than 100 women arrested while trying to ask President Paul Biya
to negotiate a peaceful political transition. Biya has been in power (22)___________. They are also calling [him]
on him to solve the crisis caused by separatist groups demanding the independence of the English-speaking from
the French-speaking regions of the central African state.
Last October, secessionist groups declared the independence of the English-speaking southwest and northwest
regions of Cameroon they call Ambazonia, declaring Ayuk Tabe Julius, who was in exile in Nigeria, as their
president. Armed conflicts erupted prompting a crackdown of the military. Biya has ruled Cameroon since
November 1982. His party supporters have been calling on him to (23)___________again in elections expected
by September this year.
Thousands stood in silent respect in the southern Macedonian city of Bitola Sunday to (24)___________of the
Nazi Holocaust of Jews during World War II. All but a handful of Macedonian Jews were slaughtered by the
Nazis.
Sunday was the (25)___________of the deportation of more than 7,000 Macedonian Jews to Nazi death camps in
Poland.
Your answers
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1. For questions 1–10, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions and
write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only _____ the hot, humid air.
A. stirred up B. poured through C. turned into D. cut back
2. He set one alarm-clock for five o’clock and the other for five past so as to _____ that he did not oversleep.
A. assure B. ensure C. insure D. reassure
3. When Tim was eating a cherry, he accidentally swallowed the _____.
A. nut B. stone C. seed D. core
4. He was ________ with bribery after she offered to pay the policeman a sum of money to overlook the offence.
A. charged B. accused C. sued D. suspected
5. Some endurance events may be rescheduled if such high pollution levels ________ a health risk to most
athletes.
A. create B. present C. run D. face
Page 8 of 102 pages

6. Improving the overall environmental quality is a long-term battle in which we do want the participation of
everyone in society in order to ________ results.
A. realize B. reap C. bear D. generate
7. Hundreds of people in the hardest-hit zone are at ________ from disease unless a tsunami-like aid effort is
mobilized.
A. threat B. menace C. risk D. danger
8. The result is impossible to predict with any degree of ________.
A. certainty B. assurance C. insurance D. probability
9. With three days to ________ before the high school graduation examination, he had to digest such a lot of
facts.
A. go B. come C. remain D. spare
10. Television came into _________ and became a competitor with the motion pictures.
A. practice B. enforcement C. use D. life
Part 3. For questions 16-20, find the mistakes in the following sentences and correct them and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Question 16: You should know by now that I cannot stand it when my steak is not cooked properly as I always
have mine well-made.
Question 17: An important factor should be considered is Mr. Lopez's ability to keep the new restaurant going
for several months with limited revenue.
Question 18: When one opens an account at Dominion Savings and Loan, you can get the first set of checks for
free.
Question 19: Mobility is one of the characteristics often demanded of executives, and they must accustom
themselves to move quite regularly.
Question 20: Not until recent has interest in synthetic fuels been revived.
Part 4. For questions 21–30, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided
below. (0) has been done as an example.
Performance Art
Performance Art began in the 1960s in the US and was (0) originally (origin) a term used to
describe a live event that often included poets, (21) (music)________, film makers and so on, in (22)
(add)________to visual artists.
There were earlier (23) (precede)________for this art form, including the Dadaists in France, who
combined poetry and visual arts, and the Bauhaus in Germany, whose members used live theatre (24)
(work)________to explore the (25) (relation)________between space, sound and light. By 1970, Performance
Art was a (26) (globe)________term and its definition had become more specific. Performances had to be
live and they had to be art, not theatre.
Performance Art could not be bought, sold or traded. Performance artists saw their movement as a
means of taking art directly to the public, thus completely eliminating the need for galleries, agents, (27)
(account)________and any other aspect of (28) (capital)________. In effect, it became a social commentary
on the need to maintain the absolute (29)(pure)________of art.
One relatively recent form of Performance Art is ‘mobbing’, an email-driven experiment in
organizing groups of people who suddenly (30) (material)________in public places, interact with others
according to a very loosely planned scenario, and they disappear just as suddenly as they appeared.
III. READING (60 points)
Page 9 of 102 pages

Part 1. For questions 31–40, fill each of the following numbered spaces with ONE suitable word and write
your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example.
A DNA fingerprint __of___ (0) every active criminal in Britain will be taken _________ (31) part of government
plans ___________ (32) a wide-ranging overhaul of the criminal justice system, the Prime Minister said
yesterday.
In his first public announcement ____________ (33) returning from holiday, Tony Blair promised to deliver a
courts system fit for the 21st century. Addressing police officers in Kent, in southern England, he accused the
courts of being __________ (34) for their own convenience and promised to ensure that victims, witnesses and
police giving evidence would receive more respect.
Mr Blair declared the justice system archaic, saying it hindered police efforts to keep up with organised crime,
and announced a 107 million package to expand the DNA database. According to a government spokesman, the
____________ (35) should hold more than three million samples _________ (36) to almost the whole criminal
class of the UK.
'I think we _______ (37) effectively got a 19th century justice system in a 21st century world,' the Prime Minister
said.
'We have totally ____________ (38) to keep up to date with the fact that we have got major organised crime
operating in a completely different way to 50 or 60 years ago,' he said.
Mr Blair stressed that he was ________ (39) favour of so-called zero tolerance and wanted a law-abiding society
based on courtesy _________ (40) others.
The Independent
Part 2: Read the following passage. For questions 41–50, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to
the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Ancient Angkor
In the regions of Southeast Asia dwell the remains of an era that far exceeded its time in developments
and industrialization. This ancient city, which was mysteriously deserted in the 15th century, is known as Angkor.
Located in Cambodia, Angkor was established in 802 CE as the seat of the Khmer Empire. Khmer was the
largest continuous empire in Southeast Asia. Its main city of Angkor grew and developed until it was abandoned
in the year 1431. Many historians theorize as to why it was abandoned, but the mystery remains.
Angkor was a city of power, industry, architecture, and cultural unity, which is why speculation
surrounds its decline. The ancient Khmer city stretched over an area of nearly 120 square miles, comparable to
present-day Los Angeles. Each successive ruler to the throne brought significant additions that diversified the
territory. One ruler is known for constructing a baray, a massive water reservoir. Another built the imposing
Angkor Wat, a temple of great proportions that survived the city’s demise and exists today as a Buddhist temple.
Along with over seventy other temples in the region, Angkor was home to an expansive waterworks of marked
ingenuity when nothing of its kind existed in the world. The civilization was structured around the Mekong
River. Intricate and sophisticated irrigation systems were fashioned to transport water to people and fields in all
parts of the city, including those removed from the central water source. For this, the city became known as the
“Hydraulic City.” The people of Angkor were led by an extensive court system, made up of religious and secular
nobles as well as artisans, fishermen, rice farmers, soldiers, and elephant keepers. The civilization was guarded
by an army transported by elephants and ruled by shrewd and powerful kings. Yet after 600 years of existence,
an abandoned shell was all that remained.
The land, buildings, and architecture were reclaimed by the surrounding forest regions until the 19th
century, when French archaeologists discovered the remains and began restoring sites in the great city of
Angkor. Since then, theories have evolved over time relating to the death of Angkor’s civilization. The first
theory states that the city fell because of war. The last two centuries of Angkor’s existence showed a decline in
the Khmer Empire’s population and power. Ongoing wars with neighboring Thailand had devastated the nation.
In 1431, attackers from Thai nations invaded and looted Angkor, leaving it desolate and vacant. Continuous war
Page 10 of 102 pages

with Thailand culminating in a final attack on the city could have weakened the empire and led to the city’s
demise.
Another theory states that a change in religion led to the country’s downfall. The Khmer Empire had
predominately been a Hindu nation, and the people were unified in their religion. Jayavarman VII, acclaimed as
the greatest of Angkor’s kings, took the throne in 1181 CE. He instituted a change in religion from Hinduism to
Mahayana Buddhism. This action subsequently could have destroyed the unity of the people and the overall
foundation of the empire.
◼ A) Natural disaster in another feasible possibility for the scattering of people from the Angkor region. ◼B)
Historians say earthquakes, floods, and drastic climate changes would have been capable of stripping Angkor of
its people. ◼C) One researcher hypothesized that the city suffered from a lack of water due to the transition from
the medieval warm period to the little ice age. Others dismiss this idea. ◼D)
However, a recently developed theory built on the work of French archaeologist Bernard-Philippe Groslier
may have shed the most light on Angkor’s demise. The theory suggests that the Angkorian civilization was
“defined, sustained, and ultimately overwhelmed by over-exploitation and the environmental impacts of a
complex water-management network.” Its vast waterworks proved too great for the city to manage. Also,
supplying such a massive empire with water had adverse effects on the environment. Ecological problems
included deforestation, topsoil degradation, and erosion due in part to clearing vegetation for cropland. Thus, the
city inadvertently brought about its own environmental collapse.
With the use of aerial photography and high-resolution, ground-sensing radar, researchers were able to
support Groslier’s theory with images that complete existing topographical maps. The radar detected surface
structures as well as subtle variances in surface vegetation and soil moisture. This proved that environmental
erosion had occurred. The combined images and ground-based investigations further revealed that Angkor was a
victim of its own industrial ingenuity, a city ahead of its time and vulnerable to its own power.
41.The author mentions the Khmer Empire in paragraph 1 in order to ________.
A.establish the size and importance of the civilization
B. explain the downfall of the main city in the empire
C. compare the nation’s size to a present-day location
D.demonstrate why people were not loyal to the city
42.The word speculation in the passage is closest meaning to________.
A.evidence B. mystery C. question D. growth
43. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about the waterworks built within Angkor?
A.They transported drinking water to Angkor Wat.
B. They were a money-making venture for the city.
C. They were built to extend the water supply.
D. They irrigated fields along the sides of the river.
44. All of the following are true about the city of Angkor EXCEPT_______.
A. It was built around a water source.
B. It had an advanced road system.
C. It surpassed other cities of its time.
D. It is home to a Buddhist shrine.
45.The word its in the passage refers to_______.
A.Angkor’s B. baray’s C. waterworks’ D. home’s
46.Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence?
Incorrect choices may change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Archaeologists built a replica of what Angkor looked like.
B. Archaeologists uncovered the overgrown city and rebuilt its sites.
C. Finding the city, workers cleared the forest and studied the architecture.
D. The city’s architecture was inspired by the forest regions nearby.
47.What can be inferred from paragraph 4 about the people who inhabited Angkor?
A.They worshipped ruler Jayavarman VII.

B. Hinduism was central to their way of life.
C. Religion led to more violence among them.
D.They were unified regardless of national religion.
48. Look at the four squares [◼] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage
These natural catastrophes would have likely resulted in destroyed buildings, ruined cops, and a
decreased water supply that would have forced citizens to leave.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. first square B. second square C. third square D. fourth square.
49.The word inadvertently in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. purposely B. freely C. sadly D. accidentally
50. According to paragraph 7, which of the following did researchers prove about Groslier’s theory with the
use of aerial photography and advanced radar?
A. The surface soil showed evidence of dirt washing away.
B. The waterworks were filled with topsoil.
C. Vegetation was thriving where soil was deeper.
D. Soil damage was stable throughout the changes.
Part 3. For questions 51–60, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
IS THE SENSE OF BEAUTY INNATE OR LEARNED?
Beauty is the (51) ______of a thing or person that gives you pleasure. Inner beauty refers to psychological
factors, such as intelligence, kindness, compassion, and honesty. Outer beauty, or physical attractiveness, refers
to factors such as looks, health, youthfulness, and symmetry.
Is the ability to (52) ______ physical or psychological attractiveness innate or learned? Is beauty objective or
subjective? There is some (53) ______ that the sense of beauty is subjective and culturally relative. The popular
saying “beauty is in the eye of the beholder” tells us that different people have different opinions about what is
beautiful. For example, most Westerners (54) ______ a woman with a wide mouth attractive, while many
Chinese regard a woman with a small mouth as beautiful. During part of China’s history, women with big feet
were considered to be ugly. Traditional Chinese foot-binding was (55) ______ to keep a woman’s feet tiny and
thus “beautiful”. To people in the modern world, the foot-binding of women was painful, horrible, and ugly.
These two examples suggest that some ideas about beauty are learned and (56) ______ to change.
On the other hand, research indicates that a (57) ______ for beautiful faces occurs early in a child’s development.
A small child plays with facially attractive dolls longer than with facially unattractive dolls. Children innately
pay attention to the beauty of nature.
People from various cultures and periods of time may have slightly different ideas about beauty. (58)______,
they usually share many standards of beauty. A kind, honest, and intelligent individual is attractive. So is a
healthy, youthful person with a mathematically average face and a (59) ______body. The appreciation of many
aspects of both inner beauty and outer beauty is innate.
Many aspects of beauty have been valued throughout human history. Our (60) ______ of beauty is innate, though
that innate sense may be influenced by the environment.
51.A. quality B. sense C. idea D. thought

52.A. comment B. define C. share D. denounce
53.A. option B. format C. evidence D. science
54.A. consider B. discover C. conclude D. doubt
55.A. intended B. viewed C. decided D. accused

56.A. resistant B. aimed C. meant D. subject
57.A. preference B. prefer C. preferment D. preferring
58.A. In addition B. Nonetheless C. For example D. Accordingly
59.A. well-done B. well-made C. well-proportioned D. well-formed
60.A. notion B. criticism C. concern D. Imagination
Part 4. Read the following passage and answer questions 61-70.
Weakness of the school system

A. By attempting to fit in as much as possible, the school day is continually being added to. In many ways, this
would appear to be a good idea, as our knowledge and understanding of the world is always growing and it
would seem logical to incorporate this into schools. The reality, however, has some decided drawbacks. There is
a growing feeling amongst many that the modern school curriculum, in an effort to teach as many varied subjects
as possible, is actually teaching students less. It seems that by constantly adding to what should be taught in the
classroom, the classes are less focused, not offering the deeper learning that institutions perhaps should.
B. With classes sometimes only 30 minutes long, the overwhelming amount of information teachers are required
to present often only gives students time to learn facts, not to think in any great detail about what they are being
presented with. The problem is that students are not getting the opportunity to absorb what they are being taught
as the curriculum expands in order to keep what has already been taught and supplement it with everything new
that comes along. The weaknesses of such a system are clear – well informed though such students may be, there
is the risk of an increasing number of graduates who have no real creative or intellectual ability. By denying
students the opportunity to sit and think their way through problems, or even consider their own opinion, some
schools are not always providing a truly educational atmosphere. There are, of course, certain aspects of
education which need to be taught by simply inputting the information. Basic mathematics, for example. But
there are many other subjects which could be best learned by having an opportunity to think and discuss what is
being taught. Literature, writing and the social sciences are good examples of subjects which cannot be
considered as ‘covered’ by a mass of information without the opportunity to discuss, debate or consider meaning
or implications. There are also important social skills to be learned during such periods of open discussion, skills
which are not addressed by an endless flow of teacher-centred information.
C. Teachers themselves have also voiced concerns about the amount of information they are required to impress
upon their students. There is a feeling in many educational establishments that students are no longer being
educated, but taught how to pass tests. In a world where academic success is too often measured by examination
results, this is a serious concern. If there is too much information to simply be memorised and not enough time to
truly assimilate it, what happens to students who fail to meet the grade? By current standards, they are failures,
yet they may have great potential in areas not covered by the test and there are many students who, despite clear
intellectual ability, simply do not perform well in tests. Again, the problem is one of focus, as education
authorities are looking at the outcome of schooling rather than the content presented in the class.
D. It is here that many teachers feel the situation could be addressed at a local level. By giving more discretion to
teachers, school courses could be tailored to suit the students rather than tailoring students to meet ever-
expanding course requirements. In addition, by running a curriculum that gives options rather than defines an
entire course, considerably more freedom would be possible. As it is, progression through most primary and
secondary schools is regimented, and there is little room for students to identify and develop their own skills and
strengths. If material could be chosen on the basis of its merits rather than simply because it has been put in the
curriculum, then what is selected may be taught to a depth that would serve some purpose. There is, of course, a
counter-argument, which claims that such open guidelines could lead to vast differences in standards between
schools. What one teacher may see as essential for a student’s education, another may see as irrelevant, and this
will result in students with widely different educational strengths.

E. With such a high-pressure learning environment, there are also a number of social aspects to schooling which
need to be considered. The increased student workload cannot be covered in the classroom alone for the simple
reason that there is not enough time in the average school week, and much of this extra workload has been
pushed into the realm of homework. At its best, homework should be the opportunity to look in greater detail at
what has been studied. In other words, to actually think about it and its relevance. The reality, however, is often
very different. Concerned parents and overextended students are finding that homework is taking an increasingly
large part of a student’s evening, cutting into time many feel should be spent as part of a child’s social education.
Other social pressures have compounded the situation, as many of the areas of educating a young child which
should be the responsibility of the parents have ill-advisedly become the school’s responsibility. Drug awareness
and health issues, for example, are occupying an increasingly large part of the school day.
F. Many people believe that we should be teaching less, but teaching it better, and it is here that they think a
solution can be found. Yet the process of rewriting a curriculum to incorporate only that which is essential but
can be well learned would take far longer than most educational authorities have, and would be considered by
many to be a ‘regressive’ step. Changes in the curriculum have largely been motivated by changes in the nature
of employment, as job mobility demands that people know something about considerably more areas than were
traditionally necessary. A little about a lot allows for the job mobility which has become so common. No matter
what the final verdict may be, one thing is for sure – change will be slow, and not always for the best.
For questions 61-66, choose the most suitable headings for sections A–F from the list below. Use each
heading once only. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
i. A question of time
ii. Lack of teacher training
iii. Student success
iv. The argument for flexibility
v. Importance of teaching experience
vi. Extra-curricular pressures
vii. The benefits of a varied curriculum
viii. Imbalanced focus
ix. Over-reliance on examinations
x. Quality of quantity?
61.Section A
62.Section B
63.Section C
64.Section D
65.Section E
66.Section F
For questions 67-70, do the following statements agree with the views of the writer?
Write YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement does not agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage
67.No subjects can be comprehensively learned without time to discuss and debate the facts.
68.Tests are a fair measure of ability.
69.Schools are trying to be responsible for too many aspects of a child’s education.
70.Future changes in the curriculum will improve the situation.

Part 3. Advances in technology and automation have reduced the need for manual labour. Therefore
working hours should be reduced.
To what extent do you agree?
Write an essay of about 350 words to express your opinion. Give reasons for your answers and include any
relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.
ANSWER KEY- GRADE 11
ANSWER KEY- GRADE 11
I. LISTENING 22. addition 77. D

23. precedents 78. A
Part 1. Note question 3, 4: in any 24. workshops 79. C
order 25. relationship 80. F
1. 7/ Seven years 26. global 81. B
2. Flu vaccine 27. accountants 82. D
3. (Your) close relationships 28. capitalism
4. Social integration 29. purity
5. 3 30. materialize
Part 2:
6. A III. READING
7. A 31. as
8. B 32. for
9. C 33. since
10. B 34. run
Part 3: 35. database
11. F 36. equivalent
12. T 37. have
13. NG 38. failed
14. T 39. in
15. F 40. to/towards
Part 4: 41. A
16. the country's constitution 42. C
17. 20 other changes 43.
18. government declared 44.
improper 45. C
19. politically motivated 46. B
20. burst into flames 47. C
21. using chlorine gas 48. B
22. for 36 years 49. B
23. run for president 50. C
24. remember the victims 51. D
25. 75th anniversary 52. A
53. A
II. LEXICO GRAMMAR 54. B
1. A 55. C
2. B 56. A
3. B 57. A
4. A 58. D
5. D 59. A
6. A 60. B
7. C 61. C
8. A 62. A
9. A 63. X
10. C 64. viii
11. Into 65. ix
12. After 66. iv
13. Down 67. vi
14. With 68. i
15. Up with 69. NO
16. well-made-> well done 70. NO
17. should be-> that/ which 71. YES
should be 72. NO
18. you-> he 73. F
19. move-> moving 74. A
20. recent-> recently 75. E
21. musicians 76. B
TEST 3:
PART 1. (10pts)
You will hear an interview with physics teacher Kieran Shaw, who has taken his students to a Science
Fair. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
1. What does Kieran criticise about the previous Science Fair?
A. the number of prizes B. the standard of judging
C. the quality of the projects D. the number of projects
2. Which does Kieran believe is a problem among his students?
A. parents giving students too much help
B. more boys than girls involved in projects
C. rich students having more resources for projects
D. too much emphasis on competition rather than cooperation
3. Kieran says the most important factor in choosing a topic is whether it is likely to
A. need expensive equipment in order to do experiments.
B. keep the students interested throughout the project.
C. be sufficiently simple for students of that age group.
D. differ significantly from the topics chosen by others.
4. According to Kieran, what mistake do some students make during their presentation?
A. They don’t go into enough detail about their project.
B. They can’t remember the speech they memorised.
C. They tend to speak too slowly to the judges.
D. They use words they don’t fully understand.
5. Kieran predicts that this year’s winner will be the project about
A. the variation in people’s eyesight during the day.
B. the relative cleanliness of different objects.
C. the coolest clothes to wear in summer.
D. the best place to store fruit.
PART 2. (10pts)
You will hear a radio feature about camping wild. Decide whether the following statement true (T) or
false (F).
1. Some people go camping wild because they wish to commune with nature.
2. Backpackers must ask for permission to camp on someone’s land in Britain.
3. Clive suggests that campers stick to civilized countryside to begin with.
4. Tinned food is a good idea for camping wild because of the lightness and convenience.
5. According to Clive, camping wild is popular because it allows a sense of solitude that is rarely felt.
PART 4. (20pts)
You will hear a piece of news from VOA. Fill in each gap with a word/ short phrase from the
recording (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS).
Asia-Pacific plays a more significant role in the future of the United States than any other region. It
takes up one-third of the world's population, produces one-third of global GDP, and has some of the most
(1)…………………….. in the world. However, some real security and economic challenges have been
found in the Asia-Pacific region. The (2) …………………….. of North Korea, the rise of an authoritarian
China, the increase of terrorism and (3) …………………….. and other problems are (4)
…………………….. prospects for stability and growth in some countries. These problems will only be
resolved by strong, determined leadership.
16
In response to North Korea's nuclear and (5) …………………….. capabilities, the United States
initiated a ‘maximum pressure campaign' against North Korea by restricting North Korean diplomatic
activities, (6) …………………….. all trade ties and tightening (7) …………………….. on North Korea.
Although the US shows its desire for a productive relationship and resolving differences, they will not
tolerate any attempts to (8)…………………….. its position in Asia.
Finally, the US continues to collaborate with APEC to promote high standards and fair trade.
President Trump's (9)…………………….. is expanding and deepening (10)……………………..
throughout the region to ensure that the United States is a Pacific power and will remain committed to this
region's success.
Part 1. (10 points)
For questions 1 - 20, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and
write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. ___________ is a phrase which describes a situation in which one must take a chance that whatever is
available will prove to be good or acceptable..
A. Potshot B. Pepper pot C. Pot luck D. Melting pot
2. What stands out from The Voice Kids is that many young children are ______________ with natural
talent for music.
A. bestowed B. conferred C. endowed D. vouchsafed
3. While backpacking in a quiet, traditional region, I came across the seemingly __________ fast food ads
typical of my hometown.
A. invasive B. infuriating C. irritating D. ubiquitous
4. Her colleagues put her _________ a hopeless case, but she proved to be the most talented of all
politicians.
A. down as B. into C. on to D. through
5. The mirror __________ broken when I dropped it in the bathroom.
A. got B. turned C. grew D. felt
6. To __________ means to study hard in a short period of time, usually before the exam.
A. pram B. cramp C. dram D. cram
7. It looks like the sky is ________ up. It’s going to be a beautiful day.
A. shining B. clearing C. clear D. clean
8. The sky is ________ this morning, but the sun is supposed to come out by late afternoon
A. moisture B. humidity C. overcast D. cloud
9. Dedication, commitment, and knowledge are ___________of a good teacher.
A. characters B. celebrities C. personalities D. characteristics
10. In ____________, with the benefits of hindsight,, it is clear that this was a bad decision.
A. reflection B. retrospect C. status quo D. a second thought
Part 2 (5 pts)
The passage contains 5 errors. For question 1-5, underline the errors and write the corrections in the
Line
1 The global recording industry has launched its largest wave of legal activity against people
2 suspected of stealing music files on the internet. The latest move by the International
3 Federation of the Phonographic Industry targeted 2,100 alleged uploaders using peer-to-
4 peer (P2P) networks in 16 nations including the UK, France, Germany and Italy.
5 Thousands of people have agreed to pay compensation since the campaign began. In the
6 US, civil lawsuits have been brought active against more than 15,597 people since
17
7 September 2003 and there have been 3,590 settlements. 'This is a significant escalate of our
8 enforcement actions against people who are uploading and distributing righted music on
9 p2p networks,' said IFPI chief John Kennedy. 'Thousands of people - mostly internet-savvy
10 men with their 20s or 30s - have learnt to their cost the legal and financial risks involved in
11 file-sharing proprietary music in large quantities.' Individual cases are generally brought by
12 the national associations represented the recording industry, and in some cases by the
13 labels, as civil complaints. The UK recording industry has so far brought 97 cases, with a
14 further 65 covered by the latest action. More than 140,000 in compensation has been paid
15 to the British Phonographic Industry by 71 individuals. Those who fail to resolve cases face
16 civil court action.
17
18
19
Part 4 (10 points)
For questions 1 - 10, write the correct form of each bracketed in the numbered space provided in the
column on the right. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Your answers:
The (0)______ (EXPLODE) growth in the number of closed-circuit 0. explosive
television (CCTV) (1) ______ (SURVEY) system in recent years is 1. ……………….
transforming cities centres in some countries. For some people, the
cameras have a (2)______(PSYCHOLOGY) benefit, taking comfort in the 2. ……………….
(3)______(BELIEVE) that they are being watched and protected. In some 3. ……………….
neighbourhoods, there are even socially (4)_____(INCLUDE) CCTV
systems, which allow local (5)_____(RESIDE) to tune in to community 4. ……………….
TV and watch what is happening outside their front doors. People know the 5. ……………….
cameras can be (6)_____(HELP) in solving crimes, but are they right to
believe that cameras are keeping them safer? According to one university 6. ……………….
professor of (7)_____(CRIME), they are not. He conducted a study of 14
CCTV systems and found that, in general, the (8)_____(INSTALL) of 7. ……………….
cameras has (9)_____(SURPRISE) little impact on crime. In only one of
the 14 areas could a (10)_____(SIGNIFY) drop in crime levels be linked to 8. ……………….
CCTV. 9. ……………….
10. ………………

