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JEE Advanced 2020 Sample Paper Mock Test Answer Key Solution Leader
JEE Advanced 2020 Sample Paper Mock Test Answer Key Solution Leader
JEE Advanced 2020 Sample Paper Mock Test Answer Key Solution Leader
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6
SECTION-I (i)
A. D B A,B,C B,C,D A,B A,C,D
Q. 7 8 9 10
SECTION-I (ii)
A. A A C B
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SECTION-II
A. 2.00 5.00 2.00 3.00 840.00 3.00 7.00 1.11
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6
SECTION-I (i)
A. B,C A,C A,C A,B A,B,C A,B
Q. 7 8 9 10
SECTION-I (ii)
A. C B C C
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SECTION-II
A. 7.00 1.00 9.00 4.00 6.00 7.00 19.00 20.00
HINT – SHEET
PART-1 : PHYSICS
2. Ans ( A,B,C )
SECTION-I (i)
1 4 2 1 4 mℓ2 ℓ2
1. Ans ( A,C ) I BD = [ mℓ ] + [ ( mℓ2 ) + 4mℓ2 ] + 2 [ + m( )]
2 3 2 3 3 12
μ 1 (μ − 1) 2
− = mL 2 mL 2 ℓ
v ∞ 10 (B) I HI = 8( + ) + 4m(
–)
12 4 √2
10μ 10
v= =
μ−1 1 − 1μ mL 2
(C) 4( )+ 2 (mℓ2 ) +
3
vv < vr
mℓ2 5ℓ2
m(√–2ℓ)
2
10 + 4( + m( ))
vv = × 1.615 12 4
0.615
1.6 2mℓ2 ℓ
2
5mℓ2
vr = 10 × (D) + 2m( 2[ +
0.6 12 2
) +
4
]
1001CJA102120130 HS-1/8
Target:JEE(Main + Advanced) 2021/04-09-2021/Paper-1
3. Ans ( A,C ) SECTION-II
1. Ans ( 2.00 )
E = B(ωr) = 2(2) (1/2) = 2 N/C
2. Ans ( 200.00 )
σm = α θm Y ⇒ θm = 200°C
3. Ans ( 3.00 )
dv
σ = −η
dy
⇒ σ = (1.5) [4 − 2y]
v2 cos 60 + v1 5e =
3
mv1 σ= [4 − 2] = 3
m(5) sin 30 = − + mv2 2
2
4. Ans ( B ) 4. Ans ( 25.00 )
−−−−−
Conceptual 2Mg –
v=√ = 10√2 m/s
5. Ans ( A,C ) Aρ
1 V
Use ∫ ( ε 0 E 2 ) dv t= = 25 sec
2 av
6. Ans ( C,D ) 5. Ans ( 1.00 )
2 4 5
v = 10 m/s, f = 5 Hz, λ = 2m 2
+
6 3
ε= = = 2.5 volt
Point P can be antinode. 1
2
+
1
6
2
3
SECTION-I (ii) 12.5 16
( ) y = 2.5 ⇒ y = 1m
4 + 16 4
7. Ans ( C )
4(7.1) – 2(2 × 1.15) = Q 6. Ans ( 3.00 )
8. Ans ( C ) ma = –Kx1
2Kx1 = 2Kx2
117 (2 × 8.5) – 236 (7.6) = Q
2x2 + x1 = x
9. Ans ( C ) x1 = x/3
−
−−−
3m
Since coherence time is finite, as we move T = 2π√
K
away from O, interfering waves will not be able
7. Ans ( 4.00 )
to maintain a definite phase relationship for a ub = 4 m/s; β = 30°
240 240
appreciable time. + = 120√–3 s
u cos β + 2 u cos β − 2
10. Ans ( B ) u sin β = 2
dsinθ = (10–10) (3 × 108) = 3 × 10–2m = 3 cm 8. Ans ( 6.00 )
Conservation of momentum
(A) for d = 0.3 cm, we will get fringes on 1 × 8 + 3 × 4 = (1 + 3)v ....(i)
entire screen. v=5
Applying work energy theorem
(B) for d = 0.03 cm, we will get fringes on 1 1 1
wf = × 4 × 52 – × 1 × 82 – ×3×4
entire screen. 2 2 2
wf = –6
(D) for d = 3 cm, θ = 90° wagainst = 6
HS-2/8 1001CJA102120130
Leader & Enthusiast Course/Phase-Score(Advanced)/04-09-2021/Paper-1
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY 5. Ans ( A,B )
SECTION-I (i)
In parke’s process Ag – Zn are separated by
1. Ans ( D )
distillation
SECTION-I (ii)
2. Ans ( B ) 7. Ans ( A )
3. Ans ( A,B,C )
Orthorhombic crystal system have 4 bravias
lattice.
