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1. Direction: Each of the questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have the same answer. If you
get the same answer for more than one question, consider both again and decide which one of the two would more
definitely be that answer and in the same way review the others as well. Which of the following Amendments passed
in 2019 provide companies with an option to choose a reduced corporate tax rate?
A. The Taxation Laws Amendment Act, 2019 B. The Companies Taxation (Amendment) Act, 2019
C. The Taxation Laws Amendment Act, 2019 D. The Companies Taxation (Amendment) Act, 2019
2. Direction: Each of the questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have the same answer. If you
get the same answer for more than one question, consider both again and decide which one of the two would more
definitely be that answer and in the same way review the others as well. When was the Constitution (Amendment)
Bill, 2020 introduced?
A. 6th January 2020 B. 31st December 2019
C. 8th March 2020 D. 7th February 2020
3. Direction: Each of the questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have the same answer. If you
get the same answer for more than one question, consider both again and decide which one of the two would more
definitely be that answer and in the same way review the others as well. The Constitution (Amendment) Bill, 2020
seeks to insert which of the following Articles to the Constitution?
A. 46A B. 46B
C. 47A D. 47B
4. Direction: Each of the questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have the same answer. If you
get the same answer for more than one question, consider both again and decide which one of the two would more
definitely be that answer and in the same way review the others as well. Which of the following Amendments were
passed by the Parliament of India providing for protection and security to the Prime Minister and immediate family
at the official residence?
B. The Protection For Special Security (Amendment)Bill,
A. The Prime Minister (Amendment) Bill, 2019
2019
C. The Special Protection For the State (Amendment)
D. The Special Protection Group (Amendment) Bill, 2019
Bill, 2019
5. Direction: Each of the questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have the same answer. If you
get the same answer for more than one question, consider both again and decide which one of the two would more
definitely be that answer and in the same way review the others as well. The Triple Talaq Bill passed by the
Parliament provides for punishment with a jail term of up to ___ years for the practice of Triple Talaq.
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A. 2 years B. 3 years
C. 4 years D. 5 years
6. Direction: Each of the questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have the same answer. If you
get the same answer for more than one question, consider both again and decide which one of the two would more
definitely be that answer and in the same way review the others as well. Who moved the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019 in the Parliament?
A. The Union Minister B. The Ministry of Internal Affairs
C. The Home Minister D. The Ministry of External Affairs
7. Direction: Each of the questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have the same answer. If you
get the same answer for more than one question, consider both again and decide which one of the two would more
definitely be that answer and in the same way review the others as well. Recently the Parliament passed an
Amendment Bill to increase the number of Supreme Court judges to 33 from 30- what is the name of the Bill passed?
B. Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill,
A. Supreme Court Judges (Amendment) Bill, 2019
2019
C. Judges of the SC (Amendment) Bill, 2019 D. Judges (Of the Supreme Court) Amendment Bill, 2019
8. Direction: Each of the questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have the same answer. If you
get the same answer for more than one question, consider both again and decide which one of the two would more
definitely be that answer and in the same way review the others as well. The Special Economic Zones (Amendment)
Bill, 2019 allows ____ to set up units in SEZs.
A. Public Companies B. Private Individuals
C. Government Companies D. Trusts
9. Direction: Each of the questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have the same answer. If you
get the same answer for more than one question, consider both again and decide which one of the two would more
definitely be that answer and in the same way review the others as well. The Citizenship Amendment Act was
challenged on the grounds of violating which fundamental right as enshrined in the Constitution of India?
A. Right to Employment B. Right to Equality
D. Right to Education
C. Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression

10. Which of the following states recently introduced a reservation of 'all government jobs' for the "children of the
state"?
A. Haryana B. Maharashtra
C. Tamil Nadu D. Madhya Pradesh
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11. Determine which of the following judgments pronounced by the Hon'ble Supreme court is not related to the
reservation based on residence?
A. Dr Pradeep Jain vs Union Of India. B. Sunanda Reddy v State of Andhra Pradesh.
C. Both a and b D. None of the above.
12. In which case, the Hon'ble Supreme Court Of India has pronounced a judgment on PM CARES Fund issue?
A. The Centre for Public Interest Litigation vs Union of
B. Social Action Group for Litigation vs Union of India.
India.
C. Pankaj Tripathi vs Union Of India. D. Bennet Coleman vs Union Of India.
13. Which of the subsequent observations is incorrect concerning the judgment pronounced by the Supreme Court on
PM Cares fund issue?
A. The Supreme Court accepted a petition which sought
B. The Court maintained that there was a need for a new
transfer of the funds from PM CARES to National
national disaster relief plan for COVID-19
Disaster Relief Fund.
C. The Court held that the bare minimum standards of
relief as issued under the Disaster Management Act before D. All of the above.
COVID-19 was not enough.
14. In a significant judgement, the Supreme Court not long ago held that daughters would have equal rights to inherit
ancestral property as sons in a Hindu Undivided Family, saying the amendment in law in 2005 shall have
retrospective effect. Name the judgment?
A. Rajesh Chauhan v. Smita Chauhan B. Veena Bhatt v. Ramesh Bhatt.
C. Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma. D. Gurbaj Singh v. Gurmehar Singh.
15. About the quorum which pronounced on the issue of Hindu Succession Act and the rights of women, which of the
following statements is true?
A. It was a two judge's bench, which comprised of Justice B. It was three judge's bench which comprised of Justice S
S Abdul Nazeer and Justice Arun Mishra. Abdul Nazeer, Justice M R Shah and Justice Arun Mishra.
C. It was a five judge's bench which comprised of CJI
A.S. Bobde, Justice D.Y Chandrachud, Justice S Abdul D. None of the above.
Nazeer, Justice M R Shah and Justice Arun Mishra.
16. According to the Consumer Protection (Amendment) Act, 2019, what is the system called when the seller
manipulates the price to the consumer?
A. Caveat Emptor. B. Unfair trade practices.
C. Restricted trade practices. D. None of the above.
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17. Which body has held that States can grant reservation in PG admissions to Government Doctors serving in remote
areas?
A. Medical Council of India. B. All India Institute of Medical Sciences.
C. Supreme Court of India. D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
18. What is the penalty imposed on Prashant Bhushan by the Supreme Court, for his criminal contempt of Court?
A. Rs.1 lakh. B. Rs.10 lakhs.
C. Re.1. D. Rs.10,000
19. The practice of Instant Triple Talaq was declared unconstitutional in which of the following cases?
A. Mohd. Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum B. Shayara Bano vs UOI
C. Parivaratan Kendra vs UOI D. Vishakha vs State of Rajasthan
20. When can the Indian Prime Minister be ineligible to participate in voting in a no-confidence motion against his
government?
A. He has a minority in the Rajya Sabha B. He is a member of the Rajya Sabha
C. He leads a coalition government D. He is restricted by the speaker of the Lok Sabha
21. Which of the following statements concerning the Rajya Sabha is incorrect ?

A. Under certain circumstances, the chairman is not

B. Harivansh Narayan Singh is the present Leader of the
allowed to preside over the proceedings even if he is
House of Rajya Sabha
present.
D. Shri M. Venkaiah Naidu is the current speaker of Rajya
C. The Vice President of India is its ex-officio chairman
Sabha
22. In whose presence does the President of India subscribe to the oath of affirmation ?

A. The Chief of staffs of all three defence services B. The Chief of Army Staff of the Indian Army
C. The Speaker of Lok Sabha D. The Chief Justice of India
23. Which one of the following is not established under the constitutional provisions ?

A. Finance commission B. Inter- state Council

C. Scheduled Caste Commission D. Planning Commission
24. Which of the following is not in the nature of a writ issued by the Constitutional courts of India ?
A. Mandamus B. Habeas corpus
C. Certiorari D. Rule Nisi
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25. Under which article of the Constitution of India is the law laid down by the Supreme Court binding on all courts ?
A. Article 124 B. Article 226
C. Article 141 D. Article 32
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Solutions
1. A
Sol. the Act provides companies to avail corporate tax at a reduced rate of 22%.
2. D
Sol. the Bill is a Private Members Bill that was introduced on 7th February 2020 to further amend the Indian Constitution.