Part 1: (10 points)
For questions 1 - 10, choose the correct answer to fill each space. Write your answers in the
corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
A Ballooning Challenge
For those people who go out in search of adventure, a long-distance flight in a hot-air balloon is a
particularly exciting (1) _______. Indeed, a round-the-world balloon trip is widely regarded as the (2)
_______ challenge. One well-known adventurer, David Hemplemann-Adams would not agree, however.
Recently, he became the first man to (3) _________ the North Pole in a hot-air balloon, a more significant
achievement in his eyes. Given that the distance and altitudes (4) _______ are comparatively modest, you
might wonder why the trip from Canada to the Pole, should present such a challenge.
Part of the appeal was that such a flight had not even been attempted for over a century. In those days,
such expeditions were huge events, with a nation's pride (5) _______ on their success, and so resources were
18
committed to them. Although he eventually managed to secure a substantial sponsorship (6) _______ from
an insurance company, Hemplemann-Adams had the added challenge of having to (7) _______ sufficient
funds for his trip.
Then, of course, he had to face major survival concerns, such as predicting the weather (8) _______
and coping with the dangerously low temperatures. But most challenging of all was the incredibly complex
problem of navigation. As the earth's magnetic field gets stronger, only the most (9) _______ of satellite-
linked navigation systems can (10) _______ that one has got to the Pole. Without them, the chances of
getting anywhere near it are extremely slim. Not to mention an even greater problem that weighed on
Hemplemann-Adams' mind: getting back!
1. A campaign B prospect C motion D engagement
2. A ultimate B extreme C utmost D eventual
3. A meet B reach C attain D fulfill
4. A engaged B regarded C involved D connected
5. A leaning B resting C waiting D standing
6. A bargain B purchase C transaction D deal
7. A elevate B lift C raise D build
8. A tendencies B conditions C circumstances D elements
9. A sophisticated B refined C cultured D educated
10. A approve B confirm C reinforce D support
Part 2: (15 points)
For questions 1 - 10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your
answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
BICYCLE SAFETY
Having to obey rules and regulations when riding a bike is (0) __one__ of the first experiences
children have of the idea of obeying the law. However, a large number of children are left to learn the rules
by trial and (1) ______, instead of being guided by experienced (2) _______. Every year, hundreds of
children visit the doctor or the hospital casualty department (3) ______ crashing on their bikes. This could
be easily prevented by (4) _______ them the basics of bicycle safety. Ideally, children should be allowed to
ride only in safe places, such as parks and cycle tracks. When this is not possible, and they are permitted to
go on the (5) ______, it is important to teach them some basic safety principles.
First, they ought to learn and obey the rules of the road, which (6) _______ traffic signs, signals and
road markings. Second, they should always wear a helmet. Studies have shown that wearing bicycle helmets
can (7) ______ head injuries by up to 85 per cent. In many places, helmets are required by law, particularly
(8) _______ children. Finally, children should be made to understand (9) _______ importance of riding in
areas that are brightly lit and of wearing clothes that make (10) _______ clearly visible on the road.
Part 3: (10 points)
Read the following passage and answer the questions 1-10
South Pole Adventurer
In the race to the South Pole, there was a Japanese team attempting to be first, led by heroic explorer Nobu
Shirase.
For a few weeks in January 1912, Antarctica was full of explorers. Norwegian Roald Amundsen had reached
the South Pole on 14 December and was speeding back to the coast. On 17 January, Robert Scott and the
men of the British Antarctic expedition had arrived at the pole to find they had been beaten to it. Just then, a
third man arrived; Japanese explorer Nobu Shirase. However, his part in one of the greatest adventure stories
of the 20th century is hardly known outside his own country, even by fellow explorers. Yet as Scott was
nearing the pole and with the rest of the world still unaware of Amundsen's triumph. Shirase and his team
sailed into Antarctica's Bay of Whales in the smallest ship ever to try its luck in these dangerous waters.
19
Since boyhood Shirase had dreamed of becoming a polar explorer. Like Amundsen, he initially set his sights
on the North Pole. But after the American Robert Peary claimed to have reached there; in 1909, both men
hastily altered their plans. Instead they would aim for the last big prize: the South Pole. In January 1910,
Shirase put his plans before Japanese government officials, promising to raise the flag at the South Pole
within three years. For many of them, the question wasn't could he do it but why would it be worth doing?
15 years earlier the International Geographical Congress had said that as the last unknown continent the
Antarctic offered the chance to add to knowledge in almost every branch of science. So, like the British,
Shirase presented his expedition as a search for knowledge: he would bring back fossils, make
meteorological measurements and explore unknown parts of the continent.
The response from the government was cool, however, and Shirase struggled to raise funds. Fortunately, a
few months later, Japan's former Prime Minister Shigenobu Okuma came to Shirase’s rescue. With Okuma’s
backing, Shirase got together just enough money to buy and equip a small ship. He eventually acquired a
scientist, too, called Terutaro Takeda. At the end of November 1910, his ship the Kainan Maru finally left
Tokyo with 27 men and 28 Siberian dogs on board. Before leaving, Shirase confidently outlined his plans to
the media. He would sail to New Zealand, then reach Antarctica in February, during the southern summer,
and then proceed to the pole the following spring. This was not to be, however. Bad weather delayed the
expedition and they didn't reach New Zealand until 8 February; Amundsen and Scott had already been in
Antarctica for a month, preparing for winter.
In New Zealand local reporters were astonished: the ship was half the size of Amundsen's ship. True, it was
reinforced with iron plate and extra wood, but the ship had only the feeblest engine to help force its way
through ice. Few doubted Shirase's courage, but most reckoned the expedition to be ill-prepared as the
Japanese had only lightweight sledges for transport across the ice, made of bamboo and wood.
But Shirase’s biggest challenge was time. Antarctica is only accessible by sea for a few weeks in summer
and expeditions usually aimed to arrive in January or February. 'Even with their determination and daring,
our Japanese friends are running it rather fine/ wrote local reporters. Nevertheless, on 11 February the
Kainan Maru left New Zealand and sailed straight into the worst weather the captain had ever seen. Then, on
6 March, they approached the coastline of Antarctica's Ross Sea; looking for a place to land. The ice began
to dose in, threatening to trap them for the winter, an experience no one was likely to survive. With a
remarkable piece of seamanship, the captain steered the ship out of the ice and turned north. They would
have to wait out the winter in a warmer climate.
A year later than planned, Shirase and six men finally reached Antarctica. Catching up with Scott or
Amundsen was out of the question and he had said he would stick to science this time. Yet Shirase still fell
the pull of the pole and eventually decided he would head southward to experience the thrills and hardships
of polar exploration he had always dreamed of. With provisions for 20 days, he and four men would see how
far they could get.
Shirase set off on 20 January 1912 with Takeda and two dog handlers, leaving two men at the edge of the ice
shelf to make meteorological measurements. For a week they struggled through one blizzard after another,
holing up in their tents during the worst of the weather. The temperature fell to -25°C, and frostbite claimed
some of the dogs. On 26 January, Shirase estimated there were enough provisions to continue for two more
days. Two days later, he announced it was time to turn back. Takeda calculated they had reached 80° 5 south
and had travelled 950 kilometres. The men hoisted the Japanese flag.
On 3 February, all the men were heading home. The ship reached Tokyo in June 1912 -and Shirase was
greeted like a hero despite the fact that he never reached the pole. Nor did he contribute much to science -
but then nor did Amundsen, whose only interest was in being first to the pole. Yet Shirase's expedition was
heroic. They travelled beyond 80° south, one of only four teams to have gone so far south at the time.
Furthermore, they did it all without the advantages of the other teams and with no previous experience.
Questions 1-5.
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Choose the correct letter, A. B, C or D. Write your answers in boxes 1-5
1 When reporters in New Zealand met Shirase, they were
A concerned about the quality of his equipment.
B impressed with the design of his ship.
C certain he was unaware of the dangers ahead.
D surprised by the bravery he demonstrated.
2 What are we told about the captain of the Kainan Maru in the fifth paragraph?
A He had given Shirase some poor advice.
B His skill at sailing saved the boat and crew.
C He refused to listen to the warnings of others.
D He was originally confident they could reach Antarctica.
3 After Shirase finally reached Antarctica he realised that
A he was unsure of the direction he should follow.
B he would have to give up on fulfilling his personal ambition.
C he might not have enough food to get to the South Pole.
D he still wanted to compete in the race against the other teams.
4 What is the writer doing in the seventh paragraph?
A criticising a decision concerning scientific research.
B explaining why a particular mistake had occurred.
C describing the conditions that the expedition faced.
D rejecting the idea that Shirase was poorly prepared.
5 What is the writer’s main point in the final paragraph?
A Considering the problems Shirase had to deal with, his achievement was incredible.
B In Japan, the reaction to Shirase's adventure in Antarctica came as a surprise to him.
C It was obvious that Amundsen would receive more attention as an explorer than Shirase.
D Shirase had achieved more on the Antarctic expedition than even he had expected.
Questions 6-10.
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading above? In the boxes 6-10
write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
6 Since Shirase arrived in Antarctica, smaller ships have also made the journey.
7 Shirase's original ambition was to travel to the North Pole.
8 Some Japanese officials thought Shirase's intention to travel to the South Pole was pointless.
9 The British team announced their decision to carry out scientific research in Antarctica before Shirase.
10 Shirase found it easy to raise the money he needed for his trip to the South Pole.
unusually bad for the season.
Part 4: (10 points)
Why Are Finland’s Schools Successful?
The country's achievements in education have other nations doing their homework.
A_____ At Kirkkojarvi Comprehensive School in Espoo, a suburb west of Helsinki, Kari Louhivuori, the
school's principal, decided to try something extreme by Finnish standards. One of his sixth-grade students, a
recent immigrant, was falling behind, resisting his teacher's best efforts. So he decided to hold the boy back
a year. Standards in the country have vastly improved in reading, math and science literacy over the past
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decade, in large part because its teachers are trusted to do whatever it takes to turn young lives around. 'I
took Besart on that year my private student,’ explains Louhivuori. When he was not studying science,
geography and math Besart was seated next to Louhivuori's desk, taking books from a tall stack, slowly
reading one, then another, then devouring them by the dozens. By the end of the year, he had conquered his
adopted country's vowel-rich language and arrived at the realization that he could, in fact, learn.
B_____ This tale of a single rescued child hints at some of the reasons for Finland's amazing record of
education success. The transformation of its education system began some 40 years ago but teachers had
little idea it had been so successful until 2000, In this year, the first results from the Programme for
International Student Assessment (PISA), a standardized test given to 15-year-olds in more than 40 global
venues, revealed Finnish youth to be the best at reading in the world. Three years later, they led in math By
2006, Finland was first out of the 57 nations that participate in science. In the latest PISA scores, the nation
came second in science, third in reading and sixth in math among nearly half a million students worldwide.
C_____ In the United States, government officials have attempted to improve standards by introducing
marketplace competition into public schools. In recent years, a group of Wall Street financiers and
philanthropists such as Bill Gates have put money behind private-sector ideas, such as charter schools,
which have doubled in number in the past decade. President Obama, too, apparently thought competition
was the answer. One policy invited states to compete for federal dollars using tests and other methods to
measure teachers, a philosophy that would not be welcome in Finland. 'I think, in fact, teachers would tear
off their shirts," said Timo Heikkinen, a Helsinki principal with 24 years of teaching experience, 'If you only
measure the statistics, you miss the human aspect.'
D_____ There are no compulsory standardized tests in Finland, apart from one exam at the end of students'
senior year in high school. There is no competition between students, schools or regions. Finland’s schools
are publicly funded. The people in the government agencies running them, from national officials to local
authorities, are educators rather than business people or politicians. Ever school has the same national goals
and draws from the same pool of university-trained educators. The result is that a Finnish child has a good
chance of getting the same quality education no matter whether he or she lives in a rural village or a
university town.
E_____ It's almost unheard of for a child to show up hungry to school. Finland provides three years of
maternity leave and subsidized day care to parents, and preschool tor all five-year-olds, where the emphasis
is on socializing. In addition, the state subsidizes parents, paying them around 150 euros per month for every
child until he or she turns 17. Schools provide food, counseling and taxi service if needed. Health care is
even free for students taking degree courses.
F _____ Finland's schools were not always a wonder. For the first half of the twentieth century, only the
privileged got a quality education. But In 1963, the Finnish Parliament made the bold decision to choose
public education as the best means of driving the economy forward and out of recession. Public schools
were organized into one system of comprehensive schools for ages 7 through 16. Teachers from all over the
nation contributed to a national curriculum that provided guidelines, not prescriptions, for them to refer to.
Besides Finnish and Swedish (the country's second official language), children started learning a third
language (English is a favorite) usually beginning at age nine. The equal distribution of equipment was next,
meaning that all teachers had their fair share of teaching resources to aid learning. As the comprehensive
schools improved, so did the upper secondary schools (grades 10 through 12). The second critical decision
came in 1979, when it was required that every teacher gain a fifth-year Master's degree in theory and
practice, paid for by the state. From then on, teachers were effectively granted equal status with doctors and
22
lawyers. Applicants began flooding teaching programs, not because the salaries were so high but because
autonomous decision making and respect made the job desirable. And as Louhivuori explains, 'We have our
own motivation to succeed because we love the work.'
For questions 1-5, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the lists of headings below.
Write the correct numbers (i-ix) in the correct numbered boxes. The first one (paragraph A) has been
done for you as an example. (10 points)
List of headings
i A business-model approach to education
ii The reforms that improved education in Finland
iii Educational challenges of the future
iv Ways in which equality is maintained in the Finnish education
system
v The benefits of the introduction of testing
vi An approach that helped a young learner
vii Statistical proof of education success
viii Support for families working and living in Finland
ix The impact of the education system on Finland’s economy
Your answers:
0. Paragraph A …vi…. 1. Paragraph B ……. 2. Paragraph C …….
3. Paragraph D ……. 4. Paragraph E ……. 5. Paragraph F …….
For questions 6-10, complete the notes below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in numbered spaces 6-10.
The school system in Finland
PISA tests
*In the most recent tests, Finland’s top subject was 6………………..
History
1963:
*A new school system was needed to improve Finland's economy.
*Schools followed 7……………….. that were created partly by teachers.
*Young pupils had to study an additional 8 ………………….. .
*All teachers were given the same equipment to use.
1979:
*Teachers had to get a 9 ……………….. but they did not have to pay for this.
*Applicants were attracted to the 10 ………………….. that teaching received.
Part 3: Essay writing (30 points)
Some sociologists say that, it is a waste of time for students to pursue secondary education for 12 years. It is
better to shorten it to nine years only, then go to vocational school to learn a skill applied in their jobs or go
to university to get a degree. To what extent do you agree with this? State your views and reasons. You
should write between 300 and 350 words.
PART 1. (10pts) (2pts/1 correct answer)
23
You will hear an interview with physics teacher Kieran Shaw, who has taken his students to a Science
Fair. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
1B 2A 3B 4D 5B
PART 2. (10 pts) (2pts/1 correct answer)

You will hear a radio feature about camping wild. Decide whether the following statement true (T) or
false (F).
1T 2F 3T 4F 5T
PART 3.(10 pts) (2pts/1 correct answer)

You will hear part of a radio programme in which journalist Arabella Gordon talks about the
phenomenon of technophobia. Answer the following questions with a word or a short phrase (NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS).
1. threatening and mysterious
2. women and children
3. industrial sabotage.
4.the low price
5.a foreign correspondent
PART 4. (20pts)(2pts/1 correct answer)
You will hear a piece of news from VOA. Fill in each gap with a word/ short phrase (NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS) from the recording.
1 dynamic economies 2 menacing threat 3 extremism 4 undermining
5. ballistic missile 6. severing 7. economic sanctions 8. displace
9. administration 10. partnerships

Part 1. (10 points)(1pt/1 correct answer)
For questions 1 - 20, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and
write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A
6. D 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. B
Part 2 (5 pts)(1pt/1 correct answer)

The passage contains 5 errors. For question 1-5, underline the errors and write the corrections in the
correspondingnumbered boxes. There is an exampleat the beginning (0).
Line Mistakes Corrections

1 activity action
2 stealing sharing
9 Escalate escalation
10 Righted copyright(ed)
11 With in
14 represented representing
Part 3: (5 pts)(1pt/1 correct answer)
24
For questions 1–5, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable prepositions and/or particles.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
1. into 2. on to 3. up with 4. through 5. out
Part 4 (10 points)(1pt/1 correct answer)

For questions 1 - 10, Write the correct form of eachbracketed in the numberedspaceprovided in the
column on the right. There is an exampleat the beginning (0).explosive
1. surveillance
2. psychological
3. belief
4. inclusive
5. residents
6. helpful
7. criminology
8. installation
9. surprisingly
10. significant

Part 1: (10 points) (1pt/1 correct answer)
For questions 1 - 10, choose the correct answer to fill each space. Write your answers in the
corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
Your answers:
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. B
6. D 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. B
Part 2: (15 points)(1pt/1 correct answer)

For questions 1 - 10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your
answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
1. error 2. adults/people 3. after 4. teaching 5. road
6. include 7. reduce 8. for 9. the 10. them

Questions 1-5.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A
Questions 6-10.
6. F 7. T 8. T 9. NG 10. F

0. Paragraph A …vi…. 1. Paragraph B …vii…. 2. Paragraph C …i….
3. Paragraph D …iv…. 4. Paragraph E …viii…. 5. Paragraph F …ii….
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For questions 6-10, complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in numbered spaces 6-10.
6. science 7. guidelines 8. language 9. Master’s 10. respect/
degree/ Master status
degree
TEST 4:
Part 1: For questions 1-5, listen to the discussion on a radio talk show between a professor, Max Mantle,
a representative of students, Pauline O’Boyle, and their host with regard to a recent increase in university
fee. Choose the correct answer and write A, B, C or D for each answer in the corresponding boxes
provided.
1. How does Pauline O’Boyle feel about the official announcement on university fees?
A. She is relieved that they are finally growing up.
B. She is surprised that the announcement was not made months ago.
C. She is pleased that the news was not as bad as some had predicted.
D. It was pretty much along the lines of what she had expected.
2. What does Max Mantle think the public is not aware of?
A. the considerable amount of government funding universities receive
B. how much universities rely on students fee
C. the lack of grant aid offered to third- level students
D. the extent to which the U.K. education system is mocked in Europe
3. What does Pauline O’Boyle say about student grants?
A. only grammar- and- private- school students may apply for them
B. applicants from grammar and private schools are given preference
C. very few state- school manage to qualify for them
D. they should be made grade- dependent so as to be fairer
4. Pauline believes that universities
A. should do more to look after the interests of their professors.
B. offer terms of employment that are counterproductive.
C. should ask the government for more hand- outs.
D. will only become more efficiently run if salaries and conditions improve.
5. What is the last point made by Max Mantle?
A. lecturers’ salaries and terms of employment have been reviewed
B. lecturers need to review their salaries and terms of employment carefully
C. reducing lecturers’ pay by one or two thousand pounds will help to solve the problem
D. the existence of overpaid lecturers is not a significant part of the problem
Part 2: For questions 6- 10, listen to a report on the relationship between sleep and weight and decide
whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.
6. People who are awake longer have more time to burn energy.
7. Loss of sleep may decrease hunger especially for high- calorie foods.
8. Researchers found that the best amount of sleep for weight control is 7.7 hours a night.
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9. People who slept just four hours a night for two nights had an 80% reduction in leptin.
10. Researchers found that people who got less than four hours of sleep a night were 73%
more likely to be overweight.
Part 4: For questions 16 – 25, listen to a piece of news from BBC about a new form of payment and fill in
the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer in the
corresponding boxes provided.
Everyone in the coffee queue uses (16) __________ cards because it is quick and they don’t
enter a pin number. There are different kinds of money today, but for people who are (17) _________,
they keep digging around in pockets for change. These are regular bankcards but with a built-in chip
and (18) __________. The card reader sends out a radio frequency and when people bring the card
close to the reader, the antenna picks up the signal to make the payment. Some are worried that
personal data is flying around in the (19) __________ for anyone to steal. In fact, at less than half a
second is spent per transaction, there is no time for anyone to steal our cash. After people have used
the card a few times in a row, they have to enter their pin. And if a thief does go on a (20)
__________ with the card, our bank covers us against fraud. And if getting our bankcard out seems
like too much trouble there is now a solution with (21) _________ – that is clothing and accessories
that include computer and electronic technologies. According to technology experts, we can simply
take any wireless card and the chip from it that our bank might issue and we can put it into the coat
and then when we want to make a payment , just simply wave our arm in front of the (22) _________
and leave with our latte. This is intended for people who are incredibly lazy. People are going to be
making more purchases more of the time – particularly for (23) _________. The chip has to get very
close to the card reader to make a payment so that is not likely to happen. Now companies are creating
new (24) _________ which combines payment and security technology. For those times when not
even carrying a phone is convenient, the fingo -pay system reads the unique maps of veins under the
surface of your finger. The trick is remembering which finger you registered with. Someday soon we
won’t have to carry a wallet or a purse or anything. The veins in our finger will (25) _________
payments – and prove the payments are ours.
B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Part 1: For questions 1-10, choose the word or phrase that best completes each of the following
sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. Over half of the population of this earthquake-stricken area are living ______.
A. on the house B. on the tenterhooks C. on the breadline D. on the cards
2. At the scene of the disaster the Prince said some comforting words to the _____ relatives.
A. lamenting B. wailing C. complaining D. grieving
3. Tania was _____ after the accident and had to spend several weeks in bed.
A. injured B. incapacitated C. convalescent D. hampered
4. He will be sued for ______ of contract if he does not do what he promised.
A. fracture B. crack C. rupture D. breach
5. I'd been in ______pain with toothache all weekend and was desperate to find a dentist.
A. agonizing B. shooting C. excruciating D. maddening
6. The project has progressed in ______ and starts due to a constant change in funding.
A. wits B. bits C. fits D. sits
7. The contract will be ______ and void until signed and dated by both parties.
A. null B. nullified C. nought D. nil
8. It's as if that silly argument we had has driven a _______ between us and we've lost all our old closeness.
27
A. ledge B. beam C. plank D. wedge
9. I'm sure I was invited to join the committee as the _______ woman.
A. sample B. token C. representative D. coupon
10. The police asked him to give a _______ description of the accident that he had witnessed.
A. blow by blow B. word for word C. up and down D. in and out
Part 2: For these questions, underline 5 mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding space
provided. There is an example ( Line 2).
1 It is hard for almost everyone, but especially the young, to imagine a world with television.
2 We have come to expect that all the important news of the day, worldwide will be there at
3 the touch of a button. In times going by, only the literate knew what was going on in the
4 world, and then only after a long delay. But now it is possible for any of us to watch world
5 event as they occur. Nothing has shortened the distance that divides our private lives from
6 the outside world to such an extent as television.
7 Time and again, television transports us to the habitats of rare animals, and we may identify
8 among them. Concern for damage to the environment extends far and away. We worry
9 about the influence of technology not just in our cities but on us as people. Increasingly, we
10 see ourselves as part of the planet rather than in isolation. There was once the prerogative of
11 scholars is now accessible to countless people through the medium of television. Although
12 this form of popular education can be regarded as superficial, it represents a broadening of
13 knowledge.
14
15
Part 3: For the questions, complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. The student wrestled _______ the difficult mathematics problem.
2. The schoolboy winced ______ the sight of the cane in the headmaster’s hand.
3. After six months in the countryside, Alan has a yen ______ the bright lights of the city.
4. Erica is an excellent worker. She goes _____ her job calmly and efficiently.
5. Jane is out in the garden mulling ______ a problem to do with work.
Part 4: For these questions, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding
numbered boxes.
THE ROLE OF EDUCATION IN THE DEVELOPING WORLD
Levels of illiteracy and (1. NUMBER ) ______ remain startlingly high in the developing world, and
continue to be so until the West provides or sponsors new education initiatives, preferably also getting
directly involved. A better education is a prerequisite should the (2. POVERTY) ______masses of Africa
ever wish to hold any genuine hope of gaining their (3. EMANCIPATE )______ from the metaphorical
shackles of poverty. Education initiatives for young people as well as life-long learning programmes will
also help to breach the gulf that separates the working classes from their ruling elite, a (4. PRIVILEGE )
______ few who enjoy the ( 5. TRAP ) ______ of Western wealth and the lifestyle that goes with it, while
those in their midst are completely preoccupied with the daily struggle for survival. Furthermore, we must
promote a culture of (6. TOLERATE)______ of corruption, and help to create a new generation for whom
education rather than a(n) (7. SCRUPLE) ______ nature will reap the true rewards. Education will also help
to bridge another gap; that of the cultural one which separates the West from its brethren in the developing
world. The slums and shanty towns are a hotbed of religious and political ( 8. EXTREME ) ______, but
hopefully education will serve to create a better sense of understanding between all the peoples of the world,
28
( 9. RESPECT ) ______ of background. And this will especially be the case if the education programmes
themselves are administered by Western professionals, who, in much the same way as they can teach a thing
or two to their counterparts in the developing world, have also, no doubt, much to learn from them in the
process as well. Cooperation between people from different cultures of the West and the developing world
will also, hopefully, help to reduce levels of prejudice, bigotry, xenophobia and racial tensions. And, last but
not by any means least, educating women will (10. POWER) ______ them to claim their rightful place in
the social hierarchy in up-to-now male-dominated cultures. Their aspirations can shift realistically higher,
and young female students can hope to go on to become tomorrow’s politicians, diplomats and political
leaders, or whatsoever they choose.
PART III: READING (60 pts.)
Part 1: For questions 1-10, read the passage and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each gap.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
SPORT AND FITNESS
The British are very fond of sport, but many people prefer to watch (1) _____ take part. Many go to
watch football, cricket, etc. at the ground, but many more sit at home and watch sport on television. Most
people today take relatively (2) _____ . Over the last 30 or 40 years lifestyles have changed considerably
and many people now travel even the shortest distances by car or bus. (3) _____ exercise combined with
eating too many (4) _____ and sugary foods has meant that many people are becoming too fat. In recent
years, however, there has been a (5) _____ interest in fitness among young adults and many belong to a
sports club or gym. In Britain most towns have an/a (6) _____ football and cricket team, and people also
have opportunities to play sports such as tennis and golf. Older people may play bowls. Some people go
regularly to a sports center or leisure center. Some sports centers 7() _____ classes in aerobics, step and
keep-fit. Some people (8) _____ regularly at a local gym and do weight training and circuit training. Others
go running or jogging in their local area. For enthusiastic runners there are opportunities to take part in (9)
_____ runs, such as the London marathon. Other people keep themselves fit by walking or cycling. Many
people go abroad on a skiing holiday each year. Membership of a sports club or gym can be expensive and
not everyone can afford the subscription. Local sports centers are generally cheaper. Some companies now
provide sports facilities (10) _____ their employees or contribute to the cost of joining a gym.
1. A. to B. except for C. than D. rather than
2. A. little general exercise B. a few general exercises
C. a little general exercise D. few general exercises
3. A. The lack of B. Lack C. The lack D. Lack of
4. A. fat B. rich C. fatty D. richly
5. A. planting B. developing C. becoming D. growing
6. A. professional B. well-known C. competent D. amateur
7. A. grow B. propose C. pass D. arrange
8. A. work out B. full in C. cough up D. find out
9. A. distance away B. long-distance C. short-distance D. full distance
10. A. to B. for C. with D. about
Part 2: For questions 11- 20, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only one word in each space. Write your answer in the corresponding numbered boxes.
It is not difficult to (11) _____ an unknown animal. Spend a day in the tropical forests of South
America, turning over logs, looking beneath bark, sitting through the moist litter of leaves, followed by an
evening shining a mercury lamp on a white screen, and one way and another you will (12) _____ hundreds
of different kinds of small creatures. Moths, caterpillars, spiders, long-nosed bugs, luminous beetles,
harmless butterflies (13) _____ as wasps, wasps shaped like ants, sticks that walk, leaves that open wings
and fly – the variety will be (14) _____ and one of these creatures will almost certainly be undescribed by
29
science. The difficulty will be to find (15) _____ who know enough about the groups concerned to be able
to single out the new one.
No one can say (16) _____ how many species of animals there are in these greenhouse-humid
dimly lit jungles. They contain the (17) _____ and the most varied assemblage of animal and plant life to
be found anywhere on earth. Not only are there many categories of creatures – monkeys, rodents, spiders,
hummingbirds, butterflies, but most of those types (18) _____ in many different (19) _____ There are
over forty different species of parrot, over seventy different monkeys, three hundred hummingbirds and tens
of thousands of butterflies. If you are not careful, you can even be (20) _____ by a hundred different kinds
of mosquito.
Part 3: For questions 21- 30, read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each
question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make in
important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business to invest in,
involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization
compare the actual decisions made people to theoretical ideal decisions to see how
Line 5 similar they are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield
optimal, that is, the best decisions. Although there are several variations on the exact
format that worksheets can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects.
Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all
possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected
Line 10 by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or
consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect
its relative importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these values
together. The alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision.
Since the most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to
Line 15 choose from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a
pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more
variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. On the average,
people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially
useful when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex
Line 20 relationships. A realistic example for many college students is the question "What will I
do after graduation?" A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized training,
pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.
A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will
also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-
Line 25 range and immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision
from short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise
the question above to "What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful
career?"
Line 30
21. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A tool to assist in making complex decisions.
B. A comparison of actual decisions and ideal decisions.
C. Research on how people make decisions.
D. Differences between long-range and short-range decision making.
22. The word "essential" in line 8 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. introductory B. changeable C. beneficial D. fundamental
30
23. Of the following steps, which occurs before the others in making a decision worksheet?
A. Listing the consequences of each solution.
B. Calculating a numerical summary of each solution.
C. Deciding which consequences are most important.
D. Writing down all possible solutions.
24. According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as one that
A. has the fewest variables to consider. B. uses the most decision worksheets.
C. has the most points assigned to it. D. is agreed to by the greatest number of people.
25. The author organizes paragraph 2 by _____.
A. describing a process B. classifying types of worksheet
C. providing historical background D. explaining a theory
26. The author states that "On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once"
(paragraph 3) to explain that _____.
A. most decisions involve seven steps
B. human mental capacity has limitations
C. some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions
D. people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice
27. The word "succinct" in line 26 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. creative B. satisfactory C. personal D. concise
28. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. Proponents (para.1) B. Optimal (para.1)
C. Variables (para.3) D. Long-range goals (para.4)
29. The word "it" in line 27 refers to _____.
A. worksheet B. problem C. distinction D. decision
30. The word "revise" in line 30 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. ask B. explain C. change D. predict
Your answers
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
Part 4: For questions 31- 36, choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings
below. Write the correct number, i-ix, in boxes 31- 36 in the corresponding numbered space.
List of Headings
i . The difficulties of talking about smells