(II)
9. Ans ( C )
o 0.06 [H + 2
]a ΔSsurr =0
0.441 = E OP − . log +
2 1
√
5
× 1
10 −
2. Ans ( 5.00 )
Theory based.
7. Ans ( 7.00 )
i), (ii), (iv), (v) & (vi) are correct.
‘10’ NH3 (g) + '3'Cl2O → 6 NH4Cl + 2N2 + 3H2O
3. Ans ( 2.00 )
10 – 3 = 7
8. Ans ( 1.11 )
P(Vm – b) = R.T
Vm = 10 b ⇒ P = RT
9 10
P.Vm = RT ⇒ =Z=
10 9
HS-4/8 1001CJA102120130
Leader & Enthusiast Course/Phase-Score(Advanced)/04-09-2021/Paper-1
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS ∣ 2 1 1 ∣
∣ ∣
SECTION-I (i) Δ = ∣0 ∣
1 − 1∣
∣
∣ ∣
1. Ans ( B,C ) ∣ 3 2 1 ∣
Observe that the lines L1, L2 & L3 are parallel ⇒ 2(1 + 2) – 1(0 + 3) + 1(0 – 3)
to the vector i j k . ^
−
^
−
^
∣ −4 1 1 ∣
∣ ∣
P1 = 2x + y + z + 4 = 0 ∣− 8 2 1 ∣
∣ 2 − 4 1 ∣
P2 = 0x + y – z + 4 = 0 ∣ ∣
∣ ∣
P3 = 3x + 2y + z + 8 = 0 Δ2 =
∣
0 − 4 − 1∣=0
∣ ∣
P2 and P3 gives line L1 ∣3 −8 1 ∣
∣^
i j
^
k^ ∣
∣2 1 1 ∣
∣ ∣
∣ ∣
∣ ∣
vector parallel to line L1 = ∣ 0 1 −1 ∣ = − 4∣0 ∣
1 −
∣
1∣= 0
∣ ∣
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣
∣ 3 2 1 ∣ ∣ 3 2 1 ∣
1001CJA102120130 HS-5/8
Target:JEE(Main + Advanced) 2021/04-09-2021/Paper-1
3. Ans ( A,C ) 6. Ans ( A,B )
For real roots 4a2 – 4b(a – 1) ≥ 0 π / 4
or 0 ≤ b ≤ 4. ⇒ a2 + b2 = ∫ ln(sin 2x)dx − ∫ ln 2 dx
0 0
4. Ans ( A,B ) π 2
/
3 1
= tan 1 ( ) + tan 1 ( )
− −
⇒ 2a 1 = ∫ ln(sin 2x)dx − ∫ ln 2dx
4 2
3 1 0 0
1 4
+
2 1 π
= tan −
3 1
= tan −
2 1 π
1− 4
⋅ 2
= ∫ ln(sin x)dx − ln 2
2 2
25 1 19 0
∠C = cosec
) + cot
−
( )(
−
π
7 13 π
7 13 = ∫ ln(sin x)dx − ln 2
= tan 1 ( ) + tan 1 ( )
− − 2
24 9 0
7 13 π π
+ ⇒ a1 = − ln 2 ⇒ a 1 + b2 = − ln 2
= tan − 1
(
24 9
) = tan
–1 3 2 2
7
1− 24
⋅ 13
9 SECTION-I (ii)
∴ ∠A = π – ∠B – ∠C = π – tan–1 2 – tan–1 3 7. Ans ( C )
= tan–1 1 Let f(x) has degree n so
1 2 3 n2 = 1 + n + 1 ⇒ n=2
∴ sin A = – sin B = – and sin C =
−−
√2 √5 10
√
⇒ f(x) is quadratic with f(0) = 0 let f(x) = ax2 + bx
c 1 3 –
∴ a = sin A ⋅ =
–⋅ = √ 5 ax 3 bx 2
sin C √2 3 so a(ax2 + bx)2 + b(ax2+ bx) = x [ + ] ∀
(
√10
)
3 2
and x∈R
c 2 3 – a b
b = sin B ⋅ 2 ⇒ a3 0 ;2a 3 b − 0 ; ab2 + ab = 0
–⋅
= = √ − = =
sin C √5 3 3 2
( )
√10 and b2 = 0
(1) tan A = 1, tan B = 2, tan C = 3 are in A.P. 1
⇒ b = 0 and a = ± –
√3
Ans. (A)
1
∵ given leading coefficient is positive
(3) Area of ΔABC, Δ = ab sin C = 3 x2
2 ⇒ f (x) = –.