3. C
Sol. the Bill aims at promoting smaller family norms through the insertion of Article 47A. The Article states that there
would be tax incentives offered as well as education and employment incentives to promote small family norms. It
further states that it would withdraw concessions and would not provide such incentives to those who do not follow
the norms under the Article.

4. D
Sol. as per the Special Protection Group (Amendment) Bill, security is provided to the current Prime Minister as well as
to former Prime Ministers and family members for 5 years since the date on which he ceases to hold office.
5. B
Sol. the Triple Talaq Bill criminalises Muslim men for practising “instant divorce”. A punishment may be imposed for a
prison term up to but not exceeding 3 years.

6. C
Sol. the Bill was moved by Amit Shah, the Home Minister-which gives the Centre and the States the power to declare an
individual as a terrorist as well as to confiscate their property.
7. B
Sol. due to an increase in the number of pending cases before the Supreme Court, the Bill was passed to increase the
number of judges – the appointment of 3 more judges to the Supreme Court adds about 7 crore to the expenditure on
an annual basis.

8. D
Sol. Trusts are now included with the aim of increasing growth and employment opportunities.
9. B
Sol. days after the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill was passed, a petition was filed by the Indian Union Muslim League
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challenging the act being contrary and violative of the fundamental right to equality (Articles 14, 15 and 21).

10. D
Sol. Government jobs in Madhya Pradesh would now be reserved for the state citizens, Chief
Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan said on August 17 2020. The legal changes concerning the
reservation of government jobs for the Madhya Pradesh citizens would be announced soon,
Shivraj Singh Chouhan said that "the state government has taken a critical decision today.
Government employment in the state would only be open for people from the state. We are
putting in place the essential legal framework for it. The reserves of Madhya Pradesh will only
be for the residents of the state," Shivraj Singh Chouhan said.
11. C
Sol. The Supreme Court has ruled against reservation based on place of birth or residence. In
1984, in the ruling in Dr Pradeep Jain v Union of India, the question of legislation for "sons of
the soil" was examined. The Court expressed an opinion that such policies would be
unconstitutional but did not specifically rule on it as the case was on separate aspects of the
right to equality. In a consequent ruling in Sunanda Reddy v State of Andhra Pradesh
(1995), the Supreme Court upheld the observation in Pradeep Jain to remove a state
government policy that gave 5% extra weightage to candidates who had studied with Telugu
as the medium of instruction.
12. A
Sol. In Centre for Public Interest Litigation vs Union of India 2020, the Supreme Court dismissed a
petition which requested transfer of the funds from PM CARES to National Disaster Relief
Fund. The Court also held that there was no requirement for a new national disaster relief plan
for COVID-19 and that the bare minimum standards of relief as issued under the Disaster
Management Act before COVID-19 were enough. The bench also explained that the Centre
will be free to transfer the funds to NDRF as it deems suitable and that individuals are at
liberty to donate to NDRF.
13. D
Sol. In Centre for Public Interest Litigation vs Union of India 2020, the Supreme Court dismissed a
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petition which sought handover of the funds from PM CARES to National Disaster Relief Fund.
The Court also maintained that there was no need for a new national disaster relief plan for
COVID-19 and that the bare minimum standards of relief as issued under the Disaster
Management Act before COVID-19 were enough. The bench also explained that the Centre
will be free to transfer the funds to NDRF as it deems appropriate and that individuals are at
liberty to donate to NDRF. Thus all the options stated above are incorrect, and therefore D is
the correct answer.
14. C
Sol. On August 11, 2020, In the case of Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma a three-judge bench
headed by Justice Arun Mishra of Supreme Court ruled that daughters have equal rights as
that of sons on parental property. They shall remain coparcener throughout their life. In effect,
the Court has ruled that the 2005 amendment would have retroactive effect in conferring rights
on daughters who were alive at the time of the amendment, even if they were born before it.
15. B
Sol. In a significant judgement, the Supreme Court not long ago held that daughters would have
equal rights to receive ancestral property as sons in a Hindu Undivided Family, stating the
amendment in law in 2005 shall have retrospective effect. It told the daughters are deemed to
have coparcenary rights in Joint Hindu Family property even if the father died prior to the
Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act 2005. A bench of Justices Arun Mishra, S Abdul
Nazeer and M R Shah stated the provisions included in, replaced Section 6 of the Hindu
Succession Act, 1956 bestowed the status of coparcener on the daughter born prior to or after
amendment in the same manner as a son with the same rights and liabilities.
16. C
Sol. Restrictive trade practices, as the term indicates, are methods which are restrictive and put
restrictions on the flow of supplies in a market and trade. Any restrictive agreement, whatever
may be the manner of condition will be a Restrictive Trade Practice. Unfair trade practices
are unfair to consumers. Both these practices are injurious to the interests of consumers.
Different types of methods have been established which fall under these two categories.
17. C
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Sol. The Supreme Court of India has pronounced a judgment that State Governments have the
powers for granting quota in admissions in Post Graduate courses to Government
Doctors serving in remote areas. The decision was given by a 5-judge constitution bench
headed by Justice Arun Mishra. The top Court stated that the present restriction posed by the
Medical Council of India on reservations provided by states is arbitrary and unconstitutional.
18. C
Sol. The Supreme Court of India has enforced a penalty of Re 1 on lawyer cum activist Prashant
Bhushan as a punishment for his criminal contempt of the Supreme Court. This judgment was
pronounced by a bench headed by Justice Arun Mishra. The bench ordered that Prashant
Bhushan should deposit Re 1 by September 15 else he will be imprisoned for three months
and would be debarred from practise for three years.
19. B
Sol. The Court had a divided opinion of 3:2, where the majority held that the practice of Triple Talaq
is unconstitutional and infringes the Fundamental Rights of Muslim Women. Talaq-e- bidat is
a practise which gives a man the right to divorce his wife by pronouncing 'talaq' three times in
one sitting deprived of his wife's consent. Nikah Halala is a practise where a divorced woman
who wants to remarry her husband would have to marry and acquire a divorce, from a second
husband before she can go back to her first husband. And polygamy is a practice which
accepts Muslim men to have more than one wife.
20. B
Sol. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha, he cannot participate and vote in a no-
confidence motion that is against his Government.