ii . The role of smell in personal relationships
iii . Future studies into smell
iv . The relationship between the brain and the nose
v . The interpretation of smells as a factor in defining groups
vi . Why our sense of smell is not appreciate
vii . Smell is our superior sense
viii . The relationship between smell and feelings
31. Paragraph A ______ 32. Paragraph D ______

33. Paragraph B ______ 34. Paragraph E ______
35. Paragraph C ______ 36. Paragraph F ______
31
THE MEANING AND POWER OF SMELL
The sense of smell, or olfaction, is powerful. Odours affect us on a physical, psychological and social level.
For the most part, however, we breathe in the aromas which surround us without being consciously aware of
their importance to us. It is only when the faculty of smell is impaired for some reason that we begin to
realise the essential role the sense of smell plays in our sense of well-being.
A. A survey conducted by Anthony Synott at Montreal’s Concordia University asked participants to
comment on how important smell was to them in their lives. It became apparent that smell can evoke strong
emotional response. A scent associated with a good experience can bring a rush of joy, while a foul odour or
one associated with a bad memory may make us grimace with disgust. Respondents to the survey noted that
many of their olfactory likes and dislikes were based on emotional associations. Such associations can be
powerful enough so that odours that we would generally label unpleasant become agreeable for particular
individuals. The perception of smell, therefore, consist not only of the odours themselves, but of the
experiences and emotions associated with them.
B. Odours are also essential cues in social bonding. One respondent to the survey believed that there is no
true emotional bonding without touching and smelling a loved one. In fact, infants recognise the odours of
their mothers soon after birth and adults con often indentify their children or spouses by scent. In one well-
known test, women and men were able to distinguish by smell alone clothing worn by their marriage
partners from similar clothing worn by other people. Most of the subjects would probably never have given
much thought to odour as a cue for indentifying family members before being involved in the test, but as the
experiment revealed, even when not consciously considered, smells register.
C. In spite of its importance to our emotional and sensory lives, smell is probably the most undervalued
sense in many cultures. The reason often given for the low regard in which smell is held is that, in
comparison with its importance among animals, the human sense of smell is feeble and undeveloped. While
it is true that the olfactory powers of humans are nothing like as fine as those possessed by certain animals,
they are still remarkably acute. Our noses are able to recognise thousands of smells, and to perceive odours
which are present only in extremely small quantities.
D. Smell, however, is a highly elusive phenomenon. Odours, unlike colours, for instance, cannot be named
in many languages because the specific vocabulary simply doesn’t exist. ‘It smells like …,’ we have to say
when describing an odour, struggling to express our olfactory experience. Nor can odours be recorded: there
is no effective way to either capture or store them over time. In the realm of olfaction, we must make do
with descriptions and recollections. This has implications for olfactory research.
E. Most of the research on smell undertaken to date has been of a physical scientific nature. Significant
advances have been made in the understanding of the biological and chemical nature of olfaction, but many
fundamental questions have yet to be answered. Researchers have still to decide whether smell is one sense
or two – one responding to odours, and how smells can be measured objectively given the non- physical
components. Questions like these mean that interest in the psychology of smell is inevitably set to play an
increasingly important role for researchers.
F. However, smell is not simply a biological and psychology phenomenon. Smell is cultural, hence it is a
social and historical phenomenon. Odours are invested with cultural values: smells that are considered to be
offensive in some cultures may be perfectly acceptable in others. Therefore, our sense of smells is a means
of, and model for, interacting with the world. Different smells can provide us with intimate and emotionally
32
charged experience and the value that we attach to these experiences is interiorized by the members of
society in a deeply personal way. Importantly, our commonly held feelings about smells can help distinguish
us from other cultures. The study of the cultural history of smell is, therefore, in a very real sense, an
investigation into the essence of human culture.
For questions 37- 39, choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. .
37. According to the introduction, we become aware of the importance of smell when
A. We discover a new smell
B. we experience a powerful smell
C. our ability to smell is damaged.
D. we are surrounded by odours.
38. The experiment described in paragraph B
A. shows how we make use of smell without realizing it.
B. demonstrates that family member have is learnt
C. proves that a sense of smell is learnt
D. compares the sense of smell in males and females.
39. What does the writer suggest about the study of smell in the atmosphere in paragraph E? A. The
measurement of smell is becoming more accurate.
B. Researchers believe smell is a purely physical reaction
C. Most smells are inoffensive.
D. Smell is yet to be defined.
Part 3: Write an essay of about 350 words to express your opinion on the following issue.
Some people think that human history has been a journey from ignorance to knowledge. Others argue
that this underestimates the achievements of ancient cultures, and overvalues our achievements. What
is your opinion?
Give reasons for your answer, and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or experience.
I. LISTENING ( 50 pts)
Part 1:
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D
Part 2:
6. T 7. F 8. T 9. F 10. T
Part 3:
11. extra- terrestrials / alien beings
12. yellow- red
13. all types of people
14. ball lightning / marsh gas / comets / northern lights / aircraft / planes /
rockets
15. weak
Part 4:
16. tap- and- go 17. behind the curve
18. antenna 19. ether
20. spending spree 21. wearable tech
22. terminal 23. small- valued goods
24. biometric technology 25. authenticate
33
Part 1: (10 pts)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. A
Part 2: (5 pts)
No Line Mistake Correction
1 2 with without
2 3 going gone
3 5 event events
4 9 among with
5 10 away wide
12 There What
Part 3. (5pts)
1. with 2. at 3. for 4. about 5. over
Part 4: (10 pts)

1. innumeracy 2. impoverished 3. emancipation 4. privileged 5. trappings
6. intolerance 7. unscrupulous 8. extremism 9. irrespective 10. empower
PART III: READING (60 pts.)

Part 1: (10 pts)
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. B
Part 2: (15 pts)

11. discover/ find/ come across 12. collect/ discover/gather
13. disguised 14. enormous/ huge/immense
15. specialists/ experts/ people 16. just/ exactly/ precisely/ quite
17. richest/ biggest/ strangest 18. exist/ remain/ survive
19. forms 20. bitten/ attacked/ stung
Part 3: (10 pts)

21. A 22. D 23. D 24. C 25. A
26. B 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. C
Part 4: (10 pts)

31. Paragraph A ___vi___ 32. Paragraph D ___ii___
33. Paragraph B ___ix___ 34. Paragraph E ___viii___
35. Paragraph C ___iv___ 36. Paragraph F ___v___
40. clothing 41. vocabulary
42. chemicals 43. cultures
Part 5:
44. B 45. B 46. D 47. A 48. A 49. D 50. B 51. C 52. C 53. B
TEST 5:
HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018
34
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11
BỘ Ngày thi: 14 tháng 4 năm 2018
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể
QUÝ ĐÔN ĐÀ NẴNG thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT Đề thi gồm 22 trang
A. LISTENING (50 pts)

Part 1 (10 pts)
You will hear an interview with the head of an employment agency, where she talks about expectations in
today’s job market. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
1. How does Diane Webber view “job for life”?
A. She regrets the fact that this situation is no longer the norm.
B. She feels that many long-serving employees fail to make a useful contribution.
C. She believes that people should have challenged their employers’ motives more.
D. She wishes the workplace had been more secure in the past.
2. According to Diane, younger workers in today’s workplace
A. learn all the skills they need early on.
B. accept lateral moves if they are attractive.
C. expect to receive benefits right from the start.
D. change jobs regularly to achieve a higher level.
3. What does Diane say about continuity in companies?
A. It is desirable in both junior and senior management.
B. It is impossible to achieve in today’s more competitive environment.
C. It is unimportant, due to the greater emphasis on teamwork.
D. It is necessary, but only up to a point.
4. According to Diane, what is the actual benefit of higher levels of personnel movement?
A. Higher levels of output. B. Better problem-solving.
C. More creativity. D. Greater efficiency.
5. Diane considers that nowadays companies are at most risk from

A. run-of-the-mill employees who play safe.
B. successful high-fliers who quickly move on.
C. unreliable staff who lack commitment.
D. external advisors who have undue power.
Part 2 (10 pts)
You are going to hear an interview with a chef called Heston Blumenthal about the process of eating.
Decide whether these statements are true (T) or false (F).
1. ………… Heston mentions eating fish from a paper plate with a plastic knife and fork as an example of what
influences the eating experience.
2. ………… According to Heston, the number of taste buds on the tongue and in the mouth gradually decreases.
3. ………… The experiment involving salt and other foods shows that it is impossible to taste something that
you can’t smell.
4. ………… The story about the trainee waiters illustrates that one sense can strongly influence another.
5. ………… According to Heston, reactions to bitterness don’t change overtime.
Part 4 (20 pts)
You will hear a radio report about Erik Weihenmayer, an adventurer. Complete the summary, using the
word or phrases you hear. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each blank.
35
An American named Erik Weihenmayer standing out as an adventurer without the (1)………………… explains
how he faces those challenges in today’s “Great Big Story”. He said the most exciting part for him is in fact the
movement, not the (2)………………… .
At 4 or 5, he was diagnosed with an (3)………………… disease and he went blind, which he thought was a
(4)………………… as the worst thing had happened, so there’s nothing else to lose. Then there was a
(5)………………… taking blind kids rock climbing, which he thought he wouldn’t have as a blind person.
When he got on to a rock face, he learned to do with his hands the things that (6)………………… learn to do
with their eyes. When clipping a bolt to a carabineer, he felt it to make sure it was correctly clipped or
that carabineer was going to hold him. Unable to look up the rock to see the holds and plan a route, he could only
see as far as his hands, which he thought was (7)………………… exciting. He loved the sound of emptiness,
which was meditative, very much like an (8)………………… .
Being a blind climber is really hard and you just have to embrace that suffering. Blindness is just like all
(9)………………… which you got to use as a catalyst to push you in new directions. It’s the idea of
(10)………………… into good things, and it’s something he thinks we all could use.
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Part 1. Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. (10 pts)
1. That woman sees nothing …………… in letting her children run around as they wish.
A. awry B. amiss C. afraid D. alike
2. Why doesn’t Mike …………… some of his work to his assistant?
A. delegate B. resign C. widen D. demand
3. It looks like she’s really …………… with her successful new business.
A. closing a deal B. moving on up C. breaking it even D. raking it in
4. There is a great deal of pressure in the newspaper industry; editor might work a 12-hour day with no
…………… .
A. come-down B. letdown C. crackdown D. let-up
5. I am not sure my brother will ever get married because he hates the feeling of being …………… .
A. tied up B. tied down C. tied in with D. tied in
6. It was Alice’s year: a new home, a better job - everything just clicked into …………… .
A. spot B. position C. place D. space
7. Your rental agreement …………… states that no pets are allowed in the building.
A. explicitly B. credibly C. mildly D. decently
8. The professor’s …………… theory is that singing preceded speech.
A. fancied B. fond C. pet D. preferable
9. “I hear Paul has a job at a restaurant.”
“Well, it’s …………… a restaurant as a café nearby.”
A. much more B. nothing like C. far more of D. not so much
10. There have been a few cases of Asian flu recently but there ………… no cause for alarm.
A. feels to be B. was felt being C. is felt to be D. has been felt there is
Part 2. Read the text and find 5 mistakes and correct them. You should indicate in which line the mistake is.
(5 pts)
During the last 25 years, Britain’s urban sparrow population has declined in as much as two-thirds, and the bird
has almost disappeared from many of its former haunts. The decline has been blamed on everything from cats to
garden pesticides. Moreover, modern buildings have far more few nooks and crannies where the birds can nest.
Factors like these may well be involved, but alone they fail to explain the severity of the decline, or the fact that
other urban birds have been less affected.
Denis Summers-Smith is the world’s leading expert on sparrows, because when he comes up with a theory to
explain their decline, it has to be worth listening to. He suggests that the culprit is a chemical adding to unleaded
petrol. It would be deeply ironic if a policy that was intended to improve the nation’s health was to prove
responsible for the decline of one of its species.
36
According to Summers-Smith, social species such as the sparrow require a minimum population in a specific
area to breed successfully. If, for whatever reason, numbers drop below this threshold, the stimulus to breed
disappears. The most dramatical example is the passenger pigeon, which in the late nineteenth century went from
being the world’s most common bird to total extinction within fifty years.
Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (5 pts)
1. The concert is only three days away but their preparations are still …………… sixes and sevens.
2. The concert was excellent; there were lots of well-known songs with some new ones thrown in ……………
good measure.
3. Strictly …………… the record, his work is below standard.
4. I’d love to drive over to see you but my car has been acting …………… recently.
5. He is looking for a job and he is willing to do anything …………… reason.
Part 4. Complete the text by writing the correct form of the word in capitals. (10 pts)
In January 2001, the (1)……………… (GOVERN) Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) issued its latest report on
climate change. Climate models worked out by giant super-computers had become far more reliable since the
previous report in 1995 and allowed them to (2)……………… (PRAISE) the earlier projections for global
warming. Their conclusions were that something very serious is happening and that it cannot be a natural
process. The 1990s was the hottest decade for 1,000 years and the Earth is warming faster than at any time in the
last 10,000 years. According to the report, human activities are (3)……………… (EQUIVOCATE) to blame for
the temperature rise. The burning of fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide and, due to deforestation, there are fewer
trees to absorb this gas and recycle it back into oxygen. Methane (4)……………… (CONCENTRATE) have
also gone up dramatically because of increases in rice culture and (5)……………… (CATTLE), both of which
generate methane from (6)……………… (COMPOSE) vegetation. These greenhouses gases trap heat in the
Earth’s atmosphere and cause the temperature to rise. In the worst case, the resulting melting of ice-caps and
glaciers would cause sea levels to rise by up to 88 cm, endangering the homes and (7)……………… (LIVELY)
of tens of millions of people who live in low-lying regions.
Unfortunately, there is far greater (8)……………… (UNANIMOUS) among the world’s scientists over the issue
than among politicians. As long ago as 1990, the IPCC recommended a 60% reduction in carbon dioxide
(9)……………… (EMIT), as the basic level required to return the planet’s climate to a healthy level.
Governments globally failed to (10)……………… (ACT) these proposals. Now that the dangers have been
reaffirmed by the latest report, it is high time that governments took an active interest in exploring alternative,
renewable energy sources.
C. READING COMPREHENSION (60 pts)
Part 1. For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context. (10 pts)
The issues for (1)………… economies are a little more straightforward. The desire to build on undeveloped land
is not (2)………… out of desperation or necessity, but is a result of the relentless march of progress. Cheap
labour and a relatively highly-skilled workforce make these countries highly competitive and there is a flood of
inward investment, particularly from (3)………… looking to take advantage of the low wages before the cost
and standard of living begin to rise. It is factors such as these that are making many Asian economies extremely
attractive when viewed as investment opportunities at the moment. Similarly, in Africa, the relative (4)…………
of precious metals and natural resources tends to attract a lot of (5)………… companies and a whole sub-
industry develops around and is completely dependent on this foreign-direct investment. It is understandable that
countries that are the focus of this sort of attention can lose sight of the environmental implications of large-scale
industrial development, and this can have devastating consequences for the natural world. And it is a
(6)………… cycle because the more industrially active a nation becomes, the greater the demand for and
harvesting of natural resources. For some, the environmental issues, though they can hardly be ignored, are
viewed as a (7)………… concern. Indeed, having an environmental conscience or taking environmental matters
into consideration when it comes to decisions on whether or not to build rubber-tree (8)………… or grow biofuel
crops would be quite (9)………… indeed. For those involved in such schemes, it is a black-and-white issue. For
37
vast (10)………… of land in Latin America, i.e. it is clear that the welfare of the rainforests matters little to local
government when vast sums of money can be made from cultivating the land.
1. A. converging B. demerging C. emerging D. resurging
2. A. arisen B. born C. bred D. grown
3. A. intercontinentals B. multinationals C. outmigrations D. transmigrations
4. A. abundance B. accumulation C. amplitude D. premonition
5. A. exploitation B. purveyance C. surveillance D. exploration
6. A. vacuous B. vexatious C. vicious D. viscous
7. A. exponential B. extrinsic C. parallel D. peripheral
8. A. holdings B. homesteads C. plantations D. ranches
9. A. prohibitive B. imperative C. proscriptive D. prospective
10. A. tracts B. plots C. regions D. sectors
Part 2. Fill ONE suitable word in each blank. (15 pts)
Lovers of music who are little rusty when it comes to history shouldn’t miss forthcoming issues of this magazine.
In our most ambitious series of articles (1)…………… date, we aim to span the history of western music in
(2)…………… entirety. Obviously, considering the lack of space at our disposal, we cannot be totally
comprehensive (3)…………… we do feel we have a more than adequate overview of the socio-cultural context.
If you’re already feeling (4)…………… off by the prospect of a rather dry history lesson, then I must stress
(5)…………… unlike a lesson these articles will be. Despite the extent to which you might be familiar with the
historical background, you must read these articles for the insight they give (6)…………… the music itself.
In addition to this, the series will represent a guide for readers whose aim is to build an essential music
collection. Now should this strike you as (7)…………… another voyage through familiar territory, then you may
be in (8)…………… some surprises, because our expert writers are nothing if (9)…………… unpredictable. In
view of the reputation of (10)…………… involved, one thing is guaranteed - the music chosen to illustrate their
histories will be far from run-of-the-mill.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. (10 pts)
1. The craft of perfumery has an ancient and global heritage. The art flourished in Ancient Rome, where the
emperors were said to bathe in scent. After the fall of Rome, much of the knowledge was lost, but survived in
Islamic civilizations in the Middle Ages. Arab and Persian pharmacists developed essential oils from the
aromatic plants of the Indian peninsula. They developed the processes of distillation and suspension in alcohol,
which allowed for smaller amounts of raw materials to be used than in the ancient process, by which flower
petals were soaked in warm oil. This knowledge was carried back to European monasteries during the Crusades.
2. At first, the use of fragrances was primarily associated with healing. Aromatic alcoholic waters were ingested
as well as used externally. Fragrances were used to purify the air, both for spiritual and health purposes. During
the Black Death, the bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad odour which could be
averted by inhaling pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon. The Black Death led to an aversion to using water
for washing, and so perfume was commonly used as a cleaning agent.
3. Later on, the craft of perfume re-entered Europe, and was centred in Venice, chiefly because it was an
important trade route and a centre for glass-making. Having such materials at hand was essential for the
distillation process. In the late seventeenth century, trade soared in France, when Louis XIV brought in policies
of protectionism and patronage which stimulated the purchase of luxury goods. Here, perfumery was the preserve
of glove-makers. The link arose since the tanning of leather required putrid substances. Consequently, the gloves
were scented before they were sold and worn. A glove and perfume makers’ guild had existed here since 1190.
Entering it required 7 years of formal training under a master perfumer.
4. The trade in perfume flourished during the reign of Louis XV, as the master glove-and-perfume makers,
particularly those trading in Paris, received patronage from the royal court, where it is said that a different
perfume was used each week. The perfumers diversified into other cosmetics including soaps, powders, white
face paints and hair dyes. They were not the sole sellers of beauty products. Mercers, spicers, vinegar-makers and
38
wig-makers were all cashing in on the popularity of perfumed products. Even simple shopkeepers were coming
up with their own concoctions to sell.
5. During the eighteenth century, more modern, capitalist perfume industry began to emerge, particularly in
Britain where there was a flourishing consumer society. In France, the revolution initially disrupted the perfume
trade due to its association with aristocracy, however, it regained momentum later as a wider range of markets
were sought both in the domestic and overseas markets. The guild system was abolished in 1791, allowing new
high-end perfumery shops to open in Paris.
6. Perfume became less associated with health in 1810 with a Napoleonic ordinance which required perfumers to
declare the ingredients of all products for internal consumption. Unwilling to divulge their secrets, traders
concentrated on products for external use. Napoleon affected the industry in other ways too. With French ports
blockaded by the British during the Napoleonic wars, the London perfumers were able to dominate the markets
for some time.
7. One of the significant changes in the nineteenth century was the idea of branding. Until then, trademarks had
had little significance in the perfumery where goods were consumed locally, although they had a long history in
other industries. One of the pioneers in this field was Rimmel who was nationalized as a British citizen in 1857.
He took advantage of the spread of railroads to reach customers in wider markets. To do this, he built a brand
which conveyed prestige and quality, and were worth paying a premium for. He recognised the role of design in
enhancing the value of his products, hiring a French lithographer to create the labels for his perfume bottles.
8. Luxury fragrances were strongly associated with the affluent and prestigious cities of London and Paris.
Perfumers elsewhere tended to supply cheaper products and knock-offs of the London and Paris brands. The
United States perfume industry, which developed around the docks in New York where French oils were being
imported, began in this way. Many American firms were founded by immigrants, such as William Colgate, who
arrived in 1806. At this time, Colgate was chiefly known as a perfumery. Its Cashmere Bouquet brand had 625
perfume varieties in the early 20th century.
1. The purpose of the text is to
A. compare the perfumes from different countries.
B. describe the history of perfume making.
C. describe the problems faced by perfumers.
D. explain the different uses of perfume over time.
2. Which of the following is NOT true about perfume making in Islamic countries?
A. They created perfume by soaking flower petals in oil.
B. They dominated perfume making after the fall of the Roman Empire.
C. They took raw materials for their perfumes from India.
D. They created a technique which required fewer plant materials.
3. Why does the writer include this sentence in paragraph 2?
During the Black Death, the bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad odour which could be
averted by inhaling pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon.
A. To explain why washing was not popular during the Black Death.
B. To show how improper use of perfume caused widespread disease.
C. To illustrate how perfumes used to be ingested to treat disease.
D. To give an example of how fragrances were used for health purposes.
4. Why did the perfume industry develop in Paris?
A. Because it was an important trade route.
B. Because of the rise in the glove-making industry.
C. Because of the introduction of new trade laws.
D. Because of a new fashion in scented gloves.
5. What does “putrid” mean (paragraph 3)?
A. Bad-smelling B. Rare C. Prestigious D. Numerous
6. Which of the following people most influenced the decline of perfumes as medicine?
39
A. Louis XIV B. Louis XV C. Rimmel D. Napoleon
7. In paragraph 4, it is implied that
A. master glove and perfume makers created a new perfume each week.
B. the Royal Court only bought perfume from masters.
C. mercers, spicers and other traders began to call themselves masters.
D. cosmetics were still only popular within the Royal Courts.
8. How did the French Revolution affect the Parisian perfume industry?
A. The industry declined then rose again.
B. The industry collapsed and took a long time to recover.
C. The industry was greatly boosted.
D. The industry lost most of its overseas customers.
9. Which of the following is NOT true of Rimmel?
A. He was one of the first people to utilise trademarks.
B. He created attractive packaging for his products.
C. His products were more expensive than other brands.
D. He transported his goods to potential customers by train.
10. What is implied about the New York perfume industry?
A. It was the fastest-growing perfume industry in the world at that time.
B. It was primarily developed by immigrants arriving from France.
C. It copied luxury fragrances and sold them cheaply.
D. There was a wider range of fragrances available here than elsewhere.
Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (10 pts)
THE PROBLEM OF SCARCE RESOURCES
Section A
The problem of how health-care resources should be allocated or apportioned, so that they are distributed in both
the most just and most efficient way, is not a new one. Every health system in an economically developed society
is faced with the need to decide (either formally or informally) what proportion of the community’s total
resources should be spent on health-care; how resources are to be apportioned; what diseases and disabilities and
which forms of treatment are to be given priority; which members of the community are to be given special
consideration in respect of their health needs; and which forms of treatment are the most cost-effective.
Section B
What is new is that, from the 1950s onwards, there have been certain general changes in outlook about the
finitude of resources as a whole and of health-care resources in particular, as well as more specific changes
regarding the clientele of health-care resources and the cost to the community of those resources. Thus, in the
1950s and 1960s, there emerged an awareness in Western societies that resources for the provision of fossil fuel
energy were finite and exhaustible and that the capacity of nature or the environment to sustain economic
development and population was also finite. In other words, we became aware of the obvious fact that there were
‘limits to growth’. The new consciousness that there were also severe limits to health-care resources was part of
this general revelation of the obvious. Looking back, it now seems quite incredible that in the national health
systems that emerged in many countries in the years immediately after the 1939-45 World War, it was assumed
without question that all the basic health needs of any community could be satisfied, at least in principle; the
‘invisible hand’ of economic progress would provide.
Section C
However, at exactly the same time as this new realization of the finite character of health-care resources was
sinking in, an awareness of a contrary kind was developing in Western societies: that people have a basic right to
health-care as a necessary condition of a proper human life. Like education, political and legal processes and
institutions, public order, communication, transport and money supply, health-care came to be seen as one of the
fundamental social facilities necessary for people to exercise their other rights as autonomous human beings.
People are not in a position to exercise personal liberty and to be self-determining if they are poverty-stricken, or
40
deprived of basic education, or do not live within a context of law and order. In the same way, basic health-care
is a condition of the exercise of autonomy.
Section D
Although the language of ‘rights’ sometimes leads to confusion, by the late 1970s it was recognized in most
societies that people have a right to health-care (though there has been considerable resistance in the United Sates
to the idea that there is a formal right to health-care). It is also accepted that this right generates an obligation or
duty for the state to ensure that adequate health-care resources are provided out of the public purse. The state has
no obligation to provide a health-care system itself, but to ensure that such a system is provided. Put another way,
basic health-care is now recognized as a ‘public good’, rather than a ‘private good’ that one is expected to buy
for oneself. As the 1976 declaration of the World Health Organisation put it: ‘The enjoyment of the highest
attainable standard of health is one of the fundamental rights of every human being without distinction of race,
religion, political belief, economic or social condition’. As has just been remarked, in a liberal society basic
health is seen as one of the indispensable conditions for the exercise of personal autonomy.
Section E
Just at the time when it became obvious that health-care resources could not possibly meet the demands being
made upon them, people were demanding that their fundamental right to health-care be satisfied by the state. The
second set of more specific changes that have led to the present concern about the distribution of health-care
resources stems from the dramatic rise in health costs in most OECD countries, accompanied by large-scale
demographic and social changes which have meant, to take one example, that elderly people are now major (and
relatively very expensive) consumers of health-care resources. Thus in OECD countries as a whole, health costs
increased from 3.8% of GDP in 1960 to 7% of GDP in 1980, and it has been predicted that the proportion of
health costs to GDP will continue to increase. (In the US the current figure is about 12% of GDP, and in
Australia about 7.8% of GDP.)
As a consequence, during the 1980s a kind of doomsday scenario (analogous to similar doomsday extrapolations
about energy needs and fossil fuels or about population increases) was projected by health administrators,
economists and politicians. In this scenario, ever-rising health costs were matched against static or declining
resources.
Notes:
- OECD: Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
- GDP: Gross Domestic Products
Questions 1-5
Choose the correct heading for the five sections A-E of the Reading Passage from the list of headings below.
List of Headings
i The connection between health-care and other human rights
ii The development of market-based health systems.
iii The role of the state in health-care
iv A problem shared by every economically developed country
v The impact of recent change
vi The views of the medical establishment
vii The end of an illusion
viii Sustainable economic development
1. Section A: ……………
2. Section B: ……………
3. Section C: ……………
4. Section D: ……………
5. Section E: ……………
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Questions 6-10
Do the following statements agree with the view of the writer in the Reading Passage?
Write
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
6. ………… Personal liberty and independence have never been regarded as directly linked to health-care.
7. ………… Health-care came to be seen as a right at about the same time that the limits of health-care resources
became evident.
8. ………… In OECD countries population changes have had an impact on health-care costs in recent years.
9. ………… OECD governments have consistently underestimated the level of health-care provision needed.
10. ………… In most economically developed countries the elderly will to make special provision for their
health-care in the future.
Part 3. Essay writing (30 pts)
Youngsters now admire and imitate media and sports personalities even though they do not always set a
good example. Do you think that this is a positive or negative development?
Part 1 (10 pts)
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. A
Part 2 (10 pts)
1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. F
Part 3 (10 pts)
1. Compulsory and regular. 2. Full-time and flexible-time students.
3. People from off-campus. 4. No experimental facilities now.
5. Environmental Science.
Part 4 (20 pts)
1. sense of sight 2. summit 3. incredibly rare 4. weird relief
5. recreational group 6. sighted people 7. breathtakingly 8. inner mind sport
9. adversities 10. turning bad things