√3
All other parameters are irrational.
HS-6/8 1001CJA102120130
Leader & Enthusiast Course/Phase-Score(Advanced)/04-09-2021/Paper-1
8. Ans ( B ) 10. Ans ( C )
Let f(x) has degree n so a b p q
A=[ ] ;B = [ ]
n2 = 1 + n + 1 ⇒ n=2 c d r s
⇒ f(x) is quadratic with f(0) = 0 let f(x) = ax2 + bx a − αp b − αq
A − αB = [ ]
2 2 2 ax 3 bx 2 c − αr d − αs
so a(ax + bx) + b(ax + bx) = x[ + ] ∀
3 2
a − αp
∣ b − αq ∣
x∈R A − αB| = ∣∣
|
∣
∣
a b ∣ c − αr d − αs ∣
⇒ a3 − = 0 ; 2a 3 b − = 0 ; ab2 + ab = 0
3 2 ⇒ |A| + α2|B| – α(as + pd – br – qc)
and b2 = 0 ∣− αa + p − αb + q ∣
1 |− αA + B| = ∣∣ ∣
⇒ b = 0 and a = ± – ∣ − αc + r − αd + s
∣
∣
√3
c + αr d + αs 1. Ans ( 7.00 )
∣ a + αp b + αq ∣ The distance of the point 'a' from the plane r ⃗ ⋅ n⃗ = q
A + αB| = ∣∣
|
∣
∣
∣ c + αr d + αs ∣
measured in the direction of the unit vector b is ^
2. Ans ( 1.00 )
2
=α –1 For more than 2 roots the given equation must
be an identity. Hence p = 1 as for p = 1 each
(C) option correct term becomes zero independent of value of x.
1001CJA102120130 HS-7/8
Target:JEE(Main + Advanced) 2021/04-09-2021/Paper-1
3. Ans ( 9.00 ) 6. Ans ( 7.00 )
Area = ab = 36 gives 9 hyperbolas. As 3x + 4y = 7 is normal to y = f(x) at (1, 1)
4
4. Ans ( 4.00 ) hence f(1) = 1 and f ′ 1
( ) = .
3
Let P be (h, k), then chord of contact will be hx
Also 4x – 3y = 1 will be the tangent and hence
= –4(y + k) or hx + 4y + 4k = 0.
4x − 1
For being tangential to x2 + y2 = 4, f (x) = at x = 1. Now
3
∣
4k ∣
4x − 1 4x − 1
∣ ∣ = 2 or 4k2 – h2 = 16. f (x) ⩾ for x ≥ 1 & f (x) ⩽
−−−−
∣√ 2 +
−−
h∣ 16 3 3
for x ≤ 1 implies on right hand of x = 1 curve
5. Ans ( 6.00 ) of y = f(x) lies above its tangent and on left
face card removed 20 drawn randomly hand of x = 1 curve of y = f(x) lies below its
52 −−−−−−−−−−−→ 40 −−−−−−−−−−−→
tangent. Therefore x = 1 is a point of inflection,
Let E0 : 20 cards randomly removed has 4 aces. hence f′′(1) = 0.
3f ′ (x) − 2f (x) − 2x 0
Now lim is in
E1 : 20 cards randomly removed has exactly 3 aces. x→1 f (x) − x 2 0
indeterminate form. Applying L'hospital Rule
′ ′′ ′
E2 : 20 cards randomly removed has exactly 2 aces. gives = →3f xf x 2f xx 2x =x→13f fx′ x 2f 2xx 2
x
lim
1
( )−
( )−
( )−
2
lim
( )−
( )−
( )−
E : event that 2 drawn from the remaining 20 cards Hence the required limit is 7.
7. Ans ( 19.00 )
has both the aces. a + c = 2b ⇒ 3b = 30 ⇒ b = 10 ⇒ a + c = 20.
Number of positive integer solution is 19C1 = 19.
P (E) = P (E ∩ E 0 ) + P (E ∩ E 1 ) + P (E ∩ E 2 )
8. Ans ( 20.00 )
E E E
=P (E0) ⋅ P (
E0
)+ P (E 1 ) ⋅ P (
E1
)+ P (E 2 ) ⋅ P (
E2
)
(1 – x + 2x2)12 = ((1 – x) + 2x2)12
4 aces = (1 – x)12 + 12C1(1 – x)11 2x2 + 12C2 (1 – x)10 4x4
= 40 [
36 other + ......
