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KCET 2024 Preparation Guide PDF Compressed 1
KCET 2024 Preparation Guide PDF Compressed 1
Preparation
Guide
Content
About
1. Karnataka Common Entrance Test
a. Introduction
b. Exam Dates
c. Exam Pattern
d. Syllabus
2. Preparation Study Material
3. Mock Tests
a. Mock Test 1
b. Mock Test 2
c. Mock Test 3
d. Mock Test 4
e. Mock Test 5
About
Welcome to the definitive resource for mastering the Karnataka Common Entrance Test (KCET)
in 2024. Crafted with precision and expertise, this ebook is your companion on the journey to
success in one of Karnataka's most esteemed entrance examinations.
KCET serves as the gateway to prestigious undergraduate programs in various disciplines
across the Karnataka state. As the landscape of education continually evolves, staying ahead
with thorough preparation and strategic insights becomes indispensable. This guide is
meticulously curated to equip aspiring candidates like you with the tools, knowledge, and
confidence needed to excel in KCET 2024.
● Introduction: Gain a thorough understanding of KCET, its significance, and its role in
shaping your academic journey.
● Exam Dates: Stay updated with crucial dates and deadlines to ensure you're on track
with your preparation schedule.
● Exam Pattern: Familiarize yourself with the structure, format, and marking scheme of
KCET 2024 to formulate an effective exam strategy.
● Syllabus: Delve into the detailed syllabus, ensuring you cover all the essential topics
and domains as prescribed for KCET 2024.
Warm regards,
Team Careers360
Karnataka Common Entrance Test
Introduction
KCET (Karnataka Common Entrance Test) is a state-level examination conducted by Karnataka
Examination Authority (KEA) for admission to engineering, Pharmacy, and agriculture courses
into various colleges/institutions in Karnataka State. Eligibility for the KCET exam requires
candidates to meet specified academic qualifications. Following qualification, candidates attend
mandatory counselling sessions where seats in colleges are allotted based on merit and
preferences. The examination assesses candidates' knowledge and proficiency in the specified
subjects, serving as a gateway to pursue higher education in various disciplines across
Karnataka's prestigious
Exam Dates
The KCET 2024 exam dates are 18, and 19 April 2024.
Exam Pattern
Syllabus
Physics
Maths
Physics
Q. 1 Two coherent sources of light can be obtained by
Option 1:
Two different light source
Option 2:
Two different light source but of same power
Option 3:
Two different light source of same colour
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
None of the above
Solution:
As we learn
Coherent Source -
- wherein
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
- wherein
Phase difference
Path Difference
Wavelength
Q. 3 When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a
plane sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index:
Option 1:
equal to that of glass
Option 2:
less than one
Option 3:
greater than that of glass
Option 4:
less than that of glass
Correct Answer:
equal to that of glass
Solution:
As we learnt in
Lensmaker's Formula -
- wherein
This can happen only when the refractive index of liquid is equal to refractive index of lens.
Q. 4 The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at - bt2, where a and b
are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
cells
Option 2:
potential gradients
Option 3:
a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
Option 4:
a combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances
Correct Answer:
a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potentiometer -
It is a device used to measure e.m.f of a given cell and to compare e.m.f's of cells
- wherein
Q. 6 The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted and stretched to 'n' times its original length,
its new resistance will be :
Option 1:
nR
Option 2:
Option 3:
n2 R
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
n2 R
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resistance formula -
- wherein
resistivity of material
Q. 7 The potential difference (VA - VB) between the points A and B in the given figure is
Option 1:
-3 V
Option 2:
+3 V
Option 3:
+6 V
Option 4:
+9 V
Correct Answer:
+9 V
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potential difference -
The voltage accross the terminals of a cell when it is supplying current to external resistance is known as
Potential Difference .
- wherein
=2 2+3+1 2=9V
Q. 8 The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse bias
resistance is :
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
10−6
Option 3:
106
Option 4:
100
Correct Answer:
10−6
Solution:
.
Forward Resistance
Reverse bias Resistance
Correct option is 2.
Q. 9 A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i, on one face of prism of angle A (assumed
to be small) and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the
prism is , the angle of incidence i is nearly equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 10 A concave mirror of focal length 'f1' is placed at a distance of 'd' from a convex lens of focal
length 'f2'. A beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens - concave
mirror combination returns to infinity. The distance 'd' must equal:
Option 1:
f1+f2
Option 2:
-f1+f2
Option 3:
2f1+f2
Option 4:
-2f1+f2
Correct Answer:
2f1+f2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Mirror Formula -
- wherein
- wherein
are object and image distance from lens.
For final image to return to infinity, the first image must be centre of curvature of mirror. Hence distance
of image I from the mirror must be equal to
Correct option 3.
Q. 11 The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance
between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are:
Option 1:
10 cm, 10 cm
Option 2:
15 cm, 5 cm
Option 3:
18 cm, 2 cm
Option 4:
11 cm, 9 cm
Correct Answer:
18 cm, 2 cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Astronomical Telescope -
- wherein
magnifying power =
Also
Q. 12 In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of
two wavelengths 1 = 12000 and 2 = 10000 . At what minimum distance from the
common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one
interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?
Option 1:
3 mm
Option 2:
8 mm
Option 3:
6 mm
Option 4:
4 mm
Correct Answer:
6 mm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Fringe Width -
- wherein
Distance of
Maxima
Distance of
maxima
let mth bright fringe of first will concide with nth bright fringe of other
Maxima
Q. 13 To get an output of 1 from the circuit shown in figure the input must be :
Option 1:
a = 0, b = 1, c = 0
Option 2:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
Option 3:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Option 4:
a = 0, b = 0, c = 1
Correct Answer:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Solution:
C=1
Option 1:
5 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA
Option 2:
15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
Option 3:
12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
Option 4:
12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
Correct Answer:
12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
Solution:
In the given figure
Voltage across RL= 2K is same as that across zener dioxide i.e 10V
Current through 4K =
Option 1:
N0/8
Option 2:
N0/16
Option 3:
N0/2
Option 4:
N0/4
Correct Answer:
N0/8
Solution:
As we learnt in
or
Now,
No is the initial amount of substance and N is the amount left after decay.
So,
given that the repulsive potential energy between the two nuclei is
the temperature at which the gases must be heated to initiate the
reaction is nearly
[ Boltzmann's constant
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Nuclear fission -
e.g.
- wherein
In nuclear fission neutron trigger the reaction & in the process more than one neutron is released.
Correct option is 4.
Q. 17 The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition
shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Correct option is 3.
Option 1:
Hydrogen atom
Option 2:
singly ionised helium atom
Option 3:
Deuteron atom
Option 4:
singly ionised neon atom
Correct Answer:
singly ionised neon atom
Solution:
Bohr's theory is applicable to hydrogen-like atoms (single electron system).
Q. 19 Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 240 m high with initial
speed of 10 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. Which of the following graph best represents the
time variation of relative position of the second stone with respect to the first? (Assume
stones do not rebound after hitting the ground and neglect air resistance, take g=10 m/s2
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20
Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are
being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the
blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force (in N) applied by
the wall on block B is :
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
Solution :
Q. 21 Moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is . Initially the body is ate rest. In
order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of , the angular acceleration of
must be applied about the axis for a duration of :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given
Q. 22 A circular disc of radius b has a hole of radius a at its centre (see figure). If the mass per unit
area of the disc varies as , then the radius of gyration of the disc about its axis passing
through the centre is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 23
A rod ' ' has non-uniform linear mass density given by where a and b
are constants and The value of x for the centre of mass of the rod is at :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 24 If the dimensions of a physical quantity quantity are given by MaLbTc, then the physical
quantity will be:
Option 1:
Velocity if a=1, b=0,c=-1
Option 2:
Acceleration if a=1,b=1,c=-2
Option 3:
Force if a=0,b=-1,c=-2
Option 4:
Pressure if a=1,b=-1,c=-2
Correct Answer:
Pressure if a=1,b=-1,c=-2
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Q. 25 In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%,
3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows: % error in P is:
Option 1:
10%
Option 2:
7%
Option 3:
4%
Option 4:
14%
Correct Answer:
14%
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
% error In P = 14%
Correct option is 2.
Q. 26 If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two
vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
Option 1:
0o
Option 2:
90o
Option 3:
45o
Option 4:
180o
Correct Answer:
90o
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Q. 27 The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of
projection of the projectiles is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Horizontal Range -
Horizontal distance travelled by projectile from the point of projectile to the point on ground where its hits.
- wherein
R=H
Correct option is 2.
Q. 28 A particle moves so that its position vector is given by . Where is
a constant.
Option 1:
Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to .
Option 2:
Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to .
Option 3:
Velocity is perpendicular to and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
Option 4:
Velocity is perpendicular to and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
Correct Answer:
Velocity is perpendicular to and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector or cross product of two vector & written as is a single vector whose magnitude is equal to
product of magnitude of & and the sine of smaller angle between them.
- wherein
and
Correct option is 3.
Q. 29
A Carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the
work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower
temperature is :
Option 1:
1J
Option 2:
90 J
Option 3:
99 J
Option 4:
100 J
Correct Answer:
90 J
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
are in kelvin
- wherein
Source temperature
Sink Temperature
= Coefficient of performance
Q. 30 One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation
. The heat capacity (in terms of R) of the gas during this process is
Option 1:
1.5
Option 2:
2.5
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
From eqn(1),
Q. 31 A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period T. If d is the density of
the earth and G is the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity represents:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 32
Two hypothetical planets of masses m1 and m2 are at rest when they are infinite distance
apart. Because of the gravitational force they move towards each other along the line joining
their centres. What is their speed when their separation is ‘d’ ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Initial energy of the system = 0
Final energy =
Similarly
Q. 33 A 60 HP electric motor lifts an elevator having a maximum total load capacity of 2000 kg. If
the frictional force on the elevator is 4000N , then the speed of the elevator at full load is
close to: (1 HP=746 W, g=10 ms-2).
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Power -
Instantaneous power-
Where,
Fnet=(2000 x 10+4000)=24000 N
Q. 34 After perfectly elastic oblique collision of two bodies of equal masses (if the second body is
at rest), the scattering angle would be
Correct Answer: 90
Solution:
Along x-axis-
….. (1)
Along y-axis-
…..(2)
….(3)
Value of e=1
We apply e=1
Special condition
We get,
i.e; after perfectly elastic oblique collision of two bodies of equal masses (if the second body
is at rest), the scattering angle would be .
So, answer is -
Correct Answer: 80
Solution:
Specific Heat -
- wherein
C = specific heat
Change in temperature
m = Amount of mass
For (I)
Q. 36
The ratio of the specific heats in terms of degrees of freedom (n) is given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
f = degree of freedom
- wherein
f = degree of freedom
n= degree of freedom
Q. 37 Two identical beakers A and B contain equal volumes of two different liquids at each
and left to cool down. Liquid in A has density of and specific heat of
while liquid in B has density of and specific heat of
which of the following best describes their temperature versus time
graph schematically ?(assume the emissivity of both the beakers to be the same)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein
Temperature difference is not very large.
From given
and
at
and we know
Q. 38 Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature; the
pressure of A being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be 1.5
times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
OR
where
Given
Q. 39 When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we Learned
By using
Q. 40 When a body is earth connected, electrons from the earth flow into the body. This means the body is
Option 1:
Unchanged
Option 2:
Charged positively
Option 3:
Charged negatively
Option 4:
An insulator
Correct Answer:
Charged positively
Solution:
When a positively charged body is connected to the earth, electrons flow from earth to body and the body becomes
neutral.
Q. 41 Two copper balls, each weighing 10g are kept in air 10 cm apart. If one electron from every 106 atoms
is transferred from one ball to the other, the coulomb force between them is (atomic weight of copper
is 63.5)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Properties of Charge -
Transferable
- wherein
Q. 42 A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 6.7×10−2 Am2 and moment of inertia 7.5×10−6 kg m2
is performing simple harmonic oscillations in a magnetic field of 0.01 T. Time taken ( in
seconds) for 10 complete oscillations is :
Correct Answer:
6.65
Solution:
As we learned in
Using
we get T = 0.665 s
Q. 43 A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane
perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The
induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is:
Option 1:
4.8 V
Option 2:
0.8 V
Option 3:
1.6 V
Option 4:
3.2 V
Correct Answer:
3.2 V
Solution:
Induced emf in the loop is given by where A is the area of the loop.
So
Q. 44 A wire carrying current I is tied between points P and Q and is in the shape of a circular arch
of radius R due to a uniform magnetic field B (perpendicular to the plane of the paper,
shown by xxx) in the vicinity of the wire. If the wire subtends an angle at the centre of
the circle (of which it forms an arch) then the tension in the wire is :
Option 1:
IBR
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
IBR
Solution:
As we learned in
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 46 Three straight parallel current carrying conductors are shown in the figure. The force
experienced by the middle conductor of length 25 cm is :
Option 1:
3 x 10-4 N toward right
Option 2:
6 x 10-4 N toward left
Option 3:
9 x 10-4 N toward left
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
3 x 10-4 N toward right
Solution:
Force due to wire one
towards right
towards left
Net force =
Q. 47 In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the
voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively
Option 1:
100 V, 2.0 A
Option 2:
150 V, 2.2 A
Option 3:
220 V, 2.2 A
Option 4:
220 V, 2.0 A
Correct Answer:
220 V, 2.2 A
Solution:
and are equal and out of phase with each other and thus get cancelled.
Thus and
Q. 48 Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain
minimum:
Option 1:
frequency
Option 2:
power
Option 3:
wavelength
Option 4:
intensity
Correct Answer:
frequency
Solution:
Q. 49 Electron used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage
is increased to 100 kV then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would
Option 1:
increase by 2 times
Option 2:
decrease by 2 times
Option 3:
increase by 4 times
Option 4:
increase by 4 times
Correct Answer:
decrease by 2 times
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Option 1:
10 mV
Option 2:
20 mV
Option 3:
30 mV
Option 4:
15 mV
Correct Answer:
20 mV
Solution:
As we learnt in
Transistor -
NPN or PNP
- wherein
Logic 1 = > 5 V
Logic 0 = < 1 V
Option 1:
AND Gate
Option 2:
OR Gate
Option 3:
XOR Gate
Option 4:
NOR Gate
Correct Answer:
AND Gate
Solution:
As we have learned
AND Gate -
- wherein
Y is out put
Hence A B output
1 1 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 0
Q. 53 The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current
flowing through the resistance R1 will be
Option 1:
2.5 A
Option 2:
10.0 A
Option 3:
1.43 A
Option 4:
3.13 A
Correct Answer:
2.5 A
Solution:
As we learnt in
P -N junction as diode -
It is a one way device. It offers a low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
In the given figure is in Reverse biased mode. hence no current will flow through it while is in
forward biased mode hence will offer Zero resistance
Correct Option is 1.
Q. 54 The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as a medium is With the
introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes . The permittivity of the
medium is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 55 A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of The electric potential due to
the dipole at a point at a diatnce of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on the line
making an angle of with the dipole axis is:
Option 1:
50 V
Option 2:
200 V
Option 3:
400 V
Option 4:
zero
Correct Answer:
200 V
Solution:
Q. 56 Needles N1,N2,and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic
substance respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will
Option 1:
attract all three of them
Option 2:
attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
Option 3:
attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
Option 4:
attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly.
Correct Answer:
attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
Solution:
Ferromagnetic substance magnetizes strongly in the direction of magnetic field N1 is made up of
this material paramagnetic substance magnetizes weakly in the direction of magnetic field. N2 is made of
this material. Diamagnetic substance magnetizes weakly in the opposite direction of magnetic field. N3 is
made of this material.
Q. 57 A 220-volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0
ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the
primary windings of the transformer is
Option 1:
5.0 ampere
Option 2:
3.6 ampere
Option 3:
2.8 ampere
Option 4:
2.5 ampere
Correct Answer:
5.0 ampere
Solution:
Q. 58 A cylindrical piston of mass M slides smoothly inside a long cylinder closed at one end,
enclosing a certain mass of gas. The cylinder is kept with its axis horizontal. If the position is
disturbed from its equilibrium position, its oscillates simple harmonically. The period of the
oscillation will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the piston be displaced through distance towards left, then volume decreases, pressure increases.
If is increase in pressure and is decrease in volume, then considering the process to take place
gradually (i.e. isothermal)
This excess pressure is responsible for providing the restoring force to the piston of mass .
Hence
Comparing it with
Q. 59 A simple pendulum has a time period T in vacuum. Its time period when it is completely
immersed in a liquid of density one-eight of the density of the material of the bob is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In vacuum,
Let be the volume and be the density of the mass of the bob.
= weight - upthrust
Option 1:
100
Option 2:
88
Option 3:
128
Option 4:
112
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
As we have learned
Collinear Vectors -
Two vectors are said to be collinear if their directed line segments are parallel disregards to their
direction.
- wherein
Negative of a vector -
- wherein
is collinear with
So , height = 64 + 36 = 100
Chemistry
Q. 1 6.02 x 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of the
solution is:
Option 1:
0.01 M
Option 2:
0.001 M
Option 3:
0.1 M
Option 4:
0.02 M
Correct Answer:
0.01 M
Solution:
As we learnt in
Molarity is defined as the number of moles of the solute in 1 litre of the solution.
No. of moles
Therefore,
Q. 2 The electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from higher orbitals to the orbital
of radius 211.6 pm. This transition is associated with :
Option 1:
Lyman series
Option 2:
Balmer series
Option 3:
Paschen series
Option 4:
Brackett series
Correct Answer:
Balmer series
Solution:
As we have learned,
Q. 3 The correct option with respect to the Pauling electronegativity values of the elements is :
Option 1:
Ga < Ge
Option 2:
P>S
Option 3:
Si < Al
Option 4:
Te > Se
Correct Answer:
Ga < Ge
Solution:
Electronegativity -
A qualitative measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract shared electron is
electronegativity.
- wherein
- wherein
Correct order
Option 1:
Two bonds
Option 2:
One bond
Option 3:
Four bonds
Option 4:
Three bonds
Correct Answer:
Four bonds
Solution:
One s and three p orbital undergo sp3 hybridization. Four sp3 hybrid orbitals form four σ bonds with
oxygen atoms. They are σ sp3 – p. Four pπ – dπ bonds are also formed with oxygen atoms by the
unpaired electrons.
Option 1:
Evapouration of water
Option 2:
Expansion of a gas at constant temperature
Option 3:
Sublimation of solid to gas
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6 In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits the highest oxidation state?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Periodicity of atomic radius and ionic radius in period -
In a period from left to right the effective nuclear charge increases because the next electron fills in the
same shell. So the atomic size decrease.
- wherein
The attraction between the outer electrons and the nucleus increases as the atomic radius decreases in a
period.
- wherein
In a group moving from top to the bottom the number of shell increases.So the atomic size increases.
- wherein
As we know that
From Left to right in a period size decreases and when going down the group size increases
Q. 8 A mixture of potassium chlorate, oxalic acid, and sulphuric acid is heated. During the
reaction which element undergoes the maximum change in the oxidation number?
