1. At the poles, the time of sunrise or sunset is..

a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 6 months.*

2. The local time of a place on the earth's surface is determined with reference to its

a. morning time b. evening time c. noon time* d. night time

3. The time difference between Mumbai and Calcutta is ..............

a. 1 hour* b. 2 hours c. 3 hours d. 4 hours

4. When people living ina larger area across different lonngitudes have to interact with each other,
using local time........

a. could lead to chao and confusion b. there will be no synchronization of time c. both a and b * d. it
will be very convenient

5. What is the time difference between two longitudes?

a. 2 minutes b. 4 minutes * c. 6 minutes d. 8 minutes

6. The world has been divided into ......... time zones.

a. 6 b. 9 c. 18 d. 24*

7. One standard time is not enough when......

a. if the difference between the longitudinal extent of the country is less than one or two hours.*

b. if the difference between the longitudinal extent of the country is less than 3 hours

c. if the difference between the longitudinal extent of the country is more than 30 minutes

d. if the whole country belongs to Southern Hemisphere

8. India's standard Meridian passe through

a. Allahabad b. Mirzapur UP c. both * d. none of these

9. The difference in Standard Times of various countries is calculated with reference to

a. GMT * b. International dateline c. both d. none of these

10. Maharaja Sawai Jaising II, the king of Jaipur, Rajasthan, built ......... astronomical observatories.

a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9

11. One of the following observatories , built by Maharaja Sawai Jaising II, does not exist today.
a. Ujjain b. Varanasi c. Mathura* d. Delhi

Abbreviations:

NIST: National Institute of Standards and Technology

NPL: National Physical Laboratory of India

2. INTERIOR OF THE EARTH

1. What does the scientist believe about the birth of the earth?

a. that the earth was formed by God

b. that the earth was formed by itself out of nothing

c. that the earth was formed out of the solar system itself*

d. that the formation of earth is still a mystery

2. Matter coming out of volcanic eruptions consists of .....

a. hot magma b. gases c. steam d. all of these*

3. Our earth was formed ................ years ago.

a. 4.6 billion b. 3 million c. 28 million d. a very long time unfathomable

4. On an average, the earth's crust is....... km

a. 12 b. 24 c. 30 d. 34

5. The continents are mainly composed of.....

a. Silica and Aluminum b. Sulphur and Aluminum c. Calcium and Aluminum d. Iron and Aluminum

6. Ocenic crust is made up of.......

a. silica b. magnesium c. silica and magnesium * d. silica and aluminum

7. What is Conrad Discontinuity?

a. layer of aluminum in the core b. crust below the mantle c. discontinuity between continental and
oceanic crust * d. discontinuity between crust and mangle

8. Where does the mantle lie?

a. below the crust b. above the crust c. near the core d. around the core
9. Mantle begins at a depth of around ..... km

a. 23 b. 12 c. 42 d. 56

10. The temperature at the depth of 2400 km to 2900 km is.........

a. 1000 to 2000 °C b. 2200 to 2500 °C c. 3000 to 4000 °C d. 1200 to 2200 °C

11. The temperature of the liquid outer core is around......

a. 2500 °C b. 3000°C c. 4000 °C d. 5000°C

12. The magnetic field generated inside the earth is also called.....

a. dynamo b. solar winds c . geo dynamo d. mantle

3. HUMIDITY AND CLOUDS + STRUCTURE OF OCEAN FLOORS

1. The process of evaporation depends on .....

a. dryness b. temperature c. speed of the wind d. all of these

2. What is humidity ?

a. steam in atmosphere b. proportion of water vapour in the air * c. atmospheric water d. all of these

3. Higher the temperature, ............ is the water holding capacity of the air.

a. lower b. higher* c. very low d. moderate

4.What is saturation of the air?

a. moisture holding capacity and proportion of moisture is different b. moisture holding capacity and
proportion of moisture is equal c. both d. none of these

5. What happens when the proportion of moisture in the air exceeds its vapour holding capacity?

a. water in the air becomes heavy b. rainfall starts c. snowfall starts d. b and c

6. The nature of the winter rainfall in north western India is

(A) Convectional (B) Cyclonic (C) Orographic (D) Monsoonal

7. Cyclonic rainfall largely occurs in

(A) Mexico (B) U.K. (C) India (D) Mexico

8. Which cloud is known as high cloud?

(A) Greenland (B) Cuba (C) Cirrus (D) Stratus

9. Clear nights are colder than cloudy nights because of

(A) Radiation (B) Precipitation (C) Condensation (D) Insolation

10. Less dew is formed on cloudy nights because

(A) On cloudy nights the radiation takes place very quickly (B) Clouds scatter moisture (C) On cloudy
nights the radiation takes place very slowly (D) Clouds absorb the falling dew

