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Prelims
Test Series
GENERAL Indian Polity TEST

STUDIES
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Indian Polity full test

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 SA IAS ACADEMY UPSC (03/04/2024)

GENERAL Indian Polity

full test
STUDIES

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTION
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
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without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
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in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT writes anything
else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best.
In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet Provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have
to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

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 SA IAS ACADEMY
1. When the Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of
India reassembled on 31st October, 1947, its reduced
membership was:
(a) 299 (b) 311 (c) 319 (d) 331
2. Constitutional Provisions Sources
A. Federation 1. USA
B. Parliamentary 2. Britain
C. Directive Principle 3. Canada
D. Fundamental Rights 4. Ireland
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 1
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
3. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are
suspended during emergency caused by:
(a) war or external aggression
(b) failure of constitutional machinery of a State
(c) internal armed rebellion
(d) financial crisis
4. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains
special provisions for the
administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several
States?
(a) Third (b) Fifth (c) Seventh (d) Ninth
5. The Constitution names our country as :
(a) Bharat (b) India, that is Bharat
(c) Hindustan (d) Aryavarta
6. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be:
(a) the national language of India
(b) the language of communication between the State
Governments
(c) the official language of the Union of India
(d) the language of communication between the Union
Government and the State Governments.
7. What is the minimum permissible age for employment supervision of:
in any factory or mine?
(a) 12 years (b) 14 years (c) 16 years (d) 18 years
8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may
be altered by Parliament by a simple majority.
2. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before grades of officers in the Central Secretariat?
Parliament redistributes its territory.
3. The President's recommendation is necessary for
introducing in Parliament a Bill on redistributing
territory of any State.
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4. The President must receive the State's opinion before
recommending a Bill on altering the name of the State.
(a) I only (b) I and II (c) I, II and IV (d) I and III
9. Match the following:
A. X Schedule 1 : Provision as to the disqualifications
on the grounds of defection
B. VIII Schedule 2 : Union, State and Concurrent Lists
C. VII Schedule 3 : Languages
D. Vl Schedule 4 : Related to tribal areas
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
10. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to
Lok Sabha from any constituency in India.
2. As per the Representation of the People Act 1951, if a
person is convicted of any offence and sentenced to an
imprisonment of 2 years or more, this will be
disqualification to contest election.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from
the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
(a) President (b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister (d) Union Finance Minister
12. Match the following:
Parliamentary Terms
A. Starred Question
B. Unstarred Question
C. Short Notice Question
Meaning
1. One asked by a member on matters of public
importance of an urgent nature
2. One for which the Concerned minister has to lay on
the table a written answer
3. One for which an oral answer is required to be given
by a minister on the floor of the House
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3 (c) 3 1 2 (d) 3 2 1
13. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) President
14. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the
1. Secretary 2. Additional Secretary
3. Joint Secretary 4. Deputy Secretary
5. Under Secretary 6. Director
(a) 1, 2, 3, 6, 4, 5 (b) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4, 6
(c) 6, 4, 3, 5, 2, 1 (d) 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 3
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 SA IAS ACADEMY
15. Match the following:
A. Business Advisory Committee - 1. Looks into the
mode of public expenditure
B. Select Committee - 2. Examines the
veracity of budget estimates
C. Estimates Committee - 3. Considers a bill
and submits to the House a report on it
D. Public Accounts Committee - 4. Prepares time table
for the whole session
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
16. Which of the following features restrict the authority
of Parliament in India?
1. A written Constitution clearly prescribes its scope of
operation.
2. The Supreme Court can strike down a law passed by
Parliament if it contravenes any of the Constitutional
provisions.
3. Parliament is limited by the incorporation of the
Fundamental Rights in the Constitution.
(a) I, II and III (b) I and III (c) II only (d) None
17. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated
in:
(a) the United Kingdom (b) Australia
(c) the United States (d) Canada
18. Which of the following statements regarding
Judiciary in India are correct ?