Option 1:
S
Option 2:
H
Option 3:
Cl
Option 4:
C
Correct Answer:
Cl
Solution:
In the mixture, potassium chlorate acts as an oxidizing agent while oxalic acid act as a reducing agent.
Carbon will oxidize while Chlorine will be reduced as per the given equation.
The maximum change in oxidation number of chlorine i.e. from + 5 to - 1, while carbon goes from +3 to
+4.
Q. 9 The weight of silver (at.wt = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600
mL of O2 at STP will be :
Option 1:
5.4 g
Option 2:
10.8 g
Option 3:
54.0 g
Option 4:
108.0 g
Correct Answer:
108.0 g
Solution:
As we learnt in
The masses of different substances, liberated or dissolved by the electricity are proportional to their
equivalent masses.
Now, we have
WAg = 108
Option 1:
Electrostatic attractions
Option 2:
van der Waals forces
Option 3:
Dipole - Dipole interactions
Option 4:
Hydrogen bonding
Correct Answer:
Hydrogen bonding
Solution:
As learnt in
Q. 11 The dipeptide, Gln-Gly, on treatment with CH3COCl followed by aqueous work up gives :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of the dipeptide Gln-gly is given as
Now, acetylation occurs at the free hydroxy and amino groups. Amides do not undergo acetylation.
A is :
Option 1:
Glucose cyanohydrin
Option 2:
Glucose oxime
Option 3:
Glucosazone
Option 4:
Gluconic acid
Correct Answer:
Glucose cyanohydrin
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Glucose reacts with Hydrogen cyanide and undergoes nucleophilic addition reaction to form its
cyanohydrin.
Option 1:
a, b only
Option 2:
a, b and d only
Option 3:
b only
Option 4:
a,b and c only
Correct Answer:
a,b and c only
Solution:
Dihalogen derivatives of hydrocarbons contain two halogen atoms apart from carbon and hydrogen
Here, in
In (c) Hydrogen is replaced from the alkane group, not from the Benzene group, so it is Dihalogen
derivatives of alkane.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The reaction mechanism involves formation of free radicals and 1o carbon free radicals will react faster
due to lesser steric hinderance followed by 2o and then 3o.
Option 1:
RI >RBr >RCl
Option 2:
RCl>RBr>RI
Option 3:
RBr>RCl>RI
Option 4:
RBr>RI>RBr
Correct Answer:
RI >RBr >RCl
Solution:
The reactivity for nucleophile will be higher for those which can release H+ or R+ as easily as possible.
Thus, the correct order is:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Out of the following, select the set containing only paramagnetic complexes
Option 1:
(i), (ii)
Option 2:
(ii), (iii)
Option 3:
(i), (iii)
Option 4:
(i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer:
(i), (iii)
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Cyanide ions are strong field ligands and cause pairing of electrons.
The electronic arrangement in the central metal ions in the given complexes with the Strong field ligand is
shown below:
Hence, only complexes (i) and (iii) are paramagnetic as they contain unpaired electrons
Q. 17 In any ferric salt, on adding potassium ferrocyanide, a Prussian blue colour is obtained,
which is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Option 1:
Two types of ions
Option 2:
Only one type of ion
Option 3:
Four types of ions
Option 4:
Three types of ions
Correct Answer:
Three types of ions
Solution:
Potash alum is a mixed salt of and and upon dissolution in water, it gives all the
three ions from which it is made viz.
Q. 19 U is equal to :
Option 1:
Adiabatic work
Option 2:
Isothermal work
Option 3:
Isochoric work
Option 4:
Isobaric work
Correct Answer:
Adiabatic work
Solution:
Adiabatic Process -
Heat exchange between the system and surroundings is zero.
So,
Ans(1)
(Given that : )
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Before compression,
After Compression
Option 1:
+5
Option 2:
+3
Option 3:
+6
Option 4:
-10
Correct Answer:
+6
Solution:
CrO5 has a butterfly structure having two peroxo bonds.
CrO5 : x + 4( - 1) + 1 (-2) = 0
Q. 22 The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is :
Option 1:
Sublimation
Option 2:
Chromatography
Option 3:
Crystallisation
Option 4:
Steam distillation
Correct Answer:
Steam distillation
Solution:
The 1:1 mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols is separated by steam distillation
Q. 23 The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula
Option 1:
C 3 H6
Option 2:
C 2 H2
Option 3:
C4H10
Option 4:
C 2 H4
Correct Answer:
C 3 H6
Solution:
The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula .
Unsymmetrical alkenes generally are more reactive than the symmetrical alkenes, alkynes and alkanes.
That is why, propene is more reactive than the other given compounds.
Q. 24 Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution
containing 1 mol of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is
further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg.
Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure states will be, respectively
Option 1:
200 and 300
Option 2:
300 and 400
Option 3:
400 and 600
Option 4:
500 and 600
Correct Answer:
400 and 600
Solution:
(1)
(2)
Q. 25 A first-order reaction is 50 % completed in 20 min at 27oC and in 5 min at 47oC. The energy
of activation (in kJ/mol) of reaction is:
Correct Answer:
55.14
Solution:
Given,
Now,
Arrhenius Equation -
= Rate constant
So,
Q. 26 Apart from +3 oxidation state, other stable oxidation states shared by f-block elements
is/are:
Option 1:
+2 only
Option 2:
+2 and +4
Option 3:
+4 only
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
+2 and +4
Solution:
As we have learned
– They show variable valency.The +3 is the most important oxidation state.Few elements show +2 and
+4 oxidation states.
Q. 27 [Co2(CO)8] displays :
Option 1:
one Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Option 2:
one Co−Co bond, four terminal CO and four bridging CO
Option 3:
no Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Option 4:
no Co−Co bond, four terminal CO and four bridging CO
Correct Answer:
one Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Solution:
The structure of [Co2(CO)8]
In one Co-Co bond, six terminal bond and two bridge CO are present
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is resonance stabilised while is stable due to hyperconjugation, Since resonance is
dominating over hyperconjugation,
Option(2): B is more stable than A as B has more alpha hydrogen(7 to 4) which implies more number of
hyperconjugation structures. This makes B more stable.
Option(3): B is more stable than A as a six-membered ring is more stable than a 3 membered ring due to
the lesser ring strain of the six-membered ring.
Option(4): A is more stable than B due to the possibility of resonance with each of the phenyl groups
attached to C.B doesn't show any resonance.
Q. 29 The major product of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrite with ethyl bromide is:
Option 1:
Ethane
Option 2:
Ethene
Option 3:
Ethylalcohol
Option 4:
Nitroethane
Correct Answer:
Nitroethane
Solution:
Alkyl halides when treated with AgNO2 in aqueous ethanol, Nitro alkane is obtained as a product.
- wherein
Therefore, Option(4) is correct
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given substrate undergoes dehydrohalogenation to form an alkene and the
subsequent polymerisation reaction occurs as:
It is to be mentioned that the chlorine attached to the Benzene ring will not undergo substitution with
KOH very easily due to partial double bond character between the benzene ring and the chloro group.
Q. 31 Which of the following potential energy (PE) diagram represents the reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
reaction occurs in two steps. The first step is the formation of the Carbocation while the second step
is the attack of the nucleophile to form the final product.
Since the formation of the Carbocation is the slow step in the reaction, the energy profile diagram will
have a higher peak for the formation of the carbocation. The second peak represents the activation
energy required for the nucleophile to bond with the Carbocation which will have a lower peak than the
slowest step.
Q. 32 When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to:
Option 1:
1 mol of HCl (g)
Option 2:
2 mol of HCl (g)
Option 3:
0.5 mol of HCl (g)
Option 4:
1.5 mol of HCl (g)
Correct Answer:
1 mol of HCl (g)
Solution:
As we learnt in
The reactant which gets consumed and thus limits the amount of product formed is called the limiting
reagent.
Q. 33 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
Option 1:
Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
Option 2:
Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
Option 3:
Both bond angle and bond length change
Option 4:
Both bond angles and bond length remains same
Correct Answer:
Both bond angles and bond length remains same
Solution:
= Both bond angles ad bond length remains same
Option 1:
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius.
Option 2:
Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius.
Option 3:
Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table.
Option 4:
Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of
the periodic table.
Correct Answer:
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius.
Solution:
The Atomic radius of the elements decreases across a period from left to right due to an increase in
effective nuclear charge. On moving down a group, since, the number of shells increases, so atomic
radius increases. Amongst isoelectronic species, the ionic radius increases with increases in negative
charge or decrease in positive charge.
Option 1:
BeCl2, XeF2
Option 2:
Tel2, XeF2
Option 3:
Option 4:
IF3, XeF2
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
Both ∆H and ∆S are negative.
Option 2:
Both ∆H and ∆S are positive.
Option 3:
∆H is positive while ∆S is negative.
Option 4:
∆H is negative while ∆S is positive.
Correct Answer:
Both ∆H and ∆S are positive.
Solution:
ΔG=ΔH−TΔS
At low temperature,
TΔS < ΔH
ΔG > 0 and the reaction is non-spontaneous.
At high temperature,
TΔS > ΔH
ΔG < 0 and the reaction is spontaneous.
Q. 37 The equilibrium constants of the following are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the
reaction in the forward direction.
, - - - - - - - -- (1)
.......................(2)
- - - - - - - - - - (3)
Option 1:
+5
Option 2:
+3
Option 3:
+6
Option 4:
-10
Correct Answer:
+6
Solution:
The reaction proceeds as follows:
In peroxide linkages, the oxidation state of each oxygen atom is -1. Let O.S. of Cr be x
Then, x-2-2*2=0
= x=+6
O.S, is +6
is _______.
Option 1:
3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Option 2:
5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
Option 3:
5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
Option 4:
3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
Correct Answer:
3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Solution:
Option 1:
azimuthal quantum number of valence shell
Option 2:
nuclear charge
Option 3:
electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
Option 4:
principal quantum number of valence shell
Correct Answer:
nuclear charge
Solution:
Ionic Radii -
The ionic radius is the distance between the nucleus of an ion and the point where the nucleus exerts its
influence on the electron cloud.
Isoelectronic species -
A series of atom, ions and molecules in which each species contains the same number of electrons but
different nuclear charge.
- wherein
Smaller the value of z/e, larger the size of that species.Smaller z means effective nuclear charge is small
hence size is large.
Option 1:
Sodium chloride
Option 2:
Magnesium chloride
Option 3:
Sodium phosphate
Option 4:
Urea
Correct Answer:
Sodium phosphate
Solution:
Van't Hoff factor for dissociation of strong electrolyte
Na3PO4 gives the maximum ions and hence it shows the highest Van't Hoff factor.
(C) The half-life of the reaction depends on the initial concentration of the reactant.
Option 1:
Only A and B
Option 2:
Only B and C
Option 3:
A, B, and D
Option 4:
A, B, C, and D
Correct Answer:
A, B, and D
Solution:
A) The concentration of reactant which is following first-order kinetics always decreases exponentially and
becomes zero at infinity.
As the temperature increases, the rate constant increases and the half-life decreases since half-life is
inversely dependent on the rate constant.
K increase on increasing T.
C) The half-life of the reaction does not depend on the initial concentration of the reactant.
Option 3 is correct.
Q. 43 The complex, has electronic configuration and has one unpaired
electron, which of the following statements are true?
3) It is diamagnetic
Option 1:
1,2,3,4
Option 2:
1,2,3
Option 3:
2,3
Option 4:
1,2,4
Correct Answer:
1,2,4
Solution:
As we have learned
Transition elements have relatively low ionisation energies and have one or two electrons in their outer
most energy level (ns1 or ns2).As a result, metallic bonds are formed.The unpaired d- electron also result
in the formation of the metallic bond.
Since there are 6 H2O molecules attached as the ligand, thus its coordination number is 6 and its
geometry is octahedral but since it has 1 unpaired electron thus the complex is paramagnetic.
Option 2:
Ag
Option 3:
Fe
Option 4:
Na
Correct Answer:
Ag
Solution:
The extraction of Silver is done using the McArthur Forest Cyanide method.
Q. 45 The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold and dilute aqueous NaOH are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
(Cold)
Q. 46 Dissolving 120 g of a compound of (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density
1.12 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is :
Option 1:
1.00 M
Option 2:
2.00 M
Option 3:
2.50 M
Option 4:
4.00 M
Correct Answer:
2.00 M
Solution:
We have given, density of solution = 1.12g/ml
Molarity is given as
Molarity = (Moles of solute) / volume (L)
Thus, moles = 2 and volume = 1L
Therefore, molarity = 2 / 1
= 2M
Therefore, Option (2) is correct
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 48 Which of the following is a peptide bond ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Peptide bond is an amide linkage formed between two amino acids which is formed by condensation
reaction.
The bond formed between two amino acids by the elimination of a water molecules is called peptide
linkage or bond
Therefore, Option (2) is correct
Option 1:
C6H5CHC6H5Br
Option 2:
C6H5CH2Br
Option 3:
C6H5CH CH3Br
Option 4:
C6H5CCH3C6H5Br
Correct Answer:
C6H5CH2Br
Solution:
It is a type reaction which requires less crowded substance. Among the given option
is least crowded substrate.
Nucleophilic substitution reactions that lead to inversion in configuration follow mechanism. Since it
involves the formation of a transition state which is crowded by 5 groups attached to a carbon atom,
steric hindrance of a major factor in these kinds of reactions. Due to steric hindrance of the benzene ring,
option (1) and (4) are ruled out. Among (2) and (3), (3) has a bulkier group attached to the C having Br. It
also has 3 hydrogens compared to 2.Thus (3) will offer more steric hinderance than (2). Thus (2) will give
inversion in the configuration.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resin decreases as the size of
alkali metal ion increases.
Since the order of the size of alkali metal ion follows the order-
Option 1:
PH3
Option 2:
CIF3
Option 3:
NCl3
Option 4:
BCl3
Correct Answer:
BCl3
Solution:
Hybridisation -
When one s - and two p - orbitals of the same shell of an atom mix to form three new equivalent
orbitals.The hybridised orbital is called sp2 orbital.
- wherein
Q. 52 For the reaction, A(g) + B(g) → C(g) + D(g), H0 and S0 are, respectively, −29.8 kJ mol−1 and
−0.100 kJ K−1 mol−1 at 298 K. The equilibrium constant for the reaction at 298 K is :
Option 1:
1.0 × 10−10
Option 2:
1.0 × 1010
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 53 The of , are respectively,
. Which one of the following salts
will precipitate last if AgNO3 solution is added to the solution containing equal moles of
?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let us calculate the solability of each salt
1 0 0
1-s 2s s
s s
s s
s s
Option 1:
Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe
Option 2:
Liberation of H2 from steam by iron at high temperature
Option 3:
Rusting of iron sheets
Option 4:
Decolourization of blue CuSO4 solution by iron
Correct Answer:
Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe
Solution:
The below reactions shows the oxidation state of iron for all given condition.
Clearly, During the formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe, there is no change in the oxidation state of iron.
Option 1 is correct.
Q. 55 The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is:
Option 1:
Chromatography
Option 2:
Crystallisation
Option 3:
Steam distillation
Option 4:
Sublimation
Correct Answer:
Steam distillation
Solution:
Steam Distillation -
This method is used to separate substances which are steam volatile and are immiscible with water.
- wherein
Steam distillation is the most suitable method of separation of 1: 1 mixture of ortho and para
nitrophenols as there are intramolecular H-bonds in ortho nitrophenol.
Option 1:
Temperature is decreased
Option 2:
Solution concentration is increased
Option 3:
Number of solute molecules is increased
Option 4:
Volume is increased
Correct Answer:
Number of solute molecules is increased
Solution:
As we learned
Osmotic Pressure -
As soon as the solute molecules increases the osmotic pressure of solution increase.
Q. 57 The half life of a first order reaction varies with temperature according to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt for a first order reaction,
Now, ln(c) = b and Ea/R = a
So,
Option 1:
K
Option 2:
Ni
Option 3:
Al
Option 4:
Ca
Correct Answer:
K
Solution:
As we have learned
K has highest metallic character among the given elements as it has the highest size among the given
elements thus removing the electron from potassium is easiest.
Option 1:
Optical
Option 2:
Co-ordination
Option 3:
Geometrical
Option 4:
Linkage
Correct Answer:
Linkage
Solution:
As we have learnt,
is an ambidentate ligand and can be attached from both the N site as well as the O site in the form
of and respectively.
Option 1:
CH2=CHCH2CH=CHCH3
Option 2:
CH2=CHCH=CHCH2CH3
Option 3:
CH3CH=C=CHCH2CH3
Option 4:
CH3CH=CH−CH=CHCH3
Correct Answer:
CH3CH=CH−CH=CHCH3
Solution:
Conjugated alkene in which double bonds are more substituted is the major product. When
dibromoalkane is heated with CH3OH/KOH, it undergoes dehydrohalogentation. Two molecules
of HBr are eliminated to form alkadiene.
Maths
Q. 1 Let be the solution of the differential equation
Then is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2
For, let and
Correct Answer:
1.67
Solution:
Put n = 0
Put n = 1
Put n = 2
( same as fo(x))
So at n = 0, 3, 6, ...............96,99;
at n = 1, 4, 7, ...................97,100,103;
and n = 2, 5, 8,............98,101,104 ;
Q. 3 Let a vertical tower AB have its end A on the level ground. Let C be the mid-point of AB and
P be a point on the ground such that AP=2AB. If , then tan β is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
The height or length of an object or the distance between two distant objects can be determined with the
help of trigonometric ratios.
