Prepp IAS Upcoming Courses For UPSC CSE Mains 2023: Gram

Prepp IAS Upcoming courses for
UPSC CSE Mains 2023
Course Link:
https://iasexam.prepp.in/products/upsc-2023-mains-mentorship-pro
gram/
Course Link:
https://iasexam.prepp.in/products/upsc-2023-mains-test-series/
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Most Probable Topics for UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 -

Science and Technology
1. Escape Velocity
2. SynNotch
3. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NTRI)
4. Sky Color
5. Plants which grow without seeds
6. DNA Fingerprinting
7. Large Hadron Collider
8. Molecular scissor
9. Induced Pluripotent stem cells
10. Phonons
11. Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs)
12. Artemis Mission
13. T cells and B cells
14. Carbon Bombs
15. Reusable launch vehicle (RLV)
16. Food adulterants
17. Uranium-241
18. Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM-3)
19. Aditya L1 mission
20. Scandium Nitride
21. Carcinogens in food
22. Applications of drones
23. Gaganyaan
24. Green Hydrogen
25. Internet of Things
26. LORA Weapon System
27. Doppler Effect
28. Effects of Water Pollution
29. SPRINT Scheme
30. Phylum Chordata
31. Nanosatellites
32. BharOS
33. Military Exercise
34. Artificial Intelligence
35. JUICE Mission
36. LIGO India Project
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Q.1) Which among the following statements is not correct with reference to Escape Velocity?
a) It is the speed at which an object must be moving to overcome the gravitational force of the planet.
b) The greater the mass and radius of the celestial body, the lower is its escape velocity.
c) It helps engineers to determine the amount of energy and fuel needed to reach a desired destination in
space.
d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Context:
● Basic question from repeated themes. Previously UPSC has asked about dissolving capacity of
Water, pressure cooker, plant cell & animal cell etc.
● Escape velocity is the minimum velocity needed for an object to escape the gravitational pull of a planet
or other celestial body.
● It is the speed at which an object must be moving to overcome the gravitational force of the
planet and move away from it indefinitely. So, option (a) is correct.
● The formula for calculating the escape velocity is given by:
2𝐺𝑀
𝑣 = 𝑟
○ where v is the escape velocity,
○ G is the gravitational constant,
○ M is the mass of the celestial body, and
○ r is the distance from the center of the celestial body to the object.
● The escape velocity of a planet or other celestial body depends on its mass and radius.
● The greater the mass and of the celestial body (not the test body), the higher its escape velocity.
Similarly, lesser the radius of the celestial body, higher will be the escape velocity.
○ For example, the escape velocity of Earth is approximately 11.2 kilometers per second, while
the escape velocity of the Moon is only about 2.4 kilometers per second. So, option (b) is not
correct.
● Escape velocity is an important concept in space exploration, as it determines the speed and energy
required for a spacecraft to leave a planet's orbit and travel to other destinations in space.
● It is also used in the design of rockets and other propulsion systems, as it helps engineers to
determine the amount of energy and fuel needed to achieve escape velocity and reach a desired
destination in space. So, option (c) is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q.2) With reference to ‘SynNotch’ sometimes seen in news recently, which of the following is correct?
a) It is the technology to develop advanced semiconductor devices for supercomputers.

b) It is the technology for development of the internet of Things environment for smart cities networks.
c) It is a special device used for treatment of Alzheimer's disease.
d) It is a genome editing technique used for cancer treatment.
Answer: (d)
Context:
● New developments in the field of Health and diseases. Repeated theme.
● Previously UPSC has asked about RNA interference (RNAi), ACE2, Recombinant Vector vaccine
etc.
SynNotch (Synthetic Notch Receptor):
● While CAR-T cell therapy has seen success in blood cancers, it has faced hurdles when fighting
what are called solid tumor cancers like pancreatic cancer and melanoma.
○ Unlike cancers that begin in the blood, these types of cancers grow into a solid mass that
produces a microenvironment of molecules, cells and structures that prevent T-cells from
entering into the tumor and triggering an immune response.
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○ Here, even CAR-T cells engineered to specifically target a patient’s unique tumor are unable to
access it, suppressing their ability to kill tumor cells.
● So, a new synthetic receptor that complements the first CAR design is developed.
○ This receptor, called synthetic Notch receptor, or synNotch, is based on the natural form of
Notch in the body, which plays an important role in organ development across many
species.
Uniqueness of synNotch:
● Use synNotch to improve CAR-T cell activity against solid tumors by inducing them to produce
more inflammatory cytokines, such as IL-2, that enable them to kill tumor cells. So, option (d) is
correct.
● These cytokines are highly toxic, there is a limit to how much IL-2 a patient can safely tolerate, limiting
their use as a drug.
● Using synNotch, when a CAR-T cell encounters a tumor, it produces IL-2 within the tumor
instead of outside it, avoiding causing harm to healthy cells.
● SynNotch modified CAR-T cells were able to trigger IL-2 production without causing toxicity to
healthy cells in the rest of the body.
● Because synNotch is able to bypass the barriers tumors put up, it is able to help T cells amp up and
maintain the amount of IL-2 they can make, allowing the T cells to keep functioning even in a hostile
microenvironment.
● It is being used to treat lymphoma and multiple myeloma, and has shown remarkable response
rates where other treatments have failed.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q.3) With reference to Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NTRI), sometimes seen in news recently,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) These are the drugs used to treat Cancer patients.

b) These are the antiretroviral drugs used to treat HIV patients.
c) It is a new technology for genome sequencing projects.
d) It is a new technology to inhibit the growth of th COVID-19 Virus.
Answer: (b)
Context:
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● New developments in the field of Health and diseases. Repeated theme.

● Previously UPSC has asked about RNA interference (RNAi), Recombinant Vector vaccine,
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines etc.
Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NRTI):

● The NRTI shows competitive inhibition by hindering the reverse transcriptase activity.
● This has an antiviral effect on most retroviruses.
● These NRTIs are used as antiretroviral drugs to treat HIV patients. So, option (b) is correct.
● They can also act as chain terminators for the retroviral and host DNA.
○ Thus, the drug shows certain side effects or toxicity.
○ The NRTIs are usually activated by phosphorylation.
Q.4) Sky appears blue from earth due to -
a) Dispersion of light
b) Interference of light
c) Scattering of blue light more than other colors.
d) Presence of certain gasses in the atmosphere reflecting blue colour.
Answer: (c)
Context:
● Basic question from repeated themes. Previously UPSC has asked about dissolving capacity of
Water, pressure cooker, plant cell & animal cell etc.
● Sunlight reaches Earth's atmosphere and is scattered in all directions by all the gases and
particles in the air.
● Blue light is scattered more than the other colors because it travels as shorter, smaller waves.
○ This is why we see a blue sky most of the time. So, option (c) is correct.
Visible light Spectrum:
● The visible light spectrum is the segment of the electromagnetic spectrum that the human eye can view.
● More simply, this range of wavelengths is called visible light. Typically, the human eye can detect
wavelengths from 380 to 700 nanometers.
Wavelengths of visible light:
● All electromagnetic radiation is light, but we can only see a small portion of this radiation—the portion
we call visible light.
● Cone-shaped cells in our eyes act as receivers tuned to the wavelengths in this narrow band of
the spectrum.
○ Other portions of the spectrum have wavelengths too large or too small and energetic for the
biological limitations of our perception.
● As the full spectrum of visible light travels through a prism, the wavelengths separate into the colors
of the rainbow because each color is a different wavelength.
○ Violet has the shortest wavelength, at around 380 nanometers, and red has the longest
wavelength, at around 700 nanometers
Dispersion of light:
● When light passes through a prism, it is separated into distinct color components.
● This is referred to as light dispersion.
● A prism is a transparent glass with two flat surfaces that are angled at an angle.
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● A white light beam is divided into seven hues by a prism: violet, indigo blue, green, yellow, orange,
and red. So, option (a) is correct.
○ The band of colors scattered by light entering a glass prism is referred to as the spectrum.
Causes of Dispersion
● Because each colors’ light has distinct wavelengths, white light disperses into seven colors.
○ Red light has the longest wavelength in this range of seven colors, while violet light has the
shortest.
● In a vacuum, all colors of light travel at the same speed. However, in any transparent material,
such as glass or water, various colors of light move at different rates.
● Various colors’ lights bend through different angles due to differences in their velocity. Red light
travels the fastest through any transparent medium, whereas violet light travels the slowest.
● Thus, the dispersion of white light into seven colors happens when various colored photons bend at
different angles while passing through a glass prism.
Interference of Light:
● Interference is a natural phenomenon that happens at every place and at every moment. Yet we
don’t see interference patterns everywhere.
● Interference is the phenomenon in which two waves superpose to form the resultant wave of the
lower, higher or same amplitude.
● The most commonly seen interference is optical interference or light interference.
● This is because light waves are generated randomly by most of the sources.
● This means that light waves coming out of a source do not have a constant amplitude, frequency or
phase.
● Example: The most common example of interference of light is the soap bubble which reflects wide
colours when illuminated by a light source. So, option (b) is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q.5) Which of the following plants can be grown without seeds?

