Crim. Soc. Q & A

ISABELA STATE UNIVERSITY CABAGAN CAMPUS
COMPILED BY: EHABIATAN AND RLASUNCION
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY
3rd Day
Morning Session (8:00-12:00 PM)
Introduction to Criminology and Psychology of Crime
1. Urban sociologist who pioneered research on social ecology of the city, who contended that forces
operating in urban areas create criminal interactions.
a. Chicago school c. radical criminology
b. conflict criminology d. positivist criminology
2. It contends that the exploitation of the working class would eventually lead to class conflict at the end
of the capitalist system.
a. Chicago school c. radical criminology
b. conflict criminology d. positivist criminology
3. Crime is a function of learning, up bringing and control, parents, peers and teachers influences
behavior.
a. ecological forces c. socialization forces
b. economic and political forces d. multiple forces
4. Crime is a function of competition for limited power and resources. Class conflict produces crimes.
5. Crime rates are function of neighborhood conditions, norm conflict and cultural forces.
6. It originated around 1764, a criminological theory advocated by Becarria and Bentham. The classical
theory focuses its core idea on________________.
a. people choose to commit crime after weighing the benefits and costs of their actions.
b. crime is a function of class struggle
c. some people have biological and mental traits that make them crime prone.
d. a person’s place in the structure determines his/her behavior
7. It was advocated by Karl Marx, William Bonger, George Vold and Ralf Dahrendorf during the year
1848. It centers on the view that capitalist system emphasizes competition and wealth and produces
and economic and social environment in which crime is inevitable.
a. classical theory c. positivist theory
b. Marxist/conflict theory d. sociological theory
8. It started around the year 1810, whose core idea is the fact that mental and degeneracy is the cause
of crime.
a. classical theory c. positivist theory
b. Marxist/conflict theory d. sociological theory
9. The sociological theory which started in the year 1897 contends that:
a. people choose to commit crime after weighing the benefits and costs of their actions.
b. crime is a function of class struggle
c. some people have biological and mental traits that make them crime prone.
d. a person’s place in the structure determines his/her behavior
10. Acts of violence or intimidation designed to frighten people considered undesirable because of
religion, sexual orientation, ethnic or race.
a. hate crimes c. discriminatory crimes
b. class crimes d. oppressive crimes
11. Offense designed to improve the financial or social position of a criminal.
a. economic crimes c. instrumental crimes
b. acquisitive crimes d. white collar crimes
12. It holds that offenders adhere to conventional values while drifting into periods of illegal behavior, in
order to drift; they must overcome moral and legal values.
a. neutralization theory c. rational theory
b. clinical theory d. modern theory
13. According to Freud, it is the ability to learn about the consequences of one’s action through
experience.
a. reality principle c. pain principle
b. pleasure principle d. all of the foregoing
14. A term used to describe motorist who assault each other.
a. road rage c. predation
b. reactive hate crime d. anarchy
15. The killing of large number of people over time by an offender who seeks to escape detection.
a. road rage c. hate crime
b. continuing crime d. serial murder
16. A computer program that disrupts or destroys existing programs and networks.
a. virus c. computer glitch
b. firewall d. all of the foregoing
17. Crimes that violate the moral order in which there is no actual target and society as a whole is
considered the victim.
a. hate crimes c. serial crimes
b. violent crimes d. victimless crimes
18. Crime that is committed when members of a group are prevented from achieving their fullest
potential because of status bias.
a. hate crimes c. crimes of repression
b. violent crimes d. discriminative crimes
19. The study of criminal behavior involving research on the links between different types of crimes and
criminals.
a. criminal typology c. criminology
b. crime typology d. all of the foregoing
20. A branch of criminology that examines change in criminal career over the life course.
a. strain theory c. development theory
b. differential association theory d. biosocial theory
21. Refers to the mental processes of criminals in action.
a. criminogenic process c. human behavior
b. criminal behavior d. criminal sychodynamics
22. Refers to morbid propensity to make love.
a. erotomania c. megalomania
b. logomacy d. dipsomania
23. He developed a system of classifying criminals according to bodily measurements, his method of
identification centered on the fact that no two individuals are alike in all dimension.
a. Dr. Charles Goring c. RH Goddard
b. Alphonse Bertillon d. John Howard
24. This school on crime causation emphasized economic determinism and concentrated on the need
for equality among all citizens. They provided statistical data which claimed to show that variations in
crime rates are associated with variations in economic conditions.
a. carthographic c. socialist school
b. psychiatric school d. sociological and social-psychological school
25. This school on crime causation is primarily concerned with the distribution of crimes in certain areas
both social and geographical.
a. carthographic c. socialist school
b. psychiatric school d. sociological and social-psychological school
26. The study of victimology which deals on the role of the victim in the commission of a crime is also
referred to as:
a. crime target c. criminal ecology
b. criminal anthropology d. criminal psychology
27. Jose a 16 year old child usually commits petty crimes as form of rebellion brought about by
communication gap, disrespect and conflict with his parents maybe classified as a:
a. environmental delinquent c. psychiatric delinquent
b. emotional maladjustment delinquent d. juvenile delinquent
28. This specific theory of criminal law argues the crime is essentially a morbid and mental phenomenon
and such as it cannot be solely treated by the application of abstract principle of jurisprudence.
a. classical theory c. neo-classical theory
b. positive theory d. modern theory
29. This explains that crime is a result of free will of men.
a. classical school of thought c. positive school of thought
b. neo classical school of thought d. Italian school of thought
30. This school of thought advocated that criminals are essentially born.
a. classical school of thought c. positive school of thought
b. neo classical school of thought d. clinical school of thought
31. Those who commits crimes because they are pushed to it by inducement, reward or promise
without considering the consequences.
a. passive inadequate criminals c. socialized delinquents
b. active aggressive criminals d. chronic criminals
32. This theory in the causes of crime states that crime maybe caused by one or more factors, while in
other instances caused by another set of factors.
a. single theory c. multiple factor theory
b. unitary cause theory d. eclectics theory
33. Refers to the reversion of man to his apelike ancestor.
a. stigmata c. anomaly
b. atavism d. all of the foregoing
34. The study of relationship between facial features and human conduct of a person in relation to his
crimes.
a. craniology c. physiognomy
b. phrenology d. all of the above
35. He claimed that the shape of the head of criminals is different from that of non-criminals.
a. Lavater c. Cesare Becarria
b. Cesare Lombroso d. Franz Joseph Spurzheim
36. Temperament of person characterized generally by relaxation of the body, loves luxury and comfort.
a. romotonic c. mesomorphic
b. athletic d. viscerotonic
37. According to Kretchmer, this type of physique is generally stout with round bodies. Person of this
type commit deception, fraud and violence.
a. pyknik type c. asthenic type
b. athletic type d. dysplastic type
38. Persons of mixed type physique tent to commit what particular crimes?
a. deception and fraud c. petty thievery
b. violence d. offences against decency
39. Sheldon noted that this type of physique have relatively predominant muscles, bone and motor
organs of the body.
a. endomorphic c. ectomorphic
b. mesomorphic d. viscerotonic
40. They are skinny and slender type persons who commit petty thievery.
a. pyknik c. asthenic
b. athletic d. mixed
41. A temperament with active dynamic gesture and characterized by aggressive and assertive behavior.
a. viscerotonic c. cerebrotonic
b. romotonic d. mesomorphic
42. Relatively predominance skin and its appendage which includes the nervous system, lean fragile and
delicate bodies.
a. endomorphic c. ectomorphic
b. mesomorphic d. romotonic
43. Known as the Mother of Criminals.
a. Margaret Juke c. Ada Kallikak
b. Ada Juke d. Ada Edwards
44. Claimed that crimes is an expression of the mental content of an individual.
a. Healy c. Cyril Burt
b. Bromberg d. Abrahamsen
45. Coined in the formula “criminal behavior equals Criminalistics tendency plus crime inducing
situation, divided by the person’s resistance to temptation”.
46. Stated that criminality is a result of emotional immaturity.
47. Stated that the cause of delinquency is the faulty development of the child during the first few years
of his life.
a. Aichorn c. Healy
b. Sigmund Freud d. Bromberg
48. Developed the psycho-analytical theory of human personality and crimes.
a. Aichorn c. Healy
b. Sigmund Freud d. Bromberg
49. Refers to the conscience of man.
a. Ego c. Super Ego
b. Id d. Spirit
50. It behaves only in terms of the pleasure principle.
a. Ego c. Super Ego
b. Id d. Spirit
51. A mental deficiency which makes a person incapable of managing themselves and their mentality is
that of 2 to 7 years of age.
a. Idiots c. Feeble-mindedness
b. Imbeciles d. Epileptics
52. Complete loss of consciousness and general contraction of the muscles.
a. Seizures c. Petit mal
b. grand mal d. Jacksonian type
53. Mild or incomplete loss of consciousness and contraction of the muscles.
54. Localized contraction of the muscles with or without loss of consciousness.
55. Better attained when the group is homogenous, isolated, undisturbed by migration and cultural
clash.
a. containment c. social organization
b. disorganization d. imitation suggestion theory
56. It was maintained that a person pursues a criminal behavior to the extent that he identifies himself
with a real or imaginary person from whose perspective his criminal behavior seems acceptable.
a. differential identification theory c. imitation suggestion theory
b. differential social organization d. conflict of culture theory
57. Argues that delinquency and crime patterns are learned and adopted.
58. High crimes and delinquency rates is explained by exposure to diverse and incongruent standards
and code.
59. Explains human behavior and the experience which helps determine the nature of a personality as a
reacting mechanism.
a. Giandell index to criminality c. criminogenoc process
b. crime rate d. human behavior
60. A false belief about self, caused by morbidity.
a. Illusion c. Erotomania
b. Delusion d. Melanchola
61. This form part of man’s physical organization between his sensory stimuli on one hand and his motor
activity on the other.
a. Ego c. Super ego
b. Id d. Spirit
62. Explains that the person before committing a crime likely to feel unhappy, resentful and unsatisfied.
a. need frustration c. external inhibition
b. internal inhibition d. contact with reality
63. Refers to the balance of “gain and loss” that a person may experience if he commits a given crime.
a. situational crime potential c. contact with reality
b. potential satisfaction d. need frustration
64. Extent to which a person can learn from his past experiences, especially his mistakes, to the extent
to which he can evaluate accurately the present situation and foresee the consequences of his action to
the future.
a. situational crime potential c. contact with reality
b. potential satisfaction d. need frustration
65. Called dementia praecox, which is a form of psychosis characterized by thinking disturbance and
regression.
a. mental deficiency c. schizophrenia
b. imbecility d. Epilepsy
66. Person whose mentality may compared to that of a 2 year old child.
a. idiots c. feeble-mindedness
b. Imbeciles d. moral defectiveness
67. Uncontrollable resistance to do something.
a. schizophrenia c. epileptic
b. idiocy d. compulsive neurosis
68. Compulsive desire to set fire.
a. dipsomania c. kleptomania
b. pyromania d. homophobia
69. Compulsive desire to drink alcohol.
b. pyromania d. homophobia
70. Irresistible urge to kill somebody.
b. pyromania d. homicidal compulsion
71. A mental disorder in which the person thinks of himself as great or exalted.
a. hallucination c. erotomania
b. delusion d. megalomania
72. Morbid craving for the dead. A perversion wherein gratification is achieved by having sexual
intercourse with or mutilation of a dead body.
a. megalomania c. necrophilia
b. erotomania d. autophobia
73. A statement which says we have no crime if we have no criminal law.
a. Ignorantia legis c. Dura lex sed lex
b. logomacy d. all of the above
74. The attempt to correlate the frequency of crime between parents and children or siblings.
a. melancholia c. logomacy
b. megalomania d. biometry
75. Transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits, tendency to disease from parents to offspring.
a. DNA c. heredity
b. inheritance d. all of the above
76. He advocated Positive Theory and considered the father of modern criminology.
a. Cesare Lombroso c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Cesare Becaria d. Edwin Sutherland
77. According to criminologists, crimes exists when:

a. a person is convicted by court c. when reported to the police
b. it is committed by person d. all of the above
78. Arson is what type of crime?
a. extinctive crime c. episodic crime
b. acquisitive crime d. continuing crime
79. The theory of criminal law which is based on human free will and the purpose of the penalty is
retribution is referred to as the_______.
a. classical theory c. positive theory
b. neo-classical theory d. neo-positive theory
80. A wanted to kill B, A shot B while the later was walking to ISU as a result B died, the act was to be
classified as:
a. attempted felony c. consummated felony
b. frustrated felony d. complete felony
81. An American authority in criminology that first considered criminology as a science and also
considered as the Dean of modern criminology.
a. Cesare Lombroso c. Edwin Sutherland
b. Raffaelle Garofalo d. Enrico Ferri
82. Theory which maintains that children and lunatics must be exempted from criminal liability because
they do not have free will.
a. neo classical c. positivist
b. classical d. neo positivist
83. The first written criminal code developed in Babylonia.
a. code of Kalantiao c. suberian code
b. code of Hammurabi d. codico penal
84. Public order crime, vagrancy, prostitution, gambling and drug addiction are also known as:
a. blue collar crime c. white collar crime
b. incidental crime d. victimless crime
85. The father of Questioned Document examination.
a. Hans Gross c. Leon Lottes
b. Alphonse Bertillon d. Albert Osborn
86. The best known and most widely cited source of official criminal statistics.
a. Interpol c. Uniform crime rate
b. victimization survey d. FBI
87. An act creating the Board of examiners for criminologist in the Philippines and for other purposes.
a. R.A 6506 c. R.A. 5606
b. R.A 8551 d. R.A. 6975
88. He claimed that criminality is not inherited instead it is learned through the process of
communication.
a. Charles Goring c. Walter Reckless
b. Edwin Sutherland d. Adolphe Quetelet
89. He studied thousand numbers of convicts and found that heredity is more influential as
determinants of criminal behavior that environment.
a. Charles Goring c. Walter Reckless