Q. 4 Let p(x) be a quadratic polynomial such that p(0)=1. If p(x) leaves remainder 4 when divided
by (x−1) and it leaves remainder 6 when divided by (x+1); then :
Option 1:
p(2)=11
Option 2:
p(2)=19
Option 3:
p(−2)=19
Option 4:
p(−2)=11
Correct Answer:
p(−2)=19
Solution:
Let
Remainder when p(x) is divided by (x-1) equals p(1) [Using remainder Theorem]. So,
Similarly,
and
Q. 5
if then n satisfies the equation :
Option 1:
n2 + 3n − 108 = 0
Option 2:
n2 + 5n − 84 = 0
Option 3:
n2 + 2n − 80 = 0
Option 4:
n2 + n − 110 = 0
Correct Answer:
n2 + 3n − 108 = 0
Solution:
Q. 6
The term independent of x in expansion of is :
Correct Answer:
210
Solution:
As we have learned
Now,
is equal to :
Correct Answer:
330
Solution:
As we learnt in
and
Now,
f(x) = ax2 + bx + c
a+b+c=3
Then
f(1) = a + b + c =3
f(1) =3
put x = 1, y = 1
=2f(1)+1
=2 3+1=7
put x=1, y = 2
f(3)= f(1)+f(2)+2 1
=3+7+2
=12
Let An2+Bn+C
At n =2: 7 = 4A+2B+C
At n =3: 12 = 9A+3B+C
1= 2A
B+C =
2B+C
=7-2 = 5
C=0
So
put n =10
= 330
2x−4y+3z=2,
then the shortest distance between this line and the line
is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
As we have learned
So,
Where
So distance = 0
Q. 9 The value of k for which the function
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Put
So that,
Q. 10 An unbiased coin is tossed eight times. The probability of obtaining at least one head and at
least one tail is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number of throws = 8
Let 'getting at least one head' be represented by A, and 'getting at least one tail' be represented by B
= P (A ∩ B)
= 1 - P ((A ∩ B)')
Now A' means getting no Head (all tails) and B' means getting no Tails (all heads)
Q. 11 For two 3 × 3 matrices A and B, let A + B = 2B' and 3A + 2B = I3, where B' is the transpose of B
and I3 is 3 × 3 identity matrix. Then :
Option 1:
5A + 10B = 2I3
Option 2:
10A + 5B = 3I3
Option 3:
B + 2A = I3
Option 4:
3A + 6B = 2I3
Correct Answer:
10A + 5B = 3I3
Solution:
Given A + B = 2B' .............(1)
Now from these 4 equations we need to get a relation in A and B by eliminating A' and B'
And 2 x (2):
2A' + 2B' = 4B
2A' + A + B = 4B
2A' + A - 3B = 0 .....(6)
Q. 12 if and
then is equal to :
Correct Answer:
-24
Solution:
As we learnt in
Differential Equations -
An equation involving independent variable (x), dependent variable (y) and derivative of
dependent variable with respect to independent variable
- wherein
eg:
......................(i)
from (i)
Q. 13 A square, of each side 2, lies above the x-axis and has one vertex at the origin. If one of the
sides passing through the origin makes an angle 300 with the positive direction of the x-axis,
then the sum of the x-coordinates of the vertices of the square
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Parametric form -
- wherein
Where is the inclination of the line and is the distance between and
x-coordinates of A is
Hence x - coordinate of B is
Hence Sum=
Q. 14
If and then the ordered
pair (A, B) is equal to : (where C is a constant of integration)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Let
Find ...
By comparing and
Q. 15 Let ABC be a triangle whose circumcentre is at P. If the position vectors of A, B, C
and P are
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Circumcentre of triangle -
- wherein
Euler line -
In any non equilateral triangle the circumcentre (O), the centriod (G) and the orthocentre (H) are collinear and G
divides OH in ratio 1:2
- wherein
Let orthocentre = H
So, PG:GH=1:2
So,
So,
Q. 16
If and then S:
Option 1:
is an empty set
Option 2:
contains exactly one element
Option 3:
contains exactly two elements
Option 4:
contains more than two elements
Correct Answer:
contains exactly two elements
Solution:
(i)
(ii)
Multiplying (i) by 2
and
Correct option is 3.
Q. 17 The number of for which
is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
As we know that
Now,
he number of is 4.
Q. 18 Let , the set of complex numbers. Then the equation,
represents :
Option 1:
a circle
Option 2:
an ellipse
Option 3:
a straight line
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
a circle
Solution:
Method 1
Putting z = x + iy
Method 2
Q. 19 If all the words (with or without meaning) having five letters, formed using the letters of the
word SMALL are arranged as in a dictionary; then the position of the word SMALL is :
Option 1:
46th
Option 2:
59th
Option 3:
52nd
Option 4:
58th
Correct Answer:
58th
Solution:
Alphabetical order A, L, L, M, S
Q. 20
The sum of the rational terms in the binomial expansion of is
Option 1:
25
Option 2:
32
Option 3:
9
Option 4:
41
Correct Answer:
41
Solution:
There are only two rational terms - first term and last term.
Option 1:
270
Option 2:
258
Option 3:
342
Option 4:
216
Correct Answer:
216
Solution:
As we have learned
Now,
This is the AM between these 12 numbers
Now, as
But given
Q. 22 The distance of the point (1, 3, −7) from the plane passing through the point (1, −1, −1),
having normal perpendicular
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
is given by
5-7-3=C=-5
So plane is 5x+7y+3y+5=0
is:
Option 1:
increasing in R.
Option 2:
decreasing in R.
Option 3:
decreasing in (0, ∞) and increasing in (−∞, 0).
Option 4:
increasing in (0, ∞) and decreasing in (−∞, 0).
Correct Answer:
increasing in R.
Solution:
3. If f”(a) = a
If f’’’(a) ≠ 0, then f(x) has neither maximum nor minimum (inflection point) at x = a.
If f iv(a) < 0, then f(x) is maximum at x = a and if f iv(a) > 0 then f(x) is minimum at x = a and so on.
SUMMARY
-
So,
for
Correct option is 1.
Q. 24 From a group of 10 men and 5 women, four member committees are to be formed each of
which must contain at least one woman. Then the probability for these committees to have
more women than men is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let A be the event that at least one woman is selected in the committee
Let B be the event that there are more women than men in the committee
P (B) =
So,
(Note that here B is a subset of A, so their intersection equals B itself)
such that the point (a, b, c) lies on the plane then equals :
Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and
and given
solve for a,b, and c
so that
Q. 26 If
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
put
- wherein
Now put
Q. 27 A line drawn through the point P(4, 7) cuts the circle x2+y2=9 at the points A and B. Then
PA⋅PB is equal to :
Option 1:
53
Option 2:
56
Option 3:
74
Option 4:
65
Correct Answer:
56
Solution:
As we learnt
Length of a tangent -
- wherein
Since we know,
Q. 28
,then k is equal to:
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Integration by substitution -
The functions when on substitution of the variable of integration to some quantity gives any one of
standard formulas.
- wherein
put t = x-1
Q. 29 Let be two unit vectors such that if then
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
If and are two vectors and is the angle between them , then
- wherein
and
- wherein
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
COMPOSITION OF FUNCTIONS -
Correct option is 2.
Q. 31 Let
be
two sets. Then :
Option 1:
P ⊂ Q and Q−P ≠ φ
Option 2:
Q⊄P
Option 3:
P⊄Q
Option 4:
P=Q
Correct Answer:
P=Q
Solution:
Let P
Let Q
Correct Answer: -4
Solution:
As we have learned
is satisfied by
- wherein
We have ,.
Sum = -4
Q. 33 The number of ways of selecting 15 teams from 15 men and 15 women, such that each team
consists of a man and a woman, is
Option 1:
1120
Option 2:
15!
Option 3:
1880
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
15!
Solution:
Let us fix men (M1, M2, ......,M15), and pair them with women
......
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 35 Let a1, a2, a3, ......, an, ..... be in A.P. If a3 + a7 + a11 + a15 = 72, then the sum of its first 17
terms is equal to :
Option 1:
306
Option 2:
153
Option 3:
612
Option 4:
204
Correct Answer:
306
Solution:
Given that
a3 + a7 + a11 + a15 = 72
Q. 36 If the image of the point P(1, −2, 3) in the plane, 2x+3y−4z+22=0 measured
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
plane
intersect at P
Distance formula -
- wherein
= -
PQ=2PM
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is given a polynomial function
becomes degree
becomes degree
Assume
we get
and
Now Comparing coefficient of
c=0
Similarly d=0
Hence
and
Option 2 is correct
Q. 38 Let E and F be two independent events. The probability that both E and F happen
is and the probability that neither E nor F happens is , then a value of P(E) + P(F) is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let P(E) = x and P(F) = y
= P( E' ∩ F')
= P(E').P(F')
= (1 - P(E)).(1 - P(F))
= (1 - x)(1 - y)
So (1 - x)(1 - y) = 1/2
Q. 39
If then adj is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we leant in
Multiplication of matrices -
- wherein
adj A= Transpose of cofactors
so that
Q. 40 The order and the degree of the differential equation of all ellipses with centre at the origin,
major axis along x-axis and
eccentricity \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} are, respectively :
Option 1:
2, 2
Option 2:
1, 1
Option 3:
2, 1
Option 4:
1, 2
Correct Answer:
1, 1
Solution:
As we learned in
The order of a differential equation is the order of highest order occurring in a differential equation
- wherein
order of
is 2.
Q. 41 The eccentricity of an ellipse having centre at the origin, axes along the co-ordinate axes and
passing through the points (4, −1) and (−2, 2) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Eccentricity -
- wherein
and
Q. 42
Let
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence, and b = 0
Q. 43 In a certain town, 25% of the families own a phone and 15% own a car ; 65% families own
neither a phone nor a car and 2,000 families own both a car and a phone. Consider the
following three statements :
Then,
Option 1:
Only (a) and (b) are correct.
Option 2:
Only (a) and (c) are correct.
Option 3:
Only (b) and (c) are correct
Option 4:
All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
Correct Answer:
All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
Solution:
Let P denote families owning a phone, C denote families owning a car
100 - n(P ∪ C) = 65
35 = 25 + 15 - n(P ∩ C)
n(P ∩ C) = 5%
So, 5% of x = 2,000
5x/100 = 2,000
x = 40,000
So, total 40000 families live in this town (statement (c) is correct)
Q. 44 The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point A, due east of it is 450. The
angle of elevation of the top of the same tower from a point B, due south of A is 300. If the
distance between A and B is m , then the height of the tower (in metres), is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
The height or length of an object or the distance between two distant objects can be determined with the
help of trigonometric ratios.
-
Q. 45
The equation represents a part of a circle having radius
equal to :
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned in
& i2=-1
- wherein
- wherein
Two complex numbers are equal iff real parts as well as imaginary parts are equal.
Take z = x + iy
Im part = - 1
The correct option is 3.
Q. 46 If in a regular polygon the number of diagonals is 54, then the number of sides of this
polygon is :
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
12
Option 3:
9
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
As we have learned
Now,
no. of diagonals =
Q. 47
If the 7th term in the binomial expansion of , , is equal to 729,
then x can be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
e
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
e
Solution:
Given expansion is
Q. 48 If the 2nd, 5th and 9th terms of a non-constant A.P. are in G.P., then the common ratio of this
G.P. is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
A, B, C are in G.P where A, B, C are 2nd, 5th and 9th terms of an A.P
For AP, let first term is a and common difference is d, and for GP first term is G and common ratio be r
then
A = a+d = G
B = a+4d = Gr
C= a+8d = Gr2
Now,
and
Option 2:
[1, 2)
Option 3:
(2, 3]
Option 4:
(3, 4]
Correct Answer:
(2, 3]
Solution:
As we learnt in
and is given by
Where
So shortest distance =
Option 1:
7
Option 2:
8
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Q. 51 The sum of 100 observations and the sum of their squares are 400 and 2475, respectively.
Later on, three observations, 3, 4 and 5, were found to be incorrect. If the incorrect
observations are omitted, then the variance of the remaining observations is :
Option 1:
8.25
Option 2:
8.50
Option 3:
8.00
Option 4:
9.00
Correct Answer:
9.00
Solution:
As we learnt in
ARITHMETIC Mean -
For the values x1, x2, ....xn of the variant x the arithmetic mean is given by
Omitting 3, 4, 5 we get
Variance =
=25-
Q. 52 If S is the set of distinct values of ‘b’ for which the following system of linear equations
x+y+z=1
x+ay+z=1
ax+by+z=0
Option 1:
an infinite set
Option 2:
a finite set containing two or more elements
Option 3:
a singleton
Option 4:
an empty set
Correct Answer:
an empty set
Solution:
As we leant in
When and ,
- wherein
and
are obtained by replacing column 1,2,3 of by column
=a - b - 1 + a + b - a2 = 0
=> 2a - 1 -a2 =0
=> a2- 2a +1 =0
=> (a - 1)2 = 0
=> a = 1
It is independent of b
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given differential equation is
Q. 54 If y = mx + c is the normal at a point (in first quadrant) on the parabola y2 = 8x whose focal
distance is 8 units, then |c| is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here
We know that for ,
Thus 8 = 2 + at2
2t2 = 6
Now
Put value
Comparing with y = mx + c
Q. 55
The integral is equal to :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As learnt in concept
When
- wherein
=2
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
..............(i)
Also here,
Put in (i)
Q. 57 Let A = {x1,x2,x3......,x7} and B = { y1 ,y2 ,y3 } be two sets containing seven and three distinct
elements respectively. Then the total number of functions : A B that are onto, if there
exist exactly three elements x in A such that (x) = y2, is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
&
Correct option is 4.
Q. 58 The number of real values of x lying in [0, 2π) , which satisfy the equation cos x + cos 2x + cos
3x + cos 4x = 0, is
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
General Solution of Trigonometric Ratios
Now,
Thus,
Correct Answer:
11
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Q. 60 The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and
8, without repetition, is :
Option 1:
216
Option 2:
192
Option 3:
120
Option 4:
72
Correct Answer:
192
Solution:
Such numbers can be 4-digit or 5 digit
3 options (6,7,8) for first place as number has to be greater than 6,000
2. Five-digit numbers
5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 120
Total = 192
Physics
Q. 1 A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to
each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices and and R is
the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the
combination is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
or
Q. 2 A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent
screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased,
which of the following statements is correct ?
Option 1:
The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected.
Option 2:
Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons.
Option 3:
The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase.
Option 4:
The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
Correct Answer:
The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
slit width
Q. 3 For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40 D and the least
converging power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D. Using this information, the
distance between the retina and the cornea - eye lens can be estimated be:
Option 1:
1.5 cm
Option 2:
5 cm
Option 3:
2.5 cm
Option 4:
1.67 cm
Correct Answer:
1.67 cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Optical power of a mirror -
- wherein
Given,
and,
We have
Q. 4 A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is
connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R
Option 1:
230
Option 2:
46
Option 3:
26
Option 4:
13
Correct Answer:
26
Solution:
Q. 5 A cell having an emf and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external
resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is
given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
When,
Q. 6 The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
In parallel Grouping -
Power
Option 2:
0.01
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
0.05
Correct Answer:
0.001
Solution:
As we learnt in
Required shunt -
- wherein
The value of shunt required for converting it into ammeter of range 25 ampere is
Q. 8 In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500
and R = 100 the galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value of VB is:
Option 1:
4V
Option 2:
2V
Option 3:
12 V
Option 4:
6V
Correct Answer:
2V
Solution:
Q. 9 In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V.
The resistance of collector is 3 . If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 ,
the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is :
Option 1:
200 and 1000
Option 2:
15 and 200
Option 3:
150 and 15000
Option 4:
20 and 2000
Correct Answer:
150 and 15000
Solution:
As we learnt in
Amplifier -
- wherein
Voltage gain =
Power gain=
Q. 10 In the Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where
the path difference is is K, ( being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point
where the path difference is , will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Intencity of wave 1
Intencity of wave 2
Phase difference
phase difference =
Q. 11 For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength ' ' diffraction is produced by a
single slit whose width 'a' is of the order of the wavelength of the light. If 'D' is the distance of
the screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For the condition of maxima
Q. 12 In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away.
A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for
obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central maxima of single slit pattern ?
Option 1:
0.5 mm
Option 2:
0.02 mm
Option 3:
0.2 mm
Option 4:
0.1 mm
Correct Answer:
0.2 mm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Fringe Width -
- wherein
Distance of
Maxima
Distance of
maxima
We need to obtain 10 maxima of double slit with in central maxima of single slit
or or ----------------------(1)
According to question
Q. 13 A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right angled prism.
The refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue
wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47, respectively.
Option 1:
separate all the three colours from one another
Option 2:
not separate the three colours at all
Option 3:
separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
Option 4:
separate the blue colour part from the red and green colours
Correct Answer:
separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
Solution:
As we learnt in
Critical angle -
- wherein
When angle of incidence of a travelling from a dence medium to rarer medium is greater than critical
angle, no refraction occurs.
For red
For green
For blue
Since refractive index of green and blue is greater than and hence their critical angles are less than
So green and blue will be completely reflected while red will emerge out of prism. Hence red will be
separated from green and blue.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
P -N junction as diode -
It is a one way device. It offers a low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
For forward biased P type should be at higher potential from the figure only 1 is in forward biased mode.
Correct option is 1.
Option 1:
AND gate
Option 2:
OR gate
Option 3:
NOR gate
Option 4:
NOT gate
Correct Answer:
NOR gate
Solution:
As we learnt in
NOR Gate -
NOT + OR Gate
- wherein
Y is out put
= =
Q. 16 A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2:1 The
ratio of their nuclear sizes will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
m1 v1 = m 2 v2
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Bragg's law -
= wavelength
Q. 18 The half-life period of a radio-active element X is same as the mean life time of another
radio-active element Y . Initially they have the same number of atoms. Then
Option 1:
X and Y decay at same rate always
Option 2:
X will decay faster than Y
Option 3:
Y will decay faster than X
Option 4:
X and Y have same decay rate initially
Correct Answer:
X will decay faster than Y
Solution:
So
Wave property of electrons implies that they will show diffraction effects. Davisson and
Germer demonstrated this by diffracting electrons from crystals. The law governing the
diffraction from a crystal is obtained by requiring that electron waves reflected from the
planes of atoms in a crystal interfere constructively (see figure).
Option 2:
2000
Option 3:
100
Option 4:
500
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
As we learnt in
Bragg’s formula -
- wherein
Take n = 1
So
&
Option 1:
20 sec
Option 2:
30 sec
Option 3:
10 sec
Option 4:
50 sec
Correct Answer:
10 sec
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
Adding (1) and (2)
Now
Q. 21
A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a
uniform acceleration of 5m/s2. What would be the reading on the scale. (g=10m/s2)
Correct Answer:
1200
Solution:
Solution :
Reading of weighing scale = m(g+a) = 80(10 + 5) = 1200 N
Q. 22 Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.
(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body
is zero.
(c) A couple on a body produce both translational and rotational motion in a body.
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a
large load.
Option 1:
(b) and (d)
Option 2:
(a) and (b)
Option 3:
(b) and (c)
Option 4:
(c) and (d)
Correct Answer:
(b) and (d)
Solution:
As we learnt in concept
Centre of gravity -
Centre of gravity of a body is a point, through which the resultant of all the forces experienced by various
particles of the body due to attraction of earth, passes irrespective of the orientation of the body.
1) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of body is wrong
2) M.A=load / effort
Q. 23 Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through
centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities 1 and 2. They are
brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of
energy during this process is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resolving power
- wherein
i.e.
Q. 24 A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the
angluar acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
25
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Torque -
- wherein
and,
- wherein
Q. 25 The density of material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100g, the value of density of material will be
Option 1:
0.4
Option 2:
40
Option 3:
400
Option 4:
0.04
Correct Answer:
40
Solution:
As we learnt in
Option 1:
Young's modulus and energy
Option 2:
Impulse and surface tension
Option 3:
angular momentum and work
Option 4:
work and torque
Correct Answer:
work and torque
Solution:
As we learnt in
Dimension -
The power to which fundamental quantities must be raised in order to express the given physical
quantities.
Option 1:
3.5
Option 2:
5.9
Option 3:
16.3
Option 4:
110.8
Correct Answer:
3.5
Solution:
As we learnt in
Horizontal Range -
Horizontal distance travelled by projectile from the point of projectile to the point on ground where its hits.
- wherein
(P plant, e earth)
Correct option is 1.
