TARGET NEET 2024

CB Institue
Prakruthi nagar, Kogilu main rd
MOCK TEST - 4
Bangalore, Karnataka 560064
www.cherrytop.in

Important instructions to candidate

1.In case of usage of signs and symbols in the questions, the regular textbook connotation should be considered unless
stated otherwise.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35,51 to
85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150
and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question
paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate
shall be evaluated.

3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.

5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

6. Completely darken/shade the relevant circle with a blue or black ink ballpoint pen against the question number on
the OMR answer sheet.

7. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work. Do not use the OMR answer sheet for
the same.

8. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

9. Hand over the OMR answer sheet to the room invigilator as it is.

10. After separating the top sheet(office copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate’s copy) to
you.

SYLLABUS
Physics : Complete syllabus Botany : Complete syllabus

Chemistry : Complete syllabus Zoology : Complete syllabus

Name of the Student: ______________________________________ Roll No:_____________________________



 




 



 


  


 




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 BOTANY
SECTION – A (Biology: Botany)
101. ICBN stands for
(1) International Code for Botanical
Nomenclature
(2) International Code for Biological Names
(3) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(4) Indian Congres of Biological Names
102. The cell membrane extensions of prokaryotic
cells are
A. Flagella B. Pili
C. Mesosomes D. Chromatophores
(1) A, B, C and D (2) A and B
(3) A, B and C (4) C and D
103. ‘A’ is the cell organelle involved in peptide
bond formation and ‘B’ is the cell organelle
involved in disulphide bond formation in
proteins. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are respectively
(1) Ribosome and Centrosome
(2) Ribosome and Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Ribosome and Lysosome
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi
complex
104. Axoneme is
(1) Core of centriole
(2) Core of eukaryotic cilium
  &RUHRISURNDU\RWLFÀDJHOOXP
(4) Linear DNA present in each chromatid of
chromosome
105. Identify the incorrect statement
(1) Calcium is more abundantly present in
human body than Hydrogen
(2) All lipids have phosphorus
(3) Nucleotides have acidic nature
(4) Basic amino acids are more in histones
106. An enzyme involved in the conversion of
Glucose to Fructose is a/an
(1) Oxidoreductase (2) Transferase
(3) Isomerase (4) Lyase
107. Statement A: Events of telophase of mitosis
are just reverse to prophase.
Statement B: Nuclear organization takes
place in prophase and it is lost in telophase.
Space for Rough work
11
(1) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect.
(2) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct.
(3) Statements A and B are incorrect.
(4) Statements A and B are correct.
108. Read the assertion and reason carefully to
mark the correct options given below:
Assertion: Synthesis of DNA takes place in
the S-phase of interphase.
Reason: Every chromosome, during
metaphase has two chromatids.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion Reason are false.