21. B
Sol. * Shri M. Venkaiah Naidu is the current chairman as well as Speaker of Rajya Sabha and
Harivansh Narayan Singh is the present Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
* Shri Piyush Goyal is the Deputy Leader of the House.
* Ghulam Nabi Azad is the current leader of opposition of Rajya Sabha.
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(Note:
Rajya Sabha:
* The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of
India.
* It currently has a maximum membership of 245, of which 233 are elected by the legislatures
of the states and union territories using single transferable votes through Open Ballot while the
President can appoint 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social
services.
* Members sit for staggered terms lasting six years, with elections every year but almost a
third of the 233 designates up for election every two years, specifically in even-numbered
years.
* The Rajya Sabha meets in continuous sessions, and unlike the Lok Sabha, being the lower
house of the Parliament, the Rajya Sabha, which is the upper house of the Parliament is not
subject to dissolution. However, the Rajya Sabha, like the Lok Sabha can be prorogued by the
President. )

22. D
Sol. * Before entering upon his office, the President of India has to make and subscribe to an oath
or affirmation.
* The oath of office to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his
absence, the senior most judge of the Supreme Court available.
* The president of India is the ceremonial head of state of India and the commander-in-chief of
the Indian Armed Forces.
* The president is indirectly elected by an electoral college comprising the Parliament of India
(both houses) and the legislative assemblies of each of India's states and territories, who
themselves are all directly elected.
* Although the Article 53 of the Constitution of India states that the president can exercise his
powers directly or by subordinate authority, with few exceptions, all of the executive powers
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vested in the president are, in practice, exercised by the prime minister (a subordinate
authority) with the help of the Council of Ministers.
* The president is bound by the constitution to act on the advice of the prime minister and
cabinet as long as the advice is not violating the constitution.