Q. 28 From a sphere of mass M and radius R, a smaller sphere of radius is carved out such that
the cavity made in the original sphere is between its centre and the periphery. (See figure).
For the configuration in the figure where the distance between the centre of the original
sphere and the removed sphere is 3R, the gravitational force between the two spheres is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
Force
Gravitalional constant
Masses
- wherein
Vremoved =
Vremain =
Therefore the mass of removed sphere and remaining sphere are at respectively and
Q. 29 A vehicle travels half the distance with speed v and the remaining with speed 2v. Its average
speed is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 30 An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the P -
V diagram:
If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and U1,
U2, U3 indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then:
Option 1:
Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 = U2 = U3
Option 2:
Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and U1 > U2 > U3
Option 3:
Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 > U2 > U3
Option 4:
Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3
Correct Answer:
Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Since
Correct option is 4.
Q. 31 During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of
its temperature. The ratio of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of state -
- wherein
On solving
In the given question
or = constant ......(1)
.....(2)
Q. 32 What is the depth at which the value of acceleration due to gravity become 1/n times the
value that at the surface of earth ? (radius of earth =R)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 33 Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at a distance R. The gravitational potential on the
line joining the bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be (G = gravitational
constant) :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let point P is the point where the gravitational field equals zero
Q. 34 If W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along three
different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown) in the gravitational field of a point mass m,
find the correct relation
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
1. Conservative field-
In the conservative field, work done by the force depends only upon the initial and final position.
In the conservative field, work done by the force does not depend on the path.
In the conservative field, work done by the force along a closed path is zero.
2. Conservative force-
So,
As gravitational field is conservative in nature. So work done in moving a particle from A to B does not
depends upon the path followed by the body. It always remains the same.
Q. 35 A 10 kg satellite completes one revolution around the earth at a height of 100 km in 108
minutes. The work done by the gravitational force of earth will be
Option 1:
108 x 100 x 10 J
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
Zero
Solution:
3. Zero work
Means
E.g-When a body moves in a circle the work done by the centripetal force is always zero.
E.g- When a person tries to displace a wall by applying a force and can't able to move the
wall
So,
Q. 36 A boy's catapult is made of rubber cord which is long, with diameter of cross-
section and of negligible mass. The boy keeps a stone weighing on it and stretches
the cord by by applying a constant force. When released, the stone flies off with a
velocity of . Neglect the change in the area of cross-section of the cord while
stretched. The young's modulus (Nm-2) of rubber is closest to :
Option 1:
100000000
Option 2:
1000
Option 3:
1000000
Option 4:
10000
Correct Answer:
1000000
Solution:
For string
for stone
Option 1:
7.5 JK-1 mol-1
Option 2:
7.0 JK-1 mol-1
Option 3:
8.5 JK-1 mol-1
Option 4:
8.0 JK-1 mol-1
Correct Answer:
8.0 JK-1 mol-1
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
given M = 4gm
Velocity of sound
Q. 38 A small spherical droplet of density d is floating exactly half immersed in a liquid of density p
and surface tension T. The radius of the droplet is (take note that the surface tension applies
an upward force on the droplet) :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 39 Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature, the
pressure of A being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be 1.5
times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ideal gas equation PV=nRT
OR
where
Given
Q. 40 The electric field near a conducting surface having a uniform surface charge density is
given by
Option 1:
Option 2:
and is parallel to the surface
Option 3:
and is normal to the surface
Option 4:
and is normal to the surface
Correct Answer:
and is normal to the surface
Solution:
As we learned
- wherein
Electric field near the conductor surface is given by and it is perpendicular to surface.
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
Be doubled
Option 2:
Increase four times
Option 3:
Be reduced to half
Option 4:
Remain the same
Correct Answer:
Remain the same
Solution:
As we learnt in
Gauss's Law -
Formula:
Qenc - charge enclosed by closed surface.
Q. 43 An electron, moving along the x-axis with an initial energy of 100 eV, enters a region of the
magnetic field at S(See figure). The field extends between x=0 and
x=2 cm. The electron is detected at the point Q on a screen placed 8cm away from point S.
The distance d between P and Q (on the screen) is: (in cms)
Correct Answer:
12.87
Solution:
m=mass of particle
P=momentum of particle
here
Similarly
so
Q. 44 The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 45 An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper
carrying same current 'I' along the same direction is shown in Fig. Magnitude of force per
unit length on the middle wire ' B' is given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Option 1:
Option 2:
2.0 A
Option 3:
4.0 A
Option 4:
8.0 A
Correct Answer:
4.0 A
Solution:
Q. 47 A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1cm and width 1.25cm carries a current of 85 and
subjected to magnetic field of strength 0.85T. Work done for rotating the coil by against
the torque is
Option 1:
4.55
Option 2:
2.3
Option 3:
1.15
Option 4:
9.1
Correct Answer:
9.1
Solution:
As we learnt in
, ,
Q. 48 The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf
with time would be
Option 1:
a
Option 2:
b
Option 3:
c
Option 4:
d
Correct Answer:
a
Solution:
induced emf
During 0 to = constant
So, e =-ve
For to , =0
i.e., e=0
For to , = constant
i.e., e =+ve
Q. 49 Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5eV respectively
illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of maximum
speeds of emitted electrons will be
Option 1:
1:4
Option 2:
1:2
Option 3:
1:1
Option 4:
1:5
Correct Answer:
1:2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Conservation of energy -
- wherein
Q. 50 In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron
gun can be increased by
Option 1:
increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Option 2:
increasing the filament current
Option 3:
decreasing the filament current
Option 4:
decreasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Correct Answer:
increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Electron is accelerated by applying potential difference between anode & cathode hence velocity of
electron emitted from the electron gun can be increased by increasing potential difference between the
anode and the filament.
Q. 51 In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of
most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is
Option 1:
1.8 V
Option 2:
1.2 V
Option 3:
0.5 V
Option 4:
2.3 V
Correct Answer:
0.5 V
Solution:
As we learnt in
It is defined as the potential necessary to stop any electron from reaching the other side.
Q. 52 The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 . Base current is changed by which
results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter
amplifier with a load resistance of . The voltage gain of the amplifier is:
Option 1:
3000
Option 2:
4000
Option 3:
1000
Option 4:
2000
Correct Answer:
2000
Solution:
As we learnt in
Transistor -
NPN or PNP
- wherein
Voltage gain
Option 1:
100
Option 2:
150
Option 3:
50
Option 4:
75
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Current gain =
Q. 54 Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:
Option 1:
0A
Option 2:
10-2 A
Option 3:
10-1 A
Option 4:
10-3 A
Correct Answer:
10-2 A
Solution:
P -N junction as diode -
It is a one way device. It offers a low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
The potential difference =10V
since diode is ideal and it is in forward biased mode it will not offer resistance
Q. 55 In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3 the electric potential is found to be 5V
throughtout. The magnitufde of electric field in this region is:
Option 1:
zero
Option 2:
0.5 N/C
Option 3:
1 N/C
Option 4:
5 N/C
Correct Answer:
zero
Solution:
Q. 56 Two cells are connected between points A and B as shown. Cell 1 has emf of and
internal resistance of . Cell 2 has emf of and internal resistance of An external
resistor R of is connected across and . The current flowing through will be
___________ A.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 57 A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic
field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic
field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be
Option 1:
nB
Option 2:
n2B
Option 3:
2nB
Option 4:
2n2B
Correct Answer:
n2B
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Option 1:
10 mA
Option 2:
100mA
Option 3:
200mA
Option 4:
20mA
Correct Answer:
20mA
Solution:
As we learnt in
R.M.S. Value=
average value=
- wherein
Q. 59 The ratio of densities of nitrogen and oxygen is 14:16. The temperature at which the speed
of sound in nitrogen will be same at that in oxygen at is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Q. 60
Intensity level of a sound of intensity I is 30 dB. The ratio is (where I0 is the threshold for
hearing)
Correct Answer:
1000
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
and how much?
Option 1:
Mg, 0.16 g
Option 2:
O2 , 0.16 g
Option 3:
Mg, 0.44 g
Option 4:
O2, 0.28 g
Correct Answer:
Mg, 0.16 g
Solution:
The reaction is as follows:
moles of
moles of
= 0.00667 X 24
= 0.16 g
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The order of stability of carbocation is -
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cations lose electrons and are smaller in size than the parent atom, whereas anions add electrons and
are larger in size than the parent atom. Hence the order is
For isoelectronic species, the ionic radii decrease with an increase in atomic number, i.e., nuclear charge.
Hence the correct orders are as given below:
Q. 4 Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
Option 1:
CO, NO
Option 2:
O2, NO+
Option 3:
CN-, CO
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
CN-, CO
Solution:
Bond Order -
Bond order is defined as one half the difference between the number of electrons present in the bonding
and the antibonding orbitals.
- wherein
Bond order
O2 : N b = 10, N a = 6, Bond order = 2
Q. 5 The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are −393.5 and −283.5 kJ mol−1,
respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is:
Correct Answer:
-110
Solution:
Option 1:
+ 3, + 6 and + 5
Option 2:
+ 5, + 3 and + 6
Option 3:
- 3, + 6 and + 6
Option 4:
+ 5, + 6 and + 6
Correct Answer:
+ 5, + 6 and + 6
Solution:
Option 1:
910K
Option 2:
1110K
Option 3:
510K
Option 4:
710K
Correct Answer:
1110K
Solution:
Gibb's free energy -
Now,
given
Option 1:
Ga < Ge
Option 2:
P>S
Option 3:
Si < Al
Option 4:
Te > Se
Correct Answer:
Ga < Ge
Solution:
Electronegativity -
A qualitative measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract shared electron is
electronegativity.
- wherein
- wherein
Correct order
Therefore, Option(1) is correct
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
then,
then,
then,
Q. 10 Which of the following forces stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins i.e. further folding of
the secondary structure?
Option 1:
disulphide linkages
Option 2:
hydrogen bond
Option 3:
electrostatic forces of attraction
Option 4:
all of these
Correct Answer:
all of these
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Tertiary proteins are obtained when polypeptides undergo further folding and coiling of secondary
protein
Structure is stabilized by :
1. Ionic bond
2. Disulphide bond
3. bond
4. Vander waals forces
5. Electrostatic forces
Q. 11
Option 1:
Ligases
Option 2:
Hydrolases
Option 3:
Lyases
Option 4:
Oxidareductases
Correct Answer:
Ligases
Solution:
As we have learned
Ligase -
Enzymes are responsible for linking together of two molecules into one at the expense of energy.
- wherein
Eg. Synthetase
Ligases remove the elements of water from two fundamental groups to form a single bond.
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Ascorbic acid
d ) Pyridoxine
e) Vitamin D
Option 1:
c,d
Option 2:
a,b,e
Option 3:
b,c
Option 4:
c,e
Correct Answer:
b,c
Solution:
As we have learned
Water-soluble vitamins -
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt ,
- wherein
is :
Option 1:
(2R, 3S)
Option 2:
(2S, 3R)
Option 3:
(2S, 3S)
Option 4:
(2R, 3R)
Correct Answer:
(2S, 3R)
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Chiral Carbon -
- wherein
For C2
This rotation suggests R but the least prior group is at horizontal position so the configuration is R.
For C3
This rotation suggests S but the least prior group is at horizontal position so the configuration is S.
Option 1:
acetone
Option 2:
acetamide
Option 3:
2-methyl-2-propanol
Option 4:
acetyl iodide.
Correct Answer:
2-methyl-2-propanol
Solution:
As we learnt in
Alkane is obtained.
- wherein
Option 1:
+3
Option 2:
+6
Option 3:
+5
Option 4:
+2
Correct Answer:
+3
Solution:
Applying charge balance on the cationic complex gives us
Option 1:
Same as primary valency
Option 2:
Sum of primary and secondary valencies
Option 3:
Same as secondary valency
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Same as secondary valency
Solution:
According to Werner's theory, primary valency of complex compound is its oxidation number while
secondary valency is the co-ordination number.
Hence, the co-ordination number of any metal is the same as its secondary valency
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is hybridised and thus has a square planar structure
Q. 19 The heat of atomization of methane and ethane are 360 kJ/mol and 620 kJ/mol, respectively.
The longest wavelength of light capable of breaking the C - C bond is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The heat of the atomization of methane is 360 kJ/mol.
This corresponds to the breaking of four C−H bonds.
This corresponds to the breaking of one C−C bond and six C−H bonds.
The heat corresponding to the breaking of on C-C bond will be 620−6(90)=80 kJ/mol
This corresponds to 1 mole. For one single bond, the required energy that can be obtained by dividing
with Avogadro's number is given by
The energy is related to wavelength by relation
Option 1:
The molar solubilities of in water are indetical.
Option 2:
The molar solubility of in water is less than that of .
Option 3:
The salts and are more soluble in than in pure water.
Option 4:
The addition of the salt of to solution of will have no effect on their solubilities.
Correct Answer:
The molar solubility of in water is less than that of .
Solution:
Also
Clearly s' > s
Q. 21 The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is:
Option 1:
HNO3, NH4CI, NO, N2
Option 2:
HNO3, NO, NH4C1, N2
Option 3:
HNO3, NO, N2, NH4C1
Option 4:
NH4C1, N2, NO, HNO3
Correct Answer:
HNO3, NO, N2, NH4C1
Solution:
The oxidation state of N in the given compounds is -
Option 2:
5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
Option 3:
3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
Option 4:
3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Correct Answer:
3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Solution:
The IUPAC name of the compound will be "3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal"
Option 1:
faster
Option 2:
slower
Option 3:
unchanged
Option 4:
doubled
Correct Answer:
slower
Solution:
Effect of concentration change on the equilibrium - When the concentration of any of the reactants or
products in a reaction at equilibrium is changed, the equilibrium mixture's composition changes to
minimize the effect of concentration change. If we add reactant, the equilibrium shift towards the right.
If a large amount of is added to this mixture more HSO4- ion furnishes and hence the
concentrate of electrophile decreases, rate of electrophile aromatic reaction slows down.
Option 1:
The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl2 > KCl >
CH3COOH > sucrose.
Option 2:
The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation where M is the molarity
of the solution.
Option 3:
Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its
mole fraction.
Option 4:
Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing
point depression.
Correct Answer:
Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing
point depression.
Solution:
As we have learnt
Freezing -
Freezing occurs when liquid solvent is in equilibrium with solid solvent. As non volatile solute decreases, the vapour
pressure freezing point decreases.
The extent of depression in freezing point varies with the number of solute particles for a fixed solvent
only and it is a characteristics feature of the nature of solvent also. So for two different solvents the
extent of depression may vary even if number of solute particles be dissolved.
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reaction:
Given,
Question [B]=?
Correct Option is 4.
Q. 26 The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series of the element by and large
means?
Option 1:
Increase in both atomic and ionic radii.
Option 2:
Decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii.
Option 3:
Decrease in both atomic and ionic radii.
Option 4:
Increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii.
Correct Answer:
Decrease in both atomic and ionic radii.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
As a result of the Lanthanoid contraction, both the atomic radii and ionic radii decrease gradually in the
lanthanoid series.
Therefore,option(3) is correct
Option 1:
It states there should be maximum overlapping of atomic orbitals
Option 2:
Greater is overlapping, higher is the strength of chemical bond.
Option 3:
It explains magnetic properties
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
It explains magnetic properties
Solution:
Valence bond theory does not explain the magnetic properties of the molecules.
Q. 28 Electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of fluorine is less than that of chlorine due to :
Option 1:
High ionization enthalpy of fluorine
Option 2:
Smaller size of chlorine atom
Option 3:
Smaller size of fluorine atom
Option 4:
Bigger size of 2p orbital of fluorine
Correct Answer:
Smaller size of fluorine atom
Solution:
The negative electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less than that of chlorine. It is due to the small size of
the fluorine atom. As a result, there are strong interelectronic repulsions in the relatively small 2p orbitals
of fluorine and thus, the incoming electron does not experience much attraction.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Dehydration of alcohols -
Ease of dehydration
- wherein
The more stable carbocation generated, more easily it will dehydrated. The order of stability of
carbocations
Correct option is 3.
Option 1:
alkenes
Option 2:
alkyl copper halides
Option 3:
alkanes
Option 4:
alkenyl halides
Correct Answer:
alkanes
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
(alkane)
Option 1:
a mixture of anisole and
Option 2:
a mixture of benzene and
Option 3:
a mixture of toluene and
Option 4:
a mixture of phenol and
Correct Answer:
a mixture of benzene and
Solution:
As learnt in
Zerewitinoff Method -
- wherein
- wherein
Option 1:
0.177
Option 2:
1.770
Option 3:
0.0354
Option 4:
0.0177
Correct Answer:
0.0177
Solution:
As we learnt in
Given,
Q. 33 If the shortest wavelength in Lyman series of hydrogen atom is A, then the longest
wavelength in Paschen series of He+ is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
we know that,
Q. 34 Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
Option 1:
H+
Option 2:
Li+
Option 3:
Na+
Option 4:
Mg2+
Correct Answer:
Li+
Solution:
Isoelectronic species are those which have an equal number of electrons present in them.
Option 1:
It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral
Option 2:
It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
Option 3:
It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
Option 4:
It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
Correct Answer:
It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
Solution:
Shape of molecules -
-
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Given that
Option 1:
0.0060%
Option 2:
0.013%
Option 3:
0.77%
Option 4:
1.6%
Correct Answer:
0.013%
Solution:
the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are
Option 1:
2 16 5
Option 2:
2 5 16
Option 3:
16 5 2
Option 4:
5 16 2
Correct Answer:
2 5 16
Solution:
Balancing of Redox Reactions -
3. Calculate the increase/decrease in oxidation number per atom and for the entire molecule/ion in which
it occurs.
4. Add on appropriate side so that the total ionic charges of reactants and products are
equal.
5. Make the numbers of hydrogen atoms in the expression on the two sides equal by adding to the
reactant or product
Q. 39 The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its
alphacarbon is :
Option 1:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon never equilibrates with its
corresponding enol.
Option 2:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidily equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde - ketone equilibration.
Option 3:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrium with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation.
Option 4:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as keto - enol tautomerism.
Correct Answer:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as keto - enol tautomerism.
Solution:
This is called keto - enol tautomerism.
Q. 40 In the reaction,
X and Y are:
Option 1:
X = 1-Butyne; Y = 3-Hexyne
Option 2:
X = 2-Butyne; Y = 3-Hexyne
Option 3:
X = 2-Butyne; Y = 2-Hexyne
Option 4:
X = 1-Butyne; Y = 2-Hexyne
Correct Answer:
X = 1-Butyne; Y = 3-Hexyne
Solution:
Q. 41 The rise in the boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 gram of glucose in 100 g of a solvent
in 0.10C. The molal elevation constant of the liquid is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
where the time t is in hours. A dose of antibiotic, taken orally, needs 1 hour to reach the
wound.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From t hour =>
at t = 1 hour ,
Now,
After 1 hour the graph will be from 1 hour to t hour and N' from eNo to N.
So, the curve will be a straight line and the slope will be positive.