b. Edwin Sutherland d. Adolphe Quetelet
90. The study of the relationship between criminality and environment.
a. criminal ecology c. criminal psychology
b. criminal demography d. criminal epidemiology
91. The study of the relationship between criminality and population.
a. criminal ecology c. criminal psychology
b. criminal demography d. criminal epidemiology
92. A mental disorder characterized by brooding and depression of spirits.
a. hallucination c. masochism
b. melancholia d. megalomania
93. Which among the following is not considered an origin of criminal law?
a. criminal law originated from tort or private wrong
b. criminal law originated from the local process of a disorganized society
c. criminal law originated from development of customs, usage and traditions
d. criminal law originated from conflict of interest between different social groups
94. The end result of the criminal act is destructive.
a. instant crime c. extinctive crime
b. acquisitive crime d. static crime
95. Those crimes committed by ordinary criminals to maintain their livelihood.
a. white collar crimes c. professional crimes
b. blue collar crime d. organized crime
96. Persons who violate the law because of the impulse of the moment, fit of passion or anger or
extreme jealousy.
a. normal criminals c. chronic criminals
b. ordinary criminals d. acute criminals
97. Criminology which is the study of crimes and criminals was derived from what field of study?
a. forensics c. sociology
b. law d. penology
98. Crime is a function of chemical, neurological, genetic, personality, intelligence or mental traits.
a. internal forces c. multiple forces
b. situational forces d. sociological forces
99. When multiple forces are considered such as biological, social-psychological, economic and political
forces which combine to produce crime. What major perspective of criminology is used?
a. conflict perspective c. process perspective
b. development perspective d. choice perspective
100. A field sociology which scientifically study the major social changes and its effects and impact to
criminality.
a. social positivism c. biological determinism
b. Chicago school d. sociological criminology
Criminal Justice System
1. It is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party,
any peace or other public officer charge with the enforcement of the law violated.
a. Information b. Complaint
c. Arrest Warrant d. Search Warrant
2. It is evidence, which if unexplained or uncontradicted would establish the fact in question.
a. Corroborative evidence b. Cumulative evidence
c. Prima Facie evidence d. Testimonial evidence
3. It is formal written accusation made by a prosecutor and files in a court, alleging that a specified
person has committed specific person.
a. Information b. Complaint
c. Arrest Warrant d. Search Warrant
4. It is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is a sufficient ground to engender a well
founded belief that a crime has been committed and that the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and
should be held for trial.
a. Arraignment b. Custodial Investigation
c. Preliminary Investigation d. Trial
5. It is a belief based on a well grounded suspicion; reasonable grounds of belief that a person has
committed a crime.
a. Arraignment b. Plea Bargaining
c. Preliminary Investigation d. Probable Cause
6. It is the process or method whereby accusation is brought before a court of justice to determine the
innocence or guilt of the accused.
a. Prosecution b. Preliminary Investigation
c. Plea Bargaining d. Arraignment
7. It is the process of discussion or negotiation between the defense counsel and the prosecutor aimed
at reaching agreement whereby the prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a lighter
sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering a guilty plea.
8. It is a legal mechanism whereby an accused is brought before the court wherein the clerk of court
reads the complaint charge against him in the presence of his lawyer, the prosecutor in which the
accused is to announce his plea.
9. It is a request made by the prosecutor to the court for approval to terminate further criminal
prosecution against a suspect.
a. Nolle b. Nolle Prosequi
10. It is a written argument presented by the prosecuting attorney stating that he does believe the
evidence is sufficient to warrant a conviction.
a. Nolle b. Nolle Prosequi
11. It is considered as the center piece of the Philippine Criminal Justice System.
a. Law Enforcement b. Correction
c. Court d. Community
12. It is the power of the court to hear and decide legal controversies.
a. Venue b. Jurisdiction
c. Court d. Appellate Court
13. It is the territorial unit within which judicial power is exercised.
a. Venue b. Jurisdiction
c. Court d. Appellate Court
14. The exclusive jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court is those cases having a penalty of?
a. more than 3 years b. less than 3 years
c. more than 6 years d. less than 6 years
15. It is considered as the highest court of the land and it referred as the “court of last resort”.
a. RTC b. MTC
c. Court of Appeals d. Supreme Court
16. It is formerly called Immediate Appellate Court?
a. RTC b. MTC
c. Court of Appeals d. Supreme Court
17. It is otherwise known as Judiciary Reorganization Act of 1981.
a. B.P. Blg. 126 b. B.P. Blg. 128
c B.P. Blg. 129 d. B.P. Blg. 127
18. It is an informal trial which precedes the regular trial of a case primarily intended to expedite the
proceeding whenever the accused and his counsel agree whereby the court shall then conduct a
conference.
a. Trial b. Judgment
c Pre-Trial d. Appeal
19. Defined by the New Rules on Criminal Procedure, means the adjudication by the court that the
accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of the proper and civil liability
provided by the law on the accused.
20. It is a judicial examination and determination of the issues in an action or proceeding, civil or
criminal.
21. The hierarchy of proof in criminal case is?
a. preponderance of evidence b. proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. substantial evidence d. prima facie evidence
22. The reglementary period of the court of appeals to decide a case.
a. 24 months
b. 12 months unless it will reduced by the SC
c. 3 months unless it will reduced by the SC
d. 3 months after it has been submitted for decision

23. Katarungang Pambarangay is also known as presidential decree no.?
a. P.D. 1509 b. P.D. 1507
c.P.D. 1508 d. P.D. 1506
24. It is the attitude & response of society to the criminal behavior of the offender, wherein it has served
such purposes.
a. Correction b. Punishment
c. Rehabilitation d. Deterrence
25. It is a facility authorized to hold pre-trial detainee and sentences, misdemeanants for periods longer
than 48 hours.
a. Farm b. Penitentiary
c. Jail d. Bartolina
26. Usually, there are two characters involved in crime. The active or criminal and ______.
a. Passive c. Victim
b. Active d. both a & c
27. Technically, one who is apprehended by the police for committing an offense called suspect. Once
the case reaches the court for trial or hearing, the suspect person is called
a. respondent c. criminal
b. accused d. convict
28. The secondary goal of Criminal Justice System is maintenance of peace and order.
This statement is ___________.
a. true c. partially true
b. false d. partially false
29. The primary goal of Criminal Justice System is protect members of the society.
This statement is ___________.
30. The first pillar or prime mover of the Criminal Justice System is ____________.
a. court c. law enforcement
b. prosecutor d. community
31. An act establishing the Philippine National Police under the Reorganized Department of Interior and
Local Government act of 1990.
a. RA 4864 c. RA 8551
b. RA 6975 d. RA 7659
32. Police Omnipresence is also called as _______________________.
a. Police c. police visibility
b. Visible d. low and high police
33. It is the inner intent or it is only in the mind that impresses the commission of a crime.
a. desire/intent c. instrumentality/capability
b. opportunity d. all of these
34. This law is otherwise known as Police Act of 1966.
a. RA 4864 c. RA 8551
b. RA 6975 d. RA 541
35. It initiates the Criminal Justice System by investigating the crime and arresting the suspects.
a. correction c. law enforcement
b. prosecutor d. court
36. Refers to policemen performing all of the police functions. They consider as the “jack of all trade”
a. specialist c. criminalist
b. social services d. generalist
37. Taking of a person into custody that he may be bound to answer for the commission of the offense.
a. warrant c. commitment order
b. arrest d. investigation
38. The wise use of one’s judgment, personal experience and common sense to decide a particular
situation.
a. decision c. discretion
b. judgment d. none of the above
39. A police administrative action officially recording an arrest and identifying the person, the place,
time, arresting authority and reason for the arrest.
a. booking/blotter c. memorandum
b. order of battle d. none of the above
40. Under the Police point of view, the crime exists when the alleged act violated is reported or has
come to the knowledge of authorities. This statement is _____________.
ETHICS AND VALUES
1. The ultimate purpose of the PNP Code of Ethics:

a. aggressive crime busting
b. to have dedicated public servants
c. to have an approachable law enforcers
d. to have professional and dedicated law enforcers
2. This refers to the agreement of a PNP member to his institution:
a. Code of Conduct c. Code of Covenant
b. Code of Agreement d. Code of Attachment
3. The purpose of this is to enlighten and to serve as guidance of the members of PNP:
a. Code of Ethics c. Code of Values
b. Code of Enlightenment d. PNP Code
4. This primary goal of the police, which is usually done through patrol, is actually more complex
than expected since this objective can only be successfully accomplished if the desire [on the
part of the would-be violator], as well as the instrumentality [in committing the crime] can be
eliminated:
a. Crime prevention c. Crime eradication
b. Crime control d. crime watch
5. This refers to the virtue or ability to govern oneself:
a. Discipline c. Justice
b. Endurance d. Sacrifice
6. This is the virtue of endurance without yielding:
a. Fortitude c. willingness
b. determination d. focus
7. Which of the following does not comprise fortitude:
a. Patience c. Endurance
b. Diligence d. Perseverance
8. This trait is characterized by composure in doing something:
a. Fortitude c. Patience
b. Diligence d. Tact
9. This is considered as the key to professionalism:
a. career opportunity c. career management
b. career obligation d. career achievement
10. Habit that inclines a person to act in a way that harmonizes with his nature:
a. Order c. Virtue
b. Rule d. Norm
11. This virtue connotes courage:*

a. Fortitude c. Patriotism
b. Courageous act d. Bravery
12. It refers to the trait of effective guarding of classified documents:

a. Secrecy discipline c. Protection discipline
b. Absolute denial d. Top secret matters
13. This is about the firmness of mind:

a. Fortitude c. Capability
b. Ability d. Determination
14. The ability to moderate something is a trait known as:

a. Control c. Temptation
b. Temperance d. Tempting situation
15. This refers to the ability to move on in spite of the obstacles:

a. Willingness c. Determination
b. Perseverance d. Persuasion
16. The trait characterized by utmost restraint or self control in a crisis situation:
a. Maximum tolerance c. Absolute patience
b. Maximum restraint d. Absolute perseverance
17. It is a must for members of the PNP to oftentimes bear faithful allegiance to the legitimate
government, respect the duly constituted authority and be loyal to the police service.
a. True
b. False
18. The police service is a noble profession and demands from its members specialized knowledge,
skills and minimum standard of ethics and morality.
a. True
b. False
19. It may be therefore necessary for the members of the Philippine National Police to adhere to
and internalize the enduring core values of love of God, respect for authority, selfless love and
service for people, respect for women and the sanctity of marriage, responsible dominion and
stewardship over material things, and truthfulness.
a. True
b. False
20. To maintain a good image and thus avoid subjecting the PNP to adverse circumstances; as a
minimum requirement, the members of the PNP should conduct themselves in a manner that
would not place the PNP organization in bad light. Instead, they should live in accordance with
the PNP core values and possess the following virtues: honor, integrity, valor, justice, honesty,
humility, charity and loyalty to the service.
a. True
b. False
21. This is the time honored principle characterized by one’s restraint and avoidance of subjecting
himself to adverse situations as it would affect eventually to the organization he is serving:
a. Temperance c. Reservation
b. Delicadeza d. Maximum inhibition

22. The enjoyment of the will derived from the attainment of the thing he desired earlier is referred
to as:
a. Intention d. Wish
b. Consent e. Fruition
c. Election
23. An erroneous conscience whose error is not willfully intended is called:
a. False conscience d. Scrupulous conscience
b. Certain conscience e. Doubtful conscience
c. Inculpable conscience f. Lax conscience
24. This refers to the recognition of one’s own inadequacies, inability and limitation as individuals
and perform their duties without attracting attention or expecting applause of others:
a. Perseverance c. Humility
b. Integrity d. Loyalty
c. Justice
25. This refers to the established usages or social practices carried on by traditions that have
obtained the force of law:
a. Tradition c. Ceremony
b. Courtesy d. Social decorum
c. Custom
26. A formal act or set of formal acts established by customs or authority as proper to and occasion:
a. Tradition c. Ceremony
b. Courtesy d. Social decorum
c. Custom
27. One of the first things that a law enforcement officer must learn is that he has no private life.
a. True
b. False
28. The sacrifice of PNP members of their limbs and lives for the sake of their countrymen whom
they have pledged to serve is referred to as:
a. Nationalism d. Dedication
b. Patriotism e. Service
c. Loyalty f. Valor
29. What do you call the act extending hospitality to visiting personnel who pay respect to the
command or unit?
a. Courtesy call of newly assigned members
b. Courtesy of the post
c. Promotion call
d. Courtesy call
e. Exit call
30. This ethical category refers to a human being’s relation to others and is probably the most
important category of morality in that it cuts across all of the other categories and is found in
more ethical systems that any of the others:
a. Natural morality c. Individual morality
b. Social morality d. Religious morality
31. This ethical category involves the relationship of a human being to a supernatural being:
a. Natural morality c. Individual morality

b. Social morality d. Religious morality
32. Which of the following is an approach to the study of morality?
a. Scientific c. Prescriptive
b. Descriptive d. Philosophical
33. This word means, “out of realm of morality”:
a. Immoral c. Nonmoral
b. Amoral d. Unmoral
34. This term means, “having no moral sense or being indifferent to right or wrong”:
a. Immoral c. Nonmoral
b. Amoral d. Unmoral
35. If ethics pertains to the individual character of a person; this one pertains to the relationship
among human beings:
a. Etiquette c. Group ethics
b. Morality d. Ethical
36. This comes the Greek word “moralis,” meaning customs or manner:
a. Immorality c. Morality
b. Ethics d. Moral
37. This comes from the Greek word “ethos,” which means character:
a. Ethics c. Morality
b. Ethical standard d. Etiquette
38. If one has unjustly threaten the life of another, then such aggrieved individual or any other
individual will be _____________in defending himself or the other individual against the
aggressor.
a. Morally justified c. Morally wrong
b. Right d. Morally conceivable
39. An armed conflict openly carried out between nations or states, or between different parties in
the same state:
a. War c. Struggle
b. Clash d. Revolution
40. It is a practical science that treats the principle of human morality and duty as applied to law
enforcement:
a. Ethics c. Code of Ethics
b. Virtue d. Police Ethics
41. It is a normative science that deals with the conduct of human beings in the society:
a. Ethics c. Morality
b. Philosophy d. Conscience
42. It is the voice of reason bidding oneself to do something right or to avoid something wrong:
a. Conscience c. Privilege
b. Righteousness d. Super Ego
43. It concerns to those actions which pertains to one’s duties toward his neighbors and to himself:
a. Virtue c. Dedication
b. Service d. Responsibility
44. This refers to the doctrine that imposes commensurate accountability to one who is vested with
authority to exercise management and leadership functions:
a. Delegation of authority c. Span of control
b. Command responsibility d. Responsibility