11. Relatively humidity of the atmosphere is directly affected by

(A) Change in atmospheric temperature (B) Change in direction of winds (C) Change in atmospheric
pressure (D) None of these

12. Which of the following types of rainfall is often accompanied with lightning and thunder?

(A) Convectional (B) Orographic (C) Frontal (D) None of these

13. Which of the following clouds is made up of tiny ice particles?

(A) Cirrus cloud (B) Cumulus cloud (C) Stratus cloud (D) Cumulonimbus cloud

14. Scanty rainfall of less than 50cm per annum is received by

(A) The coastal areas in the warm temperature zone (B) The eastern parts of the temperature lands
(C) The areas of high latitudes (D) The areas of equatorial regions

15: With the separation of tectonic plates there is formation of

A) mid-ocean ridge B) rift valley C) seamount

D) ocean trench

16. A sloping area which lies between shoreline and continental slope is known as

A) trenches B) continental shelf

C) continental rise

D) abyssal plain

17: The mild slopping area between continental slope and abyssal plain is regarded as

A) trenches B) continental rise C) rift valley

D) continental shelf

18: Huge cracks which are found in deep ocean basin are the

A) mid-ocean ridge B) rift valley C) seamount

D) ocean trench

19: The world's longest mountain chain under ocean is about

A) 64000km B) 46000km C) 40006km D) 60004km1

20. Which type of rainfall is caused by ascent of moisture laden air along a mountain

(A) Cyclonic rainfall (B) Convectional rainfall (C) Orographic rainfall (D) Al of the above

5. OCEAN CURRENTS

1. Gulf stream is which type of current?

(a) Warm Current (b) Cold Current (c) Warm & Cold Current (d) None of the above

Ans. (a) Warm Current

Que 2. Labrador Current is which type of current?

(a) Canary’s Current (b) Cold Current (c) Warm Current (d) None of the above

Ans. (b) Cold Current

Que 3. Jet Streams are an example of?

(a) Air currents (b) Polar wind (c) Water currents (d) None of these

Ans. (a) Air currents

Que 4. Which among the following given oceans does El Niño occur?

(a) the Indian Ocean (b) the Pacific Ocean (c) the Atlantic Ocean (d) the Arctic Ocean

Ans. (b) the Pacific Ocean

Que 5. Where is New Moore island located?

(a) Bay of Bengal (b) the Indian Ocean (c) the Pacific Ocean (d) Arabian sea

Ans. (a) Bay of Bengal

Que 6. Which among the following is the busiest ocean trade route?

(a) Suez canal (b) Panama canal (c) North Atlantic route (d) None of these

Ans. (c) North Atlantic route

Que 7. Which among the following seas is known for the highest salinity?
(a) Caspian sea (b) Red sea (c) Dead sea

(d) Sargasso sea

Ans. (c) Dead sea

Que 8. Which sea has the lowest salinity?

(a) Baltic Sea (b) Sargasso sea (c) Red sea

(d) None of these

Ans. (a) Baltic Sea

Que 9. Which of the following straits connect the Mediterranean Sea to the Atlantic Ocean?

(a) Strait of Hormuz (b) Strait of Gibraltar (c) Bosporus Strait (d) Dover Strait

Ans. (b) Strait of Gibraltar

Que 10. Benguela Current is which type of current?

(a) Warm Current (b)Warm & cold current (c) cold current (d) None of these

Ans. (c) cold current

Que 11. Which current is called Humboldt Current?

(a) Benguela Current (b) Peru Current (c) Dover Strait (d) None of the above

Ans. (b) Peru Current

Que 12. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current?

(a) Labrador (b) Kurile (c) Canary (d) Gulf Stream

Ans. (d) Gulf Stream

Que 13. Which ocean current joins with the Labrador Current?

(a) Canaries current (b) Benguela’s current (c) California’s current (d) Florida’s Current

Ans. (d) Florida’s Current

Que 14. Where does the Brazilian current end?

(a) Brazil and Guiana (b) West Atlantic drift (c) South America (d) North Atlantic ocean

Ans. (a) Brazil and Guiana

Que 15. Which one of the given ocean currents is the largest and most powerful surface current on the
earth?

(a) California current (b) Antarctic Circumpolar Current (c) Florida Current (d) None of these

Ans. (b) Antarctic Circumpolar Current

Que 16. Find out the warm ocean current in the following options.

(a) West Australian Current (b) East Australian current (c) Peru Current (d) Benguela Current

Ans. (b) East Australian current

Que 17. Where does the cold Labrador Current bring nine months of winter?

