Teyeffg

flfoy lsok (izkjafHkd) VsLV lhjhT+k&2024
tc rd vkidks ;g ijh{k.k iqfLrdk [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysa

ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe
ijh{k.k iqfLrdk
Test Code:
P1/P2-2401 lkekU; vè;;u
VsLV – 01
le; % nks ?k.Vs iw.kk±d % 200
vuqns'k
1. ijh{kk izkjEHk gksus ds rqjUr ckn] vki bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk dh iM+rky vo'; dj ysa fd blesa dksbZ fcuk Nik] iQVk ;k
NwVk gqvk i`"B vFkok iz'u vkfn u gksA ;fn ,slk gks rks bls lgh ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ls cny yhft,A
2. mÙkj&i=kd esa lgh LFkku ij ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe A, B, C ;k D ;FkkfLFkfr Li"V :i ls dwVc¼ dhft;sA
3. bl iafDr ds lkFk esa fn;s x, dks"Bd esa vkidks viuk vuqØekad fy[kuk
gSA ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ij vkSj oqQN u fy[ksaA
4. bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk esa 100 iz'uka'k (iz'u) fn;s x, gSaA izR;sd iz'uka'k
fgUnh vkSj vaxzs”kh esa Nik gSA izR;sd iz'uka'k esa pkj izR;qÙkj (mÙkj) fn;s
x, gSaA buesa ls ,d izR;qÙkj dks pqu ysa ftls vki mÙkj&i=kd ij vafdr djuk pkgrs gSaA ;fn vkidks ,slk yxs fd ,d ls vfèkd
izR;qÙkj lgh gSa rks ml izR;qÙkj dks vafdr djsa tks vkidks loksZÙke yxsA izR;sd iz'uka'k ds fy;s dsoy ,d gh izR;qÙkj pquuk gSA
5. vkidks vius lHkh izR;qÙkj vyx ls fn;s x, mÙkj&i=kd ij gh vafdr djus gSaA mÙkj&i=kd esa fn;s x, funsZ'k ns[k ysaA
6. lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSaA
7. blls igys fd vki ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ds fofHkUu iz'uka'kksa ds izR;qÙkj mÙkj i=kd ij vafdr djuk 'kq: djsa] vkidks izos'k izek.k&i=k
ds lkFk izsf"kr vuqns'kksa ds vuqlkj dqN fooj.k mÙkj&i=kd esa nsus gSaA
8. vki vius lHkh izR;qÙkjksa dks mÙkj&i=kd esa Hkjus ds ckn rFkk ijh{kk ds lekiu ij dsoy mÙkj&i=kd vèkh{kd dks lkSai nsaA vkidks
vius lkFk ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ys tkus dh vuqefr gSA
9. dPps dke ds fy;s dqN i=kd ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ds var esa layXu gSaA
10. xyr mÙkjksa ds fy;s naM%
oLrqfu"B iz'u&i=kksa esa mEehnokj }kjk fn;s x, xyr mÙkjksa ds fy;s naM fn;k tk,xkA
(i) izR;sd iz'u ds fy;s pkj oSdfYid mÙkj gSaA mEehnokj }kjk izR;sd iz'u ds fy;s fn;s x, ,d xyr mÙkj ds fy;s iz'u gsrq fu;r
fd;s x, vadksa dk ,d&frgkbZ naM ds :i esa dkVk tk,xkA
(ii) ;fn dksbZ mEehnokj ,d ls vfèkd mÙkj nsrk gS] rks bls xyr mÙkj ekuk tk,xk] pkgs fn;s x, mÙkjksa esa ls ,d mÙkj lgh gks] ml
iz'u ds fy;s mi;qZDrkuqlkj gh naM fn;k tk,xkA
(iii) ;fn mEehnokj }kjk dksbZ iz'u gy ugha fd;k tkrk gS] vFkkZr~ mEehnokj }kjk mÙkj ugha fn;k tkrk gS] rks ml iz'u ds fy;s dksbZ
n.M ugha fn;k tk,xkA
tc rd vkidks ;g ijh{k.k iqfLrdk [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysa

è;ku nsa % vuqns'kksa dk vaxzs”kh :ikUrj bl iqfLrdk ds vafre i`"B ij Nik gSA
FREE BY KING R QUEEN P[ऋषभ राजपूत]

1. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 4. ¶;g jk"Vªh; m|ku o"kZ 1981 esa cuk;k x;k FkkA bls o"kZ
1. vÚhdh phrksa dh rqyuk esa] ,f'k;kbZ phrs NksVs gksrs 1994 esa Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk çkstDs V Vkbxj fj”koZ ?kksf"kr fd;k
gSa ysfdu mudh •ky eksVh gksrh gSA x;k FkkA Hkkjr esa ikbZ tkus okyh ukS fx¼ çtkfr;ksa esa ls
2. lajf{kr {ks=kksa esa 90% phrk 'kkodksa dh e`R;q dk lkr çtkfr;k¡ ;gk¡ ikbZ tkrh gSAa og unh] tks bl m|ku ls
izeq[k dkj.k ijHk{k.k gSA gksdj nf{k.k ls mÙkj dh vksj cgrh gS] ?kfM+;ky] exj rFkk
3. ,f'k;kbZ phrs o"kZ 1952 rd Hkkjr ls foyqIr gks pqds FksA vU; tyh; thoksa dk vkokl gS vkSj lcls de çnwf"kr
4. vÚhdh phrksa dks IUCN jsM fyLV esa ^lqHks|* ds
ufn;ksa esa ls ,d gS rFkk ;equk dh lgk;d unh gSA bl
:i esa lwphc¼ fd;k x;k gSA fj”koZ ds HkwHkkx dh fo'ks"krk O;kid iBkj vkSj ?kkfV;k¡ gSA
fuEufyf•r esa ls fdldk o.kZu Åij fd;k x;k gS\
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\
(a) iUuk jk"Vªh; m|ku
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(b) fte dkWcZsV jk"Vªh; m|ku
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
(c) nqèkok jk"Vªh; m|ku
2. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (d) jktkth jk"Vªh; m|ku
dFku&I %
5. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
oU; thoksa vkSj ouLifr;ksa (CITES) dh yqIrçk; çtkfr;ksa
esa varjkZ"Vªh; O;kikj ij vfHkle; ds COP 19 es]a Hkkjr ds 1. ekWfUVª;y çksVksdkWy esa fdxkyh la'kksèku dk y{; o"kZ
'kh'ke dks lEesyu ds ifjf'k"V II esa 'kkfey fd;k x;k FkkA 2030 rd gkbMªksÝyksjksdkcZu (HFC) ds mi;ksx dks
dFku&II % pj.kc¼ rjhds ls de djuk rFkk lekIr djuk gSA
ifjf'k"V II esa ,d i{kdkj ds vuqjksèk ij 'kkfey çtkfr;k¡ 2. HFC dks DyksjksÝyksjksdkcZu (CFC) dh rqyuk esa
'kkfey gSa tks iwoZ ls gh çtkfr;ksa ds O;kikj dks fu;af=kr vfèkd 'kfDr'kkyh vkstksu {kj.k inkFkZ (ODS) ekuk
dj jgk gS rFkk ftUgsa vfLFkj ;k voSèk 'kks"k.k dks jksdus tkrk gSA
ds fy;s vU; ns'kksa ds lg;ksx dh vko';drk gSA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
lgh gS\ (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II
6. MsVk IysViQkWeZ] êjhu lSaM okWp (Marine Sand Watch)*
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gS ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II
1. ;g leqæh i;kZoj.k esa ckyw vkSj vU; volkn
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gS fu"d"kZ.k ij igyk oSf'od MsVk IysViQkWeZ gSA
(c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gS
2. bls GRID&ftusok }kjk fodflr fd;k x;k gS] tks la;Dq r
(d) dFku&I xyr gS fdarq dFku&II lgh gS jk"Vª i;kZoj.k dk;ZØe (UNEP) dk ,d dsaæ gSA
3. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 3. ;g Mªfs tax tgk”kksa ds lapkyu dh igpku djus ds
1. fuMsfj;u tsyhfiQ'k] leqæh ,uheksu vkSj çoky lfgr fy;s tgk”kksa ls Lopkfyr igpku ç.kkyh (AIS) flXuy
tyh; thoksa ds ,d lewg dks lanfHkZr djrk gSA rFkk vkfVZfiQf'k;y baVfs ytsl
a (AI) dk mi;ksx djrk gSA
2. lHkh fuMsfj;u ;kSu çtuu esa l{ke gSaA 4. bldk vuqeku gS fd leqæh ,oa rVh; okrkoj.k esa
3. dqN fuMsfj;u 'kSoky ds lkFk lgthoh lacaèk çnf'kZr çR;sd o"kZ 50 ls 100 vjc Vu jsr vkSj vU;
dj ldrs gSaA volknksa dks fu"df"kZr fd;k tkrk gSA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\ mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (b) dsoy 2, 3 vkSj 4
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (c) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 vkSj 4
641, 1st Floor, 21, Pusa Road, 13/15 Tashkent Marg, 47/CC, Burlington Arcade Mall, Plot No. 45& 45A, Harsh
2 2
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Phone: 011-47532596, 8750187501 :: e-mail: help@groupdrishti.in :: Website: www.drishtiIAS.com
Copyright – Drishti The Vision Foundation
1. Consider the following statements : 4. “This National Park was created in 1981. It was
1. Compared to African cheetahs, Asiatic cheetahs declared a Project Tiger Reserve by Government of
are smaller but have a thicker coat. India in 1994. Out of the nine vulture species found
2. Cheetah cubs suffer a mortality rate up to 90% in India, seven species are found here. The river,
in protected areas, mainly due to predation. which flows through the reserve from south to north,
3. Asian Cheetahs went extinct in India in the year is home to Gharial and Mugger, and other aquatic
1952. fauna and is one of the least polluted rivers and a
4. African Cheetahs are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ in tributary of Yamuna. The terrain of the reserve is
IUCN Red List. characterized by extensive plateaus and gorges.”
Which of the following has been described above?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Panna National Park
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Jim Corbett National Park
(c) Only three (d) All four
(c) Dudhwa National Park
2. Consider the following statements :
(d) Rajaji National Park
Statement–I :
In COP 19 of Convention on International Trade in 5. Consider the following statements :
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora 1. The Kigali Amendment to Montreal protocol
(CITES), India’s Shisham was included in Appendix aims to phase down and eliminate the use of
II of the convention. hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by 2030.
Statement–II : 2. HFCs are considered as more potent Ozone
Appendix II contains species included at the request depleting substance (ODS) than
of a Party that already regulates trade in the species Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
and that needs the cooperation of other countries to
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
prevent unsustainable or illegal exploitation
Which one of the following is correct in respect of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the above statements? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 6. In context of data platform ‘Marine Sand Watch’,
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for consider the following statements :
Statement-I 1. It is the first-ever global data platform on sand
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and other sediment extraction in the marine
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation environment.
for Statement-I 2. It is developed by GRID-Geneva, a Centre within
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect the UN Environment Programme (UNEP).
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 3. It uses Automatic Identification System (AIS)
3. Consider the following statements : signals from vessels and Artificial Intelligence
1. Cnidarian refer to a group of aquatic animals (AI) to identify the operations of dredging
including jellyfish, sea anemones, and corals. vessels.
2. All cnidarians are capable of sexual reproduction. 4. It estimates that between 50 and 100 billion tons
3. Some cnidarians can exhibit a symbiotic of sand and other sediments are dredged every
relationship with algae. year in the marine and coastal environment.
How many of the above statements are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) All three (d) None (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3 3
7. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 11. ¶mÙkjh ;wjksi] ,f'k;k vkSj mÙkjh vesfjdk ds vklikl
1. iq"iksfn~Hkn@iQsujksxse esa cht jfgr ikSèks rFkk ikSèks tSlh dsafær] bldk rkieku vis{kkÑr eè;e BaMk jgrk gSA
lajpuk gksrh gS tcfd fØIVksxSe esa cht okys ikSèks vfèkdrj Lçwl] dqN phM+ vkSj nsonkj ds lkFk çeq•
gksrs gSaA ouLifr 'kadqèkkjh lnkcgkj gSA tho&tarqvksa esa i{kh] ckt]
2. iQsujksxse esa ,d fodflr laoguh ç.kkyh dk vHkko iQj okys ekalkgkjh] NksVs fead] ,Yd] rsanqvk] lkbcsfj;kbZ
gksrk gS tcfd fØIVksxSe esa ,d lqfodflr laoguh ck?k] owYofju] HksfM+;s vkfn 'kkfey gSaA¸ ;g lcls laHkkfor
ç.kkyh gksrh gSA
o.kZu gS
3. Hkkjr ds igys fØIVksxSfed xkMZu dk mn~?kkVu
mÙkjk•aM ds nsgjknwu esa fd;k x;kA (a) lokuk ouLifr dk
(b) VqaMªk ck;kse dk
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (c) VSxk ck;kse dk
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj (d) 'khrks".k i.kZikrh ouLifr dk
8. ^75 ,aMsfed cM~lZ vkWiQ bafM;k* 'kh"kZd ls ,d çdk'ku 12. vfèkikni (,fiiQkbV~l) ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa
tkjh fd;k x;k Fkk& ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) cMZykbiQ baVjus'kuy }kjk 1. os estcku ikSèks dh lrg ij mxrs gSaA
(b) Hkkjrh; çk.kh loZs{k.k (ZSI) }kjk 2. estcku ikSèks mUgsa lw;Z ds çdk'k rd igq¡pus esa
(c) ckWEcs uspqjy fgLVªh lkslkbVh (BNHS) }kjk lgk;rk djrs gSaA
(d) osVySaM~l baVjus'kuy }kjk
3. ;s çÑfr esa ijthoh gksrs gSaA
9. fuEu ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. fudy
(a) dsoy ,d
2. ik;jhu
3. ukbVªkstu MkbvkWDlkbM (b) dsoy nks
4. dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM (c) lHkh rhuksa
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus çnw"kd jk"Vªh; ifjos'kh ok;q xq.koÙkk (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
ekudksa (NAAQS) ds varxZr vkrs gSa\ 13. fuEufyf•r çdkj ds thoksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 1. gjk 'kSoky
2. lk;ukscSDVhfj;k
10. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 3. Mkb,Ve
jkelj LFky vofLFkfr
4. MkbuksÝySftysV~l
1. paærky vkæZHkwfe % mÙkjk•aM
2. lwj ljksoj % vkaèkz çns'k mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&ls egklkxjksa dh •k| Ükà•yk esa
3. lka[; lkxj % mÙkj çns'k çkFkfed mRiknd gSa\
4. valqik >hy % eè; çns'k (a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
mi;ZqDr ;qXeksa esa ls fdrus lgh lqesfyr gSa@gSa\ (b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(a) dsoy ,d ;qXe (b) dsoy nks ;qXe (c) dsoy 1, 3 vkSj 4
(c) dsoy rhu ;qXe (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (d) mi;ZqDr lHkh
4 4
7. Consider the following statements : 11. “Concentrated around Northern Europe, Asia and
1. Phanerogams consist of seedless plants and North America. It has comparatively moderate
plant-like organisms whereas Cryptogams cooler temperature. The dominating vegetation is
consist of seed-bearing plants. coniferous evergreen, mostly spruce, with some pine
2. Phanerogams lack a developed vascular system and firs. The fauna consists of birds, hawks, fur
whereas Cryptogams have a well-developed
bearing carnivores, little mink, elks, puma, Siberian
vascular system.
tiger, wolverine, wolves etc.” This is the most likely
3. India’s first cryptogamic garden was inaugurated
description of
in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
(a) Savannah Vegetation
(b) Tundra Biome
(c) All three (d) None (c) Taiga Biome
(d) Temperate Deciduous Vegetation
8. A publication titled ‘75 Endemic Birds of India’,
was released by 12. With reference to Epiphytes, consider the following
(a) Bird Life International statements :
(b) Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) 1. They grow on the surface of the host plant.
(c) Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) 2. Host plants assist them in getting access to
(d) Wetlands International sunlight.
9. Consider the following : 3. They are parasitic in nature.
1. Nickel
2. Pyrene
(a) Only one
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Carbon dioxide (b) Only two
(c) All three
How many of the above pollutants are covered under
National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)? (d) None
(a) Only one (b) Only two 13. Consider the following kinds of organisms :
(c) Only three (d) All four 1. Green Algae
10. Consider the following pairs : 2. Cyanobacteria
Ramsar site Location 3. Diatoms
1. Chandertal Wetland : Uttrakhand
4. Dinoflagellates
2. Sur Sarovar : Andhra Pradesh
Which of the above are primary producers in the
3. Sakhya Sagar : Uttar Pradesh
food chain of the oceans?
4. Ansupa Lake : Madhya Pradesh
(a) 1 and 2 only
How many pairs given above is/are correctly
matched? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Only three pairs (d) None (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5 5
14. i;kZoj.k (laj{k.k) vfèkfu;e] 1986 ds lacaèk esa 17. vuqPNsn 22 ds ckjs esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 1. naMkRed fgjklr ds ekeys esa] fxjÝrkj O;fDr dks
dFku&I % fxjÝrkjh ds vkèkkj ds fo"k; esa lwpuk çkIr djus
;g vfèkfu;e dsaæ ljdkj dks fdlh Hkh m|ksx ds lapkyu] dk vfèkdkj gSA
fu"ksèk] can djus ;k fofu;eu ds fy;s funZs'k tkjh djus
2. fuokjd fgjklr ls lqj{kk dsoy ukxfjdksa dks miyCèk
ds fy;s vfèkÑr djrk gSA
gS] fonsf'k;ksa dks ughaA
dFku&II %
3. fuokjd fgjklr dkuwu ds rgr fdlh Hkh O;fDr dh
bl vfèkfu;e us ¶yksdl LVSaMh¸ (Locus Standi) ds
fu;e dks f'kfFky dj fn;kA fgjklr fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa 3 eghus ls vfèkd
mi;ZqDr dFku ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk ugha gks ldrhA
dFku lgh gS\ 4. jkT; foèkkf;dk ds ikl vfèkdre vofèk fuèkkZfjr
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa] vkSj dFku&II djus dk vfèkdkj gS ftlds fy;s fdlh O;fDr dks
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA fuokjd fgjklr ds rgr fxjÝrkj fd;k tk ldrk gSA
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa] vkSj dFku&II mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk lgh gS\
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA (a) dsoy 1
(c) dFku&I lgh gS] fdarq dFku&II xyr gSA (b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(d) dFku&II lgh gS] fdarq dFku&I xyr gSA
(c) dsoy 3 vkSj 4
15. egklkxjh; vEyhdj.k ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij (d) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 4
fopkj dhft;s%
18. ewy dÙkZO;ksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
1. ;g egklkxjksa }kjk dkcZu ;kSfxdksa ds vo'kks"k.k ds
dhft;s%
dkj.k egklkxj ds pH esa deh gSA
1. Ng ls pkSng o"kZ dh vk;q ds chp vius cPps dks
2. ;g dkckZsusV vk;uksa dh miyCèkrk dks de djrk gS
vkSj blfy;s de dsYlhHkou gksrk gSA f'k{kk ds volj çnku djuk 42osa la'kksèku vfèkfu;e
ds ekè;e ls vfèkfu;fer dÙkZO;ksa dh ewy lwph dk
3. ;g lkxjh; ty dks leqæh thoksa ds fy;s de
la{kkjd cukrk gSA fgLlk jgk gSA
4. ;g dsoy xgjs egklkxjh; {ks=kksa esa gksrk gSA 2. ns'k dh j{kk djuk vkSj vko';drk iM+us ij jk"Vªh;
lsok çnku djuk ewy dÙkZO;ksa ds varxZr 'kkfey ugha gSA
3. lafoèkku U;k;ky; }kjk muds lhèks çorZu dk çkoèkku
ugha djrk gSA
16. Hkkjrh; lafoèkku ds vuqlkj] dkSu&lk vuqPNsn fo'ks"k :i
ls u, dsaæ'kkflr çns'kksa ds fuekZ.k vkSj ekStwnk dsaæ'kkflr (a) dsoy ,d
çns'kksa ds {ks=kksa] lhekvksa ;k ukeksa ds ifjorZu ls lacafèkr gS\ (b) dsoy nks
(a) vuqPNsn 2 (b) vuqPNsn 3 (c) lHkh rhuksa
(c) vuqPNsn 4 (d) vuqPNsn 5 (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
6 6
14. Consider the following statements in respect of 17. Consider the following statements in respect of
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 : Article 22 :
Statement-I : 1. In the case of punitive detention, the arrested
The act authorizes the central government to issue person has the right to be informed of the
directions for the operation, prohibition, closure or
grounds of arrest.
regulation of any industry.
2. The protection against preventive detention is
Statement-II :
The act relaxed the rule of “Locus Standi”. available only to citizens and not to aliens.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of 3. The detention of a person under preventive
the above statements? detention law cannot exceed 3 months under
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct any circumstances.
and Statement-II is the correct explanation of 4. The state legislature has the authority to
Statement-I. prescribe the maximum period for which a
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, person can be detained under preventive
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation detention.
of Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect. (a) 1 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (b) 2 and 3 only
correct. (c) 3 and 4 only
15. With reference to ocean acidification, consider the (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
following statements : 18. With reference to fundamental duties, consider the
1. It is the lowering of ocean pH driven by uptake following statements :
of carbon compounds by the oceans. 1. To provide opportunities for education to his
2. It reduces the availability of carbonate ions and child or ward between the age of six and
hence less calcification.
fourteen years has been part of the original list
3. It makes seawater less corrosive to marine of duties enacted through the 42nd amendment
organisms.
act.
4. It only occurs in deep ocean areas.
2. To defend the country and render national
How many of the statements given above are service when called upon to do so, is not
correct?
included under fundamental duties.
3. The Constitution does not provide for their
direct enforcement by the court.
16. According to the Indian Constitution, which Article
deals specifically with the creation of new Union
Territories and the alteration of areas, boundaries, (a) Only one
or names of existing Union Territories? (b) Only two
(a) Article 2 (b) Article 3 (c) All three
(c) Article 4 (d) Article 5 (d) None
7 7
19. dsaæh; eaf=kifj"kn ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj 22. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
dhft;s% 1. Hkkjr ds lafoèkku us lokZsPp U;k;ky; ds U;k;kèkh'k
1. eaf=kifj"kn esa eaf=k;ksa dh dqy la[;k yksdlHkk dh ds :i esa fu;qfDr ds fy;s U;wure vk;q fuèkkZfjr
dqy lnL; la[;k ds 10 ls 15% ds chp gksrh gSA dh gSA
2. tcfd çèkkuea=kh jk"Vªifr ds çlkni;±r in èkkj.k 2. lafoèkku us lokZsPp U;k;ky; ds U;k;kèkh'kksa dk
djrk gS] ogha vU; ea=kh çèkkuea=kh ds çlkni;±r in dk;Zdky fuf'pr fd;k gSA
èkkj.k djrs gSaA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh ugha gS@gSa\
3. eaf=kifj"kn lkewfgd :i ls laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ds
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
çfr mÙkjnk;h gksxhA
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
23. fdlh jkT; esa eq[;ea=kh dh fu;qfDr ds lacèa k esa fuEufyf•r
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
dFku&I %
20. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% ,d O;fDr tks jkT; foèkkueaMy dk lnL; ugha gS] mls
eaf=keaMy lfefr vè;{k vfèkdre 6 ekg dh vofèk ds fy;s eq[;ea=kh ds :i esa
1. jktuhfrd ekeyksa dh % çèkkuea=kh fu;qDr fd;k tk ldrk gSA
eaf=keaMy lfefr dFku&II %
2. lalnh; dk;Z eaf=keaMy % lalnh; dk;Z ea=kh bl vofèk esa] mls jkT; foèkkulHkk ds fy;s fuokZfpr gksuk
lfefr
iM+sxk] vU;Fkk og eq[;ea=kh ugha jgsxkA
3. lqj{kk ij eaf=keaMy lfefr % j{kk ea=kh
4. vkfFkZd ekeyksa dh % foÙk ea=kh mijksDr dFku ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk
eaf=keaMy lfefr dFku lgh gS\
mi;ZqDr fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\ (a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj dFku&II

dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA
(c) lHkh rhu (d) lHkh pkj (b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj dFku&II
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA
21. Hkkjrh; laln ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lh
(c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II lgh ugha gSA
lfefr lnu esa çfØ;k vkSj dkedkt ds lapkyu ds
(d) dFku&II lgh gS fdarq dFku&I lgh ugha gSA
ekeyksa ij fopkj djrh gS ,oa lnu ds fu;eksa esa vko';d
la'kksèku dh fliQkfj'k djrh gSA yksdlHkk esa bl lfefr 24. jkT; fuokZpu vk;qDr dks gVk;k tk ldrk gS%
esa insu vè;{k ds :i esa vè;{k lfgr 15 lnL; gksrs gSaA (a) jkT; ds jkT;iky }kjk
(a) dk;Z ea=k.kk lfefr (b) jkT; foèkkulHkk }kjk
(b) lkekU; ç;kstu lacaèkh lfefr (c) eq[;ea=kh ds ,d dk;Zdkjh vkns'k ds ekè;e ls
(c) fo'ks"kkfèkdkj lfefr (d) jkT; mPp U;k;ky; ds U;k;kèkh'k ds fu"dklu dh
(d) fu;e lfefr çfØ;k ds leku
8 8
19. With reference to the central Council of Ministers, 22. Consider the following statements :
consider the following statements : 1. The constitution of India has prescribed a
1. The total number of ministers in the Council minimum age for appointment as a judge of the
of Ministers shall be in the range of 10 to 15% Supreme Court.
of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. 2. The constitution of India has fixed the tenure
2. While the Prime Minister shall hold office of the judges of the Supreme Court.
during the pleasure of the President, the other
Which of the statements given above is/are not
ministers hold office during the pleasure of the
correct?
Prime Minister.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
responsible to both the houses of Parliament.
23. Consider the following statements with reference to
How many of the statements given above are
appointment of Chief Minister in a State :
correct?
Statement-I :
A person who is not a member of the state legislature
(c) All three (d) None
can be appointed as Chief Minister for a maximum
20. Consider the following pairs : period of 6 months.
Cabinet Committee Chairman Statement-II :
1. Cabinet committee on : Prime Minister Within which time, he should be elected to the state
Political Affairs legislative assembly, failing which he ceases to be
2. Cabinet committee on : Parliamentary the Chief Minister.
Parliamentary Affairs Affairs Minister Which one of the following is correct in respect of
3. Cabinet committee on : Defense Minister the above statements?
Security (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
4. Cabinet committee on : Finance Minister and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Economic Affairs Statement-I
How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
21. With reference to Parliament of India, which of the
incorrect
following committees consider the matters of
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
procedure and conduct of business in the House and
correct.
recommends necessary amendments to the rules of
the house, in the Lok Sabha this committee consists 24. The state election commissioner can be removed
of 15 members including the Speaker as its ex-officio (a) By the governor of the state
chairman? (b) By the state legislative assembly
(a) Business Advisory Committee (c) Through an executive order by the chief
(b) General Purpose Committee minister
(c) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table (d) Through a removal procedure as that of state
(d) Rules Committee High Court judge
9 9
25. PESA (vuqlwfpr {ks=k rd foLrkfjr) vfèkfu;e ds 28. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
lacaèk esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 1. laln dkuwu }kjk fdlh Hkh varjkZT;h; unh ;k unh
1. ;g ik¡poha vkSj NBh vuqlwph esa of.kZr {ks=kksa ij ykxw ?kkVh ds ty ds mi;ksx] forj.k ;k fu;a=k.k ds lacaèk
gksrk gSA esa fdlh Hkh fookn ;k f'kdk;r dk U;k;fu.kZ;u dj
2. ;g xzke lHkk dks iapk;r }kjk dk;kZUo;u ls iwoZ ldrh gSA
vkjaHk dh xbZ fodkl ;kstukvksa dks LohÑfr nsus dk 2. varjkZT;h; ifj"kn ,d oSèkkfud fudk; gS] ftldh
vfèkdkj çnku djrk gSA mRifÙk ljdkfj;k vk;ksx dh fliQkfj'kksa ls gqbZ gSA
3. xks.k •futksa dh uhykeh }kjk nksgu ds fy;s fj;k;r 3. Hkkjr ds jkT;{ks=k esa loZ=k] la?k ds vkSj çR;sd jkT;
çkIr djus gsrq xzke lHkk dh iwoZ vuq'kalk vfuok;Z ds lkoZtfud dk;ks]± vfHkys•ksa vkSj U;kf;d dk;Zokfg;ksa
gksxhA dks iwjk fo'okl vkSj iwjh ekU;rk nh tk,xhA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\ mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\
(a) dsoy ,d (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(b) dsoy nks (c) dsoy 3 (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
(c) lHkh rhu
29. laifÙk ds vfèkdkj dh laoSèkkfud fLFkfr ds lacaèk esa]
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugha fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
26. NBh vuqlwph esa of.kZr {ks=kksa ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa 1. ;g lafoèkku ds Hkkx XI ds rgr ,d fofèkd
ij fopkj dhft;s% vfèkdkj gSA
1. jk"Vªifr Lo'kklh f”kys ;k {ks=kksa ds ç'kklu ls lacafèkr 2. bls lalnh; fofèk ds ekè;e ls fofu;fer ;k la'kksfèkr
fdlh Hkh fo"k; dh tk¡p vkSj fjiksVZ çnku djus ds fd;k tk ldrk gSA
fy;s ,d vk;ksx dh fu;qfDr dj ldrk gSA 3. ;g lafoèkku ds ewy <k¡ps dk fgLlk ugha gSA
2. jkT;iky dks Lo'kklh f”kyksa dks LFkkfir vkSj
4. ;g dsoy dk;Zdkjh fØ;k ds rgr futh laifÙk dh
iquLFkkZfir djus dk vfèkdkj gSA j{kk djrk gSA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\
(a) dsoy 1
(b) dsoy 2
(c) dsoy rhu (d) mijksDr lHkh
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
30. Hkkjr fuokZpu vk;ksx ds lacèa k esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
dFku lgh ugha gS\
27. Hkkjrh; lafoèkku dh ,dkRed fo'ks"krkvksa ds lanHkZ esa]
(a) fuokZpu vk;ksx yksdlHkk vkSj jkT; foèkkulHkkvksa ds
fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
vykok Hkkjr ds jk"Vªifr vkSj mijk"Vªifr ds inksa ds
1. ,dy lafoèkku fy;s Hkh pquko vk;ksftr djrk gSA
2. ,dhÑr U;k;ikfydk
(b) Hkkjr dk eq[; pquko vk;qDr nwljs dk;Zdky ds
3. jkT;iky dh fu;qfDr fy;s iqufuZ;qfDr dk ik=k gSA
4. vf•y Hkkjrh; lsok,¡ (c) lafoèkku esa fuokZpu vk;ksx ds lnL;ksa dk dk;Zdky
mijksDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ fufnZ"V ugha fd;k x;k gSA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (d) lafoèkku esa pquko vk;qDr dh fu;qfDr ds fy;s U;wure
(c) dsoy rhu (d) mijksDr lHkh vk;q ekunaM fuèkkZfjr fd;k x;k gSA
641, 1st Floor, 21, Pusa Road, 13/15 Tashkent Marg, 47/CC, Burlington Arcade Mall, Plot No. 45& 45A, 10
Harsh 10
25. With reference to Panchayat Extension to Scheduled 28. Consider the following statements :
Areas (PESA) Act, consider the following 1. The Parliament can provide for the adjudication
statements : of any dispute or complaint with respect to use,
1. It is applicable to the Fifth and Sixth schedule distribution and control of waters of any inter-
areas. state river and river valley.
2. It empowers Gram Sabha to approve plans for 2. The Inter-State Council is a statutory body,
development taken up before implementation having its genesis from the Sarkaria
by Panchayat. Commission’s recommendations.
3. Prior recommendation of Gram Sabha is 3. Full faith and credit is to be given throughout
mandatory for grant of concession for minor the territory of India to public acts, records and
minerals by auction. judicial proceedings.
How many of the statements given above are How many of the above statements are correct?
correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three (d) None
(b) Only two 29. With respect to the constitutional position of Right
(c) All three to Property, consider the following statements :
(d) None 1. It is a legal right under Part XI of the constitution.
26. Consider the following statements regarding the 2. It can be regulated or modified through an
sixth Schedule areas : ordinary law of Parliament.
1. The president can appoint a commission to 3. It is not a part of the basic structure of the
examine and report on any matter relating to constitution.
the administration of the autonomous district 4. It protects private property under executive
or regions. action only.
2. The governor is empowered to organize and How many of the statements given above are
re-organize the autonomous districts. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) Only three (d) All four
(b) 2 only 30. With respect to Election Commission of India, which
(c) Both 1 and 2 amongst the following statement is not correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) The Election Commission conducts elections
27. Consider the following : to the offices of the President and Vice President
of India in addition to the Lok Sabha and State
1. Single Constitution
Legislative Assemblies.
2. Integrated Judiciary
(b) The Chief Election Commissioner of India is
3. Appointment of Governor
eligible for reappointment for a second term.
4. All-India Services
(c) The Constitution has not specified the term of
How many of the above are unitary features of the the members of the Election Commission
Indian Constitution? (d) The Constitution has prescribed the minimum
(a) Only one (b) Only two age criteria for appointment of election
(c) Only three (d) All four commissioners.
Harsh 11
31. vkikrdkyhu çkoèkkuksa ds lalnh; vuqeksnu rFkk fujlu 34. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
ds lacaèk esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 1. foDVksfj;k >hy ;qxkaMk] ratkfu;k vkSj dsU;k ds eè;
1. 42osa la'kksèku vfèkfu;e ds }kjk vkikrdky dh lhek cukrh gSA
mn~?kks"k.kk dks blds tkjh gksus ds ,d ekg ds Hkhrj 2. rkaxkfudk >hy tSjs] ratkfu;k vkSj tkfEc;k ds eè;
vuqeksfnr djuk vfuok;Z dj fn;k x;kA lhek cukrh gS
2. vkikrdky dh mn~?kks"k.kk dks nksuksa lnuksa }kjk fo'ks"k 3. pkM >hy pkM] ukbtj] ukb”khfj;k vkSj dSe:u ds
cgqer ls ikfjr fd;k tkuk pkfg;sA eè; lhek cukrh gSA
3. mn~?kks"k.kk dks jí djus ds fy;s nksuksa lnuksa }kjk mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\
lkèkkj.k cgqer ls ikfjr fd;k tkuk vko';d gSA (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
4. 38osa la'kksèku ls iwoZ] mn~?kks"k.kk dks jk"Vªifr Lo;a
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dsoy pkj
gh jí dj ldrk FkkA
35. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
canjxkg ds :i esa çfl¼
1. dksfPp canjxkg % Hkkjr dk igyk Vªkalf'kiesaV
VfeZuy
32. Hkkjr esa jktæksg dkuwu ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij 2. dksydkrk canjxkg % Hkkjr dk ,dek=k çeq• unh
fopkj dhft;s% rVh; canjxkg
1. Hkkjrh; naM lafgrk (IPC) dh èkkjk 134A ds varZxr 3. oèkkou canjxkg % Hkkjr dk 12ok¡ çeq•
jktæksg ds naM dk çkoèkku fd;k x;k gSA canjxkg
2. ;g fofèk ljdkj ds fo#¼ fu"Bkghurk] 'k=kqrk dh
mi;qZDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\
Hkkouk vkSj vlgefr dks lekfgr djrh gSA
(a) dsoy ,d ;qXe (b) dsoy nks ;qXe
3. ;g ,d ç'keuh; ,oa xSj&tekurh vijkèk gSA
(c) rhuksa ;qXe (d) dksbZ Hkh ;qXe ugha
4. bl fofèk ds varZxr vkjksfir O;fDr dks ljdkjh
ukSdjh ls oftZr dj fn;k tkrk gSA 36. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\ igkfM+;k¡ vofLFkfr