co-efficient of x4 = co-efficient of x4 in (1 – x)12
+ 24 co-efficient of x2 in (1 – x)11 + 4 × 12C2
= 12C4 + 24 × 11C2 + 4 × 12C2 =
12 2 ⋅ 12 ⋅ 11 ⋅ 10 ⋅ 3 12
=
4
C 0 ⋅ 36C 20 4
⋅ 20C 2
4
C 1 ⋅ 36C 19 3
⋅ 20C 2
4
C 2 ⋅ 36C 18 2
⋅ 20C 2 C4 + + 4⋅ C2
40 C
20 C2
+
40 C
20 C2
+
40 C
20 C2 1⋅2⋅3
(
36
C 20 ⋅ 4 C 2 ) + (
4
C1 ⋅ 36
C 19 ⋅ 3 C 2 ) + ( 4 C 2 ⋅ 36
C 18 ⋅ 2 C 2 )
= 12C4 + 6 × 12C3 + 4 × 12C2
= 40 C
20 ⋅ 20C 2 = 12C4 + 2 × 12C3 + 4(12C3 + 12C2)
6⋅36 C 20 + 12 ⋅ 36C 19 + 6 ⋅ 36C 18 = 12C4 + 2 × 12C3 + 4 × 13C3
= 40 C ⋅ 20C
20 2
= 12C4 + 12C3 + 12C3 + 4 × 13C3
6 [ C 20 + 2 C 19 + 36C 18 ]
36 36
= 40 C 20C = 13C4 + 13C3 + 12C3 + 3 × 13C3
20 ⋅ 2
37
6 ( C 20 + 37
C 19 ) 6 (38 C 20 ) = 14C4 + 3 × 13C3 + 12C3 ⇒ n = 12, r = 3
= 40 C
= 40 C 20 20C 2
⇒ p = 6.
20 ⋅ 20C 2 ⋅ Hence the required coeff. is 6C3 i.e. 20.
HS-8/8 1001CJA102120130
(1001CJA102120131) Test Pattern
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6
SECTION-I (i)
A. A,C B,C A,B C B,C B
Q. 7 8 9 10
SECTION-I (ii)
A. B A B B
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SECTION-II
A. 3.00 8.00 6.00 4.00 6.00 6.00 5.00 1.00
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6
SECTION-I (i)
A. A,C A,B,C,D A,B,C A,B,C A,B B,C
Q. 7 8 9 10
SECTION-I (ii)
A. D C D C
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SECTION-II
A. 91.00 0.00 4.00 51.00 4.00 75.00 2.00 5.00
HINT – SHEET
PART-1 : PHYSICS ρgπr 4 2 h
Δh = he λt −
( λ= ) = he λt
−
8ηLA e
SECTION-I (i)
1
1. Ans ( A,D ) t=
λ
ρg (h 1 − h 2 ) πr 4 Adh 2 − Adh 1 4ηℓR 2
= = = k T= = 1.6 × 104 s
8ηL dt dt 4
ρgr
−kdt 2kdt
dh 1 = d (h 1 − h 2 ) = −
A A Since viscous forces are dissipative, so mechanical
+kdt
dh 2 =
A
energy of the fluid is not conserved water level
− ρg (h 1 − h 2 ) πr 4 Ad (h 1 − h 2 )
=
8ηL 2dt
decreases exponentially, hence it will take infinite time
d (Δh) ρgπr 4 2Δh
−
=
dt 8ηLA
for water level in the two containers to become equal
1001CJA102120131 HS-1/10
Target:JEE(Main + Advanced) 2021/04-09-2021/Paper-2
2. Ans ( A,B,D ) 5. Ans ( A,C )
−−−−−−−−
1 2 p cos θ 2Q p cos θ
mv – Q( ) = 0 or v = √
2 4π∈0 r 2 4π∈ 0 mr 2
circular motion of bead requires a centripeal force
∂V 2p cos θ mv2
Er = − = ; note that QEr =
∂r 4π∈ 0 r 3 r
thus wire frame does not exert any force on the bead
2
to sustain circular motion. Bead will reach the point At cos θ =
3
opposite its starting position and then repeatedly
retrace its path executing a periodic motion. N between bead and hoop will be zero.