Option 1:
sp3d2
Option 2:
dsp2
Option 3:
d2sp3
Option 4:
dsp3d
Correct Answer:
d2sp3
Solution:
As we discussed in
Hybridisation -
d2sp3 - octahedral
sp3 - tetradedral
- wherein
sp3 -
dsp2 -
Option 1:
CO
Option 2:
ethylenediamine
Option 3:
NCS-
Option 4:
CN-
Correct Answer:
NCS-
Solution:
As we have learnt in magnetic moment,
Now, has a configuration and presence of 5 unpaired electrons will only be possible for weak
field ligands like
Option 1:
by heating phenol with and
Option 2:
from aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium salt with
Option 3:
by direct fluorination of benzene with gas
Option 4:
by reacting bromobenzene with solution.
Correct Answer:
from aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium salt with
Solution:
As we learnt in
By Sandmeyer's reaction -
In the reaction benzene diazonium chloride is treated with cuprous chloride cuprous bromide.
the compound D is
Option 1:
propanal
Option 2:
butanal
Option 3:
-butyl alcohol
Option 4:
-propyl alcohol.
Correct Answer:
-propyl alcohol.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Reagents used
- wherein
The reaction of Haloalkanes with Mg in the presence of ether - Grignard reagent is obtained
- wherein
Hence, the option number (4) is correct.
Option 1:
c>a>b
Option 2:
b > a> c
Option 3:
a>b>c
Option 4:
a>c>b
Correct Answer:
a>b>c
Solution:
All the given bases are aromatic amines having their lone pairs in conjugation with the Benzene ring.
Among the given bases, " a" is most basic because of methyl at the para position and "c" is least basic
because it shares lone pair with both phenyl rings.
Therefore, the correct order of basic strength of the given aromatic amines follow the order:
The above process in which and form remain in equilibrium with acyclic form and a
change in optical rotation is observed which is called as -
Option 1:
Mutarotation
Option 2:
Epimerisation
Option 3:
Condensation
Option 4:
Inversion
Correct Answer:
Mutarotation
Solution:
When either of the two forms of glucose ( and ) is dissolved in
water , there is spontaneous change in specific rotation till the equilibrium value of
Option 1:
azimuthal quantum number of valence shell
Option 2:
nuclear charge
Option 3:
electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
Option 4:
principal quantum number of valence shell
Correct Answer:
nuclear charge
Solution:
Ionic Radii -
The ionic radius is the distance between the nucleus of an ion and the point where the nucleus exerts its
influence on the electron cloud.
Isoelectronic species -
A series of atom, ions and molecules in which each species contains the same number of electrons but
different nuclear charge.
- wherein
Smaller the value of z/e, larger the size of that species.Smaller z means effective nuclear charge is small
hence size is large.
Q. 50 Which of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most
negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F, O?
Option 1:
Ca < Al < C < O < F
Option 2:
Al < Ca < O < C < F
Option 3:
Al < O < C < Ca < F
Option 4:
C < F < O < Al < Ca
Correct Answer:
Ca < Al < C < O < F
Solution:
As we learnt
Electron gain enthalpy increases along the period as the attraction between incoming electron and the
nucleus increases or Zeff Increases.
Q. 51 Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
Option 1:
The H - C - H bond angle in CH4, the H - N - H bond angle in NH3, and the H - O - H bond angle in H2O
are all greater than 90o.
Option 2:
The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H - C - H bond angle in CH4.
Option 3:
The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H - N - H bond angle in NH3.
Option 4:
The H - C - H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H - N - H bond angle in NH3.
Correct Answer:
The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H - C - H bond angle in CH4.
Solution:
VSEPR Theory -
1. The shape of the molecule is determined by repulsions between all of the electron pair present in
valence shell.
2. Order of repulsion
3 Repulsion among the bond pair is directly proportional to the bond order and electronegativity
difference between the central atom and the other atom.
From the above fugure it is clear that H—O—H bond angle in is smaller than H—C—H bond angles
in .
Correct Answer:
-1366.95
Solution:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
zero
Correct Answer:
Solution:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Option 1:
(a) and (b) only
Option 2:
(a), (b) and (c)
Option 3:
(a), (c) and (d)
Option 4:
(a) and (d) only
Correct Answer:
(a) and (b) only
Solution:
Disproportionation Reactions - A special type of redox reaction in which one oxidation state is
simultaneously oxidized and reduced. One of the reacting substances in a disproportionation reaction
always contains an element that can exist in at least three oxidation states.
+1 -1 +1 -2 0
Option 1
Disproportionation is a type of redox reaction in which a species is simultaneously reduced and oxidized
forming two different products.
(a)
(b)
is as follows :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Acid strength is the measure of the ability of the acid to lose its H+ ion.
sp hybridised carbon atoms are more electronegative than sp2 hybridised carbon atoms, which are in
turn more electronegative than sp3 carbon atoms.
The reason for the difference in electronegativity is that p orbitals are on average further away from the
nucleus than s orbitals, so the more p-orbital contribution you have to the hybrid orbital, the less
electronegative the hybrid orbital. sp orbitals are said to have the greatest "s-character" and sp3 orbitals
the least.
Hence, the acidic nature of these species can be decided on the basis of the greater electronegativity of
alkynes carbons which would stabilise the conjugate base
Correct Answer:
0.5
Solution:
Q. 57 A first order reaction has a rate constant, , calculate the Half life of
reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
In the formation of this complex, the species which acts as the Lewis acid is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
Central atom -
In coordination entity, the atom/ion to which a fixed no of ions/groups are bound in a definite
geometrical arrangement around it.
- wherein
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Now, as Pt belongs to the 5d series, weaker ligands are also able to cause pairing because of greater
splitting due to larger size of the orbiratal.
Electronic configuration of
Electronic configuration of
With a weak field ligand like Chloride ion, it shows hybridisation and tetrahedral geometry.
Electronic configuration of
Q. 60 The element having greatest difference between its first and second ionization energies, is :
Option 1:
Ca
Option 2:
Sc
Option 3:
Ba
Option 4:
K
Correct Answer:
K
Solution:
K is from the first group
Mg and Sr are from the second group and Sc is from the IIIB group
K, after IE1 it will reach Noble gas configuration and its IE2 will be very high,
Maths
Q. 1 Let A and B be two sets containing four and two elements respectively. Then the number of
subsets of the set A x B, each having at least three elements is :
Correct Answer:
219
Solution:
As we learnt in
SUBSETS -
- wherein
{ae},{af},{be},.......{df}
Similarly
{af,be},{af,bf}..........= 6 elements
.
28 + 8+1 = 37
Correct option is 1.
Q. 2 A man is walking towards a vertical pillar in a straight path, at a uniform speed. At a certain
point A on the path, he observes that the angle of elevation of the top of the pillar is 300.
After walking for 10 minutes from A in the same direction, at a point B, he observes that the
angle of elevation of the top of the pillar is 600. Then the time taken (in minutes) by him,
from B to reach the pillar, is :
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learnt in
The height or length of an object or the distance between two distant objects can be determined with the
help of trigonometric ratios.
In ,
In
Now, the person is walking at a uniform speed, hence time taken will be proportional to distance
travelled.
Thus,
where if
then k is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
-1
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have,
Using, Multiplication of Complex Numbers -
(a+ib)(c+id)=(ac-bd)+i(bc+ad)
Here,
So,
Therefore,
Q. 4 The sum of the digits in the unit’s place of all the 4-digit numbers formed by using the
numbers 3, 4, 5 and 6, without repetition, is :
Option 1:
432
Option 2:
108
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
18
Correct Answer:
108
Solution:
No. of 4 digits number formed = 4 !
So sum = 3! (3+4+5+6)
= 6 x 18
= 108
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
r = 10
Correct Answer:
101
Solution:
Q. 7 The distance of the point (1, −2, 4) from the plane passing through the point (1, 2, 2) and
perpendicular to the planes x − y + 2z = 3 and 2x −2y + z + 12=0, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
is given by
So equation of plane is
3+6=C
meets x-axis at A and y-axis at B. If AP : BP=1 : 3 and (1)=1, then the curve also passes
through the point :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt in
Selection formula -
- wherein
A slope of a line -
- wherein
We have,
Now, Slope m=
Also, slope =
So,
Q. 9 A box contains 15 green and 10 yellow balls. If 10 balls are randomly drawn, one-by-one,
with replacement, then the variance of the number of green balls drawn is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number of trials, n = 10
Now, q = 1 - p = 2/5
Variance = npq =
Q. 10
If and
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Transpose of a Matrix -
The matrix obtained from any given matrix , by interchanging its rows and columns.
- wherein
Multiplication of matrices -
-
2015 times
Now , if
so , .
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Linear Differential Equation -
- wherein
Put
Q. 12 The two adjacent sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are 2 and 5 and the angle between them is
600. If the area of the
quadrilateral is then the perimeter of the quadrilateral is :
Option 1:
12.5
Option 2:
13.2
Option 3:
12
Option 4:
13
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
As we have Learnt
Using concept ABDC, Cyclic quadrilateral (opp. angles are supplementary), and concept of properties
of triangle
Area of
Area of
now,
(Using cosine's rule)
and
Also
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Let be two curve then area bounded between the curves and the lines
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
Point of intersection of
Q. 14 Let be three non-zero vectors such that no two of them are collinear and
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
and
- wherein
Thus
Q. 15 If is the set of
natural numbers,then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let us 1st simplify set X
And
For n=1; Y=0
Q. 16 In a
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Also,
Option 1:
2+2i
Option 2:
1+i
Option 3:
−1− i
Option 4:
−2−2 i
Correct Answer:
1+i
Solution:
As we have learned
& i2=-1
- wherein
- wherein
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here, 0+1+2+......+9= 45, which is divisible by 9
Now we have to select 8 digits to form an 8-digit number, which means we have to reject 2 no.s while
keeping the sum divisible by 9
2) If other 4 sets are rejected, we can form numbers in 7 (7!) (0 can't be at first place)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
coeff of
coeff of
and
and
a = 16
b = 272/3
Q. 20 Let the sum of the first three terms of an A.P. be 39 and the sum of its last four terms be
178. If the first term of this A.P. is 10, then the number of terms of the A.P. is :
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
Let the AP is
given
Now
Q. 21 ABC is a triangle in a plane with vertices A(2, 3, 5), B(−1, 3, 2) and C(λ, 5, µ). If the median
through A is equally inclined to the coordinate axes, then the value of (λ3+µ3+5) is :
Option 1:
1130
Option 2:
1348
Option 3:
676
Option 4:
1077
Correct Answer:
1348
Solution:
DRs of median
So,
So,
Q. 22
equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Put
Q. 23 For three events A, B and C, P(Exactly one of A or B occurs) =P(Exactly one of B or C occurs)
=P(Exactly one of C or A occurs) and P(All the three events occur
simultaneously)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
P (exactly one of A or B) =P(exactly B or C)
=P (exactly one of A or C) =
P(C)+P(A)-2P (C A)=
P(A B C)=
P(A B C)=
Q. 24 The number of distinct real roots of the
equation, in the
interval is
Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
As we leant in
When and ,
- wherein
and
C1 C1+C2+C3
Q. 25 If y(x) is the solution of the differential equation
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
-1
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
=8 - 8 - 13 log | 2 | + 13 log 2 = 0
Hence, y(-4) = 0.
Q. 26 Let k be an integer such that the triangle with vertices (k, −3k), (5, k) and (−k, 2) has area 28
sq. units. Then the value of k is
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Area = 28 sq units
or
Q. 27
If
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Integration by substitution -
The functions when on substitution of the variable of integration to some quantity gives any one of
standard formulas.
- wherein
Since all variables must be converted into single variable ,
Q. 28 If equals:
Option 1:
17
Option 2:
7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Thus
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here, we have,
hence, we have
And,
Hence,
Q. 30
if then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now using formula in first two terms,
Q. 31 If the equations x2 + bx − 1 = 0 and x2 + x + b = 0 have a common root different from −1, then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
&
are the 2 equations
Q. 32 8 - digit numbers are formed using the digits 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 4. The number of such
numbers in which the odd digits do not occupy odd places, is :
Option 1:
160
Option 2:
120
Option 3:
60
Option 4:
48
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
Odd nos - 1,1,3
Even nos . - 2,2,2,4,4
1,1,3 can come at any of the 4 even places (2nd, 4th, 6th and 8th)
Correct Answer:
202
Solution:
As we have learned
Now,
Q. 34
The value of is equal to
Option 1:
7785
Option 2:
8155
Option 3:
7775
Option 4:
8100
Correct Answer:
8155
Solution:
Now
So that
So
and
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
For two lines to be coplanar
is then equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
If
then,
Let,
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. x we get:
................ ( 1 )
Now,
................... ( 2 )
From ( 1 ) and ( 2 )
On comparison,
Q. 37 If two different numbers are taken from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, ......, 10}; then the probability that
their sum as well as absolute difference are both multiple of 4, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Let S be the sample space then the probability of occurrence of an event E is denoted by P(E) and it is
defined as
- wherein
Set is
Possible pairs
Probability =
Statement - I :
Option 2:
Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
Option 3:
Both the statements are true.
Option 4:
Both the statements are false.
Correct Answer:
Both the statements are true.
Solution:
Given that
is equal to :
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Put & Q = 2y
Its solution is
2+1=x
x=3
Q. 40 The radius of a circle, having minimum area, which touches the curve y=4−x2
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
and concept
- wherein
This figure shows the circle with least area satisfying the conditions.
On rationalising,
Q. 41
If
is equal to :
Option 1:
log4
Option 2:
Option 3:
log2
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
log2
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Integration By PARTS -
- wherein
Option 1:
Option 2:
12
Option 3:
24
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Collinear Vectors -
Two vectors are said to be collinear if and only if there exists a scalar m such as that
- wherein
m is a Scalar.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt in
Q. 44
If is the arithmetic mean of
and , then
is equal to :
Correct Answer:
1.4
Solution:
As we learnt in
Therefore,
Thus,
Q. 45
If x is a solution of the equation ,
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 46 Let be the number of all possible triangles formed by joining vertices of an n-sided
regular polygon. If then the value of n is
Option 1:
8
Option 2:
7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we have learnt,
If there are n points in the plane and out of which no three are collinear then, total no. of triangles that
can be formed using these n points = nC3
Now,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Now,
So sum =
Now coefficient of
Q. 48 The sum of the 3rd and the 4th terms of a G.P. is 60 and the product of its first three terms is
1000. If the first term of this G.P. is positive, then its 7th term is :
Correct Answer:
320
Solution:
As we learnt in
General term of a GP -
where
first term
common ratio
Also
put in
Q. 49 The distance of the point (1, −5, 9) from the plane x − y + z = 5 measured along the
line x = y = z is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Distance formula -
- wherein
= -
Cartesian eqution of a line -
The equation of a line passing through two points and parallel to vector having direction ratios as
is given by
- wherein
Q. 50 The normal to the curve y(x−2)(x−3)=x+6 at the point where the curve intersects the y-axis
passes through the point :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of Normal -
Equation of normal to the curve y = f(x) at the point P(x1, y1) on the curve having a slope MN is
-
equation of normal
Correct option is 1.
Q. 51 Two numbers are selected at random (without replacement) from the first six positive
integers. If X denotes the smaller of the two numbers, then the expectation of X is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
X: 0 1 2 3 .......... r
such that
-
The two positive integers can be selected from the first six positive integers without replacement in 6 X 5
= 30 ways.
X represents the larger of the two numbers obtained. Therefore, X can take the value of 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6.
Q. 52
if ,then the determinant of the matrix (A2016−2A2015−A2014) is :
Option 1:
2014
Option 2:
−175
Option 3:
2016
Option 4:
−25
Correct Answer:
−25
Solution:
Option 1:
e
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
2e
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
I.F.
Put x=1
0=c-2 = c=2
at x=e
Q. 54 The eccentricity of an ellipse whose centre is at the origin is . If one of its directrices is x = −
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have
Directrix: x = - 4
So a = 2
Now,
Q. 55 The area (in sq. units) of the region described by A = {(x, y)|y ≥ x2 − 5x + 4, x + y ≥ 1, y ≤ 0} is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Let be two curve then area bounded between the curves and the lines
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
Point of intersection of
x=3, y= -2
Req Area
Q. 56 If are three unit vectors in three-dimensional space, then the minimum value of
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Unit vector -
A vector of unit magnitude in direction of a vector is called unit vector along .
- wherein
It is denoted by .
- wherein
Dot product is commutative for , where is the angle between the vectors
Minimum value 3
Q. 57 Let P be the relation defined on the set of all real numbers such that
.Then P is
Option 1:
reflexive and symmetric but not Transitive.
Option 2:
reflexive and transitive but not symmetric.
Option 3:
symmetric and Transitive but not reflexive.
Option 4:
an equivalence relation.
Correct Answer:
an equivalence relation.
Solution:
Hence P is Reflexive
Using Equation 1
Hence P is symmetric
Adding Eq 1 and 2
Hence, P is Transitive
So P is an equivalence relation
Q. 58 Let 10 vertical poles standing at equal distances on a straight line, subtend the same angle of
elevation at a point O on this line and all the poles are on the same side of O. If the height
of the longest pole is ‘h’ and the distance of the foot of the smallest pole from O is ‘a’, then
the distance between two consecutive poles is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For all poles to subtend the same angle, the longest pole must be farthest, smallest pole must be nearest,
while all other poles are arranged in ascending order of height. Let distance between 2 cosecutive poles
be x. Then,
In,
..............( 1 )
Q. 59 Let z=1 + ai be a complex number, a > 0, such that z3 is a real number. Then the sum
1+z+z2+.....+z11 is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
z = 1 + ai, a>0
Now,
Q. 60 From 6 different novels and 3 different dictionaries, 4 novels and 2 dictionary are to be
selected and arranged in a row on a shelf so that the dictionaries are always in the middle.
The number of such arrangements is :
Option 1:
at least 750 but less than 1000
Option 2:
at least 1000 but less than 2000
Option 3:
at least 2000
Option 4:
at least 500 but less than 750
Correct Answer:
at least 2000
Solution:
6 Different novels, 3 different dictionaries.
Physics
Q. 1 Which of the following is true about an object in light rays.
Option 1:
there are two types of objets real object and vitrul object
Option 2:
it may be point object or an extended pbject
Option 3:
both (A) ,and (B)23705
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
both (A) ,and (B)23705
Solution:
as we lern
Object -
A source of light rays that are incident on an optical element. It may be a point object or an extended
object .They are of two kind real object & virtual object.
- wherein
There are two types of objects, rel object and virtual object
Q. 2 if keeping the incedence ray fixed ,the mirrior rotates by an angle the reflected light will
deviate from its original path by an angle
Option 1:
o
Option 2:
00
Option 3:
2 0
Option 4:
4 0
Correct Answer:
2 0
Solution:
as we learn
Rotation of Mirror -
Keeping the incidence ray fixed, When mirror is rotated by an angle , the reflected ray is rotated by an
angle .