1. Garlic
2. Tomato
3. Potato
4. Banana
5. Ginger
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (a)
Context:
● Emerging techniques for food security, like hydroponics, seedless plants. Etc.
● UPSC has asked previously about Triclosan, BPA, transplanted seedlings etc.
Plants that can grow without seeds

● Potatoes: Potatoes are stem tubers that can be used to grow new potato plants. So, statement 3 is
correct.
● Ginger: Ginger is a root crop that can be propagated by dividing its rhizomes. So, statement 5 is
correct.
● Banana: Bananas are propagated through a process called suckering, where new plants grow from the
base of the mother plant. So, statement 4 is correct
● Pineapple: Pineapples can be propagated by planting the leafy top of a mature pineapple fruit.
● Garlic: Garlic is a bulb crop that can be propagated by dividing its bulbs into smaller cloves. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● Tomato: Tomatoes are a fruit that grows from a seed. They are widely cultivated for use in cooking
and are a popular garden plant. So, statement 2 is not correct.
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Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q.6) With reference to DNA Fingerprinting, consider the following statements:

1. It can be utilized to investigate suspects in a criminal case.
2. To recognize the genetic relation.
3. Identify individuals who carry genes for certain hereditary diseases.
4. To match the tissues for organ transplantation.
Which of the statements given above is/are application of DNA fingerprinting technology?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)
Context:
● Recent developments in technology. UPSC has previously asked about RNA interference (RNAi),
pronuclear technology, Cas-9 etc.
DNA Fingerprinting:
● DNA fingerprinting is a laboratory technique used to determine the probable identity of a person
based on the nucleotide sequences of certain regions of human DNA that are unique to individuals.
● Genetic fingerprinting was invented in 1984 by Professor Sir Alec Jeffreys after he realized you
could detect variations in human DNA, in the form of minisatellites.
○ It is a technique that simultaneously detects lots of minisatellites in the genome to produce a
pattern unique to an individual. This is a DNA fingerprint.
● Lalji Singh is the father of DNA fingerprinting in India.
○ He developed DNA fingerprinting for crime investigations at the Centre for Cellular and
Molecular Biology (CCMB) in Hyderabad in 1988.
○ In 1989, DNA fingerprinting was first used in a case by Kerala Police.
How it works:
● DNA fingerprinting uses chemicals to separate strands of DNA and reveal the unique parts of your
genome.
● The results show up as a pattern of stripes that can be matched against other samples.
● To get your DNA fingerprint, you would give a sample of cells from your body.
○ This can come from a swab inside your mouth, from your skin, the roots of your hair, or your
saliva, sweat, or other body fluids.
○ Blood is usually the easiest way.
○ Lab technicians treat the sample with chemicals to separate the DNA, which is then dissolved
in water.
Applications of DNA Fingerprinting:
● It is mostly used in court cases and legal matters related to crime or disputes. It can be used to:
○ Physically connect a piece of evidence to a person or rule out someone as a suspect in a
criminal case. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ Show who your parents, siblings, and other relatives may be through genetic relations. So,
○ Identify a dead body that’s too decomposed to be recognizable.
○ Match tissues of organ donors with those of people who need transplants (not as the
primary method. The primary method is to identify a specific protein match called
Human Leukocyte Antigens). So, statement 4 is correct.
○ Identify Persons with diseases that are passed down through your family (genetic
disease). Which are called hereditary conditions/diseases. So, statement 3 is correct.
○ DNA profiles are very useful in forensics because only a tiny sample of human material left
behind after a crime may be sufficient to identify someone.
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Q.7) Large Hadron Collider was restarted after a long shutdown and maintenance has concluded its third run of
collison. The data from the collisions will not only provide greater information about an elementary particle but
also tests the standard model of physics. The scientist who predicted this particle in 1964 has been awarded the
Nobel Prize in 2013.
What is the discovery?
a) Higgs Boson.
b) Quarks
c) Origin of Universe
d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Context:
● The LHC (Large Hadron Collider) has recently undergone upgrades to make it more accurate and
sensitive and will start collecting data in May 2023 based on its Run 3 (conducted after the long
shutdown and maintenance).
● The LHC has undergone upgrades to increase its sensitivity and accuracy, allowing scientists to study
particles with even higher energy.
● It is built by the European Organisation for Nuclear Research (CERN).
Higgs Boson:
● The Higgs boson is the fundamental/ elementary particle associated with the Higgs field, a field that
gives mass to other fundamental particles such as electrons and quarks.
● It is also popularly referred to as “the God Particle".
● Mass- The Higgs boson has a mass of 125 billion electron volts — meaning it is 130 times more
massive than a proton.
● Charge- The Higgs boson is also chargeless.
● Zero spin - Higgs boson, has an intrinsic angular momentum, or spin, of 0.
○ The Higgs Boson is the only elementary particle with no spin.
● The 2013 Nobel Prize in Physics was jointly awarded to Francois Englert and Peter Higgs for their
contributions to the development of the Higgs field and Higgs boson hypotheses.
○ Their study detailed why elementary particles have mass and formed the basis for the
Standard Model of particle physics, unifying both the weak and strong electromagnetic forces.
○ Numerous concerns of particle physics depend on the existence of particle mass.
○ The discovery of the Higgs boson is historic since it established the presence of the Higgs field,
which is essential to the Standard Model and many other particle physics theories. So, option
(a) is correct.
Large Hadron Collider:
● About:
○ The LHC is a huge experiment that collides two beams of particles to study physics at
very high energies.
○ It's the largest science experiment in the world and is operated by CERN (European
Organisation for Nuclear Research)
○ The LHC is a circular pipe that is 27 km long and is located on the Franco-Swiss border
near Geneva, Switzerland.
○ It consists of two D-shaped magnetic fields created by almost 9,600 magnets.
● Working Mechanism:
○ Protons, which are subatomic particles made up of quarks and gluons, are accelerated
inside the LHC using these magnets.
■ Quarks and gluons are subatomic particles that make up protons and neutrons.
Quarks come in six different "flavors": up, down, charm, strange, top, and bottom.
Gluons are particles that "glue" quarks together inside protons and neutrons through
the strong nuclear force.
■ Protons are not the only particles accelerated in the LHC.
○ By switching the direction of the magnetic field rapidly, protons can be accelerated through the
beam pipe.
○ Other components help to focus the particles and keep them from hitting the pipe's walls.
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○ The protons eventually move at 99.999999% of the speed of light.

Quarks:
● Quark is a fundamental constituent of matter and is defined as an elementary particle.
● These quarks combine to produce composite particles called hadrons, the most stable of which
are neutrons and protons which are the components of atomic nuclei. So, option (b) is not correct.
Origin of Universe:
● The Big Bang created our universe by exploding space itself.
● Space expanded, the universe cooled, and the simplest elements formed, beginning with
extremely high density and temperature.
● Gravity drew matter together gradually to form the first stars and galaxies. According to Big Bang
cosmology, the universe’s chronology describes the universe’s history and future.
● The Big Bang theory is the dominant cosmological model that explains the existence of the
observable universe from its inception to its subsequent large-scale evolution. So, option (c) is
not correct.
● The model describes how the universe expanded from a high density and temperature starting point and
provides a comprehensive explanation for a wide range of observed phenomena.
Q.8) With respect to the molecular scissor, consider the following statements:
1. They are called restriction enzymes as they cut the DNA strand at specified locations.
2. These scissors are used in recombinant DNA technology for producing new variants of any product.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Context:
● Recent developments in technology. UPSC has previously asked Bollgard-I & Bollgard-II,
genetic modification, CRISPR Cas-9, VLC technology etc.
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● Molecular scissors are also known as restriction enzymes, as they cut the genetic material at
specific ends and cleave the ends with another or foreign strand with the help of ligases.
Restriction enzymes are enzymes which have certain kind of restriction such as DNA strand is a
long strand so to cut the strand restriction enzymes are used as they cut the strand at specific sites.
So, statement 1 is correct.
● These Restriction enzymes are found in bacteria which provide a defense mechanism against the
viruses.
● Naturally occurring restriction enzymes are categorized into four groups (based on their
composition and enzyme cofactor requirements, the nature of their target sequence, and the position of
their DNA cleavage site relative to the target sequence):
○ Type I- cleaves at site away from the recognition site.
○ Type II- cleaves within or at the specific short distance from the recognition site.
○ Type III- cleaves at site, a short distance from the recognition site.
○ Type IV- target modified DNA.
● In order to conduct experiments recombination is required and restriction enzymes are a major
tool used in recombinant DNA technology.
○ The strand should be a high-quality piece of gene which should be free from any gene
defects, the strand from which that particular gene is extracted should be also defect- free,
no mutation should be seen. So, statement 2 is correct.
Q.9) With reference to ‘Induced Pluripotent stem cells’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Induced Pluripotent Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. These are similar to those of embryonic stem cells.
3. These cells can be used for medical therapies including alzhiemers.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Context:
● Recent developments in technology. UPSC has previously asked stem cell, pronuclear
technology, VLC technology etc.
Stem Cell:
● Stem cells are special human cells that have the capability to develop into wide-ranging types of
cells in the human body, from muscle cells to brain cells.
● A stem cell is an immature or unspecialized cell that can:
○ Split to form similar cells
○ Develop into different specialized cells that perform a distinct function.
● Stem cells are classified into 2 main categories –
○ Classification based on the formation of cells at different phases of human lives and
○ Classification based on its ability to form into different specialized cells.
Classification based on Stem Cells formation at different times of human lives
● There are 3 types under this classification:
○ Embryonic stem cells: These are the Stem cells that exist only during the earliest stage of
development.
○ Adult stem cells: These are the cells that can multiply when there is a need to repair adult
organs and tissues. These cells are present in almost all organs of the human body.
○ Induced pluripotent stem cells or iPSC’s: Lab developed Stem Cells.
Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSC’s):
● These cells are not found in the body but made in the laboratory from cells of the body. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● The iPSC cells have properties similar to those of embryonic stem cells. So, statement 2 is
correct.
● Human iPSCs were generated in 2007.
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Use of stem cells in the Medical field:

● The only stem cells currently used to treat disease are hematopoietic stem cells.
● These are blood cells forming adult stem cells found in the bone marrow.
● Researchers believe that stem cells would be able to treat a multitude of ailments like
○ Heart disease
○ Type 1 diabetes
○ Spinal cord injury
○ Alzheimer’s disease. So, statement 3 is correct.
○ Rheumatoid Arthritis
Stem Cell Therapy in India
● There is no law to regulate the use of stem cells in India.
● The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has issued guidelines that recognize stem cell
therapies only for certain treatments and observes that other types of treatments are unproven and
should not be offered as therapy.
Q.10) Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to ‘phonons’?
1. Phonons are particles of vibrational energy.
2. Phonons are not directly affected by the magnetic field.
3. Phonons of different wavelengths do not interact with each other.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Context:
● Scientists have found that while phonons can’t be deflected by the magnetic field – they have no
electric charge – they are affected by the electrons that are deflected by the magnetic field.
● New scientific development and research. Previously UPSC has asked ‘Qubits’ etc.
Phonons:
● A phonon is a quasiparticle (not particle) of vibrational energy. So, statement 1 is not correct.
○ When the grid of atoms that make up the material vibrates, it releases this energy, and
physicists encapsulate it in the form of photons.
● In the presence of a magnetic field, electrons are deflected from their paths in a perpendicular
direction.
○ The phonons aren’t directly affected by the magnetic field, but when they scatter off the
deflected electrons, they are deflected in a perpendicular direction as well. So,
● The Thermal Hall effect arises when the particles carrying energy have chirality, in that they
deviate more clockwise than anticlockwise, or vice versa, in some circumstances.
○ This lateral scattering mechanism is called skew-scattering.
● To see the thermal Hall effect, phonons need to be deflected perpendicular to their direction of
motion, so skew-scattering is important.
● Phonons are an example of collective excitations: “they are essentially a well-defined wave packet” of
vibrational energy.
● Unlike photons (the particles that carry light or other electromagnetic radiation), which generally don’t
interact at all if they have different wavelengths, phonons of different wavelengths can interact and
mix when they bump into each other, producing a different wavelength. So, statement 3 is not
correct.
○ This makes their behavior much more chaotic and thus difficult to predict and control.
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Q.11) With respect to the Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs), consider the following statements:
1. Directed Energy Weapons are extremely precise in their attack on their targets, which are fast-moving
objects.
2. The type and intensity of energy directed to targets can be varied to adjust their effects.
3. Their beams are constrained by the gravitational pull of the earth.
4. India aims to develop DEW under its DURGA project.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Context:
● Recently, India’s Air Chief Marshal highlighted the need to push the development of Directed Energy
Weapons (DEWs) and Hypersonic Weapons and integrate them into its airborne platforms to get the
desired range and accuracy.
●
Directed Energy Weapons:
● Depending on operational circumstances, conventional weapons are less expensive to operate.
Directed Energy Weapons are extremely precise in their attack on their targets, which are
fast-moving objects. When compared to conventional weapons, this makes them a better choice.
● The type and intensity of energy directed to targets can be varied to adjust their effects. So,
● Their beams are not constrained by gravitational pull or atmospheric drag. So, statement 3 is not
correct.
● Disadvantages of Directed Energy Weapons:
○ Such weapons are not difficult to counter. Laser beams, for example, can be attenuated by
water vapor and dust.
○ Most DEWs have a limited range, and their effectiveness diminishes significantly as the
distance between the target and the weapon grows.
○ DEWs can be costly to develop and build, and their performance in particular scenarios may
not make it worth it.
○ DEWs can be mitigated by utilizing reflective materials or other countermeasures that
minimize their effectiveness.
India’s DEWs Project:
● Project DURGA:
○ 1KW laser Weapon: DRDO has tested a 1KW laser weapon which hit a target 250m away.
○ Directionally Unrestricted Ray-Gun Array (DURGA) II: DRDO has initiated a project DURGA
II, which is a 100-kilowatt lightweight DEW. so, statement 4 is correct.
Q.12) “This Lunar Space Mission is planning to land the first woman on the Moon along with robots. It also builds
a base Camp on the surface of the moon and the Gateway in lunar orbit.” The Space Mission in question refers
to:
a) Chandrayaan 3
b) Artemis Mission
c) Chang’e 5
d) Hakuto-R M1
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
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● Context: Recent space missions are of importance since they have the capability to find new
scientific breakthroughs. Previously UPSC has asked for space missions such as Evolved LISA,
Mangalyaan, IRNSS etc.
● The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) of the United States and three partner
organizations—the European Space Agency (ESA), the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
(JAXA), and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA) —are leading the Artemis programme, a robotic and
human Moon exploration initiative.
● With Artemis missions, NASA will land the first woman and first person of color on the Moon,
using innovative technologies to explore more of the lunar surface than ever before.
● Artemis Base Camp
○ Base camp will be established on the surface of the moon and a gateway in lunar orbit to
aid exploration by robots and astronauts. So option (b) is the correct answer.
○ It will give astronauts a place to live and work on the moon.
○ It includes a modern lunar cabin, a rover, and a mobile home.
● Gateway:
○ The gateway is a critical component of NASA’s sustainable lunar operations and will serve
as a multi-purpose outpost orbiting the moon.
○ It is a spaceship in lunar orbit where astronauts will transfer between Orion and the
lander on regular Artemis missions.
○ Gateway will remain in orbit for more than a decade, providing a place to live and work,
and supporting long-term science and human exploration on and around the Moon.
Chandrayaan 3:
● Chandrayaan-3 is a follow-on mission to Chandrayaan-2 to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe
landing and roving on the lunar surface. It consists of Lander and Rover configuration. So, option (a) is
incorrect.
Chang'e 5:
● Chang'e 5 is a Chinese National Space Administration (CNSA) lunar sample return mission.
● The mission goal was to land in the Mons Rumker region of Oceanus Procellarum (roughly 41-45
deg. N, 49-69 deg. W), operate for up to one lunar day (two weeks) and return a roughly 2 kg sample
of lunar regolith, possibly from as deep as 2 meters. So, option (c) is incorrect.
Hakuto-R Mission1 (Hakuto-R M1)