Part 1. Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. (10 pts)
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. C
Part 2. Read the text and find 5 mistakes and correct them. You should indicate in which line the mistake
is. (5 pts)
During the last 25 years, Britain’s urban sparrow population has declined in as much as two-thirds, and the
bird has almost disappeared from many of its former haunts. The decline has been blamed on everything
from cats to garden pesticides. Moreover, modern buildings have far more few nooks and crannies where
the birds can nest. Factors like these may well be involved, but alone they fail to explain the severity of the
decline, or the fact that other urban birds have been less affected.
42
Denis Summers-Smith is the world’s leading expert on sparrows, because when he comes up with a theory
to explain their decline, it has to be worth listening to. He suggests that the culprit is a chemical adding to
unleaded petrol. It would be deeply ironic if a policy that was intended to improve the nation’s health was to
prove responsible for the decline of one of its species.
According to Summers-Smith, social species such as the sparrow require a minimum population in a specific
area to breed successfully. If, for whatever reason, numbers drop below this threshold, the stimulus to breed
disappears. The most dramatical example is the passenger pigeon, which in the late nineteenth century went
from being the world’s most common bird to total extinction within fifty years.
1. in → by 2. more → too 3. because → so
4. adding → added 5. dramatical → dramatic
Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (5 pts)
1. at 2. for 3. off 4. up 5. within
1. intergovernmental 2. reappraise 3. unequivocally 4. concentrations
5. cattle(-)raising/ breeding 6. decomposing 7. livelihood 8. unanimity
9. emissions 10. enact

1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. A
Part 2. Fill ONE suitable word in each blank. (15 pts)
1. to 2. its 3. but/ although 4. put 5. how
6. into 7. yet 8. for 9. not 10. those
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. (10 pts)
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C
Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (10 pts)
1. iv 2. viii 3. i 4. iii 5. v
6. N 7. Y 8. Y 9. NG 10. NG
Part 5. You are going to read four different opinions from leading scientists about the future of fuel. For
questions 1-10, choose from the writers A-D. The writers may be chosen more than once. (15 pts)
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. D
TEST 6:
Part 1. (10 pts) You are going to hear a speech given at a poetry award ceremony. For questions 1-5,
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answer in the
space provided.
1. What significant event happened in 2006?
A. Antonia Watson won the award for the first time.
43
B. The award was presented twice.
C. The Poetry Award was first instituted.
D. The Poetry competition was cancelled.
2. The Antonia Watson Memorial Poetry Award's second prize is £ .............. .?
A. £1.500 B. £2.250 C. £500 D. £250
3. What is the relationship between Thomas and Antonia Watson?
A. He is one of Antonia Watson’s siblings.
B. He is her neighbor.
C. He is the close friend of Antonia Watson’s flatmate.
D. He is her cousin.
4. What was the name of the first poem Antonia Watson published?
A. Be Kind B. Love Barks C. Triad Children D. Love Bird
5. What did Antonia Watson suffer from after her grandfather passed away?
A. Pneumonia B. Writer’s block
C. Overwork D. Too much stress
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2. (10 pts) You will hear a discussion between two students. For questions 6-10, listen and decide
whether the following sentences are true (T) or false (F).
6. Jess wants to start the meeting by reviewing the objectives for the project
7. Matt and Jess are planning to study old photos.
8. The plots are supposed to be 10 meters apart.
9. The bamboo sticks can be purchased at gardening centres.
10. The instructions sound complicated because there are so many squares.
Part 4. (20 pts) You will hear a piece of news. For questions 16-25, listen and complete the summary with
NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS. Write your answer in the space provided.
T. Berry Brazelton, one of the 16. _______________ to parents and children, a pediatrician and a child
psychiatrist passed away this week, but he will be remembered most for teaching the world and especially
parents about babies.
Brazelton, 17. _______________ the Baby Whisperer, became a rock star to 18. _______________ new parents.
He once told NPR's Steve Inskeep a family story that led him to be a pediatrician. He hated his younger brother
because his mother was 19. _______________ his younger brother. But his grandmother valued him, and she let
him take care of all his younger cousins, thanks to which he wanted to be just what he is - a pediatrician who
works with parents. For generations of parents, Brazelton was the expert. But when it 20. _______________, he
struggled. He said he really felt that 21. _______________ was learning from your mistakes, not from your
success.
Brazelton's work we view babies and young children. During his more than 50-year career, he encouraged the
world to see them 23. _______________. Here he is in a 2010 interview.
“What I dream of is that every parent will have an opportunity to give her and his child the best future that they
can dream of and that every child will be ready to accept that and 24. _______________. there. And I think we
can do that.”
T. Berry Brazelton died on 25. _______________Tuesday his 100th birthday.

Part 1. (10 pts) Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your
answer in the space provided.
1. The breakwater ____________ into the sea.
A. prodded out B. jutted out C. waved out D. hollowed out
2. My house is a mile from here, as the ______________ flies, but two miles following the old road.
44
A. bird B. falcon C. sparrow D. crow
3. His opponent called him a traitor, which really ____________ his patriotism.
A. cast aspersions on B. dumped asperity on
C. hurled insults D. drew integrity from
4. His smirk suggested some vicious _____________, which terrified everyone at the meeting.
A. subtleties B. allusions C. insinuations D. inertia
5. Jean, have you seen the ______________ in your stocking?
A. ladder B. blade C. spade D. spatula
6. The old lady was becoming increasingly affected by ________________.
A. masculinity B. senility C. virility D. audacity
7. She does her homework on Fridays to save herself from the ____________ of having to do it during the
weekend.
A. blast B. drudgery C. furnace D. callousness
8. From the result of your test, it’s evident that you were paying _______ attention to the lecture.
A. scanty B. meager C. frugal D. scant
9. It’s curious that he _______ her to come after they had that bitter quarrel last week.
A. should ask B. would ask C. might ask D. asked
10. Arthur’s skills as a businessman are _______ to his position at the company. The boss hired him because he
wanted a regular golf partner.
A. adventurous B. apposite C. adventitious D. arrant
Part 2. (5 pts) Read the text and find 5 mistakes and correct them. You should indicate in which line the
mistake is. Write your answer in the space provided.
Asking people to think of a Viking and the image they would most likely conjure upon is one of a huge, flame-
haired Norseman in a horn helmet and brandishing a battleaxe. In fact, such ideas stem from romanticized tales
that took hold in the 18th century and which have evolved into the two-dimensional caricatures we are familiar
with today. They may be captivating, but dismiss them we must. These myths have acquired such power that
certain modern historians appear to have been unable to resist turning asserts into fact, attributing purposes to
relics for which there is no support, and imposing their interpretations of ritual when there is no truly reliable
record. What has to be recognized above all else is the Vikings' technological ability in boatbuilding and
navigation, to which sea-faring nations owe a debt of disgrace whether they realize it or not.
Our council members, a hopeless group who demonstrated remarkable (0. COMPETENCE) ___ incompetence
____ in the design process of Hillside Road, are now busily working on plans for the rest of Bayview, again
behind (1. CLOSE) _______ doors. Only when these people finish will the public be 'invited' to submit
comments, by which point none of these will make a difference. The council will simply go ahead despite our
concerns. Where is the (2. TRANSPARENT) _______ in this process? When has anyone from the council ever
taken responsibility for the vast sums of money wasted when their schemes fail? And now we have to prepare for
further (3. WASTE) _______ as the council use taxpayers' money to 'develop' Bayview in ways that no local
desires. The reason for this tirade is that, in my view, the problems we are faced with – the escalation of (4.
RISE) _______ housing in single-storey areas, the road design, the connection to our city, these issues have to be
addressed before our beautiful environment is damaged beyond repair.
The council has announced its intention to spend a figure approaching $20 million over the next few years
improving facilities and transport in Bayview. This is not before time. Furthermore, they have (5. APPEAR)
_______ set aside further funds to improve traffic flow on Hillside Road, and to finance the design and building
of an exhibition centre and renovation of the library. People who live and work here will have to face the
inconvenience of noise, dust and (6. BLOCK) _______ pavements as roads are widened and car parks are
extended in downtown Bayview, but this is something we must tolerate if we aim to attract the tourist dollar and
encourage residents to use local services and retail facilities. The housing issue is another matter altogether and
45
council plans for introducing (7. CHARACTER) _______ multi-storey buildings to the suburb have been ill
thought out.
As a suburb that draws more tourists than any other in the city, Bayview deserves the considerable investment
that the council has proposed. However, it is not for the council to force upon us developments that people here
object to, and which we recognize are fundamentally detrimental to the community. Many of us have asked the
council for details concerning the anticipated population figures, should their high-density housing projected be
(8. ACT) _______ , but they appear reluctant to (9. CLOSE) _______ them. We have thus been forced to work it
out for ourselves. It has been estimated that by building apartment blocks of four to five storeys, the council will
facilitate an (10. EXPONENT) _______ and undesirable growth in population: 400 homes are likely to rise to
1200 in the North Bayview area and 700 cars could turn into 2100; with the increased population impacting
heavily on
Part 1. (10 pts) For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context. Write
your answer in the space provided.
The Return of El Nino
Aside from the seasons, El Nino and its twin, La Nina, are the two largest single (0) ___C____ of
variability in the world's climate from year to year. Both are dictated by (1) _______ in water temperature
in the tropical Pacific basin between Australia and South America. (2) _______ after the Spanish words
for "Christ child" and "the girl" because of their (3) _______to Christmas, they lead to dramatic shifts in the
entire system of oceanic and atmospheric factors from air pressure to currents.
A significant rise in sea temperature leads to an El Nino event whereas a fall in temperature leads to La
Nina. The cause of the phenomenon is not fully understood but in an El Nino "event" the pool of warm
surface water is forced eastwards by the loss of the westerly trade winds. The sea water evaporates, (4)
_______ in drenching rains over South America, as well as western parts of the United States, such as
California. The effects can (5) _______ for anything from a few weeks to 8 months, causing extreme weather
as far (6) _______ as India and East Africa. The correlation with global warming is as (7)
_______unclear. Archaeological evidence shows El Ninos and La Ninas have been (8) _______ for 15,000
years. But scientists are investigating whether climate change is leading to an increase in their intensity or
duration.
The weather pattern is already having early and intense effects and El Nino could bring extreme rainfall to
parts of east Africa which were last year (9) _______ by a cycle of drought and floods. It's difficult to (10)
_______ what will happen to the weather in the British Isles, but it will probably add to the likelihood of
record-breaking temperatures in the UK.
0. A. methods B. theories C. causes D. consequences
1. A. shifts B. drops C. alternatives D. downfall
2. A. Elected B. Called C. Nominated D. Named
3. A. proximity B. neighborhood C. attachment D. bond
4. A. producing B. resulting C. stemming D. refreshing
5. A. persist B. keep C. conserve D. assert
6. A. ahead B. afield C. along D. alongside
7. A. still B. yet C. present D. now
8. A. dawning B. obtaining C. occurring D. securing
9. A. hit B. shoved C. punctured D. punched
10. A. predict B. imply C. entail D. point
Part 2. (10 pts) Read the text below and think of one word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
WORD for each space. Write your answer in the space provided.
Moths count!
Renowned conservationist Sir David Attenborough is launching a campaign today called
'Moths Count', to halt the drastically declining number of Britain's native moths and improve their poor image. A
46
report (1) _______ 'The State of Britain's Larger Moths' revealed last year that in some areas, the moth
population has almost (2) _______since 1968. This has led the charity, 'Butterfly Conservation', of which Sir
David is president, to develop a new strategy which will provide opportunities for real (3) _______ to broaden
their (4) _______ and also generate appreciation among the wider public. Moths, he insists, play an essential role
in the environment. Their loss (5) _______the species of birds, bats and small mammals that (6) _______ on
them, and the plants they (7) _______. 'Moths Count' campaigner Richard Fox says 'Currently there's an image
problem, partly because there's a (8) _______ that moths are night creatures, although many are day-flying and
only about half a dozen of Britain's 2500 species damage clothes.' Reasons for their decline include climate
change and loss of habitat. Although the (9) _______ of moths has increased with the establishment of new
species in Britain, overall their numbers have dropped, and for some, extinction now seems sadly (10) _______.
Part 3. (15 pts) Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. Write your answer
in the space provided.
How to rebuild your own brain
It’s not the kind of thing you would ever forget. When Barbara Arrowsmith-Young started school in Canada in
the early 1950s, her teacher told her mother – in her presence – that she would never be able to learn. Having
helped over 4,000 children overcome exactly the same diagnosis, she can laugh at it. But she didn’t at the time.
Today Arrowsmith-Young holds a master’s degree in psychology and has published a groundbreaking book
called The Woman Who Changed Her Brain. But until she was in her mid-twenties, she was desperate, tormented
and often depressed. She didn’t know what was wrong.
On the one hand, she was brilliant with near-total auditory and visual memory. ‘I could memorise whole books.’
On the other hand, she was a dolt. ‘I didn’t understand anything,’ she says. ‘Meaning just never crystallised.
Everything was fragmented, disconnected.’
In exams, she sometimes got 100 percent but whenever the task involved reasoning and interpretation she would
fail dismally. ‘The teachers didn’t understand,’ she says. ‘They thought I wasn’t trying and I was often
punished.’ To help her, her mother devised a series of flash cards with numbers and letters and, after much hard
work, she achieved literacy and numeracy of a sort, even getting into university, where she disguised her learning
disabilities by working twenty hours a day: ‘I used to hide when the security guards came to close the library at
night, then come back out and carry on.’
The breakthrough came when she was twenty-six. A fellow student gave her a book by a Russian
neuropsychologist, Aleksandr Luria. The book contained his research on the writings of a highly intelligent
Russian soldier, Lyova Zazetsky, who had been shot in the brain during a battle, and recorded in great detail his
subsequent disabilities.
For the first time, Arrowsmith-Young says, ‘I recognised somebody describing exactly what I experienced. His
expressions were the same: living life in a fog. His difficulties were the same: he couldn’t tell the time from a
clock, he couldn’t tell the difference between the sentences The boy chases the dog and The dog chases the boy. I
began to see that maybe an area of my brain wasn’t working.’
The bullet had lodged in a part of the brain where information from sight, sound, language and touch is
synthesised, analysed and made sense of. Arrowsmith-Young began to realise that, in all probability, this was the
region of her own brain that had been malfunctioning since she was born.
Then she read about the work of Mark Rosenzweig, an American researcher who found that laboratory rats given
a rich and stimulating environment developed larger brains. Rosenzweig concluded that the brain continues
developing rather than being fixed at birth: a concept known as ‘neuroplasticity’. Arrowsmith-Young decided
that if rats could grow bigger and better brains, so could she.
She started devising exercises for herself to work the parts of her brain that weren’t functioning. She drew 100
two-handed clockfaces on cards and wrote the time each told on the back. Then she started trying to tell the time
from each. She did this eight to ten hours a day, gradually becoming faster and more accurate.
‘I was experiencing mental exhaustion like I had never known,’ she says, ‘so I figured something was happening.
After three or four months of this, it really felt like something had fundamentally changed in my brain. I watched
47
an edition of a news programme and I got it. I read pages from ten books, and understood every single one. It
was like stepping from darkness into light.’
She developed more exercises, for different parts of her brain, and found they worked, too. Now almost 30, she
was finally beginning to function normally.
It was revolutionary work, and not just for her. ‘At that time,’ she says, ‘all the work around learning disabilities
involved compensating for what learners couldn’t do. It all started from the premise that they were
unchangeable.’
Faced with little receptivity for her ideas, Arrowsmith-Young decided to found her own school in Toronto in
1980; she now has thirty-five such schools. Thousands of children dismissed as impossible to teach, have
attended Arrowsmith schools and gone on to academic and professional success.
‘So much human suffering is caused by cognitive mismatches with the demands of the task,’ says Arrowsmith-
Young. ‘So many wrong diagnoses get made, so many children get written off, so many people take wrong
decisions and end up in lives and careers they did not choose for themselves but were chosen for them by
cognitive limitations that can be identified and strengthened. There is hope for these people.’
1. What do we learn about Barbara Arrowsmith-Young in the first paragraph?
A. She has learned over the years how to help her own child.
B. When she was a child, it was thought that she would grow out of her problems.
C. Her particular problem went undiagnosed until she was a young woman.
D. She believes that children need to be told if they are likely to find school difficult.
2. How did her problem manifest itself?
A. She could understand the meaning of difficult words.
B. She found it hard to remember anything.
C. She had amazing eyesight.
D. She could seem quite stupid at times.
3. Her teachers at school _______ .
A. thought she was just being lazy.
B. set exams that were too difficult.
C. helped her with special lessons.
D. said that she would be unable to pass university entrance exams.
4. When Barbara was twenty-six years old, she _______ .
A. was studying neuropsychology in Russia.
B. discovered that she was not the only person in the world with her problem.
C. started to write a book about her disabilities.
D. wrote to a Russian soldier who had the same problems as she did.
5. What do we learn about the Russian soldier?
A. His language skills were those of a young child.
B. He knew that his injury had caused damage to his sight.
C. He believed that brain damage might be the cause of his problem.
D. His interpretation of his problem was slightly different from Barbara’s.
6. According to Mark Rosenzweig, _______ .
A. rats have much larger brains than people think
B. neuroplasticity is the ability of the brain to keep on growing
C. Barbara would not be able to do anything to improve her brain
D. the brain requires regular and frequent stimulation to function normally
7. Barbara’s attempt at improving her brain _______ .
A. ended up with her giving up from extreme tiredness
B. made her feel as if her personality was changing
C. included spending a long time focusing on speed tests
D. failed to help her make connections she had always found difficult
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8. What do we learn about the traditional attitude towards people with learning disabilities?
A. It was impossible to improve the performance of the brain.
B. People were taught how to live with the problem.
C. Brain exercises have always been a part of dealing with learning disabilities.
D. They would never be able to function in a modern society.
9. What does the phrase “the same diagnosis” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. The master’s degree in psychology.
B. 4000 children.
C. Learning disability.
D. Barbara Arrowsmith-Young.
10. What does the word “these” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. People who make wrong diagnoses.
B. People who choose their own careers.
C. Scientists who try to help learning-impaired people.
D. People whose careers are chosen by cognitive limitations.
Part 4: Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below. Write the correct
number, i-x, next to Questions 1-6.
List of Headings
i The prevalence of numerical 'codes' in modern life
ii How RSA works
iii A brief history of keeping things safe
iv 'New math' vs 'medieval math'
v Proof that RSA is effective
vi The illusion of security
vii Cryptography: the modern key for the lock
viii Cryptography: the modern key for the lock
ix In defence of medieval security systems
x A new approach to system security
Example Answer
Paragraph A iii
1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
6. Paragraph G
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Using Mathematics to Secure Our Money