- wherein
Q. 3
Focal length of a convex lens water is 40cm. Find its focal length in air. Given that
and
Option 1:
80 cm
Option 2:
5 cm
Option 3:
10 cm
Option 4:
40 cm
Correct Answer:
10 cm
Solution:
As we learn
Lensmaker's Formula -
- wherein
Q. 4 If voltage across a bulb rated 220 volt - 100 watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the
percentage of the rated value by which the power would decrease is:
Option 1:
20%
Option 2:
2.5%
Option 3:
5%
Option 4:
10%
Correct Answer:
5%
Solution:
Q. 5 A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 . Find the points A and B as shown in
the figure, at which a current carrying conductor should be connected so that the resistance
R of the sub circuit between these points is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
In series Grouping -
- wherein
Equivalent Resistance
In parallel Grouping -
Upper Portion
Lower Portion
-------------------------(i)
-----------------------------------(ii)
or
Let
=>
Q. 6 A wire of resistance 4 is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched
wire would be:
Option 1:
16
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resistance formula -
- wherein
resistivity of material
Number of free electrons per unit volume.
New resistance
Q. 7 The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of
10 is:
Option 1:
1.0
Option 2:
0.2
Option 3:
0.5
Option 4:
0.8
Correct Answer:
0.5
Solution:
given
Q. 8 Two cities are 150km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through
copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5
. The power loss in the wires is:
Option 1:
19.2W
Option 2:
19.2kW
Option 3:
19.2J
Option 4:
12.2kW
Correct Answer:
19.2kW
Solution:
As we learnt in
Power loss=
Power loss=
Q. 9 The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
X = A.B
Correct Answer:
X = A.B
Solution:
As we learnt in
AND Gate -
- wherein
Y is out put
Q. 10 An astronomical teloscope has an angular magnification 8 for a distant objects. Determine
the focal length of eye piece if the the sepration between objective and eye piece is 36cm:
Option 1:
32 cm
Option 2:
2 cm
Option 3:
30 cm
Option 4:
4 cm
Correct Answer:
4 cm
Solution:
As we learn
- wherein
so
36
Q. 11 An object is placed between two plane morriors inclined at an angle of 600 the number of
image formed are
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
5
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
as we learn
a) If even number
Number of image =
b) If odd number
Number of image =
b) If odd number
Number of image =
-
number of images=
Option 1:
real
Option 2:
virtual
Option 3:
real or virtual depending upon the distance of object from mirror
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
virtual
Solution:
as we learn
Image -
Point of convergence or apparent point of divergence of rays. Image can be real or virtual.
- wherein
The image formed will be virtual
Q. 13 An object of length 9 Cm is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 'F
' at a distance 4F the length of image will be
Option 1:
2 Cm.
Option 2:
3Cm
Option 3:
4Cm
Option 4:
5Cm
Correct Answer:
3Cm
Solution:
as we learn
Longitudinal magnification -
- wherein
u = object distance
v = image distance
Q. 14 In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true:
Option 1:
Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
Option 2:
Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
Option 3:
Electron are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Option 4:
Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Correct Answer:
Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Solution:
The n-type semiconductor can be produced by doping impurity atoms of valence 5 i.e. pentavalent atoms,
i.e., phosphorous.
Q. 15 Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by
the battery is:
Option 1:
0.75 A
Option 2:
zero
Option 3:
0.25 A
Option 4:
0.5 A
Correct Answer:
0.5 A
Solution:
As we learned in
P -N junction as diode -
It is a one way device. It offers a low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
Since D2 is in Reverse biased mode, hence no current will flow through it.
Q. 16 X- rays are -
Option 1:
Stream of neutral particles
Option 2:
Stream of negatively charged particles
Option 3:
Stream of protons
Option 4:
electromagnetic radiations of high frequency
Correct Answer:
electromagnetic radiations of high frequency
Solution:
As we learn
Characteristics x-ray -
- wherein
Characteristics x ray can be defined by knocking out of electron from inner orbit of an atom
Q. 17 Both the nucleus and the atom of some element are in their respective first excited
states. They get de-excited by emitting photons of wavelengths ,
respectively. The ratio is closest to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
10
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The nucleus emits radiation of order of 0.1 (like rays)
ratio
or
(A) Radius of the muonic orbit is 200 times smaller than that of the electron.
(B) The speed of the in the orbit is times that of the electron in the orbit.
(C) The ionization energy of muonic atom is 200 times more than that of an hydrogen atom.
(D) The momentum of the muon in the orbit is 200 times more than that of the electron.
Option 1:
(A), (B), (D)
Option 2:
(A), (C), (D)
Option 3:
(B), (D)
Option 4:
(C), (D)
Correct Answer:
(A), (C), (D)
Solution:
As we learnt
and
- wherein
Option 1:
0.25 A0
Option 2:
0.5 A0
Option 3:
0.75 A0
Option 4:
1.25 A0
Correct Answer:
0.5 A0
Solution:
As we learn
Continuous x-ray -
- wherein
Also called cutoff wavelength . All other wavelength are greater than this.
Q. 20 In case (i) plane is smooth and in case (ii) plane is rough. If the time taken by the block in
case (ii) to come down is 3 times to the time to come down in case (i) then the coefficient of
friction of plane in case (ii) is?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Length covered in both cases is same so for smooth wedge
Now
Solving
Q. 21 Calculate the acceleration of block of the following diagram. Assume all surfaces are
frictionless . Here m1 = 100kg and m2 = 50kg
Option 1:
0.33m/s2
Option 2:
0.66m/s2
Option 3:
1m/s2
Option 4:
1.32m/s2
Correct Answer:
1.32m/s2
Solution:
(i)
(ii)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 23 From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube of maximum possible volume is cut.
Moment of inertia of cube about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to
one of its faces is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
(See Figure). If they roll on the incline without slipping such that their accelerations are the
same, then
The ratio is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Acceleration along inclined plane
For sphere
For cylinder
Q. 25 The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature
and voltage supply are
Option 1:
Instrumental errors
Option 2:
Personal errors
Option 3:
Least count errors
Option 4:
Random errors
Correct Answer:
Random errors
Solution:
Cause is not known so, It is Random error.
Q. 26 If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as the fundamental quantities, the
dimensional formula of surface tension will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
[E V-2 T-2]
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
[E V-2 T-2]
Solution:
P=power
Surface Tension =
Surface Tension
Correct option is 1.
Q. 27 The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t - 2t2 and y = 10t respectively,
where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
5m /s2
Option 3:
-4m /s2
Option 4:
-8m /s2
Correct Answer:
-4m /s2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Introduction to Differentiation -
- wherein
x = 5t - y = 10t
vx=5-4t vy=10
ax=-4 ay=0
Acceleration of particle at
Correct option is 3.
Q. 28 The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s . The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is
flowing due east . If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross he river along the
sortest path , the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t north is given by :
Option 1:
30 west
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
30 west
Solution:
Boat - River Problem -
u = speed of river
Q. 29 Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked
up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving
escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the
moving escalator will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Velocity of Preeti
Velocity of escalator
distance
Q. 30 A gas is taken through the cycle A B C A, as shown. What is the net work done by the
gas?
Option 1:
-2000 J
Option 2:
2000 J
Option 3:
1000 J
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
1000 J
Solution:
As we learnt in
Work is positive if cycle is clock wise. Work is negative if cycle is anti clock wise.
(for P - V diagram)
The given diagram is a P-V indicator diagram. Work done for P-V indicator diagram is area of the cycle.
Area of cycle
Correct option is 3.
Option 1:
64 P
Option 2:
32 P
Option 3:
Option 4:
16 P
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Equation of state -
- wherein
On solving
Q. 32 Infinity number of the masses, each 1 kg , are placed along the X-axis at
. The magnitude of the resultant
gravitational potential in terms of gravitational constant G at the origin is . Then 'n'
will be :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
8
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
As we know
As, m =1 kg
So, V= 4G
Hence n = 4.
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Potential at point A
Potential at point B
Potential difference
Q. 34 A body of mass makes an elastic collision with a second body at rest and continues to
move in the original direction but with one fourth of its original speed.What is the mass (in
kg) of the second body ?
Solution:
- wherein
mass of body =
mass of body
A B
rest
(from e=1)
momentum balance
Q. 35 A body of mass moving with an unknowm velocity of , undergoes a collinear collision
with a body of mass moving with a velocity . After collision , and move with
velocities of and , respectively.
If and , the is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein
before collision:
after collision:
&
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As
Buoyant force-
V= Volume of the solid body immersed in the liquid or Volume of the fluid displaced
So
Q. 37 If cp and cv denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight M,
then (where R is the molar gas constant)
Option 1:
cp-cv=R/M2
Option 2:
cp-cv=R
Option 3:
cp-cv=R/M
Option 4:
cp-cv=MR
Correct Answer:
cp-cv=R/M
Solution:
Q. 38 The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction of incidence, received at a
distance R from the centre of a star of radius r, whose outer surface radiates as a black body
at a temperature T K is given by
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have leaqrned
Power of radiation
Q. 39 ‘n’ moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process A→B as shown in the figure. The maximum
temperature of the gas during the process will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At any point between A & B, we can write relation between P & V by using the equation of the straight line
PV = nRT
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Potential gradient.
If P lies inside -
We know
E= constant
Now, electric field inside the spherical charge distribution
E would be constant of
Q. 41 A parallel plate capacitor is made of two plates of length l, width w and separated by
distance d. A dielectric slab (dielectric constant K) that fits exactly between the plates is held
near the edge of the plates. It is pulled into the capacitor by a force where U is
the energy of the capacitor when dielectric is inside the capacitor up to distance x (See
figure). If the charge on the capacitor is Q then the force on the dielectric when it is near the
edge is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 42 The electric field in a region of space is given by, where E0=100 N/C. The
flux of this field through a circular surface of radius 0.02 m parallel to the Y-Z plane is nearly :
Option 1:
0.125 Nm2/C
Option 2:
0.02 Nm2/C
Option 3:
0.005 Nm2/C
Option 4:
3.14 Nm2/C
Correct Answer:
0.125 Nm2/C
Solution:
New flux
Q. 43 An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of
3.57 x 10-2 T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 x 1011 C/kg, the frequency of revolution of the
electron is
Option 1:
1 GHz
Option 2:
100 MHz
Option 3:
62.8 MHz
Option 4:
6.28 MHz
Correct Answer:
1 GHz
Solution:
As we learnt in
Frequency =
Q. 44 A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50Hz frequency. If an ac
source, of 200volt, 100Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be
Option 1:
4.0A
Option 2:
8.0A
Option 3:
Option 4:
2.0A
Correct Answer:
4.0A
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Inductive reactance =
Then at 100Hz,
Q. 45 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an
infinitesimal current element (IdI) of a current carrying conductor only.
Statement II : Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge q,
with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter
being produced by a vector source, q.
In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Option 2:
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Solution:
1) Statement (I) is correct
Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current
element (Idl) of a current-carrying conductor only
Option 2:
0.2 V
Option 3:
0.0002 V
Option 4:
0.02 V
Correct Answer:
0.02 V
Solution:
- wherein
change in flux
N = 800
So
So
Q. 47 A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resiatance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying
coil in the shape of
the magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 48 A square shaped coil of area having 600 turns rotates in a magnetic field of
, about an axis which is parallel to one of the side of the coil and perpendicular
to the direction of field. If the coil completes 500 revolution in a minute, the instantaneous
emf when the plane of the coil is inclined at with the field, will be ________ V.
Correct Answer:
44
Solution:
Option 1:
2V
Option 2:
3V
Option 3:
5V
Option 4:
1V
Correct Answer:
2V
Solution:
As we learnt in
Conservation of energy -
- wherein
&
It is defined as the potential necessary to stop any electron from reaching the other side.
-
Q. 50 An electron is accelerated through a potential diffrence of 10000 V . Its debrogile wavelength
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
12.2 nm
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein
SO v=10000
SO
Q. 51 An electromagnetic wave of wavelength is incident on a photosensitive surface of
negligible work function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-
Broglie wavelength then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Work Function negligible
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Photo diode -
- wherein
By measuring the change in the conductance of the semiconductors one can measure the intensity of the
optical signal
Option 1:
100
Option 2:
150
Option 3:
50
Option 4:
75
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
(current gain )
Current gain =
Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND, and NOT gates, respectively
Option 1:
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
Option 2:
(iii), (ii) and (i)
Option 3:
(iii), (iii) and (iv)
Option 4:
(ii), (iv) and (iii)
Correct Answer:
(ii), (iv) and (iii)
Solution:
As we learnt in
OR gate -
- wherein
Y is out put
AND Gate -
- wherein
Y is out put
NOT gate -
- wherein
A is input
Y is out put
NAND gate -
- wherein
Y is out put
i) is OR gate
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 56 In the circuit shown below, the readings of the voltmeter and the ammeter will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ammeter -
Voltameter -
It is a device used to measure Potential differences and is always put in parallel with the circuit element.
Circuit 1
Circuit 2
The resistance of the voltmeter is very high. So a negligible amount of current flows through the
voltmeter. So we can consider almost all currents flow through upper 10
Q. 57 Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each
other. The currents flowing in them are I and 2 I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field
induction at the centre will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Potential difference across, C and R is 40 V, 10V and 40V, respectively. The amplitude of
current flowing through LCR series circuit is . The impedance of the circuit is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 59 Two cars are moving in 2 perpendicular roads towards a crossing with speeds of 72 km/hr
and 36 km/hr. If first car blows horn of 280 Hz then frequency (in Hz) of horn heard by driver
of second car when line joining the car makes with roads, will be
Correct Answer:
298
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Option 1:
(30, 40, 40) cm
Option 2:
(20, 80, 10) cm
Option 3:
(60,30, 20) cm
Option 4:
(10, 60, 40) cm
Correct Answer:
(60,30, 20) cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Sonometer -
It is a device used to measure the velocity of the transverse mechanical wave in a stretched wire.
- wherein
Chemistry
Q. 1 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and
8.0 g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the
sample ?
Option 1:
75
Option 2:
96
Option 3:
60
Option 4:
84
Correct Answer:
84
Solution:
As we learnt in
By the stoichiometry of the reaction above, we know that 1 mol of the gives 1 mol of MgO.
= 0.2
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the atomic mass of A = x & atomic mass of B = y
& :
&
Thus,
Q. 3 Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
Option 1:
H+
Option 2:
Li+
Option 3:
Na+
Option 4:
Mg2+
Correct Answer:
Li+
Solution:
Electronic config of
Electronic config of
Q. 4 Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules
Option 1:
I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
Option 2:
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
Option 3:
Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
Option 4:
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
Correct Answer:
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
Solution:
Bond strength -
The energy required to break one mole of bonds of particular type in gaseous state is called bond energy
or bond strength.
- wherein
The same amount of energy is released in formation of one mol of particular bond.
Bond dissociation enthalpies of halogen family decreases down the group as the size of atom increases.
The bond dissociation enthalpy of fluorine, is however, lower than those of chlorine and bromine because
of inter electronic repulsion present in small atoms of flourine.
Q. 5 The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is -46.0 kJ/mol. If the enthalpy of formation of H2
from its atoms is -436 kJ/mol and that of N2 is -712 kJ/mol, the average bond enthalpy (in
kJ/mol) of N-H bond in NH3 is :
Correct Answer:
352
Solution:
Option 1:
0 to -4
Option 2:
+4 to +4
Option 3:
0 to +4
Option 4:
-4 to +4
Correct Answer:
-4 to +4
Solution:
In the oxidation number of carbon is -4 while in the oxidation number of Carbon is +4.
Q. 7 Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction ? Choose the right
option.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Decomposition reaction leads to the breakdown of a compound into two or more components at least
one of which must be in the elemental state.
In a displacement reaction, an ion (or an atom) in a compound is replaced by an ion (or an atom) of
another element. There are two types of displacement reactions:
Metal displacement - A metal in a compound can be displaced by another metal in the uncombined state
Non-metal displacement - The non-metal displacement redox reactions include hydrogen displacement
and a rarely occurring reaction involving oxygen displacement.
But reaction (2) is an example of a metal displacement reaction because metal is displacing there.
Q. 8 Which one of the following reactions does not come under hydrolysis type reaction ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The above reaction is an example of a Redox reaction wherein water is oxidised by Fluorise.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In is in oxidation state and oxygen is in oxidation state.
Q. 10 A certain compound gives a negative test with ninhydrin and positive test with Benedict's
solution. The compound is:
Option 1:
Protein
Option 2:
Monosaccharide
Option 3:
Lipid
Option 4:
An amino acid
Correct Answer:
Monosaccharide
Solution:
A compound which gives a negative test with ninhydrin, it cannot be a protein or an amino acid. As it
gives a positive test with Benedict's solution. So, it must be a monosaccharide but not a lipid.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Vitamin - Night blindness , Xerophthalmia
Vitamin (Thiamine) - Beriberi
Osteomalacia ( in adults )
Vitamin E - Increased RBCs fragility , muscular weakness
Option 1:
6 molecules of ATP
Option 2:
18 molecules of ATP
Option 3:
10 molecules of ATP
Option 4:
8 molecules of ATP
Correct Answer:
18 molecules of ATP
Solution:
As we have learned in
Option 1:
Mn and Re
Option 2:
Ti and Hf
Option 3:
Sc and Ni
Option 4:
Mo and W
Correct Answer:
Mo and W
Solution:
Atomic Radius -
The distance from the centre of the nucleus to the outermost shell containing the electrons is called
atomic radius.It can be measured by the spectroscopic method and by x-ray diffraction or electron
diffraction techniques.
Option 1:
lesser nuclear charge and lesser first ionisation enthalpy
Option 2:
greater nuclear charge and lesser first ionisation enthalpy
Option 3:
greater nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy
Option 4:
lesser nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy
Correct Answer:
lesser nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy
Solution:
Variable of effective nuclear charge in period -
It is observed that the magnitude of effective nuclear charge increase in a period when we move from left
to the right.
"Be" has 4 proton & "B" has 5 protons so, the Nuclear charge of "Be" is less than "B"
And half or fully filled configuration is more stable than partially filled orbitals.
2s2 2p1
Option 1:
3-methyl-4-(3-methylprop-1-enyl)-1-heptyne
Option 2:
3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-6-en-1-yne
Option 3:
3-methyl-4-(1-methylprop-2-ynyl)-1-heptene
Option 4:
3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-1-en-6-yen
Correct Answer:
3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-1-en-6-yen
Solution:
The IUPAC name will be-
In the case of double bond & triple bond, positions are the same & the position of substituents are also
the same. then double bond considers as senior so, the numbering starts from a double bond.
Option 1:
Both (A) and (B) cannot be optically active.
Option 2:
Both (A) and (B) can be optically active.
Option 3:
(A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active.
Option 4:
(A) can be optically active, but (B) cannot be optically active.
Correct Answer:
(A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active.
Solution:
Trans - [Co(en)2Cl2]+ has plane of symmetry. So it is not optically active.