109. Monocot root has
(1) Cambium ring, vascular bundles two to
four, pith is large and well developed
(2) Radial vascular bundles, polyarch xylem,
no secondary growth
(3) Usually more than six xylem, bundles,
pith is small or inconspicuous, conjuctive
tissue
(4) Both 2 and 3
110. +RXVHÀ\DQGZKHDWIDPLOLHVUHVSHFWLYHO\DUH
(1) Anacardiaceae, Solanacceae
(2) Muscidae, Poaceae
(3) Poaceae, Sapendales
(4) Poaceae, Muscidae
111. Choose the correct statement.
  7HPSHUDWXUHVKRZVPRUHLQÀXHQFHRQ
dark reaction of photosynthesis
  7HPSHUDWXUHGRHVQRWVKRZDQ\LQÀXHQFH
on light reaction of photosynthesis.
(3) At higher temperatures plants show
higher rates of photosynthesis.
(4) The temperature optima for photosynthesis
of plants are also dependent on the habit
of the plant.
112. In half leaf experiment, to maintain CO2 free
 conditions in the test tube where the upper half encloses
of the leaf is inserted, the chemical used to (1) Scutellum (2) Radicle
absorb is (3) Plumule (4) Epiblast
(1) Potassium hydroxide
118. Statement A:$OOFOHLVWRJDPRXVÀRZHUVDUH
(2) Calcium hydroxide
bisexual.
(3) Sodium hydroxide
(4) Calcium chloride Statement B:$OOELVH[XDOÀRZHUVDUH 
cleistogamous.
113. Plants with Kranz anatomy in their leaves do
(1) Statements A and B are correct
not show
(2) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
(1) Carboxylation of RuBP
(3) Statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Carboxylation of PEP
(4) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct
(3) Starch formation in bundle sheath cells
(4) Regeneration of PEP in bundle sheath 119. Prior to fertilisation, the structure of embryo
cells sac that may show karyogamy in
(1) Synergids (2) Antipodals
114. Which of the following is not used as
(3) Central cell (4) Egg cell
respiratory substrate in plants?
(1) Fructose 120. Usually the pollen tube enters into the ovule
(2) Tripalmitin through
(3) Proteins of aleurone layer of cereals (1) Integuments (2) Micropyle
(4) Polymers of nucleotides (3) Chalaza (4) Funicle
115. )RUPDWLRQRIPRUSKRORJLFDOO\GL൵HUHQWOHDYHV 121. The following traits of pea plants selected by
LQGL൵HUHQWGHYHORSPHQWDOVWDJHVLVVHHQLQWKH Mendel, were not observed by him in F1.
life cycle of Generation of his monohybrid crosses.
(1) Selaginella (2) Buttercup I. Yellow pods II. Green seeds
(3) Pea (4) Bean ,,,$[LOODU\ÀRZHUV ,9 9LROHWÀRZHUV
  ,DQG,,   ,,,DQG,9
116. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
  ,DQG,,,   ,,DQG,9
match
List-I List-II 122. Among the following choose the crosses
that show a phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1 in the
A. Plant with i. Fishes R൵VSULQJ
external ,  3LQNÀRZHUHG6QDSGUDJRQ;3LQN 
fertilization.  ÀRZHUHG6QDSGUDJRQ
B. Plant with ii. Cladophora ,, $%EORRGJURXSIDWKHU;$%EORRGJURXS
internal mother
fertilization. ,,,7DOOSHDSODQW;'ZDUISHDSODQW
,9 2EORRGJURXSIDWKHU;$%EORRGJURXS
C. Animals showing iii. Reptiles
mother
external
  ,DQG,,   ,,,DQG,9
fertilization.
  ,DQG,,,   ,,DQG,9
D. Animals showing iv. Sphagnum
123. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
internal
match.
fertilization
List-I List-II
(1) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D – i
(2) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D – iii A. Lasker award i. Severo Ochoa
(3) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D – i B. DNA as acidic ii. Hershey
(4) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D – iii substance
117. In grass embryo, the hollow foliar structure