A
Up until very recently people's wealth, mostly coins and jewels, was kept safe under lock and key. Rich medieval
families would keep a strong box with a large key, both of which were carefully hidden in different places. Later
the box may have been kept in a bank. In either case, potential thieves would need to find both the box and the
key. A similar principle was used for sending secret diplomatic and military messages. The messages were
written in code with both the sender and the receiver having the key to the code. Thus, while the message
could be discovered its meaning could only be found if the 'key' was also known. And so began a long-running
49
battle between code-makers who tried to make better keys, and code-breakers who sought ways of finding them.
B
Nowadays, cryptography is central to how our money is kept secure, even though we may not be aware of it. Our
money is no longer in a tangible form, but in the form of information kept with our banks. To keep everyone
involved happy, the messages initiated by our plastic cards have to be sent and received safely and the entire
operation must be carried out with a high level of confidentiality and security.
C
On a practical level, it is clear that the work of code-makers has been introduced into our daily financial lives.
Our credit cards have 16-digit numbers on the front and a 3-digit number on the back. They also contain a 'chip'
that can do all sorts of mysterious operations with these numbers. Finally, we also have a Personal Identification
Number which we all need to memorize. All these numbers form a type of cryptographic key. However, as we
shall see, the modern crypto systems are very different in the way the keys are used.
D
The main feature of the traditional systems was that only one key was needed by both the sender and the receiver
to understand the message. However the main problem was that the key itself needed to be communicated to both
parties before they could use it. Obviously a major security risk. A very different approach was developed in the
1970s, based on a different way of using the keys. Now the main idea is that the typical user, let us call him
Amir, has two keys; a 'public key' and a 'private key'. The public key is used to encrypt messages that other
people wish to send to Amir, and the private key is used by Amir to decrypt these messages. The security of the
system is based on keeping Amir's private key
secret.
E
This system of public-key cryptography, known as RSA- from the names of the developers (Ronald Rivest, Adi
Shamir and Leonard Adleman) - was developed in the late 1970s and is based on a collection of several
mathematical algorithms. The first is a process that allows the user, Amir, to calculate two numerical keys:
private and public, based on two prime numbers. To complete the RSA system, two more algorithms are then
needed: one for encrypting messages and one for decrypting them.
F
The effectiveness of RSA depends on two things. It is efficient, because the encryption and decryption algorithms
used by participants are easy, in a technical sense they can be made precise. On the other hand, it is believed to
be secure, because no one has fund an easy way of decrypting the encrypted message without knowing Amir's
private key.
G
When the RSA system was first written about in Scientifc American, the strength of the system was shown by
challenging the readers to find the prime factors -the two original numbers - of a certain number with 129 digits.
It took 17 years to solve this problem, using the combined efforts of over 600 people. So clearly it is a very
secure system. Using mathematics in this way, scientists and technologists have enabled us to keep our money as
secure as the rich medieval barons with their strong boxes and hidden keys.
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage?
In boxes 7-10, write
NOTGIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thank about this
7 Online banking makes most people nerous

8 The way keys are used in modern cryptograph is quite different from the past
9 The main problem with traditional cryptography systems is that neither party can
decode the message.
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10 The RSA system represents the most secure cryptography we are ever likely to
develop
Your answers:
7. 8. 9. 10.
D. WRITING (60 pts)

Part 3. (30 pts) Write an essay of 300-350 words on the following topic:
There is a widespread belief among secondary school students that nothing but a university degree is a
passport to later success in life.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this belief? Give reasons and examples to support your opinion(s).
BIỂU ĐIỂM VÀ ĐÁP ÁN
Part 1 (10 pts) 2 pts/correct answer.
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. B
6. T 7. F 8. T 9. F 10. F
11. a strong connection 12. Feeling happy
13. conserve and protect dolphins. 14. People/swimmers/ boats disrupt their environments
15. chase after them/ the dolphins.
16. most dedicated advocates 17. Whose nickname was
18. overwhelmed and anxious 19. so invested in
20. came to his own children 21. learning to parent
22. revolutionized the way 23. as complex beings
24. take off to get 25. just shy of
Part 1. (10 pts) 1 pt/correct answer.
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A
6. B 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. C
Part 2 (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer
Number Line Mistake Correction
1. Line 1 Asking Ask
2. Line 1 Conjure upon Conjure up
3. Line 2 Horn Horned
4. Line 6 Asserts Assertion
5. Line 14 Disgrace Gratitude
Part 3 (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer
1. up 2. Back / in 3. with 4. at 5. up
Part 4 (10 pts) 1 pt/correct answer
1. closed 2. Transparency 3. wastage 4. high-rise 5. Apparently 6. blocked-off
7. out-of-character 8. enacted 9. disclose 10. exponential
Part 1. (10 pts) 1 pt/correct answer
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. A

1. entitled/titled 2. Halved 3. Enthusiasts 4. Expertise 5. threatens
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6. feed 7. Pollinate 8. perception/ belief 9. Diversity 10. unavoidable
Part 3 (15 pts) 2.5 pt/correct answer
1. B 2. F 3. A 4. E 5. D 6. G

1. vii 2. i 3. x 4. ii 5. viii 6. v
7. NG 8. YES 9. NO 10. NG
TEST 7
Part 1. Listen to the recording. For the following questions, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) which fits
best according to what you hear. (10 pts)
1. The original cause of the school's decline was
A. the old-fashioned character of the school.
B. the transformation of the neighbourhood.
C. the number of families living in the area.
D. the low number of children in the area.
2. The school was not closed down thanks to
A. the parent's refusal to allow it.
B. The decision to follow the national curriculum.
C. the fact that the children were behaving better.
D. the bad conditions the children live on.
3. The traditional methods of teaching were abandoned because
A. the children were not able to read.
B. tests would be easier to mark.
C. they would have made things worse.
D. not enough research had been done.
4. The aim of the lesson involving the bear is to
A. teach the children drama.
B. make the children feel more at ease.
C. teach the children about animals.
D. help the children to read and write.
5. The method is considered successful because
A. the Department of Education wants to use it.
B. children are interested in the arts.
C. it allows teachers to use their intuition.
D. there is better achievement in all subjects.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2: You will hear a conversation between a mother and her son about preparing for exams. Decide
whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). (10 pts)
1. Richard thinks that last-minute studying is best. T/F
2. With his present system, Richard will be able to revise everything. T/F
3. Richard agrees that his present lifestyle is crazy. T/F
4. Coffee and chocolate help Richard to work better. T/F
5. Richard has been exercising properly. T/F
Part 4: Listen to a piece of news and write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each blank. (20 pts)
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1. The special edition of the show dives into an ocean of plastic, masses of waste _____________________ on
and around some remote islands in the Pacific.
2-3. Scientists estimate that almost every piece of _______________________has been in existence since 1970
as it takes a long time to _______________________ in the environment.
Ways for plastic trash to the ocean:
4. * from the coast to be ______________________ sea
5. * from streets to _______________________.
* from rivers to the ocean.
6. Taking plastics out of the environment altogether is unlikely and ________________________
Solutions:
7. * ________________________ or jugs instead of throwaway water bottles.
8. * reusable ________________________ rather than plastic ones.
9. * reusable steel drink bottles instead of ________________________ plastic cups.
10. Consideration taken into recycling may prevent the materials ________________________ the environment.
Part 1: Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answer in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
1. It took me several seconds to grasp the meaning of her statement but finally the ________ dropped.
A. penny B. axe C. hammer D. stone
2. John's mean down in the ________ since his girlfriend ditched him for his best friend.
A. pockets B. dumps C. heels D. carpets
3. Somebody who is foolish or stupid is________ .
A. soft in the head B. riding high
C. over the moon D. pushing up daisies
4. The government is doing all it can to _______ war on dangerous driving.
A. launch B. wage C. stage D. battle)
5. She found the movie ________ funny.
A. comically B. jokingly C. humourously D. hilariously
6. Take care that your love for him doesn't _______ your judgment.
A. cloud B. darken C. shadow D. topple
7. Although the twins look identical, they have widely _______ opinions on almost every topic under the sun.
A. distinct B. dissimilar C. divergent D. distinguished
8. The children's interest in playing the game soon _______.
A. flagged B. stumbled C. tottered D. thawed
9. The princess's nanny's autobiography really gives the _______ on life among the royals.
A. show-down B. know-how C. low-down D. look-out
10. If you say you'd like _______ of cream on you're your strawberries then you don't want very much cream.
A. a dash B. oodles C. a dollop D. lashings
Part 2: The text below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the corrections in the space
provided. (5 pts) There is an example at the beginning (0)
With Europe facing the more serious flu epidemic in years, Line 1: most
the World Health Organization is warning the public, Line 2: _____
especially the sick and elderly, to do an inoculation now. Line 3: _____
Health experts warn that this winter's outbreak could be
as severe as the 1989 epidemic, which killed 25,000
people in Britain only.
WHO has stressed the importance of vaccination, and
several countries are already taking precautions to ensure
that those of high-risk categories such as diabetics and those
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with heart, or lung complaints, are vaccinated.
Nearly all previous strains of flu are known to originate
in China and Far East, and whereas in the past infection
spread slowly across the world, these days global
infection is a threat.
Part 3: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. Write your answer in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (5 pts)
1. Mike is so quick ________ the uptake that you never have to repeat the instructions twice.
2. I can vouch ________ Sandra's integrity, so I recommend we included her in our discussions.
3. Clara is unswerving ________ her determination to become a lawyer.
4. The boy ran down to the garden and vaulted ________ the fence at the bottom.
5. The prison officer is very unjust ________ the prisoners, denying them their basic rights.
Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
PENGUINS IN PERIL
Penguins, whose torpedo-shaped bodies and self-important waddles we adore, are the latest on a (0) growing list
of species threatened by changing 1. CLIMATE_______ conditions. This 2. DISRUPT_______ in climate is
being brought about by heatwaves and floods in places as far 3. FIELD_______ as Texas and India.
Such 4. STABLE_______ in weather patterns has been increasing in 5. FREQUENT_______ although the
reasons for this are not yet fully understood. As a result, ocean currents that bring the nutrients to feed plankton
are being disrupted and because plankton feeds the krill which form the basis of the penguin's diet, the penguin is
fast becoming a 6. CASUAL_______. The death rate of penguin chicks is soaring and could ultimately prove 7.
CATASTROPHE_______ to the entire species. The one positive aspect of this lies in its potential to force people
to examine the LOOM_______ threat posed to the fragile Antarctic eco-system. The 9. REALIZE_______ that
we could lose one of the most 10. LOVE_______ creature on the planet should be a wake-up call for all of us.
C. READING (60pts)
Part 1: For questions 1–10, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits
each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
Sydney’s Harbour Bridge Our group fell silent at the base of a narrow steel ladder that rose vertically through
the maze of girders at the south-eastern end of Australia’s Sydney Harbour Bridge. We 1._________ worried
about the first part of the climb. Up to this 2._________ , our guided tour had been little more than a stroll, but
now our task was to face the ladder. It must have been at least 50 feet high. There were handrails and our safety
belts would be 3. _________ a cable to break a fall, but the 4._________ couldn’t have been more daunting.
What 5._________ at the top was stepping out on to the exposed upper arch of the bridge, with blue sky all round
and the water almost 262 feet below. We ought to have found this out before embarking on what now seemed a
6. _________ reckless mission! My own fear of heights was extreme, but, on this sparkling morning, I saw no
option but to climb to the summit of one of the world’s 7._________ icons — a miracle of engineering
recognized by people everywhere. As I climbed, the tension 8.__________ out of me, and I was driven by an
exhilarating feeling of conquest. At the top, I dropped my 9._________ to the vast pool of the harbour below. It
might just as well have been a millpond from this height. We stood on a small viewing deck in the warm
sunshine, 10._________ with excitement and arms raised as our guide took a celebratory photograph.
1. A shouldn't have B. needn’t have C. can't have D. ought to have
2. A. position B. period C. point D. place
3. A tethered to B. stuck to C. strapped around D. plugged in
4. A. perspective B. proposal C. probability D. prospect
5. A lied B. lain C. laid D. lay
6. A. singularly B. uniquely C. very D. rarely
7. A well-loved B. mostly loved C. much-loved D. best-loved
8. A. exuded B. drained C. came D. leaked
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9. A. stare B. glance C. gaze D. glimpse
10.A. flushed B. burned C. drenched D. flamed
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2: Read the text below and think of one word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each
space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts)
FLOWER POWER
Flower grow everywhere in the world, but when people think of tulips, they think of the Netherlands. The Dutch
have a saying: “Flowers love people”. If (1)__________________________is true, then flowers really love the
Dutch (2)____________________________ flowers have been cultivated in the Netherlands for hundreds of
years. In fact, the flower industry has been so profitable that it has been boosting the Dutch economy (3)
__________________________the seventeenth century.
Recently, however, the Dutch flower (4) ____________________________have been having difficulties in
coping with the tough competition from (5)_____________________________. The Colombians, for instance,
have (6) ________ the Dutch by surprise. Their flowers are now (7)____________________________demand
all over the world due to the simplest (8) _______________________________that they are cheaper. Within a
few short years, the Colombians have brought Holland’s (9) ___________________________of the flower
industry to an end.
Despite this fact, the Netherlands is still in control of over sixty per cent of the world’s flower (10)
________________________.
Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. Write your answer in the space provided. (10
pts)
HURRICANES
A. A hurricane is a tropical cyclone, an area of intense low pressure in the tropics surrounded by a violent
rotating storm. It is called a hurricane in the North Atlantic, the Northeast Pacific east of the dateline, and the
South Pacific Ocean east of 160E; west of the dateline it is called a typhoon, and in the Indian Ocean, a cyclone.
It becomes a hurricane officially if its wind speeds reach 75kmh, or force 12 on the Beaufort scale; below that it
is a tropical storm. Every year, there are about 100 tropical storms and about 50 of them reach hurricane strength.
The name comes from "Hurican", the Carib god of evil.
B. Hurricanes need precise meteorological conditions to form: the sea surface temperature needs to be above
26.50C. They are formed over the tropic ocean when strong clusters of thunderstorms drift over warm water.
Warm air from the storm and the ocean surface combine and begin to rise, creating an area of low pressure on the
ocean surface. Rising warm air causes pressure to decrease at higher altitudes. Air rises faster and faster to fill the
low pressure, in turn drawing more warm air up off the sea and sucking cold air downwards. The cluster of
thunderstorms merge to become a huge storm, which moves west with the trade winds. While it remains over
warm water the tropical wave begins to grow. Wind speeds increase as air is sucked into the low pressure centre.
If the depression strengthens and its wind speed climbs above 40mph it becomes a tropic storm and is named by
the US National Hurricane Centre. Once the sustained winds exceed 74kmp, the storm becomes a hurricane. It
can take as long as several days or only a few hours for a depression to develop into a full-blown hurricane. The
fully developed hurricane is made up of an eye of calm winds surrounded by a spinning vortex of high winds and
heavy rainstorms.
C. Hurricanes produce the highest wind speeds, up to 200mph in the most extreme cases, which only the
strongest structures can withstand. They produce enormous amounts of rain which can lead to catastrophic flash
floods. Sometimes most seriously, they produce a phenomenon known as a storm surge. This is a huge raising of
the sea level, caused jointly by the huge winds and the very low atmospheric pressure. In the most extreme cases
it can be as much as 25ft above normal. The hurricane pushes this heightened sea along in front of its path and
when it hits the coastline, especially the low-lying coasts, there can be disastrous inundations, especially when
55
the surge combines with torrential rain. Once a hurricane reaches land, it tends t die out fairly quickly as there is
no more warm water to supply heat, but out in the open ocean it can last for a fortnight or more.
D. Hurricanes are now measured between strengths 1 and 5 on the Saffir-Simpson scale, formulated in 1969 by
Herbert Saffir, a consulting engineer, and Dr Bob Simpson, the director of the US national Hurricane Center. The
scale was devised in the aftermath of Hurricane Camille in 1969, one of the most violent storms ever to hit the
continental United States. Its categories run like this.
Category one (minimal): winds 75 to 95mph, minor flooding, slight structural damage, storm surge up to 1.5m.
Category two (moderate): winds between 96 and 110mph, roof and tree damage, storm surge 1.8 to 2.4m.
Category three (extensive): winds between 111 and 130mph, houses damaged, severe flooding, storm surge 2.7
to 3.7m.
Category four (extreme): winds of between 131 and 155mph, major structural damage to houses and some roofs
destroyed, storm surge of between 4 and 5.5m.
Category five (catastrophic): winds above 155mph, many buildings destroyed, smaller ones blown away
completely, severe inland flooding, storm surge of more than 5.5m.
E. Although global warming is confidently expected to produce more violent storms, scientists cannot yet prove
a link between current hurricane rates and climate change. There does seem to have been an increase in the
number of category five hurricanes worldwide. 2004 was more active than 2003 and 2002 but less active than the
four years before that.
F. All tropical storms are named, to provide case of communication between forecasters and the general public
about forecast, watches and warnings. Since the storms can often be long lasting and more than one can be
occurring in the same region at the same time, names can reduce the confusion about which storm is being
described. Before the 20th century, especially in the Caribbean, hurricanes were sometimes named after the
saint's day on which they struck land. During the Second World War, US Navy meteorologists gave them the
female names of wives and loved ones, but by 1950 a formal naming strategy was in place for North Atlantic
cyclones, based on the phonetic alphabet of the time (Able, Baker, Charlie and so on.) In 1953 the US Weather
Bureau decided to switch to female first names, and with the agreement of the World Meteorological
Association, included male first names in the list in 1979. Each meteorological region of the world now has an
agreed list of names. The letters Q, U, X, Y and Z are not used because few names begin with these letters. Quite
a few hurricane names, including Andrew, Betsy, Bob, Camille, Hugo and Hilda, have been officially retired
because the storms concerned caused damage on a scale unlikely to be repeated. About 50 names have been
retired; a country can request retirement.
The reading passage has six sections A-F. Choose the correct heading for sections B-F from the list of headings
below.
List of headings Your answers
i. Process of formation 0. Section A iii
ii. Effect of a storm surge 1. Section B ___________
iii. Defining characteristics 2. Section C ___________
iv. Systems for identifying 3. Section D ___________
v. Damaging effects 4. Section E ___________
vi. History of hurricanes 5. Section F ___________
vii. System for classification
viii. Speculation about cause
ix. Effect of low pressure
x. The Carib god of evil
Complete the summary. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write the
words in the space provided.
Hurricanes, also known as cyclones and typhoons, commonly occur in the 6.___________. The lowest 7.
___________ hurricane may cause only minor damage, while the most severe will see many buildings destroyed
or even blown away completely. No proof yet exists of a connection between an increased number of severe
56
hurricanes and 8.___________ . Various systems have been used for identifying hurricanes, but only since 1979
have they been described using 9.___________. Hurricane names are allocated to a meteorological region and in
special circumstances can be 10.___________.
Part 3. Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topic:

Many people feel strongly that health services should be provided by the government and should be freely
available. Others argue that only privatised health care can provide good quality health services. To what
extent do you believe that health and medical services should be privatised?
Present your argumentation to highlight your opinion on this matter. Give reasons and specific examples to
support your opinion(s).
Part 1: Listen to the recording. For the following questions, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) which fits
best according to what you hear. (10 pts)
1B 2A 3C 4D 5D
Part 2: You will hear a conversation between a mother and her son about preparing for exams. Decide
whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). (10 pts)
1F 2F 3T 4T 5F
Part 3: Listen to the recording and answer the following questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDs
for each answer. (10 pts)
1. In the 1930s and 40s
2. lifting of the head
3. neuro-muscular maturation
4. brain / muscles
5. muscles / brain
Part 4: Listen to a piece of news and write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each blank. (20 pts)
1. accumulating 6. probably unaffordable
2. trash 7. water filter bottles
3. break down 8. fabric shopping bags
4. swept out to 9. single use
5. storm drains 10. (from) slipping into

Part 1: Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answer in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. A
Part 2: The text below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the corrections in the space
provided. (5 pts)
57
Line 3: do → have
Line 6: only → alone
Line 9: in → of
Line 11: to originate → to have originated
Line 12: Far East → the Far East
Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. Write your answer in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (5 pts)
1. on 2. for 3. in 4. over 5. to
Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
1. climatic 2. disruption 3. afield 4. instability 5. frequency
6. casualty 7. catastrophic 8. looming 9. realization 10. lovable
C. READING (60pts)
Part 1: For questions 1–10, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits
each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. A
Part 2: Read the text below and think of one word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each
space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts)
1. it/this 6. taken
2. as/ because/ since/ for 7. in
33. since 8. fact
44. growers/ farmers 9. domination/mastery/control/monopolization
55. overseas/abroad 10. market/industry
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write your
answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B
6. A 7. D 8. A 9. B/E 10. E/B
Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. Write your answer in the space provided. (10
pts)
1. i 2. v 3. vii 4. viii 5. iv
6. tropics 7. 8. global 9. male first 10. (officially)

category/strength warming/ names retired
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climate change
Part 5: Read the text below and answer the questions (15 pts).
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. E 7. C 8. E 9. D 10. C
TEST 8:
I. LISTENING
Part 1: You will hear an interview with Maria Stefanovich, co-founder of a creativity group which
organises workshops for executives. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best
according to what you hear.
1. Corporations appreciate mask-making workshops because
A. no one wants negative faces at the office.
B. unhappy employees won’t come to work.
C. they realise how their employees see them.
D. their employees change their approach.
2. Companies are turning to creative workshops because they have acknowledged that
A. unproductive employees are a financial burden.
B. the traditional work environment has its limitations.
C. there is an increase in absenteeism.
D. employees are working too hard without enjoying it.
3. The employees at the firm ‘Play’
A. change positions frequently to lessen boredom.
B. have business cards indicating their jobs.
C. dress up like comic book characters.
D. do not have stereotyped ideas about their jobs.
4. The companies that show most interest in creative workshops are surprising because
A. they usually have creative employees to begin with.
B. their employees are the ones who have to present regularly.
C. there are many other exciting workshops they would prefer.
D. their employees should be used to being funny.
5. Maria mentions the traditional companies that have held workshops in order to
A. boast about the clients her company has helped.
B. show that they have a narrow list of clients.
C. downplay the serious reputations of the firms.
D. point out the diversity of those trying different approaches.
Part 2: You will hear part of a lecture about the artist Franz Marc.
Write:
Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
6. A few years ago in London, some paintings by Franz Marc were sold at record prices
7. Almost all of Marc’s paintings feature a purple and blue horse standing in a landscape of primary colours
8. In The Fate of the Animals Marc seems to offer a warning of the impending Great War.
9. The art group The Blue Rider were aiming to capture the purity of style often found in paintings by children.
10. Marc’s life ended tragically in the war in 1960 when he was killed by a grenade in
Part 4: For questions 16-25, listen to a piece of news from the BBC and fill in the missing information.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the spaces
provided.
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Recently in the Great Pyramids, a 100-feet long space, which is called a (16) __________, has been discovered
lately. According to the “Nature”, this is a significant discovery to the archaeology because since the 1800s, there
has no other significant discovery like this (17) ____________________ . However, whether this can help to
unravel the ancient mysteries is (18) ____________________. There is no proof that a/an (19)
____________________ or burial chamber can be found from this space. There may be more others like this in
the pyramid and this discovery is expected to help the researchers find out how it was built. To identify this
space, not allowed to track (20) ____________________ or use cameras, they had to take use of some
appliances to (21) ____________________ inside the structure. That’s not the only way the modern technology
is helping archaeologists.
Adam Low, an archaeologist, admitted to being a man with (22) ____________________ the tomb of a Pharaoh,
Seti I. It can be learnt from the tomb how ancient people have different thoughts, different values and (23)
____________________. He can read the way they thought through the (24) ___________________ on the
walls. With the help of technology, a dialogue crossing time can be built and become one of the most exciting
moment. “the Hall of Beauties” is, in fact, only a (25) ____________________ built in a museum in
Switzerland.
II. LEXICO GRAMMAR:
Part 1: For questions 26-35, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions
26. Mr Smith ate his breakfast in great ________ so as not to miss the bus to Liverpool.
A. Speed B. pace C. rush D. haste
27. The whole situation is getting out of ________. Let’s do something before it turns into a bitter row.
A. capacity B. charge C. hand D. discipline
28. The weekend is over, so tomorrow morning it’s back to the________ .
A. grind B. labour C. drudgery D. toil
29. I really admire the hero of the film. He’s so ________.
A. reckless B. adventurous C. foolhardy D. instinctive
30. The experimental play was only a________ success, which disappointed the playwright.
A. local B. qualified C. reserved D. cautious
31. It takes time to get a financial system up and ________ after the introduction of a new currency.
A. walking B. proceeding C. running D. going
32. Life is so full of both good fortune and misfortunes that you have to learn to take the rough with
the________.
A. smooth B. ready C. calm D. tough
33. Stephen really lost his________ when his dental appointment was cancelled yet again.
A. head B. voice C. calm D. rag
34. Don’t take it as ________ that you’ll be promoted in your job; other colleagues stand a good chance too
A. fixed B. standard C. read D. word
35. When my new motor kept breaking down, I knew I’d been taken for a________ by the second-hand car
salesman.
A. drive B. ride C. walk D. stroll
Part 2: The passage below contains 5 errors in spelling, grammar, word form. For questions 36-40,
underline the errors and write the corrections
EAR INFECTIONS
One of the most prevalent illnesses in children under three is ear infections. These can be quite painful and will
often result in inccessant crying. Ear infections are caused when bacteriums or viruses get into the inside of the
ear. The Eustachian tubes, which supply the ear with air, become swollen or inflaming. The adenoids, cell
clusters near these tubes that fight infections, can also become infected and the block tubes. Children’s
Eustachian tubes are smaller but straighter, and their adenoids are large. This means that the tubes do not drain as
well, that often results in the adenoids impeding flow through the tubes.
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Part 4: Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word
that fits in the space in the same line.
Cacti
Cacti have enjoyed an (46) ______________ popularity among gardeners ENDURE
spanning several centuries. Perhaps this is due in part to their unusual
appearance: more often than not, they consist of (47) ______________stems SWELL
covered in spines. Unlike other plants, cacti can squat in their pots, (48)
______________ in suspended animation, for months, showing little sign of APPEAR
growth or development; then suddenly, their flowers will burst forth, dazzling
observers with their (49) ______________ vibrant colours. Added to this is the GLORY
fact that they come in a huge (50) ______________of shapes, sizes and forms, so VARIOUS
many gardeners, myself included, find themselves (51) ______________ drawn RESIST
to these extraordinary plants.
You do not have to be an expert to grow cacti, and the (52)
______________needn't be concerned about cultivating them because they are INITIATE
among the easiest of plants to care for. Their (53) ______________ are simple REQUIRE
and few. Plenty of light, a little compost and occasional watering will keep them
happy and healthy. Also, their hardy constitution (54) ______________ them to ABLE
withstand harsh climatic conditions in the wild. So should you neglect to water
them, they are (55) ______________to object. For this reason, I recommend LIKE
them to the young enthusiasts who ask me about starting their own windowsill
gardens.
III. READING:
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
DIAGNOSING DYSLEXIA
Approximately five per cent of the population (0) __ suffer__ from dyslexia. The cause of the disorder is
unknown and it is (56) ________ found in people of otherwise normal intectual ability. The condition is (57)
________ by severe reading difficulties, with dyslexics frequently confusing letters or words. They may, for
example, read or write letters, words or sentences in the wrong (58) ________. Although the problem can be
overcome with intensive instruction, sufferers usually continue to read and write poorly throughout their lives.
Traditionally, diagnosis has been made by reading experts, which means that many (59) ________ are not
formally (60) ________ until a child is around ten years of age. Now, however, a group of psychologists in the
United States believe that they have found a way of identifying in their first days of life children who will
develop dyslexia. This is exciting news as early identification and (61) ________ make early instruction possible,
perhaps avoiding later problems altogether.
The research team has identified (62) ________ differences between the brain (63) ________ patterns of
dyslexics and those of better readers. Attaching electrodes to the heads of babies just 36 hours old, they measured
the size and speed of their brain responses to selected stimuli. The children were (64) ________ and given IQ and
comprehension tests every two years. At eight, reading tests were administered to identify those who were
dyslexic. More than 90 percent diagnosed as dyslexic could have been singled out at birth.
This research is still in its (65) ________ but may result in a future in which dyslexia no longer causes life long
distress.
56. A naturally B commonly C customarily D Actually