1. 'ks"kpye igkfM+;k¡ % vkaèkz izns'k
2. toknh igkfM+;k¡ % eè; çns'k
3. lrekyk igkfM+;k¡ % vksfM'kk
33. fganw mÙkjkfèkdkj vfèkfu;e 1956 ds ckjs esa fuEufyf•r
4. vukbZeqMh % dsjy
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. o"kZ 2005 ls mRiUu gksus okys laifÙk foHkktu ds fy;s mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\
efgykvksa dks lgnkf;d ds :i esa ekU;rk nh xbZ gSA (a) dsoy ,d ;qXe (b) dsoy nks ;qXe
2. bl fofèk ds varZxr ckS¼] fl•] tSu] ikjlh ,oa (c) dsoy rhu ;qXe (d) lHkh pkj ;qXe
vk;Z lekt] czã lekt ds vuq;kf;;ksa dks Hkh fganw 37. nf{k.kh xksykèkZ esa lkekU;r% o"kZ dk lcls cM+k fnu gksrk gS
ekuk tkrk gSA (a) fnlacj ekg ds nwljs Hkkx esa
mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ (b) fnlacj ekg ds igys Hkkx esa
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (c) twu ekg ds igys Hkkx esa
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (d) twu ekg ds nwljs Hkkx esa
Harsh 12
31. With respect to the parliamentary approval and 34. Consider the following statements :
revocation of emergency provisions, consider the 1. Lake Victoria forms the border of Uganda,
following statements : Tanzania and Kenya.
1. The 42nd amendment act made the proclamation 2. Lake Tanganyika forms the border of Zaire,
of emergency to be approved within one month
Tanzania and Zambia.
of its issue.
3. Lake Chad forms the border of Chad, Niger,
2. The proclamation of emergency must be passed
by both the houses with a special majority. Nigeria and Cameroon.
3. The revocation of proclamation is required to How many of the statements given above are correct?
be passed by both the houses with simple (a) Only one (b) Only two
majority. (c) All three (d) None
4. Before 38th amendment, the proclamation could
35. Consider the following pairs :
be revoked by the president on his own.
Port Well known as
How many of the statements given above are
correct? 1. Kochi port : India’s first transhipment
(a) Only one (b) Only two terminal
(c) Only three (d) All four 2. Kolkata port : India’s sole riverine
major port
32. Consider the following statements about Sedition
Law in India : 3. Vadhavan port : India’s 12th major port
1. The punishment for Sedition is provided under How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
section 134A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
2. The law covers disloyalty, feelings of enmity (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
and dissent against the government.
36. Consider the following statements:
3. It is a non-bailable and compoundable offence.
4. A person charged under this law is barred from Hill Location
a government job. 1. Seshachalam Hills : Andhra Pradesh
How many of the above statements are correct? 2. Javadi Hills : Madhya Pradesh
(a) Only one (b) Only two 3. Satmala Hills : Odisha
(c) Only three (d) All four 4. Anaimudi : Kerala
33. Consider the following statements with reference to How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 : (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
1. Women are recognised as coparceners for (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
property partitions arising from 2005.
2. Buddhists, Sikhs, Jains, Parsis and followers 37. In the southern hemisphere, the longest day of the
of Arya Samaj, Brahmo Samaj, are also year normally occurs in the
considered Hindus for this law. (a) Second half of month of December
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) First half of month of December
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) First half of month of June
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Second half of month of June
Harsh 13
38. Hkkjr ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 41. ykSg v;Ld ds forj.k ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa
1. ykSg v;Ld dks xykus ds fy;s eSx
a uh”k ,d egÙoiw.kZ ij fopkj dhft;s%
dPpk eky gSA 1. dukZVd ns'k esa ykSg v;Ld dk rhljk lcls cM+k
2. eSx
a uh”k eq[;r% èkkjokM+ Øe dh pV~Vkuksa ls lacfa èkr gSA mRiknd gSA
3. jktLFkku eSaxuh”k dk çeq• mRiknd jkT; gSA 2. >kj•aM esa ykSg v;Ld ds 25% HkaMkj ekStwn gS
4. bldk mi;ksx Cyhfpax ikmMj] dhVuk'kd] jax&jksxu vkSj ;g ns'k esa dqy ykSg v;Ld mRiknu dk yxHkx
vkSj cSVjh ds fuekZ.k esa Hkh fd;k tkrk gSA 11.1% mRiknu djrk gSA
3. Hkkjr fo'o esa ykSg v;Ld dk rhljk lcls cM+k
mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&ls dFku lgh gSa\
fu;kZrd gSA
(a) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 3
(b) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 4
(c) dsoy 3 vkSj 4
(c) lHkh rhuksa (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
(c) 1, 2, 3 vkSj 4
42. fuEufyf•r jkT;ksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
39. fuEufyf•r ns'kksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. dukZVd
1. ,LVksfu;k 2. iksySaM
2. dsjy
3. Lyksokfd;k 4. csyk:l
3. vle
5. fyFkqvkfu;k 6. eSlsMksfu;k
4. vksfM'kk
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ns'k ;wØsu ds lkFk LFky lhek lk>k
djrs gSa\ mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus jkT;ksa dks vkerkSj ij ,jsdk uV
mRiknd jkT; ds :i esa tkuk tkrk gS\
(a) dsoy nks (b) dsoy rhu
(a) dsoy ,d jkT;
(c) dsoy pkj (d) dsoy ik¡p
(b) dsoy nks jkT;
(c) dsoy rhu jkT;
1. Hkkjr esa dqy vfèk"Bkfir fo|qr dk yxHkx 5%
(d) lHkh pkj jkT;
ty fo|qr ls çkIr gksrh gSA
43. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
2. vfèk"Bkiu {kerk ds lanHkZ esa Hkkjr dh nksgu ;ksX;
ty fo|q r {kerk yxHkx 1,48,700 es x kokV tyk'k; jkT;
vuqekfur gSA 1. jk.kk çrki lkxj % fcgkj
3. Hkkjr esa ty fo|qr mRiknu] 19oha lnh ds var esa 2. iapsr % eè; çns'k
nkftZfyax dks fo|qr vkiwfrZ gsrq o"kZ 1897 esa ,d 3. fryS;k % vkaèkz çns'k
ty fo|qr la;a=k LFkkiuk ds lkFk 'kq: gqvk FkkA 4. jkexqaMe~ % rsyaxkuk
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\ mi;ZqDr ;qXeksa esa ls fdrus lgh lqesfyr gSa\
(a) dsoy ,d (a) dsoy ,d ;qXe
(b) dsoy nks (b) dsoy nks ;qXe
(c) lHkh rhu (c) dsoy rhu ;qXe
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (d) lHkh pkj ;qXe
Harsh 14
38. With reference to India, consider the following 41. Consider the following statements regarding
statements : distribution of iron ore :
1. Manganese is an important raw material for 1. Karnataka is the third largest producer of Iron
smelting iron ore. Ore in the country.
2. Manganese is mainly associated with Dharwar
2. Jharkand has 25% of iron ore reserves and
system.
accounts for about 11.1% of total production
3. Rajasthan is the leading producer of Manganese.
of iron ore in the country.
4. Manganese is used in the manufacturing of
bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and 3. India is 3rd largest exporter of iron ore in the
batteries. world.
Which of the statements given above are correct? How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) All three (d) None
(c) 3 and 4 only
42. Consider the following States :
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Karnataka
39. Consider the following countries :
2. Kerala
1. Estonia 2. Poland
3. Assam
3. Slovakia 4. Belarus
5. Lithuania 6. Macedonia 4. Odisha
How many of the above-mentioned countries share How many of the above are generally known as
a land border with Ukraine? arecanut producing states?
(a) Only two (b) Only three (a) Only one
(c) Only four (d) Only five (b) Only two
40. Consider the following statements : (c) Only three
1. Hydroelectricity accounts for about 5% of total (d) All four
installed electricity in India.
2. India’s exploitable hydroelectric potential in
terms of installed capacity is estimated to be Reservoirs States
about 1,48,700 MW. 1. Rana Pratap Sagar : Bihar
3. The hydroelectric power generation in India 2. Panchet : Madhya Pradesh
started at end of 19 th century with the 3. Tilaiya : Andhra Pradesh
commissioning of a hydroelectric power plant
4. Ramagundam : Telangana
in 1897 to supply electricity to Darjeeling.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two (b) Only two pairs
(c) All three (c) Only three pairs
(d) None (d) All four pairs
Harsh 15
44. çkphu Hkkjrh; bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r ij fopkj 47. fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk îQs;UW l* 'kCn dh O;k[;k djrk gS\
dhft;s% (a) fdlkuksa }kjk eky rS;kj djus ds fy;s mi;ksx fd;k
lkfgR;d jpuk ys•d tkus okyk dPpk ekyA
1. bjkekorkje~ % dacu (b) gM+Iik lH;rk ds yksxksa }kjk ç;ksx fd;k tkus okyk
2. jkepUæpfjr iqjk.k % rqylhnkl ,d çdkj dk midj.kA
3. iapjk=k % Hkkl (c) og lkexzh tks Ñf=ke :i ls mRikfnr dh tkrh gS]
ftldk mi;ksx eksrh] pwfM+;k¡] >qeds vkSj NksVs cjru
4. yhykorh&çcaèke~ % usfeukFk
ds fuekZ.k ds fy;s fd;k tkrk gSA
mi;ZqDr ;qXeksa esa ls fdrus lgh lqesfyr gSa@gSa\ (d) gM+Iik lH;rk ds nkSjku vkHkw"k.k cukus ds fy;s
(a) dsoy ,d mi;ksx fd;k tkus okyk ,d çdkj dk v¼Z&dherh
(b) dsoy nks iRFkjA
(c) dsoy rhu 48. ¶osnksa esa 'kk'or lR; lekfgr gSA bl n'kZu dk eq[;
(d) lHkh pkj mís'; LoxZ vkSj eks{k çkIr djuk FkkA eks{k çkIr djus ds
45. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% fy;s] oSfnd ;Kksa dh n`<+rk ls vuq'kalk dh tkrh gSA¸
mijksDr dFku çkphu Hkkjr ds Hkkjrh; n'kZu dh fuEufyf•r
efgyk Lora=krk ftlds fy;s tkuk tkrk gS
esa ls fdl ç.kkyh dh ewy ekU;rkvksa esa ls ,d dks n'kkZrk gS\
lsukuh
(a) lka[; (b) oS'ksf"kd
1. ekrafxuh gktjk % reyqd iqfyl LVs'ku esa
(c) U;k; (d) ehekalk
rks M + i Qks M + djus ds fy;s
6,000 ls vfèkd Lora=krk 49. eè;dkyhu 'kgj ekaMw ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r dFku ij
lsukfu;ksa dk usr`Ro fd;kA fopkj dhft;s%
2. ,oh dqV~Vhekyq % vaxzs”kksa ds f•ykiQ ,d lsuk 1. ;g xkSjh oa'k dh jktèkkuh FkhA
vEek dk usr`Ro fd;k ,oa ¶rqe 2. bldh LFkkiuk lqYrku ckt cgknqj us dh FkhA
viuk dÙkZO; fuHkkvks vkSj 3. ekaMw dh iBku okLrqdyk fnYyh dh lajpukvksa dh
eSa viuk dÙkZO; fuHkkÅ¡xh¸ rjg gSA
ds ukjs ds lkFk tokc fn;kA
3. v#.kk vkliQ % xksokfy;k VSd a eSnku esa frjaxk
(a) dsoy ,d
vyh >aMk iQgjk;k
(b) dsoy nks
mi;ZqDr ;qXeksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh lqesfyr gS@gSa\
(c) lHkh rhu
(a) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (b) dsoy 3
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
(c) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (d) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 3
50. Hkkjr dh xqiQk ijaijkvksa ds lanHkZ esa& egktud tkrd]
46. Hkkjrh; bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa] vCnqj jT”kkd lejdanh] mex tkrd] ekjk fot;k] fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl xqiQk
Úk¡Lok cfuZ;j] ihVj eqaMh] Fks lewg esa ns[ks tk ldrs gSa\
(a) njckjh bfrgkldkj (a) ,yksjk dh xqiQk,¡
(b) Hkkjr vk, ;k=kh (b) vtark dh xqiQk,¡
(c) vjch fo}ku (c) ,fyiQsaVk xqiQk,¡
(d) vkØe.kdkjh (d) ck?k dh xqiQk,¡
Harsh 16
44. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider 47. Which one of the following explains the term
the following : ‘faience’?
Literary work Author (a) Raw material used by farmers to produce
1. Iramavataram : Kamban finished goods.
2. Ramachandracharita Purana : Tulsidasa (b) A kind of tool used by the people of Harappan
civilisation.
3. Panchratra : Bhasa
(c) Material that is artificially produced and used
4. Lilavati-prabandham : Neminath
to make beads, bangles, earrings, and tiny
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? vessels.
(a) Only one (d) A type of semi- precious stone used to make
(b) Only two ornaments during Harappan civilisation.
(c) Only three 48. “The Vedas contain the eternal truth. The principal
(d) All four object of this philosophy is to acquire heaven and
salvation. In order to attain salvation, the performance
of Vedic sacrifices is strongly recommended.”
Women Well known for The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs
freedom of which one of the following systems of philosophy
fighters of ancient India?
1. Matangini : Led over 6,000 freedom (a) Samkhya (b) Vaisheshika
Hazra fighters to ransack the (c) Nyaya (d) Mimansa
Tamluk police station.
49. Consider the following statements in respect to the
2. AV Kuttimalu : Led an army against the
medieval Indian city of Mandu :
Amma British and replied with
1. It was the capital city of Ghauri dynasty.
the slogan “You do your
2. The city was founded by Sultan Baz Bahadur.
duty and I’ll do mine”
3. Pathan architecture of Mandu is similar to the
3. Aruna Asaf : Hoisted the tricolour
structures of Delhi.
Ali Indian flag at the Gowalia
Tank Maidan How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(b) Only two
matched?
(c) All three
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(d) None
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
50. With reference to the cave traditions of India-
46. With reference to the Indian History, Abdur Razzaq Mahajanak Jataka, Umag Jataka and Mara Vijaya
Samarqandi, Francois Bernier, Peter Mundy, were can be found in which of the following caves?
(a) Court historians (a) Ellora Caves
(b) Travellers to India (b) Ajanta Caves
(c) Arabic scholars (c) Elephanta Caves
(d) Invaders (d) Bagh Caves
Harsh 17
51. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 54. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
dFku&I % 1. vkèkqfud euq";ksa ds djhch jgs foyqIr fu,aMjFky ds
16 vxLr] 1946 dks çR;{k dkjZokbZ fnol ?kksf"kr fd;k thukse dk ekufp=k.k djus ds fy;s Loars ikcks us
x;kA ukscsy iqjLdkj thrkA
dFku&II % 2. mUgksaus fu,aMjFky ds DNA dk fo'ys"k.k vkSj
fy;kdr vyh •ku }kjk eqlyekuksa ds fy;s ,d i`Fkd vuqØe.k fd;kA
jk"Vª cukus dh ?kks"k.kk dh xbZ FkhA 3. DNA esa vfèkdka'k vkuqoaf'kd lwpuk,¡ gksrh gS]
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk tcfd cgqr NksVk ekbVksdkWfUMª;y thukse g”kkjksa çfr;ksa
lgh gS\ esa O;kIr gksrs gSA
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj dFku&II
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa%
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj dFku&II
(c) dsoy rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA
(c) dFku&I lgh gS] fdarq dFku&II xyr gSA 55. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(d) dFku&I xyr gS] fdarq dFku&II lgh gSA dFku&I %
vkfnR; L1 dks ySxzsat ikWbaV 1 ds pkjksa vksj gSyks vkWfcZV
52. Hkkjrh; bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
esa LFkkfir fd;k x;k gS] tks i`Foh vkSj lw;Z ds chp fLFkr gSA
dhft;s%
dFku&II %
1. vaxzs”kksa] Úk¡lhlh vkSj Mpksa us elwyhiV~Vue esa vius
ySxzsat ikWbaV dk mi;ksx varfj{k ;ku }kjk U;wure b±èku
dkj•kus LFkkfir fd;sA
•ir ds lkFk ,d fuf'pr fLFkfr esa jgus ds fy;s varfj{k
2. vYiQkalks Mh vYcqddZ us Hkkjr esa Cyw okVj ikWfylh
esa ikfd±x LFky ds :i esa fd;k tk ldrk gSA
dh 'kq#vkr dhA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk
3. #MkWYiQ ,Dokfook vkSj ,aFkksuh eksalsjkr tgk¡xhj ds
dFku lgh gS\
njckj esa vk, FksA
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj dFku&II]
mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj dFku&II]
(b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA
(c) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gSA
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (d) dFku&II lgh gS fdarq dFku&I xyr gSA
53. fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lh iQly dk mRiknu eè;dkyhu 56. osc 4.0 dk oSdfYid uke D;k gS] tks oYMZ okbM osc
Hkkjr esa 'kq: gqvk Fkk\ dk Hkfo"; dk ifjdfYir pj.k gS] ftlesa vR;fèkd ckSf¼d
(a) eDdk] vkyw] fepZ vuqç;ksxksa rFkk fuckZèk ekuo&daI;wVj laidZ dh fo'ks"krk
(b) eDdk] dnUu] dkWiQh gksus dh mEehn gS\
(c) pk;] dkWiQh] pkoy (a) gkbijfyaDM osc (b) laof¼Zr osc
(d) vkyw] fepZ] xsgw¡ (c) opZqvy osc (d) flafc;ksfVd osc
Harsh 18
51. Consider the following statements : 54. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : 1. Svante Paabo won Nobel prize for genome
16 August 1946 was declared as the Direct Action sequencing of the Neanderthal.
Day. 2. Svante Paabo analyzed and sequenced the
Statement-II : Nuclear DNA of Neanderthals.
It was declared by Liaquat Ali Khan to create a 3. Nuclear DNA harbors most of the genetic
separate nation for Muslims. information, while the much smaller
Which one of the following is correct in respect of mitochondrial genome is present in thousands
the above statements? of copies.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct How many of the above given statements are correct :
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for (a) Only one (b) Ony two
Statement-I (c) All three (d) None
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 55. Consider the following statements :
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation Statement-I :
for Statement-I Aditya L1 is placed in a halo orbit around the
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Lagrange point 1, which is situated between the
incorrect Earth and the Sun.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Statement-II :
correct Lagrange points can be used by spacecraft as parking
spots in space to remain in a fixed position with
52. With reference to Indian History, consider the
minimal fuel consumption.
following statements :
Which of the following is correct in respect of the
1. The English, French and Dutch established their
above statements?
factories at Masulipatnam.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque introduced the Blue and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Water Policy in India. Statement-I.
3. Rudolf Aquaviva and Antonio Monserrate (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
visited the court of Jahangir. and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? for Statement-I.
(a) 1 only (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(b) 2 and 3 only incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(c) 1 and 3 only
correct.
(d) None
56. What is the alternate name for Web 4.0, the
53. Which of the following crops were introduced in
envisioned future stage of the World Wide Web that
India during the medieval period? is expected to be characterized by highly intelligent
(a) Corn, potato, chillies applications and seamless human-computer
(b) Corn, millet, coffee interaction?
(c) Tea, coffee, rice (a) Hyperlinked Web (b) Augmented Web
(d) Potato, chillies, wheat (c) Virtual Web (d) Symbiotic Web
Harsh 19
57. czãksl felkby ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj 60. risfnd (TB) ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
dhft;s% dhft;s%
1. ;g ,d lkoZHkkSfed yach nwjh dh lqijlksfud 1. ;g ,d xSj&laØked jksx gSA
cSfyfLVd felkby ç.kkyh gSA 2. ;g cSflyl ekbØkscSDVhfj;e ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
2. blesa ,d Bksl ç.kksnd cwLVj batu ds lkFk rhu 3. nok çfrjksèkh TB ds mipkj ds fy;s csMkfDofyu
pj.k okyh felkby gSA vkSj MsykesfuM dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA
3. ;g ^nkxks vkSj Hkwy tkvks* fl¼kar ij dk;Z djrk gSA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ (a) dsoy ,d
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (b) dsoy nks
(c) dsoy rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (c) lHkh rhu
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
58. jsMf'kÝV ifj?kVuk foLrkfjr czãkaM vkSj fcx cSax fl¼kar
dks le>us esa egÙoiw.kZ Hkwfedk fuHkkrh gSA jsMf'kÝV ?kVuk 61. ck;ksdaI;wVj dk çkFkfed mís'; D;k gS] tks tho foKku
ds ckjs esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\ vkSj daI;wVj foKku ds lfEeJ.k ls ,d mHkjk ,d egÙoiw.kZ
(a) jsMf'kÝV blfy;s gksrk gS D;ksafd vkdk'kxaxk,¡ fdlh
{ks=k gS\
i;Zos{kd ls nwj tkus ij yach rjax nSè;Z ds lkFk (a) MsVk fo'ys"k.k ds fy;s mUur lkWÝVos;j ,Yxksfjne
çdk'k mRlftZr djrh gSaA fodflr djukA
(b) vfHkdyukRed dk;ks± ds fy;s tSfod v.kqvksa vkSj
(b) jsMf'kÝV iwjh rjg ls çdk'k ij ikl dh fo'kky
ç.kkfy;ksa dk mi;ksx djukA
oLrqvksa ds xq#Rokd"kZ.k f•apko ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
(c) ikjaifjd daI;wVjksa dh çkslsflax xfr dks c<+kukA
(c) jsMf'kÝV varj&rkjdh; èkwy d.kksa }kjk çdk'k ds
(d) daI;wfVax esa tSfod ;kaf=kdh ds mi;ksx dk ijh{k.k
çdh.kZu dk ifj.kke gSA
djukA
(d) jsMf'kÝV dks n`'; çdk'k esa ns•k tk ldrk gS] fo|qr
pqacdh; LisDVªe ds vU; Hkkxksa esa ughaA 62. nqyZHk e`nk rÙoksa (REE) ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa
ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. REE dsoy i`Foh ij ik, tkrs gSa vkSj fdlh vU;
1. vksjy fjgkbMªs'ku lkWY;w'ku (ORS) ty] dkckZsgkbMªsV •xksyh; fiaM esa ekStwn ugha gSaA
vkSj çksVhu dk ,d la;kstu gSA ;g futZyhdj.k dks 2. REE 15 rÙoksa dk ,d lewg gS] ftlesa eq[; :i
jksdus dk ,d rjhdk gSA ls jsfM;ksèkehZ lkexzh 'kkfey gSA
2. tc var%f'kjk fpfdRlk miyCèk vFkok laHko ugha 3. phu nqfu;k dk lcls cM+k REE mRiknd vkSj
gksrh gS rks nLr ls gksus okys futZyhdj.k dks jksdus fu;kZrd gSA
,oa mldk mipkj djus ds fy;s va r %f'kjk 4. REE dk mi;ksx eq[; :i ls Ñf"k moZjdksa ds
iqutZyhdj.k fpfdRlk dk ,d fodYi gSA mRiknu esa fd;k tkrk gSA
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft;s% mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(a) dsoy 1 (a) dsoy 1
(b) dsoy 2 (b) dsoy 3
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (c) dsoy 3 vkSj 4
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugh (d) dsoy 1, 2 vkSj 4
Harsh 20
57. Consider the following statements with reference to 60. With reference to Tuberculosis (TB), consider the
Brahmos Missile : following statements :
1. It is a long range supersonic ballistic missile 1. It is a non-communicable disease.
system. 2. It is caused by Bacillus Mycobacterium.
2. It has a three-stage missile with a solid 3. Bedaquiline and Delamanid are used for
propellant booster engine. treatment of drug resistant TB.
3. It operates on ‘Fire and Forget’ principle. How many of the above statements are correct?
How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) All three
58. The Redshift phenomenon plays a pivotal role in (d) None
understanding the expanding universe and the Big 61. What is the primary focus of biocomputers, a
Bang theory. Which of the following statements burgeoning field at the intersection of biology and
about the Redshift phenomena is correct? computer science?
(a) Redshift occurs because galaxies emit light (a) Developing advanced software algorithms for
with longer wavelengths when moving away data analysis.
from an observer. (b) Utilizing biological molecules and systems for
(b) Redshift is solely caused by the gravitational computational tasks.
pull of nearby massive objects on light. (c) Enhancing the processing speed of traditional
(c) Redshift is the consequence of the scattering computers.
of light by interstellar dust particles. (d) Investigating the use of biological mechanics
(d) Redshift can be observed in visible light and in computing.
not in other parts of the electromagnetic 62. Consider the following statements with regard to
spectrum. Rare Earth Elements (REE) :
59. Consider the following statements : 1. REEs are only found on Earth and are not
1. Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS), a method of present in any other celestial bodies.
preventing dehydration that contains water, 2. REEs are a group of 15 elements, primarily
carbohydrates and proteins. comprising radioactive materials.
2. ORS is an alternative to intravenous rehydration 3. China is the world’s largest producer and
therapy for preventing and treating dehydration exporter of REEs.
from diarrhea when intravenous therapy is not 4. REEs are primarily used in the production of
available or feasible. agricultural fertilizers.
Choose the correct option : Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Harsh 21
63. gky gh esa lekpkjksa esa jgs TEMPO (VªksiksLiQsfjd ,fe'ku mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\
ekWfuVfjax vkWiQ ikWY;w'ku) ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r ij (a) dsoy ,d
fopkj dhft;s% (b) dsoy nks
1. bldk mís'; varfj{k ls mÙkjh vesfjdk esa ok;q çnw"k.k
(c) dsoy rhu
dh fuxjkuh djuk gSA
(d) lHkh pkj
2. bls dukMkbZ varfj{k ,tsl
a h }kjk çeksfpr fd;k x;k FkkA
3. ;g çdk'k dh n`';eku vkSj ijkcSaxuh rjaxnSè;Z ds 66. ç;ksx'kkyk esa fodflr ghjksa ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa
çfr laosnu'khy gSA ij fopkj dhft;s%
dFku&I %
ç;ksx'kkyk esa fodflr ghjksa dh jklk;fud lajpuk vkSj
(a) dsoy ,d
HkkSfrd xq.k çkÑfrd ghjs ds leku gh gksrs gSaA
(b) dsoy nks
dFku&II %
(c) lHkh rhuksa
ç;ksx'kkyk esa fodflr ghjs viuh fofuekZ.k çfØ;k ds
(d) dksbZ ugha
dkj.k çkÑfrd ghjs dh rqyuk esa de i;kZoj.k ds vuqdwy
64. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku ¶Fkzh&iSjsaV csch¸ 'kCn
gksrs gSaA
dk lcls vPNk o.kZu djrk gS\
mi;qZDr dFku ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk
(a) rhu vyx&vyx ekrk&firk ls çkIr vkuqoaf'kd
dFku lgh gS\
lkexzh ds lkFk tUek larfrA
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj dFku&II
(b) ,d cPpk ftldk ikyu&iks"k.k lg&ikyu O;oLFkk
esa rhu ns•HkkydÙkkZvksa }kjk fd;k tkrk gSA
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj dFku&II
(c) rhu nkrkvksa ds lkFk bu foVªks fu"kspu ds ekè;e ls
tUek larfrA dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA
(d) fofHkUu ekrk&firk ds rhu ekbVksdkWfUMª;y DNA ds (c) dFku&I lgh gS] fdarq dFku&II xyr gSA
ekè;e ls tUek larfrA (d) dFku&II lgh gS] fdarq dFku&I xyr gSA
65. tsusfjd nokvksa ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj 67. ldy jk"Vªh; mRikn (GNP) ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r
dhft;s% dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. bUgsa vkS"kfèk ,oa çlkèku lkexzh vfèkfu;e 1940 ds 1. blesa •kM+h ns'kksa esa dk;Zjr Hkkjrh; ukxfjd ds
rgr ifjHkkf"kr fd;k x;k gSA LokfeRo okys mRiknu ds dkjdksa ls gksus okyh vk;
2. tsusfjd nok,¡ vkerkSj ij viuh led{k çHkkodkfjrk 'kkfey gSA
ds dkj.k czkaM&uke okyh nokvksa dh rqyuk esa vfèkd 2. blesa Hkkjr esa dk;Zjr fons'kh dh vk; 'kkfey ugha gSA
eg¡xh gksrh gSaA
mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
3. tsusfjd nokvksa dk fodkl vkSj foi.ku mUgha nok
(a) dsoy 1
daifu;ksa }kjk fd;k tkrk gS tks czkaM&uke okyh nokvksa
dk mRiknu djrh gSaA (b) dsoy 2
4. çèkkuea=kh Hkkjrh; tu vkS"kfèk dk mís'; tsusfjd (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
nokvksa dks c<+kok nsuk gSA (d) u rks 1 u gh 2
Harsh 22
63. With reference to TEMPO (Tropospheric Emissions How many of the statements given above are
Monitoring of Pollution), recently seen in news, correct?
consider the following statements : (a) Only one
1. It intends to track air pollution over North (b) Only two
America from space. (c) Only three
(d) All four
2. It was launched by Canadian Space Agency.
66. With respect to the lab grown diamonds, consider
3. It is sensitive to visible and ultraviolet
the following statements :
wavelengths of light.
Statement-I :
How many of the above statements are correct? Lab-grown diamonds have the same chemical
(a) Only one composition and physical properties as natural
diamonds.
(b) Only two
Statement-II :
(c) All three Lab-grown diamonds are less environmentally
(d) None friendly than natural diamonds due to their
manufacturing process.
64. Which one of the following statement best describes
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the term ‘three parent baby’?
the above statements?
(a) A child born with genetic material from three (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
different parents. and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
(b) A child who is raised by three caregivers in a Statement-I.
co-parenting arrangement. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
(c) A child conceived through in vitro fertilization
for Statement-I.
with three donors.
(d) A child born through three mitochondrial DNA incorrect.
of different parents. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
65. With respect to Generic drugs, consider the following correct.
statements : 67. With reference to Gross National Products (GNP),
1. Generic drugs are defined under Drugs and consider the following statements :
Cosmetics Act, 1940. 1. It includes income from the factors of
production owned by a citizen of India working
2. Generic drugs are generally more expensive
in Gulf countries.
than brand-name drugs due to their equivalent 2. It excludes the income of a foreigner working
efficacy. in India.
3. Generic drugs are developed and marketed by Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the same pharmaceutical companies that (a) 1 only
produce brand-name drugs. (b) 2 only
4. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi (c) Both 1 and 2
Pariyojana aims to promote generic drugs. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 23
68. fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk dFku miHkksDrk ewY; lwpdkad (d) ,slh fLFkfr ftlesa yksx vFkZO;oLFkk esa vfrfjDr èku
(CPI) vkSj ldy ?kjsyw mRikn (GDP) voLiQhrd ds çfo"V ij Hkh caèki=k ds ctk; udnh vfèk'ks"k ds
chp egÙoiw.kZ varj dk lVhd o.kZu djrk gS\ :i esa tek j•uk ilan djrs gSaA
(a) CPI esa ns'k ds Hkhrj mRikfnr lHkh oLrqvksa vkSj 71. Hkkjrh; vFkZO;oLFkk ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r ij fopkj
lsokvksa dh dhersa 'kkfey gksrh gSa] tcfd GDP dhft;s%
voLiQhrd dsoy miHkksDrk }kjk miHkksx dh tkus 1. eqæk dk çpyu
okyh oLrqvksa ij fopkj djrk gSA 2. okf.kfT;d cSadksa dh tek iwathA
(b) CPI esa vk;kfrr oLrqvksa dh dhersa 'kkfey gksrh 3. Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk vkj-ch-vkbZ- ds ikl tek iwathA
gSa] tcfd GDP voLiQhrd esa vk;kfrr oLrqvksa 4. RBI ds ikl okf.kfT;d cSadksa dh tek iwathA
dh dhersa 'kkfey ugha gksrh gSaA
mPp 'kfDr eqæk esa mi;qZDr esa ls D;k 'kkfey gS\
(c) CPI vius mRiknu Lrj ds vkèkkj ij oLrqvksa ds
fy;s vyx&vyx Hkkj dk mi;ksx djrk gS] tcfd
GDP voLiQhrd lHkh oLrqvksa ds fy;s Hkkj fu;r
72. jktdks"kh; mÙkjnkf;Ro vkSj ctV çcaèku (,iQ-vkj-ch-
j•rk gSA
,e-,-) vfèkfu;e] 2003 ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa
(d) CPI vkSj GDP voLiQhrd viuh dk;Zç.kkyh esa
ij fopkj dhft;s%
leku gSa vkSj fdlh Hkh rjhds ls fHkUu ugha gSaA
1. eè;e vofèk dh jktdks"kh; uhfr oDrO; th-Mh-ih-
69. Hkkjr esa eqæk vkiwfrZ mik;ksa ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa fodkl nj ds lacaèk esa vFkZO;oLFkk dh laHkkoukvksa
ij fopkj dhft;s% ls lacafèkr gSA
1. M1 esa turk }kjk j•h xbZ eqæk vkSj okf.kfT;d 2. jktdks"kh; uhfr oDrO; orZeku uhfr;ksa dh tk¡p
cSadksa }kjk j•h xbZ 'kq¼ ekax tek 'kkfey gSA djus vkSj egÙoiw.kZ jktdks"kh; mik;ksa esa fdlh Hkh
2. M4 èku vkiwfrZ dk lcls rjy eki gS] tks fopyu dks mfpr Bgjkus ls lacafèkr gSA
fnu&çfrfnu ds ysunsu ds fy;s mi;qDr gSA 3. eSØksbdksukWfed ÚseodZ LVsVesVa fof'k"V foÙkh; ladrs dksa
3. rjyrk ds mPp Lrj ds dkj.k M3 dks uSjks euh Hkh ds fy;s rhu lky ds jksfyax y{; ls lacafèkr gSA
dgk tkrk gSA mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\
mi;qZDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (c) dsoy rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ ugha 73. Hkkjrh; vFkZO;oLFkk ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij
70. fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk ^rjyrk ik'k* 'kCn dk lcls fopkj dhft;s%
vPNk o.kZu djrk gS\ 1. jktdks"kh; ?kkVk ljdkj ds dqy O;; vkSj mèkkj
(a) ,slh fLFkfr ftlesa èku dh c<+rh vkiwfrZ ds dkj.k lfgr dqy çkfIr;ksa ds chp dk varj gSA
caèki=k dh dhersa c<+ tkrh gSaA 2. çkFkfed ?kkVk jktdks"kh; ?kkVs vkSj 'kq¼ C;kt
(b) ,slk ifjn`'; ftlesa ck”kkj dh C;kt nj esa fxjkoV nsunkfj;ksa ds chp dk varj gSA
dh mEehn gS] ftlls caèki=k ij iwathxr ykHk gksxkA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(c) ,slh fLFkfr ftlesa vFkZO;oLFkk esa vfrfjDr èku (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
çfo"V ds ctk; yksx caèki=k j•uk ilan djrs gSaA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 u gh 2
Harsh 24
68. Which of the following statements accurately (d) A situation where people prefer holding money
describes a key difference between the Consumer over bonds even when additional money is
Price Index (CPI) and the Gross Domestic Product injected into the economy.
(GDP) deflator? 71. Consider the following with reference to Indian
(a) CPI includes prices of all goods and services Economy :
produced within a country, while GDP deflator 1. Currency in circulation
considers only goods consumed by the 2. Vault cash of commercial banks
consumer. 3. Deposits held by the Government of India with
(b) CPI incorporates prices of imported goods, RBI
whereas GDP deflator excludes prices of 4. Deposits of commercial banks with RBI
imported goods. High powered money includes how many of the
(c) CPI uses varying weights for goods based on above?
their production levels, while GDP deflator (a) Only one (b) Only two
maintains constant weights for all goods. (c) Only three (d) All four
(d) CPI and GDP deflator are identical in their
72. With reference to the three policy statements
methodology and do not differ in any significant mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
way. Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, consider the
69. Consider the following statements with regard to following statements :
money supply measures in Indian Economy : 1. The Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement
1. M1 includes currency held by the public and deals with the prospects of the economy with
net demand deposits held by commercial banks. respect to the GDP growth rate.
2. M4 is the most liquid measure of money supply, 2. The Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement deals with
suitable for day-to-day transactions. examining current policies and justifying any
deviation in important fiscal measures.
3. M3 is also referred to as narrow money due to
3. The Macroeconomic Framework Statement
its high level of liquidity.
deals with a three-year rolling target for specific
How many of the above given statements are fiscal indicators
correct? How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only One (b) Only two (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) All three (d) None
70. Which one of the following best describes the term 73. Consider the following statements with reference to
‘Liquidity trap’? Indian Economy :
(a) A situation where bond prices rise due to an 1. Fiscal deficit is the difference between
increased supply of money. government’s total expenditure and total
(b) A scenario in which the market interest rate is receipts, including borrowing.
expected to decline, causing capital gains on 2. Primary deficit is the difference between fiscal
bonds. deficit and net interest liabilities.
(c) A condition where people prefer holding bonds Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
over money when additional money is injected (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
into the economy. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 25
74. fuEufyf•r fooj.kksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 78. leqæh mRikn fu;kZr fodkl çkfèkdj.k (MPEDA) ds
1. lsokvksa] LFkkukarj.k vkSj vk; ds çokg lfgr vn`';A lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFku ij fopkj dhft;s%
2. vxj dksbZ Hkkjrh; vesfjdh dkj daiuh •jhnrk gSA 1. ;g o"kZ 1972 esa xfBr okf.kT; vkSj m|ksx ea=kky;
3. ,d phuh xzkgd dks ,d Hkkjrh; daiuh ds 'ks;j
dk ,d oSèkkfud fudk; gSA
dh fcØhA 2. bls leqæh mRiknksa ds fu;kZr dks c<+kok nsus dk
çkFkfed dk;Z lkSaik x;k gSA
4. çR;{k fons'kh fuos'k (FDI)] fons'kh laLFkkxr fuos'k
3. ;g fu;kZr ds fy;s leqæh mRiknksa gsrq ekud vkSj
(FII) vkSj cká mèkkj]
fof'k"Vrk,¡ Hkh fuèkkZfjr djrk gSA
Hkqxrku larqyu ds iwath •krk ysunsu esa mi;qZDr esa ls
fdrus 'kkfey gSa\
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ ugha
79. Hkkjr fo'o cSad lewg dh fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl ,tsalh
75. LIBOR (yanu baVjcSad vkWiQj jsV) ds lanHkZ esa dk fgLlk ugha gS\
fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (a) fuos'k fooknksa ds fuiVkjs ds fy;s varjkZ"Vªh; dsaæ
1. LIBOR og csapekdZ C;kt nj gS ftl ij oSf'od (b) varjkZ"Vªh; fodkl la?k (IDA)
cSad ,d nwljs dks vYidkfyd ½.k nsrs gSaA (c) varjkZ"Vªh; foÙk fuxe (IFC)
2. LIBOR dks SOFR (lqjf{kr vksojukbV iQkbusaflax (d) cgqi{kh; fuos'k xkjaVh ,tsalh (MIGA)
nj) }kjk çfrLFkkfir fd;k tk,xkA 80. jk"Vªh; ckSf¼d laink tkx:drk fe'ku (NIPAM) ds
3. RBI us cSadksa ls MIBOR ls iw.kZ ifjorZu lqfuf'pr lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
djus dks dgk gS tks LIBOR ij vkèkkfjr gSA 1. NIPAM dk y{; Hkkjr esa m|fe;ksa vkSj ;qok is'ksojksa
mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\ dks IP tkx:drk vkSj cqfu;knh çf'k{k.k çnku djuk gSA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 2. ;g dk;ZØe foKku ,oa çkS|ksfxdh ea=kky; }kjk
(c) dsoy rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha dk;kZfUor fd;k tkrk gSA
76. fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk laxBu ^Xykscy fyosfcfyVh mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
baMsDl* tkjh djrk gS\ (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(a) fo'o vkfFkZd eap
(b) varjkZ"Vªh; eqæk dks"k 81. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
(c) bdkWukfed baVsyhtsal ;qfuV 1. fdlkuksa }kjk cht ,oa •kn ij fd;k tkus okyk O;;
2. HkkM+s ds Jfedksa dh e”knwjh
(d) la;qDr jk"Vª i;kZoj.k dk;ZØe
3. b±èku vkSj flapkbZ dh ykxr
77. eqækLiQhfr esa o`f¼ ds fuEufyf•r çHkkoksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
4. voSrfud ikfjokfjd Je dk ,d vkjksfir ewY;
1. eqækLiQhfr c<+us ls vFkZO;oLFkk dh eqæk dk voewY;u
5. LokfeRo okyh Hkwfe dk jktLo ekiQ
gks tkrk gSA
'kL; ds fy;s U;wure leFkZu ewY; (MSP) fuèkkZfjr djrs
2. eqækLiQhfr c<+us ls fu;kZr de çfrLi¼hZ gks tkrk gSA
le; dsaæ ljdkj mi;qZDr esa ls fdrus ekinaMksa ij fopkj
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ djrh gS\
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (a) dsoy nks (b) dsoy rhu
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (c) dsoy pkj (d) lHkh ik¡p
Harsh 26
74. Consider the following particulars : 78. Consider the following statements with reference to
1. Invisibles including services, transfers and Marine Product Export Development Authority
flows of income (MPEDA) :
2. An Indian buys a US Car Company 1. It is a statutory body of the Ministry of
Commerce and Industry formed in 1972.
3. Sale of share of an Indian company to a Chinese
2. It is entrusted with the primary task of
customer
promotion of export of marine products.
4. Foreign Direct Investments (FDIs), Foreign 3. It also sets the standards and specifications for
Institutional Investments (FIIs) and external marine products for export.
borrowings
How many of the above given statements are correct?
How many of the above are included in capital (a) Only one (b) Only two
account transaction of Balance of Payment? (c) All three (d) None
79. India is not a part of which of the following agency
(c) Only three (d) All four of World Bank Group?
75. With reference to LIBOR (London Interbank Offered (a) International Centre for Settlement of Investment
Rate), consider the following statements : Disputes
1. LIBOR is the benchmark interest rate at which (b) International Development Association (IDA)
global banks lend to one another for short term (c) International Finance Corporation (IFC)
loans. (d) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
2. LIBOR will be replaced by SOFR (Secured (MIGA)
Overnight Financing rate). 80. Consider the following statements with reference to
3. RBI has asked banks to ensure complete transition National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission
from MIBOR which is based on LIBOR. (NIPAM) :
1. NIPAM aims to impart IP awareness and basic
How many of the above statements are correct? training to entrepreneurs and young professionals
(a) Only one (b) Only two in India.
(c) All three (d) None 2. This program is implemented by the Ministry
76. Which of the following organizations releases of Science and Technology.
‘Global Liveability Index’? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) World Economic Forum (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) International Monetary Fund (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Economic Intelligence Unit 81. Consider the following :
(d) United Nation Environment Program 1. Expenses incurred by farmers on seed and fertilizers
2. Wages of hired labour
77. Consider the following effects of increase in inflation :
3. Cost of fuel and irrigation
1. With increased inflation the currency of the
4. Imputed value of unpaid family labour
economy depreciates.
5. Revenue forgone on owned land
2. With increased inflation, exports become less
competitive. How many of the above parameters are considered
by the Union Government while determining the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Minimum Support Price (MSP) for the crop?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Only two (b) Only three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Only four (d) All five
Harsh 27
82. fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl vfèkfu;e us yksd lsodksa ds p;u 87. Hkkjrh; 'kkL=kh; laxhr dh fganqLrkuh 'kSyh ds lanHkZ esa
vkSj HkrhZ dh •qyh çfr;ksfxrk ç.kkyh 'kq: dh\ fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) 1833 dk pkVZj vfèkfu;e 1. [;ky laxhr dh mRifÙk dk Js; vehj •qljks dks
(b) 1813 dk pkVZj vfèkfu;e fn;k tkrk gSA
(c) 1853 dk pkVZj vfèkfu;e 2. [;ky laxhr esa èkzqin dh rqyuk esa ^rku* dks cgqr
(d) 1861 dk Hkkjrh; ifj"kn vfèkfu;e de txg nh xbZ gSA
83. fot;uxj lkezkT; dh vejuk;d ç.kkyh ds lacaèk esa mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
fuEufyf•r dFku ij fopkj dhft;s% (a) dsoy 1
1. bl ç.kkyh dh dbZ fo'ks"krk,¡ fnYyh lYrur dh (b) dsoy 2