(a) Northern Sweden (b) the USA (c) South Sweden (d) None of these

Ans. (a) Northern Sweden

Que 18. Where do warm ocean currents move?

(a) Indonesia to the Philippines (b) Sri Lanka to Indonesia (c) Away from the Equator toward the poles
(d) None of these

Ans. (c) Away from the Equator toward the poles

Que 19. Which Ocean is called a herring pond?

(a) the Atlantic Ocean (b) the Pacific Ocean

(c) the Arctic Ocean (d) Indian ocean

Ans. (a) the Atlantic Ocean

Que 20. To which of the following region the Jordan River flow?

(a) Atlantic ocean (b) Red sea (c) Dead sea

(d) Gulf of Suez

Ans. (c) Dead sea

6. LAND USE

Question 1.

Large scale destruction of forests cover and arable land has occured due to the following:

(a) Growing population

(b) Ever growing demand of the population

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.

Some important techniques to cope with Land slide are given below. Pick out the one that is not
applicable.

(a) Construction of retention wall to stop land from slipping.

(b) Implementation of the surface drainage control

(c) Decrease in vegetation cover

(d) Hazard mapping locate areas prone to landslides

Answer: (c) Decrease in vegetation cover

Question 3.

A few reasons as to why there is uneven distribution of population in different parts of the world are
given below. Pick out the most appropriate reason.

(a) Due to varied characteristics of land and climate

(b) Due to the fact that earth is the only heavenly body in the universe

(c) Due to the fact that water covers only about 70% of the total area

(d) Due to the fact that land covers only about 30% of the total area

Answer: (a) Due to varied characteristics of land and climate

Question 4.

Which one of the following statements is true with respect to lands

(a) People and their demands are growing because the availability of land is not limited.

(b) Community lands are owned by the community for common uses like collection of fodder, fruits or
medicinal herbs

(c) Proper planning of land use with reference to the nature of land and the needs of the community
would provide minimum returns.
(d) Community land belongs to an individual and hence he/she is free to cultivate in that land.

Answer: (b) Community lands are owned by the community for common uses like collection of fodder,
fruits or medicinal herbs

Question 5.

A few physical factors that determine the use of land are given below. Pick out the one that is not a
physical factor

(a) Availability of capital

(b) Minerals and Availability of Water

(c) Topography and Soil

(d) Climate

Question 6.

Australia uses its largest portion of its area for

(a) pastures

(b) crop land

(c) forest

(d) other uses

Answer: (a) pastures

Question 7.

The total percent of land of world under forest is

(a) 26

(b) 31

(c) 36

(d) 41

Answer: (b) 31

Question 8.

Name the term that can be given to Land that is suitable for crop production.
(a) Untilled Land

(b) Pasture Land

(c) Forest Land

(d) Arable Land

Answer: (d) Arable Land

Question 9.

What does the term Land degradation refer to?

(a) Decline in the use of fertilizers

(b) The decline in the productivity of cultivated land or forest land

(c) Presence of rocks and minerals in the soil

(d) The slope of the land

Answer: (b) The decline in the productivity of cultivated land or forest land

Question 10.

Which of the following is used of soil conservation?

(a) Mulching

(b) Shelter belts

(c) Contour ploughing

(d) All of these

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 11.

The major factors of soil formation are the nature of parent rock and __________

(a) Deforestation

(b) Soil Erosion

(c) Overgrazing

(d) Climatic factors

Answer: (d) Climatic factors

Question 12.

Name the term that can be given to the various layers in the soil after it is cut out like a slice of cake.

(a) Top Soil

(b) Soil Horizon

(c) Sub Soil

(d) Soil Mixture

Answer: (b) Soil Horizon

Question 13.

Out of the given options, which one refer to the land used for grazing cattle

(a) Pasture Land

(b) Fallow Land

(c) Arable Land

(d) Forest Land

Answer: (a) Pasture Land

Question 14.

Which is not an example of ground water?

(a) Water flowing in rivers

(b) Water through wells

(c) Water through hand pumps

(d) Water through submersible pumps

Answer: (a) Water flowing in rivers

Question 15.

Identify from the list given below, the different type of land based on the ownership of the land

(a) Plains and Mountains

(b) Private and Community (Government) owned

(c) Fertile and Barren

(d) Rural and Urban

Answer: (b) Private and Community (Government) owned

Question 16.

What percentage of the total area of the earth’s surface is covered by the most important natural
resource Land?

(a) About 20 %

(b) About 30 %

(c) About 40 %

(d) About 70 %

Answer: (b) About 30 %

Question 17.