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● Hakuto-R Mission1 (Hakuto-R M1) is a Japanese lunar landing mission. It is primarily a technology
demonstration lander. It is built by ispace, inc., and will carry commercial and government payloads,
including two lunar rovers (Rashid and the Japanese Lunar Excursion Vehicle). So option (d) is
incorrect.
Q.13) With respect to T cells and B cells, consider the following statements:
1. Both T cells and B cells are responsible for the adaptive immune response system in the body.
2. Both T cells and B cells originate in Bone marrow.
3. B cells identify the antigens and then cytotoxic T-cells kill the infected cells.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
T-Cells and B-Cells:
● Context: Bioscience is an important part of the Prelims paper. Current affairs and general
science are combined in these questions. Previously UPSC asked questions on Biofilms,
Probiotics, Pronuclear Transfer.
● B cells and T cells are the white blood cells of the immune system that are responsible for adaptive
immune response in an organism. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Both B and T cells originate in the bone marrow. So, statement 2 is correct.
● B cells:
○ These cells mature in the bone marrow and produce antibodies in response to the
antigens.
○ B cells are involved in humoral response.
○ As soon as B cells come across the antigens, they produce plasma cells and memory B
cells.
● T cells:
○ T cells originate in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus.
○ These can be further divided into T helper cells and T cytotoxic cells.
○ They are responsible for removing the pathogens from the body.
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○ As soon as the foreign antigen enters the cells, T-cells trigger the B cells to develop plasma
cells and activate T killer cells (also called as Cytotoxic T-Cells) which are antibodies
that kill the cells affected by the invaders. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q.14) With respect to the Carbon Bombs, consider the following statements:
1. They are oil or gas projects that result in at least a billion tonnes of CO2 emissions over their lifetime.
2. The Leave It In the Ground Initiative (LINGO) initiative promotes a carbon less circular economy across
the world.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: A group of environmentalists, lawyers, and activists have come together to identify and
‘defuse carbon bombs’– coal, oil and gas projects that have the potential to contribute
significantly to global warming. Global warming is a common theme for UPSC and a question
can be expected.
● Carbon Bombs are oil or gas projects that will result in at least a billion tonnes of CO2 emissions
over its lifetime. Whenever coal, oil, or gas is extracted it results in pollution and environmental
degradation. So, statement 1 is correct.
● There are only 10 countries with more than 10 carbon bombs: China (141), Russia (41), United
States (28), Iran (24), Saudi Arabia (23.5),2 Australia (23), India (18), Qatar (13), Canada (12) and Iraq
(11). Together, they account for three quarters of the emissions potential of all carbon bombs.
● In terms of current production, carbon bomb projects in operation were responsible for 45% of
global oil and gas production and 25% of global coal production in 2019.
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● The Leave It In the Ground Initiative (LINGO) initiative mission is guided by a simple principle: Leave
fossil fuels in the ground and learn to live without them. LINGO envisioned a world powered by
100% renewable energy where we no longer burn fossil fuels which emit carbon and use materials
in a sustainable, circular fashion. This initiative will help reduce carbon bombs in the long run. So,
Q.15) With respect to Reusable launch vehicle (RLV), consider the following statements:
1. The RLV cannot land autonomously and requires a manned pilot for this purpose.
2. The RLV is carried to orbit by a separate launch vehicle where it stays for a stipulated time before
re-entering earth’s atmosphere and landing.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and its partners successfully
demonstrated a precise landing experiment for a Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) at the
Aeronautical Test Range (ATR), Chitradurga, Karnataka. Recent achievements of ISRO is important
from UPSC perspective as previously such questions have been asked such as IRNSS, Mangalyaan.
● An Indian Air Forces (IAF) Chinook helicopter was used to drop the RLV-Technology Demonstrator from
a 4.5 km altitude and ISRO executed the landing experiment of the RLV-TD as planned.
● ISRO’s RLV-TD looks like an aircraft. It consists of a fuselage, a nose cap, double delta wings, and
twin vertical tails.
● With the costs acting as a major deterrent to space exploration, a reusable launch vehicle is
considered a low-cost, reliable, and on-demand mode of accessing space. By using RLVs the cost
of a launch can be reduced by nearly 80% of the present cost.
RLV Landing Experiment (RLV-LEX) :
● One of the critical technologies to be demonstrated is approach and autonomous landing on a
runway.
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● In order to acquire end-to-end RLV technology capability, autonomous landing on a runway has to be
achieved.
● For this, a Landing Experiment is planned (LEX). In LEX, the RLV will be carried using a helicopter to
an altitude of 3-5 km and released at a distance of approximately 4-5 km ahead of the runway with a
horizontal velocity. After the release, the RLV glides, navigates towards the runway and carries out
a conventional autonomous landing with a landing with a landing gear. This is planned in a
Defence air field near Chitradurga in Karnataka. So, statement 1 is not correct.
RLV Orbital re-entry Experiment (ORE)
● Now ISRO is working on ORE. In ORE, a wing body called Orbital Re-entry vehicle (ORV) will be taken
to an orbit by an ascent vehicle derived from the existing GSLV and PSLV stages and stay in orbit for a
stipulated period, re-enter and land in a runway autonomously with a landing gear. So, statement
2 is correct.
Objectives of RLV-TD:
● Hypersonic aero thermodynamic characterisation of wing body
● Evaluation of autonomous Navigation, Guidance and Control (NGC) schemes
● Integrated flight management
● Thermal Protection System Evaluation
Q.16) With respect to the food adulterants, consider the following statements
Pair Food Adulterants
1 Pulses Sand Particles
2 Black pepper Papaya Seeds
3 Mustard Argemone Seeds
4 Chilly Powder Saw Dust
5 Sugar Washing Powder
Which of the pairs given above are correct?

a) 1, 3 and 5 only
b) 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
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● Context: Food adulteration is a recurring topic in newspapers. UPSC expects candidates to be aware of
such malpractices in the groceries and food items. These information also appear in newspapers
regularly.
● The process of contaminating food or adding to the food components is a common phenomenon
in developing countries. For instance: Milk can be diluted by adding water to increase its quantity
and starch powder is often added to increase its solid content.
● Some of the common food adulterants are:
○ Mixing of clay, pebbles, stones, sand, and marble chips, to the grains, pulses and other
crops. So, pair 1 is correct.
○ Pepper is added to Papaya seeds. So, pair 2 is correct.
○ Argemone seeds are added to mustard. So, pair 3 is correct.
○ Sawdust, chalk dust are added to chili powder. So, pair 4 is correct.
○ Washing soda is added in sugar and jaggery. So, pair 5 is correct.
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Q.17) With reference to Uranium-241, consider the following statements:

1. It has a half life of 40 minutes only.
2. It is a naturally found isotope of Uranium.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Context: Nuclear Science is an important part of the UPSC syllabus. Candidates need to be aware of recent
breakthroughs in nuclear science. Questions in nuclear science are found in UPSC previous year papers as well
such as International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor.
Uranium-241:
● It has an atomic number of 92 and a mass number of 241.
● The researchers also calculated that uranium-241 likely has a half-life of just 40 minutes. So,
How was uranium-241 found?
● The researchers accelerated uranium-238 nuclei into plutonium-198 nuclei at the KEK Isotope
Separation System (KISS).
● In a process called multinucleon transfer, the two isotopes exchange protons and neutrons.
○ The resulting nuclear fragments contained different isotopes including Uranium-241.
Isotopes of Uranium:
● In its natural state, Uranium consists of three isotopes [U-234 (0.0057%), U-235 (0.72%) and U-238
(99.28%)].
● Other isotopes that cannot be found in natural uranium are U-232, U-233, U-236,U-237 and U-241.
So, statement 2 is not correct
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Q.18) With reference to ISRO Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM-3), consider the following statements:
1. LVM-3 has the capacity to place satellites in the majority of the orbits and missions to the moon and sun.
2. It has an indigenously developed Cryogenic upper stage engine.
3. It consists of 2 solid propellant S-200 straps on boosters.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Context:
● The Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) heaviest rocket Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3
or GSLV Mark 3) has successfully orbited 36 satellites of the U.K.-based OneWeb. Such
landmark achievements hold importance in the context of UPSC preliminary exam such as
Fractional Orbital Bombardment System, IRNSS, Agni-IV Missile.
● OneWeb is a global communications network powered by a constellation of 648 Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
satellites.
LVM-3:
● ISRO has renamed the GSLV Mark-III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III.
○ A GSLV – for the Geostationary Orbit (GEO) – will continue to be called so.
○ The LVM3 will cover the majority of the orbits — Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO),
Medium Earth orbit (MEO), Low Earth Orbit (LEO), and missions to the moon, sun. So,
● The indigenously developed Cryogenic Upper Stage Engine (CUS), forms the third stage of GSLV
Mk III/LVM-3. So, statement 2 is correct.
● LVM3 is a three stage launch vehicle consisting of two solid propellant S200 strap-ons boosters
and core stages consisting of L110 liquid stage, C25 cryogenic stage, the equipment bay (EB) and
the Encapsulated assembly (EA). so, statement 3 is correct.
● Additional Content:
○ Launchers under usage:
■ Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
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■ Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV)

■ Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III (LVM3)
■ Sounding Rockets
○ Launchers under development:
■ Human Rated Launch Vehicle (HRLV)
■ Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)
■ Reusable Launch Vehicle - Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD)
■ Scramjet Engine - TD
○ Launchers, Retired:
■ SLV-3
■ ASLV
Q.19) With reference to Aditya L1 mission, consider the following statements:

1. It is the first Indian space mission to observe the Sun and the solar corona.
2. It is developed by ISRO in collaboration with Indian research institutes.
3. The Aditya-L1 mission will be launched by ISRO to station the satellite into the L1 orbit to study the sun.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: Study of the sun is an interesting frontier among the science fraternity. ISRO has been
pragmatic to launch a mission to study the Sun. So a question is expected from this topic. Space related
topics are asked such as Astrosat, IRNSS, Agni-IV Missile.
● Aditya-L1 is the first Indian space mission to observe the Sun and the solar corona. So, statement 1
is correct.
● Aditya-L1 is the first observatory-class space-based solar mission from India.
● Aditya-L1 carries seven payloads to observe the photosphere, chromosphere, and the outermost
layers of the Sun (the corona) using electromagnetic and particle detectors.
● Aditya-L1 is equipped with a total of seven payloads, the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph
(VELC) being the primary one.
● It is currently being designed and developed by ISRO and various other Indian research
institutes.
○ In total Aditya-L1 has seven payloads, of which the primary payload – the VELC, is
designed and fabricated by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA, Bengaluru).
○ The other six payloads are being developed by the ISRO and other scientific institutions.
○ The other 6 payloads are:
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■ Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT)

■ Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS)
■ High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer(HEL1OS)
■ Aditya Solar wind Particle Experiment(ASPEX)
■ Plasma Analyser Package For Aditya (PAPA)
■ Advanced Tri-axial High Resolution Digital Magnetometers
● ISRO will launch the Aditya-L1 mission into the L1 orbit (which is the first Lagrangian point of the
Sun-Earth system). So, statement 3 is correct.
● L1 orbit allows Aditya-L1 to look at the Sun continuously.
● Lagrange points are positions in space where objects sent there tend to stay put.
○ At Lagrange points, the gravitational pull of two large masses precisely equals the
centripetal force required for a small object to move with them.
○ These points in space can be used by spacecraft to reduce fuel consumption needed to
remain in position.
● List of other Solar Missions:
○ Genesis by United States NASA
○ DSCOVR by United States NOAA
○ Parker Solar Probe by United States NASA
Q.20) With reference to Scandium Nitride, consider the following statements:

1. It has rock salt crystal structure.
2. It has the potential to emit, detect and modulate infrared light.
3. It has the potential to be used in the generation of solar and thermal energy.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Scandium Nitride:
● Context: Clean energy is a global effort in the past decade. Indian researchers have been inventing
new products to make generation of clean energy affordable and accessible. So, a question on these
topics can be expected.
● It has a rock-salt crystal structure with a lattice constant of 0.451 nanometer. So, statement 1 is
correct.
● In a significant development, researchers from Bengaluru’s Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for
Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR), an autonomous institute of Department of Science and
Technology (DST) have discovered a novel material called single-crystalline scandium nitride (ScN)
that can emit, detect, and modulate infrared light with high efficiencies. So, statement 2 is correct.
● These exotic polaritons in the ScN can be utilized for solar and thermal energy harvesting. So,
● Also, belonging to the same family of materials as gallium nitride (GaN), scandium nitride is
compatible with modern complementary-metal- oxide- semiconductor (CMOS) or Si-chip
technology and, therefore, could be easily integrated for on-chip optical communication devices.
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Q.21) With respect to the Carcinogens in food, consider the following substances:
1. Aflatoxin B1
2. 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin
3. Potassium bromate
4. Alcoholic Beverages
Which of the substances given above is/are carcinogens?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 3 and 4
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: Studying the various carcinogens is important as they are found commonly in our
surroundings. UPSC tries to check the scientific awareness of candidates through these questions.
Other previous year questions were, Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, `String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model,
genome sequencing
● A carcinogen is any substance or radiation that promotes carcinogenesis, the formation of
cancer. Examples: Asbestos, Gamma rays, and Aflatoxin B1, which is produced by the fungus
growing on stored grains, nuts, etc. So, substance 1 is correct.
● 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin studies in multiple animal species have demonstrated the
carcinogenic potential of 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin in producing tumors of the liver 17,
thyroid, the upper aerodigestive tract, and skin. So, substance 2 is correct.
● The Union Government has banned use of potassium bromate (KbrO3) as a food additive as it is
carcinogenic. Decision in this regard was taken by the Union Health Ministry based on the
recommendation of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). So, substance 3 is
correct.
● Numerous epidemiologic studies have demonstrated an association between alcoholic beverages
and cancers of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, and esophagus and possibly the breast and liver. The
cancer risk appears to be dose-dependent. So, substance 4 is correct.
Q.22) With respect to the drone, consider the following statements:

1. Communication in remote areas
2. Delivery of medicines.
3. Spraying of micronutrients in agriculture
4. Anti-poaching surveillance
5. Monitoring of forests and wildlife.
Which of the statements given above are the applications of drones?
a) 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 5 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: Recently, the Ministry of Civil Aviation has suggested to the other Ministries to promote
effective use of Drone technology. Drones are of important use in various situations. So, a question from
this theme is expected.
● Application of Drone Technology:
○ Defense: Drone system can be used as a symmetric weapon against terrorist attacks.
○ Drones can be integrated into the national airspace system.
○ Deployment of drones for combat, communication in remote areas, counter-drone
solutions can be done. . So, statement 1 is correct.
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○ Healthcare Delivery Purposes: Recently, the Ministry of Civil Aviation has approved a project
with the Telangana government for using drone technology to deliver vaccines in
remote areas. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Agriculture: In the agriculture sector, micronutrients can be spread with the help of
drones. So, statement 3 is correct.
○ It can also be used for performing surveys for identifying the challenges faced by the
farmers.
○ Monitoring: The drone technology in the SVAMITVA scheme launched by the Government of
India, within less than a year, has helped about half a million village residents to get their
property cards by mapping out the abadi areas.
○ Drones can be used for real-time surveillance of assets and transmission lines, theft
prevention, visual inspection/maintenance, construction planning and management, etc
○ They can be used for anti-poaching surveillance, monitoring of forests and wildlife,
pollution assessment, and evidence gathering. So, statements 4 and 5 are correct.
○ Law Enforcement: Drones are also significant for the law enforcement agencies, the fire and
emergency services wherever human intervention is not safe and the healthcare services.
○ New Drone Rules:
■ Digital sky platform shall be developed as a business-friendly single-window online
system.
■ No flight permission required upto 400 feet in green zones and upto 200 feet in the
area between 8 and 12 km from the airport perimeter.
■ No pilot licence required for micro drones (for non-commercial use), nano drones
and for R&D organisations.
■ No restriction on drone operations by foreign-owned companies registered in
India.
■ Import of drones and drone components to be regulated by DGFT.
■ No security clearance required before any registration or licence issuance.
■ No requirement of certificate of airworthiness, unique identification number, prior
permission and remote pilot licence for R&D entities.
■ Coverage of drones under Drone Rules, 2021 increased from 300 kg to 500 kg.
This will cover drone taxis also.
■ Issuance of Certificate of Airworthiness delegated to Quality Council of India and
certification entities authorised by it.
■ Manufacturer may generate their drone’s unique identification number on the
digital sky platform through the self-certification route.
■ Maximum penalty under Drone Rules, 2021 reduced to INR 1 lakh. This shall,
however, not apply to penalties in respect of violation of other laws.
■ Drone corridors will be developed for cargo deliveries.
■ Drone promotion council to be set up to facilitate a business-friendly regulatory
regime.
Q.23) With respect to the Gaganyaan, consider the following statements:

1. A Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3) rocket will be used to launch this mission.
2. It will be ISRO's first human spaceflight mission.
3. ISRO has signed a contract with the French space agency for preparing the Indian astronauts selected
for the mission.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
● Context: The first trial (uncrewed flight) for Gaganyaan is being planned by the end of 2023 or
early 2024. This will be followed by sending Vyom Mitra, a humanoid and then with the crew onboard.
24
Recently, The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), along with the Indian Navy, has conducted
a trial for the Gaganyaan. Space related topics are asked such as Astrosat, IRNSS, Agni-IV Missile.
Gaganyaan
● Gaganyaan project envisages demonstration of human spaceflight capability by launching a crew
of 3 members to an orbit of 400 km for a 3 days mission and bring them back safely to earth, by
landing in Indian sea waters.
● The 3-stage heavy-lift launch vehicle GSLV Mk III, also known as the LVM-3 (Launch Vehicle
Mark-3), will be used to launch Gaganyaan because it has the necessary payload capabilities. So,
● This manned mission will be the first of ISRO’s human spaceflight missions. The US, Russia and
China are the only three countries to have conducted human spaceflights yet. So, statement 2 is
correct.
● ISRO has signed a contract with a subsidiary of ROSCOSMOS (the Russian space agency), called
Gavkosmos for preparing the Indian astronauts selected for the mission. So, statement 3 is not
correct.
Q.24) With respect to the hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. Green Hydrogen is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy.
2. Blue Hydrogen is made using a process called methane pyrolysis to produce hydrogen and solid
carbon.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Context: Hydrogen is considered a potential fuel that can replace fossil fuels in the future. India’s target
for 2022 is to generate 175 GW of renewable energy and 450 GW of renewable energy by 2030, and this
mission is expected to boost this process. Previously there have been a question on ‘fuel cells’.
● Green hydrogen is produced through electrolysis using renewable sources of energy such as solar,
wind or hydel power. The electrolysis process splits water into hydrogen and oxygen, and the
hydrogen produced can be used as a clean and renewable fuel.
● Uses:
○ Chemical industry: Manufacturing ammonia and fertilisers.
○ Petrochemical industry: Production of petroleum products.
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○ Furthermore, it is starting to be used in the steel industry, a sector which is under