bDrk ç.kkyh ls yh xbZ FkhaA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
2. os oa'kkuqxr {ks=kh; Lokeh FksA (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
3. mUgksaus fot;uxj ds jktkvksa dks ,d çHkkoh ;q¼ 88. Lokeh foosdkuan ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk
'kfDr çnku dhA dFku lgh ugha gS\
mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\ (a) mUgksaus osnkar vkSj ;ksx ds Hkkjrh; n'kZu dks if'peh
nqfu;k ls ifjfpr djk;kA
(b) mUgksaus o"kZ 1893 esa f'kdkxks (vesfjdk) esa vk;ksftr
çFke èkeZ laln esa Hkkjr dk çfrfufèkRo fd;kA
84. fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu ^'kkyHkaftdk* 'kCn dh O;k[;k
(c) os o"kZ 1987 esa jkeÑ".k fe'ku esa 'kkfey gq,] tks
djrk gS\ muds xq# Lokeh jkeÑ".k ijegal }kjk LFkkfir laxBu
(a) ckS¼ la?k esa fHk{kq.kh FkkA
(b) ,yhiQsaVk xqiQkvksa esa iRFkj dh ewfrZ (d) mudk jk"Vªokn Hkkjrh; vkè;kfRedrk vkSj uSfrdrk
(c) unh nsoh dk vorkj tks fd vkerkSj ij ukxj eafnj esa xgjkbZ ls fufgr gSA
esa xHkZx`g ds ços'k }kj ij ik;k tkrk gSA 89. Hkkjrh; bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r O;fDrRoksa ij
(d) og efgyk ftlds Li'kZ ls o`{kksa esa iQwy vk, vkSj fopkj dhft;s\
iQy yxsA 1. vjfcanks ?kks"k
85. pksydkyhu dkaL; ewfrZdyk ds lanHkZ esa uVjkt dks 2. fcfiu paæ
fuEufyf•r esa ls fdldk neu djrs gq, fn•k;k x;k gS\ 3. jktukjk;.k cksl
(a) ekj (b) viLekj 4. vf'ouh dqekj nÙk
(c) f=kiqjklqj (d) fgj.;d';i 5. lqjsaæ ukFk cuthZ
86. gky ds lekpkjksa esa çk;% ns•k tkus okyk ^rkdq'kkL=k* mijksDr esa ls fdrus O;fDrRo Hkkjrh; jk"Vªh; dkWUxzsl
(Taccusastra) 'kCn fdlls lacafèkr gS\ (INC) ds xje ny ls lacafèkr gSa\
(a) dk"Bf'kYi dk foKku (a) dsoy nks
(b) vkS"kèk foKku ij laLÑr xzaFk (b) dsoy rhu
(c) T;ksfr"k 'kkL=k dk vè;;u (c) dsoy pkj
(d) ;q¼ dk vè;;u (d) lHkh ik¡p
Harsh 28
82. Which amongst the following acts introduced an 87. Consider the following statements with reference to
open competition system of selection and recruitment Hindustani style of Indian classical music :
of civil servants? 1. The origin of Khyal music is attributed to Amir
(a) Charter Act of 1833 Khusrau.
(b) Charter Act of 1813 2. ‘Taan’ is given much less room in the Khyal
(c) Charter Act of 1853 music as compared to Dhrupad.
(d) Indian Council Act of 1861 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
83. Consider the following statements in respect to the (a) 1 only
Amara-Nayaka system of Vijaynagara Empire : (b) 2 only
1. Many features of this system were derived from (c) Both 1 and 2
the Iqta system of Delhi Sultanate.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. They were hereditary territorial lords.
88. Which of the following statements is not correct
3. They provided the Vijayanagara kings with an
with reference to Swami Vivekananda?
effective fighting force.
(a) He introduced Indian philosophies of Vedanta
and Yoga to the Western world.
(b) He represented India in the first Parliament of
(c) All three (d) None
Religion held in Chicago (U.S.) in 1893.
84. Which one of the following explains the term (c) He joined Ramakrishna Mission in 1987, an
‘Shalabhanjika’? organisation established by his Guru Swami
(a) Bhikkuni in the Buddhist sangha. Ramakrishna Paramhansa.
(b) Stone sculpture at the Elephanta Caves. (d) His nationalism is deeply rooted in Indian
(c) Incarnation of river goddess usually found at spirituality and morality.
the entrance of a garbhagriha in a Nagara
89. Consider the following personalities with reference
temple.
to Indian History :
(d) Woman whose touch caused trees to flower and
1. Aurobindo Ghosh
bear fruit.
2. Bipin Chandra Pal
85. With reference to the Chola period bronze sculpture,
3. Rajnarayan Bose
the Nataraja is shown suppressing which of the
following? 4. Ashwini Kumar Dutt
(a) Mara (b) Apasmara 5. Surendranath Banerjee
(c) Tripurasura (d) Hiranyakashyap How many of the above personalities are associated
86. With reference to the Indian History, what does the with extremist faction of Indian National Congress
term ‘Taccusastra’ refers? (INC)?
(a) Science of carpentry (a) Only two
(b) Sanskrit text on medicine (b) Only three
(c) Study of astrology (c) Only four
(d) Study of war (d) All five
Harsh 29
90. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 92. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
iqjLdkj lacaèk 1. oU;tho (laj{k.k) vfèkfu;e (WPA)] 1972 ns'k
1. è;kupan iqjLdkj % •syksa dks c<+kok nsus esa dh ikfjfLFkfrdh vkSj i;kZoj.kh; lqj{kk lqfuf'pr
;ksxnku ds fy;sA djus dh n`f"V ls taxyh tkuojksa] if{k;ksa ,oa ikSèkksa
2. ekSykuk vcqy % varj&fo'ofo|ky; dh lqj{kk çnku djrk gSA
dyke vk”kkn VªkWiQh VwukZesaV esa 'kh"kZ çn'kZu 2. oU;tho (laj{k.k) la'kksèku vfèkfu;e] 2022 us
ds fy;sA fo'ks"k :i ls lajf{kr tkuojksa ds fy;s vuqlwfp;ksa
3. rsuftax uksxZs jk"Vªh; % Hkwfe] leqæ vkSj ok;q ij dh la[;k 4 ls ?kVkdj 1 dj nh gSA
lkgfld iqjLdkj lkgfld xfrfofèk;ksa ;k mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
•syksa ds {ks=k esa mRÑ"V (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
miyfCèk;ksa dks ekU;rk
nsus ds fy;sA
4. vtZqu iqjLdkj % pkj o"kks± dh vofèk esa 93. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
yxkrkj vPNs çn'kZu gsrq 1. frykjh mÙkjk•aM dk NBk oU;tho dkWfjMksj gS ftls
lEekfur djus ds fy;s ^laj{k.k fj”koZ* ?kksf"kr fd;k x;k gSA
mi;qZDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\ 2. f•je laj{k.k fj”koZ fgekpy çns'k esa fLFkr gSA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj (a) dsoy 1
91. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (b) dsoy 2
1. Xykscy ehFksu Iyst] ehFksu mRltZu dks de djus (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
ds fy;s fØ;kvksa dks mRçsfjr djus gsrq o"kZ 2021 (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
esa COP 26 esa 'kq: dh xbZ ,d igy gSA 94. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
2. Xykscy ,uthZ ekWfuVj ,d xSj&ykHkdkjh laxBu gS] ftldk
1. Hkkjr esa ou {ks=k ds ckgj o`{kkjksi.k dh igy i;kZoj.k]
mís'; LoPN ÅtkZ ds fy;s oSf'od xfrfofèk;ksa ds
ou ,oa tyok;q ifjorZu ea=kky; vkSj la;qDr jk"Vª
leFkZu esa tkudkjh dks fodflr vkSj lk>k djuk gSA
dh vesfjdh varjkZ"Vªh; fodkl ,tsalh (USAID)
3. varjkZ"Vªh; ehFksu mRltZu osèk'kkyk ;wusLdks dh ,d
}kjk 'kq: dh xbZ gSA
igy gS] ftls o"kZ 2021 esa ;wjksih; vk;ksx ds leFkZu
2. C40 tyok;q ladV dk lkeuk djus ds fy;s
ls 'kq: fd;k x;k FkkA
vko';d rRdky dkjZokbZ djus gsrq fo'o ds çeq•
4. Hkkjr oSf'od ehFksu igy dk Hkkxhnkj ns'k gSA
'kgjksa ds yxHkx 100 egkikSjksa dk ,d usVodZ gSA
5. WRI bafM;k (xSj&ykHkdkjh laxBu)] Hkkjrh; m|ksx
3. o.khdj.k ifj;kstuk >kM+h;qDr ikSèkksa] fo'ks"kdj lsUuk
ifjla?k (CII) vkSj n ,uthZ ,aM fjlkslZs”k baLVhVÔwV
(TERI) ds usr`Ro esa Hkkjr xzhugkml xSl dk;ZØe]
LisDVsfcfyl dks •Re djus ds fy;s gSA
xzhugkml xSl mRltZu dks ekius vkSj çcafèkr djus mi;qZDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
ds fy;s ,d m|ksx&vkèkkfjr LoSfPNd <k¡pk gSA (a) dsoy ,d
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&ls lgh gSa\ (b) dsoy nks
(a) dsoy 1, 2, 4 vkSj 5 (b) dsoy 1, 3 vkSj 4 (c) lHkh rhu
(c) dsoy 2, 3 vkSj 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 vkSj 5 (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
Harsh 30
90. Consider the following pairs : 92. Consider the following statements :
Award Known for 1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides
1. Dhyan Chand : For contribution towards for the protection of wild animals, birds and
Award the promotion of Sports. plants with a view to ensure the ecological and
2. Maulana Abul : For top performance in environmental security of the country.
Kalam Azad inter-university 2. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act,
Trophy tournament. 2022 has reduced the number of schedules for
3. Tenzing : To recognize outstanding specially protected animals from four to one.
Norgay achievements in the field Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
National of adventure activities or (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Adventure sports on land, sea and
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Award air.
4. Arjuna award : Given out for consistent 93. Consider the following statements :
good performance over a 1. Tillari is the sixth wildlife corridor of
period of four years. Uttarakhand to be declared as a ‘conservation
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? reserve’.
(a) Only one (b) Only two 2. Khiram conservation reserve is located in
Himachal Pradesh.
(a) 1 only
1. Global Methane Pledge is an initiative launched
(b) 2 only
at COP 26 in 2021 to catalyse action to reduce
methane emissions. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Global Energy Monitor is a non-profit (d) Neither 1 nor 2
organization which aims to develop and share 94. Consider the following statements :
information in support of worldwide movement 1. Trees Outside Forests in India (TOFI) initiative
for clean energy. is launched by Ministry of Environment,
3. International Methane Emissions Observatory Forest, and Climate Change and United Nation
is an initiative by UNESCO, launched in 2021 Forum on Forests.
with support from European commission. 2. C40 is a network of nearly 100 mayors of the
4. India is a partner country of global methane world’s leading cities to deliver urgent action
initiative. needed to confront climate crisis.
5. India Greenhouse Gas Program led by WRI 3. Vanikaran Project is an afforestation project to
India, Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) root out invasive plants, especially ‘Senna
and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) spectabilis’.
is an industry-led voluntary framework to How many of the above statements are correct?
measure and manage greenhouse gas emissions. (a) Only one
Which of the statements given above are correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (b) 1,3 and 4 only (c) All three
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) None
Harsh 31
95. gky gh esa ppkZ esa jgk ^fiQuySaMkb”ks'ku* 'kCn ls rkRi;Z gS (b) dq'ky MsVk lapj.k lqfuf'pr djus ds fy;s bUgsa eq[;
(a) 'khr ;q¼ ds n'kd ds nkSjku fiQuySaM us :l vkSj :i ls rk¡cs dk cuk;k tkrk gSA
if'pe ds chp l[r rVLFkrk dh uhfr viukbZA (c) ;g çdk'k dk mi;ksx djds MsVk lapfjr djus ds
(b) 'khr ;q¼ ds nkSjku :l vkSj vesfjdk ds chp fy;s dqy vkarfjd çfrfcac ds fl¼kar ij dk;Z djrk gSA
fujL=khdj.k le>kSrkA (d) ;g flXuy gkfu vkSj çlkj ds çfr çfrjf{kr gksrs
(c) b”kjk;y] ;w-,-bZ- vkSj cgjhu ds chp 'kkafr le>kSrk] gSa] tks yach nwjh ij mfpr MsVk lapj.k lqfuf'pr
ftldh eè;LFkrk fiQuySaM us dhA djrs gSaA
(d) MsuekdZ] LohMu] ukWoZs vkSj fiQuySaM ds chp lg;ksxA
99. cjkd unh ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
96. Hkkjr dh es”kckuh esa G20 dh Fkhe ¶olqèkSo dqVqacde¸ 1. cjkd unh E;k¡ekj dh fpaMfou unh dh lgk;d unh
gS vFkkZr~ ,d fo'o] ,d ifjokj] ,d Hkfo";A ¶olqèkSo gS tks iwoZ dh vksj izokfgr gksrs gq, Hkkjr ds ef.kiqj
dqVqacde¸ 'yksd fdl mifu"kn~ ls fy;k x;k gS\ jkT; esa ços'k djrh gSA
(a) eq.Mdksifu"kn~
2. dqf'k;kjk vkSj lwjek unh nks lgk;d ufn;k¡ gSa tks
(b) egksifu"kn~
cjkd unh ls foHkkftr gksdj ckaXykns'k esa iqu% fey
(c) dBksifu"kn~
tkrh gSaA
(d) NkanksX; mifu"kn~
3. Hkkjr vkSj ckaXykns'k us dqf'k;kjk unh ds ty c¡Vokjs
97. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% ds fy;s ,d le>kSrk Kkiu (MoU) ij gLrk{kj
1. Hkkjr dk leqæh {ks=k cslykbu ls 200 leqæh ehy fd;s gSaA
rd foLr`r gSA
2. Hkkjr vius leqæh {ks=k esa ik, tkus okys leqæh èku]
•fut vkSj vU; ewY;oku oLrqvksa ij nkok dj
ldrk gSA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ 100. ¶czã czãkaM ds fuekZrk gSa] Kku vkSj 'kfDr esa ifjiw.kZ gSa
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2

,oa vkRekvksa rFkk rÙo ls fHkUu gSaA¸
mi;qZDr dFku fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl Hkkjrh; nk'kZfud
dh ewy ekU;rkvksa esa ls ,d dks n'kkZrk gS\
98. vkWfIVdy iQkbcj vkèkqfud nwjlapkj dk ,d egÙoiw.kZ
(a) jkekuqtkpk;Z
?kVd gSA vkWfIVdy iQkbcj ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r esa
ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\ (b) fuEckdZ
(a) ;g MsVk lapfjr djus ds fy;s fo|qr ladsrksa dk (c) oYyHkkpk;Z

mi;ksx djrs gSaA (d) ekèkokpk;Z
Harsh 32
95. Recently seen in the news, ‘Finlandization’ refers to (b) It is primarily made of copper to ensure efficient
(a) Policy of strict neutrality between Russia and data transmission.
the West that Finland followed during the (c) It operates on the principle of total internal
decades of the Cold War. reflection to transmit data using light.
(b) Disarmament agreement between Russia and (d) It is immune to signal loss and dispersion,
USA during the Cold War. ensuring perfect data transmission over long
(c) Peace deal between Israel, the UAE and distance
Bahrain and is mediated by Finland.
99. With reference to Barak River, consider the
(d) Co-operation between Denmark, Sweden,
following statements :
Norway and Finland.
1. Barak river is a distributary of Chindwin river
96. As host, India’s G-20 theme is “Vasudhaiva
of Myanmar which takes east turn and enters
Kutumbakam - One World, One Family, One
in Manipur state of India.
Future”. The shloka of “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam”,
has been taken from which Upanishad? 2. Kushiyara and Surma rivers are two
(a) Mundaka Upanishad distributaries that bifurcate from Barak river
and rejoin in Bangladesh.
(b) Maha Upanishad
(c) Katho Upanishad 3. India and Bangladesh have signed a
(d) Chandogya Upanishad Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) for
sharing the water of Kushiyara river.
1. India’s territorial waters extend up to 200 How many of the above statements are correct?
nautical miles from the base line. (a) Only one (b) Only two
2. A coastal state in India can claim sea wealth, (c) All three (d) None
minerals and other things of value found in 100. “Brahman is the creator of the universe, perfect in
India’s territorial waters. knowledge and power and is distinct from souls and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? matter.”
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 of which one of the following Indian philosophers?
98. Optical fibers are a crucial component of modern (a) Ramanujacharya
telecommunications. Which of the following (b) Nimbarka
statements regarding optical fibers is correct? (c) Vallabhacharya
(a) It uses electrical signals to transmit data. (d) Madhavacharya
Harsh 33
jQ dk;Z gsrq
Harsh 34
jQ dk;Z gsrq
Harsh 35
CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) TEST SERIES – 2024
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET SERIES
TEST BOOKLET
Test Code:
P1/P2-2401 GENERAL STUDIES
TEST – 01
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS
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THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
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THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
in the Box provided alongside this line. DO NOT write
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4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each
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CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) TEST SERIES – 2024
TEST BOOKLET SERIES