45. It refers to the obligation to perform duties and functions and the consequences of activities
under one’s command:
a. Delegation of authority c. Span of control
b. Command responsibility d. Responsibility
46. This virtue, which regulates those actions that involve the rights existing between a person and
another individual, imposes to the guilty one the duty of restitution once there has been a
violation thereof:
a. Cummulative justice c. Legal justice
b. Distributive justice d. Commutative justice
47. This division of justice regulates those actions what involve the rights which an individual can
claim from the society:
48. This division of justice is a virtue that regulates those actions which society may justly require
the individual for the common good:
49. Any person who, by direct provision of law or by appointment of competent authority, is
charged with the maintenance of public order and the protection of life and property:
a. Agent of person in authority
b. Person in authority
c. Public servant
d. Public officer
50. The public expects the police officer to live a ________life yet credible and dignified.
a. Complex c. Relevant
b. Simple d. Honest
51. Enhancing police effectiveness depends largely on:
a. Greater fund c. Professionalism
b. Technological advancement d. Greater citizen cooperation
52. The multiple duties of the police at all times and in all areas of the community dictate that:
a. They must enforce the law
b. They influence the daily life of each citizen
c. They must be affiliated to any political party
d. They must effect arrest of culprits immediately
53. As observed in many police departments, which among the major tasks of the police is often
neglected:
a. Investigation c. Intelligence
b. Traffic d. Community relations
54. These are the consequences of good police community relations, EXCEPT:
a. Effective crime prevention programs and better crime clearance rates
b. Less criticism and despair but a higher morale among officers
c. More public approval and support of police efforts
d. Avoids internal disharmony among officers
55. Every organization that provides a product or service to the public is interested in establishing
and maintaining a good reputation among its:
a. Citizens c. Clients
b. Personnel d. Employees
56. The police community relations may either be positive or negative depending upon:
a. The quality of police interactions with other citizens
b. The fund given to the police department
c. The fund given to the community
d. All of the above
57. This refers to a society governed and controlled by a centralized authority arranged in a
hierarchical manner with a monopoly over the use of force and coercion:
a. Government c. Country
b. State d. City
58. It is believed that the need for laws and law enforcement arose through the process of:
a. Human interaction c. Public consensus
b. Police brutality d. Public conflict
59. The least formalized area and yet is the basis of the community relations program:
a. Human relations c. Public relations
b. Police relations d. Departmental relations
60. Each officer should be made aware that the success of the police mission is dependent on a solid
community relations program permeated by positive community relations.
a. True
b. False
61. Public distrust with the police has the following results, EXCEPT:
a. Unwillingness to extend help to officers in distressed conditions
b. Failure to report suspicious persons
c. Unwillingness to testify in court
d. Decreased level of crimes
62. The police is often blamed by the public for faults made in the justice network because:
a. They are the most visible representative of authority
b. They often interfere with the lives of the people
c. They have firepower and organization
d. The public don’t trust them
63. It is the critical element in police work, primarily because of our inability to predict when,
where, and with whom it will occur:
a. Danger c. Hazard
b. Haphazard d. Nuisance
64. The badge, uniform and weapon of the police are all:
a. Symbol of authority c. Symbol of force
b. Symbol of leadership d. Symbol of power
65. The PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards is envisioned to:
a. Achieve and maintain highly professional, honest, efficient and competent law
enforcers worthy of public respect and trust
b. To lift the sprit ‘d corps of PNP members
c. Increase the salary of policemen
d. To improve police service
66. Which of the following is not part of the PNP Core values:
a. Love of God
b. Selfless love and service to people

c. Respect for authority, women and sanctity of marriage
d. Uphold public interest over and above personal interest
e. Responsible dominion and stewardship over material things
67. To show respect for authority, a police officer [in accordance to the police creed should do the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Respect and uphold the Constitution, the laws of the land and the applicable rules and
regulations
b. Recognize the legitimacy and authority of the leadership
c. Follow and obey legal orders of his superiors officers
d. Abide with the wishes of his peers and superiors
68. Human resource development system should be compatible with the following, EXCEPT:
a. Immediate grant of reward and award
b. Decent living upon retirement
c. Community relations skills
d. Skill development
69. To address the flaws in the implementation of career management in the PNP, the following
should be done, EXCEPT:
a. Formulate a stringent policy regarding career management
b. Implement properly the human resource development system
c. There must be fair promotion, rationalized approach in assignment, skill development,
immediate grant of reward and award and decent living upon retirement
d. Every member of the PNP must endeavor to promote a lifestyle that is acceptable and
respectable in the eyes of the public
70. To establish a civilian character in the police service, the following should be done except:
a. Police officers must understand that the PNP is not a military organization
b. Military doctrines and practices should be discarded
c. Adherence to the rule on merit and fitness system
d. Rigid combat training
71. All members of the PNP must respect and protect human dignity and further observe with
deference the following inalienable rights of man, EXCEPT:
a. Life c. Property
b. Liberty d. Citizenship
72. In the standard of professionalism, it is stated that all PNP members shall perform their duties
with the following requirements, EXCEPT:
a. Excellence
b. Intelligence
c. Competency and integrity
d. Efficient administration of justice
e. Expertise in the application of specialized skill and technical knowledge
73. The following professional conduct must be observed by all members of the PNP, EXCEPT:
a. Commitment to public interest
b. Commitment to democracy
c. Non-partisanship
d. Patronage
74. In the Code of Conduct, it is provided that all PNP members must inhibit himself from soliciting
political patronage on matters below, EXCEPT:
a. Awards c. Promotion
b. Assignments d. Community relation
75. While in uniform, PNP members must commit themselves to the democratic way of life and
maintain the principle of public accountability.
a. True
b. False
76. So as not to be held accountable, members of the PNP must refrain from taking custody of
public properties.
a. True b. false
77. As a devotion to duty, police officers must understand, first and foremost, that they are public
servants.
a. True
b. False
78. Judicious use of authority means the exercise of proper and legitimate use authority in the
performance of duty.
a. True
b. False
79. One manner in which police officers could effectively maintain integrity is not to allow
themselves to be victims of corruption and dishonest practices.
a. True
b. False
80. This involves the binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the police
organization, extending to the people they serve, manifested by the PNP members’ deep
commitment and concern to one another:
a. Loyalty c. Camaraderie
b. Bond d. Word of honor
81. Patriotism can ultimately be manifested through pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to
depend the Constitution.
a. True
b. False
82. We can see the pride and dignity of every PNP member on the way he walks.
a. True
b. False
83. This is a practice of deference to deceased uniformed members of the command:
a. Flag Raising Ceremony c. Flag Retreat
b. Half-mast d. Burial
84. This is the time in which oath of commitment to the PNP Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards
should be made:
a. Assumption to office c. Deployment
b. Promotion d. Assignment
e. Both a and b
85. The following have jurisdiction over violations of the PNP Code of Conduct and Ethical
Standards, EXCEPT:
a. Napolcom c. Civil Service Commission
b. PNP d. PPSC
86. The Philippine National Police (PNP) is the only law enforcement agency that subscribes to a
certain code of ethical standards.
a. True
b. False
87. “We are committed to the vision of a professional, dynamic and highly motivated PNP,
supported by a responsive community regarded as one of the most credible national institutions
and ranked among the best in Asia,” is the vision of the PNP.
a. True b. false
88. “The PNP shall enforce the law; prevent and control crimes, maintain peace and order, and
ensure public safety and internal security with the support of the community,” is the mission
statement of the PNP.
a. True
b. False
89. Every member of the PNP must pledge allegiance to the flag and to the republic for which it
stands as one nation under God, indivisible, with liberty, justice, and democracy for all.
a. True
b. False
90. In case of conflict in the practice of customs and traditions on the one hand and in the
performance of police duties on the other, the latter shall prevail.
a. True
b. False
91. The police has the responsibility to recognize that the test of police efficiency is the absence of
crime and order, not the invisible evidence of law enforcement action in dealing with crime and
disorder; enshrine the principle that crime prevention is better than crime solution; measure is
better than countermeasure.
a. True
b. False
92. The police have the responsibility to recognize that the achievement of a professional service
depends principally upon the constant development of police education and training, research,
planning and exercise.
a. True
b. False
93. The police has the responsibility to recognize that the test of law enforcement integrity is the
apparent presence of personal moral responsibility exemplified by virtuous behavior and non-
compromising attitude as a law enforcement officer.
a. True
b. False
94. The police has the responsibility to recognize that the stability of the republic, the continuity of
sovereignty and strength of democracy depends upon a police organization that is inconsistently
aware of the sensitive balance between individual freedom and collective security; ever alert to
the dangers of extra legal or immoral procedures; and never compromise principle in favor of
evil means to attain the good ends.
a. True
b. False
95. The police have the responsibility to recognize the ever magnificent principle: fear God, honor
the government and respect the people.
a. True
b. False
96. The police have the responsibility to recognize that the fulfillment of its functions is dependent
upon its own reasons of existence, and on its ability to obtain and maintain responsive support
and participative cooperation.
a. True
b. False
97. The police have the responsibility to recognize that when the community cooperates and assists
the police it diminishes proportionately the need for the use of physical force and compulsion in
achieving law enforcement objectives.
a. True
b. False
98. The police has the responsibility to seek and preserve personal favor, not by soliciting public
opinion, but by constant demonstration of impartiality by ready offering of individual service
and congeniality to all members of the community without regard to their wealth, friendship,
social standing, and race; and by readily offering of individual sacrifice and to some extent the
sacrifice of relative.
a. True
b. False
99. The police has the responsibility to sometime maintain wholesome relationship with the
community that gives reality to the historic tradition that the police is the people and the people
is the police; police officers are members of the community who are paid to render public safety
services due upon every citizen, endearing the principle that a public office is a public trust.
a. True
b. False
100. The police have the responsibility to recognize the need for strict adherence to the law;
refrain from usurping the powers and authority of judiciary in avenging individuals, judging guilt
and punishing the guilty.
a. True
b. False
Juvenile Delinquency and Crime Prevention
1. An act providing for stronger deterrence and special protection against child abuse, exploitation and
discrimination.
a. Pd 603 c. Pd 1612
b. Pd 1602 d. Ra 7610
2. Refers to persons below 18 years of age or those over but unable to fully take care of themselves
from neglect, abuse, cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due to some physical defect or mental
disability or condition.
a. Minor
b. Youth
c. Wards
d. Children
3. Refers to bodily damage, whether external or internal
a. Abuse
b. Cruelty
c. Psychological injury
d. Physical injury
4. A condition or act which may cause suffering emotional or physical harm on the part of the child.
a. Physical injury
b. Cruelty
c. Psychological injury
d. Child abuse
5. A harm done to a child intellectual function which causes a change in behavior, awareness and
emotional response.
a. Cruelty
b. Physical injury
c. Child abuse
d. Psychological injury
6. Anything say or done that degrades, debases or demeans the inherent worth and dignity of a child.
a. Cruelty c. Neglect
b. Abuse d. Discrimination
7. Failure to provide for the needs of a child
a. Neglect c. Abuse
b. Cruelty d. Discrimination
8. Lewd or sexually motivated acts done to others.
a. Lascivious conduct c. Unjust vexation
b. Obscenity d. Sexual abuse
9. Acts or condition harmful to children that takes advantage of their innocence.
a. Exploitation c. Obscenity
b. Abuse d. Lascivious conduct
10. Anything deliberately done those results in a child engaging in sexual activity with any person
willingly or otherwise.
a. Sexual abuse c. Lascivious conduct
b. Molestation d. Obscenity
11. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in an activity