57. A characterized B distinguished C marked D Identified
58. A arrangement B series C sequence D Order
59. A instances B cases C times D Occurrences
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60. A picked up B noted down C shown up D put down
61. A interference B intrusion C intervention D Recognition
62. A frank B evident C distinct D precise
63. A pace B wave C pulse D Signal
64. A monitored B viewed C followed D Inspected
65. A beginnings B infancy C outset D Origins
Part 2: For questions 66- 75, read the text again and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only
one word in each gap.
Getting ready for Mars
The 'Mars 500 project' (66) ______ an experiment that simulated a return mission to Mars. Spending 18 months
in a sealed facility in Moscow (67) ______ access to natural light or fresh air, six men were monitored as they
attended (68) ______ their daily duties. A study into (69) ______ each of them coped with the psychological
and physical constraints of the mission has found that there were wide differences in their wake-sleep patterns.
For example, (70) ______ most of the crew began to sleep for longer periods as the mission progressed and
boredom set in, one individual slept progressively less, resulting (71) ______ him becoming chronically sleep-
deprived towards the end of the (72) ______ . Identifying bad sleepers could be important on a real Mars
mission, during (73) ______ people are required to be constantly alert even when days are tediously similar.
Researchers warn that for any astronaut heading to Mars, exciting as the trip might initially seem, (74) ______
could be problems with stress brought on by the monotony of routine. However, they also report that (75)______
some personal tensions between crew members, there was overall harmony within the group.
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Orientation and Navigation
To South Americans, robins are birds that fly north every spring. To North Americans, the robins simply
vacation in the south each winter. Furthermore, they fly to very specific places in South America and will often
come back to the same trees in North American yards the following spring. The question is not why they would
leave the cold of winter so much as how they find their way around. The question perplexed people for years,
until, in the 1950s, a German scientist named Gustavo Kramer provided some answers and. in the process, raised
new questions.
Kramer initiated important new kinds of research regarding how animals orient and navigate. Orientation is
simply facing in the right direction; navigation involves finding ones way from point A to point B.
Early in his research, Kramer found that caged migratory birds became very restless at about the time they would
normally have begun migration in the wild. Furthermore, he noticed that as they fluttered around in the cage,
they often launched themselves in the direction of their normal migratory route. He then set up experiments with
caged starlings and found that their orientation was, in fact, in the proper migratory direction except when the sky
was overcast, at which times there was no clear direction to their restless movements. Kramer surmised,
therefore, that they were orienting according to the position of the Sun. To test this idea, he blocked their view of
the Sun and used mirrors to change its apparent position. He found that under these circumstances, the birds
oriented with respect to the new "Sun." They seemed to be using the Sun as a compass to determine direction. At
the time, this idea seemed preposterous. How could a bird navigate by the Sun when some of us lose our way
with road maps? Obviously, more testing was in order.
So, in another set of experiments, Kramer put identical food boxes around the cage, with food in only one of the
boxes. The boxes were stationary, and the one containing food was always at the same point of the compass.
However, its position with respect to the surroundings could be changed by revolving either the inner cage
containing the birds or the outer walls, which served as the background. As long as the birds could see the Sun,
no matter how their surroundings were altered, they went directly to the correct food box. Whether the box
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appeared in front of the right wall or the left wall, they showed no signs of confusion. On overcast days,
however, the birds were disoriented and had trouble locating their food box.
In experimenting with artificial suns, Kramer made another interesting discovery. If the artificial Sun remained
stationary, the birds would shift their direction with respect to it at a rate of about 15 degrees per hour, the Sun's
rate of movement across the sky. Apparently, the birds were assuming that the "Sun" they saw was moving at
that rate. When the real Sun was visible, however, the birds maintained a constant direction as it moved across
the sky. In other words, they were able to compensate for the Sun's movement. This meant that some sort of
biological clock was operating-and a very precise clock at that.
What about birds that migrate at night? Perhaps they navigate by the night sky. To test the idea, caged night-
migrating birds were placed on the floor of a planetarium during their migratory period. A planetarium is
essentially a theater with a domelike ceiling onto which a night sky can be projected for any night of the year.
When the planetarium sky matched the sky outside, the birds fluttered in the direction of their normal migration.
But when the dome was rotated, the birds changed their direction to match the artificial sky. The results clearly
indicated that the birds were orienting according to the stars.
There is accumulating evidence indicating that birds navigate by using a wide variety of environmental cues.
Other areas under investigation include magnetism, landmarks, coastlines, sonar, and even smells. The studies
are complicated by the fact that the data are sometimes contradictory and the mechanisms apparently change
from time to time. Furthermore, one sensory ability may back up another.
76. Which of the following can be inferred about bird migration from paragraph 1?
A. Birds will take the most direct migratory route to their new habitat.
B. The purpose of migration is to join with larger groups of birds.
C. Bird migration generally involves moving back and forth between north and south.
D. The destination of birds' migration can change from year to year.
77. The word ‘perplexed’ in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. defeated B. interested C. puzzled D. occupied
78. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in the
passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Experiments revealed that caged starlings displayed a lack of directional sense and restless movements.
B. Experiments revealed that caged starlings were unable to orient themselves in the direction of their normal
migratory route.
C. Experiments revealed that the restless movement of caged starlings had no clear direction.
D. Experiments revealed that caged starlings' orientation was accurate unless the weather was overcast.
79. The word ‘preposterous’ in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. unbelievable B. inadequate C. limited D. creative
80. According to paragraph 3, why did Kramer use mirrors to change the apparent position of the Sun?
A. To test the effect of light on the birds' restlessness
B. To test whether birds were using the Sun to navigate
C. To simulate the shifting of light the birds would encounter along their regular migratory route
D. To cause the birds to migrate at a different time than they would in the wild
81. According to paragraph 3, when do caged starlings become restless?
A. When the weather is overcast
B. When they are unable to identify their normal migratory route
C. When their normal time for migration arrives
D. When mirrors are used to change the apparent position of the Sun
82. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4 about Kramer’s reason for filling one food box and
leaving the rest empty?
A. He believed the birds would eat food from only one box.
B. He wanted to see whether the Sun alone controlled the birds' ability to navigate toward the box with food.
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C. He thought that if all the boxes contained food, this would distract the birds from following their migratory
route.
D. He needed to test whether the birds preferred having the food at any particular point of the compass.
83. According to paragraph 5, how did the birds fly when the real Sun was visible?
A. They kept the direction of their flight constant.
B. They changed the direction of their flight at a rate of 15 degrees per hour.
C. They kept flying toward the Sun.
D. They flew in the same direction as the birds that were seeing the artificial Sun.
84. The experiment described in paragraph 5 caused Kramer to conclude that birds possess a biological clock
because _____.
A. when birds navigate they are able to compensate for the changing position of the Sun in the sky
B. birds innate bearings keep them oriented in a direction that is within 15 degrees of the Suns direction
C. birds' migration is triggered by natural environmental cues, such as the position of the Sun
D. birds shift their direction at a rate of 15 degrees per hour whether the Sun is visible or not
85. According to paragraph 6, how did the birds navigate in the planetarium's nighttime environment?
A. By waiting for the dome to stop rotating
B. By their position on the planetarium floor
C. By orienting themselves to the stars in the artificial night sky
D. By navigating randomly until they found the correct orientation
Part 4. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow
Party Labels in Mid-Eighteenth Century England
A. Until the late 1950s the Whig interpretation of English history in the eighteenth century prevailed. This was
successfully challenged by Lewis Namier, who proposed, based on an analysis of the voting records of MPs
from the 1760 intake following the accession to the throne of George III, that the accepted Whig/Tory division
of politics did not hold. He believed that the political life of the period could be explained without these party
labels, and that it was more accurate to characterise political division in terms of the Court versus Country.
B. An attempt was then made to use the same methodology to determine whether the same held for early
eighteenth century politics. To Namier’s chagrin this proved that at the end of Queen Anne’s reign in 1714
voting in parliament was certainly based on party interest, and that Toryism and Whiggism were distinct and
opposed political philosophies. Clearly, something momentous had occurred between 1714 and 1760 to
apparently wipe out party ideology. The Namierite explanation is that the end of the Stuart dynasty on the
death of Queen Anne and the beginning of the Hanoverian with the accession of George I radically altered the
political climate.
C. The accession of George I to the throne in 1715 was not universally popular. He was German, spoke little
English, and was only accepted because he promised to maintain the Anglican religion. Furthermore, for those
Tory members of government under Anne, he was nemesis, for his enthronement finally broke the hereditary
principle central to Tory philosophy, confirming the right of parliament to depose or select a monarch.
Moreover, he was aware that leading Tories had been in constant communication with the Stuart court in
exile, hoping to return the banished King James II. As a result, all Tories were expelled from government,
some being forced to escape to France to avoid execution for treason.
D. The failure of the subsequent Jacobite rebellion of 1715, where certain Tory magnates tried to replace George
with his cousin James, a Stuart, albeit a Catholic, was used by the Whig administration to identify the word
“Tory” with treason. This was compounded by the Septennial Act of 1716, limiting elections to once every
seven years, which further entrenched the Whig’s power base at the heart of government focussed around the
crown. With the eradication of one of the fundamental tenets of their philosophy, alongside the systematic
replacement of all Tory positions by Whig counterparts, Tory opposition was effectively annihilated. There
was, however, a grouping of Whigs in parliament who were not part of the government.
E. The MPs now generally referred to as the “Independent Whigs” inherently distrusted the power of the
administration, dominated as it was by those called “Court Whigs”. The Independent Whig was almost
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invariably a country gentleman, and thus resisted the growth in power of those whose wealth was being made
on the embryonic stock market. For them the permanency of land meant patriotism, a direct interest in one’s
nation, whilst shares, easily transferable, could not be trusted. They saw their role as a check on the
administration, a permanent guard against political corruption, the last line of defence of the mixed
constitution of monarchy, aristocracy, and democracy. The reaction against the growing mercantile class was
shared by the Tories, also generally landed country gentlemen. It is thus Namier’s contention, and that of
those who follow his work, that by the 1730s the Tories and the Independent Whigs had fused to form a
Country opposition to the Court administration, thus explaining why voting records in 1760 do not follow
standard party lines.
F. It must be recognised that this view is not universally espoused. Revisionist historians such as Linda Colley
dispute that the Tory party was destroyed during this period, and assert the continuation of the Tories as a
discrete and persistent group in opposition, allied to the Independent Whigs but separate. Colley’s thesis is
persuasive, as it is clear that some, at least, regarded themselves as Tories rather than Whigs. She is not so
successful in proving the persistence either of party organisation beyond family connection, or of ideology,
beyond tradition. Furthermore, while the terms “Tory” and “Whig” were used frequently in the political press,
it was a device of the administration rather than the opposition. As Harris notes in his analysis of the “Patriot”
press of the 1740s, there is hardly any discernible difference between Tory and Whig opposition pamphlets,
both preferring to describe themselves as the “Country Interest”, and attacking “the Court”.
Questions 86- 90
Reading Passage has 6 paragraphs (A-F). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the
List of headings below.
One of the headings has been done for you as an example.
NB. There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.
86. Paragraph A
87. Paragraph B
88. Paragraph C
89. Paragraph D
90. Paragraph E
Example: Paragraph F Answer: iii
i. The Whig/Tory division discounted
ii. Maintaining the Anglican religion
iii. The fusion theory challenged and supported
iv. The consequences of George I’s accession
v. The Tory landowners
vi. Political divisions in the early 1700s
vii. The failure of the Jacobean rebellion
viii. The Tory opposition effectively destroyed
ix. The fusion of the Independent Whigs and the Tory landowners
x. The Whig interpretation of history
Questions 91-95
Do the statements below agree with the information in Reading Passage?
Write:
Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
Not Given if there is no information about the statement in the passage
Example: Until the late 1950s the Whig interpretation of English history was the one that was widely accepted.
Answer: Yes.
91. According to Namier, political divisions in the mid18th century were not related to party labels.
92. According to Namier, something happened between 1714 and 1760 to affect party ideology.
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93. George I was not liked by everyone.
94. The Independent Whigs were all landowners with large estates.
95. Neither the Independent Whigs, nor the Tories trusted the mercantile classes.
Part 2. The line graph shows visit to and from the UK from 1979 to 1999. The bar chart show the most
popular countries visited by the UK residents in 1999.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where
relevant.
Part 3. More and more businesses as well as individuals are choosing to communicate either professionally
or socially using technology rather than being face to face. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of
using technology for communicating.
KEY 11
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1. D 48. apparently
2. B 49. gloriously
3. D 50. variety
4. A 51. irresistibly
5. D 52. uninitiated
6. Yes 53. requirements
7. No (one, not almost all) 54. enables
8. Yes 55. unlikely
9. Yes 56. B
10. No (1916) 57. A
11. The centre/hub 58. D
12. Their trade routes 59. B
13. Ley lines 60. A
14. More in tune with nature 61. C
15. (complex) astronomical calculations 62. C
16. Void 63. B
17. Identified in pyramid 64. A
18. Up for debate 65. B
19. Undiscovered gallery
20. Drill holes 66. Was
21. cosmic ray participles 67. without
22. Obsession to document 68. to
23. Different philosophies 69. how
24. very articulate evidence 70. while/ whilst/ whereas/ although/ though
25. Fascimile 71. in
26. D 72. mission
27. C 73. which
28. A 74. there
29. B 75. despite
30. B 76. C
31. C 77. C
32. A 78. D
33. D 79. A
34. C 80. B
35. B 81. C
36. Inccessant Incessant 82. B
37. Bacteriums bacteria 83. A
38. Inflaming inflamed 84. A
39. Large larger 85. C
40. that which 86. i
41. beyond 87. vi
42. to 88. iv
43. off 89. viii
44. on 90. ix
45. up 91. yes
46. enduring 92. yes
47. swollen 93. yes
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94. not given 100. E
95. yes 101. E
96. B 102. D
97. D 103. C
98. C 104. D
99. B 105. E
Part 2. You will listen to the whole documentary, and for questions 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. In the past, science fiction fans imagined that jetpack
A. would become a part of everyday life.
B. would be used on the moon.
C. would only be flown by a few people.
2. What was wrong with the Rocket Belt developed by Wendell Moore?
A. It was too slow.
B. It couldn’t fly far enough.
C. It was too fast.
3. The thing which causes most difficulty for a pilot of a jetpack is
A. the terrible heat.
B. keeping stable.
C. trying not to land on water.
4. What is the main advantage of the EFV over a jetpack?
A. It can fly much faster.
B. It is much less heavy.
C. It can fly much further.
5. The company that makes the EFV also makes
A. a type of helicopter.
B. an unmanned flying vehicle.
C. a moon buggy.
Part 3. Listen to an extract from a radio programme about the climber Annabelle Bond, and say whether
sentences 1-5 are true or false. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. It took her about a year to climb the seven mountains.
2. Only four men have climbed the peaks faster than Annabelle.
3. Annabelle always wanted to be a marathon runner.
4. She raised £8,500 for a cancer charity.
5. She plans to do more climbing in the near future.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
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Part 4: You will hear an interview between interviewer and Mick Davidson, a member of the ADG. For
questions 1-10, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. Animal rights protesters destroyed expensive _______________ at a research laboratory.

2. Davidson believes that using animals in experiments is a _______________.
3. Firms need a lot of _______________ to set up experiments.
4. Davidson hasn’t got any shoes that are made of _______________.
5. Newspapers publish _______________ that Mick Davidson has written.
6. Davidson damaged _______________ in a shop in London.
7. In one illegal action, Davidson removed _______________ from a laboratory, which halted the research.
8. In the attack on a laboratory, Davidson and his ADG colleagues took _______________ away with them.
9. Davidson doesn’t support the use of _______________ , except against property.
10. The ADG has apologised to people that they have _______________ without meaning to.
B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1. Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the following sentences.
1. The strike was ____________ owing to a last-minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up
C. set back D. put down
2. Lindsay's excuses for being late are beginning to ____________ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
3. ___________, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether
C. To a degree D. Virtually
4. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the ___________ wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
5. The train service has been a ____________ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
6. The new school complex cost _____ the city council had budgeted for.
A. just twice as much as B. twice more by far than
C. twice much more than D. almost twice as much as
7. Larry _____ forgot where he’d left his keys.
A. momentarily B. directly C. singularly D. shortly
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8. The Earth will be a planet where human beings, animals and plants live in peaceful _____.
A. cooperation B. coordination C. corporation D. coexistence
9. James could no longer bear the _____ surroundings of the decrepit old house.
A. oppressive B. domineering C. pressing D. overbearing
10. I find the idea of experimenting on animals _____.
A. disagreeing B. objectionable C. distasteful D. objective
11. Mary said she wanted to be Prime Minister when she grew up but Anna, not
to be _____________ , said she was going to be Queen.
A overawed B outdone C outclassed D overtaken
12. Sally’s remark that she was feeling worn out _____________ thoughts of a holiday.
A stimulated B provoked C prompted D engendered
13. The soldiers had little to _____________ from delaying military action.
A benefit B win C gain D obtain
14. In terms of protocol, the President takes _____________ over all others in the country.
A priority B the lead C precedence D the head
15. In this district there is a growing _____________ between those with jobs and those
without.
A separation B fissure C difference D divide
16. This champion racehorse is one in a _____________
A hundred B million C billion D thousand
17. I’m not surprised people are arguing - they are at the _____________ of their tether.
A end B limit C finish D termination
18. _____________you had to find a new job, what would you like to do?
A Provided B Supposing C So D Though
19. _____________from collecting shells, he also enjoys looking for fossils,
A Except B Besides C Apart D Excluded
20. _____________ I’m concerned he’s the best manager this company has ever had.
A Where B As far as C Whereas D While
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
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Part 2. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Sir Walter Scott was the key figure in creating a colorful image of Scotland’s past, initially with his
bestselling narrative poem, with his even more celebrated novels, the first of which was Waverley. It was
published anonymously in 1814 and, in subsequent years, its successors were described as being ‘by the author
of Waverley’, which accounts the term ‘Waverley novels’. Although Scott gave no public acknowledgement of
his authorship until 1827, the writer’s identity was an open secret long before then. He wrote ordinarily quickly,
and the first collected edition of the Waverley novels was published as early as 1819. The set of illustrations of
Alexander Nasmyth was produced for the second collected edition and these drawings used on the title pages.
Nasmyth has been called the father of landscape painting and, such as Walter Scott, he helped to popularized his
country’s romantic and picturesque scenery. The drawings were recently presented to the National Library of
Scotland, which now boasts a superb and rivalled collection of manuscripts and papers relating to Scott and his
circle.
What is less well known about Sir Walter Scott is that after his bankruptcy in 1826, his last years were spent in
frantic literary activity to pay off all the creditors whom he owned money.
Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition) or particle. Write your answer in
the boxes provided. (10 points)
1. As the riot police approached, the crowd backed __________.
2. Reforms will kick ____ later this year.
3. I was thrown ______ balance by the sudden gust of wind.
4. Their capital is all locked ______ in property.
5. As the boat went _____ , the women and children started screaming.
6. He had been nursing a grievance ______ his boss for months.
7. Her husband is doing time _____ armed robbery.
8. No, I can't lend you $ 50. Money doesn't grow ______ trees, you know!
9. Snipers were picking _____ innocent civilians.
10. The bombing was_______ revenge for the assassination.
Part 4. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (10 points)
THE SPIRAL AND THE HELIX
They are everywhere, graceful, curving shapes whose incredible (1) REGULAR _________ contrasts so
sharply with the random world around them. We call them spirals and helices but that hardly does (2) JUST
____________ to their diversity or their significance.
Over the centuries, (3) MATHEMATICS __________ have identified many different types, but the
most intriguing are those that (4) REPEAT ____________ occur in the natural world.
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The need to (5) RAVEL _____ the mysteries of the existence of spirals and helices has exercised some
of the best scientific brains in the world and opened the way to a number of (6) BREAK ______________ in
fields as widely varied as genetics and (7) METEOR ______________.
The most (8) SPECTACLE ________________ spirals on earth are also the most unwelcome -
hurricanes. Their (9) AWE _______________ power comes from the sun's heat, but they owe their shape to the
force caused by the rotation of the earth. After innumerable years of study, however, Nature's spirals and helices
have yet to (10)_____________ all their secrets. For example, why, astronomers wonder, are so many galaxies
spiral-shaped?
C. READING (60 points)
Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
Black light theatre is just as it sounds, that is, a black light (1) ________ an otherwise
dark stage using ultraviolet light. Actors perform wearing fluorescent costumes
that reflect light, and any stage (2) ________ the set designer wishes to remain
unseen are painted black.
Less technological variations of this type of stage (3) ________ have been used
for millennia; actors in ancient theatres would sometimes all dress in black
and play on a dark stage. Its modern form was (4) ________ in the 1960s, after an
outstanding performance at the 1962 Edinburgh Theatre Festival led to a
(5) ________ ovation. Soon after, the (6) ________ behind the production, Jiri Srnec, began staging
performances in his native Czech Republic to (7) ________ houses. There
are numerous black light theatres in Prague today.
Performances are visually (8) ________ as there is such intricate choreography
involved. Actors must rehearse (9) ________ before going on the dark stage. A single
wrong move can ruin the whole (10)___________ .
1. A. sparkles B. glows C. beams D. illuminates
2. A. props B. supports C. bases D. parts
3. A. shading B. darkening C. colouring D. lighting
4. A. popularised B. familiarised C. customised D. standardised
5. A. leading B. jumping C. standing D. lasting
6. A. thoughts B. wits C. ideas D. brains
7. A. packed B. crammed C. crowded D. jammed
8. A. disturbing B. alarming C. shocking D. stunning
9. A. accurately B. intensively C. severely D. strictly
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10. A. produce B. production C. productivity D. productiveness
Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
Along with London’s West End theatres, New York’s Broadway theatres are thought to (2) _________ the
pinnacle of theatrical production in the English-speaking world. For most American actors, landing a role in one
of these productions is far (2) _________ their wildest dreams, as working on Broadway represents the highest
(3) _________ in any theatrical actor’s career. Naturally, all actors must keep their options (4) _________
when seeking theatrical work. For those just about to (5) _________ the plunge, it might be wise to first pursue a
role in what’s known as the Off-Broadway theatres, or even better, Off-Off-Broadway theatres. These two types
of theatre are defined by seating capacity - the former being 100 to 499 seats, the latter (6) _________ 100.
While the productions are smaller, performances in these theatres can still (7) _________ respect from the
theatrical community. An actor can use the venues to get their craft down to a fine (8) _________ and eventually
turn in performances eliciting reviews (9) _________ of praise from critics who attend. Conversely, there’s less
need for an actor to worry too much about a bad performance. As it’s only an Off-Off-Broadway production, it’s
not the (10) _________ of the world.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
In the 1980s the United States Department of Energy was looking for suitable sites to bury radioactive
waste material generated by its nuclear energy programs. The government was considering burying the
dangerous wastes in deep underground chambers in remote desert areas. The problem, however, was that
nuclear waste remains highly radioactive for thousands of years. The commission entrusted with tackling the
problem of waste disposal was aware that the dangers posed by radioactive emissions must be communicated to
our descendants of at least 10,000 years hence. So the task became one of finding a way to tell future societies
about the risk posed by these deadly deposits.
Of course, human society in the distant future may be well aware of the hazards of radiation. Technological
advances may one day provide the solutions to this dilemma. But the belief in constant technological
advancement is based on our perceptions of advances made throughout history and prehistory. We cannot be sure
that society won’t have slipped backward into an age of barbarism due to any of several catastrophic events,
whether the result of nature such as the onset of a new ice age or perhaps mankind’s failure to solve the scourges
of war and pollution. In the event of global catastrophe, it is quite possible that humans of the distant future will
be on the far side of a broken link of communication and technological understanding.
The problem then becomes how to inform our descendants that they must avoid areas of potential
radioactive seepage given that they may not understand any currently existing language and may have no
historical or cultural memory. So, any message indicated to future reception and decipherment must be as
universally understandable as possible.
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It was soon realized by the specialists assigned the task of devising the communication system that material in
which the message was written might not physically endure the great lengths of time demanded. The second law of
thermodynamics shows that all material disintegrates over time. Even computers that might carry the message cannot
be expected to endure long enough. Besides, electricity supplies might not be available in 300 generations. Other
media storage methods were considered and rejected for similar reasons.
The task force under the linguist Thomas Sebeok finally agreed that no foolproof way would be found to
send a message across so many generations and have it survive physically and be decipherable by a people with
few cultural similarities to us. Given this restriction, Sebeok suggested the only possible solution was the
formation of a committee of guardians of knowledge. Its task would be to dedicate itself to maintaining and
passing the knowledge of the whereabouts and dangers of the nuclear waste deposits. This so-called atomic
priesthood would be entrusted with keeping knowledge of this tradition alive through millennia and developing
the tradition into a kind of mythical taboo forbidding people to tamper in a way with the nuclear waste sites.
Only the initiated atomic priesthood of experts would have the scientific knowledge to fully understand the
danger. Those outside the priesthood would be kept away by a combination of rituals and legends designed to
warn off intruders.
This proposal has been criticized because of the possibility of a break in continuity of the original message.
Furthermore, there is no guarantee that any warning or sanction passed on for millennia would be obeyed, nor
that it could survive with its original meaning intact. To counterbalance this possibility, Sebeok’s group proposed
a “relay system” in which information is passed on over relatively short periods of time, just three generations
ahead. The message then to be renewed and redesigned if necessary for the following three generations and so on
over the required time span. In this way information could be relayed into the future and avoid the possibility of
physical degradation.
A second defect is more difficult to dismiss, however. This is the problem of social exclusiveness brought
about through possession of vital knowledge. Critics point out that the atomic priesthood could use its secret
knowledge to control those who are scientifically ignorant. The establishment of such an association of insiders
holding powerful knowledge not available except in mythic form to nonmembers would be a dangerous
precedent for future social developments.
1. The word "chambers" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. partitions B. openings C. cavities D. fissures
2. What problem faced the commission assigned to deal with the burial of nuclear waste?
A. How to reduce the radioactive life of nuclear waste materials
B. How to form a committee that could adequately express various nuclear risks
C. How to notify future generations of the risks of nuclear contamination
D. How to choose burial sites so as to minimize dangers to people.
3. In paragraph 2, the author explains the possible circumstances of future societies
A. to warn about the possible natural catastrophe
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B. to question the value of advances
C. to highlight humankind's inability to resolve problems
D. to demonstrate the reason nuclear hazards must be communicated
4. The word "scourges" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. pressures B. afflictions C. worries D. annoyances
5. In paragraph 4, the author mentions the second law of thermodynamics
A. to support the view that nuclear waste will disperse with time
B. to show that knowledge can be sustained over millennia
C. to give the basic scientific reason behind the breakdown of material objects
D. to contrast the potential life span of knowledge with that of material objects
6. The word "Its" in the passage refers to
A. knowledge B. committee C. solution D. guardians
7. In paragraph 5, why is the proposed committee of guardians referred to as the "atomic priesthood"?
A. Because they would be an exclusive group with knowledge about nuclear waste sites.
B. Because they would use rituals and legends to maintain their exclusiveness
C. Because they would be an exclusive religious order
D. Because they would develop mythical taboos surrounding their traditions
8. According to the author, why did the task force under Sebeok propose a relay system for passing on
information?
A. To show that Sebeok 's ideas created more problems than they solved
B. To support the belief that breaks in communication are inevitable over time
C. To contrast Sebeok's ideas with those proposed by his main critics
D. To compensate for the fact that meaning will not stable over long periods of time
9. According to paragraph 7, the second defect of the atomic priesthood proposal is that it could lead to
A. the nonmembers turning knowledge into dangerous mythical forms
B. the possible misuse of exclusive knowledge
C. the establishment of a scientifically ignorant society
D. the priesthood's criticism of points concerning vital knowledge
10. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as difficulties in devising a communication system with the
future EXCEPT
A. the failure to maintain communication link
B. the loss of knowledge about today's civilization
C. the inability of materials to endure over time
D. the exclusiveness of priesthood
D. WRITING (40 points)
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Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed before
it. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)
1. They believe that Oliver failed his exam because he was nervous.
--> Oliver’s failure _______________________________________________________
2. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now.
--> The inhabitants are nowhere ___________________________________________
3. If you don't know the art market, there's a risk you will spend a lot of money on rubbish.
--> If you don't know the art market, you are _____________________________________
4. Whatever the methods used to obtain the result, drugs were definitely not involved.
-> There was no question ___________________________________________
5. Those terrapins which survive their first year may live to be twenty.
-> Should _________________________________________
Part II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You must use the words
in capital without changing their forms. Write your answers in the space provided (5 points)
6. Every student will get good marks to express their gratitude towards teachers. (lengths)
_________________________________________
7 I am determined to become a teacher of maths. (heart)
_________________________________________
8 Some of the patients taken to the hospital have got an infectious disease. (diagnosed)
_________________________________________
9 This contract is as important and confidential as that one. (equally)
_________________________________________
10 He has called the meeting in order to raise money for the latest storm. (purpose)
_________________________________________
Part 3. Paragraph writing. (20 points)
Nowadays, more and more foreign students are going to English-Speaking countries to learn the “international
language – English". It is undoubtedly true that studying English in an English-speaking country is the best way,
but it is not the only way to learn it.
Do you agree or disagree with the above statement?
Use your own knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples and relevant evidence.
Write a paragraph of 150-200 words to state your viewpoint.
SECTION A: LISTENING
Part 1: (10 points)
1. a first degree 2. ten hours
3. second semester 4. 27
5. international organizations
Part 2: (10 points)
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1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. B
Part 3: (10 points)
1T 2F 3F 4F 5F
Part 4: (20 points)
1. equipment 2. crime 3. money 4. leather 5. articles
6. ( fur ) coats 7.video recordings 8. 30 animals
9. violence 10. injured/ hurt/ harmed
SECTION B: GRAMMAR-VOCABULARY (50 points)