3. Ans ( A,B,C,D )
For a point charge q moving with a velocity v, ⃗
r ⃗ = [−3i ⃗ − 4j ]⃗ (m)
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
r = √(−3m) 2 + (−4m) 2 = 5m mv2
N + mg cos θ =
R
Thus : 1 2
mv = mgR (1 − cos θ)
Substituting the above results into the equation 2
for B we obtain:
⃗
mv2 = 2mgR (1 − cos θ)
= −( 10 7 T . m/A)
−
k⃗ 2Ncosθ = 2 cosθ mg [2 – 3cosθ]
5m) 2
(
10
= − 9.6 × 10 −
k ⃗ (T ) FU = 2mg cosθ (2 – cosθ)
Both the electric & magnetic fields at origin
will decrease as the charge moves away for F u max
,− 2 sin θ − 3 (2) cos θ (− sin θ) = 0
V + VY
cos θ = 1/3
fY = f0 [ ]
1
V − VX
Fu = 2mg (2 − 1)
for lowest frequency 650 Hz 3
340 + 11 2
fB 650 [ ] = 702 Hz
Fu = mg
=
340 − 15 3
for highest frequency for hoop to rise off
340 + 11
fB = 800 [ ] = 864 Hz
Fu > Mg
340 − 15
∴ B and width = 864 – 702 = 162 Hz 2
mg > Mg
Sound Y 3
−−−− → ←−−−−
340 ms 11 m/s m 3
[ > ]
∴ Urel = 340 + 11 = 351 m/s M 2
HS-2/10 1001CJA102120131
Leader & Enthusiast Course/Phase-Score(Advanced)/04-09-2021/Paper-2
6. Ans ( A,B ) SECTION-I (ii)
–
√ 3 – 7. Ans ( B )
XL = wL = ( 100) = 10√3
10
1 20 (A) m1g –T1= m1a .....(1)
XC = ⇒ –
√3 3 √3
100 2
× 10−
T1 – m2g –T3= m2a .....(2)
–
10√3 –
tan ϕ1 = = √3 T3 + m3g –T2= m3a .....(3)
10
–
20/ √3 1 T2 – m4g = m4a .....(4)
tan ϕ2 = =
–
20 √3
π π (B) mg –T1= 2ma .....(1)
ϕ1 = ϕ2 =
3 6
π 1 π T1 – 2mg –T3= 2ma .....(2)
(A) Δϕ = (1 − ) ⇒
3 2 2
– T3 + 4mg –T2= 4ma .....(3)
200√2 π
(B) I 1 = sin(100t − )
z1 3 T2 – 3mg = 3ma .....(4)
−−−−− −−−
z1 = √ 100
+ = 300 20 In this way equation for all options can be
– π
I 1 = 10√2 sin(100t − ) obtained]
3
200√–2 π Alternative :
I2 = sin(100t − )
z2 6
−− − −− −−−
400
−
20 × 2
(A) m4 will dominate and move down and m1 will
z2 = √400 + =
– = 40–
3 √3 √3 move up.
– –
200√2√3 π
I2 = sin(100t + ) (B) In pair m1 and m2 will come down and m3 and
40 6
– π m4 , m3 will come down. Hence T3 = 0 and like at
I 2 = 5√6 sin(100t + )
6
1 π wood machine
– = sin(100t − 3 ) 2m 1 m 2 m3 m4
√2
π π T1 = g and T2 = g
= 100t −
m1 + m2 m3 + m4
4 3
7
(C) In pair m1 and m2 will come down with
100t = π
12 acceleration g/3 and m3 and m4, m3 will go up with
– 7π π
I 2 = 5√6 sin( + )
acceleration g/7.
12 6
– π π3 Hence T3 = 0 and like at wood machine
= 5√ 6 sin [ ]
6 2 2m 1 m 2 m3 m4
– 1 – T1 = g and T2 = g
= 5√ 6 −
m1 + m2 m3 + m4
– = 5√3
√2
(D) In pair m1 and m2, m2 will go up with
π 2000
(D) P 1 = 200 (10) cos = = 1000W
3 2 acceleration g/7 and m3 and m4, m3 will come
–
(200) 5√ 6 π – 3
P2 = – . cos = 200 5√ 2. down with acceleration g/3.
√2 6 2
– Hence T3 = 0 and like at wood machine
1500√2
=
– = 1500 2m 1 m 2 m3 m4
√2
T1 = g and T2 = g.
P net = 2500W m1 + m2 m3 + m4
1001CJA102120131 HS-3/10
Target:JEE(Main + Advanced) 2021/04-09-2021/Paper-2
8. Ans ( C ) SECTION-II
1. Ans ( 1.94 )
dϕ
Angular velocity of rod BC ω′ = −
dt
vc 1ω
ω′ = = D
y x Y = [(μ 1 − 1) t 1 −( μ2 − 1) t 2 ]
x y 1 d
= = Case-I
cos ϕ cos(θ + ϕ) sin θ
D t1 + t2
sin θ Y [(μ 1 − 1 − μ 2 + 1)
ω′ = ω
= ]
d 2
cos ϕ D 0.2
Angular acceleration of rod 5mm = (t 1 + t 2 )
d 2
dω′ cos2 ϕ cos θ + sin ϕsin 2 θ)
(
Case-II
BC = α = ω2
= −
dt cos3 ϕ D μ1 + μ2 − 1
8mm = [( ) (t 1 + t 2 )]
9. Ans ( D ) d 2
D
8mm = [0.5 (t 1 − t 2 )]
d
t1 33
= = 1.94
t2 17
2. Ans ( 0.40 )
1 9Qd
E 23 = (4.5Q) × 2Q = Applying Bernouli's equation outside and just
2Aε 0 2Aε 0
9Qd
inside the orifice.