a. Molestation c. Abuse
b. Coercion d. Cruelty
12. Forcing an activity on a child without consent
a. Coercion c. cruelty
b. Molestation d. abuse
13. Aside from a child, who may file against any violation of r.a 7610?
a. Parents or guardians
b. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3rd degree of consanguinity
c. Barangay chairman, officer of dswd or at least three responsible citizens
d. All of the foregoing
14. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon any knowledge of a child who have been
treated or suffered from abuse.
a. Report the incident to the family
b. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
c. Report to the DSWD within 24 hours upon discovery of abuse
d. File a case in court in behalf of a child
15. A teacher upon learning that a child under his/her supervision has been a victim of abuse shall:
a. Report the incident to the family
b. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
c. Report the incident to the DSWD , whether oral or written
d. File a case in court in behalf of a child
16. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of
any person who tries to control his behavior.
a. Social
b. Neurotic
c. Asocial
d. Accidental
17. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
a. Social delinquent
b. Neurotic delinquent
c. Asocial delinquent
d. Accidental delinquent
18. A remorseful, cold, vicious and brutal delinquent.
a. Social delinquent
b. Neurotic delinquent
c. Asocial delinquent
d. Accidental delinquent
19. Refers to a person whose behavior results with repeated conflict with the law.
a. Juvenile c. Delinquent
b. Habitual criminals’ d. Recidivist
20. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence social structures.
a. Biogenic approach
b. Psychogenic approach
c. Sociogenic approach
d. All of these
21. It explains delinquency is a result of critical factors such as personality problems to which
misbehavior is a response mechanism.
d. None of these
22. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some hereditary defect.
d. Biologic approach
23. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is the result of factors such as personal problems,
ignorance, and curiosity.
a. Predisposing factor c. Biologic factor
b. Precipitating factor d. Environmental factor
24. Refers to the inherited propensities which cannot be considered as criminal on unless there is a
probability that a crime will be continued.
a. Predisposing factor c. Biologic factor
b. Precipitating factor d. Environmental factor
25. Refers to a type of delinquent of gang in which the manipulation of violence predominates as away
of winning status and respect.
a. Criminal sub-culture c. Conflict sub-culture
b. Juvenile gang d. Retreatist sub-culture
26. A child with no parent or guardian.
a. Abandoned child c. Neglected child

b. Dependent child d. All of these
27. If the offender is over nine years of age but less than 18 years of age to the time of the commission
of crime, he is often referred to as:
a. Socialized delinquent c. Youth offender
b. Criminal d. Truant
28. Not mere creature of the state but regarded as its most important asset.
a. Family c. Child
b. Woman d. Youth
29. Basic unit of society.
a. Family c. School
b. Church d. Community
30. Foundation of the nation.
a. Family c. School
b. Church d. Community
31. Implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring.
a. Control c. Repression
b. Prevention d. Recession
32. Acknowledge the existence of unlawful behavior.
a. Control c. Repression
b. Prevention d. Recession
33. Community hazards harmful to youth.