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12
 (1) RDNA (2) T-DNA
C. Genetic material iii. F. Meischer
(3) Template DNA (4) C – DNA
of bacteriophages
is DNA 129. In the process of recombinant DNA technology,
the last step is
D. Polynucleotide iv. Watson
(1) Culturing the recombinant host cells in a
phosphorylase
medium
(1) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D – i (2) Transferring the rDNA into suitable host
(2) A - ii, B - ii,i C - iv, D – i cells.
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D – i (3) Downstream processing
(4) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D – i (4) Separation of desired DNA fragment of
124. Point mutations are the donor genome.
(1) Mutations due to single base substitutions 130. Meloidegyne incognitia is one of the following
in a gene types of plant parasites which is a
(2) Mutations due to deletion of a gene in a (1) Nematode (2) Fungus
chromosome (3) Bacterium (4) Insect
(3) Mutations due to addition of gene in a
chromosome 131.,PSRUWDQWELRIHUWLOL]HURISDGG\¿HOGVLV
(4) Mutations due to insertion of a base pair (1) Azospirillum (2) Azotobacter
or deletion of a base pair. (3) Oscillatoria (4) Glomus
125. Choose the correct statements with respect to 132. Match the following
genetic code.
Column I Column II
D 1RDPLQRDFLGKDV¿YHFRGRQV
(b) Every amino acid has more than one codon. A 4 C compound P Acetyl CoA
(c) There are three stop codons B 2 C compound Q Pyruvate
(d) Each codon can indicate more than one C 5 C compound R Citric acid
amino acid. D 3 C compound S ĮNHWRJOXWDULF
(1) a and b (2) c and d acid
(3) a and c (4) b and d T Malic acid
126. Arrange the following steps in correct sequence (1) A - Q, B - T, C - R, D - P
during the process of transcription. (2) A - T, B - P, C - S, D - Q
I. Breakage of hydrogen bonds between the (3) A - R, B - P, C - S, D - Q
template DNA and transcript. (4) A - T, B - R, C - P, D - Q
II. Breakage of hydrogen bonds between the
133. Milk is converted into curd by the action of the
coding strand and template strand of DNA.
following microbe
III. Formation of hydrogen bonds between
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Penicillium
template DNA and RNA being transcribed.
(3) Lactobacillus (4) Propionibacterium
,9)RUPDWLRQRIK\GURJHQERQGVEHWZHHQ 
coding strand and template strand 134.,Q WKH ÀRZHUV RI RQH RI WKH IROORZLQJ SODQWV
  ,,,,,,9,   ,,,,,,,9 the number stamens is diadelphous
  ,,,,,,9,   ,9,,,,,, (1) Mustard (2) Gloriosa
(3) Pea (4) Petunia
127. Which of following factor recognises stop
codons? 135. Choose the correct statement
(1) Sigma factor (2) Rho factor   6SLQGOH¿EHUVDUHIRUPHGE\D 
(3) Releasing factor (4) Elongation factor component of cytoskeleton.
(2) Peroxisomes are double membrane
128. The DNA segment of Agrobacterium
bound cell organelles.
tumiefaciens, that can transform normal cells
(3) Chloroplasts have one membrane.
of dicots into tumor cells is called as
(4) Centrosomes replicate during G2
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 SECTION – B (Biology : Botany) (1) Rhizopus (2) Albugo
(3) Mushrooms (4) Bread mould
136. Match the items given in Column-I with those
in Column-II and select the correct option. 141.9LURLGVKDYH
Column-I Column-II (1) Single stranded RNA
(2) Double stranded RNA
a. Co-extinction i. Plant-pollinator
(3) Single stranded DNA
b. Habitat loss ii. Passenger pigeon (4) Double stranded DNA
c. Overexploitation iii. Amazon forest 142. Choose the correct pair
d. Alien species iv. Nile perch (1) Prions - smaller in size compared to
invasion viroids
(1) a-ii; b-iii; c-i; d-iv (2) Bladderwort – bryophyte
(2) a-i; b-iv; c-ii; d-iii (3) Numerical taxonomy - considers and
(3) a-iv; b-ii; c-iii; d-i gives equal importance to all characters
(4) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv  RIRUJDQLVPVIRUFODVVL¿FDWLRQ
  1DWXUDOV\VWHPRIFODVVL¿FDWLRQ 
137. Which is the correct statement?
considers all organisms of same
(1) In majority of higher animals and plants,
taxa have common ancestor
growth and reproduction are mutually
exclusive events. 143. Choose the feature not seen in gymnosperms
(2) Increase in body mass is shown by living (1) Polyembryonic condition
organisms but not by non-living organisms (2) Presence of archegonia
(3) In animals cell division is not seen after (3) Formation of pollen tube
certain age. (4) Development of endosperm after
(4) In living organisms, growth is from fertilization
outside.
144. Match List I with List II and choose the correct
138. Choose the incorrect statement match.
  ,QWZRNLQJGRPFODVVL¿FDWLRQEDFWHULD List-I List-II
were placed in plant kingdom.
(2) The common character of plantae in two A. Mycorrhizal i. Rhizophora
roots
 NLQJGRPFODVVL¿FDWLRQZDVDOORUJDQLVPV
having plastids B. Coralloid roots ii. Groundnut
  3ODQWDHRIWZRNLQJGRPFODVVL¿FDWLRQKDV C. Root nodules iii. Cycas
both autotrophs and heterotrophs
(4) Both plants and animals of two kingdom D. Pneumatophores iv. Pinus
 FODVVL¿FDWLRQFRQVLVWRIXQLFHOOXODUDQG (1) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D – i
multicellular organisms. (2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D – i
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D – i
139. Choose the filamentous form among the (4) A - iv, B - iii, C- i, D – ii
following
(1) Methanococcus (2) Nostoc 145. Statement A:$VSLQHLVDPRGL¿HGVWHP 
(3) Euglena (4) Plasmodium Statement B:$SK\OORGHLVDPRGL¿HGVWHP
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
140. During sexual reproduction, there is no fusion (2) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect.
of gametes or gametangia but there is fusion (3) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct
RIFHOOVRUK\SKDHRIWZRJHQHWLFDOO\GL൵HUHQW (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
genotypes or strains. This condition is shown 146. Choose the incorrect pair
by (1) Pineapple – Sucker