V3 − V2 = ( ) 1
2Aε 0 P 0 + ρ oil g (15) + ρw V 2
2
= P 0 + ρ w g (10) + ρ oil g (5)
−−
∴V = √ 40
= 6.3m/s
(b) Let h be the height when flow through
orifice stops.
∴ P 0 + ρ oil g (5) + ρ w gh = P 0 + ρ oil g (15)
ρ oil
7.5Q + q – q’ + qh = 5Q ....(1) ⇒h= 10 = 8m
ρw
q’ = –qh ....(2) (c) P 0 + ρ oil g (5) + ρw gh
1 ′
[2q + 2(2Q + q) + 2q ] = 0 ....(3) 1
2Aε 0 = P0 + ρ oil g (15) + ρw V 2
2
Solving q = –1.3 Q ⇒V = √
−−−−−−−−
20 (h − 8)
q’ = 0.6Q
dh −−−−−−−−
qh = –0.6Q ⇒− = √ 20 (h − 8)
dt
8 t
10. Ans ( A ) ⇒∫
dh
= ∫ dt
From phase diagram, in case 'C' & 'D' particle 10 √
−−− −
20 h−−−
( − )
−
8 0
are able to reach at highest point, while in 'a' & −
−
2
'b' they don't. ∴t = √ s
5
HS-4/10 1001CJA102120131
Leader & Enthusiast Course/Phase-Score(Advanced)/04-09-2021/Paper-2
4. Ans ( 15.00 )
3. Ans ( 216.85 to 217.00 ) There are four forces acting on the object; a
normal force N perpendicularly away from the
incline, gravity mg vertically downward, the
applied force F in the direction of motion and a
static frictional force f before the object begins
to move. Since the object is about to slide along
pi .hi = p0H0
the plane, the frictional force must be at its
maximum value, f = μsN. The sum of the force
pf (h i − Δh) = pi h i = p0 H 0 components perpendicular to the incline is
zero, so,
pi Ah i p′ f Ah i N = mgcosθ ⇒ f = μsmgcosθ ...(1)
=
Ti Tf On the other hand, the force components
parallel to the surface of the incline are
pi h i p′ f h i
= sketched in the following free-body diagram.
Ti Tf
p′ f h i Tf
=
pi Ti
p0 + (mg + Mg) /A Tf Note that the frictional force must make some
=
p0 + mg Ti angle ϕ as drawn because it initially balances
100g the other two forces on this diagram,
105 + A 273 + x
20g
=
273 + 21
F = fcosϕ ...(2)
105 + A for the minimum applied force to get the object
103
105 + 100×10 − 4 to start sliding, and
200 mg sin θ
105 + fsinϕ = mgsinθ ⇒f= ...(3)
100×10 − 4
sin ϕ
105 + 105 273 + x Substitute eq. (3) into (2) along with
= = −−−−−−−
105 + 0.2 × 105 294 cosϕ = 1 sin 2 ϕ
√ −
to obtain
2 × 105 273 + x −−−−−−−−
5
=
294 1
1.2 × 10 F = mgsinθ √ − 1 ...(4)
sin 2 ϕ
294 × 2 Also substitute eq. (3) into (1) and rearrange to
273 + x =
1.2 find
1 μ s cos θ
294 × 2 = ...(5)
x= − 273 sin ϕ sin θ
1.2 Now put eq. (5) into (4) to get
−−−−−−−−−−−−
F = mg μ 2s cos2 θ sin 2 θ ...(6)
√ −
dC 1 = (A) Neoprene
dx
d/2 (B) Buna-N
1 1 dx
= ∫ = ∫ (C) P.H.B.V
C1 dC 1 βx
0 A∈ 0 (1 + d
)
(D) Nylon-6,6
d
1 1 dx P.H.B.V : Poly hydroxy-b-valerate is a
= ∫ = ∫
C2 dC 2 βd
( − )x biodegradable polymer
d/2
A∈ 0 (1 + d
)
1 1 1 5. Ans ( B,C )
= +
C eq C1 C2 (A) Around T = 300 K , gypsum is not
d 1 1
βA∈ 0
=
C1
+
C2 dehydrated to Plaster of paris
7. Ans ( 2.00 ) (B) Ca2+ + Na2CO3 → CaCO3 ↓ + 2Na+
−−−−−−−−−−−
nf = x + n√(f − x) 2 + y2 (C) Na2O2 + H2O → 2NaOH + H2O2
( nf − x) 2
= n 2 ∣∣(f − x) 2 + y2 ∣∣ (D) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Kb+ < Cs+ mobility in
( n2 − 1) x 2 + n 2 y2 − 2n 2 fx + 2nfx = 0 aqueous solution.