Which of the following determine the use of land?

(a) Soil and topography

(b) Climate and vegetation

(c) Availability of water

(d) All of these

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 18.

The uneven distribution of population in the world is due to the varied characteristics of

(a) land and climate

(b) climate

(c) vegetation

(d) settlements

Answer: (a) land and climate

7. POPULATION

Question 1.

Osaka in Japan and Mumbai in India are two densely populated areas due to:

(a) These areas are topographically favourable.

(b) These are areas of religious significance

(c) They are industrial belts providing large employment opportunities

(d) These are areas with excellent climatic conditions

Answer: (c) They are industrial belts providing large employment opportunities

Question 2.

Population density refer to

(a) The number of skilled people in a country

(b) The number of people living per square unit of area.

(c) The number of unskilled people in a country

(d) The way in which people are spread across the earth’s surface

Answer: (b) The number of people living per square unit of area.

Question 3.

Using resources carefully, judicially & giving them time to get renewed is called _________

(a) Resource Development

(b) Sustainable Conservation

(c) Sustainable Development

(d) Resource Conservation

Answer: (d) Resource Conservation

Question 4.

A few factors on which the productivity of a nation’s human resources depends are given below. Pick
out the one that is not a factor.

(a) Health
(b) Census

(c) Literacy

(d) Possession of technical skills

Answer: (b) Census

Question 5.

The number of deaths per 1,000 people refer to

(a) Migration

(b) Birth Rate

(c) Death rate

(d) Population change

Answer: (c) Death rate

Question 6.

Which of the following is not the region where very few people live?

(a) High altitudes areas

(b) Plains

(c) High mountains

(d) Equatorial forest area

Answer: (b) Plains

Question 7.

A population pyramid

(a) Shows the difference between the birth rate and death rate

(b) Shows the percent of males and females in a country with there are groups

(c) The number of years that an average person can expect to live

(d) Shows the structure of population with respect to their age

Answer: (d) Shows the structure of population with respect to their age
Question 8.

Pick out the apt definition for population distribution.

(a) The way in which people live in the villages

(b) The way in which people live in urban areas

(c) The way in which the skilled human resources are utilized in a country

(d) The way in which people are spread across the earth surface

Answer: (d) The way in which people are spread across the earth surface

Question 9.

Which one from the following refers to Census?

(a) The process of counting the number of states in a country

(b) The process of taking a count of total number of people in a country

(c) The process of counting the land area in a country

(d) The process of counting the mountains and hilly terrains in a country

Answer: (b) The process of taking a count of total number of people in a country

Question 10.

Land covers only about _________ percent of the total area of the earth’s surface

(a) 20

(b) 25

(c) 30

(d) 35

Answer: (c) 30

Question 11.

Why Alaska in North America is more populated.

(a) Due to the fertile soils suitable for agriculture

(b) Due to the availability of mineral resources

(c) Due to the availability of Water

(d) Due to the excellent transport facilities

Answer: (b) Due to the availability of mineral resources

Question 12.

In India, in how many years once is Census is taken?

(a) 25

(b) 15

(c) 20

(d) 10

Answer: (d) 10

Question 13.

Cite an example where religious or cultural activities tend to attract more people

(a) Mumbai

(b) Sahara

(c) Osaka

(d) Jerusalem

Answer: (d) Jerusalem

Question 14.

Pick out from the following, the apt definition for natural growth rate.

(a) The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country

(b) The age- sex composition of a country.

(c) The way in which people are spread across the earth’s surface.

(d) The number of people living per square unit of area.

Answer: (a) The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country

Question 15.
Which of the following statements are false with respect to thinly populated areas?

(a) Usually the high altitude areas and extremely cold zones are sparsely populated.

(b) Climate here is inhospitable

(c) Very few people live in the equatorial forests.

(d) These regions enjoy an equable climate where there is adequate rainfall.

Answer: (d) These regions enjoy an equable climate where there is adequate rainfall.

Question 16.

When was Human Resource Development Ministry formed in India at central level of Government?

(a) In 1990

(b) In 1985

(c) In 2004

(d) In 2009

Answer: (b) In 1985

Question 17.

A few important statements with respect to the Human Resources are given below. Pick out the one
that is not True

(a) The numbers and characteristics of human resources do not change.

(b) Human resource is the ultimate resource

(c) Human resources like other resources are not equally distributed

(d) Human resources differ in educational levels, age and sex

Answer: (a) The numbers and characteristics of human resources do not change.

8. INDUSTRIES

Question 1.

With limited capital, a food processing unit is set up in a particular village in Gujarat. This unit generates
employment to that particular village. Name the type of classification of industry under which this food
processing unit will come under.