1. Supreme Court of India is free from the control and
influence of Legislature and Executive.
2. Subordinate courts are at the head of the judicial
hierarchy of the State.
3. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court
are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the
Chief Justice of India.
4. A High Court can withdraw a case from a subordinate
court and can deal with the case itself if it is satisfied that
the case involves a substantial point of constitutional
law.
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) I and IV (d) II, III and IV
19. The Constitution of India has ensured independence
of judiciary by:
(i) protecting salaries and service conditions of judges.
(ii) prohibiting the judges from carrying on practice in
courts of law after retirement.
(iii) providing Single judiciary.
(iv) ensuring security of tenure of judges.
(a) ii, iii, iv (b) i, ii, iv (c) i, ii, iii, iv (d) i, iii
20. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The Governor can refuse to give his assent to a bill
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(b) The Governor can reserve the bill for the assent of the
President
(c) The Governor may refuse to invite a leader of the party
in Vidhan Sabha who does not command the majority in the
House
(d) The Governor may dismiss the Speaker of the Vidhan
Sabha and the Chairman of Vidhan Parishad
21. Which of the following may be drawbacks
of a democracy?
1. Leaders keep changing in a democracy which could
lead to instability.
2. Democracy may lead to corruption as it is based on
electoral competition.
3. Democracy increases the chances of rash or
irresponsible decision-making.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
22. With reference to the Central Vigilance
Commission, consider the following statements:
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. Its Chairman and members are appointed by the
President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. Consider the following statements with reference to
the idea of liberalism in the context of the Indian
Constitution:
1. Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the
individuals over the rights of the community.
2. Reservations for SC/ST community in the constitution
are an example of Indian liberalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Which of the following issues can be taken
up by the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
1. Issues of manual scavenging
2. Problems faced by Notified and Denotified Tribes
3. Issues related to the right to health
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
25. Consider the following statements with respect to the
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
(NCPCR):
1. It is a statutory body constituted under the Child
Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986.
2. It has been designated as the agency to monitor
provisions of the Right to Free and Compulsory
Education (RTE) Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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 SA IAS ACADEMY
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. With reference to Election Commission, consider the
following statements:
1. Conditions of office and tenure of office are provided
under Article 324.
2. Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) exercises veto
power over the matters discussed in Election
Commission.
3. CEC does not hold office during pleasure of President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
27. Consider the following statements with regard to the
Padma awards:
1. A Padma awardee can be given a higher award only
after five years of the conferment of the earlier award.
2. The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the
Cabinet Secretary.
3. There is a provision for seeking the written consent of
the recipient before the announcement of the award.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
28. With reference to State Election Commission,
consider the following statements:
1. It has been empowered to conduct elections to
panchayats through 73rd Constitutional amendment.
2. The functions of delimitation, reservation and rotation
of Panchayats seats is vested in State Election
Commission.
3. State Election Commission submits its annual report
to the Election Commission of India and to the
Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
29. Consider the following pairs:
Commission /Body Falls under
1. National Commission : Ministry of Social
for Minorities Justice & Empowerment
2. National Commission : Ministry of Women and
Child for Women Development
3. National Commission : Ministry of Tribal Affairs
for STs
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
30. Consider the following statements regarding
' State Public Service Commission' :
1. One-half of the members of the commission should be
persons from SC/ST and OBCs.
2. Members of the SPSC can be removed by the
Governor of the respective state.
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Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. With reference to the Solicitor General of India,
consider the following statements:
1. The office of the Solicitor General of India is
mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
2. The role of the Solicitor General is to assist the
Attorney General in the fulfillment of his official
responsibilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. With reference to Attorney General of India,
consider the following statements:
1. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed
as a judge of the Supreme Court.
2. He receives such remuneration as the Parliament may
determine.
3. He can take part in the proceedings of both the Houses
of Parliament or their joint sitting.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
33. With reference to the Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities, consider the following statements:
1. It was constituted under Article 350-B of the Indian
Constitution.