considerable pressure in Europe because of its polluting effect.
● Pink hydrogen is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy. So, statement 1 is
not correct.
● Blue hydrogen is produced using electricity generated by burning fossil fuels but with
technologies to prevent the carbon released in the process from entering the atmosphere.
Turquoise hydrogen is made using a process called methane pyrolysis to produce hydrogen and
solid carbon. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Q.25) You see that food is wasted in adjoining areas. You first collect data from a farm such as soil quality,
sunlight levels, seed type, rainfall density from various sources like farm sensors, satellites, local weather
stations, etc. and then use this data to create custom recommendations for each farm that will optimize the
planting procedure, irrigation levels required, fertilizer amount, etc. All this will result in better yield of crops with a
focus on reducing world hunger in the future.
In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the
above scenario?
a) Border Gateway Protocol

b) Internet of Things
c) Internet Protocol
d) Virtual Private Network
Answer: (b)
Context: Emerging communication technologies like Internet of Things(IoT), Machine Learning, AI are always
important from the examination point of view. A question was asked on IoT by UPSC in 2018, a question on
Artificial Intelligence was asked in 2020.
IOT – Internet Of Things
● Internet of things is an integrated system in which devices are connected in a network of
information in such a way that they can communicate with each other without any human intervention.
● It creates an intelligent system of systems which can manage multiple activities of human concern
like traffic control, health management, optimal use of electricity and inventory management etc.
● IoT requires data to work. This data is then turned into meaningful information for processing.
Accessibility to data is indispensable for the working of IoT and this is being facilitated by digitization.
Applications of IoT
Smart Agriculture
● Food is an integral part of life without which we cannot survive. However, it is an unfortunate fact that
a lot of food is wasted in developed countries like America while people starve in poorer countries like
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Chad, Sudan, etc. One way to feed everyone is better agricultural practices which can be enhanced
using IoT. This can be done by first collecting data for a farm such as soil quality, sunlight levels,
seed type, rainfall density from various sources like farm sensors, satellites, local weather stations, etc.
and then using this data with Machine Learning and IoT to create custom recommendations for
each farm that will optimize the planting procedure, irrigation levels required, fertilizer amount, etc. All
this will result in better yield of crops with a focus on reducing world hunger in the future. This is done
very efficiently by SunCulture, which is an initiative by Microsoft AI for Earth. So, option (b) is correct.
Daily Lives
● There can be several examples in our day to day lives.
● For instance, a person returning home after his office hours can call his coffee-maker to make the
coffee ready when he reaches home.
● Iot can be used to water the plants of the garden whenever the moisture level falls below a certain
limit.
● We can utilise lot to convert a normal home into a smart home.
● It can be used in energy efficiency in homes and office places.
Industry
● loT's effects may vary from industry to industry based on its utilisation.
● In the manufacturing sector, loT can be utilised to enhance performance, minimise human- induced
errors and consequently improve the overall quality of the manufactured products.
● In the IT sector, utilisation of loT can result in improvement in services, development of more
advanced software and digital services etc.
Healthcare
● Medical practitioners and doctors can use it to remotely monitor the patient's health.
● Smart beds can detect when the patient is trying to get up, his abnormal activities, etc.
● Specialised sensors for senior citizens can be developed with the help of loT.
● Wearable heart monitors can help monitor the heartbeats, blood pressure of patients etc.
● It can revolutionize telemedicine applications.
Media
● Corporate media houses can utilize a lot to monitor consumer habits for the purpose of behavior
targeting and display consumer specific advertisements.
● They can utilize Big Data and Data Mining for this purpose.
Q.26) With reference to the LORA Weapon System, consider the following statements:
1. It comprises a long-range ballistic missile.
2. It is propelled by a single-stage, solid-fuel rocket motor.
3. Its guidance system is based on the Global Positioning System (GPS) and the Inertial Navigation
System (INS).
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Context: Defence PSU Bharat Electronics Ltd. (BEL) has signed an MoU with Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI)
for domestic manufacture and supply of its LORA Weapon System for the Indian Tri-services. Questions on
various weapon systems are asked by UPSC. In 2014, there was a question on Agni Missile.
About LORA Weapon System:
27
● It is a sea-to-ground and ground-to-ground system which comprises a long-range ballistic missile,

a unique launcher, a command and control system, and a ground/marine support system. So,
● It is developed by IAI’s Missiles & Space Group MALAM division.
● It provides ballistic assault capabilities for multiple ranges with a precision level of 10 meters CEP
(circular error probable).
● The ballistic missile can be launched from both ground- and sea-based platforms.
● It has a range of 90 to 430 km and a Circular error probable (CEP)of 10 metres when using a
combination of GPS and TV for terminal guidance.
● It is propelled by a single-stage, solid-fuel rocket motor. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Its guidance system is based on both the Global Positioning System (GPS) and the Inertial
Navigation System (INS), with possible in-flight maneuvering capability. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q.27) Which of the following are the applications of Doppler Effect?

1. Sirens
2. Radars
3. Medical imaging and blood flow management
4. Satellite communication
5. Astronomy
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 2, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (d)
Context: India Meteorological Department (IMD), the Ministry of Earth Science has inaugurated the Doppler
Weather Radar (DWR) Systems in Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand, and Himachal Pradesh. The Ministry of Earth
Science is also preparing to cover the entire Country through the Doppler weather radar network by 2025 for
more accurate forecasts related to extreme weather events.
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● Doppler Effect refers to the change in wave frequency during the relative motion between a wave
source and its observer.
● It was discovered by Christian Johann Doppler who described it as the process of increase or
decrease of starlight that depends on the relative movement of the star.
● Doppler Effect works on both light and sound objects. For instance, when a sound object moves
towards you, the frequency of the sound waves increases, leading to a higher pitch. Conversely, if it
moves away from you, the frequency of the sound waves decreases and the pitch comes down. The
drop in pitch of ambulance sirens as they pass by and the shift in red light are common examples
of the Doppler Effect.
● There are various applications of the Doppler Effect. It is used in:
○ Sirens
○ Astronomy
○ Radars
○ Medical imaging and blood flow management
○ Flow management
○ Velocity profile management
○ Satellite communication. So, option (d) is correct.
○ Audio
○ Vibration measurement
Q.28) With reference to the effects of Water Pollution on Human Health, consider the following pairs:
S. No. Pollutant Disease
1. Mercury Minamata
2. Cadmium Knock knee syndrome
3. Fluoride Itai Itai
4. Nitrate Black foot disease

How many pairs given above is/are correct?
a) Only one pair

b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All the four above
Answer: (a)
Context: Diseases caused by water contamination are important as there is a rising level of pollution in the water
bodies. Previously UPSC has asked questions on disease caused due to Vitamin deficiency and hereditary
diseases.
● In India at many places, the groundwater is threatened with contamination due to seepage from
industrial and municipal wastes and effluents, sewage channels and agricultural runoff.
● Pollutants like fluorides, uranium, heavy metals and nutrients like nitrates and phosphates are
common in many parts of India.
Nitrates
● Dissolved nitrates commonly contaminate groundwater.
● Excess nitrate in drinking water reacts with haemoglobin to form non-functional methaemoglobin and
impairs oxygen transport. This condition is called methemoglobinemia or blue baby syndrome.
○ Methaemoglobin is a form of the oxygen-carrying metalloprotein haemoglobin.
Methaemoglobin cannot bind oxygen, unlike oxyhaemoglobin.
● High levels of nitrates may form carcinogens and can accelerate eutrophication in surface waters.
Trace metals
● Include lead, mercury, cadmium, copper, chromium and nickel.
29
● These metals can be toxic and carcinogenic.