ANSWER & EXPLANATION
Test Code:
P1/P2-2401 GENERAL STUDIES
(English Version) TEST – 01
ANSWERS
Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers
1 (d) 26 (b) 51 (c) 76 (c)
2 (c) 27 (d) 52 (a) 77 (c)
3 (c) 28 (b) 53 (a) 78 (c)
4 (a) 29 (c) 54 (b) 79 (a)
5 (d) 30 (d) 55 (a) 80 (d)
6 (c) 31 (a) 56 (d) 81 (c)
7 (a) 32 (a) 57 (a) 82 (c)
8 (b) 33 (a) 58 (a) 83 (c)
9 (c) 34 (c) 59 (b) 84 (d)
10 (d) 35 (b) 60 (b) 85 (b)
11 (c) 36 (b) 61 (b) 86 (a)
12 (b) 37 (a) 62 (b) 87 (a)
13 (d) 38 (b) 63 (b) 88 (c)
14 (b) 39 (b) 64 (a) 89 (c)

15 (b) 40 (b) 65 (a) 90 (d)
16 (b) 41 (b) 66 (c) 91 (a)
17 (a) 42 (c) 67 (c) 92 (a)
18 (a) 43 (a) 68 (b) 93 (d)
19 (d) 44 (c) 69 (a) 94 (b)
20 (a) 45 (c) 70 (d) 95 (a)
21 (d) 46 (b) 71 (d) 96 (b)
22 (c) 47 (c) 72 (a) 97 (d)
23 (c) 48 (d) 73 (b) 98 (c)
24 (d) 49 (b) 74 (c) 99 (b)
25 (b) 50 (b) 75 (c) 100 (d)

1. (d) called “look-alike species”, i.e., species whose
specimens in trade look like those of species listed for
Explanation: conservation reasons.
The cheetah is one of the oldest of the big cat species, Appendix III lists species included at the request of
that can be traced back more than five million years to a Party that already regulates trade in the species and
the Miocene era. It is the world’s fastest land mammal that needs the cooperation of other countries to prevent
and is found in Africa and Asia. unsustainable or illegal exploitation. Hence, statement
Compared to African cheetahs, the Asiatic cheetah is (II) is not correct.
smaller but has a thicker coat, a more powerful neck, Species may be added to or removed from Appendix
and slender legs. Many believe that they could be faster I and II, or moved between them, only by the
than the African species with longer legs, but no tests Conference of the Parties.
have confirmed this theory. Hence, statement (1) is
correct. 3. (c)
A study found that predation was the biggest killer,
Explanation:
accounting for 53.2% of cheetah mortality. Lions,
Cnidarian, also called ‘coelenterate’, are a group made
leopards, hyenas, and jackals were primarily responsible.
up of more than 9,000 living species. Mostly marine
Cheetahs suffer very high cub mortality (up to 90%)
animals, the cnidarians include the corals, hydras,
in protected areas, mainly due to predation. Hence,
jellyfish, sea anemones, sea pens, sea whips, and sea
statement (2) is correct.
fans. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
Cheetahs were once widespread in India and became
Cnidarians enter complex associations with a variety of
extinct in 1952 from hunting and loss of habitat.
other organisms, including unicellular algae, fishes,
Asiatic Cheetahs are found naturally only in Iran now.
and crustaceans. Many of these relationships, such as
In IUCN Red List, African Cheetahs are listed as
those with zooxanthellae and zoochlorellae, are
‘Vulnerable’ and Asiatic Cheetahs are listed as
mutualistic symbioses—i.e., relationships benefiting
‘Critically Endangered’. Hence, statements (3) and
both partners. The relationship between cnidarians
(4) are correct.
and dinoflagellate algae is also termed as ‘symbiotic’.
2. (c) Hence, statement (3) is correct.
All cnidarians are carnivores. Most use their ‘Cnidae’
Explanation: and associated toxin to capture food, although none is
CITES is an international agreement between known to pursue prey.
governments to ensure that international trade in wild All cnidarian species are capable of sexual
animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the reproduction, which occurs in only one phase of the
species. The convention entered into force in 1975 and life cycle. They’re capable of both sexual and asexual
India became the 25th party in 1976. reproduction. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
The 19th Meeting of the Conference of the Parties
(CoP19) to the CITES was held at Panama City. 4. (a)
India’s Shisham (Dalbergia sissoo) was included in
Explanation:
Appendix II of the convention, thereby requiring it to
Panna was 22nd Tiger Reserve of India and 5th in
follow CITES regulations for the trade of the species.
Madhya Pradesh. The Reserve is situated in the
Hence, statement (I) is correct.
Vindhyan Ranges and spreads over Panna and
CITES has three appendices: Chhatarpur districts in the north of the state. The
Appendix I lists species that are the most endangered region is also famous for Panna (Majhgawan)
among CITES-listed animals and plants. diamond mining.
Appendix II lists species that are not necessarily now It is a prime tiger-land Located in northern Madhya
threatened with extinction but that may become so Pradesh. It is a dry deciduous forest which is
unless trade is closely controlled. It also includes so- characterised by extensive plateaus and gorges.
641, 1st Floor, 21, Pusa Road, 13/15 Tashkent Marg, 47/CC, Burlington Arcade Mall, Plot No. 45& 45A, Harsh 2
Dr. Mukherjee Karol Bagh, New Civil Lines, Vidhan Sabha Marg, Tower-2, Main Tonk Road,
Nagar, Delhi Delhi Prayagraj Lucknow Vasundhara Colony, Jaipur

Panna National Park was created in 1981. It was 6. (c)
declared a Project Tiger Reserve by Government of Explanation:
India in 1994. In 2020, UNESCO included it in the Marine Sand Watch, the first-ever global data
Man and Biosphere Programme (MAB) making it platform on sand and other sediment extraction in the
the 12th entry for India. marine environment found that the marine dredging
he Ken River, which flows through the Reserve from industry is digging up 6 billion tons per year,
south to north, is home for Gharial and Mugger, and significantly impacting biodiversity and coastal
other aquatic fauna and is one of the least polluted communities. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
rivers and a tributary of Yamuna. The new data platform tracks and monitors dredging
Out of the nine vulture species found in India, seven activities of sand, clay, silt, gravel, and rock in the
species are found in Panna. The tiger reserve has world’s marine environment. Developed by GRID-
constantly been on the news due to the Ken-Betwa Geneva a Centre for Analytics within the UN
River interlinkage project. The project may incur an Environment Programme (UNEP), the platform uses
estimated loss of 58.03 square kilometers (10.07 per Automatic Identification System (AIS) signals from
cent) of critical tiger habitat (CTH) in the reserve. vessels and Artificial Intelligence (AI) to identify the
operations of dredging vessels. Hence, statements (2)
Hence, option (a) is correct.
and (3) are correct.
5. (d) The Marine Sand Watch estimates that between 4 and
8 billion tons of sand and other sediments are dredged
Explanation: every year in the marine and coastal environment.
The 1989 Montreal Protocol is not a climate agreement. Furthermore, data analyzed shows the scale of dredging
It is instead aimed at protecting the earth from Ozone- is growing. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
Depleting Substances (ODSs) like the The world is approaching the natural replenishment
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), that were earlier used in rate of 10 to 16 billion tons per year which is needed
the air-conditioning and refrigerant industry. by rivers to maintain coastal and marine ecosystem
The Montreal Protocol led to the replacement of CFCs structure and function.
with Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) which do not
7. (a)
destroy the Ozone layer. But they were later found to
be extremely potent in causing Global Warming. So, Explanation:
the HFCs solved one problem, but were contributing in Phanerogams are seed bearing plants. These are the
a major way to another. Hence, statement (2) is not most advanced plants. They have well-differentiated
correct. plants i.e., the plant body is divided into distinct roots,
HFCs could not be eliminated under the original shoots, and leaves. These are multicellular, eukaryotic
provisions of Montreal Protocol which was meant to and chlorophyll containing plants. Phanerogams are
classified into two groups such as Gymnosperms
phase-out ODSs only. The Kigali Amendment enabled
(naked seed plants), Angiosperms (covered seed
the Montreal Protocol to mandate the elimination of
plants).
HFCs as well. The goal is to achieve an over 80%
A cryptogam is a plant that reproduces with the help
reduction in HFC consumption by 2047. Hence,
of spores. Due to this, they are called “flowerless” or
statement (1) is not correct. “seedless plants” or ‘lower plants’. They do not have
India became a party to the Montreal Protocol on a developed vascular system and they need a moist
Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer in June 1992 environment to survive. Hence, statement (1) and (2)
and since then has ratified the amendments to the are not correct.
Montreal Protocol. India has successfully met the These are present in aquatic and terrestrial places.
phase-out targets of all the Ozone Depleting Algae, bryophytes, lichens, ferns and fungi are the
Substances as per the Montreal Protocol Schedule. best-known groups of cryptogams.

India’s first cryptogamic garden was inaugurated in 10. (d)
the Chakrata town of Dehradun, Uttarakhand. The
Explanation:
garden will be housing nearly 50 species of lichens,
ferns and fungi. Wetland Location Specialty
This site was chosen because of its low pollution levels Chandertal Himachal It supports CITES and IUCN
and moist conditions which are conducive for the growth Wetland Pradesh Relisted Snow Leopard and is a
of these species. Hence, statement (3) is correct. refuge for many species like Snow
Cock, Chukor, Black Ring Stilt,
8. (b) Kestrel, Golden Eagle, Chough,
Explanation: Red Fox, Himalayan Ibex, and
Publication titled ‘75 Endemic Birds of India’ was Blue Sheep.
released by Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) on its Sur Uttar Also known as Keetham Lake, it
108th anniversary. Publication by the ZSI points out Sarovar Pradesh is a human-made reservoir;
that about 5% of birds found in the country are originally created to supply water
endemic and are not reported in other parts of the world. to the city of Agra in summer, the
The publication points out that the 75 bird species wetland soon became an important
belong to 11 different orders, 31 families, and 55 and rich ecosystem.
genera, and exhibit remarkable distribution patterns
Sakhya Madhya It is a human-made reservoir on
across various regions in India.
Sagar Pradesh the outskirts of Shivpuri town
ZSI is a subordinate organization under the Ministry
of Environment and Forests that was founded in 1916. within the Madhav National
It serves as a national faunistic survey center, advancing Park. Provides habitat to
knowledge about India’s diverse fauna. Headquartered thousands of migratory waterfowl
in Kolkata, it has 16 regional stations across the and mugger crocodiles.
country. Ansupa Odisha It is a small freshwater oxbow
Hence, option (b) is correct. Lake lake formed by the Mahanadi
River, known nationally for rich
9. (c) biodiversity.
Explanation: Hence, option (d) is correct.
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched
11. (c)
by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate
Change (MoEFCC) in 2019. It was the first-ever effort Explanation:
in the country to frame a national framework for air Taiga vegetation, also known as boreal forest or
quality management with a time-bound reduction target. coniferous forest, is a type of terrestrial ecosystem
It covers 131 non-attainment cities which were characterized by its dominant plant species, which are
identified by the Central Pollution Control Board primarily coniferous trees. The taiga biome is found in
(CPCB). Non-attainment cities are those that have fallen the northern latitudes of North America, Europe, and
short of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards Asia, and it is the largest terrestrial biome on Earth.
(NAAQS) for over five years. Key characteristics:
NAAQs are the standards for ambient air quality with Coniferous Trees: The most common tree species in
reference to various identified pollutants notified by the taiga are evergreen conifers, such as spruce, pine,
the CPCB under the Air (Prevention and Control of fir, and larch. These trees are adapted to cold climates
Pollution) Act, 1981. Pollutants covered under NAAQS and have needle-like leaves that help reduce water loss
are PM10, PM2.5, SO2, NO2, CO, NH3, Ozone, Lead, in winter.
Benzene, Benzo-Pyrene, Arsenic and Nickel. Cold Climate: Taiga regions have long, harsh winters
Therefore CO2 is not included in the list of NAAQS. with extremely cold temperatures, often dropping below
Hence, option (c) is correct. freezing. Summers are relatively short and cool.

Permafrost: Many areas within the taiga have directly from the host plant. Instead, epiphytes anchor
permafrost, which is permanently frozen soil. This themselves to the host plant for support and access to
restricts the depth to which trees and other vegetation sunlight. These plants have evolved various adaptations
can grow their roots. to thrive in their unique habitat.
Limited Diversity: Due to the harsh environmental Some common features and characteristics of epiphytes
conditions, biodiversity in the taiga is relatively low include:
compared to other ecosystems. However, there are still Aerial Growth: Epiphytes grow above the ground,
various plant and animal species adapted to this environment. often on tree branches or trunks. They do not have their
Seasonal Changes: The taiga experiences distinct roots in the soil. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
seasonal changes, with a short growing season in the Minimal Soil Usage: Since they do not rely on soil for
summer when temperatures are milder. During this time, nutrients, epiphytes have specialized adaptations to
vegetation becomes more active and various animals obtain water and nutrients from the air, rain, and
migrate to take advantage of the resources. decaying organic matter.
Wildlife: Common wildlife species in the taiga include Root Adaptations: Many epiphytes have specialized
moose, deer, bears, wolves, lynx, foxes, and a variety of roots called “aerial roots” that can absorb moisture and
bird species. Many of these animals have adaptations for nutrients from the air or from rainwater running down
surviving the cold winters, such as thick fur or hibernation. the host plant. These roots often have a spongy or
Economic Importance: The taiga is economically velvety texture to maximize surface area for absorption.
significant as it provides resources like timber and Host plants enable them to get sunlight. Hence,
pulpwood. It also plays a role in carbon storage and helps statement (2) is correct.
regulate the global climate. Hence, option (c) is correct. Symbiosis: Some epiphytes form mutually beneficial
relationships with other organisms. For example, some
orchids have a symbiotic relationship with fungi that
helps them absorb nutrients. Hence, statement (3) is
not correct.
High Epiphyte Diversity: Epiphytes are found in a
variety of ecosystems, including tropical rainforests,
cloud forests, and temperate forests. They can include
orchids, bromeliads, ferns, mosses, and lichens.
12. (b)
Explanation:
Epiphytes are specialized plants that grow on the surface
of other plants, typically trees, without being parasitic.
They are not root parasites and do not take nutrients

Ecological Importance: Epiphytes play important roles state governments to take measures for the protection
in their ecosystems. They can provide habitat and food and improvement of the environment. This Act provides
for various organisms, including insects, birds, and a framework for the central government to formulate
frogs. Additionally, they contribute to nutrient cycling and implement policies and regulations aimed at
in forest ecosystems. safeguarding the environment and addressing various
Vulnerability: While epiphytes have unique adaptations environmental issues.
for life above the ground, they can be vulnerable to The act empowers and authorizes the Central Government
changes in their host tree’s health, deforestation, and to issue directions for the operation or process,
habitat destruction. prohibition, closure or regulation of any industry. The
Central Government is also authorized to stop, regulate
13. (d) the supply of electricity or water or any other service
Explanation: directly without obtaining the order of the court in this
Autotrophs or primary producers are organisms that regard. Hence, statement (I) is correct.
acquire their energy from sunlight and materials from Some key provisions and powers under the Environment
nonliving sources. Cyanobacteria, also called blue-green Protection Act, 1986, include:
algae, are microscopic organisms found naturally in all Setting Standards: The Act empowers the central
types of water. Cyanobacteria are important primary government to set environmental quality standards for
producers and form a part of the phytoplankton. They various pollutants and emissions to control and prevent
may also form biofilms and mats (benthic cyanobacteria). environmental pollution.
Likewise, Diatoms and Dinoflagellates also have Regulation of Activities: It allows the central government
autotrophic mode of nutrition. to regulate and restrict activities or processes that may
Phytoplankton are microscopic plant organisms that live have adverse effects on the environment.
in aquatic environments, both salty and fresh. Some Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA): The Act
phytoplankton are bacteria, some are protists, and most provides for the requirement of conducting
are single-celled plants. Among the common kinds are Environmental Impact Assessments for certain projects
cyanobacteria, silica encased diatoms, dinoflagellates, and activities to assess their potential environmental
green algae and chalk coated coccolithophores. impacts before they are approved or allowed to proceed.
Phytoplankton produces more than 60% of oxygen Penalties and Enforcement: The Act outlines penalties
produced from all plants. Like land plants, all for violations of environmental regulations and provides
phytoplankton have chlorophyll to capture synthesis, for the appointment of officers with powers to enforce
and they use photosynthesis to turn it into chemical these regulations.
energy. They consume carbon dioxide and release Protection of Wildlife: While the primary focus of the
oxygen. All phytoplankton photosynthesize, but some Act is on the protection and improvement of the overall
get additional energy by consuming other organisms. environment, it also includes provisions related to the
Phytoplankton, also known as micro algae, are present protection of wildlife and their habitats.
throughout the lighted regions of all the seas and oceans Cooperative Federalism: The Act encourages
including the polar regions. Their total biomass is many cooperation between the central and state governments
times greater than that of the total plants on land and in addressing environmental issues, and it allows state
they serve the pasture grounds” in the aquatic governments to formulate rules and regulations in
environment. accordance with the Act’s provisions.
Hence, option (d) is correct. In M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086 the
Supreme Court treated the right to live in pollution free
14. (b)
environment as a part of fundamental right to life under
Explanation: Article 21 of the Constitution. Thus, the act relaxed the rule
The Environment Protection Act, 1986, is a significant of “Locus Standi” and because of such relaxation even a
piece of environmental legislation in India. Its primary common citizen can approach the Court. Hence, statement
objective is to empower the central government and (II) is correct.

15. (b) Formation of new States and alteration of areas,
boundaries or names of existing States: Parliament may
Explanation:
by law
Ocean acidification is a well-documented consequence
Â form a new State by separation of territory from any
of increased levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the Earth’s
State or by uniting two or more States or parts of
atmosphere. When CO2 is released into the atmosphere,
States or by uniting any territory to a part of any
a significant portion of it is absorbed by the world’s
State;
oceans. This absorbed CO2 reacts with water to form
carbonic acid, leading to a decrease in the pH of Â increase the area of any State;
seawater. As a result, the oceans become more acidic. Â diminish the area of any State;
Hence, statement (1) is correct. Â alter the boundaries of any State;
This increase in ocean acidity can have detrimental Â alter the name of any State;
effects on marine ecosystems, particularly on organisms
Provided that no bill for the purpose shall be introduced
that rely on calcium carbonate to build their shells or
in either House of Parliament except on the
skeletons. Many marine species, including various types
recommendation of the President and unless, where the
of plankton, corals, mollusks (such as clams and
proposal contained in the bill affects the area, boundaries
oysters), and some species of algae and crustaceans, use
or name of any of the States, the bill has been referred
calcium carbonate to create protective shells or
by the President to the Legislature of that State for
skeletons. It makes sea water more corrosive to marine
expressing its views thereon within such period as may
organisms. Hence, statement (3) is not correct.
be specified in the reference or within such further
As the ocean becomes more acidic, the availability of
period as the President may allow and the period so
carbonate ions in seawater decreases. Carbonate ions
specified or allowed has expired.
are essential building blocks for calcium carbonate
It includes the power to form a new State or Union
structures. These carbonate ions are essential to the
territory by uniting a part of any State or Union
calcification process. When these ions are less available,
territory to any other State or Union territory.
it becomes more challenging for these marine organisms
Hence, option (b) is correct.
to form and maintain their calcium carbonate-based
protective structures. This can result in weaker shells 17. (a)
or skeletons, making these organisms more vulnerable
to predation, disease, and environmental stressors. Explanation:
Hence, statement (2) is correct. Article 22: Protection against Arrest and Detention in
It can disrupt marine food chains and ecosystems Certain Cases
because many species rely on the affected organisms as Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest: Every
a food source. person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be
Ocean acidification is an all-encompassing phenomenon informed as soon as may be of the grounds for such
and not restricted to only deep-sea regions. It is affecting arrest nor shall be denied the right to consult, and to be
the entire world’s oceans, including coastal estuaries defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice. Hence,
and waterways. Hence, statement (4) is not correct. statement (1) is correct.
Right to be produced before the nearest magistrate
16. (b) within twenty-four hours of arrest: Every person who
Explanation: is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty-
Parliament to make laws for the formation of new states four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary
and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of
states and Union Territories. This article provides the the magistrate and no such person shall be detained in
legal framework for the reorganization of states and custody beyond the said period without the authority of
Union Territories in India. a magistrate.

Right to consult and to be defended by a legal 19. (d)
practitioner: Every person who is arrested and detained
Explanation:
in custody shall be entitled to consult and to be defended
The 91 st Amendment Act of 2003 has made the
by a legal practitioner of his choice. following provisions to limit the size of Council of
Protection against preventive detention is available to Ministers, to debar defectors from holding public offices,
both citizens as well as aliens. Hence, statement (2) is and to strengthen the anti-defection law:
not correct. The total number of ministers, including the Prime
Parliament to prescribe other safeguards in cases of Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers shall not
preventive detention: Parliament shall, by law, exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok
prescribe— Sabha. There is no minimum number of Ministers.
(a) the circumstances under which, and the class or Hence, statement (1) is not correct.
classes of cases in which, a person may be A member of either House of Parliament belonging to
detained for a period longer than three months any political party who is disqualified on the grounds
under any law providing for preventive detention of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed
without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory as a minister.
Board in accordance with the provisions of sub- The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of
clause (a) of clause (4); the President. Hence, statement (2) is not correct.
(b) the maximum period for which any person may Article 75(3) establishes the principle of collective
in any class or classes of cases be detained under responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok
any law providing for preventive detention; Sabha. It states that the Council of Ministers, with the
Hence, statements (3) and (4) are not correct. Prime Minister at its head, is collectively responsible to
the Lok Sabha. If the Lok Sabha passes a vote of no-
(c) the procedure to be followed by an Advisory Board
confidence against the Council of Ministers, they must
in an inquiry under sub-clause (a) of clause (4).
resign. Hence, statement (3) is not correct.
18. (a)
20. (a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
The 86th Amendment to the Indian Constitution was
These Cabinet committees play a vital role in the
enacted in 2002. It introduced significant changes
functioning of the government, as they allow for in-
related to education in India, specifically focusing on
depth discussions and decision-making on specific
elementary education. The primary purpose of this issues, ensuring effective governance and coordination
amendment was to make education a fundamental right among different ministries and departments. The
for children in the age group of 6 to 14 years, which composition and functions of these committees can
means that the government is obligated to provide free change over time, depending on the priorities and needs
and compulsory education to all children in this age of the government.
group. It added a new fundamental duty as (k) under Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs (CCPA): The
Article 51A. Hence, statement (1) is not correct. CCPA deals with political issues, both domestic and
To defend the country and render national service when international, that have a significant bearing on the
called upon to do so, is included under fundamental country’s political landscape. The Prime Minister
duty as Article 51A (d). Hence, statement (2) is not chairs this committee. Hence, pair (1) is correctly
correct. matched.
The fundamental duties are not justifiable. The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs (CCPA):
constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement This committee coordinates and manages government
by the courts. Moreover, there is no legal sanction business in Parliament. It decides the legislative agenda,
against their violation. However, Parliament is free to schedules sessions, and deals with parliamentary
enforce them by suitable legislation. Hence, statement procedures. The Home Minister chairs this committee.
(3) is correct. Hence, pair (2) is not correctly matched.

Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS): This is one and other judges of the Supreme Court as well as the
of the most crucial committees and is chaired by the Chief Justices of High Courts to determine whether the
Prime Minister. It deals with matters related to national person is a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the
security, foreign affairs, defense, and nuclear policy. President.
Hence, pair (3) is not correctly matched. Age: The candidate must be below the age of 65 years
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA): at the time of appointment. The retirement age for a
The CCEA is responsible for making decisions on judge of the Supreme Court is 65 years. The Constitution
economic policy, financial matters, and approval of has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as
major government projects and investments. The Prime a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement (1) is
Minister chairs this committee. Hence, Pair (4) is not not correct.
correctly matched. The tenure of Supreme Court judges in India is governed
by the provisions of the Constitution of India. Here are the
21. (d)
key points regarding their tenure:
Explanation: Retirement Age: Supreme Court judges in India retire
Rules Committee: at the age of 65. This is specified in Article 124(2) of
If the rules of the house need to be changed, this the Constitution.
committee provides a recommendation. Fixed Term: Unlike some other countries where judges
The Committee is present in both houses of parliament. are appointed for life, in India, Supreme Court judges
Composition & Chairman: It consists of 15 members have a fixed term of service until they reach the age of
in Lok Sabha headed by the Speaker and 16 members 65. After reaching this age, they must retire from their
in Rajya Sabha headed by the ex-officio Chairperson. judicial duties.
Quorum: There is no such quorum defined.
Resignation: Judges can resign from their positions
Special Invitees: If the Deputy Speaker is not part of
before reaching the age of 65. Their resignation is
the committee, then he is invited.
submitted to the President of India.
As per convention, the Minister of parliamentary affairs
Removal: Supreme Court judges can be removed from
is also invited.
office by an impeachment process. This is a rare and
Functions: To evaluate matters of procedure and
challenging process that requires a motion for removal
business conduct in the Lok Sabha, and to make any
to be passed by a special majority in both houses of
necessary adjustments or additions to the Rules.
Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and then
Report: The Committee will put the report on the table
signed by the President of India. The grounds for
of the house. Hence, option (d) is correct.
removal include “proven misbehavior or incapacity”.
22. (c) So, the Constitution has not fixed the tenure of judge of
the Supreme Court.
Explanation:
To be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India, Hence, statement (2) is not correct.
an individual must meet the following qualifications and 23. (c)
criteria, as specified in the Constitution of India:
Citizenship: The candidate must be a citizen of India. Explanation:
Judicial Experience: The candidate should have served Appointment of Chief Minister
as a judge of a High Court for at least five years. Governor shall appoint the Chief Minister as the
Advocate Qualification: If the candidate is an advocate, majority party’s leader in the state legislative assembly
they should be recognized as an advocate by the High under Article 164.
Court for at least ten years. The Governor may use his discretion in appointing a
Distinguished Jurist: In the case of appointing a person chief minister from the coalition government provided
as a judge who is not already a judge of a High Court, that the person seeks a vote of confidence within one
the President may consult with the Chief Justice of India month.

A person who is not a member of a state legislature can 25. (b)
also become Chief Minister, provided he gets selected
Explanation:
for state legislatures (either of the two houses) within
The PESA Act was enacted on 24 December 1996 to
six months. Hence, statement I is correct, and
enable tribal self-rule in fifth schedule areas. The Act
statement II is not correct.
extended the provisions of Panchayats to the tribal areas
The Chief Minister can be a member of either of the
of Fifth Schedule states. Hence, statement (1) is not
two houses of the state legislature.
correct.
The Chief Minister enjoys that office till the pleasure
The act applies to the Scheduled Areas of India, which
of the Governor, and the term of office is not fixed.
are areas notified by the President as predominantly
The Chief Minister can be removed when and if he loses
inhabited by tribal communities. Some of the major
the support of the majority from the state legislature.
The state legislature determines the salary of the chief provisions of the PESA Act are as follows:
minister. 1. Gram Sabha: The PESA Act establishes the
The Governor is responsible for administering the oath Gram Sabha, a forum for the participation of the
of office to the chief minister. community in the development process. The
Gram Sabha is responsible for the identification
24. (d) of development projects, the preparation of
Explanation: development plans, and the implementation of
State Election Commissions (SECs): these plans. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
Description 2. Village-level institutions: The Act provides for
establishing village-level institutions to carry
The SEC is responsible for conducting
out development activities and provide basic
About free, fair, and impartial elections to the
services to the community. These institutions
local bodies within a state.
include the Gram Panchayat, the Gram Sabha,
Appointment of and the Panchayat Samiti.
Appointed by the Governor.
SECs
3. Powers and functions: The PESA legislation
It vests the superintendence, direction, gives the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat
and control of the preparation of significant powers and functions in relation to
electoral rolls and the conduct of the management of natural resources, the
Powers: Article elections to Panchayats (Municipalities protection of the environment, and the regulation
243K (1) under Article 243ZA) in the State Election of economic activities, including grant of
Commission, headed by a State Election concession for minor minerals by auction.
Commissioner appointed by the Hence, statement (3) is correct.
Governor. 4. Consultation: The Act requires that the Gram
It states that the tenure and appointment Sabha be consulted before any development
Tenure: Article of the State Election Commissioner will projects or activities are undertaken in the
243K (2) be directed by the law made by the state Scheduled Areas.
legislature. 5. Funds: The Act allows transferring funds to the
The State Election Commissioner has the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat to enable
status, salary and allowance of a Judge them to perform their functions.
of a High Court and cannot be removed 6. Land: The Act provides for the protection of the
Removal
from office except in like manner and on land rights of the tribal communities in the
the like grounds as a Judge of a High Scheduled Areas and requires that their consent
Court. be obtained before any land is acquired or
Hence, option (d) is correct. transferred.

7. Cultural and social practices: The Act protects The High Courts have jurisdiction over the suits and
the cultural and social practices of the tribal cases which are specified by the Governor.
communities in the Scheduled Areas and The District and Regional Councils are empowered to
prohibits any interference in these practices. assess and collect land revenue and impose taxes on
professions, trades, animals, vehicles, etc. The Councils
26. (b) are given the power to grant licenses or leases for the
Explanation: extraction of minerals within their jurisdiction.
Article 244(2): The provisions of the Sixth Schedule The District Councils and Regional Councils are given
shall apply to the administration of the tribal areas in the power to establish, construct or manage primary
the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and schools, dispensaries, markets, cattle ponds, fisheries,
Mizoram. roads, road transport and waterways in the districts.
The Governor can appoint a commission to
Autonomous districts and autonomous regions:
The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya,
investigate and provide a report on any issue pertaining
Tripura, and Mizoram are to be administered as to the management of the autonomous districts or
Autonomous Districts. regions. Hence, statement (1) is not correct.
The Governor is empowered to organize and reorganize 27. (d)
the autonomous districts. He can also increase, decrease
the boundaries or alter the name of any autonomous Explanation:
district. Hence, statement (2) is correct. The Indian Constitution is often described as having a
federal structure due to its division of powers between the
Constitution of District Councils and Regional Councils:
central (Union) government and the state governments.
There shall be a District Council for each autonomous
However, it also exhibits certain unitary features, which
district consisting of not more than 30 members, of
emphasize a strong central authority. Here are some of the
whom not more than four persons shall be nominated
unitary features of the Indian Constitution:
by the Governor, and the rest shall be elected on the
Strong Center: The Indian Constitution establishes a
basis of adult suffrage.
strong and centralized Union government with
There shall be a separate Regional Council for each
significant powers. The center has authority over key
area constituted by an autonomous region.
areas such as defense, foreign affairs, and national
Powers of the District Councils and Regional Councils to security.
make laws: Single Constitution: Unlike federal systems where
The District and Regional councils are empowered to there are separate constitutions for each level of
make laws on certain specified matters like lands, government (e.g., federal and state constitutions), India
management of forest (other than the Reserved Forest), has a single constitution that applies to both the Union
inheritance of property, etc. and the states. Hence, option (1) is correct.
These councils also empowered to make law for the Parliament’s Preeminence: The Indian Parliament,
regulations and control of moneylending or trading by consisting of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and
any person other than Scheduled Tribe residents in that the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), holds considerable
Scheduled District. power. It can legislate on subjects in the State List under
However, all laws made under this provision require the certain circumstances, as mentioned in Article 249 and
assent of the Governor of the State. Article 250 of the Constitution.
Administration of justice in autonomous districts and Emergency Provisions: During emergencies (national,
autonomous regions: state, or financial), the central government can assume
The District and Regional Councils are empowered to more extensive powers, including the suspension of
constitute Village and District Council Courts for the state governments and their authority. These provisions
trial of suits and cases where all parties to the dispute are outlined in Articles 356 (President’s Rule) and
belong to Scheduled Tribes within the district. Article 360 (Financial Emergency).

Integrated Judiciary: Indian constitution has Article 263 of the Indian Constitution deals with provisions
established an integrated judicial system with the with respect to an inter-State Council. It further has the
Supreme court at the top and the state high courts below following provisions:
it. This single system of court enforces both central as If, at any time, it appears to the President that the public
well as state laws. Hence, option (2) is correct. interests would be served by the establishment of a
Single Citizenship: India follows the concept of single Council charged with the duty of
citizenship, where every Indian citizen is a citizen of Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may
the Union of India, as opposed to federal systems where have arisen between States;
citizens hold both federal and state citizenship. Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or
Appointment of Governors: The Governor, who all the States, or the Union and one or more of the States,
represents the President at the state level, is appointed have a common interest. Hence, statement (2) is not
by the President of India. Governors have significant correct.
discretionary powers, particularly during times of
29. (c)
political instability. Hence, option (3) is correct.
All-India Services: The Indian Administrative Service Explanation:
(IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and Indian Forest The right to property was removed from the list of
Service are all-India services that provide for the Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act of
recruitment and management of civil servants by the 1978.
Union government, enabling a unified approach to Article 300-A of Part XII of the Constitution
administration. Hence, option (4) is correct. establishes it as a legal right. Hence, statement (1) is
not correct.
28. (b)
Implications of the Right to Property as a Legal Right
Explanation: It can be regulated, i.e., limited, shortened, or modified,
Article 261 of the Indian Constitution deals with public without requiring a constitutional amendment, through
acts, records and judicial proceedings. It has the ordinary parliamentary legislation. Hence, statement
following provisions: (2) is correct.
Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the It shields private property from executive action but not
territory of India to public acts, records and judicial from legislative action. Hence, statement (4) is correct.
proceedings of the Union and of every State. In the event of a violation, the aggrieved party cannot
Final judgments or orders delivered or passed by civil directly petition the Supreme Court for its enforcement
courts in any part of the territory of India shall be under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies,
capable of execution anywhere within that territory including writs). He has the right to file a petition with
according to law. Hence, statement (3) is correct. the High Court under Article 226.
Article 262 deals with the Adjudication of disputes There is no guaranteed right to compensation in the
relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys. event that the state acquires or requisites private
Furthermore, it also contains the following provisions: property. It is not included as part of the basic structure
Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of of the constitution. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, It states that no one’s property may be taken from him
distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter- unless he has legal authority to do so.
state river or river valley
Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution,
30. (d)
Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Explanation:
Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power
respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred of superintendence, direction and control of elections
to in the above clause. Hence, statement (1) is correct. to parliament, state legislatures, the office of

president of India and the office of vice-president of If approved by both the houses, the Emergency
India shall be vested in the election commission. Hence, continues for 6 months and can be extended to an
statement (1) is correct. indefinite period with the approval of Parliament every
The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner six months.
and Election Commissioners. Every resolution approving the proclamation of
Tenure: 6 years, or up to 65 years of age, whichever emergency, or its continuance must be passed by either
is earlier. But the constitution does not prescribe any House of Parliament by a special majority. Hence,
minimum age criteria for appointment of election statement (2) is correct.
commissioners. Hence, statement (4) is not correct.
Revocation of proclamation
The status, salary and perks of election commissioners
A proclamation of Emergency may be revoked by the
are equivalent to the Judges of the Supreme Court
President at any time by a subsequent proclamation.
of India.
Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary
Removal: The Chief Election Commissioner can be
approval. Hence, statement (3) is not correct.
removed from office only through impeachment by
The emergency must be revoked if the Lok Sabha passes
the Parliament. The President can remove other
a resolution by a simple majority disapproving of its
members in consultation with the Chief Election
continuation. This safeguard was introduced by the 44th
Commissioner.
amendment act of 1978. Prior to the 44th amendment,
The Chief Election Commissioner cannot hold any
a proclamation could be revoked by the president on
office of profit after retirement. The Chief Election
Commissioner cannot be reappointed to the post. his own and the Lok Sabha had no control in this regard.
Hence, statement (2) is correct. Hence, statement (4) is not correct.
The legal, educational, administrative, or judicial 32. (a)
qualifications of the Election Commission members
are not specified in the Constitution. The term of the Explanation:
Election Commission’s members is not specified in Section 124A of IPC defines sedition as an offence
the Constitution. Hence, statement (3) is correct. committed when “any person by words, either spoken
The Constitution does not prohibit the government from or written, or by signs, or by visible representation,
appointing retiring election commissioners in the future. or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or
contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection
31. (a) towards the government established by law in India”.
Explanation: Hence, statement (1) is not correct.
Parliamentary approval and duration of the emergency: The expression “disaffection” includes disloyalty and
The proclamation of emergency must be approved by all feelings of enmity. It does not cover dissent against
both the houses of parliament within one month from the government. Hence, statement (2) is not correct.
the date of its issue. This provision was introduced by It is a Non-Bailable Offence. It is not a compoundable
the 44th amendment. Hence, statement (1) is not offence. Compoundable offences are those that can be
correct. compromised, i.e., the complainant can agree to take
However, if the proclamation of emergency is issued at back the charges levied against the accused, whereas,
a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the non-compoundable offences are the more serious
dissolution takes place during the period of one month offences in which the parties cannot compromise.
without approving the proclamation, then the Hence, statement (3) is not correct.
proclamation survives until 30 days (about 4 and a A person charged under this law is barred from a
half weeks) from the first sitting of Lok Sabha after its government job. They must live without their passport
reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha in the and must produce themselves in the court at all times
meantime has approved it. as and when required. Hence, statement (4) is correct.

33. (a)
Explanation:
The Mitakshara school of Hindu law was codified as
the Hindu Succession Act 1956. Earlier it governed
succession and inheritance of property and recognised
only males as legal heirs.
It applies to everyone who is not a Muslim, Christian,
Parsi or Jew by religion. Buddhists, Sikhs, Jains and
followers of Arya Samaj, Brahmo Samaj, are also
considered Hindus for this law. Hence, statement (2)
is not correct.
The 1956 Act was amended in September 2005 and
women were recognised as coparceners for property
partitions. A daughter was made coparcener by birth
“in her own right in the same manner as the son”.
It also gave the daughter the same rights and liabilities
“in the coparcenary property as she would have had
35. (b)
if she had been a son”. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
The term ‘Coparcener’ is used in Hindu succession law Explanation:
to refer to a person who acquires a legal right to his Kolkata Port
ancestral property through birth in a Hindu Undivided The Kolkata Port, officially known as Shyama Prasad
Family (HUF). Mookherjee Port is India’s sole riverine major port,
located in the city of Kolkata, West Bengal.
34. (c) It was built by the British East India Company and is
India’s oldest operating port. Hence, pair (2) is
Explanation:
correctly matched.
Lake Victoria is Africa’s largest lake by area, the
world’s largest tropical lake, and the world’s second- Vadhavan Port
India’s 13th major port.
largest freshwater lake by surface area after Lake
With the expansion of this port, India will become one
Superior in North America. Hence, statement (1) is
of the top ten container ports in the world.
correct.
To carry out the project, a special purpose vehicle (SPV)
Lake Malawi, also known as Lake Nyasa in Tanzania,
will be constituted with Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust
is an African Great Lake and the southernmost lake in (JNPT) as the principal partner, with equity participation
the East African Rift system, located between Malawi, equal to or greater than 50%.
Mozambique and Tanzania. The port will be built on the landlord model. Hence,
Lake Tanganyika is an African Great Lake. It is the pair (3) is not correctly matched.
second-oldest freshwater lake in the world, the second
Kochi (Cochin) Port
largest by volume, and the second-deepest, in all cases
Cochin Port, also known as Kochi Port, is a major port
after Lake Baikal in Siberia. Hence, statement (2) is on the Arabian Sea-Laccadive Sea-Indian Ocean water
correct. route in the city of Kochi and one of India’s largest ports.
Lake Superior is the largest freshwater lake in the It is also India’s first transhipment terminal.
world. The port is located on two islands in Lake Kochi,
Lake Chad is freshwater lake located in the Sahelian willingdon island and Vallarpadam which opens onto
zone of west-central Africa. Hence, statement (3) is the Laccadive Sea. Kochi Port in Kerala is a tidal port.
correct. Hence, pair (1) is correctly matched.

36. (b) Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese. Hence,
Explanation: statement (3) is not correct.
Satmala is a mountain range which runs across Nashik Major mines in Odisha are in the central part of the iron
district, Maharashtra. They are an integral part of the ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar,
Sahayadri range within Nashik. Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi and Bolangir.
The Javadi hills are an extension of the Eastern Ghats It is also used in the manufacturing of bleaching powder,
spread across parts of Tirupattur and Tiruvannamalai insecticides, paints, and batteries. Hence, statement (4)
districts in the northern part of the state of Tamil Nadu is correct.
in southeastern India.
Anai Mudi, hills in eastern Kerala state, southwestern 39. (b)
India. Located in the Western Ghats range, it rises to
Explanation:
8,842 feet and is peninsular India’s highest peak.
Ukraine’s international border is 4,345 miles (about
Seshachalam Hills are part of the eastern ghats in
6992.6 km) in length and is shared with the following seven
southern Andhra pradesh state, in southeastern India.
The Seshachalam hill ranges are predominantly present countries:
in Annamayya and Tirupati Districts of the Rayalaseema Moldova Russia Romania
region in Andhra Pradesh, India. Poland Slovakia
Hungary Belarus
Hills Location
Satmala Hills: Maharashtra
Javadi hills Tamil Nadu
Anai Mudi Kerala
Seshachalam Hills Andhra Pradesh
Hence, option (b) is correct.
37. (a)
Explanation:
In the Northern Hemisphere the summer solstice occurs
on June 20 or 21 and the winter solstice on December
21 or 22.
The situation is exactly the opposite in the Southern
Hemisphere, where the seasons are reversed. At the
winter solstice the day is the year’s shortest, and at the
summer solstice it is the year’s longest.
In the Southern Hemisphere the winter solstice occurs
on June 20 or 21 and the summer solstice on December
21 or 22. Hence, option (b) is correct.
40. (b)
38. (b)
Explanation:
Explanation:
Hydroelectricity accounts for about 11% of total
Manganese is an important raw material for smelting
of iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferro alloys. installed electricity. Hence, statement (1) is not
Hence, statement (1) is correct. correct.
Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological India’s exploitable hydro-electric potential in terms of
formations; however, it is mainly associated with installed capacity is estimated to be about 1,48,700 MW.
Dharwar system. Hence, statement (2) is correct. Hence, statement (2) is correct.

Most of the sites suitable for generating hydroelectricity
are located away from consuming centers because of
which a lot of energy is wasted in transmission.
The hydroelectric power generation in India started at
the end of 19th century with the commissioning of a
hydroelectric power plant in 1897 to supply electricity
to Darjeeling. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
41. (b)
Explanation: Arecanut- Plant and Bunch ready for Harvest
Karnataka is the third largest producer and accounts
for nearly 13.72% of iron ore production in the country.
Hence, statement (1) is correct.
Baba Budan hills- lying in the Chikmanglur district of
Karnataka. Harvested bunch, single fruit and nuts
Kudremukh deposits – Iron ore deposits lie in
Chikmanglur district of Karnataka. 43. (a)
Jharkhand has 25% of iron ore reserves and accounts Explanation:
for about 11.1% of total production of iron ore in the
Reservoirs Dam
country.
Rana Pratap Sagar Rajasthan
The famous mines are Noamandi, Daltenganj. Hence,
Tilaiya Jharkhand
Panchet Jharkhand
Export:
Ramagundam Telangana
India is 5th largest exporter of iron ore in the world.
About 55% of India’s total iron ore exported to Japan,
Ghataprabha Karnataka
south Korea, Iran and other gulf countries. Hence,
statement (3) is not correct.
42. (c)
Explanation:
It is a tropical crop generally known as betel nut
Originated in Madagascar.
The Arecanut palm is the source of common chewing
nut, popularly known as betel nut or Supari.
In India it is extensively used by large sections of people
and is very much linked with religious practices.
India is the largest producer of Arecanut and at the
same time largest consumer also.
Major states cultivating this crop are Karnataka (40%),
Kerala (25%), Assam (20%), Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya
and west Bengal. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Indonesia is the top exporter of Aarecanut and Thailand
is the top importer.

44. (c) the police station, asked Barua to stop, she replied,
“You do your duty and I’ll do mine,” and
Explanation:
continued her march. Soon after, she was shot down
Iramavataram/Ramavataram: Most famous Tamil
by the firing squad.
version of Ramayana, written by Kamban, 12th century
literary work. Hence, pair (1) is correctly matched. Â AV Kuttimalu Amma was one of the most
Ramachandracharita Purana: Jaina version of Lord prominent leaders of the Quit India Movement in
Rama story, written by Nagachandra or Abhinava Kerala. When the government banned the magazine
Pampa in Kannada. Hence, pair (2) is not correctly Mathrubhumi, for publishing an article of a British
matched. soldiers misbehaving with local women, Amma led
Panchratra: Based on the epic Mahabharata, Sanskrit a procession of women, demanding the government
drama written by Bhasa. Hence, pair (3) is correctly to uplift the ban. Hence, pair (2) is not correctly
matched. matched.
Lilavati: prabandham: Love story of Kadamba prince
and a beautiful princess, 12th century Kannada literary 46. (b)
work in mixed verse and prose written by Neminath/ Explanation:
Nemichandra (court poet of Veera Ballal II). Hence, In the centuries between 1400 and 1800 visitors to India
pair (4) is correctly matched. wrote several travelogues in Persian.
Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi: He visited South India
45. (c)
in the 1440s. He was the ambassador of Shahrukh,
Explanation: ruler of Timurid dynasty of Persia. He described the
Quit India Movement (also known as the Bharat Chhoro life and events in Calicut under the Zamorin and the
Andolan) launched on 09 Aug 1942 at the Bombay city of Vijayanagara during the reign of Deva Raya
session of the All-India Congress Committee with the II. He wrote the book- ‘Matla-us-Sadain wa Majma-
slogan of ‘Do or Die’ by Mahatma Gandhi. ul-Bahrain’ or ‘The Rise of the Two auspicious
Some of the most prominent women leaders who played constellations and the Confluence of the Two
a big role in the Quit India Movement are: Oceans’.
Â Aruna Asaf Ali also known as the Grand Old Lady Francois Bernier: A Frenchman, he was a doctor,
of the Indian freedom struggle, hoisted the political philosopher and historian. He came to the
tricolour Indian flag at the Gowalia Tank Maidan Mughal Empire in search of opportunities. He was in
in 1942. When the British police led a search against India for twelve years, from 1656 to 1668, and was
her, she went into hiding and led the movement by closely associated with the Mughal court, as a physician
starting an underground radio station, as well as to Prince Dara Shukoh, the eldest son of Emperor
seditious magazine called ‘Inquilab.’ Hence, pair Shah Jahan, and later as an intellectual and scientist,
(3) is correctly matched. with Danishmand Khan, an Armenian noble at the
Â Matangini Hazra: 73-year-old woman from Mughal court.
Midnapore, West Bengal, led over 6,000 freedom Peter Mundy: He visited India during the reign of
fighters to ransack the Tamluk police station on 29 Emperor Shah Jahan. He mentioned about the severe
Sept 1942. When the police retaliated by firing, she famine that occurred during 1630-32. He also
continued her procession, with her head (and the described the socio- economic system of India during
National Flag) held high, despite being battered by the Mughal period.
bullets. She died, chanting ‘Vande Mataram.’ Hence, option (b) is correct.
Hence, pair (1) is correctly matched.
47. (c)
Â Kanaklata Barua was 17-year-old lady from
Gohpur, Assam. She led an army of 5,000 people Explanation:
and unfurled the tricolour flag at the police station. Unlike stone or shell, that are found naturally, faience
When Rebati Mahan Som, who was in-charge of is a material that is artificially produced.