2. It can investigate all matters relating to the safeguards
provided for both linguistic and religious minorities
under the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. The State legislative Assembly participates in the
election of:
1. President 2. Vice-President
3. Rajya Sabha members
4. Members of legislative Council of the State
(a) I, II & III (b) I, III & IV (c) I & III (d) I, II, III & IV
35. The Constitution of India does not mention the post
of:
(a) the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) the Deputy Prime Minister
(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies
36. Which of the following is not a condition for
becoming a citizen of India?
(a) Birth (b) Acquiring property
(c) Descent (d) Naturalization
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 SA IAS ACADEMY
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the
Constitution of India to meet regional demands of
Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim,
Mizoram, Arunchal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America
envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but
a single cititzenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of
his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1 only
38. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related
to:
(a) empowering the center to levy and appropriate service
tax
(b) the Constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis
of the population census 2001
(d) the demarcation of new boundaries between States.
39. Which of the following is/are correct with reference
to the Cantonment Board?
1. It is established for municipal administration for
civilian population in the cantonment area.
2. It works under the administrative control of the Union
Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. It consists of partly elected and partly nominated
members.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
40. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding a State's bill?
(a) The president has no role to play in the passage of a
state's bill.
(b) State's bill can be reserved for the President but once
reserved the Governor has no role to play.
(c) State's bill can be reserved for the President but the
President has to give assent to the bill.
(d) None of the above
41. Under which of the following circumstances the
members of the State Legislative Assembly is/are
disqualified?
1. if he is an undischarged insolvent.
2. if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a
court
3. If he is disqualified under the provisions of the Tenth
schedule.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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42. With reference to the evolution of Panchayati Raj in
India, consider the following statements:
1. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended
establishment of a two tier Panchayati Raj system.
2. Rajasthan was the first state in independent India to
establish Panchayati Raj.
3. The Panchayati Raj institutions got constitutional
status in 1982.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
43. With reference to inter-state trade and commerce,
consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India remains totally silent on
trade and commerce within the Indian territory and
leaves it to the Parliament to legislate on.
2. Parliament can impose restrictions on the freedom of
trade and commerce between the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. Which of the following committees made
recommendations with respect to Centre- State
relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. M M Punchhi Commission
3. Rajamannar Committee
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
45. With reference to political parties as recognized by
the Election Commission (EC), consider the following
statements:
1. EC recognizes parties as national parties or state
parties on the basis of their poll performance.
2. The recognition granted by EC to political parties
determines their right to certain privileges in elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
46.With reference to co-operative societies, consider the
following statements:
1. Elections to a co-operative society are conducted by
State Election Commission.
2. Number of directors of a co-operative society shall not
exceed twenty-one.
3. Cooperative Board shall have at least two women
representatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
47. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of
India the Governor of a state may
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 SA IAS ACADEMY
1. withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state
legislature.
2. reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for
consideration of the President.
3. return the Bill, other than a money Bill for
reconsideration-of the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
48. Parliament's expenditure is controlled by:
(a) President
(b) Finance Commission
(c) National Development Council
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General
49. Which one of the following Constitutional
Amendments states that the total number of Ministers,
including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Minister
shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of
members of the House of the People?
(a) 90th (b) 91st (c) 92nd (d) 93rd
50. The minimum number of judges to sit on the
Constitutional Bench or on Bench which
gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the
President must be :
(a) one half of the total strength of the Supreme Court
(b) seven (c) three
(d) one-third of the total strength of the court
51. Match the following:
Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
A. Original Jurisdiction
B. Appellate Jurisdiction
C. Advisory Jurisdiction
Cases Covered
1. Advice on any question of law as may be referred to
the Supreme Court for consideration by
the President
2. Case involving interpretation of the Constitution
3. Appointment of officers and servants of the Supreme
Court
4. Dispute between the Government of India and a State
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 4 3 2 (c) 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 3
52. Match the following:
Union Territory Jurisdiction (High Court)
A. Puducherry 1. Kerala
B. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Mumbai
C. Lakshadweep 3. Chennai
D. Daman and Diu 4. Kolkata
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 4 3 2
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53. Which of the following special powers have been
conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of
India?