Part 1. Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the following sentences.
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. B
Part 2. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
L2 poem --> poems
L4 accounts --> accounts for
L5 gave --> made
L6 ordinarily --> extraordinarily
L7 the --> a
L8 of --> by
L9 used --> were used
L10 such as --> like
L13 rivalled --> unrivalled
L15 whom --> to whom
Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition) or particle. Write your answer in
the boxes provided. (10 points)
1. off 2. in 3. up/ away 4. up 5. under 6. against 7. for 8. on 9. off 10. in
Part 4. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (10 points)
1. regularity 2. justice 3. mathematicians 4. repeatedly
5. unravel 6. breakthroughs 7. meteorology 8. spectacular
9. awesome 10. disclose
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. C 5. D 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B
Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
1. be 2. beyond 3. point/ peak 4. open 5. take 6. under 7. command/ earn/ gain/ get/ garner 8. art 9. fully/ worthy
10. end
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Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. D
Part 4. Read the text and do the following tasks. (15 points)
1. F 2. B 3. I 4. H 5. D 6. E 7. F 8. D 9. C 10. G

Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed before
it. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)
1. Oliver’s failure in his exam was put down to the fact that he was nervous.
Or / Oliver’s failure in his exam is believed to have resulted from his nerve.
2. The inhabitants are nowhere near as badly-off as they were twenty years ago.
3. If you don't know the art market, you are in danger of spending a lot of money on rubbish
4. There was no question of drugs being involved, whatever the methods used to obtain the result
5. Should terrapins survive their first year, they may live to be twenty.
Part II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You must use the words
in capital without changing their forms. Write your answers in the space provided (5 points)
6. Every student will go to any lengths to express ….
7. My heart is set on becoming a teacher of maths.
I have set my heart on becoming…
8. An infectious diseases has been diagnosed in this hospital.
9. Both contracts are equally important and confidential.
10. His purpose in calling the meeting is to raise…
He has called the meeting for the purpose of raising…
Part 2.
You will hear two people discussing a survey connected to the “nanny state.” For each of the following
questions, choose the option which best fits to what you hear. You will listen to the recording twice.
1 What does the man say about the woman’s opinion of the “nanny state?”
A He used to agree with it.
B It may not be widely shared.
C It isn’t logical.
2 The man says that the survey indicates that most people ________.
A have changed their minds about the “nanny state”
B feel that there is no such thing as the “nanny state”
C want the government to tell them what to do on certain issues
3 The woman believes that government action on various health issues ________.
A is the right thing for the government to do
B shows that the “nanny state” can be a good thing
C annoys a great many people
4 The woman thinks that the survey results ________.
A suggest that people have the wrong attitude
B show that people have become very confused
C do not indicate approval of the “nanny state”
5 The woman says that the report in the paper ________.
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A may change people’s view on the “nanny state”
B won’t be believed by most readers
C has interpreted people’s opinions incorrectly
Part 3.
You will hear a conversation between a boy, William and a girl Sophie in a music shop. Listen and decide if the
following sentences are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. Sophie’s mother works in the town where they live. _________
2. Sophie enjoys shopping in Birmingham. _________
3. William feels confidents about finding his way around Birmingham. _________
4. William can persuade Sophie to buy a different CD from him. _________
5. Sohie is disappointed to have her birthday present early. _________
Part 4
You will hear a radio presenter called Jim Dunne talking about local entertainment options. For questions 1-10,
write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap.
Jim recommends Pagagnini to (1) ........................................

Jim saw a Pagagnini concert last year in (2) ........................................
As well as classical music, Pagagnini play rock, blues and (3) ........................................
Jim says the Pagagnini show has no (4) ........................................
The first performance of Rhythm of the Dance was in (5) ........................................ in Norway.
More than (6) ........................................ people have seen Rhythm of the Dance live on stage.
Jim suggests listeners look at the section entitled (7) ........................................ on the Rhythm of the Dance
website.
The name of the first show that the Cirque Éloize performed at the Regent Theatre was (8)
........................................
Some performers in iD appear on (9) ........................................ and Rollerblades.
One review of iD says it is full of originality, energy and (10) ........................................
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. I am going to go round the _________ if they don’t turn that music down soon.
A. bell B. bend C. leg D. stock
2. I was so tired that I couldn’t even think _________
A. mind B. doubt C. focus D. straight
3. The cat slept peacefully _________ in the long grass.
A. huddled B. nestled C. snuggled D. cuddled
4. Mr. Wright _________ his vegetable garden very carefully.
A. tends B. grows C. maintains D. attends
5. She _________ a few clothes into the case and hurried to the airport.
A. shoved B. scattered C. piled D. heaved
6. No teenager really knows what _________ for them career-wise in the future.
A. knuckles own B. lies head C. whiles away D. crops up
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7. The consultant called in by the firm brought a _________ of experience to bear on the problem.
A. wealth B. realm C. bank D. hoard
8. Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came to a _________
A. delay B. halt C. break D. stand
9. John refused to put his career in _________ by opposing his boss.
A. jeopardy B. hazard C. risk D. stake
10. The area is famous for its _________ gardens, where all kinds of different vegetables are grown for
cash.
A. market B. hothouse C. trade D. greenhouse
11. It is essential to be on the _________ for any signs of movement in the undergrowth since there are
poisonous snakes in the area.
A. guard B. care C. alarm D. alert
12. I could see the lantern _________ in the dark.
A. gleaming B. glowing C. glistening D. glimmering
13. It was a daring robbering, which took place in _________ daylight.
A. broad B. total C. wide D. absolute
14. For my _________ of mind, promise you’ll wear a life jacket in the boat.
A. satisfaction B. contentment C. peace D. calmness
15. By using all the latest technology, the yatchman managed to cross the Atlantic in _________ time.
A. quickest B. lightning C. top D. record
16. I’m afraid Tim doesn’t take much care over his homework. He usually does it _________
A. any old how B. any how C. how on earth D. how come
17. What a mad thing to do! You could all have been killed! It was _________ folly.
A. merely B. only C. sheer D. wild
18. The bark of a tree thickens _________
A. with age B. it gets older C. as older D. by age
19. Widely reproduced in magazines and books, _________
A. Ansel Adams depicted the Western wilderness in his photographs.
B. the Western wilderness was depicted in the photographs of Ansel Adams.
C. Ansel Adam’s photographs deppicted the Western wilderness.
D. it was through his photographs that Ansel Adams depicted the Western wilderness.
20. When I advised you to change jobs, I had your best _________ at heart.
A. feelings B. interests C. thoughts D. aspects
Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Example: Line 1: wrongly → wrong
Human memory, formerly believing to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than that of
a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variation of viewpoints have all concluded
that there is a great deal more storing in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder
Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgery, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he can elicit
the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and another minor events
supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in details. Although the physical basic for
memory is not yet understood, one theory is how the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the
result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnections between brain cell, stimulated by
patterns of activity. Repeated references with the same information support recall. In other words,
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improved performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.
Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box
provided.
1.Something’s cropped _________, I am afraid I won’t be able to make it this afternoon.
2. They are planning to wind ________ their operation in Greece and concentrate on Eastern Europe.
3. Tina is an authority _________ Byzaantine architecture.
4. His sense of fun has rubbed _________ his children.
5.– “ Will the concert start soon?”
_ “ It should get _________ way any minute now.”
6. Being rich doesn’t count _________ much on a desert island.
7. The company’s announced it’s laying _________ 1,000 workers.
8. Could you lend me some money to tide _________ me to the end of the month?
9. If the business does well, I’ll hopefully be able to take _________ a part-time assistant in the spring.
10. When I was younger I wanted to be an air pilot but I soon went _________ the idea when I realised I
hated flying.
Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces
provided below.
WITH MANY THANKS
Many people have given (0. ASSIST) ...assistance… to me during the writing of this book, but it is to Miss
Leigh Keith, senior editor of Ramsay and Brown that I am most deeply (1. DEBT) _________ for her
loyalty and (2. DEVOTE) _________ during the four years the project lasted. She gave her time and advice
(3. STINT) _________ in order for this work to be completed, giving both moral and (4. PRACTICE)
_________ support for the lengthy research into social conditions the project (5. NECESSARY)
_________ Her assurance and encouragement sustained me in my (6. BELIEVE) _________ that this was
valuable work and it was (7. DOUBT) _________ what enabled me to continue in the face of often
discouraging circumstances. I must also thank my father, who has been a (8. WILL) _________
collaborator in all my efforts and who spent long hours in libraries and on trains to distant parts of the
country in search of material. I know that he will say that he enjoyed it, but without his (9. FLAG)
_________ enthusiasm this book would never have been written. Finally, I would like to thank my friends
and family, who have had to put up with what must have seemed to them an (10. EXCEPT) _________
long drawn out piece of writing. Thank you, all of you, very much.
answers in corresponding numbered boxes.
Driving from Beijing to Paris
'Every journey begins with a single step.' We might (1) _________ this proverb for the 16,000 km Beijing
to Paris car rally, and say that every rally begins with a (2) _________ of the wheel. From China, several
hundred courageous men and women will (3) _________ out for Paris in pursuit of what, for many, is
likely to prove an impossible dream. Everybody is prepared for the worst and expects a high drop-out rate,
especially on the rally's difficult first stage across central China and over the high mountain (4) _________
of the Himalayas. 'If twenty-five cars (5) _________ it to Paris, we'll be doing well,' says Philip Young, the
rally organizer.
Now planned as an annual event, the first Beijing-Paris car rally took place in 1907. It was won by Prince
Borghese, an Italian adventurer, who crossed the (6) _________ line just a few meters (7) _________ of
the only other car to complete the race. Nowadays, not many people know about Prince Borghese, but at the
time his achievement was regarded as comparable to that of Marco Polo, who travelled from Venice to
China in the thirteenth century.
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According to the rules , all the cars in the rally must be more than thirty years old, which means that the (8)
roads and high altitude are a (9) _________ test of both the cars and the drivers. A sense of adventure is
essential. One driver said, 'Our (10) _________ is to have a good time, enjoy the experience and the
magnificent scenery - and the adventure of a lifetime.'
1 A adapt B moderate C improve D form
2 A revolution B circle C rotation D turn
3 A head B move C set D try
4 A crossings B passes C directions D passages
5 A get B take C have D make
6 A closing B final C ending D finishing
7 A forward B ahead C front D advance
8 A crude B undeveloped C broken D rough
10 A firm B strict C severe D grave
10 A aim B target C proposal D intent
Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes.
ALL WORK AND NO PLAY
Universally, work has been a central focus point (0) ... in ... society. As old as the idea of work (1)
_________ is the question of what constitutes ‘real work’. This is, in fact, a very subjective question
indeed. (2)_________ you to ask a miner, or any labourer for that matter, what real work is, he would
probably reply that real work entails working (3) _________ your hands and, in the process, getting them
dirty. To the average blue-collar worker, whitecollar workers are those people who sit in their offices day
(4)_________ day doing little or (5)_________ in the line of actual work.
By (6)_________, if you approached a white-collar worker or a professional of (7) _________ sort with
the same question, you can rest assured that they (8) _________ adamantly maintain that the world would
stop revolving (9) _________ their invaluable intellectual contribution to the scheme of things.
This idea is reflected in the vocabulary used to describe work and its related subjects. Words like career,
vocation and profession carry a more elevated connotation than the simple term ‘job’. The (10) _________
three lexical items convey the idea of learned persons sitting at desks and using their grey matter to solve
matters involving financial, legal or medical matters, while the humble slave away at some mundane work
station or assembly line task.
Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow.
REVIEW OF RESEARCH ON THE EFFECTS OF FOOD PROMOTION TO CHILDREN
This review was commissioned by the Food Standards Agency to examine the current research evidence
on:
• the extent and nature of food promotion to children
• the effect, if any, that this promotion has on their food knowledge, preferences and behaviour.
A Children’s food promotion is dominated by television advertising, and the great majority of this
promotes the so-called ‘Big Four’ of pre-sugared breakfast cereals, soft-drinks, confectionary and savoury
snacks. In the last ten years advertising for fast food outlets has rapidly increased. There is some evidence
that the dominance of television has recently begun to wane. The importance of strong, global branding
reinforces a need for multi-faceted communications combining television with merchandising, ‘tie-ins’ and
point of sale activity. The advertised diet contrasts sharply with that recommended by public health advisors,
and themes of fun and fantasy or taste, rather than health and nutrition, are used to promote it to children.
Meanwhile, the recommended diet gets little promotional support.
B There is plenty of evidence that children notice and enjoy food promotion. However, establishing
whether this actually influences them is a complex problem. The review tackled it by looking at studies that
had examined possible effects on what children know about food, their food preferences, their actual food
behaviour (both buying and eating), and their health outcomes (eg. obesity or cholesterol levels). The
majority of studies examined food advertising, but a few examined other forms of food promotion. In terms
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of nutritional knowledge, food advertising seems to have little influence on children’s general perceptions of
what constitutes a healthy diet, but, in certain contexts, it does have an effect on more specific types of
nutritional knowledge. For example, seeing soft drink and cereal adverts reduced primary aged children’s
ability to determine correctly whether or not certain products contained real fruit.
C The review also found evidence that food promotion influences children’s food preferences and their
purchase behaviour. A study of primary school children, for instance, found that exposure to advertising
influenced which foods they claimed to like; and another showed that labelling and signage on a vending
machine had an effect on what was bought by secondary school pupils. A number of studies have also
shown that food advertising can influence what children eat. One, for example, showed that advertising
influenced a primary class’s choice of daily snack at playtime.
D The next step, of trying to establish whether or not a link exists between food promotion and diet or
obesity, is extremely difficult as it requires research to be done in real world settings. A number of studies
have attempted this by using amount of television viewing as a proxy for exposure to television advertising.
They have established a clear link between television viewing and diet, obesity, and cholesterol levels. It is
impossible to say, however, whether this effect is caused by the advertising, the sedentary nature of
television viewing or snacking that might take place whilst viewing. One study resolved this problem by
taking a detailed diary of children’s viewing habits. This showed that the more food adverts they saw, the
more snacks and calories they consumed.
E Thus the literature does suggest food promotion is influencing children’s diet in a number of ways. This
does not amount to proof; as noted above with this kind of research, incontrovertible proof simply isn’t
attainable. Nor do all studies point to this conclusion; several have not found an effect. In addition, very few
studies have attempted to measure how strong these effects are relative to other factors influencing
children’s food choices. Nonetheless, many studies have found clear effects and they have used
sophisticated methodologies that make it possible to determine that i) these effects are not just due to
chance; ii) they are independent of other factors that may influence diet, such as parents’ eating habits or
attitudes; and iii) they occur at a brand and category level.
F Furthermore, two factors suggest that these findings actually downplay the effect that food promotion
has on children. First, the literature focuses principally on television advertising; the cumulative effect of
this combined with other forms of promotion and marketing is likely to be significantly greater. Second, the
studies have looked at direct effects on individual children, and understate indirect influences. For example,
promotion for fast food outlets may not only influence the child, but also encourage parents to take them for
meals and reinforce the idea that this is a normal and desirable behaviour.
G This does not amount to proof of an effect, but in our view does provide sufficient evidence to conclude
that an effect exists. The debate should now shift to what action is needed, and specifically to how the power
of commercial marketing can be used to bring about improvements in young people’s eating.
Questions 1-6
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the most suitable heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below.
Write the appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-6. Paragraph A has been done for you.
List of Headings
i General points of agreements and disagreements of researchers
ii How much children really know about food
iii Need to take action
iv Advertising effects of the “Big Four”
v Connection of advertising and children’s weight problems
vi Evidence that advertising affects what children buy to eat
vii How parents influence children’s eating habits
viii Advertising’s focus on unhealthy options
ix Children often buy what they want
x Underestimating the effects advertising has on children
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Example: Paragraph A ____viii___
1 paragraph B ___________
2 Paragraph C ___________
3 Paragraph D ___________
4 Paragraph E ___________
5 Paragraph F ___________
6 Paragraph G ___________
Questions 7-10
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 1.
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
7 __________ There is little difference between the number of healthy food advertisements and the number
of unhealthy food advertisements.
8 __________ TV advertising has successfully taught children nutritional knowledge about vitamins and
others.
9 __________ It is hard to decide which aspect of TV viewing has caused weight problems of children.
10 _________ The preference of food for children is affected by their age and gender.

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentences printed before it.
1. As far as I know, there’s no reason for James to be so unhappy.
→ To the ____________________________________________________________________
2. A rise in temperature in the next century seems likely.
→ In all _____________________________________________________________________
3. If we delay too long, we are unlikely to clinch the deal.
→ The longer_________________________________________________________________
4. The brochure gives hardly any useful information.
→ Precious little _____________________________________________________________
5. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
→ Refusal __________________________________________________________________
Part 2: Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence
in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the
form of the given word(s).
1. Jenny isn't a bad accountant, but I don't think it is a very suitable occupation for her.
cut
I just don't think Jenny ___________________________ an accountant.
2. We had no problems at all during our holiday in Turkey.
plan
Everything ___________________________ during our holiday in Turkey.
3. It's possible Clare phoned while we were out.
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may
Clare ___________________________ while we were out.
4. Our class has won the History Quiz for the third year running.
succession
For the ___________________________ , our class has won the History Quiz.
5. The thunderstorm brought their tennis match to an abrupt end.
cut
They had to ___________________________ because of the thunderstorm.
Part 3. Essay writing

Some people believe that unpaid community service such as working for a charity, improving the
neighborhood or teaching sports to younger children should be a compulsory part of high school
programmes.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
A. LISTENING: (50 pts)
( 2 pts for each correct answer)
Part 1: (10 pts)
1. Temporary staff
2. Waiters
3. Day off
4. Break
5. Free meal
Part 2. (10 pts)

1.B 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.C
Part 3. (10 pts)

1.F 2.F 3.T 4.F 5.T
Part 4. (20 pts)

1. whole family 6. four/4 million
2. Mexico 7. Photo/photo gallery
3. country and western 8. Rain/rain
4. interval 9. bikes
5. 1999 10. excitement
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR ( 50 pts)
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank ( 20 pts)
(1 p for each correct answer)
1. B 5. A 9. A 13. A 17. C
2. D 6. B 10. A 14. C 18. A
3. B 7. A 11. D 15. D 19. C
4. A 8. B 12. B 16. A 20. B
Part 2: Mistake correction ( 10 pts)

( 1 pt for each correct answer)
Mistake Correction
1 variation variety
2 storing stored
3 neurosurgery neurosurgeon
4 can could
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5 another other
6 details detail
7 basic basis
8 how that
9 cell cells
10 reference with Reference to
Part 3. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition or a particle.(5 pts)
( 1 pt for each correct answer)
1. up 2. down 3. on 4. on 5. under
6. for 7. off 8. over 9. on 10. off
Part 4. Fill in each blank with the most suitable form of the word in brackets.(10 points)
1. indebted 4. unstintingly 7. undoubtedly 10. exceptionally
2. devotion 5. necessitated 8. willing
3. practical 6. belief 9. unflagging
(1 pt for each correct answer)
1. A 3. C 5. D 7. B 9. C
2. B 4. B 6. D 8. D 10. A
Part 2: (15pts)
(1.5p for each correct answer)
1. itself 3. with 5. nothing 7. some 9. without
2. were 4. after 6. contrast 8. would 10. of
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your
answers in the space provided. (10 pts)
(1 p for each correct answer)
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. C
Part 4 (15pts)
(1.5p for each correct answer)
1. ii 2. vi 3. v 4. i 5. x 6. iii
7. NO 8. NO 9. YES 10. NOT GIVEN
IV. WRITING ( 50 pts)