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14
   6LONFRWWRQ/HDIZLWKOHDÀHWV
  &\PRVHLQÀRUHVFHQFH$[LVKDVWHUPLQDO
 ÀRZHU
(4) Bracts - A part of leaf
147. Aestivation is
(1) Arrangement of sepals in bud
condition with respect to petals
 RIDÀRZHULQEXGFRQGLWLRQ
(2) Arrangement of stamens with respect to
 FDUSHOVRIÀRZHULQEXGFRQGLWLRQ
(3) Arrangement of petals with respect to
other members of the whorl in bud
 FRQGLWLRQRIDÀRZHU
(4) Arrangement of sepals with respect to
other members of the whorl in an opened
 ÀRZHU
148. Choose the incorrect statement
  ,QDÀRZHURIPXVWDUGWKHQXPEHURI 
stamens is equal to the number of tepals
 RIRQLRQÀRZHU
  7KHQXPEHURISHWDOVLQWKHÀRZHURI 
Solanum is equal to the number of petals
 RISHDÀRZHU
  7KHQXPEHURIFDUSHOVLQWKHÀRZHURI
Solanum is equal to the number of
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15
 FDUSHOVLQWKHÀRZHURIPXVWDUG
(4) The placentation type in the ovary of
 RQLRQLVGL൵HUHQWIURPWKDWRI6RODQXP
149.5HDGWKHIROORZLQJVWDWHPHQWVDQG¿QGRXWWKH
incorrect statement:
(1) Ground tissue system consists of simple
tissues while vascular tissue system
consists of complex tissues.
(2) The epidermal tissue system forms the
outermost covering of whole body and
comprises epidermal cells, stomata
and the epidermal appendages – the
trichomes and hairs
(3) Root hairs are unicellular elongations
while trichomes in the shoot system
are usually multicellular, and trichome
help absorb water and minerals.
(4) All of the above
150. ‘A’ are the components of dermal tissue system
‘B’ are the components of vascular tissue
system. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are respectively
(1) Subsidiary cells and albuminous cells
(2) Subsidiary cells and bulliform cells
(3) Bulliform cells and passage cells
(4) Trichomes and passage cells
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A (Biology : Zoology)
151. Ascaris
(1) Lacks a body cavity
(2) Has a body cavity lined with peritoneum
(3) Has a body cavity not lined with
peritoneum
(4) Has a body cavity lined with endoderm
152. Which of the following characters is not a
unique character of birds?
(1) Feathers (2) Pneumatic bones
(3) Syrinx (4) Gizzard
153. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
(a) Operculum i. Osteichthyes
(b) Air sacs ii. Mammalia
(c) Claspers iii. Aves
(d) Diaphragm iv. Chondrichthyes
(1) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii
(2) a-i; b-iii; c-iv; d-ii
(3) a-i; b-ii; c-iv; d-iii
(4) a-iii; b-i; c-ii; d-iv
154. The tissue that is specialized to conduct
electrical signals from one structure in the
body to another structure is
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue
(3) Neural tissue (4) Muscle tissue
155. The structural and functional units of the
compound eye of the cockroach are
(1) Rods (2) Opsins
(3) Cones (4) Ommatidia
156. Respiration involving following steps:-
 $'L൵XVLRQRIJDVHV22 and CO2 across
alveolar membrane
B. Transport of gases by blood
C. Utilization of O2 by cell for catabolic
reactions and resultant release of CO2
D. Pulmonary ventilation by which
atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich
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alveolar air is released out
 ('L൵XVLRQRI22 and CO2 between blood
and tissue
The correct sequence of steps is –
(1) A B C D E (2) E D C B A
(3) D A B E C (4) C B E A D
157. Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers
approximately :-
(1) 5 mL of O2 to the tissues
(2) 5 mL of CO2 to the tissues
(3) 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(4) 4 mL of O2 to the alveoli
158. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
a. Inspiratory i. (5959
capacity
b. Total lung ii. 9&59
capacity
c. Expiratory iii. 79,59
capacity
d. Functional iv. 79(59
residual capacity
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
159. The majority of oxygen is transported in the
blood of man
(1) In a dissolved state in the cytoplasm of
RBC
(2) Bound to plasma proteins
(3) In a dissolved state in the plasma
(4) Bound to haemoglobin
160.7KHEORRGRIWKHIURJGL൵HUVIURPWKDWRIWKH
cockroach in that
(1) It passes through a heart
(2) It circulates only through a closed
network of blood vessels
(3) It can be found in the blood vessels as
16
 well as interstitial spaces hormone.
(4) It contains cells that help in defence of (1) It increases water reabsorption in the
the body kidneys
(2) It regulates blood pressure by
161. The human heart is called ‘myogenic’ heart
constricting arterioles
because
(3) It binds to the receptors inside the cells of
(1) Myocardium is the thickest layer in its
the DCT and CD
wall
  ,WVGH¿FLHQF\OHDGVWRZDWHUORVVDQG 
(2) Its normal activities are regulated
dehydration
intrinsically by specialised muscles
(3) It acts as two pumps, one for systemic 167. Which of the following is an endocrine gland
circulation and the other for pulmonary embedded in another endocrine gland?
circulations (1) Thymus (2) Parathyroid
(4) The nervous system plays no role in the (3) Pancreas (4) Pineal gland