A gum was used to shape sand or powdered quartz into 49. (b)
an object.
Explanation:
The objects were then glazed, resulting in a shiny, glassy
The city of Mandu is located 60 miles from Indore.
surface. The colours of the glaze were usually blue or
Mandu’s natural defence encouraged habitations by
sea green.
Paramara, Rajputs, Afghans and Mughals.
Faience was used to make beads, bangles, earrings, and
As the capital city of Ghauri Dynasty (1401-1561),
tiny vessels. Hence, option (c) is correct.
founded by Hoshang Shah, it acquired a lot of fame.
48. (d) Hence, statement (1) is correct, and statement (2) is
not correct.
Explanation:
It was associated with the romance of Sultan Baz
Samkhya school: Literally, ‘count’, represents that the
Bahadur and Rani Rupmati.
presence of divine agency is not essential to the
Mandu represents a typical medieval provincial style of
creation of the world. The world owes its creation and
evolution to Prakriti and Purusha. According to this art and architecture. Pathan architecture of Mandu is
school, a person can attain salvation through the regarded as too close to the structures of Imperial
acquisition of real knowledge and his misery can be Delhi to make a bold statement of local traditions.
ended forever. This knowledge can be acquired through Hence, statement (3) is correct.
perception (pratyaksha), inference (anumana) and words Some notable architectures of Mandu are- Royal
(shabda). Such a method is typical of a scientific system Enclave, Hindola Mahal, Jahaaz Mahal, Asharfi
of inquiry. Hence, option (a) is not correct. Mahal, Jama Masjid.
Vaisheshika school: This school gives importance to
50. (b)
the discussion of material elements or dravya. They
draw a line between particularities and their aggregate. Explanation:
Earth, water, fire, air and sky, when combined give Ellora Caves:
rise to new objects. The Vaisheshika propounded the Located in Aurangabad, Maharashtra. it has
“Atom theory”. The Vaisheshika thus marked the monasteries associated with the three religions dating
beginning of physics in India. But the scientific view from the fifth century CE onwards to the eleventh
was diluted with belief in God and spiritualism and this century CE.
school put its faith in both heaven and salvation. Hence, It has 32 Buddhist, Brahmanical and Jain caves. It is
option (b) is not correct. also unique in terms of stylistic eclecticism, i.e.,
Nyaya school: This school developed as a system of confluence of many styles at one place.
logic. According to it salvation can be attained through There are 12 Buddhist caves having images belonging
the acquisition of knowledge. The veracity of proposition to Vajrayana Buddhism like Tara, Mahamayuri,
can be tested through inference, hearing and analogy. Avalokiteshwara, Maitreyi, Amitabha etc. Buddhist
The stress laid on the use of logic influenced Indian caves are big in size and are of single, double and triple
scholars who took to systematic thinking and reasoning. storeys. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Mimansa school: Literally means the art of reasoning Ajanta Caves:
and interpretation. According to this school, the Vedas Located in Aurangabad district. It has 29 caves. It
contain the eternal truth. The principal object of this has large chaitya- viharas and is decorated with
philosophy was to acquire heaven and salvation. A sculptures and paintings.
person will enjoy the bliss of heaven as long as his Ajanta is the only surviving example of painting of
accumulated acts of virtue last. To attain salvation, this the first century BCE and the fifth century CE. Mara
school strongly recommends the performance of Vijaya is the only sculptural representation sculpted
sacrifices, which needed the services of the priests and on Cave No. 26.
legitimised the social distance between various varnas. The important patrons at Ajanta were Varahadeva, the
Hence, option (d) is correct. prime minister of the Vakataka king, Harishena.

Some notable paintings here are- Simhala Avadana, Bengal, other than having a huge Muslim population,
Mahajanaka Jataka, Vidhurpundita Jataka, was also the place which, according to historians, “saw
Ummagga Jataka. Hence, option (b) is correct. the first articulation of political consciousness”
Elephanta Caves: among them.
Located near Mumbai. These caves were originally a 52. (a)
Buddhist site which was later dominated by the Shaivite
Explanation:
faith.
Machilipatnam/Masulipatnam, city in Andhra Pradesh.
It is contemporary with Ellora, and its sculptures
It was the first British trading settlement (1611). From
show slenderness in the body, with stark light and
1686 to 1759 the city was held by the French and
dark effects.
Dutch, until it was finally ceded to the British, who
Most notable image of this cave is the Maheshmurti
captured the city and fort from the French in 1759.
which dates to the early sixth century CE. Other notable
sculptures at Elephants are- Ardhanarishwara and the
In 1505, the King of Portugal appointed Francisco de
Gangadhara panel. Hence, option (c) is not correct. Almeida as the governor in India for a 3-year term.
Bagh Caves: Almeida vision was to make the Portuguese, the master
Located on the banks of the Baghani River in Madhya of Indian Ocean. To realise his vision, he formulated
Pradesh’s Dhar district. They are a collection of nine the policy known as the Blue Water Policy or the
rock-cut monuments. All of them are viharas with a “Cartaze System”. According to this, Portuguese were
quadrangular design. Cave 4, also known as the Rang to maintain maritime dominance over the Indian
Mahal, is the most important cave. Mural Paintings Ocean. Hence, statement (2) is not correct.
are well-known in Bagh Caves. Hence, option (d) is Alfonso de Albuquerque is considered as the real
not correct. founder of the Portuguese power in East. He
introduced the permit system. He captured Goa in 1510.
51. (c) In 1579, Akbar invited Jesuit missions. Jesuit fathers
Rudolf Aquaviva and Antonio Monserrate reached
Explanation:
Fatehpur Sikri and participated in religious discussions.
In 1946, fresh elections were held to the provincial
Hence, statement (3) is not correct.
legislatures. The Congress swept the ‘General’
category, but in the seats specifically reserved for
Muslims the All-India Muslim League won an 53. (a)
overwhelming majority.
Explanation:
However, the Cabinet Mission 1946 failed to bring the
The period between 700-1750AD was a period of great
Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim
mobility. Groups of people travelled in search of
League on the table as the Muslim League demanded
opportunities as the Indian subcontinent held immense
for the separate homeland for Muslims. wealth and possibilities for people to carve a fortune.
Therefore, Mohd. Ali Jinnah called for a “Direct
Therefore, new technologies like Persian wheel,
Action Day” on 16 August to press the League’s spinning wheel, firearms and new food and beverages
demand for Pakistan. Hence, statement (I) is correct, like potatoes, corn, chillies, tea and coffee were
and statement (II) is not correct. introduced along with these travellers. Hence, option
The day is also known as the ‘Great Calcutta Killings’ (a) is correct.
for the nationwide communal riots. Millet: The history of millet goes back as early as 3500-
The violence spread to rural Bengal, then to Bihar, 2000BC in the Korean peninsula. In India, food
then across the country to the United Provinces and history tracks back the mention of millets to some of
the Punjab. In some places, Muslims were the sufferers, the oldest Yajurveda texts. Hence, option (b) is not
in other place, Hindus. correct.

Rice and wheat: The cultivation of rice and wheat in Lagrange Points are positions in space where the
India dates to the Indus Valley Civilisation. Hence, gravitational forces of a two-body system like the Sun
options (c), (d) are not correct. and Earth produce enhanced regions of attraction and
repulsion. These can be used by spacecraft as “parking
54. (b)
spots” in space to remain in a fixed position with
Explanation: minimal fuel consumption. Hence, statement (II) is
Svante Paabo won Nobel prize for medicine or correct.
physiology for sequencing a region of mitochondrial A Satellite placed in the halo orbit around the L1 has
DNA from a 40,000-year-old piece of bone of the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun
Neanderthals. Thus, for the first time, we had access to without any occultation/ eclipses. The L1 point is home
a sequence from an extinct relative. Hence, statement to the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory Satellite
(2) is not correct. (SOHO), an international collaboration project of
Comparisons with contemporary humans and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
chimpanzees demonstrated that Neanderthals were and the European Space Agency (ESA).
genetically distinct. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
The study helped us establish that Neanderthals and
Homo sapiens interbred during their millennia of
coexistence. In modern day humans with European or
Asian descent, approximately 1-4% of the genome
originates from the Neanderthals
DNA is localized in two different compartments in the
cell: Nuclear DNA and Mitochondrial DNA. Nuclear
DNA harbors most of the genetic information, while
the much smaller mitochondrial genome is present in
thousands of copies.
After death, DNA is degraded over time and ultimately
56. (d)
only small amounts remain. It also becomes contaminated
with DNA from e.g., bacteria and contemporary humans. Explanation:
Hence, statement (3) is correct. Web 4.0 is also known as the Symbiotic web. It will
aim at the interaction between humans and machines in
55. (a) symbiosis. Humans and machines will have a symbiotic
Explanation: relationship, where machines will be capable of
Aditya-L1 is the first space-based observatory class learning from human interactions and providing
Indian solar mission to study the Sun from a substantial insights that can assist in decision-making.
distance of 1.5 million kilometers. It will take The symbiotic web will facilitate the development of
approximately 125 days to reach the L1 point. autonomous, proactive, content-exploring systems.
Aditya-L1 is also ISRO’s second astronomy observatory- These systems will be driven by self-learning,
class mission after Astro Sat (2015). Hence, statement collaborative, and content-generating agents based
(I) is correct. on fully matured semantics.
Aditya L1 was launched using the Polar Satellite The symbiotic web will also be the platform for
Launch Vehicle (PSLV) with 7 payloads (instruments) reasoning technologies as well as AI. AI will be
on board. It will study the Sun’s corona, Sun’s leveraged to automate processes, generate insights, and
photosphere, chromosphere, solar emissions, solar drive decision-making. The AI-driven automation will
winds and flares, and Coronal Mass Ejections be fueled by deep learning models and natural language
(CMEs), and will carry out round-the-clock imaging of processing.
the Sun. Hence, option (d) is correct.

57. (a) However, to be accurate, the red shifts observed in
distant objects are not exactly due to the Doppler
Explanation:
phenomenon but are rather a result of the expansion
The BrahMos missile, an Indo-Russian joint venture,
of the Universe.
is the fastest cruise missile in the world with a top
Doppler shifts arise from the relative motion of
speed of Mach 2.8 (nearly three times the speed of
source and observer through space, whereas astronomical
sound). BrahMos is named after the rivers Brahmaputra
redshifts are ‘expansion red shifts’ due to the expansion
(India) and Moskva (Russia). Hence, statement (1) is
of space itself.
not correct.
Two objects can actually be stationary in space and still
It is a two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first
experience a red shift if the intervening space itself is
stage and liquid ramjet in second) missile. It is a
expanding.
multiplatform missile i.e., it can be launched from land,
Red shift phenomena is the reason why The James
air, and sea and multi capability missile with pinpoint
Webb Space Telescope works in near-infrared and
accuracy that works in both day and night irrespective
mid-infrared wavelengths. Hence, option (a) is correct.
of the weather conditions. Hence, statement (2) is not
correct. 59. (b)
The range of the missile was earlier capped at 290 km
to adhere to obligations of the Missile Technology Explanation:
ORS, a combination of water, glucose, and salts, is a
Control Regime (MTCR). Following India’s entry in
MTCR in 2016, it was decided to extend the range to simple and cost-effective method of preventing
450 km initially and to 600 km at a later stage. dehydration. It does not have protein. Hence,
It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle i.e., it
ORS is an alternative to intravenous rehydration therapy
does not require further guidance after launch. Hence,
statement (3) is correct. for preventing and treating dehydration from diarrhea
when intravenous therapy is not available or feasible.
Oral rehydration therapy has been estimated by the
World Health Organization (WHO) to have saved the
lives of over 60 million persons. Dr Dilip Mahalanabis,
who pioneered Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS)
treatment as a simple, effective remedy for dehydration
has passed away.
Dr Mahalanabis was working in overflowing refugee
camps during the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation war when
he came up with ORS. From 1975 to 1979, Dr
Mahalanabis worked in cholera control for WHO in
Afghanistan, Egypt and Yemen.
58. (a)
Explanation: 60. (b)
Redshift is a key concept for astronomers. The term Explanation:
can be understood literally- the wavelength of the light Tuberculosis is a highly contagious bacterial infection
is stretched, so the light is seen as ‘shifted’ towards caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It primarily
the red part of the electromagnetic spectrum. affects the lungs but can also target other organs, making
Something similar happens to sound waves when the it a potentially life-threatening disease if left untreated.
source of sound moves relative to an observer. This TB is transmitted through the inhalation of tiny airborne
effect is called the ‘Doppler effect’. In this, the droplets containing the bacteria, usually when an
frequency of sound waves changes if the source of sound infected person coughs or sneezes. Hence, statement
and the observer are moving relative to each other. (1) is not correct, and statement (2) is correct.

Symptoms of TB include persistent cough, chest pain, Quantum biocomputers are another emerging area,
fatigue, weight loss, fever, and night sweats. While TB combining the principles of quantum mechanics with
can be latent and asymptomatic, it can become active biological systems. Quantum bits (qubits) are
and cause severe illness if the immune system weakens, implemented using quantum states in biological
often due to factors like HIV infection, malnutrition, or molecules, which can potentially perform calculations
certain medications. at unprecedented speeds.
Efforts to combat TB include early detection through Biocomputers hold promise for various applications,
diagnostic tests like chest X-rays and sputum analysis, including medical diagnosis and treatment,
followed by appropriate antibiotic treatment, environmental monitoring, and data storage. They offer
typically a combination of drugs taken for several
the advantage of energy efficiency and compatibility
months. Completing the full treatment regimen is
with biological systems, making them suitable for
crucial to prevent drug-resistant TB strains from
multiple applications. Hence, option (b) is correct.
emerging.
TB remains a global health concern, with a significant 62. (b)
burden in developing countries. Initiatives like the
World Health Organization’s (WHO) End TB Strategy Explanation:
aim to reduce TB incidence and mortality worldwide. Rare earth elements (REEs) are a group of 17 chemical
Vaccination with the Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) elements in the periodic table. Despite their name,
vaccine is also a preventive measure, although its these elements are not particularly rare in terms of
effectiveness varies. Bedaquiline and Delamanid are abundance in the Earth’s crust, but they are often
used for treatment of drug resistant TB. Hence, dispersed and not commonly found in concentrated
statement (3) is correct. ores, making their extraction challenging and costly.
Their presence has been confirmed on other celestial
61. (b) objects in space as well. The group includes elements
Explanation: such as lanthanum, cerium, neodymium, and yttrium,
Scientists at Johns Hopkins University (JHU) recently among others. Hence, statement (1) and (2) are not
outlined a plan for a potentially revolutionary new area correct.
of research called “organoid intelligence”, which aims China has dominated the global production of REEs for
to create “biocomputers”, where brain cultures grown several years, accounting for a significant portion of the
in the lab are coupled to real-world sensors and input/ world’s supply. About 38 percent of world production
output devices. of REEs is in China, 33 percent was in the United
Biocomputers represent a cutting-edge field at the States, 12 percent was in Australia. This has raised
intersection of biology and computer science, where concerns about the supply chain security and geopolitical
biological molecules or living organisms are utilized to tensions, as these elements are critical for many strategic
perform computational tasks. These systems have the
industries. Efforts are being made to diversify the
potential to revolutionize computing due to their unique
sources of REEs and to promote recycling and
attributes.
sustainable mining practices to reduce reliance on a
One key component of biocomputers is DNA computing,
single supplier. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
which employs the remarkable storage capacity and
REEs are crucial in a wide range of modern technologies
parallel processing capabilities of DNA molecules.
Researchers use DNA strands to encode and process due to their unique properties. They are essential
information, solving complex problems more components in the manufacturing of various high-tech
efficiently than traditional computers in some cases. products, including smartphones, computer hard drives,
Biological components like proteins and enzymes can LED lights, and electric vehicle batteries. Additionally,
also be harnessed for computation. Enzyme-based logic they play a pivotal role in defense applications like
gates and circuits can process information within living missile guidance systems and radar. So, their use is not
organisms, potentially enabling applications in restricted to production of agricultural fertilizers. Hence,
biotechnology and medicine. statement (4) is not correct.

63. (b) Mitochondria are tiny energy-producing structures
within cells, each containing a small amount of genetic
Explanation:
A SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket launched the Tropospheric
material. When mitochondrial DNA mutations occur,
Emissions Monitoring of Pollution (TEMPO) they can lead to severe health issues.
instrument from Florida. MRT involves the nucleus of an egg or embryo from
TEMPO is a NASA device that can track air pollution the intended mother being transferred into a donor egg
over North America from space. It will allow scientists with healthy mitochondria. This donor egg, now
to monitor air pollutants and their emission sources containing nuclear DNA from the mother and
down to the neighborhood level. Hence, statement (1) mitochondrial DNA from the donor, is then fertilized
is correct, and statement (2) is not correct. with sperm.
The TEMPO instrument is a grating spectrometer, As a result, the child inherits their nuclear DNA
sensitive to visible and ultraviolet wavelengths of (which contains the majority of their genetic information)
light. Hence, statement (3) is correct. from both parents and the mitochondrial DNA from the
third, healthy donor. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Features:
TEMPO is hosted on an Intelsat communications
satellite in geostationary orbit.
It will be able to measure atmospheric pollution down
to a spatial resolution of 4 square miles or neighborhood
level.
Applications and Importance:
TEMPO will have multiple applications from measuring
levels of various pollutants to providing air quality
forecasts and helping the development of emission-
control strategies
More than 40% of the US population live in places
with unhealthy levels of particle pollution or ozone, 65. (a)
and air pollution is blamed for some 60,000 premature
deaths a year. Explanation:
Generic drugs are pharmaceutical products that are
64. (a) nearly identical to brand-name medications in terms
of their active ingredients, safety, efficacy, and quality.
Explanation:
The term “three-parent baby” is associated with a
They provide a cost-effective alternative to brand-name
groundbreaking reproductive technique known as drugs and play a critical role in modern healthcare.
mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) or Hence, statement (2) is not correct.
mitochondrial donation. In this procedure, genetic Active Ingredients: Generic drugs contain the same
material from three individuals is utilized to create a active ingredients as their brand-name counterparts.
child with the aim of preventing the transmission of These active ingredients are responsible for the drug’s
mitochondrial diseases. therapeutic effects.
This procedure aims to prevent the transmission of Definition: Presently there is no definition of generic
mitochondrial diseases from the mother to the child, or branded drugs under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act
resulting in a baby with genetic contributions from both 1940 and Rules 1945. Hence, statement (1) is not
parents and the mitochondrial DNA from a third donor. correct.
It works on the principle in which the diseased Safety and Efficacy: Generic drugs undergo rigorous
mitochondria are replaced by healthy mitochondria testing and must meet stringent quality and safety
to avoid transfer of mitochondrial diseases from mother standards. They are considered just as safe and effective
to the offspring. as brand-name drugs.

Cost Savings: Generic drugs are typically more Lab-grown diamonds offer several advantages over natural
affordable than brand-name drugs. This cost diamonds:
difference arises because generic drug manufacturers Cost-Effective: They are generally more affordable than
do not incur the high research and development their natural counterparts.
expenses that brand-name manufacturers do. Ethical and Sustainable: Lab-grown diamonds are not
Accessibility: Generic drugs are widely available and associated with the environmental and ethical concerns
prescribed by healthcare professionals. They are often linked to diamond mining.
dispensed by mainstream pharmacies and can be Customization: They can be produced in various sizes,
obtained through insurance plans, making essential shapes, and colors, allowing for customization in jewelry
medications more accessible to a broader population.
design.
Generic drugs are usually produced by different
Traceability: The production process of lab-grown
pharmaceutical companies than those that developed
diamonds is traceable and transparent.
and market the brand-name drugs. Hence, statement
(3) is not correct. 67. (c)
Regulation: Government regulatory agencies oversee
the approval and manufacturing processes for generic Explanation:
drugs to ensure their quality and safety. This regulatory GNP = GDP + Factor income earned by the domestic
oversight ensures that generic drugs meet the same factors of production employed in the rest of the
rigorous standards as brand-name drugs. world – Factor income earned by the factors of
Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pari Yojana aims production of the rest of the world employed in the
to popularize generic medicines among the masses domestic economy.
and dispel the prevalent notion that low priced generic Therefore, it includes the wages of Indian citizen and
medicines are of inferior quality or are less effective. income from the factor of Production owned by Indian
Hence, statement (4) is correct. citizens abroad. It excludes the income of foreigners
earned in India. Hence, statement (1) and (2) are
66. (c)
correct.
Explanation: Hence, GNP = GDP + Net factor income from abroad
Lab-grown diamonds are produced using advanced (Net factor income from abroad = Factor income earned
technological processes that mimic the conditions by the domestic factors of production employed in the
under which natural diamonds are formed deep within rest of the world – Factor income earned by the factors
the Earth’s mantle. As a result, they have the same of production of the rest of the world employed in the
chemical composition and virtually identical physical domestic economy).
properties as natural diamonds. This makes them A part of the capital gets consumed during the year due
indistinguishable from natural diamonds to the naked to wear and tear. This wear and tear are called
eye and traditional gemological testing. Hence, depreciation.
statement (I) is correct.
Naturally, depreciation does not become part of
Lab-grown diamonds are not chemically distinct from
anybody’s income. If we deduct depreciation from GNP
natural diamonds, and they share similar properties.
the measure of aggregate income that we obtain is called
Both natural and lab-grown diamonds are primarily
Net National Product (NNP). Thus NNP = GNP –
composed of carbon atoms, and lab-grown diamonds
Depreciation.
typically use carbon as their carbon source.
Lab-grown diamonds are often considered more 68. (b)
environmentally friendly than natural diamonds due to
reduced environmental impact related to mining. Their Explanation:
production typically consumes less energy and generates The ratio of nominal to real GDP is a well-known index
fewer carbon emissions, making them a more sustainable of prices. This is called GDP Deflator. Thus, if GDP
choice for consumers concerned about environmental stands for nominal GDP and gdp stands for real GDP
issues. Hence, statement (II) is not correct. then, GDP deflator = GDP/ gdp.

CPI or Consumer price index is the index of prices of rather than spending or investing it even when interest
a given basket of commodities which are bought by the rates are low, stymying efforts by economic policymakers
representative consumer. CPI is generally expressed to stimulate economic growth. Hence, option (d) is
in percentage terms. correct.
Difference between CPI and GDP deflator: In other words, with an increased supply of money in
The goods purchased by consumers do not represent all the economy the price you have to pay for holding
the goods which are produced in a country. GDP deflator money balance, viz. the rate of interest, should come
takes into account all such goods and services. down. However, if the market rate of interest is
CPI includes prices of goods consumed by the already low enough so that everybody expects it to rise
representative consumer; hence it includes prices of in future, causing capital losses, nobody will wish to
imported goods. GDP deflator does not include prices hold bonds.
of imported goods. Hence, option (b) is correct. Everyone in the economy will hold their wealth in
The weights are constant in CPI – but they differ money balance and if additional money is injected
according to production level of each good in GDP within the economy, it will be used up to satiate people’s
deflator. craving for money balances without increasing the
demand for bonds and without further lowering the
69. (a) rate of interest below the floor min. Such a situation is
Explanation: called a liquidity trap. The speculative money demand
RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of function is infinitely elastic here.
money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3 and M4. They are
71. (d)
defined as follows
Â M1 = CU + DD (where, CU is currency notes plus Explanation:
coins held by the public and DD is net demand The total liability of the monetary authority of the
deposits held by commercial banks.) Hence, country, RBI, is called the monetary base or high-
statement (1) is correct. powered money.
Â M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office It consists of currency (notes and coins in circulation
savings banks with the public and vault cash of commercial banks)
Â M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks
and deposits held by the Government of India and
commercial banks with RBI. Hence, option (d) is
Â M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings
correct.
organizations (excluding National Savings
RBI regulates money supply by controlling the stock of
Certificates)
high-powered money, the bank rate and reserve
Â M1 and M2 are known as narrow money.
requirements of the commercial banks.
Â M3 and M4 are known as broad money. These
measures are in decreasing order of liquidity. Hence, 72. (a)
Explanation:
Â M1 is the most liquid and easiest for transactions Along with the budget, three policy statements are
whereas M4 is the least liquid of all. Hence, mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
statement (2) is not correct. Management (FRBM) Act, 2003.
Â M3 is the most used measure of money supply. It is The Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement sets a
also known as aggregate monetary resources. three-year rolling target for specific fiscal indicators
and examines whether revenue expenditure can be
70. (d) financed through revenue receipts on a sustainable basis
Explanation: and how productively capital receipts including market
A liquidity trap is an adverse economic situation that borrowings are being utilized. Hence, statement (1) is
can occur when consumers and investors hoard cash not correct.

The Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement sets the Invisibles include services, transfers and flows of
priorities of the government in the fiscal area, income that take place between different countries and
examining current policies and justifying any deviation are part of current account transactions. Hence,
in important fiscal measures. Hence, statement (2) is statement (1) is not correct.
correct.
The Macroeconomic Framework Statement assesses 75. (c)
the prospects of the economy with respect to the GDP Explanation:
growth rate, fiscal balance of the central government LIBOR
and external balance. Hence, statement (3) is not The London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) is a
correct.
benchmark interest rate at which major global banks
73. (b) lend to one another in the international interbank market
for short-term loans. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
Explanation:
LIBOR is the benchmark interest rate at which major
Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s
global banks lend to one another, determines the
total expenditure and its total receipts excluding
borrowing cost between banks.
borrowing.
LIBOR is administered by the Intercontinental
Gross fiscal deficit = Total expenditure – (Revenue
Exchange, which asks major global banks how much
receipts + non-debt creating capital receipts); Hence,
statement (1) is not correct. they would charge other banks for short-term loans.
Primary Deficit is simply the fiscal deficit minus the The rate is calculated using the Waterfall Methodology,
interest payments. a standardized, transaction-based, data-driven, layered
Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit - Interest payment; method.
Hence, statement (2) is correct. LIBOR has been subject to manipulation, scandal, and
Revenue Deficit: The revenue deficit refers to the methodological critique, making it less credible today
excess of government’s revenue expenditure over as a benchmark rate.
revenue receipts. Revenue deficit = Revenue LIBOR is being replaced by the Secured Overnight
expenditure – Revenue receipts Financing Rate (SOFR) on June 30, 2023, with phase-
out of its use beginning after 2021. Hence, statement
74. (c)
(2) is correct.
Explanation: RBI asks banks to ensure complete transition from
Capital Account records all international transactions LIBOR by July 2023. It will be replaced by SOFR.
of assets. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
An asset is any one of the forms in which wealth can
SOFR
be held, for example: money, stocks, bonds, Government
The Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR) is a
debt, etc. Purchase of assets is a debit item on the capital
benchmark interest rate for dollar-denominated
account.
derivatives and loans that is replacing the London
If an Indian buys a US Car Company, it enters capital
account transactions as a debit item (as foreign exchange Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR).
is flowing out of India). Hence, statement (2) is correct. SOFR is based on transactions in the Treasury
On the other hand, sale of assets like sale of share of an repurchase market and is seen as preferable to LIBOR
Indian company to a Chinese customer is a credit item since it is based on data from observable transactions
on the capital account. Hence, statement (3) is correct. rather than on estimated borrowing rates.
Items like Foreign Direct Investments (FDIs), Foreign While SOFR is becoming the benchmark rate for dollar-
Institutional Investments (FIIs), external borrowings denominated derivatives and loans, other countries have
and assistance are part of capital account transaction. sought their own alternative rates, such as SONIA and
Hence, statement (4) is correct. EONIA.

76. (c) It also improves the marketing of marine products
outside India.
Explanation:
The Economist Intelligence Unit released its 2023 79. (a)
report on global liveability index, placing Austria’s
capital Vienna as the top ranked city to live in 2023. Explanation:
With 189 member countries, the World Bank Group is
Hence, option (c) is correct.
a unique global partnership: five institutions working
It rates living conditions in 173 cities across five
for sustainable solutions that reduce poverty and build
categories: stability, health care, culture and
shared prosperity in developing countries.
environment, education and infrastructure.
International Bank for Reconstruction and
New Delhi and Mumbai are at 141st position and
Development (IBRD) provides loans, credits, and
Chennai at 144th. Ahmedabad and Bengaluru are ranked
grants.
147 and 148, respectively.
International Development Association (IDA)
77. (c) provides low- or no-interest loans to low-income
countries.
Explanation: The International Finance Corporation (IFC)
Effects of increased Inflation: provides investment, advice, and asset management to
Inflation raises prices, lowering your purchasing power. companies and governments.
With every inflation the currency of the economy The Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA) insures
depreciates. Hence, statement (1) is correct. lenders and investors against political risk such as war.
Inflation also lowers the values of pensions, savings, The International Centre for the Settlement of
and Treasury notes. Investment Disputes (ICSID) settles investment
Inflation leads to a reduction in exports because goods disputes between investors and countries. India is not
and services become more expensive for buyers. Hence, a member of ICSID. Hence option (a) is correct.
Assets such as real estate and collectibles usually keep 80. (d)
up with inflation. Explanation:
Variable interest rates on loans increase during inflation. National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission
(NIPAM), launched in 2021, has achieved the target of
78. (c)
imparting Intellectual Property (IP) awareness and basic
Explanation: training to 1 million students. Hence, statement (1) is
The Marine Products Export Development Authority not correct.
(MPEDA) was set up by an act of Parliament during It aims to inculcate the spirit of creativity and
1972 under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. innovation to students of higher education (classes 8
Hence, statement (1) is correct. to 12) and ignite and inspire the students at college/
The erstwhile Marine Products Export Promotion Universities to innovate and protect their creations.
Council established by the Government of India in The program is being implemented by the Intellectual
September 1961 was converted into MPEDA on 24th Property Office, the Office of Controller General of
August 1972. Patents, Designs and Trademarks (CGPDTM), Ministry
The Marine Products Export Development Authority of Commerce and Industry. Hence, statement (2) is
under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is a not correct.
statutory body entrusted with the primary task of
promotion of export of marine products. Hence, 81. (c)
statement (2) is correct. Explanation:
It has the authority to fix the standards and specifications MSP is the minimum support price. It was first
for marine products for export purposes. Hence, introduced in the 1965-66 season (July-June) for wheat,
statement (3) is correct. and it now covers 23 crops.

The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the
(CACP) recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops Company’s territories in India.
and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India
sugarcane. for the purpose of enlightening the people.
CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Charter Act of 1853:
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It separated for the first time, the legislative and
The CACP projects three kinds of production cost for executive functions of the Governor- General’s
every crop, both at state and all-India average levels. council.
‘A2’: Covers all paid-out costs directly incurred by the It introduced an open competition system of election
farmer in cash and kind on seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and recruitment of civil servants. The covenanted civil
hired labour, leased-in land, fuel, irrigation, etc. Hence, service was, thus, thrown open to the Indians also.
statement (1), (2) and (3) are correct. Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee
‘A2+FL’: Includes A2 plus an imputed value of unpaid on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854.
family labour. Hence, statement (4) is correct. Indian Council Act of 1861:
‘C2’: It is a more comprehensive cost that factors in It made the beginning of the representative institutions
rentals and interest forgone on owned land and fixed by associating Indians with the law- making process.
capital assets, on top of A2+FL. Hence, statement (5) It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring
is not correct. the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras
The government considers A2+ FL as production cost. Presidencies.
CACP reckons only A2+FL cost for return. It also gave a recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system,
However, C2 costs are used by CACP primarily as introduced by Lord Canning in 1859.
benchmark reference costs (opportunity costs) to see if Hence, option (c) is correct.
the MSPs recommended by them at least covers these
costs in some of the major producing States. 83. (c)
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) Explanation:
of the Union government takes a final decision on the The Amara-nayaka system was a major political
level of MSPs and other recommendations made by innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire.
CACP. It is likely that many features of this system were
derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate.
82. (c) Hence, statement (1) is correct.
Explanation: The Amara-nayakas were military commanders who
Charter Act of 1833: were given territories to govern by the Raya. Hence,
It made the Governor- General of Bengal as the statement (2) is correct.
Governor- General of India and vested in him all civil They collected taxes and other dues from peasants,
and military powers. craftspeople and traders in the area. They retained part
It attempted to introduce a system of open competition
of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a
stipulated contingent of horses and elephants.
for selection of civil servants and stated that the Indians
These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings
should not be debarred from holding any place, office
with an effective fighting force with which they
and employment under the Company. However, this
brought the entire southern peninsula under their
provision was negated after opposition from the Court
control. Some of the revenue was also used for the
of Directors.
maintenance of temples and irrigation works. Hence,
Charter Act of 1813: statement (3) is correct.
It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in The Amara-nayakas sent tribute to the king annually
India. However, the monopoly over trade in tea and and personally appeared in the royal court with gifts
trade with China was retained with the company. to express their loyalty.

Kings occasionally asserted their control over them by In this Chola period
transferring them from one place to another. bronze sculptures, he has
However, during the 17 th century, many of these been shown balancing
nayakas established independent kingdoms. This himself on his right leg
hastened the collapse of the central imperial structure. and suppressing the
‘Apasmara’ also known
84. (d) as ‘Muyalaka’, the
Explanation: demon of ignorance or
Sanchi is a world heritage forgetfulness, with the
site in Madhya Pradesh. foot of the same leg.
Originally the stupa was a At the same time, he
small brick structure raises his left leg in ‘Bhujangatrasita’ stance, which
which expanded over a represents ‘Tirobhava’, that is kicking away the veil
period and was covered with of maya or illusion from the devotee’s mind.
stone, Vedika (outer wall) His four arms are outstretched, and the main right hand
and the Torana (gateways). is posed in ‘Abhaya hasta’ or the gesture suggesting.
Along with other relatively The upper right holds the Damaru, his favourite
small stupas, there are three musical instrument to keep on the beat tala.
main stupas at Sanchi. The upper left hand carries a flame while the main
Stupa-1 is presumed to have the relics of the Buddha. left hand is held in Dola hasta and connects with the
Stupa-2 has the relics of ten less famous arhats ‘Abhaya hasta’ of the right hand.
(enlightened beings) belonging to three different His hair locks fly on both the sides touching the circular
generations. Their names are found on the relic casket. Jvala mala or the garland of flames which surrounds
S t u p a - 3 h a s t h e re l i c s o f S a r i p u t t a a n d the entire dancing figuration. Hence, option (b) is
Mahamougalayana. (Disciples of Buddha) correct.
Stupa-1, known for the carvings on its gateways is
86. (a)
one of the finest examples of stupa architecture.
This includes beautiful women swinging from the Explanation:
edge of the gateway, holding onto a tree. Padmanabhapuram Palace, an exemplar of Kerala
Initially, scholars were a bit intrigued about this image, architecture is listed in the tentative list of UNESCO
which seemed to have little to do with renunciation. World Heritage Sites.
However, after examining other literary traditions, they Padmanabhapuram Palace is an exceptional example
realised that it could be a representation of what is of traditional timber architecture with indigenous
described in Sanskrit as a Shalabhanjika. building techniques, a style unparalleled in the world
According to the popular belief, this was a woman and based on historic building system, Taccusastra (the
whose touch caused trees to flower and bear fruit. It science of carpentry) unique to Kerala. Hence, option
is likely that this was regarded as an auspicious (a) is correct.
symbol and integrated into the decoration of the Taccusastra bears the prescription for the function and
stupa. placement, direction, size and design of a structure
Shalabhanjika was a yakshi who served as the symbol and specifications for designated spaces within
of fertility. Hence, option (d) is correct. individual structures.
The 400-year-old palace complex, built between the
85. (b) 1590s and the early 1800s continues to be under the
Explanation: control of the Kerala government even after Kanyakumari
Shiva’s dancing position ‘Nataraja’ is associated with was annexed to Tamil Nadu in 1956 following the
the end of the cosmic world. reorganisation of the States.

The original name of Padmanabhapuram was interfaith awareness, bringing Hinduism to the world
Kalkulam. Dutch traveller John Nieuhoff, who had seen stage during the late 19th century.
the fortified town, had referred to the place as Kalkolang He established Ramakrishna Mission in 1897, named
in his book Voyages and Travels (1664). after his Guru Swami Ramakrishna Paramhansa.
Hence, option (c) is not correct.
He also represented India in the first Parliament of
Religion held in Chicago (U.S.) in 1893.
One of the most significant contributions of Swami
Vivekananda to the modern world is his interpretation
of religion as a universal experience of transcendent
Reality, common to all humanity.
89. (c)
Explanation:
During the Swadeshi Movement in India, which was
a significant phase of the Indian freedom struggle against
87. (a) British colonial rule. There were two ideologies that
evolved: moderates and extremists.
Explanation:
It’s important to note that while some leaders followed
Dhrupad and Khyal are two prominent gharanas
a moderate path of petition, prayer and protest,
(schools) within the Hindustani classical music others adopted more extremist or radical strategies of
tradition. boycott of foreign goods and non-cooperation during
The origin of Khyal music is indeed attributed to Amir the Swadeshi Movement.
Khusrau, who is credited with developing this style of
Moderate leaders of INC:
Indian classical music. Hence statement (1) is correct.
A.O. Hume
Although Dhrupad consolidated its position as a
W.C. Banerjee
classical form of music in the 13th century, it reached
Surendra Nath Banerjee
its zenith in the court of emperor Akbar.
Dadabhai Naoroji
In Khyal music, ‘taan’ (fast melodic runs) are given
Feroze Shah Mehta
significant importance, and they play a crucial role in Gopalakrishna Gokhale
the elaboration and ornamentation of the composition, Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
contrary to the statement’s implication. Badruddin Tyabji
Because of this, Alap is given much less room in the Justice Ranade
Khyal music as compared to Dhrupad. Hence statement G.Subramanya Aiyar
(2) is not correct.
Extremist leaders of INC:
However, Dhrupad starts with ‘Alap’ which is sung
Lala Lajpat Rai Ashwini Kumar Dutt
without words. The tempo rises gradually, and it is a
Bal Gangadhar Tilak Rajnaryan Bose
major part of the performance.
Bipin Chandra Pal Aurobindo Ghosh
88. (c) 90. (d)
Explanation: Explanation:
Swami Vivekananda was born as Narendra Nath
Sports Awarded in
Datta, on 12th January 1863. Awarded For
India
He was a monk and chief disciple of Ramakrishna
Paramhansa. Major Dhyan Chand Aw a r d e d f o r o u t s t a n d i n g
He introduced Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga Khel Ratna Award performances in sports spanning
to the Western world and is credited with raising over a period of four years.

Arjuna Award Given out for consistent good International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO)
performance over a period of four years. According to a report by IMEO, cutting methane
emissions is the fastest way to tackle climate change in
Dronacharya Award It is awarded to coaches for producing
the short-term.
medal winners at prestigious
An initiative by UNEP, launched in 2021, with support
international events.
from European Commission.
Major Dhyan Chand Presented for good performance and
Aim: To catalyse reduction of methane emissions,
Award contributing towards the promotion
starting with fossil fuel sector. Hence, statement (3) is
of sports.
not correct.
Maulana Abul Kalam Given to the university for top
India Greenhouse Gas programme:
Azad Trophy performance in inter-university
India Greenhouse Gas programme led by WRI India
tournaments over the last one year.
(non-profit organization), Confederation of Indian
Rashtriya Khel Awarded to organisations and
Industry (CII) and The Energy and Resources
Protsahan Puruskar individuals for playing a role in the
Institute (TERI) is an industry-led voluntary framework
area of sports promotion and
to measure and manage greenhouse gas emissions.
development over the three years.
The programme builds comprehensive measurement
Tenzing Norgay To recognise outstanding achievements and management strategies to reduce emissions and
National Adventure in the field of adventure activities or drive more profitable, competitive and sustainable
Award sports on land, sea and air. businesses and organizations in India. Hence, statement
Hence, option (d) is correct. (5) is correct.
91. (a) Global Methane Initiative (GMI)
It is an international public-private partnership
Explanation:
focused on reducing barriers to the recovery and use of
Global Methane Pledge (GMP)
methane as a clean energy source.
Recently, Australia joined GMP.
GMI provides technical support to deploy methane-
Launched at COP26 in 2021 to catalyse action to reduce
to-energy projects around the world that enable partner
methane emissions.
countries to launch methane recovery and use projects.
Led by: United States and European Union.
India is a partner country.
Aim: To collectively reduce methane emissions by at
least 30% below 2020 levels by 2030. Hence, statement (4) is correct.
Membership: More than 100 country participants, 92. (a)
together responsible for 45% of global human-caused
methane emissions. Explanation:
India did not sign the pledge because of its concerns About Wildlife (Protection) Act (WPA), 1972
over the impact on trade, on the country’s vast farm Provides for the protection of wild animals, birds and
sector, and the role of livestock in the rural economy. plants with a view to ensuring the ecological and
Hence, statement (1) is correct. environmental security of the country.
Empowers the State to declare protected areas, under 4
Global Energy Monitor (GEM)
categories- National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries,
As per GEM, just 30 fossil fuel companies account for
Community Reserves and Conservation Reserves.
nearly half of the planet-warming methane emitted by
the world’s energy sector.
A non-profit organization which aims to develop and The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022:
share information in support of the worldwide It has reduced the number of schedules for specially
movement for clean energy. Hence, statement (2) is protected animals from 4 to 2. Hence, statement (2) is
correct. not correct.

New Chapter 5B for implementation of CITES C40:
Designation of authorities by the Central government: Bengaluru hosted a conference to help cities mainstream
Management Authority (MA)- responsible for climate action.
issuance of permits and certificates for trade of It was organized by C40 Cities Climate Leadership
scheduled specimens in accordance with the Convention. Group, together with Ministry of Housing and Urban
Scientific Authority- to advise Management Authority Affairs and was part of series of events organized under
on aspects related to impact on the survival of the the ambit of the Urban 20 (U20).
specimens being traded. C40 is a network of nearly 100 mayors of the world’s
leading cities to deliver urgent action needed to confront
Increase in Penalties:
climate crisis.
For General violation increases to 1 lakh from Rs
Other cities from India under C40 are Ahmedabad,
25,000.
Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata.
For specially protected animals increases to 25,000 from
Rs 10,000.
95. (a)
93. (d)
Explanation:
Explanation: Recently, the French President suggested
Tillari is the seventh wildlife corridor in the Finlandization might be a realistic outcome for Ukraine
Maharashtra state to be declared as a ‘conservation if and when the Russia-Ukraine war ends.
reserve’.The area covering nine villages in the forest The origin of Finlandisation within this dynamic can
range is known to serve as a corridor and even as a be broadly traced back to the Cold War. It refers to
habitat for the population of tigers and elephants moving the policy of strict neutrality between Moscow
between the three states of Goa, Karnataka and (Russia) and the West that Finland followed during
Maharashtra. Hence, statement (1) is not correct. the decades of the Cold War.
It connects Mhadei sanctuary in Goa and Bhimgad in The principle of neutrality was rooted in the Agreement
Karnataka. of Friendship, Cooperation, and Mutual assistance
Khiram Conservation Reserve is located in Anantnag, that Finland signed with the USSR in April 1948.
Jammu Kashmir. Hence, statement (2) is not correct.
94. (b)
Explanation:
Trees Outside Forests in India (TOFI) Initiative:
Trees Outside Forests in India Initiative launched by
Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate
Change and US Agency for International Development
(USAID) to
Â Enhance carbon sequestration,
Â Support local communities,

Â Strengthen climate resilience of agriculture.
Hence, statement (1) is not correct.
Vanikaran project:
It is an afforestation project to root out invasive plants,
especially Senna spectabilis.
Senna spectabilis is a plant species of the legume family
(Fabaceae) native to South and Central America.
Hence statement (2) is correct.

96. (b) 98. (c)
Explanation: Explanation:
The original verse appears in Chapter 6 of Maha Optical fiber is a revolutionary technology that has
Upanishad. “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” is a Sanskrit transformed the way we transmit and receive data over
long distances. It consists of a thin, flexible strand of
phrase from ancient Indian texts, such as the Maha
glass or plastic that functions as a waveguide for light.
Upanishad, that translates to “The world is one family”
Light Propagation: Optical fibers work on the principle
in English. of total internal reflection. When light enters the core
This concept conveys the idea that the entire world and of the fiber at a certain angle, it undergoes multiple
all its inhabitants are interconnected and should be reflections off the inner surface, effectively bouncing
treated as if they were part of a single family. It promotes within the core. This property allows light signals to
values of universal brotherhood, unity, and the idea that travel through the fiber with minimal loss or dispersion.
we should extend kindness and empathy to all people, Data Transmission: Data is transmitted as pulses of
light, which can represent binary code (0s and 1s). As
regardless of their nationality, race, or religion.
the light signal travels through the core, it maintains its
Essentially, it emphasizes the importance of global
integrity over long distances, experiencing minimal
unity, peace, and understanding among different
attenuation (signal loss).
cultures and nations. This phrase has been embraced as Advantages: They can transmit data at extremely
a philosophy that encourages cooperation, compassion, high speeds, carry vast amounts of information, and
and the recognition of our shared humanity. Hence, are immune to electromagnetic interference. They
option (b) is correct. are also lightweight and resistant to environmental
factors like moisture and corrosion.
97. (d) Applications: Optical fibers are integral to modern
Explanation: telecommunications, forming the backbone of the

internet and telecommunications networks. They are
used for high-speed internet, telephone services, cable
television, and data transmission in various industries.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
99. (b)
Explanation:
Barak River is the second largest river in the Northeastern
Region. It originates from south of Kohima in Nagaland
All lands, minerals and other things of value under the near Nagaland – Manipur Border. Hence statement (1)
water of the ocean within the territorial waters of India, is not correct.
the continental shelf and the exclusive economic zone After traversing through Nagaland, Manipur and Assam,
belongs to the union. Hence, a state near the ocean it splits at Bhanga into two streams called Surma and
Kushiyara. Hence statement (2) is correct.
cannot claim jurisdiction over these things.
These two streams rejoin at Markuli in Bangladesh
India’s territorial waters extend to a distance of 12
and thereafter the river is called Meghna. Barak –
nautical miles from the appropriate base line. Similarly,
Meghna River system has a total length of 900 km
India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extends up (origin to upstream Chandpur in Bangladesh).
to 200 nautical miles. Out of this, 524km is in India, 31 km on Indo –
Hence, option (d) is correct. Bangladesh border and the rest is in Bangladesh.

A memorandum of understanding (MoU) was signed Madhva holds that Vishnu is God, who is also known
on sharing of the waters of the Kushiyara river, a as Hari, Krishna, Vasudeva etc.
distributary of the Barak River which flows through Ishvara or God is the only reality and is the cause of the
Assam, and then on to Bangladesh. Hence statement universe.
(3) is correct. Brahma is the creator of the universe, perfect in
100. (d) knowledge and power and is distinct from souls and
matter. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Explanation:
The created universe is the dependent reality and
Dvaitavada (Dualism) was followed by Madhvacharya.
consists of Jīva (individual souls) and Jada (material
According to dvaitavada of Madhva, the reality is dual
things). Jivas are sentient and matter is non-sentient.
– independent reality (God or brahman) and
dependent reality (chit and achit). Madhva asserted that liberation is achievable only
Madhva’s teachings are based on the premise that through the grace of God.
there is a fundamental difference between Atman Madhva emphasized Bhakti and considered Jnana Yoga
(individual soul) and the Brahman (ultimate reality and Karma Yoga to be insufficient to the path of
or God). liberation.
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