23. D
Sol. * The NITI Aayog's precursor, the Planning Commission was established in March 1950 by a
Government of India resolution with the Prime Minister as Chairperson.
* The initial mandate was to establish heavy industries through public investment as a means
for achieving rapid industrialization.
* The Planning Commission was an institution in the Government of India, which formulated
India's Five-Year Plans, among other functions.
* In his first Independence Day speech in 2014, Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced his
intention to dissolve the Planning Commission. It has since been replaced by a new institution
named NITI Aayog.

Inter- State Council:

* The Inter-State Council is a non-permanent constitutional body set up by a presidential order
on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
* The body was formed by a presidential order dated 28 May 1990 on recommendation of
Sarkaria Commission. The Council is formed to discuss or investigate policies, subjects of
common interest, and disputes among states.
Finance Commission:
* The Finance Commissions are commissions periodically constituted by the President of India
under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution to define the financial relations between the central
government of India and the individual state governments.
* The First Commission was established in 1951 under The Finance Commission
(Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951. Fifteen Finance Commissions have been constituted
since the promulgation of Indian Constitution in 1950. Individual commissions operate under
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the terms of reference which are different for every commission, and they additionally define
the terms of qualification, appointment and disqualification, the term, eligibility and powers of
the Finance Commission.
* As per the Constitution, the Commission is appointed every five years and consists of a
chairman and four other members.

Scheduled Caste Commission:

* The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is an Indian constitutional body established
with a view to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo
Indian communities to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and cultural
interests, special provisions were made in the Constitution.
* Article 338 of the Indian constitution deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
Article 338 A deals with National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.

24. D
Sol. * The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to issue Writs
for the enforcement of the fundamental rights conferred by the Part-III of the Indian
Constitution under Article 32 and Article 226.
* There are five types of Writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition and Quo-
Warranto.

Habeas corpus:
* The Latin meaning of the word ‘Habeas Corpus’ is ‘To have the body of.’ This writ is used to
enforce the fundamental right of individual liberty against unlawful detention.
* Through Habeas Corpus, Supreme Court/ High Court orders one person who has arrested
another person to bring the body of the latter before the court.
Mandamus:
* The literal meaning of this Writ is ‘We command.’ This writ is used by the court to order the
public official who has failed to perform his duty or refused to do his duty, to resume his work.
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* Besides public official, Mandamus can be issued against any public body, a corporation, an
inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
Certiorari:
* The literal meaning of the writ of ‘Certiorari’ is ‘To be certified’ or ‘To be informed.’
* This Writ is issued by a court higher in authority to a lower court or tribunal ordering them
either to transfer a case pending with them to itself or to squash their order in a case.
* It is issued on the grounds of an excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law. It
not only prevents but also cures for the mistakes in the judiciary.
Prohibition:
* The literal meaning of ‘Prohibition’ is ‘To forbid.’
* A court which is higher in position issues Prohibition writ against a court which is lower in
position to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it
does not possess. It directs inactivity.
Quo- Warranto:
* The literal meaning of the writ of ‘Quo-Warranto’ is ‘By what authority or warrant.’
* Supreme Court or High Court issue this writ to prevent illegal usurpation of a public office by
a person.
* Through this writ, the court enquires into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office.

25. C
Sol. * Article 141 of the Constitution provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be
binding on all courts within the territory of India.
* The general principles laid down by the Supreme Court are applicable to each individual
including those who are not party to an order.

Ratio Decidendi and Obiter Dicta:

* A decision is binding not because of its conclusion but by virtue of its ratio and the principles
laid down therein.
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* The ratio decidendi is the underlying principle, the general reasons or the general grounds
upon which the decision is based as distinct from the special peculiarities of a case, which
gives rise to its decision.
* Obiter dicta are statements which are not part of the ratio viz., observations by the Courts
which are not binding statements of law.
* The obiter dictum is a mere observation or remark made by a court while deciding the actual
issue before it and these casual remarks are considered or treated as beyond the ambit of the
authoritative or operative part of the judgment.
* Well considered obiter dicta of the Apex Court are taken as precedents and binding under
Article 141.