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change
the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to
make laws in the State List and to create one or more
All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and
to determine the pension of the President after his/her
retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission
and to determine the number of Election Commissioners.
54. Once the proclamation of emergency is made, the
right of a citizen to move to the Supreme Court for the
enforcement of his fundamental right is suspended by
the:
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
(c) Speaker (d) Chief Justice of India
55. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty
of the President of India to cause to be laid before the
Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance
Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled
Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
56. Which of the following writs is issued by the court in
case of illegal detention of a person?
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto
57. Consider the following statements with reference to
various state-level electoral offices:
1. Chief Electoral Officer at the state level is appointed
by the Governor.
2. Returning officer at the district level is nominated by
the District Magistrate of the district.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. With reference to the Municipal Corporations,
consider the following statements:
1. They are established in the states by an act of the
concerned state legislatures.
2. The Mayor is the chief executive authority of the
corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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 SA IAS ACADEMY UPSC (03/04/2024)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 64. Which one of the following group of languages are
included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of
59. Consider the following statements with reference to India?
The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to (a) English, Hindi, Dogri and Sanskrit
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA): (b) Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada and Hindi
1. The provisions of the Act apply to the states of the (c) Hindi, Kashmiri, Manipuri and English
North East India only. (d) Tulu, Tamil, Malayalam and Kannada
2. Ministry of Rural Development and Ministry of
Development of North Eastern Region are the nodal 65. Consider the following statements with reference to
ministries for the implementation of the provisions Subordinate Courts in India:
under this Act. 1. They have uniform organizational structure and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? jurisdiction throughout India.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Sessions court has power to impose sentence up to life
imprisonment but not capital punishment.
60. The Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
principles. To give absolute primacy to one over another
is to disturb the harmony of the constitution. In which of 66. In the context of the Indian polity, which of the
the following cases did the Supreme Court hold this following statements best describes the term fraternity?
opinion? (a) It refers to the formation of collective consciousness
(a) Champakam Dorairajan case (1951) leading to unity and integrity of the nation.
(b) Golaknath case (1967) (b) It refers to the voluntary sharing of collective burdens by
(c) Keshavananda Bharti case (1973) individuals for the welfare of the society.
(d) Minerva Mills case (1980) (c) It refers to an attitude of respect and reverence towards
fellow men.
61. With respect to Lok Adalats, consider the (d) It refers to the assurance of mutual tolerance towards all
following statements: religion.
1. It has been given statutory status under the Legal
Services Authorities Act, 1987. 67. Consider the following pairs:
2. The award by the Lok Adalat is not binding and it is Constitutional Amendment
appealable. Subject Matter
3. There is no strict application of procedural laws like 1. 26th Amendment : Curtailed the fundamental right to
the Civil Procedure Code and the Evidence Act while property.
assessing the claim by Lok Adalat. 2. 25th Amendment : Abolished the privy purses.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 3. 91st Amendment : Limit on size of council of
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 ministers.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
62. Consider the following pairs: (a) 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 3
Provisions under DPSP Article
1. Living wage for workers : Article 47 68. Recently, the central government has initiated the
2. Promotion of Cooperative societies : Article 43A process of comprehensive amendment of criminal laws.
3. Equal justice and free legal aid : Article 39A In this context, consider the following statements:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1. Criminal law and criminal procedure in India fall
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 under the Concurrent List of the Constitution.
2. Indian Penal Code, 1860 covers lists criminal acts and
63. Consider the following statements with respect to the punishments that a person brought to be charged with.
right to education in the Indian Constitution: 3. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 classifies offences into
1. The 92nd Constitution Amendment made the Right to categories such as bailable, non-bailable offences, etc.
Education a fundamental right. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Article 21A of the Constitution guarantees the right to (a) 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
receive education in the mother tongue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 69. With reference to Foreigners Tribunals (FT),
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 consider the following statements:
1. These tribunals primarily deal with the
8
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 SA IAS ACADEMY
grievances of foreigners who face safety and security
issues during their legal stay in India.