Cis - [Co(en)2Cl2]+ does not have any plane of symmetry, so it can be optically active.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ru belongs to the 4d series of elements and ethylene diamine(en) is a chelating ligand which causes a
larger splitting in the 4d orbitals. This leads to a pairing of electrons in the orbital due to which the
electronic configuration is
is a weak field ligand which is unable to cause pairing in and hence the configuration is
accomodated as
Option 1:
-0.8 + 2P
Option 2:
-0.4
Option 3:
- 0.8
Option 4:
-0.4 +P
Correct Answer:
-0.4
Solution:
Means all ligands behaves as weak field ligands
So,
Q. 19 The molar heat capacity (Cp) of CD2O is 10 cals at 1000 K. The change in entropy (in cal deg-1)
associated with cooling of 32 g of CD2O vapour from 1000 K to 100 K at constant pressure
will be :
Correct Answer:
-23.03
Solution:
Entropy for isobaric process -
Option 1:
BF3
Option 2:
PF3
Option 3:
CF4
Option 4:
SiF4
Correct Answer:
PF3
Solution:
A lewis base is a compound that can donate a lone pair of electrons while a lewis acid accepts a lone pair
of electrons.
behave like lewis's base because it has one pair of electrons, while can accept lone pair of an
electron in and in vacant orbitals and act as lewis acid.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Q. 23 The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of
ethane is:
Option 1:
The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered
conformation has torsional strain
Option 2:
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed
conformation has no torsional strain
Option 3:
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the
eclipsed conformation has torsional strain
Option 4:
The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered
conformation has no torsional strain.
Correct Answer:
The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered
conformation has no torsional strain.
Solution:
Thus, staggered conformation is more stable than eclipsed conformation because of no torsional strain.
Q. 24 A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressure of the pure
hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mm Hg for pentane and 120 mm Hg for hexane. The mole
fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be:
Correct Answer:
0.478
Solution:
Q. 25 For a first order reaction, calculate the ratio between the time taken to complete 3/4 th of
the reaction and time taken to complete half of the reaction?
Option 1:
4/3
Option 2:
8/3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Therefore, option(3) is correct
Option 1:
Ferricyanide
Option 2:
Ferrous ferricyanide
Option 3:
Ferrous cyanide
Option 4:
Ferri ferrocyanide
Correct Answer:
Ferrous ferricyanide
Solution:
Turnbull's blue has the formula
Option 1:
Ionization isomerism
Option 2:
Coordination isomerism
Option 3:
Geometrical isomerism
Option 4:
Linkage isomerism
Correct Answer:
Geometrical isomerism
Solution:
Geometrical Isomers -
This is due to the difference in the relative position of the ligands attached to the central metal atom with
respect to each other.
Q. 28 Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated
nitric acid, gives:
Option 1:
nitrobenzene
Option 2:
2, 4, 6-trinitrobenzene
Option 3:
2,4,6- trinitrophenol
Option 4:
p-nitrophenol
Correct Answer:
2,4,6- trinitrophenol
Solution:
Direct nitration of phenol is difficult as it gets oxidised by the nitrating mixture
. However, picric acid is formed as a minor product in the reaction.
To get a better yield of Picric acid, it is prepared by treating phenol first with concentrated sulphuric acid
which converts it to phenol-2,4-disulphonic acid, and then with concentrated nitric acid to get 2,4,6-
trinitrophenol.
Option 1:
200 ml of 0.2 N HCl
Option 2:
200 ml of 0.4 N HCl
Option 3:
100 ml of 0.1N HCl
Option 4:
100 ml of 0.2N HCl
Correct Answer:
100 ml of 0.2N HCl
Solution:
2 × mole of Urea = mole of ........(1)
mole of = mole of ........(2)
mole of HCl = 2 × mole of Urea
...as (i).
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
The structure of chloramphenicol is given below:
Thus, the number of chiral carbons in chloramphenicol is 2.
Option 1:
C>A>B
Option 2:
C>B>A
Option 3:
B>A>C
Option 4:
B>C>A
Correct Answer:
C>B>A
Solution:
When a negative charge is delocalised with an electron-withdrawing group like (NO2) then stability
increases.
(B) The negative charge is delocalised with the carbon of the alkene
C>B>A
Option 1:
18 molecules of water
Option 2:
1.8 gram of water
Option 3:
18 gram of water
Option 4:
18 moles of water
Correct Answer:
18 moles of water
Solution:
Mole Concept -
Q. 33 The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:
Option 1:
Schiff base
Option 2:
Ketone
Option 3:
Carboxylic acid
Option 4:
Aromatic acid
Correct Answer:
Schiff base
Solution:
The reaction
Q. 34 The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their
radii increase ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned in
In the case of isoelectronic species, radius decreases with an increase in nuclear charge.
Option 1:
lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
Option 2:
lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
Option 3:
bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
Option 4:
lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
Correct Answer:
lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
Solution:
VSEPR Theory -
1. The shape of the molecule is determined by repulsions between all of the electron pair present in
valence shell.
2. Order of repulsion
3 Repulsion among the bond pair is directly proportional to the bond order and electronegativity
difference between the central atom and the other atom.
According to VSERPR theory the repulsive forces between lone pair are greater than between lone pair
and bond pair which are further greather than bond pair and bond pair.
Correct Answer:
-312.7
Solution:
Given reaction
Hence, the correct answer is Option (1)
has a value of at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium constant
for the following reaction at the same temperature?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the
reaction in the forward direction.
for
Option 1:
5 x 10-4
Option 2:
5 x 10-3
Option 3:
5 x 103
Option 4:
5 x 102
Correct Answer:
5 x 10-4
Solution:
Specific conductance,
Resistivity,
Resistance, R=
molar conductivity,
Option 1:
2-Bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
Option 2:
3-Bromo-1,2-dimethylbut-1-ene
Option 3:
4-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
Option 4:
3-Bromo-3-methyl-1,2dimethylprop-1-ene
Correct Answer:
4-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
Solution:
The given structure is -
The sum of this numbering will be the lowest. So, it is correct and alkene is getting a smaller number.
Option 1:
is x < y
Option 2:
does not exist
Option 3:
is x >y
Option 4:
is x = y
Correct Answer:
is x >y
Solution:
Q. 41 Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is
75 torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 20°C for a
solution containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is:
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Q. 42 The half life of a first order reaction is 60 min. How long (in min.) will it take to consume 90%
of the reaction?
Correct Answer:
200
Solution:
For the first-order reaction,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both a and b
Correct Answer:
Both a and b
Solution:
Borax bead -
Used for the detection of coloured basic radicals in borax bead test.
Option 1:
square planar geometry and paramagnetic
Option 2:
tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
Option 3:
square planar geometry and diamagnetic
Option 4:
tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
Correct Answer:
tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
Solution:
Q. 45 Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic subsitution reaction most easily?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
LiAlH4 is a strong reducing agent, it reduces carboxylic group into primary alcoholic group without
affecting the double bond in the compound
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
Mass of HNO3 is 63 g
Moles of HNO3 is 1
Option 1:
ribose sugar and thymine
Option 2:
ribose sugar and uracil
Option 3:
deoxyribose sugar and thymine
Option 4:
deoxyribose sugar, and uracil.
Correct Answer:
ribose sugar and uracil
Solution:
As we learned, Ribonucleic acid (RNA) -
It is made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is ribose, Phosphoric acid and
bases (Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and uracil)
-
DNS deoxyribose sugar
Q. 49 Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?
Option 1:
d z 2, d x
Option 2:
dxz, dy
Option 3:
dz 2 , dx2 - y 2
Option 4:
dxy , dx2- y2
Correct Answer:
dz 2 , dx2 - y 2
Solution:
The shape of d orbitals :
Option 1:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
Option 2:
ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom.
Option 3:
Oxygen is more electronegative.
Option 4:
Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion.
Correct Answer:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
Solution:
The first electron gain enthalpy of the Oxygen atom is negative, as when the electron is added, the
attractive forces between the incoming electron and nucleus outweigh the repulsions in between
electrons.
But on adding the second electron, the repulsions take over attractive forces, hence it's an endothermic
process.
Column I Column II
Code:
Option 1:
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Option 2:
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Option 3:
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Option 4:
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Correct Answer:
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Solution:
VSEPR Theory -
1. The shape of the molecule is determined by repulsions between all of the electron pair present in
valence shell.
2. Order of repulsion
3 Repulsion among the bond pair is directly proportional to the bond order and electronegativity
difference between the central atom and the other atom.
Dettermination of shape of molecules using VSEPR Theory -
distorted octahedron
pyramidal
square pyramidal
square planar
Q. 52 The standard enthalpy of formation ( fHo298) for methane, CH4 is -74.9 kJ mol-1. In order to
calculate the average energy given out in the formation of a C - H bond from this it is
necessary to know which one of the following?
Option 1:
the dissociation energy of the hydrogen molecule, H2.
Option 2:
the first four ionisation energies of carbon.
Option 3:
the dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon (graphite).
Option 4:
the first four ionisation energies of carbon and electron affinity of hydrogen.
Correct Answer:
the dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon (graphite).
Solution:
Enthalpy of Sublimation -
Amount of enthalpy change to sublimise 1 mole solid into 1-mole vapour at a temperature below its
melting point
Now,
Step 1 :
Step 2 :
Q. 53 Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by and to give the compound
.
If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at , then the value of Kc will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Law of Chemical equilibrium -
At a given temperature, the product of the concentration of the reaction products raised to the respective
stoichiometric coefficient in the balanced chemical equation divided by the product of the concentration
of the reactants raised to their individual stoichiometric coefficients has a constant value.
Q. 54 The equivalent conductance of NaCl at concentration C and at infinite dilution are and
, respectively. The correct relationship between and is given as :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
According to the Debye Huckel equation:
We have
Option 1:
Ethers
Option 2:
Amines
Option 3:
Ester
Option 4:
Alcohols
Correct Answer:
Ester
Solution:
A carboxylic acid is an ester derived from a carboxylic acid. Acids have formula RCOOH while esters are
RCOOR'.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Benzene + Toluene
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Solution showing negative deviation from Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotropes. The mixture of
and form non-ideal solution which shows negative deviation form Raoult's law.
Q. 57 Raising the concentration of a particular reactant by a factor of 5 increases the reaction rate
25 times. What is the kinetic order of this reactant?
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Let the reaction rate -
Raising the concentration of a particular reactant by a factor of 5 increases the reaction rate 25 times.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Magnetic moment
Where n=2,
Correct Option is 4
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction will be -
Due to Cl being a good leaving group, it will leave the alkane in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 and
forms 1-degree carbonation then convert to 2-degree carbocation.
Maths
Q. 1 Let be an odd function defined on the set of real numbers such that for
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2 If the angles of elevation of the top of a tower from three collinear points A, B and C, on a
line leading to the foot of the
tower, are 300, 450 and 600 respectively,then the ratio, AB : BC, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
The height or length of an object or the distance between two distant objects can be determined with the
help of trigonometric ratios.
In
...................... ( 1 )
In
.................... ( 2 )
In
..................... ( 3 )
Now,
Q. 3
A value of θ for which is purely imaginary is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
& i2=-1
- wherein
Let
for purely imaginary, real part must be zero.
Correct option is 4.
Q. 4 The number of numbers between 2,000 and 5,000 that can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2,
3, 4 (repetition of digits is not allowed) and are multiple of 3 is :
Option 1:
24
Option 2:
30
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
48
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
To be divisible by 3, sum of 4 numbers should be divisible by 3
For (0,2,3,4)
4 digit number
For 0,2,3,4
(First place cannot be filled by 0 or 1, as the number should be greater than 2000)
Total number = 30
Option 1:
7th and 8th
Option 2:
8th and 9th
Option 3:
28th and 29th
Option 4:
27th and 28th
Correct Answer:
8th and 9th
Solution:
As we have learned
Q. 6
If then k is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So,
.......
Adding these
Q. 7 If the points (1, 1, ) and (-3, 0, 1) are equidistant from the plane, 3x+4y-12z+13=0, then
satisfies the equation :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
is given by
or
or
Q. 8 Twenty meters of wire is available for fencing off a flower-bed in the form of a circular
sector. Then the maximum area (in sq. m) of the flower-bed, is :
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
As we have learned
So,
So ,
Hence
Q. 9 If the mean deviation of the numbers 1, 1+d, ..., 1+100 d from their mean is 255, then a value
of d is :
Option 1:
10.1
Option 2:
20.2
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
5.05
Correct Answer:
10.1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Mean Deviation -
If x1, x2, ...xn are n observations then the mean deviation from the point A is given by :
Mean
Mean deviation
d=10.1
Q. 10
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Hence,
And
Given that these two matrices are equal, so by comparing the elements of these 2 matrices
Q. 11 Let the population of rabbits surviving at a time t be governed by the differential equation
. If equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
put
- wherein
Q. 12 A hyperbola passes through the point and has foci at (±2, 0).
Then the tangent to this hyperbola at P also passes through the point
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As foci lie on x-axis and mid-point of foci is th eorigin, so the equation of hyperbola can be assumed to be
Focus is
Also we know,
Equation of hyperbola is
Q. 13
The integral
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
- wherein
Option 1:
32
Option 2:
16
Option 3:
8
Option 4:
64
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Consider set .
All elements of the set A, defined by x, are also contained in Z, the set of integers. It's also given that the
absolute value of these elements is strictly less than 3.
And also,
Thus,
Q. 16
Let where
Then a value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Formulae of Inverse Trigonometric Functions
when
Solution:
Sum = 4+1+6+(-10)+2= 3
Q. 18 Two different families A and B are blessed with an equal number of children. There are 3
tickets to be distributed amongst the children of these families so that no child gets more
than one ticket. If the probability that all the tickets go to the children of the family B is 1/12,
then the number of children in each family are:
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Let the number of children in each family be x.
Thus the total number of children in both the families are 2x.
Now, it is given that 3 tickets are distributed among the children of these two families. Thus the
probability that all the 3 tickets go to the children of family B is:
Q. 19 If the coefficients of the three successive terms in the binomial expansion of (1+x)n are in
the ratio 1 : 7 : 42, then coefficient of first of these three terms is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
and
Now,
Thus (i)
Also, (ii)
n - 7r = 6 (from (i))
n - 8r = - 1 (from (ii))
Thus r = 7, n = 55
Q. 20 If m is the A.M. of two distinct real numbers l and n (l, n > 1) and G1, G2 and G3 are three
geometric means between l and n, then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
and
Now,
Given l + n = 2m .........(i)
Q. 21
If the shortest distance between the lines and
,then
a value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
and is given by
Where
Distance =
Q. 22
If , then 'a' is equal to :
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
It is form.
Q. 23 If A and B are any two events such that P(A)=2/5 and , then the
conditional probability, where denotes the complement of A, is equal
to :
Option 1:
1/4
Option 2:
5/17
Option 3:
8/17
Option 4:
11/20
Correct Answer:
5/17
Solution:
Now,
And
Q. 24 The system of linear equations
x +λy −z = 0
λx − y − z = 0
x + y − λz = 0
Option 1:
infinitely many values of λ.
Option 2:
exactly one value of λ.
Option 3:
exactly two values of λ.
Option 4:
exactly three values of λ.
Correct Answer:
exactly three values of λ.
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and
are obtained by replacing column 1,2,3 of by column
Q. 25
if is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Differential Equations -
An equation involving independent variable (x), dependent variable (y) and derivative of
dependent variable with respect to independent variable
- wherein
eg:
Then
Now,
.............(i)
...........(ii)
So that,
Q. 26 If the tangent at a point P, with parameter t, on the curve x = 4t2 + 3, y = 8t3 − 1, t R, meets
the curve again at a point Q, then the coordinates of Q are :
Option 1:
( t2 + 3, −t3 −1 )
Option 2:
( 4t2 + 3, −8t3 −1 )
Option 3:
( t2 + 3, t3 − 1 )
Option 4:
( 16t2 + 3, −64t3 −1 )
Correct Answer:
( t2 + 3, t3 − 1 )
Solution:
As learnt in concept @MNOP
and
at P;
Tangent at P is
We get
Hence
Hence, Q = ( t2 + 3, t3 −1 )
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Using Property
Option 1:
84
Option 2:
336
Option 3:
315
Option 4:
256
Correct Answer:
336
Solution:
As we have learned.
If and are two vectors and is the angle between them , then
- wherein
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Now,
So period of |sin(4x)| + |cos(2x)| is the lcm of π/4 and π/2, which is π/2
Q. 30
The value of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 31 The largest value of r for which the region represented by the set
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Perpendicular bisector -
- wherein
and are any two fixed points . z is a moving point in the plain which is equidistant from and .so
z will lie on perpendicular bisector
Equation of circle -
= centre of circle
r= radius of circle
z lies on circle.
- wherein
1)
2)
3)
distance =
Q. 32 The number of four letter words that can be formed using the letters of the word BARRACK
is
Option 1:
120
Option 2:
144
Option 3:
264
Option 4:
270
Correct Answer:
270
Solution:
Word is BARRACK
Words = = 2 x 6 x 12 = 144
Words =
Correct Answer:
84
Solution:
Expression of Binomial Theorem -
And
Correct Answer:
96
Solution:
Put n = 9
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
and is given by
Where
Put z=0
We get x+y=3
2x+3y=4
y=-2, x=5
Shortest distance =
Q. 36
If the function is differentiable at x = 1, then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Where
1+b=0 b=-1
Q. 37 The mean of 5 observations is 5 and their variance is 124. If three of the observations are 1,
2 and 6 ; then the mean deviation from the mean of the data is :
Option 1:
2.4
Option 2:
2.8
Option 3:
2.5
Option 4:
2.6
Correct Answer:
2.8
Solution:
Initially, we need to look at the following concepts:
ARITHMETIC Mean -
For the values x1, x2, ....xn of the variant x the arithmetic mean is given by
Mean Deviation -
If x1, x2, ...xn are n observations then the mean deviation from the point A is given by :
Variance -
Now,
a+b+1+2+6=25
a+b=16
a2+b2+12+22+62=745
a2+b2+1+4+36=745
a2+b2=704
Q. 38 The least value of the product xyz for
which the determinant
is
non-negative, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
So that minimum value of x, y, z are: x = -2, y = -2 and z = -2 which satisfy this inequality.
Q. 39 If the differential equation representing the family of all circles touching -axis at the origin
is equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
A differential equation can be derived from its equation by the process of differentiation and other
algebraical process of elimination
-
Let the equation of circle is
or
Put a in (i)
meets the coordinate axes at A and B, (A ≠ B), then the locus of the midpoint of AB is :
Option 1:
6xy = 7(x + y)
Option 2:
4( x + y )2 − 28( x + y ) + 49=0
Option 3:
7xy = 6( x + y )
Option 4:
14( x + y )2 − 97( x + y ) + 168 = 0
Correct Answer:
7xy = 6( x + y )
Solution:
As we have learned
Section formula -
- wherein
- wherein
Family of lines
Now for x = 0
then y(x)
equals : (where C is a constant.)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Again differentiate
Solve the differential equation
Q. 42 The length of the projection of the line segment joining the points (5, −1, 4) and (4, −1, 3) on
the plane, x+y+z=7 is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Projection of line segment joining the points P(x1,y1,z1) and Q(x2,y2,z2) on a line having direction cosines (l,m,n) is
- wherein
Also PQ = BC
Also
Q. 43 Let A and B be two sets containing 2 elements and 4 elements respectively. The number of
subsets of A B having 3 or more elements is
Correct Answer:
219
Solution:
n(A) = 4, n(B) = 2
As n(A x B)=n(A).n(B)
So,
Q. 44 A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20 m high and its elevation from a point O on
the ground is 450. It flies off horizontally straight away from the point O.After one second,
the elevation of the bird from O is reduced to 300. Then the speed (in m/s) of the bird is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Height and Distances -
The height or length of an object or the distance between two distant objects can be determined with the
help of trigonometric ratios.