● Arsenic
○ Seepage of industrial and mine discharges, fly ash ponds of thermal power plants can lead to
arsenic in groundwater.
○ In India and Bangladesh (Ganges Delta), millions of people are exposed to groundwater
contaminated with high levels of arsenic, a highly toxic and dangerous pollutant.
○ Chronic exposure to arsenic causes black foot disease. It also causes diarrhoea and also
lung and skin cancer. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
● Fluoride
○ Excess fluoride in drinking water causes neuromuscular disorders, gastrointestinal
problems, teeth deformity, hardening of bones and stiff and painful joints (skeletal fluorosis).
○ Pain in bones and joint and outward bending of legs from the knees is called Knock-Knee
syndrome. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
○ Fluorosis is a common problem in several states of the country due to the intake of high
fluoride content water.
● Mercury compounds in wastewater are converted by bacterial action into extremely toxic
methylmercury, which can cause numbness of limbs, lips and tongue, deafness, blurring of vision and
mental derangement.
○ Pollution of water bodies by mercury causes Minamata (neurological syndrome) disease in
humans. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Lead causes lead poisoning (Lead interferes with a variety of body processes and is toxic to many
organs and tissues).
○ The compounds of lead cause anaemia, headache, loss of muscle power and bluish line
around the gum.
● Water contaminated with cadmium can cause itai itai disease also called ouch-ouch disease (a
painful disease of bones and joints) and cancer of lungs and liver. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Q.29) It is an initiative to promote development of niche defense technologies by domestic companies in India. It
will transform the Navy from a ‘Buyer’s Navy’ to a ‘Builder’s Navy. The task of development of this technology is
one of the 75 challenges that have been introduced by the Indian Navy under Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav. Which of
the following schemes is mentioned in the above passage?
a) SHAKTI Scheme
b) TORPEDO Scheme
c) SPRINT Scheme
d) AGNI Scheme
Answer: (c)
Context: This scheme to promote development of niche defence technologies by domestic companies is
important in the background of the current Government push towards achieving self-reliance in various sectors.
Previously UPSC has asked question on Smart India Hackathon 2017.
● ‘SPRINT’ Scheme is an initiative to promote development of niche defence technologies by
domestic companies. The task of development of this technology is one of the 75 challenges that have
been introduced by the Indian Navy under Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav in 2022.
● To achieve ‘Aatmanirbharata’ in defense, Naval Innovation and Indigenisation Organisation (NIIO), in
conjunction with the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO), aims to induct at least 75 new
indigenous technologies/products into the Indian Navy till August 2023.
● This collaborative project is named SPRINT {Supporting Pole-Vaulting in R&D through
Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX), NIIO and Technology Development Acceleration Cell
(TDAC)}.
● It will transform the Navy from a ‘Buyer’s Navy’ to a ‘Builder’s Navy. So, option (c) is correct.
Other Government Initiatives for indigenisation of Defense sector
● Defence Procurement Policy: based on the recommendations of the Dhirendra Singh committee,
Defence Procurement Procedure 2016 (replaced DPP 2013) added an additional category “Buy
(Indian-IDDM)” i.e Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured, as the most preferred
30
way of defence goods acquisition. DPP allowed the Defence Acquisition Council to take a
"fast-track" route to acquire weapons, something which was limited to only the armed forces till now.
● E-Biz Portal: process of applying for Industrial License (IL) and Industrial Entrepreneur Memorandum
(IEM) has been made completely online on ebiz portal.
● Restriction of annual capacity in the industrial license for the defence sector has been removed.
● Outsourcing and Vendor Development Guidelines: for DPSUs (defence public sector undertaking)
and OFB (ordnance factory board) to promote the participation of private sector, particularly SMEs
(small manufacturing enterprises) for defence manufacturing.
○ The guidelines mandate that each DPSU and OFB to have a short-term and long-term
outsourcing and vendor development plan to gradually increase the outsourcing from the
private sector including SMEs.
○ The guidelines also include vendor development for import substitution.
● Uniform custom duty: In order to establish a level-playing field between the Indian private sector and
the public sector, all Indian industries (public and private) are subjected to the same kind of excise
and custom duty levies.
● The FDI policy: Composite foreign investment upto 49% is allowed through Government route
(FIPB) and beyond 49% with the approval of the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) on
case-to-case basis. Restrictions such as single largest Indian shareholder to hold at least 51% equity
and complete restriction on Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) have been removed to facilitate
investment in the sector.
● Preference to 'Buy (Indian)', 'Buy & Make (Indian)' & 'Make' categories of acquisition over 'Buy
(Global)' category, thereby giving preference to Indian industry in procurement.
Q.30) Which of the following is/are characteristics of Phylum Chordata?

1. Presence of a notochord.
2. A dorsal hollow nerve cord.
3. Paired pharyngeal gill slits.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Context: 2-3 Questions on basic science are always asked by UPSC. Previously there have been questions on
the general difference between plant and animal cells.
Chordata:
● Animals belonging to phylum Chordata are fundamentally characterised by:
○ The presence of a notochord. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ A dorsal hollow nerve cord. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Paired pharyngeal [relating to the pharynx] gill slits. So, statement 3 is correct.
● They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, coelomate with organ-system level of organisation.
● Phylum Chordata is divided into three subphyla:
○ Urochordata or Tunicata,
○ Cephalochordata
31
○ Vertebrata.
● Subphyla Urochordata and Cephalochordata are often referred to as protochordates and are
exclusively marine.
● Examples: Urochordata – Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum; Cephalochordata – Amphioxus or Lancelet.
Q.31) Which of the following best describes the term Anand and Thybolt recently seen in the news?
a) Nuclear powered Submarines

b) Anti-tank Guided Missiles
c) Nanosatellites
d) Stealth frigate
Answer: (c)
Context: The new developments in space science are important from an examination point of view. Previously
space related topics were asked such as Astrosat, IRNSS, Agni-IV Missile.
ISRO launched Earth Observation Satellite - 06 (EOS-06) and eight nanosatellites.

● Anand:
○ It is a technology demonstrator nanosatellite, which is aimed at demonstrating the
capabilities and commercial applications of miniaturized earth-observation cameras.
○ Agency: Pixxel, India
● Thybolt:
○ These two amateur radio communication nanosatellites are named Thybolt-1 and Thybolt-2
and are part of the company's Thybolt mission. So, option (c) is correct.
○ Agency: Dhruva Space, India
● Small satellites are also called miniature satellites. These are of low mass & size, usually less than
500kg.
32
● They provide an alternative to larger conventional ones. These are used for earth observation,
communication, weather assessment, navigation and disaster management. Based on size and mass
these are classified as:
○ Minisatellite– It is an artificial satellite with wet mass between 100 to 500 kg
○ Microsatellite (wet mass between 10 and 100 kg)
○ Nanosatellite (wet mass between 1 and 10 kg)
○ Picosatellite (wet mass between 0.1 and 1 kg)
○ Femto Satellite (wet mass between 10 and 100 grams)
Q.32) With reference to the BharOS, consider the following statements:

1. It is an indigenous mobile operating system focused on privacy and security.
2. Under this system users have to check for updates and implement them on their own.
3. It has a No Default Apps (NDA) setting so users do not have to use pre-installed apps in this mobile
operating system.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Context: Emerging communication technologies like Internet of Things(IoT), Machine Learning, Virtual Private
Network and Operating systems are always important from the examination point of view. Previously questions
were asked on IoT, Artificial Intelligence, Short-Range devices/technologies, difference/differences between LTE
(Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution) and Software as a Service (SaaS)
BharOS
● It is an indigenous mobile operating system (OS), like Android or iOS. It is focused on privacy and
security. So, statement 1 is correct.
● A mobile operating system is a software that is the core interface on a smartphone like Android by
Google and iOS by Apple, which help smartphone users interact with their device and access its
features, while ensuring safety.
● BharOS is a contribution towards the idea of a self-reliant India or ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’ by creating
a secure OS environment for India-based users.
● BharOS Services are currently being provided to organisations that have stringent privacy and
security requirements and whose users handle sensitive information that requires confidential
communications on restricted apps on mobiles.
● Such users require access to private cloud services through private 5G networks.
Features:
● Native Over the Air:
○ BharOS would offer Native Over the Air (NOTA) updates, meaning that security updates and
bug fixes will be automatically installed rather than users having to check for updates and
implementing them on their own. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● No Default Apps:
○ No Default Apps (NDA) setting, means that users do not have to keep or use pre-installed
apps in this mobile operating system. So, statement 3 is correct.
○ NDA is key as many pre-installed apps that currently ship with other smartphones can
slow down the device or take a toll on battery life by acting as bloatware.
○ Going with an NDA design for BharOS was intentional as it will let users have more control
over the apps on their mobile phones based on the user’s trust in the app and the kind of
data they store on their phone.
● Private App Store Services:
○ It will use a system known as Private App Store Services (PASS), which will examine and
curate the apps that are safe for the users.
○ Users will be able to use other apps, as long as they meet BharOS’ PASS standards.
33
● With NDA, PASS, and NOTA, BharOS ensures that Indian mobile phones are trustworthy.
Q.33) Consider the following pairs:

S. No. Name of the Exercise Participating countries
1. Exercise Tarkash Indian and UK
2. Harimau Shakti Indian and Malaysia
3. Exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr India and UAE
4. Exercise Yudh Abhyas Indian and USA