2. They are set up under the Foreigner’s Act, 1946.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
70. Consider the following statements regarding the
Constitution of India:
1. The Indian Constitution's calligrapher was Prem
Behari Narain Raizada.
2. Vasant Krishan Vaidya calligraphed the Hindi
translation of the original constitution
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. Consider the following statements regarding the
appointment and conditions of service of advocate-
general of state:
1. An individual who has been an advocate of the high
court for 10 years is eligible and can be appointed as the
advocate general.
2. A person holding a judicial office in the territory of
India for 5 years is eligible and can be appointed as
advocate general.
3. The remuneration of the advocate general is
determined by the state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
72. Consider the following items:
1. Fire Services 2. Roads and Bridges
3. Urban Forestry 4. Management of railway stations
Which of the items given above has been provided under
the twelfth schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
73. Consider the following statements with reference to
public bills and private bills:
1. The introduction of a public bill in the House requires
seven days’ notice whereas a private bill introduction in
the House requires one month’s notice.
2. A public bill is drafted by the concerned department
in consultation with the law department, unlike a private
bill that is drafted by a concerned member.
Which of the statements given above is/ are not correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
74. With reference to Special Provisions for the
administration of the National Capital Territory (NCT)
of Delhi, consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi holds office
during the pleasure of the President.
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2. The term “government” in the context of the NCT of
Delhi refers to the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of the
NCT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. In the context of security system provided by UIDAI
for Aadhaar, consider the following statements:
1. Virtual ID (VID) is a temporary 12-digit random
number mapped with Aadhaar number.
2. VID can be used in lieu of Aadhaar number whenever
e-KYC services are performed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
76. Consider the following statements with
reference to List III (Concurrent List) in the
Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
1. At present this list has more than 100 subjects.
2. Both the Parliament and state legislature can make
laws with respect to any of the subjects enumerated in
the List.
3. In case of a conflict between laws made by the Centre
and states, the central law prevails over the state law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
77. Which one of the following is not a function
of the Cabinet Secretariat?
(a) Monitoring implementation of decisions taken by the
Cabinet and its Committees
(b) Management of major crisis situations in the country
(c) Creating new Standing Committees of the Cabinet
(d) Providing assistance in decision-making in Government
by ensuring interministerial coordination
78. Consider the following statements regarding
the revenue of urban local bodies (ULBs):
1. The devolution of funds to ULBs from the state
government is made on the basis of the
recommendations of the state finance commission.
2. ULBs can raise loans from financial institutions only
with the prior approval of the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding the office of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker?
(a) Frederick Whyte was the first elected Speaker of the
central legislative assembly.
(b) The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker
originated under the provisions of the Government of India
Act of 1935.
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 SA IAS ACADEMY UPSC (03/04/2024)
(c) Vithalbhai J. Patel was the first appointed Deputy
Speaker of the central legislative assembly. 85. Which of the following Chief Justices of India has
(d) Ananthasayanam Ayyangar was the first Deputy Speaker acted as President of India?
of the Lok Sabha. (a) M. Hidayatullah (b) P.B. Gajendra Gadkar
(c) P.N. Bhagwati (d) All of the above
80. The Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the
states from the central resources. In this context, 86. Consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. The motion to impeach a judge of the supreme court
1. Statutory grants are given by the Parliament to only of India cannot be rejected by the speaker of the Lok
those states which are in need of financial assistance and Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
not to every state. 2. The constitution of India defines and gives details of
2. The statutory grants are given to the states on the what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour'
recommendation of the Finance Commission. of the judges of the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. The details of the process of the impeachment of the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the
judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
81. An ordinance issued by the President of India: 4. If the motion of the impeachment of a judge is taken
1. cannot contravene Fundamental Rights any more than up for voting, the law requires the motion to be
an act of Parliament backed by each house of the parliament and
2. can repeal an act of the Parliament on a subject in the supported by a majority of total membership of that
Concurrent list of the seventh schedule of the house and by not less than two-thirds of total
constitution members of that House present and voting.