regulation of its function
168. Read the statement.
162. In human beings, nitrogenous wastes are the
Statement-A: Glucocorticoids particularly
byproducts of the metabolism of
FRUWLVROSURGXFHVLQÀDPPDWRU\UHDFWLRQVDQG
(1) Proteins only
stimulates the immune response.
(2) Carbohydrates and fats
(3) Nucleic acids only Statement-B: Aldosterone helps in the
(4) Proteins and nucleic acids PDLQWHQDQFHRIHOHFWURO\WHVERG\ÀXLG
volume, osmotic pressure and blood pressure.
163. An increase in sodium reabsorption in the DCT
(1) Statement A is correct
is primarily caused by a/an
(2) Statement B is correct
(1) Increase in aldosterone levels
(3) Both statements are correct
(2) Increase in ADH levels
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Decrease in aldosterone levels
(4) Decrease in ADH levels 169. Which of the following represents the correct
plasma concentrations of a healthy woman
164. Gap junctions are characteristic of
during menstruation?
(1) Skeletal muscles
a. Low levels of estrogen and progesterone
(2) Chemical synapses
b. High levels of estrogen and progesterone
(3) Neuromuscular junctions
c. Low levels of FSH and LH
(4) Electrical synapses
d. Peak of FSH and LH
165. Match the items given in Column I with those (1) a and b (2) b and c
in Column II and select the correct option. (3) a and c (4) b and d
Column-I Column-II 170. Read the Assertion and Reason carefully to
a. Cerebral medulla i. Skeletal muscle mark the correct options given below:
b. Autonomic ii. White matter Assertion : On secretion of insulin glucose
neural system level in blood decreases.
c. Somatic neural iii. Grey matter Reason : As it causes rapid movement of
system glucose from blood to hepatocyte.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
d. Cerebral cortex iv. Smooth muscle
Reason is correct explanation of
(1) a-ii; b-iv; c-i; d-iii Assertion.
(2) a-ii; b-i; c-iv; d-iii (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(3) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-ii but Reason is not the correct explanation
(4) a-iv; b-ii; c-iii; d-i
166. Select the incorrect statement about antidiuretic
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17
 of Assertion. Darwinian theory of evolution?
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (1) Branching descent
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (2) Use and disuse
  6XUYLYDORIWKH¿WWHVW
171.)RHWDOHMHFWLRQUHÀH[WULJJHUVWKHUHOHDVHRI
(4) Struggle for existence
oxytocin from
(1) Foetal neurohypophysis 177. The equation p2STT2 describes the
(2) Foetal adenohypophysis genotype frequencies of
(3) Maternal neurohypophysis (1) A community which is evolving
(4) Maternal adenohypophysis (2) A community which is not evolving
(3) A population which is evolving
172.(PHUJHQF\FRQWUDFHSWLYHVDUHH൵HFWLYHLIXVHG
(4) A population which is not evolving
within
(1) 72 hours from the time of ovulation 178.+RPRVDSLHQV¿UVWDSSHDUHGGXULQJ
(2) Three days from the time of coitus (1) Jurassic period (2) Triassic period
(3) One week from the time of ovulation (3) Quaternary period (4) Tertiary period
(4) One week from the time of coitus
179. Match the items given in Column I with those
173. GIFT is an assisted reproductive technology in Column II and select the correct option.
indicated for a woman Column-I Column-II
(1) Whose uterus does not support
a. Elephantiasis i. Plasmodium
implantation
vivax
(2) Who cannot provide a suitable
environment for fertilization b. Amoebiasis ii. Trichophyton
(3) Who cannot produce an ovum
c. Malaria iii. Entamoeba
(4) Who wants to get rid of unwanted
histolytica
pregnancy
d. Ringworms iv. Wuchereria
174. Select the incorrect statement.
bancrofti
(1) Male grasshopper has a pair of dissimilar
allosomes (1) a-iv; b-i; c-iii; d-ii
(2) Female grasshopper has a pair of similar (2) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii
allosomes (3) a-ii; b-iii; c-i; d-iv
(3) Male Drosophila is heterogametic (4) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i
(4) Male birds are homogametic 180.+,9FDXVHVLPPXQHGH¿FLHQF\EHFDXVHLW 
175. Match the items given in Column I with those destroys
in Column II and select the correct option. (1) Cytotoxic T cells (2) Helper T cells
Column-I Column-II (3) B cells (4) Interferons
a. Phenylketonuria i. HbAHbS 181.2QWKHWRSRILQWHUYHQWULFXODUVHSWXP$9
bundle immediately divides and form
b. Down’s ii. 4XHHQ9LFWRULD (1) Right and left bundle
syndrome family  3XUNLQMH¿EUHV
c. Sickle cell trait iii. Aneuploidy (3) SAN
(4) Both a and b
d. Haemophilia iv. Tyrosine
deficiency 182. Identify the correct option
(1) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-ii Statement A : 7KH DPRXQW RI WKH ¿OWUDWH
(2) a-iv; b-iii; c-ii; d-i formed by the kidneys per minute is called
(3) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i JORPHUXODU¿OWUDWLRQUDWH *)5 
(4) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii
176. Which of the following is not a concept of the