2n 2 fx − 2nfx = Bn (n − 1) fx 6. Ans ( B )
2nfx (n − 1) = Bn (n − 1) fx –
√ 3a = rc + 2rA + 2rB + 2rA + rc
B=2
= 2rC + 4rA + 2rB = 2rC + 4 × 0.225 rC + 2 × 0.414 rC
8. Ans ( 4.00 ) = 3.728 rC
Δy 2Δd Δℓ –
× 100 = × 100 + × 100
y d ℓ √ 2a = 4rC
2 × 5 × 10 3 × 100 x5 × 10 3 × 100
− −
3.728 r C
= 1
+
3
Fraction occupied = – 4r C
= 0.7609
5 × 10 −
250 × 10 −
√3 ×
√ 2
=2+2 =4
Fraction of body diagonal not covered = 0.24
HS-6/10 1001CJA102120131
Leader & Enthusiast Course/Phase-Score(Advanced)/04-09-2021/Paper-2
SECTION-I (ii) SECTION-II
7. Ans ( B ) 1. Ans ( 3.00 )
a-hydrogen containing compound show aldol In paramagnetic species incoming e– enters
condensation. without α-hydrogen into H.O.M.O and they are B2, O2, S2.
compound show cannizzaro reaction 2. Ans ( 8.00 )
(Disproportionation) Aldehyde show Tollen Given millimoles of salt/compound
test but ketone does not show Acetaldehyde & = 40 × 0.05 = 2 mms
acetone show haloform reaction. (i) Using Hph (phenolphthalein)
2 mms of HCl consumed to convert only
9. Ans ( B )
Na2CO3 portion to NaHCO3.
(A) (ii) Using MeOH (Methyl orange)
6 mms of HCl consumed to convert entire
salt to H2CO3.
(B) 2
So, X= = 40 mL
0.05
6
Y = = 120 mL
(C) 0.05
Y
| − X| 120 − 40
Hence, = = 8
10 10
(D) 3. Ans ( 6.00 )
ΔrG = ΔrG° + RTlnQ
10. Ans ( B ) 6
10 −−
Q= 12
= 106
10 −−
0 0
n(n − 1) ∞ ∞
15, n = 6 x2 d x2
= ⇒ In xn − 1
xe −
dx] (x
n −1
xe −
dx} dx
2
= [ ∫ − ∫ { ) ∫
0 dx
0
From given condition, 9 transition having lesser n−1 ∞ ∞
x n−1 x2
energy and 5 transition having larger energy − x 2
= t ⇒ In = −[ ] +
2
∫ xn − 2
e −
dx
2ex 2 0
∴ Initial excited state = 1 0
n − 1
(Transition 2 → 6) ⇒ In = In 2
2
−
2 2m
2m
− 1
−
m
(
1)!
− 1)!