Part 1: Sentence rewriting (10 pts)( 2 pt for each correct answer)
1. To the best of my knowledge, there’s no reason for James to be so unhappy.
2. In all likelihood / In all probability there will be a rise in temperature in the next century.
3. The longer we delay, the less likely / the more unlikely we are to clinch the deal.
4. Precious little useful information is given in the brochure.
5. Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to / result in your arrest / get you arrested.
Part 2: Sentence rewriting (10 pts)( 2 pt for each correct answer)
1. is cut out to be.
2. went (according) to plan.
3. may have phoned.
4. third year in succession.
5. cut short their tennis match.
TEST 10:LAO CAI Part 2: You will hear a radio interview with a woman called Kay Stanley who is talking
about a condition called dyslexia. For questions 6 -10, choose the best answer A, B or C.
6. How did Kay’s parents first realize she had dyslexia?
A. She didn’t know stories that other children could read.
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B. Her mother found her memorizing audio books.
C. She couldn’t spell words that other children knew.
7. What was Kay told by an expert on dyslexia?
A. She has a milder form of the condition.
B. She will be able to overcome her problems by reading.
C. Spelling will always be a particular problem for her.
8. How does dyslexia affect the way people think?
A. It can make people think more creatively.
B. It prevents them from solving problems effectively.
C. It makes it harder for them to follow logic.
9. What made Kay work hard to improve her reading?
A. It was the only way she could study acting.
B. She didn’t want people to think she was stupid.
C. Her father encouraged her.
10. How does Kay want to publicise the problem of dyslexia?
A. by acting in a film about the subject.
B. by giving talks to parents of dyslexic children.
C. by setting a positive example.
Part 3: You will hear part of a radio interview with a law student called Mark Stone, talking about his life at
university. For questions 11-15, decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
11. _______ Mark decided to study at Gramwell University because it offers a very good course in his subject.
12. _______ When Mark arrived at Gramwell, he was surprised by the architecture.
13. _______ Mark got a part-time job because he had to cover the cost of his accommodation.
14. _______ According to Mark, his lecturers like to communicate with students.
15. _______ In terms of social life, Mark worries about wasting time.
Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 14.
Part 4: You will hear a man called Tom Bothman giving a talk about newspaper journalism. For questions
16-25, complete sentences with a word or short phrase.
Journalism
Tom mentions business, news, sport and 16. _____________ as examples of what journalists write about.
Many journalists have a degree in journalism, though Tom took his in 17. _____________.
Tom says it’s important to gain a certificate in reporting, carrying out 18. _____________ and editing.
When applying for a job, Tom says you need to show a selection of 19. _____________ you’ve written.
Tom got experience of writing by working as a 20. _____________ on a student magazine.
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Tom says journalists must have good communication 21. _____________ skills, in addition to personal
characteristics such as motivation.
Tom was able to demonstrate to employers his experience of 22. _____________.
As a junior reporter, Tom was pleased to attend 23. _____________ as well as other local events.
In Tom’s present job, he has a range of responsibilities and most enjoys doing 24. _____________.
Tom is currently exploring the idea of working as a 25. _____________ on the paper.
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points):
Part 1: Part 1: Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your
answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
1. By 2020 this city _____________ in size.
A. will have doubled B. will be doubling
C. will double D. is going to double
2. Even though she was new to the company her ideas were _____________ into the plan.
A. included B. induced C. incorporated D. indebted
3. Some journalists _____________the truth in order to make their story more interesting.
A. distend B. disarray C. distort D. dissuade
4. Her _____________ makes her a lot of fun to be with.
A. excitement B. exuberance C. exasperation D. enticement
5. Daisy and Tim are talking with each other.
-Tim: “Do you mind if I smoke?” -Daisy: “I’d rather _____________.”
A. you didn’t B. you don’t C. you wouldn’t D. you hadn’t
6.You look _____________ after all that hard work.
A. taken out B. turned out C. worn out D. broken out
7. My best friend was offered the job on the _____________ that she was well-qualified.
A. grants B. reasons C. causes D. grounds
8. Many young people are forced to _____________ themselves.
A. fend for B. look for C. feed for D. rely for
9. Playing squash is a good way to let off_____________.
A. smoke B. temper C. moisture D. steam
10. It was imperative that the letter be _____________ by 5 o’clock in order to arrive early the next morning.
A. dispatched B. dispensed C. dispersed D. dispelled
11. Of course, you have a chance of getting the scholarship. I think you should _____________.
A. go for it B. go with it C. go along with it D. get with it
12.The team was _____________on winning the gold medal.
A. determined B. intent C. intense D. resolute
13.He _____________ to help me achieve my goal, for which I was very grateful.
A. endeavoured B. endeared C. engaged D. enchanted
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14. I really don’t think he’s got the _____________ to complete the marathon; he’s sure to give up before the
end.
A. flair B. stamina C. suppleness D. speed
15. The rock star’s fans were full of _____________ for him.
A. adulation B. glorification C. elation D. worship
16. She wanted to _____________ her interest in microbiology.
A. pursue B. strive for C. stalk D. persist in
17. The country around here is so _____________ that you can only get around in a jeep.
A. jagged B. weathered C. severe D. rugged
18. His outburst was not _____________ with his normally placid nature.
A. consistent B. constant C. concise D. conclusive
19. The prisoner was _____________ to hours of questioning.
A. subdued B. subjected C. objected D. submerged
20. Bella and Justin are chatting with each other.
-Bella: “I don’t think Eric’s coming over after all.” – Justin: “Well, if I_____________, I think his car has just
turned into the driveway.”
A. am not mistaken B. don’t mistake
C. am not mistaking D. haven’t mistaken
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in
the corresponding numbered boxes.
Russia election: Vladimir Putin wins by big margin

line 1 Vladimir Putin will lead Russia for other six years, after securing an expected victory in
line 2 Sunday's president election.
line 3 Mr Putin, who has ruled the country as neither president or prime minister since 1999, got
line 4 more than 76% of the vote, official results shows. The main opposition leader, Alexei
line 5 Navalny, was barred from the race. Addressed a rally in Moscow, Mr Putin said voters had
line 6 "recognised the achievements of the last few years".
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line 7 Speaking to reporters after the results announced, he laughed at a question about running
line 8 again in another six years. "What you are saying is a bit funny. Do you think that I will stay
line 8 here until I'm 100 years old? No!" he said. The scale of victory - which had been widely
line 10 predicted - appears to be a markedly increase in his share of the vote from 2012, when he
line 11 won 64%. Mr Putin's nearest competitor, millionaire communist Pavel Grudinin, received
line 12 about 12%. The race also included Ksenia Sobchak, a formal reality TV host, and veteran
line 13 nationalist Vladimir Zhirinovsky - they got less than 2% and about 6% respectedly. Mr
line 14 Putin's campaign team said it was an "incredible victory". "The percentage that we have just
line 15 seen speaks for itself. It's a mandate which Putin needs for future decisions, and he has a lot
line 16 of them to do," a spokesman told Russia's Interfax.
line 17 (Adapted from http://www.bbc.com/news/world-europe-43452449)
line 18
line 19

Example 1 other another
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box
provided.
1. Inadvertently perhaps, the BiE report lets the cat _______ _______ the bag.
2. People associate the old days __________ good times, and seem to forget the hardship they endured.
3. The selection board interviewed him and rejected his application ________ further ado.
4. The government is determined to crack _______ ________ terrorism.
5. Some lay eggs among the stones, so camouflaged you would mistake them ____ the rocks themselves.
6. How did you manage to sleep _________ that thunderstorm?
7. I haven’t got___________ _______unpacking from my holiday yet.
8. Somebody had come in and ripped _________ the TV and stereo.
9. People thought that the use of robots would do________ ________ boring low-paid factory jobs.
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10. He bravely went ________ ________ the wedding ceremony even though he was in a lot of pain.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided
below.
Facebook data - as scandalous as MPs’ expenses?
The gathering storm over how millions of Facebook profiles were 0. (APPARENT) _apparently_ exploited
for political purposes raises all sorts of questions about how our data is used.
For Stephanie Hare, a tech expert who has worked in the data field, the Cambridge Analytica story raises big
questions over a lack of 1. (ACCOUNT)__________: "What is really striking here is the absence of any 2.
(SIGHT)__________. " Nobody, she points out - not the social network, nor the data company or the academic
researcher - seems to have thought that it was their job to ask if data had been 3.(PROPER) __________shared,
and if so to ensure it was deleted.
Much has been made of the fact that users who sign up to the kind of 4.(PERSONAL) __________quiz used in
this case have to explicitly give permission for their data to be accessed. But Stephanie Hare says it is 5. (FAIR)
___________ to put the burden on people with busy lives to read through the fine print. And she feels that
Facebook's 6.(SET)__________should be set to maximise 7. (PRIVATE)__________by default.
"It's our jobs as 8. (TECHNOLOGY)___________to design systems that are safe," she says. "I don't get on an
aeroplane as a passenger and make my own safety checks."
I spent this morning giving a talk at a school in South Wales about the power of social media platforms to spread
fake news. I took some time to explain just how much power Facebook puts in the hands of 9.
(ADVERTISE)__________- and political parties - to target their messages very precisely at, say, 15-25 year olds
in Pontypridd who like motor racing.
My audience, all keen 10. (USE)__________ of social media, seemed surprised to learn that Facebook owned
Instagram and WhatsApp, and Google owned YouTube, meaning that just two giant companies could exert huge
influence over the information they received and how they thought.
(Adapted from http://www.bbc.com/news/technology-43458110)
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Colour sense
ICI colour consultant Jack Widgery painted one police interview room light green, and another strong red.
Subsequently, the police found that suspects 1.________statements more quickly when they were in the red
room, again enforcing the idea that too much red 2._________a feeling of being pressurized. The soft green was
for interviewing victims and their families, and there are many 3._________of light colours being used to
4._________ feelings and encourage relaxation.
Some institutions in the USA have special pink areas to cool the 5._______of angry prisoners, service recruits
and patients. Soft blues, greens and beiges seem to be 6._________and hospitals, schools and dentists are
beginning to take this into 7.________ when choosing colour schemes.
An airline which changed from a yellow and brown interior scheme to one of green and blue reported a forty-five
percent decrease in airsickness. But the workplace is the biggest challenge: neither too much nor too 8.________
energy will do. The 9._______fashion for grey with a few details in brighter colours may be a good
10._________.
1. A. gave B. said C. admitted D. spoke
2. A. makes B. leads C. has D. creates
3. A. ways B. occasions C. examples D. demonstrations
4. A. play up B. play down C. run up D. run down
5. A. tempers B. moods C. personalities D. senses
6. A. sleepy B. leisurely C. tiring D. restful
7. A. view B. mind C. account D. opinion
8. A. few B. small C. little D. low
9. A. current B. nowadays C. actual D. instant
10. A. result B. system C. solution D. way
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes.
The origin of language
The truth (0).___is __ nobody really knows how the language first began. Did we all start talking at around the
same time 1._______ of the manner in which our brains had begun to develop?
Although there is a lack of clear evidence, people have come up with various theories about the origins of
language. One recent theory is that human beings have evolved in 2._______ a way that we are programmed for
language from the moment of birth. In 3.________ words, language came about as a result of an evolutionary
change in our brains at some stage.
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Language 4._________ well be programmed into the brain but, 5._________ this, people still need stimulus from
others around them. From studies, we know that 6. ________ children are isolated 7.________ human contact
and have not learnt to construct sentences before they are ten, it is doubtful they will ever do 8._________. This
research shows, if 9. __________ else, that language is a social activity, not something invented
10._________isolation.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your
The Moon has been worshipped by primitive peoples and has inspired humans to create everything from
lunar calendars to love sonnets, but what do we really know about it? The most accepted theory about the origin
of the Moon is that it was formed of the debris from a massive collision with the young Earth about 4.6 billion
years ago. A huge body, perhaps the size of Mars, struck the Earth, throwing out an immense amount of debris
that coalesced and cooled in orbit around the Earth.
The development of Earth is inextricably linked to the moon; the Moon’s gravitational influence upon the
Earth is the primary cause of ocean tides. In fact, the Moon has more than twice the effect upon the tides than
does the Sun. The Moon makes one rotation and completes a revolution around the Earth every 27 days, 7 hours,
and 43 minutes. This synchronous rotation is caused by an uneven distribution of mass in the Moon (essentially,
it is heavier on one side than the other) and has allowed the Earth’s gravity to keep one side of the Moon
permanently facing Earth. It is an average distance from Earth of 384,403 km.
The Moon has no atmosphere; without an atmosphere, the Moon has nothing to protect it from meteorite
impacts, and thus the surface of the Moon is covered with impact craters, both large and small. The Moon also
has no active tectonic or volcanic activity, so the erosive effects of atmospheric weathering, tectonic shifts, and
volcanic upheavals that tend to erase and reform the Earth’s surface features are not at work on the Moon. In
fact, even tiny surface features such as the footprint left by an astronaut in the lunar soil are likely to last for
millions of years, unless obliterated by a chance meteorite strike. The surface gravity of the Moon is about one-
sixth that of the Earth’s. Therefore, a man weighing 82 kilograms on Earth would only weigh 14 kilograms on
the Moon.
The geographical features of the Earth most like that of the Moon are, in fact, places such as the Hawaiian
volcanic craters and the huge meteor crater in Arizona. The climate of the Moon is very unlike either Hawaii or
Arizona, however; in fact the temperature on the Moon ranges between 123 degrees C. to –233 degrees C.
1.What is the passage primarily about?
A. the Moon’s effect upon the Earth
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B. the origin of the Moon
C. what we know about the Moon and its differences to Earth
D. a comparison of the Moon and the Earth
2. The word “massive” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________
A. unavoidable B. dense C. huge D. impressive
3. The word “debris” in the passage is closest in meaning to______
A. rubbish B. satellites C. moons D. earth
4. According to the passage, the Moon is______
A. older than the Earth
B. protected by a dense atmosphere
C. composed of a few active volcanoes
D. the primary cause of Earth’s ocean tides
5. The word “uneven“ in the passage is closest in meaning to ______
A. Heavier B. Equally distributed C. Orderly D. Not uniform
6. Why does the author mention “impact craters” in the paragraph 3?
A. to show the result of the Moon not having an atmosphere
B. to show the result of the Moon not having active tectonic or volcanic activity
C. to explain why the Moon has no plant life because of meteorites
D. to explain the corrosive effects of atmospheric weathering
7. The word “erase” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________
A. change B. impact C. obliterate D. erupt
8. A person on the Moon would weigh less than on the Earth because_____
A. of the composition of lunar soil
B. the surface gravity of the Moon is less
C. the Moon has no atmosphere
D. the Moon has no active tectonic or volcanic activity
9. All of the following are true about the Moon EXCEPT____
A. it has a wide range of temperatures.
B. it is heavier on one side than the other.
C. it is unable to protect itself from meteorite attacks.
D. it has less effect upon the tides than the Sun.
10. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. the Moon is not able to support human life.
B. if the Moon had no gravitational influence, the Earth would not have tides.
C. people living in Hawaii and Arizona would feel at home on the Moon.
D. Mars could have been formed in a similar way to the Moon.
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Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow.
For questions 1-5, choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings (I-VIII) below.
I. The fascination explained
II. Speedsters thwarted by manufacturers
III. A policy well conceived
IV. Speed limits that are not speed limits
V. Recklessness rewarded
VI. Safety compromised
VII. Safety not only factor driving speed regulators
VIII. The longest motorways examined
1. Paragraph A ____________
2. Paragraph B ____________
3. Paragraph C ____________
4. Paragraph D ____________
5. Paragraph E ____________
Uncovering the truth about Germany’s autobahns
A._______
Officially the Bundesautobahnen, which, when translated, means federal expressways, we know them more
commonly as the autobahns – Germany’s impressive system of motorways. There is nothing extraordinary about
them, fine feats of engineering though they may be, so why has the term autobahn become so well-known? The
simple answer is that people living outside of Germany have had their curiosity more than a little tickled on
account of the fact that Germany’s motorways are, in one specific way, very unique indeed. They are not the
longest system in the world, this plaudit going to the Interstate Highway System of America, nor are they even
second or third (China and India respectively), and though they come a healthy fourth in the length stakes, this is
really neither here nor there. No, indeed, what fascinates us about the autobahns has nothing to do with their
technical or design features. It is though, a lot to do with how fast you can go on them. The autobahns, you see,
are the only stretch of motorway in the world on which you can drive your car (provided it is not towing a trailer)
at, well, any speed you like. Now, that’s a very attractive proposition for many boy-racers out there who would
salivate at the prospect of being able to drive as fast as they wanted, and therefore, on that rather scary point,
perhaps we should consider asking the, well, obvious question: what on earth were the Germans thinking when
they did this? Surely having no speed limit whatsoever is a recipe of disaster.
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B. _______
To clarify, there is a ‘recommended’ speed limit of 130km/h on all stretches of German motorway, and a hard
limit is imposed on some vehicles. Buses carrying standing passengers and motorbikes pulling trailers cannot go
faster than 60 km/h. All other buses, as well as passenger cars and trucks with trailers, and all vehicles weighing
in excess of 3.5 tonnes are not allowed to exceed 80 km/h. Rare exceptions include buses that have been
officially certified to travel at 100 km/h and passenger cars carrying trailers that have received similar
certification. Nonetheless, the fact remains that all other cars, trucks and motorbikes, while encouraged to adhere
to the ‘recommended’ speed limit, are by no means bound to it and can, in effect, travel as fast as they please.
Indeed, many of them do and it is not uncommon to see a car racing past you on the autobahn travelling in excess
of 140 km/h.
C. _______
In such circumstances, it would not be at all surprising to learn that Germany has an awful record on road safety,
except that it doesn’t. Indeed, Germany’s road safety record is comparable, and in some cases superior, to that of
all other industrialized European countries. So is this just luck rewarding recklessness? Well, first of all, it’s
important to concede that speed limits do apply at junctions and other danger spots, such as sections under repair,
and that there are even weather-related speed limits on some stretches of the autobahn (lower speed limits are
used in cases of wet lanes). To fail to point this out would be to paint a picture, rather unfairly, of speed-hungry
officials putting the travelling public in jeopardy on roads in order to gratify their own thrill-lust. Of course, this
is not the case. Indeed, safety considerations aside, the Germans have even imposed speed limits for other
purposes, such as to reduce pollution and noise on some stretches of the autobahn, so there is no crazy speed-
fuelled agenda here. ‘Mad’ you may say, but the Germans actually seem to think this is safe.
D. _______
And the statistics appear to back them up though. After all, the International Traffic Safety Data and Analysis
Group’s research indicates that there are 2.2 road-user fatalities per billion vehicle kilometers on German
autobahns each year. Using the same statistics, 4.5 fatalities occur on United States motorways each year. In fact,
when you look beyond the myth of the motorway without speed limits, where drivers regularly clock up speeds
in excess of 200 km/h, and uncover the more sober reality, you realize that the German approach might not be so
draft as it first seemed. For a start, only 2% of all traffic regularly travels on the unrestricted stretches of
motorway as, despite the vast area they cover, they are strategically located in rural areas with low traffic
volume. The other 98% of vehicles on the road do in fact have their speeds very strictly regulated, and these
regulations are also heavily enforced. Speed cameras are everywhere and the motorways are patrolled by
unmarked police cars ready to pull over speed offenders and reckless drivers. The Germans have also taken into
consideration statistics which show that very few road accidents occur on motorways in low-volume traffic each
year. In fact, these stretches of motorway offer up some of the safest driving conditions, statistically speaking, of
all. The Germans have therefore reasoned that they don’t need to regulate rural motorways a great deal, and it
would seem they are right.
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E. _______
Furthermore, the myth of limitless speed is also quite misleading. In reality, all German car manufacturers (and
most international ones) keep to a gentlemen’s agreement whereby they limit the top speed of their cars to around
150 km/h for safety reasons as, unless tyre pressure is optimally maintained and cars are constantly serviced (as
would happen, say, in motor racing), travelling at higher speeds than that is, well, extremely risky and can lead to
blowouts and other physical and mechanical failures that have the potential to cause death. Therefore, the
situation is a little different than we might have assumed because while there is no official speed limit in theory,
car manufacturers self-regulate so, in practice, a limit on the maximum speed vehicles can travel at has been put
in place. In addition, the few vehicles which are capable of clocking speeds in excess of 150 km/h seldom get the
opportunity (the time and space) to build up to these speeds on the German autobahns, and, if they do, well, the
way the German government sees it, they might as well be driving that fast there rather than in the suburbs, so let
them do it!
For questions 6-7, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
6. Special motorway speed limits ___________
A. are sometimes imposed on all vehicles in difficult driving conditions.
B. never apply to cars, trucks and motorcycles, which can travel at any speed, provided they are not towing a
trailer
C. like all speed limits in Germany- are only recommended maximum speeds, and are not enforceable in law.
D. are only seen at junctions and on stretches of motorway which need work.
7. What do you think is the writer’s view of the German approach to speed regulation?
A. It is irresponsible and reckless
B. It initially appears baffling, but, on closer inspection, makes a lot of sense
C. It is inadequate in cities and leaves a lot to be desired in rural areas
D. It is over-reliant on self-regulation by manufacturers and even drivers themselves
For questions 8-10, complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer.
8. For cars operating at high speeds, it is necessary to maintain optimal tyre pressure and ensure that the vehicle
is serviced regularly in order to combat the heightened risk of _________ failures.
9. In reality, due to the practice whereby _______, few vehicles have the capacity at speeds in excess of 150
km/h.
10. When it comes to vehicles which can and are determined to travel at very high speeds, ________ would
rather they attempted to drive excessively fast on the parts of the motorway it deems safe than anywhere else.
Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must use
between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given.
1. Attendance at the additional evening lectures is not obligatory for students. (under)
97
Students _________________________________ the additional evening lectures.
2. All are eligible for the contest. There is no discrimination of race and sex. (regardless)
All are eligible ___________________________________________ race and sex.
3. We were very much surprised to learn that Brian had become a monk. (To)
__________________________________________, Brian had become a monk.
4. Some people will do anything to lose weight. (lengths)
Some people will __________________________________ to lose weight.
5. He didn’t mention our previous conversation at all. (reference)
He made ____________________________ our previous conversation.
Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.
1. It was not until five years had elapsed that the whole truth about the murder came out.
Not for _______________________________________________________
2. The only reason why she got promotion is that she’s very competent.
Were it _______________________________________________________
3. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.
Urgent _______________________________________________________
4. ___________________________________It’s such a wonderful opportunity that we mustn’t miss it.
It’s too ____________________________________________________________________________
5. You’re far more practical than I am.
Nowhere ___________________________________________________________________________
Part 3: In some countries, secondary schools aim to provide a general education across a range of subjects.
In others, children focus on a narrow range of subjects related to a particular career.
Which of these two systems is more appropriate in today’s world?
Write an essay of about 200-250 words to express your opinion. Give reasons and specific examples to support
your answer.
A. LISTENING (50 points):
Part 1:
1.R-T-Y-34 2. 30 3. three hours 4. 50 5. 3
Part 2:
6.B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. C
Part 3:
11. T 12.F 13.T 14.T 15.F
Part 4:
98
16.culture 17.economics 18.interviews 19.articles 20.film critic
21.organization 22.web design 23.football matches 24.research 25. photographer
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points):

Part 1:
1.A 2.C 3.C 4.B 5.A
6.C 7.D 8.A 9.D 10.A
11.A 12.B 13.A 14.B 15.A
16.A 17. D 18.A 19.B 20.A
Part 2.
Example 1 other another
1. 2 president presidential
2. 3 neither either
3. 5 shows show
4. 6 Addressed Addressing
5. 8 announced were announced
6. 8 laughed at laughed off
7. 12 markedly marked
8. 15 formal former
9. 16 respectedly respectively
10. 19 do make
Part 3.
1. out of 2. with 3. without 4. down on 5. for
6. through 7. round to 8. off 9. away with 10. through with
Part 4.
1. accountability 2. oversight 3. improperly 4. personality 5. unfair
6. settings 7. privacy 8. technologists 9. advertisers 10. users

Part 1.
99
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A
6. D 7. C 8.C 9. A 10. C
Part 2.
1. because 2. such 3. other 4. could/may/might 5. despite
6. 7. from 8. so 9. nothing/little 10. in

if/when/whenever
Part 3.
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. D
6. A 7. C 8.B 9. D 10. A
Part 4:
1. I 2. IV 3. VII 4. III 5. II
6. A 7. B 8. physical and 9. (car) 10. the (German)

mechanical manufacturers self- government
regulate

Part 1.
1. are under no obligation to attend
2. for taking/to take part in the contest regardless of
3. To our surprise,
4. do great length
5. no reference to
Part 2.
1. Not for another five years did the whole truth about the murder come out.
2. Were it not for her competence, she wouldn’t get promotion.
3. Urgent action is/measures are necessary/essential to solve the problem/if the problem is to be solved.//Urgent
action/steps must be taken/Urgent measures must be adopted to solve the problem.
4. It’s too wonderful an opportunity for us to miss.
5. Nowhere else am I as practical as you are.
)
100
101
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TEST 1 2017-2018

9. ------ Jane wasn't concerned about her food rations.

Page 1 of 102 pages

II. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY ( 30 pts)

Page 3 of 102 pages

Page 4 of 102 pages

PART IV: WRITING (60 pts)

Page 5 of 102 pages

II. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY

46.speedy 47.construction 48.impassable 49.competitor 50.unrivalled

PART IV: WRITING.

Page 6 of 102 pages

Page 7 of 102 pages

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)

Page 8 of 102 pages

III. READING (60 points)

Page 9 of 102 pages

Page 10 of 102 pages

Page 11 of 102 pages

51.A. quality B. sense C. idea D. thought

Page 12 of 102 pages

Part 4. Read the following passage and answer questions 61-70.

Weakness of the school system

Page 13 of 102 pages

Page 14 of 102 pages

I. LISTENING 22. addition 77. D

III. READING (60 points)

0. Paragraph A …vi…. 1. Paragraph B ……. 2. Paragraph C …….

3. Paragraph D ……. 4. Paragraph E ……. 5. Paragraph F …….

For questions 6-10, complete the notes below.

PART 2. (10 pts) (2pts/1 correct answer)

PART 3.(10 pts) (2pts/1 correct answer)

5. ballistic missile 6. severing 7. economic sanctions 8. displace

9. administration 10. partnerships

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)

Part 2 (5 pts)(1pt/1 correct answer)

Line Mistakes Corrections

1. into 2. on to 3. up with 4. through 5. out

Part 4 (10 points)(1pt/1 correct answer)

III. READING (60 points)

Part 2: (15 points)(1pt/1 correct answer)

Part 3: (10 points)(1pt/1 correct answer)

Part 4: (10 points)(1pt/1 correct answer)

0. Paragraph A …vi…. 1. Paragraph B …vii…. 2. Paragraph C …i….

3. Paragraph D …iv…. 4. Paragraph E …viii…. 5. Paragraph F …ii….

i . The difficulties of talking about smells

31. Paragraph A ______ 32. Paragraph D ______

Part 4: (10 pts)

PART III: READING (60 pts.)

Part 2: (15 pts)

Part 3: (10 pts)

Part 4: (10 pts)

A. LISTENING (50 pts)

5. Diane considers that nowadays companies are at most risk from

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

C. READING COMPREHENSION (60 pts)

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Using Mathematics to Secure Our Money

7 Online banking makes most people nerous

31. Paragraph A 32. Paragraph D