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DKPUCPA

MID-TERM EXAMINATION - October-2023


Time: 3.15hours II-PUC Chemistry (34) Maximum Marks:70
Instructions:
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20 marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part- A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labelled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer will not carry any
marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
PART - A

I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 1 ×15 = 15

1. The solubility of a gas in a liquid increases with


a. increase of temperature b. amount of liquid taken
c. decrease in temperature e. reduction of gas pressure

2. Camphor in nitrogen is an example of the following solution


a. Solid b. Liquid c. Gas d. none of these

3. The three aqueous solutions of K2SO4 are labelled as A, B, C with concentrations 0.1 M, 0.01 M and
0.001 M respectively. The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) for these solutions will be in the order of
a. iA˂ iB ˂ i C b. iA˃ iB ˃ i C c. iA= iB = i C d. iA˂ iB ˃ i C
4. If the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate constant, the order of the reaction is,
a. 3 b. 0 c. 1 d. 2

5. The half- life of a chemical reaction at a particular concentration is 50 min. When the concentration of
reactant is doubled, the half- life becomes 100 min. The order is
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
𝐻𝐶𝑙
6. CH3COOC2H5 + H2O(excess) ⇔ CH3COOH + C2H5OH is an example of
a. Zero order reaction b. Second order reaction
c. Pseudo first order reaction d. Third order reaction

7. Which of the following ions exhibits colour in aqueous solution?


a. Ti 4+ b. Zn2+ c. Ni2+ d. Sc3+

8. Which of the following does not have optical isomers?


a. [Co(en)3]Cl3 b. cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl c. [Co(NH3)3Cl3] d. cis-K3[CrCl2(OX)2]

9. The following reaction is known as


𝑑𝑟𝑦 𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒
RCl + NaI → RI + NaCl

a. Wurtz reaction b. Swarts reaction


c. Finkelstein’s reaction d. Sandmeyer’s reaction
10. Elimination of HBr from 2- bromobutane using alcoholic KOH results in the formation of
a. Equimolar mixture of 1-butane and 2- butane b. predominantly 2-butene
c. predominantly 1- butane d. predominantly 2-butyne

11. p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than its o- and m- isomers because
a. m- dichlorobenzene is more polar than o- isomer
b. p- isomer has symmetrical crystalline structure
c. boiling point of o- isomer is more than p- isomer
d. All of these are correct

12. Which of the following has lowest solubility in water?


a. (CH3)2CHOH b. (CH3)3COH c. C2H5OH d. CH3OH

13. The 3d transition element showing maximum oxidation state is


a. Fe b. Mn c. Ni d. Cr

14. When phenol is treated with an excess of bromine water, it gives


a. 2,4,6-tribromophenol b. 2,4- dibromophenol
c. o- and p- bromophenol d. m- bromophenol

15. The ether that undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction is


a. CH3OCH3 b. CH3OC2H5 c. C2H5O C2H5 d. C6H5OCH3

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
( molecularity, molality, t2g3eg1, benzene, t2g4eg0, phosgene ) 5 × 1 = 05

16. ………… is expressed as mol/kg.


17. ………….. is applicable only for elementary reactions .
18. If Δo˂ P, d metal complexes show the electronic configuration …………
4
.
19. The poisonous gas formed when chloroform is exposed to air and light is ………….. .
20. Reduction of phenol with zinc dust gives ……………. .
PART - B

III. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries two marks. 3 × 2 = 06

21. Give any two differences between non- ideal solution with positive deviation and non- ideal solution
with negative deviation from Raoults law.
22. Write the Arrhenius equation. Mention the terms involved in it.
23. Explain the effect of catalyst on the reaction rate using graph.
24. What is linkage isomerism? Give an example.
25. Define a) Racemic mixture b) Chirality.
26. Write the reactions involved in the manufacture of ethanol from molasses.

PART – C

IV. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09

27. Write the chemical equations involved in the preparation of potassium dichromate from chromite ore.
28. a. Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of M(aq)2+ ion (Z=27).
b. Aq. Solution of Cu2+ is more stable than Cu+. Give reason. (2+1)

29. a. Actinides exhibit variable of oxidation states. Give reason.


b. What is lanthanoid contraction? Write any one of its consequences. (1+2)
30. Explain the hybridisation, geometrical shape and magnetic property of [CoF6]3- based on valence bond
theory [Atomic number of Cobalt is 27].
31. a. Write the IUPAC name of K3[Cr(C2O4)3)].
b. Explain the synergic effect in metal carbonyls. (1+2)
32. Write any three postulates of Werner’s theory of coordination compounds.

V. Answer any two of the following. Each question carries three marks. 2 × 3 = 06

33. State Henry’s law. Write any two applications of it.


34. a) Define reverse osmosis. Write an application.
b) Among sugar and naphthalene, which is more soluble in benzene.
35. Derive the integrated rate equation for first order gas phase reaction A(g) → B(g) + C(g)
36. What is meant by collision frequency? Give any 2 limitations of collision theory.

PART - D

VI. Answer any four of the following. Each question carries five marks. 4 × 5 = 20

37. a. Write the mechanism for the following reaction and mention the order of the reaction.
- -
(CH3)3CBr + OH (CH3)3COH + Br
b. What are ambidentate nucleophiles? Give an example. (3+2)
38. a. Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions. Give reasons.
b. How can chlorobenzene be converted into diphenyl? Name the reaction.
c. Complete the equation. RX + AgCN → ……… + AgX (2+2 +1)
39. a. Write the structure of major products in the following. Justify your answer.

+ HBr ?
H H
b. Write the equation for the preparation of fluoroethane from chloroethane. Name the reaction.
c. What are freons? (2+2+1)

40. a. Write the mechanism of acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol.

b. Write the IUPAC name of the following compounds.


CH3

OH

H5C2 O C2H5
i) ii) (3+2)

41. a. How is the following conversion carried out? Write the chemical equation involved in it.
Ethyl magnesium chloride Propan-1-ol.
b. Between o-nitrophenol and o-cresol, which is more acidic? Give reason. (3+2)

42. a. Describe the manufacture of phenol from cumene. Write its chemical equations.
b. Write equations involved in Reimer- Tiemann reaction. (3+2)

43. a. How do you prepare t-butyl methyl ether by Williamson’s ether synthesis?
b. Write the chemical equation for the acylation of anisole. Identify the major product and give its
IUPAC name. (2+3)
PART – E (PROBLEMS)

VII. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09

44. A solution is obtained by mixing 300g of 25% solution and 400g of 40% solution by mass. Calculate the
mass percentage of the resulting solution.

45. Calculate the mass of ascorbic acid (C6H8O6) to be dissolved in 75g of acetic acid to lower its melting
point by 1.5° C. (Kf = 3.9 KKgmol-1).

46. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B are 450 and 700 mm of Hg respectively at 350K. Find out
the composition of the liquid mixture if total vapour pressure is 600 mm of Hg.

47. The decomposition of NH3 on platinum surface is zero-order reaction. What are the rates of production
of N2 and H2 if k = 2.5 x 10-4mol-1Ls-1?

48. In a first order reaction 75% of the reaction completes in 30 minutes calculate the rate constant..

49. The rate of the chemical reaction doubles for an increase of 10 K in absolute temperature from 298 K.
Calculate the activation energy.

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