a
2
B
cos
A −
2
B
= 4sin 2
C
2
⇒ f′ x A − B C C A+B
f (x) = 2x 3 − 15x 2 + 36 x − 23 ( ) = 6(x 2 − 5x + 6) or cos 2
= 2 sin
2
( sin
2
= cos
2
)
2 (Q) A| ∣
3 1 1/3 ∣
∣
0
y = m(x − 3) + & y − 3 = mx − 2m 2 | =
∣
=
m ∣ ∣
For common tangents ∣ 9 3 1 ∣
2
m
− 3m = 3 − 2m 2 ⇒ 2m 3 − 3m 2 − 3m + 2 = 0 (R) a ij i2 j 2 ⇒ a ij
= a ji
− = −
0 ⩽ x ⩽ 1, 0 ⩽ x 2 − 1 ⩽ 1, 1 ⩽ x 2 ⩽ 2
Hence f(x) is discontinuous at x = e
π π 1
lim f (x) = lim sgn (x − 2) × [ loge x] = 1 ⇒ x = 1, ⇒ + + tan tan y = a −
x→3 +
x→3 −
2 2
⇒ f (x) x 2} 0 π 1 π π 3π
< tan tan y < ⇒ < a <
lim = lim { = −
−
x→3 +
x→3 +
2 2 2 2
Hence, f(x) is discontinuous at x = 3 (R) |sin–1|sinx|| = |tan–1|tanx||
Also {x2} is discontinuous π
∀ x ∈ R − (2n + 1) , n∉I
−− −− −−
2
x = √ 10
, 11 12 therefore,
√ , √
(∵ a ≥ 0)
− −−−− −−−−−
−1
√∣
∣ sin
| |∣
∣ = √
−
sin x a
lim f (x) = lim { x 2} = 0.25 = f (3.5)
x→
7− x→3 −
1 π
2 sin
∣
∣
−
|sin x|∣∣ = a ⇒ a ∈ [0, )
2
Hence, f(x) is discontinuous at (S) sin − 1
( x 2 + y2 ) + tan 1√
−
−−−−−−
4y2 − 1 + sec 1 x = a −
−− −− −−
x = 3, √ , 10 √ , 11 √ , 12 e
⎧
⎪ −
1
(sin 1
+ cos 1
+ √ )
–2 ex
1
if x < 0
sin–1(x2 + y2) ⇒ 0 ≤ (x2 + y2) ≤ 1 ... (1)
x x
f ′(x)
⎪
x2 −−−−−−
(Q) = ⎨ for tan − 1√
4y2 1 ⇒ 4y2 – 1 ≥ 0
⎩
⎪
⎪ 1
( sin 1
− cos 1
+ √ )
–2 e −
1
x if x > 0
−
x2 x x
− 1 1
clearly there is one point of extremum. ⇒ y ∈ (−∞, )∪( , ∞) ... (2)
2 2
(R) not differentiable at x = 1 and x = –3 √
for sec–1x ⇒ x ≥ 1 or x ≤ 1, ... (3)
from equation (i), (ii) and (iii) we get x, y ∈
ϕ ⇒ a ∈ R.
10. Ans ( C )
(P) Slopes of sides are 1, 8, –6 hence
7 14 7
tan A = , tan B = , tan C = −
8 47 5
2
centroid is ( , 2 )
3
1 (Q) Vertices are (2, 1), (1, 2) and (–4, –1)
(S) lim x2 ( 1 + 2 + 3+.....+ [ ])
3 1
x→0 |x|
Slopes of the sides are − , 1 . hence tan A
1 1 5 3
[ ] ([ ] + 1) 1
2 |x| |x|
= –4, tan B , tan C = 2
= lim x =
x→0 2 3
[y] ([ y] + 1) Also for each of the three vertices the point (1, 1)
= lim
x→∞ 2y2 gives the same sign when put in the equations of
(y − { y}) (y − { y} + 1) 1 opposite sides.
= lim =
y→∞ 2y2 2
(R) for λ = –7 lines become concurrent.
1001CJA102120131 HS-9/10
Target:JEE(Main + Advanced) 2021/04-09-2021/Paper-2
SECTION-II 5. Ans ( 4.00 )
1. Ans ( 91.00 ) R
For equilateral Δ r = . Hence R = 8
2
n+1
S = C2 + 2 (3 C 3 +
3
C 2 + . . . . . . . +n C 2 ) Now inradius r of ABC is the circum radius for
= n+1
C2 2 (n + 1
C 3) , now use r R
+
second Δ. Hence x 1 = =
2 4
n n n+1
Cr + Cr + 1 = Cr + 1 , to get Similarly
x1 R x2 R xn 1 R
n+2 n+1 n(n + 1) (2n + 1) x2 = = , x3 = = , ....., xn =
−
=
S = C3 + C3 = , 2 8 2 16 2 2n+ 1
6
x1 + x2 + x3 + ... xn + ... upto ∞ term
hence for n = 6, S= 91
R R R R
= 4
+
8
+
16
+. . . . + +. . . upto ∞ terms
2. Ans ( 0.00 ) 2n 1 +
0 0
3
1/2
2 −x
∣1/2
2 1 e1 / 4
− 1
A = − ex ∣0
+ ex −x ∣∣ = 2( ) Greatest integral values of p is 2
1/2 e1/4
4. Ans ( 51.00 ) 8. Ans ( 5.00 )
picks up one end, this leaves (2n –1) ends for A⃗ . (B ⃗ + C )⃗ = B ⃗ . (C ⃗ + A)⃗ = C ⃗ . (A⃗ + B⃗) = 0
∴p= ⇒ =
2n − 1 2n − 1 101
= 50 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 50 ⇒ A⃗
∣
+ B⃗ + C ∣∣⃗ = 5√–
2
⇒ 2n – 1 = 101 ⇒ n = 51 ∣
HS-10/10 1001CJA102120131