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18
 Statement B : GFR in a healthy individual is (3) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (4) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
approximately 125ml/minute i.e. 180 litres per
187. If codon ACC which codes amino acid P is
day.
changed to ACA which codes for amino acid
(1) Statement A is correct only
Q, then P & Q are
(2) Statement B is correct only
(1) Threonine and Threonine respectively
(3) Both are correct.
(2) Aspergine and Lysine respectively
(4) Both are incorrect.
(3) Threonine and Alanine respectively
183. The maximum number of individuals in a (4) Proline and Threonine respectively
particular area can sustain is known as the
188. Choose the wrong match
(1) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(1) Citric acid - Aspergillus niger
(2) Environmental resistance
(2) Antibiotics – Penicillium
(3) Logistic growth equation
(3) Butyric acid – Clostridium
(4) Carrying capacity
(4) Statins - Trichoderma polysporum
184. Match the items given in Column I with those
189. Why should we conserve biodiversity?
in Column II and select the correct option.
a. Humans derive food, industrial products
Column-I Column-II and medicines from nature.
a. Competition i. One is benefited b. Biodiversity plays a major role in many
and the other is ecosystem services that nature provides.
unaffected c. Biological diversity has aesthetic value and
gives us pleasure.
b. Commensalism ii. One is harmed
d. We have a moral responsibility for
while the other is
conserving biodiversity.
unaffected
(1) a, b and c only (2) c and d only
c. Amensalism iii. Both species lose (3) a, b, c and d (4) a, b and d only
d. Mutualism iv. Both species 190. Biodiversity hotspots characteristically are
benefit rich in
(1) a-iii; b-ii; c-i; d-iv (1) Sibling species (2) Exotic species
(2) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii (3) Rare species (4) Endemic species
(3) a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i 191. Match the following :
(4) a-iii; b-i; c-ii; d-iv
Column I Column II
185. Chemoautotrophic bacteria are
(1) Decomposers A Lady bird beetle P Methano
(2) Primary consumers bacterium
(3) Secondary producers B Mycorrhiza Q Trichoderma
(4) Primary producers C Biological R Aphids
control
SECTION – B (Biology : Zoology)
D Biogas S Glomus
186. Which of the following is the correct sequence A B C D A B C D
of respiration in our body? (1) R S P Q (2) Q R P S
(i) Exchange of gases between (3) Q R S P (4) R S Q P
deoxygenated blood and alveoli 192. Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel to the
(ii) Utilization of oxygen by the cells. behaviour of genes during inheritance. It was
(iii) Exchange of gases between oxygenated noted by
blood and tissue (1) Sutton and Boveri (2) Morgan
(iv) Inhalation of air. (3) Punnet (4) Couenot
(1) (i), (iii), (ii), (i) (2) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)