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair

b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All the four above
Answer: (b)
Context: All around the year military exercises remain in the news.
Exercise Tarkash
● It is a counterterrorism Exercise between India’s National Security Guard(NSG) and US Special
Operations Forces(SOF). So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
● Objective: To rapidly neutralize the terrorists, rescue the hostages safely and deactivate the
chemical weapons being carried by the terrorists.
● Significance: For the first time, the exercise included Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear
(CBRN) terror response in its drill.
Exercise Yudh Abhyas
● Exercise Yudh Abhyas is a military exercise between India and the US. So, pair 4 is correctly
matched.
● Aim: To enhance understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the armies of India and
the US with a number of complex drills being planned.
● The exercise was started in 2004 under the US Army Pacific Partnership Program. The exercise is
hosted alternately between both countries.
Exercise Harimau Shakti
● Exercise Harimau Shakti is a joint annual military training exercise between India and Malaysia.
So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● The exercise has been conducted since 2012.
● Significance: The exercise will enhance the level of defence cooperation between the Indian Army and
the Malaysian Army which in turn will further foster the bilateral relations between the two nations.
● Other exercises between India and Malaysia
○ Exercise Udara Shakti: It is a bilateral air force exercise between India and Malaysia
Exercise Naseem Al Bahr
● Exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr is a bilateral naval exercise between the Indian Navy(IN) and the Royal
Navy of Oman(RNO). So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
● The exercise had three phases:
○ Harbour phase: It included professional interactions between IN and RNO operations teams
and friendly sports fixtures between the two navies.
○ Sea phase: It included tactical maritime exercises involving surface action, air defense,
maritime surveillance and interdiction/VBSS.
○ Debrief: It was the last phase of the exercise. This was conducted at the RNO Naval Base.
● Significance: The first naval exercise between the two countries was conducted in 1993. This year
marks 30 years of Indian and Omanese bilateral naval exercises.
34
Q.34) Recently, the term “Generative Pre-trained Transformer” is used in the context of
a) Artificial Intelligence
b) Energy Efficient Power Transmission
c) Cure for degenerative diseases
d) Telecommunication Protocol
Answer: (a)
Context: Recently, OpenAI has introduced a new chatbot called ChatGPT, which is a ‘conversational’ AI and will
answer queries just like a human would. Previously UPSC has asked questions on Internet of Things,
applications of AI, Public Key Infrastructure.
About ChatGPT
● GPT stands for Generative Pre-trained Transformer and this is a kind of computer language model
that relies on deep learning techniques to produce human-like text based on inputs.
● ChatGPT is a natural language processing tool driven by AI technology that allows one to have
human-like conversations and much more with the chatbot. The language model can answer questions
and assist with tasks, such as composing emails, essays, and code.
● The ChatGPT can answer “follow-up questions”, and can also “admit its mistakes, challenge
incorrect premises, and reject inappropriate requests.”
● It is based on the company’s GPT 3.5 series of language learning models (LLM).
● The model is trained to predict what will come next, and that’s why one can technically have a
‘conversation’ with ChatGPT.
● The chatbot was also trained using Reinforcement Learning from Human Feedback (RLHF).
Usage:
● It can be used in real-world applications such as digital marketing, online content creation, answering
customer service queries or as some users have found, even to help debug code.
● The bot can respond to a large range of questions while imitating human speaking styles.
● It is being seen as a replacement for the basic emails, party planning lists, CVs, and even college
essays and homework.
● It can also be used to write code, as examples have shown.
Q.35) With reference to JUICE Mission, consider the following statements:

1. It is a mission to explore Saturn and its icy moons.
2. It is a joint mission of NASA and the European Space Agency.
3. It will be the first time that the European Space Agency (ESA) has sent a spacecraft beyond the asteroid
belt.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Context: Recently, the European Space Agency launched the Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice) mission to
explore Jupiter and its icy moons, namely Ganymede, Callisto, and Europa. Previously, UPSC has asked
questions on ASTROSAT and Mangalyaan.
JUICE (JUpiter ICy moons Explorer)
● JUICE is the first large-class mission in the ESA Cosmic Vision 2015-2025 programme.
● The spacecraft was launched on an Ariane 5 in April 2023 on an eight-year journey including gravity
assist flybys of Earth and Venus before arriving in the Jupiter system in 2031.
● The European Space Agency launched the Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice) mission (NASA is not
involved in it). So, statement 2 is not correct.
35
● The JUICE mission will be the first time that the European Space Agency (ESA) has sent a
spacecraft beyond the asteroid belt. So, statement 3 is correct.
● Goals:
○ It will spend at least three years making detailed observations of the giant gaseous planet
Jupiter and three of its largest moons, Ganymede, Callisto and Europa. So, statement 1
is not correct.
○ It will understand if the oceans of these icy moons could have ever been suitable habitats for
life.
○ The mission will characterise these moons as both planetary objects and possible habitats,
explore Jupiter’s complex environment in depth, and study the wider Jupiter system as
an archetype for gas giants across the Universe.
● Components & Different Experiments:
○ JANUS - Camera system
○ MAJIS - Moons and Jupiter Imaging Spectrometer
○ UVS - UV imaging Spectrograph
○ SWI - Sub-millimeter Wave Instrument
○ GALA - GAnymede Laser Altimeter
○ RIME - Radar for Icy Moons Exploration
○ J-MAG - A magnetometer instrument for JUICE
○ PRIDE - Planetary Radio Interferometer & Doppler Experiment
Jupiter
● It is fifth in line from the Sun and by far, the largest planet in the solar system – more than twice as
massive as all the other planets combined.
● Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are called Jovian or Gas Giant Planets. These have thick
atmospheres, mostly of helium and hydrogen.
● Jupiter’s iconic Great Red Spot is a giant storm bigger than Earth that has raged for hundreds of years.
● Jupiter rotates once about every 10 hours (a Jovian day), but takes about 12 Earth years to complete
one orbit of the Sun (a Jovian year).
● Jupiter has more than 75 moons.
● The planet Jupiter's four largest moons are called the Galilean satellites after Italian astronomer
Galileo Galilei, who first observed them in 1610.
● These large moons, named Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto, are each distinctive world.
● In 1979, the Voyager mission discovered Jupiter’s faint ring system.
Q.36) With reference to LIGO India Project , consider the following statements:
1. It will be part of the international network of Gravitational Wave observatories.
2. LIGO-India will be the third observatory of its kind located in Hingoli district in Maharashtra.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Context: The Union Cabinet approved a project to build an advanced gravitational-wave detector in Maharashtra
at an estimated cost of Rs 2,600 crore. The facility’s construction is expected to be completed by 2030.
Previously UPSC has asked questions on eLISA Project and Black Holes.
Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) India project
● The project aims to detect gravitational waves from the universe.
● The Indian LIGO would have two perpendicularly placed 4-km long vacuum chambers, that constitute
the most sensitive interferometers in the world.
● It is expected to begin scientific runs from 2030.
● The government approved the construction of the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory
(LIGO) project after seven years of in-principle approval.
36
● The Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) – India is a planned advanced

gravitational-wave observatory to be located in India as part of the worldwide network, whose
concept proposal is now under active consideration in India and the USA.
● LIGO-India is envisaged as a collaborative project between a consortium of Indian research
institutions and the LIGO Laboratory in the USA, along with its international partners. So, statement
1 is correct.
● It will be built by the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and
Technology with the U.S. National Science Foundation and several national and international
research institutions.
● It will be located in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra, about 450 km east of Mumbai.
● LIGO-India will be the third of its kind in the world, made to the exact specifications of the twin LIGO,
in Louisiana (first) and Washington (second) in the U.S. A fourth detector in Kagra, Japan, will also
be made. So, statement 2 is correct.

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Most Probable Topics for UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 -

a) It is the technology to develop advanced semiconductor devices for supercomputers.

a) These are the drugs used to treat Cancer patients.

● New developments in the field of Health and diseases. Repeated theme.

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NRTI):

Q.4) Sky appears blue from earth due to -

Q.5) Which of the following plants can be grown without seeds?

Plants that can grow without seeds

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.6) With reference to DNA Fingerprinting, consider the following statements:

○ The protons eventually move at 99.999999% of the speed of light.

Use of stem cells in the Medical field:

Hakuto-R Mission1 (Hakuto-R M1)

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

T-Cells and B-Cells:

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Pair Food Adulterants

1 Pulses Sand Particles

2 Black pepper Papaya Seeds

3 Mustard Argemone Seeds

4 Chilly Powder Saw Dust

5 Sugar Washing Powder

Which of the pairs given above are correct?

Q.17) With reference to Uranium-241, consider the following statements:

■ Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV)

Q.19) With reference to Aditya L1 mission, consider the following statements:

■ Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT)

Q.20) With reference to Scandium Nitride, consider the following statements:

Q.22) With respect to the drone, consider the following statements:

Q.23) With respect to the Gaganyaan, consider the following statements:

Q.24) With respect to the hydrogen, consider the following statements:

○ Furthermore, it is starting to be used in the steel industry, a sector which is under

a) Border Gateway Protocol

● It is a sea-to-ground and ground-to-ground system which comprises a long-range ballistic missile,

Q.27) Which of the following are the applications of Doppler Effect?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

2. Cadmium Knock knee syndrome

3. Fluoride Itai Itai

4. Nitrate Black foot disease

a) Only one pair

● These metals can be toxic and carcinogenic.

Q.30) Which of the following is/are characteristics of Phylum Chordata?

a) Nuclear powered Submarines

ISRO launched Earth Observation Satellite - 06 (EOS-06) and eight nanosatellites.

Q.32) With reference to the BharOS, consider the following statements:

Q.33) Consider the following pairs:

1. Exercise Tarkash Indian and UK

2. Harimau Shakti Indian and Malaysia

3. Exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr India and UAE

4. Exercise Yudh Abhyas Indian and USA

a) Only one pair

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.35) With reference to JUICE Mission, consider the following statements:

● The Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) – India is a planned advanced

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