a. Undesirable condition c. Obstruction
b. Attractive nuisance d. Police hazards
34. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs and illicit experiences is stressed.
a. Retreatist sub-culture c. Criminal sub-culture
b. Conflict sub-culture d. All of these
35. Absence without cause for more than 20 school days.
a. Vices c. Truancy
b. Undesirable behavior d. Attractive nuisance
36. Provides temporary protection and care to children requiring emergency reception.
a. Detention home c. Receiving home
b. Shelter care institution d. Foster home
37. Age wherein children may engage in gainful light work..
a. 15 c. 17
b. 16 d. 18
38. Shall refer to any organization of individuals below 21 years of age.
a. Ngo c. Youth organization
b. Civic organization d. Youth association
39. Aggregate of persons or those responsible persons from various sector of the community...
a. Organization c. Samahan
b. Club d. Association
40. Shall refer to any organization whose members are 21 years or older.
a. Ngo c. Youth organization
b. Civic organization d. Youth association
41. Shall mean local government together with society of individuals or institutions.
a. Family c. Community
b. School d. All of the foregoing
42. Criminal liability attached to parents who neglect parental duties.
a. Imprisonment from 1 month to 2 months
b. Imprisonment from 2 to 6 months
c. Imprisonment from 6 months to 1 year
d. Imprisonment from 1 year to 3 years
43. What do we call a child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended?
b. Dependent child d. All of the foregoing
44. Known as a child and youth welfare code.
a. P.D 968 c. P.D 1081
b. P.D 1602 d. P.D 603
45. Refers to anti social act which deviates from normal pattern of rules and regulations.
a. Juvenile delinquency c. Quasi recidivism
b. Recidivism d. Delinquency
46. A child deserted with no proper care from his/ her parents or guardian.
b. Dependent child d. All of the foregoing
47. Age of majority under Philippine law.
a. 18 c. 20
b.19 d. 21
48. A place of residence whose primary function is to give shelter and care to pregnant women and their
infants.
a. Rehabilitation center c. Foster homes
b. Hospital d. Maternity home
49. Family home type which provide temporary shelter from 10 to 20 days for children for children
under observation by the DSWD.
a. Nursery b. Maternity homes
c. Receiving homes d. Shelter care institution
50. A 24 hour child caring institution that provide short term resident care for youthful offenders
a. Child caring institution b. Detention home
c. Nursery d. Foster home
51. A condition in individuals characterized by absence or diminution of standards and values.
a. Delinquency b. Anomie
c. Criminal behavior d. Atavism
52. The recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of a child for the purpose of
exploitation.
a. Kidnapping b. trafficking in person
c. Prostitution d. White slave trade
53. Is one that provides twenty four resident group care service for the physical, mental, social and
spiritual well-being of nine or more mentally gifted, dependent, abandoned, neglected, handicapped or
disturbed children, or youthful offenders?
c. Shelter home d. Nursery
54. An institution or person assuming the care , custody protection and maintenance of children for
placement in any child caring institution or home or under the care or custody of any person or persons
for the purposes of adoption guardianship, or foster care.
c. Shelter home d. Child placing agency
55. The members of these classification are severely or profoundly retarded, hence, the least capable
group. This includes those with I.Q’s to 25.
a. Trainable group b. Borderline line or low normal group
c. Educable group d. Custodial group
56. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with I.Q’s from about 75 to 89. The members of this
classification are only slightly retarded and they can usually get by in regular classes if they receive some
extra help, guidance and consideration.
57. The members of these groups consist of those with I.Q’s from about 25 to about 50; one who belong
to these groups shows a mental level and rate of development which is ¼ to ½ that of the average child,
is unable to acquire higher academic skills.
58. This group I.Q’s ranges from about 50 to about 75 , and the development is approximately ½ to ¾ of
that expected of a normal child of the same chronological age.
59. Refers to children who, although not afflicted by insanity or mental defect are unable to maintain
normal social relations with others and the community in general due to emotional problems or
complexes.
a. Mental ill b. Emotionally disturbed
c. Handicapped d. Disabled
60. Refers to those children with any behavioral disorder, whether functional or organic, which is of such
a degree of severity as to require professional help or hospitalization.
a. Mental ill b. Emotionally disturbed
c. Handicapped d. Disabled
61. Any person duly appointed by the court of competent authority to exercise care and custody of or
parental authority over the person of such child/employee.
a. Parents b. Father
c. Mother d. Legal guardian
62. Under the law, a child under 15 years of age may be allowed to work for not more than twenty hours
a week provided that the work hour shall not be more than hours in any given day.
a. 3 b. 4
c.5 d. 8
63. Refers to a child who is vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offences because of
personal, family, and social circumstances.
a. Juvenile b. Child in conflict with law
c. Delinquent d. All of these
64. Refers to the program provided in a community setting develop for purposes of intervention and
diversion as well as rehabilitation of a child in conflict with the law.
a. Day care center b. Community based program
c. Rehabilitation center d. Foster home

65. An alternative , child appropriate process of determining the responsibility and treatment of a child
in conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social , cultural, economic psychological or rehabilitation
a. Intervention b. Diversion
c. Rehabilitation center d. Probation
66. A series of activities which are designed to address issues that cause the child to commit an offense.
It may take the form of an individualized treatment program which may include counseling, skills
training, education and other activities that will enhance his/her psychological, emotional and psycho-
social well being.
a. Diversion b. Intervention
c. Rehabilitation d. Probation
67. System dealing with children at risk and children in conflict with the law ,which provides child
appropriate proceedings including programs and services for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation ,
reintegration and after care to ensure their normal growth and development.
a. Criminal justice system b. Juvenile justice system
c. Criminal procedure d. Restorative justice
68. A principles which requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the
victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to obtain the reparation for the victim; reconciliation of
the offender, the offended and the community; and reassurance to the offender that he/she can be
reintegrated into society, the victim and the community in prevention strategies.
a. Criminal justice system b. Juvenile justice system
c. Criminal procedure d. Restorative justice
69. Offences which discriminate only to a child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for
committing similar acts. These shall include curfew violations; truancy, parental disobedience and the
like.
a. Child offense b. Status offense
c. Delinquency d. All of these
70. Police enforcers who have taken into custody a child in conflict with the law, under the juvenile
justice act is mandated to turn over child to the custody of the department of social welfare and
development or any accredited non-government organization immediately but not later than
hours after apprehension
a. 8 b. 12
c. 24 d. 36
71. When the penalty against minor exceeds six years imprisonment, diversion measures maybe
resorted by.
a. Barangay council b. Court
c. Social worker d. Any of the foregoing
72. Process of the diversion may be conducted on.
a. Katarungang pambarangay b. Police investigation
c. Inquest d. All of these
73. The program of diversion is only completed within.
a. 40 days b. 45 days
c. 50 days d. 55 days
74. The implementation of diversion is supervised by.
a. PNP b. Court
c. Punong barangay d. Social welfare officer
75. Diversion program given to a child in conflict with the law are base on the following factors except;
a. Child feeling of remorse to the offense committed

b. The ability of the parents or guardians to guide or supervise the child
c. The victim’s view of the penalty imposes
d. The availability of the community base program
e. None of the foregoing
Human Behavior and Crisis Management