(a) Forest based industry

(b) Agro based industry

(c) Small Scale industry

(d) Large Scale industry

Answer: (c) Small Scale industry

Question 2.

____________ sector industries are owned, managed and controlled by the state or central government
.

(a) Cooperative

(b) Public

(c) Joint

(d) Private

Answer: (b) Public

Question 3.

Which of the following can be considered as an example of the economic activity extraction of minerals
from the industry sector?

(a) Tourism industry

(b) Iron and Steel industry

(c) Banking industry

(d) Coal mining industry

Answer: (d) Coal mining industry

Question 4.

Joint sector Industries are owned and operated by the state and individuals or a group of individuals.
From the given list fo industries, which one can be called a Joint sEctor industry?

(a) Iron and Steel industry

(b) Tata Group of Companies

(c) Reliance Industries

(d) Maruti Udyog Limited

Answer: (d) Maruti Udyog Limited

Question 5.

Name the important Northern industrial region in India

(a) Delhi ,Gurgaon- Meerut region

(b) Bangalore- Tamil Nadu region

(c) Ahmedabad- Vadodara region

(d) Damodar Valley belt

Answer: (a) Delhi ,Gurgaon- Meerut region

Question 6.

Fish is a product of the

(a) mineral-based industries

(b) agro-based industries

(c) marine-based industries

(d) forest-based industries

Answer: (c) marine-based industries

Question 7.

Basket weaving falls in the category of

(a) Small-scale industry

(b) Cottage industry

(c) Large-scale industry

(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Cottage industry

Question 8.

In the light of various factors that influence industrial location, some industries have a tendency to grow
close to each other. Name such areas.

(a) Industrial Structures

(b) Industrial Regions

(c) Industrial Systems

(d) Industrial Organisms

Answer

Answer: (b) Industrial Regions

Question 9.

Which of the following best describes an agro based industry?

(a) Industries depending on ores like Cement, iron and steel etc.

(b) Industries that depend upon the primary products from forests for their raw materials

(c) Industries depending on agricultural products ie plant and animal products

(d) Industries that use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials

Answer

Answer: (c) Industries depending on agricultural products ie plant and animal products

Question 10.

To which category of industry (based on raw materials) does Iron made from iron ore belong to?

(a) Marine based

(b) Forest based

(c) Agro based

(d) Mineral based

Answer: (d) Mineral based

Question 11.

Name the three important industrial regions of the world.

(a) Eastern North America, Western and Central Europe, Eastern Asia

(b) Eastern Australia, Western and central Europe, Eastern Asia

(c) Eastern North America, Western and Central Europe, Western Australia
(d) Africa, Eastern Asia, Central Australia

Answer: (a) Eastern North America, Western and Central Europe, Eastern Asia

Question 12.

Which of the following can be considered as an example of the economic activity service provider from
the industry sector?

(a) Textile industry

(b) Banking industry

(c) Iron and Steel industry

(d) Coal mining industry

Answer: (b) Banking industry

Question 13.

Processing sea food and manufacturing fish oil can be considered as examples of :

(a) Agro based industries

(b) Marine based industries

(c) Mineral based industries

(d) Forest based industries

Answer: (b) Marine based industries

Question 14.

Which industries are also known as village or household industries?

(a) Small Scale industries

(b) Cottage industries

(c) Large Scale industries

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Cottage industries

Question 15.

Why is steel called the backbone of modern industries?

(a) Everything we use is related with steel

(b) Steel is cheaper

(c) Steel is available everywhere in the world

(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Everything we use is related with steel

Question 16.

Change of raw materials into products of more value to people is called

(a) Manufacturing

(b) Resources

(c) Population

(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Manufacturing

Question 17.

The leading industries of Birla Group, Reliance, Tata Group of industries belong to the private sector.
What are the characterstic fetures of these industries?

(a) Jointly owned, they are owned, managed and controlled by a group of individuals and govenrment
agencies. Prices of products are fixed through planning.

(b) Operated mainly for the benefit of the public rather than profits, they are owned, managed and
controlled by a group of individuals. Prices of products are determined by market forces

(c) Operated mainly for Profits, they are owned, managed and controlled by a group of individuals.
Prices of products are determined by market forces

(d) Members of the cooperative society produce the raw material and add value to earn profit.
Generally opearetes with the motive of community welfare

Answer: (c) Operated mainly for Profits , they are owned, managed and controlled by a group of
individuals. Prices of products are determined by market forces

Question 18.

Marine-based industries are based on

(a) Minerals
(b) Forest products

(c) Agricultural products

(d) Oceanic products

Answer: (d) Oceanic