3. can have a maximum life of six months in case of non- Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
approval by the Parliament (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 87. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected according
to:
82. The Contingency Fund of the State is operated by (a) Cumulative Vote System
the: (b) Single Non-transferable Vote System
(a) President (b) Chief Minister (c) Single Transferable Vote System
(c) Governor (d) Council of Ministers (d) None of the above

83. Which of the following are regarded as the main
features of the "Rule of Law"?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People's responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
84. The value of a vote of a Member of Parliament for
the election of the President is determined by dividing
the:
(a) nation's population as per the latest census by the number
of Lok Sabha members
(b) nation's population as per the latest census by the total
strength of the two Houses of Parliament
(c) the total value of votes of members of all the State
Legislative Assemblies by the elected Members of the two
Houses of Parliament
(d) particular State's population as per the latest census by
the number of Members of Parliament elected from that
State
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88. Which of the following are true?
I. Only some States in India have Legislative Councils.
II. Some members of Legislative Councils are
nominated.
III. Some members of Legislative Councils are directly
elected by the people.
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
89. Who among the following is a legal advisor of the
State Government as provided by the Constitution?
(a) Public Prosecutor (b) Solicitor General
(c) Advocate General (d) Attorney General
90. When the Governor receives a Bill passed by the
State Legislative Assembly, which of the following
courses would be most appropriate for the Governor as
an agent of the Centre?
(a) give assent to the Bill (b) refer the Bill to the President
(c) keep the Bill pending (d) exercise veto over the Bill
91. A parliamentary system of government is one in
which
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 SA IAS ACADEMY
(a) All political parties in the parliament are represented
in the government
(b) The government is responsible to the parliament and
can be remove by it
(c) The government is elected by the people and can be
removed by them
(d) The government is chosen by the parliament but
cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed
term
92. Which of the following, regarding the advisory
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct ?
1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion
on any matter referred to it by the President.
2. The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any
reference made to it under its power of advisory
jurisdiction.
3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a
reference under advisory jurisdiction is not
binding on the government.
4. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to
the Supreme Court under its power of advisory
jurisdiction.
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) II and IV
93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
matched?
(a) Writ of Habeas Corpus - available against private
individual as well
(b) Writ of Quo Warranto - available against subordinate
courts only
(c) Writ of Prohibition - available against autonomous
bodies only
(d) Writ of Certiorari - available against public servants only to vote in the Presidential election if :
94. One common agreement between Gandhism and
Marxism is
(a) The final goal of a stateless society
(b) Class struggle
(c) Abolition of private property
(d) Economic determinism
95. Prorogation of the House means:
(a) a House has been brought in session
(b) the session of the House has been terminated
(c) the House itself stands terminated
(d) None of the above
96. Which of the following committees exist only in the
Lok Sabha?
1. Business Advisory Committee.
2. Committee on Private Members Bill and Resolutions.
3. Committee on Petitions.
4. Committee on Assurances.
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5. Estimates Committee.
(a) I, II and III (b) III and IV (c) II and V (d) II, IV and V
97. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the
following parts of the Constitution of India reflects the
principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
98. Which one among the following pairs is no correctly
matched?
(a) Power of the Parliament : Creating a new state
(b) Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the
state
(c) Equality before law : Guaranteed to both
Indian citizens and noncitizens
(d) Equality of opportunity : Guaranteed to only Indian
Citizens
99. Which one of the following statements correctly
describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of
India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of power
between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the language listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of
tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
100. The Chief Minister of a State in India is not eligible
(a) he himself is a candidate
(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower
House of the State Legislature
(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State
Legislature
(d) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
ALL THE BEST
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