1. It means a turning point in the course of anything, decisive or crucial time, stage or event
a. Crisis c. Crisis Management
b. Physical Crisis d. Emergency
2. This type of hazards or crisis is the result of the state of mind, attitude, weakness or character
traits of a person or group of persons.
a. Natural Hazards c. Man-made hazards
b. Physical hazards d. all of the foregoing
3. Is a set of circumstances wherein a suspected law violator is holding a person captive with the
use of force and threat of violence while the police are in close contact with his suspect and
captive?
b. Hostage taking d. Hostage situation
4. It consist of work t be performed in order to arrange & relate work so that it can be
accomplished effectively.
a. Planning c. Organizing
b. Leading d. forecasting
5. It is the expert handling of a crisis or emergency to reduce or eliminate danger or damage
especially on the part of government.
b. Hostage taking d. Hostage situation
6. When the individual is suffering from pain & discomfort brought about by illness & other health
problems.
a. Crisis c. Individual Crisis

b. Physical Crisis d. Emotional Crisis
7. It consists of work to be performed in order to stimulate people to take effective action.
a. Planning c. Organizing
b. Leading d. forecasting
8. In planning to manage hostage situations, it involves the following steps, except:
a. Forecasting c. Establishing objective
b. Scheduling d. Delegating
9. These are the common demand of criminals, except:
a. Money c. Escape
b. Transportation d. Weapons
10. People who take hostages for personal reasons.
a. Persons in crisis c. Common Criminals
b. Hostage taker d. terrorist
11. Period of disorganization
b. Emergency d. all of the above
12. He issues media briefings, monitor media activities & issues press releases.
a. Public Information Officer c. Negotiator
b. Commander d. Emergency Services Teams
13. They are responsible in the placement of electronic devices, counter-sniper, assault & recovery
during the hostage situations.
a. Public Information Officer c. Negotiator
b. Commander d. Emergency services Team
14. In principles of negotiation, the hostage has no value to the hostage taker.
a. True c. False
b. Partially True d. Doubtfully true
15. He provides technical assistance to the SWAT team & negotiators by controlling all
communications to the Hostage taker.
a. Commander c. Communication Specialist
b. National Telecommunication Company d. Telephone Operator
16. A person whose has an irrational or distorted concept of what is right or wrong
a. Physical crisis c. Emotional crisis
b. Moral crisis d. Social crisis
17. It means a turning point in the progress of an affair or a series of events.
a. Crisis c. Emergency
b. Crisis Management d. Hostage Situation
18. It means a sudden condition or state of affairs calling for immediate action.
b. Crisis Management d. Hostage Situation
19. It involves the prevention of loss, damage or destruction of property, injury or loss of life.
b. Crisis Management d. all of the foregoing
20. Ideologically-inspired individuals who take hostages because of political and ideological beliefs
a. Political terrorist c. Person in crisis
b. Common criminals d. all of the foregoing
21. He reduced human to the state of animals governed by force and fraud.
a. Niccolo Machiavelli b. Thomas Hobbes c. Charles Darwin d. Cesare Lombroso

22. He emphasized that human are basically mean spirited, brutish animals.
23. He wrote a thesis which states that human are fundamentally animals developed from a common
biological ancestry along with all animals and other living things.
24. The killing of three or more individuals without any cooling off period, usually at two or more
locations is called ________________.
a. mass murder b. serial murder c. multiple murder d. spree murder
25. It refers to the killing of three or more person at a single location with no cooling off period
between murders.
26. It is the random killing of group of people, either in one episode or individually over a period of
time.
27. An incident where individual kills a number of individuals usually a minimum of three over a time
with time intervals or cooling off on the part of the murderer.
28. The aspect of human behavior pertains to our way of thinking, reasoning and solving problem.
a. emotional aspect b. intellectual aspect c. moral aspect d. social aspect
29. What aspect of behavior pertains to our feeling, mood and temper?
a. emotional aspect b. intellectual aspect c. moral aspect d. social aspect
30. Our idea towards society or government refers to our ___________________.
a. moral aspect b. value c. attitude d. political aspect
31. Our conscience and concept on what is good or bad refers to our _________________.
a. moral aspect b. value c. attitude d. political aspect
32. The simultaneous arousal of two or more incompatible motives resulting to unpleasant emotion is
called ______________________.
a. anxiety b. stress c. conflict d. frustration
33. According to Abraham Maslow, the highest need satisfaction of human is ________________.
a. esteem need b. cognitive need c. self actualization d. aesthetic
34. Non- satisfaction of one or both parent from the relationship is what kind of Pathogenic family
structure?
a. disrupted family b. discordant family
c. anti-social family d. inadequate family
35. A family with incomplete parent whether as a result of death or divorce is called?
a. disrupted family b. discordant family
c. anti-social family d. inadequate family
36. It is the unpleasant feelings that result in the blocking of motive satisfaction.
a. anxiety b. frustration c. conflict d. stress
37. Type of conflict where an individual is facing two desirable activities which can not be done
simultaneously.
a. double approach conflict b. double avoidance conflict
c. approach-avoidance conflict d. multiple approach-avoidance conflict
38. It is also called as “dilemma”.

39. It is known as neurotic fear.
a. anxiety b. stress c. conflict d. frustration
40. When a person is facing two undesirable situations, what conflict he has?
41. Out of the body experience like sleepwalking cases is dissociative disorder of ___________.
a. amnesia b. depersonalization c. dual personality d. insanity
42. A bodily symptoms that suggest the presence of physical problem but no organic basic can be
found.
a. anxiety disorder b. mood disorder
c. dissociative disorder d. somatoform disorder
43. The classification of mood disorder characterized by having both manic and depressive episodes.
a. dysthymic disorder b. major depressive
c. bipolar disorder d. schizophrenic
44. Personality disorders where person is unable to form relationship or where person is “loner”.
a. schizoid b. borderline c. avoidant d. paranoid
45. The person is suspicious, hypersensitive and tends to blame others of one’s own mistakes. What
personality disorder is this?
46. Personality disorder characterized by hypersensitive to rejection.
47. Exaggerated sense of self-importance is characteristic of person having ______ personality
disorder.
a. borderline b. schizotypal c. narcissistic d. histrionic
48. Principle of conditioned behavior in the process of learning maintains that first experience is more
likely to be retained than later ones.
a. law of recency b. law of primacy c. law of intensity d. law of effect
49. Law of effect in the principle of conditioned learning states that individual tends to repeat what is
satisfactory and avoid what is annoying. This statement is ______________.
a. true b. false c. sometimes d. maybe
50. It is the “why” of behavior which causes human to behave.
a. needs b. motivation c. drives d. wants
51. Sexual deviation known as “peeping tom”.
a. scoptophilia b. voyeurism c. watching d. visualism
52. Person having sexual intercourse to someone who by reason of blood relationship can not legally
marry is what sexual deviation?
a. pedophilia b. incest c. necrophilia d. bestiality
53. Using obscene language to achieve sexual satisfaction is called?
a. coprolalia b. exhibitionism c. Don Juanism d. Languagenism
54. The act of seducing woman as a career without permanent sexual partner is what sexual
deviation?
a. don juanism b.don pedronism c. pluralism d. chick boyism
55. It is called as “sexual festival”.
a. dualism b. troilism c. pluralism d. Quadralism

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ISABELA STATE UNIVERSITY CABAGAN CAMPUS

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COMPILED BY: EHABIATAN AND RLASUNCION

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77. According to criminologists, crimes exists when:

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a. Charles Goring c. Walter Reckless

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Criminal Justice System

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d. 3 months after it has been submitted for decision

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ETHICS AND VALUES

1. The ultimate purpose of the PNP Code of Ethics:

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11. This virtue connotes courage:*

12. It refers to the trait of effective guarding of classified documents:

13. This is about the firmness of mind:

14. The ability to moderate something is a trait known as:

15. This refers to the ability to move on in spite of the obstacles:

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b. Delicadeza d. Maximum inhibition

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a. Natural morality c. Individual morality

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b. Command responsibility d. Responsibility

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b. Selfless love and service to people

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Juvenile Delinquency and Crime Prevention

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11. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in an activity

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a. Abandoned child c. Neglected child

33. Community hazards harmful to youth.

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c. Rehabilitation center d. Foster home

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a. Child feeling of remorse to the offense committed

Human Behavior and Crisis Management

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a. Crisis c. Individual Crisis

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a. Niccolo Machiavelli b. Thomas Hobbes c. Charles Darwin d. Cesare Lombroso

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