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19
193. Statement-I (S-I) : BOD is a measure of 197. Androgens are secreted by
organic matter present in water. (1) Leydig cells (2) Sertoli cells
  3DQHWKFHOOV   .XS൵HUFHOOV
Statement-II (S-II) : Greater BOD of waste
water more is its polluting potential. 198. Which of the following is a hormone-releasing
(1) Both S -I & S - II are correct IUD?
(2) Both S -I & S - II are incorrect (1) Multiload 375 (2) LNG-20
(3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect (3) Lippes loop (4) Norplant
(4) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct
199. The most abundant antibody in colostrum is
194. Which of the following functions as ATPase? (1) IgD (2) IgG
(1) Head of myosin (2) Tail of myosin (3) IgA (4) IgM
(3) Tropomyosin (4) G-actin
200. Which of the following are correctly matched
195. The number of facial bones in the human ZLWKUHVSHFWWRWKHLUWD[RQRPLFFODVVL¿FDWLRQ"
skeleton is (1) Dentalium, Chaetopleura, Aplysia –
(1) 14 (2) 8 Mollusca
(3) 22 (4) 29 (2) Ascaris, Wuchereria, Nereis, -
Aschelminthes
196. In adults, RBCs are formed primarily in the
(3) Laccifer, Locusta, Ascaris – Arthropoda
(1) Red bone marrow
(4) Nereis, Hirudinaria, Locusta – Annelida
(2) Yellow bone marrow
(3) Spleen
(4) Liver

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