Option 1:
does not exist.
Option 2:
exists and is equal to
Option 3:
exists and is equal to
Option 4:
exists and is equal to
Correct Answer:
exists and is equal to
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
- wherein
and
Q. 46 n-digit numbers are formed using only three digits 2, 5 and 7 (with repitition allowed). The
smallest value of n for which at least 900 such distinct numbers can be formed, is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number of ways to form an n digit number with 2, 5 and 7
Option 1:
(420, 19)
Option 2:
(420, 18)
Option 3:
(380, 18)
Option 4:
(380, 19)
Correct Answer:
(420, 18)
Solution:
Properties of Binomial Theorem
Now,
+ +
LHS :
= n.2n-1 + n(n-1)2n-2
Here n = 20
= 420.218
Q. 48 If (10)9 + 2(11)1 (10)8 + 3(11)2 (10)7 +...... +10 (11)9 = k (10)9, then k is equal to
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
(10)9 + 2(11)1 (10)8 + 3(11)2 (10)7 +...... +10 (11)9 = k(10)9
Q. 49
A plane containing the point (3, 2, 0) and the line also contains
the point :
Option 1:
(0, -3, 1)
Option 2:
(0, 7, 10)
Option 3:
(0, 7, -10)
Option 4:
(0, 3, 1)
Correct Answer:
(0, 7, 10)
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
putting in
We get -
15x-11y+10z=23
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept @ZWYX and use of maxima/minima
Q. 51 If the standard deviation of the numbers 2, 3, a and 11 is 3.5,then which of the following is
true ?
Option 1:
3a2 − 26 a + 55 = 0
Option 2:
3a2 − 32a + 84 = 0
Option 3:
3a2 − 34a + 91 = 0
Option 4:
3a2 − 23a + 44 = 0
Correct Answer:
3a2 − 32a + 84 = 0
Solution:
As we learnt in
Standard Deviation -
If x1, x2...xn are n observations then square root of the arithmetic mean of
- wherein
where is mean
Q. 52
If then which one of the following statements is not correct ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Multiplication of matrices -
-
For option 3,
Q. 53
If the general solution of the differential equation for some function is
given by where c is an arbitrary constant, then (2) is equal to :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
Option 3:
-4
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
and
Q. 54 The point (2, 1) is translated parallel to the line L : x − y = 4 by units. If the new point Q
lies in the third quadrant, then the equation of the line passing through Q and perpendicular
to L is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Parametric form -
- wherein
Where is the inclination of the line and is the distance between and
- wherein
slope
- wherein
So,
Line Required
Q. 55
The integral is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Integration by substitution -
The functions when on substitution of the variable of integration to some quantity gives any one of
standard formulas.
- wherein
Option 1:
11/3
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
thus
and
also
Option 1:
neither A B nor B A
Option 2:
B A
Option 3:
A B
Option 4:
A B=
Correct Answer:
A B
Solution:
We have, and
The set A represents square PQRS inside set B representing ellipse and hence
Q. 58 The number of values of in for which
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Trigonometric Equations -
The equations involving trigonometric function of unknown angles are known as trigonometric equations.
- wherein
e.g.
Q. 59
If z is a non-real complex number, then the minimum value of
Correct Answer:
-4
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
- wherein
So,
So,
So,
for n= 1
Q. 60 There are m men and two women participating in a chess tournament. Each participant
plays two games with every other participant. If the number of games played by the men
between themselves exceeds the number of games played between the men and the
women by 84, then the value of m is
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
As per the question,
Mock Test 4
Physics
Q. 1
In the given digram the mirror and object is moving with speed 2 m/s
Option 1:
0 m/s
Option 2:
5 m/s
Option 3:
2 m/s
Option 4:
4 m/s
Correct Answer:
0 m/s
Solution:
AS we learn
Relation between object and image velocity if object is moving along principal axis -
= -
= -
- wherein
= velocity of light
= velocity of image
= velocity of mirror
Q. 2 If the speed of light in vacum 10 m/s then the velocity of light in a medium of refrective
index 1.3 is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Refractive index -
- wherein
speed of light in vacuum.
Option 1:
520 nm
Option 2:
540 nm
Option 3:
560 nm
Option 4:
580 nm
Correct Answer:
540 nm
Solution:
Given
Now
Correct option is 2.
Q. 4 The resistance in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 and R , respectivilty. When the
resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance point is at . The
resistance 'R' is:
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
15
Option 3:
20
Option 4:
25
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
As we learnt in
Meter bridge -
To find the resistance of a given wire using a meter bridge and hence determine the specific resistance of
its materials
- wherein
Divide and
Or,
From equation
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
Resistance of ammeter RA is
Q. 7 A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8 ohm. The resistance that must be
connected in series with the wire and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2V, so as to get a potential
gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is:
Option 1:
44 ohm
Option 2:
48 ohm
Option 3:
32 ohm
Option 4:
40 ohm
Correct Answer:
32 ohm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potential gradient -
- wherein
internal resistance
So for 400 cm
Q. 8 A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are connected in series with a battery of
e.m.f. E0 and a resistance r1. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length I of the
potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will be given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Current in the circuit having
since the balanced point is obtained at length I of the potentiometer wire, the emf of the cell E has to
match the voltage dropped in length I of the wire.
Q. 9 The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output Y. The
voltage waveforms of A, B and Y are as given
Option 1:
NOR gate
Option 2:
OR gate
Option 3:
AND gate
Option 4:
NAND gate
Correct Answer:
NAND gate
Solution:
It is clear from the given logic circuit, that the output Y is low when both the inputs are high, otherwise it
is high.Thus logic circuit is NAND gate.
Q. 10 A ray of light is incident from a denser to a rarer medium. The critical angle for total internal
reflection is and the Brewster’s angle of incidence is , such that
. The relative refractive index of the two media is :
Option 1:
0.2
Option 2:
0.4
Option 3:
0.8
Option 4:
0.9
Correct Answer:
0.8
Solution:
or
Q. 11 An object is at a distance of 10 cm from a mirror and the image of the object is at a distance
of 30 cm from the mirror on the same side as the object. Then nature of the mirror and its
focal length is:
Option 1:
Convex, 15cm
Option 2:
Concave, 1.5cm
Option 3:
Convex, 7.5cm
Option 4:
Concave, 7.5cm
Correct Answer:
Concave, 7.5cm
Solution:
As we learn
Sign Convention -
3) Distance measured in the direction opposite to that of incident rays are taken as negative.
4) Distance above the principal axis as positive and below the principal axis as negative.
u = -10 cm
v = - 30cm from sign convention
f = -7.5 cm
Option 1:
300
Option 2:
450
Option 3:
750
Option 4:
600
Correct Answer:
600
Solution:
At point A:
from symmetry
Q. 13 A right angled prism of apex angle 40 and r. i. 1.5 is located in front of vertical plane mirror as
shown in fig.A horizontal ray of light is falling on the prism. Find the total deviation produced
in the light ray at it emerges second time from the prism:
Option 1:
80 cw
Option 2:
60 cw
Option 3:
1800 cw
Option 4:
1760 cw
Correct Answer:
1760 cw
Solution:
As we learn
- wherein
(a) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.
(b) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(c) The emitter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased.
(d) Both the emitter-base junction as well as the base-collector junction are forward biased.
Option 1:
(d), (a)
Option 2:
(a), (b)
Option 3:
(b), (c)
Option 4:
(c), (d)
Correct Answer:
(b), (c)
Solution:
For a transistor action, the junction must be lightly doped so that the base region is very thin.
Also, the emitter junction must be forward-biased and collector junction should be reverse-biased.
Q. 15 A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 and an
output impedance of 200 . The power gain of the amplifier is
Option 1:
50
Option 2:
500
Option 3:
1000
Option 4:
1250
Correct Answer:
1250
Solution:
As we learnt in
Q. 16 In x-ray diffraction first maxima occur at =300 then the wavelength of X-ray are
( ):
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Bragg's law -
Q. 17 If the Rydbarg's constant is R then the wave number in second brackett series is -
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Brackett Series -
- wherein
Where is a constant . For the atom, the radius of the nth orbit in the terms of the Bohr
radius
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From Bohr's postulate
So,
Q. 19 When electron jumps from higher orbital to n = 3, energy level then this is belongs to
spectral series:
Option 1:
Lymen
Option 2:
Pfund
Option 3:
Paschen
Option 4:
Balmer
Correct Answer:
Paschen
Solution:
As we learn
Paschen Series -
- wherein
When electron jump from higher orbital to n=3 energy level
Q. 20 Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure.
The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are
respectively:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
g, g
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Before cut Kx = 4mg
Q. 21 A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum P. If the
same stone is dropped from a height 100% more than previous height, the momentum
when it hits the ground will change by:
Option 1:
41%
Option 2:
200%
Option 3:
100%
Option 4:
68%
Correct Answer:
41%
Solution:
change
Q. 22 A hollow hemisphere of mass m is placed on a hollow sphere of mass m. The center of mass
of given arrangement from point A is at the height
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 23 Three masses are placed on the x-axis: 300 g at origin, 500 g at x=40 cm and 400 g at x=70
cm. The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is
Option 1:
40 cm
Option 2:
45 cm
Option 3:
50 cm
Option 4:
30 cm
Correct Answer:
40 cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
m1 & are mass and position of centre of mass for whole body. m2 & are mass and position of centre
of mass of added mass.
Q. 24 ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre. represent three forces acting
along the sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If the total torque about O is zero the magnitude
of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 25 Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are
three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the
dimension of length?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Use the method of dimensional analysis between the quantities can be derived
Let Length
Q. 26
A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and is (c
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Option 1:
1:1
Option 2:
1:2
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For the displacement-time graph,
Slope = velocity
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
E=
Q. 29
In a certain region of space, the gravitational field is given by Taking the
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As or
Q. 30 Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. Engine A receives heat from a reservoir
at 600 K and rejects heat to a reservoir at temperature T. Engine B receives heat rejected by
engine A and in turn rejects it to a reservoir at 100 K. If the efficiencies of the two engines A
and B are represented by ηA and ηB, respectively,then what is the value of ? (Work
output is same for both)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
- wherein
Source temperature
Sink Temperature
from eqn1:
Q. 31 A gas is compressed is isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed
separately through and adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
Option 1:
Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
Option 2:
Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
Option 3:
Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
Option 4:
Which of the case (wheather compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires
more work will depend upon the atomicty of the gas.
Correct Answer:
Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Consider the P-V indicator diagram shown below.
ia Isothermal process
ib Adibatic process
Work done under adiabatic process is greater than work done under isothermal process as area under ib
is greater than area under ia.
Q. 32 The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th, its weight on the surface of Earth
(radius R), is:
Option 1:
5R
Option 2:
15R
Option 3:
3R
Option 4:
4R
Correct Answer:
3R
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
So,
Weight at height
According to question
or Re + h = 4 Re or h = 3 Re
Q. 33 A spherical planet has a mass MP and diameter DP. A particle of mass m falling freely near
the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity, equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 34 A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000
times. Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated.
How much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up?
Fat supplies 3.8×107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20%
efficiency rate. Take g = 9.8 ms−2 :
Option 1:
2.45×10−3 kg
Option 2:
6.45×10−3 kg
Option 3:
9.89×10−3 kg
Option 4:
12.89×10−3 kg
Correct Answer:
12.89×10−3 kg
Solution:
As we discussed in
If only conservative forces act on a system, total mechanical energy remains constant -
Q. 35 Two particles, of masses M and 2M, moving as shown, with speeds of 10 m/s and 5 m/s,
collide elastically at the origin. After the collision, they move along the indicated directions
with
Option 1:
6.5 m/s and 6.3 m/s
Option 2:
3.2 m/s and 6.3 m/s
Option 3:
6.5 m/s and 3.2 m/s
Option 4:
3.2 m/s and 12.6 m/s
Correct Answer:
6.5 m/s and 6.3 m/s
Solution:
................................(1)
............................................(2)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Method-1
Using exact law of cooling
Case-I:
Case-II: or
Or
Methode-2
Using newton’s average law of cooling
Case-I:- .......(i)
Case-II:- ........(ii)
Q. 37 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp
and Cv, respectively. If
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 38 The pressure (in pa) that has to be applied to the ends of a steel wire of length 10 cm to keep
its length constant when its temperature is raised by 1000C is :
(For steel Young’s modulus is 2 x 1011 N m-2 and coefficient of thermal expansion is 1.1 x
10-5 K-1)
Solution:
As we have learned
Thermal Strain -
- wherein
Thermal strain
Thermal stress = Y strain
Pressure required =
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Cannot be predicted
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For an ideal gas
or
From figure,
or
or
Q. 40 A charged particle is suspended in equilibrium in a uniform vertical electric field of intensity 20000 V/m.
If mass of the particle is , the charge on it and excess number of electrons on the
particle are respectively
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Electric field of intensity =20,000 V/m
Q. 41 A charge of Q coulomb is placed on a solid piece of metal of irregular shape. The charge will distribute
itself
Option 1:
Uniformly in the metal object
Option 2:
Uniformly on the surface of the object
Option 3:
Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
Option 4:
Such that the total heat loss is minimised
Correct Answer:
Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
Solution:
As we learned
Charge on a conductor -
Potential energy depends upon the charge at peaks of irregularities. Since every event in the universe leads to the
minimisation of energy
Q. 42 The acceleration of an electron in an electric field of magnitude 50 V/cm, if e/m value of the
electron is C/kg, is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 43 An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5A as shown. An electron is moving
with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the
electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant.
Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 44 A series of LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the
circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is If instead C is removed from
the circuit, the phase difference is again between current and voltage. The power factor of
the circuit is:
Option 1:
zero
Option 2:
0.5
Option 3:
1.0
Option 4:
-1.0
Correct Answer:
1.0
Solution:
Q. 45 An rion rod of susceptiblity 599 is subjectede to a magnetising fild of 1200 A m-1. The
permeablity of the material of the rod is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
Option 2:
M
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Q. 48 A light bulb and an inductor coil are connected to an ac source through a key as shown in
the figure below. The key is closed and after sometime an iron rod is inserted into the
interior of the inductor. The glow of the light bulb
Option 1:
remain unchanged
Option 2:
will fluctuate
Option 3:
increases
Option 4:
decreases
Correct Answer:
decreases
Solution:
As L increases, emf induced across the inductor will increase leaving less voltage across the bulb.
Therefore, the glow of the light bulb decreases.
Q. 49 The graph which shows the variation of the De Broglie wavelength (A) of a particle and its
associated momentum (p) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The Broglie wavelength of a particle is
momentum of particle
Q. 50 The wavelength of an electron and of a photon are of same energy E are related by
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Energy of a photon -
- wherein
&
- wherein
For photon
For electron,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Q. 52 Which one of the following bonds produces a solid that reflects light in the visible region and
whose electrical conductivity decreases with temperature and has high melting point?
Option 1:
Covalent bonding
Option 2:
Metallic bonding
Option 3:
Van der Waal's bonding
Option 4:
Ionic bonding
Correct Answer:
Metallic bonding
Solution:
Metals (metallic bonds) have these physical properties-
1) Metals reflect the photons of the visible spectrum (light) falling on their surface, thus metals are often
silver-white or greyish with the characteristic specular reflection of metallic lustre.
2) The electrical conductivity of metals decreases with a rise in temperature.
3) Metals have a high melting point.
Option 1:
zener diode
Option 2:
junction diode
Option 3:
integrated circuit
Option 4:
junction transistor
Correct Answer:
integrated circuit
Solution:
The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is called Integrated Circuits
Q. 54 To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown below, the input must be
Option 1:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
Option 2:
a = 0, b = 1, c = 0
Option 3:
a = 0, b = 0, c = 1
Option 4:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Correct Answer:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Solution:
C=1
Q. 55 Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of
600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to the
occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be
Option 1:
0.02
Option 2:
0.03
Option 3:
0.04
Option 4:
0.01
Correct Answer:
0.02
Solution:
As discussed
e = end correction
Q. 56 Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm air and at 3500 m/s through a warm air and
at 3500 m/s through brass. The wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from
warm air
Option 1:
decreases by a factor 10
Option 2:
increases by a factor 20
Option 3:
increases by a factor 10
Option 4:
decreases by a factor 20
Correct Answer:
increases by a factor 10
Solution:
Here,
When a sound wave travels from one medium to another medium its frequency remains the same
Option 1:
3J
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
3J
Solution:
--------------------- (i)
in magnitude
-----------------(ii)
Q. 58 A coil of resistance 400 is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux (wb) linked with
the coil varies with time t ( ) as . The current in the coil at t=2 sec is:
Option 1:
0.5A
Option 2:
0.1A
Option 3:
2A
Option 4:
1A
Correct Answer:
0.5A
Solution:
As we learnt in
Q. 59 A sound wave of frequency 245 Hz travels with the speed of 300 ms -1 along the positive x-
axis. Each point of the wave moves to and fro through a total distance of 6 cm. What will be
the mathematical expression of this travelling wave ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
350 Hz
Option 2:
361 Hz
Option 3:
411 Hz
Option 4:
448 Hz
Correct Answer:
448 Hz
Solution:
As we learnt in
Frequency of sound when source and observer are moving towards each other -
- wherein
Speed of sound
Speed of observer
speed of source
Original frequency
apparent frequency
Chemistry
Q. 1 What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m aqueous solution ?
Option 1:
0.177
Option 2:
1.770
Option 3:
0.0354
Option 4:
0.0177
Correct Answer:
0.0177
Solution:
As we learned in
Q. 2 How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and I = 1?
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
14
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Each orbital contains 2 e.
n = 1 , l = 0 . m = 0 = 1s2
m has 3 value means 3 orbitals and each orbitals can have 2 electrons.
So total 6 electrons.
Q. 3 Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have
the highest ionization energy?
Option 1:
Ne [3s23p2]
Option 2:
Ar [3d104s24p3 ]
Option 3:
Ne [3s23p1]
Option 4:
Ne [3s23p3]
Correct Answer:
Ne [3s23p3]
Solution:
Option (d) has the highest ionisation energy because of extra stability associated with half-filled 3p-
orbital. In option (b), the presence of 3d10 electrons offers shielding effect, as a result the 4p3 electrons do
not experience much nuclear charge and hence the electrons can be removed easily.
Option 1:
octahedral, sp3d2
Option 2:
trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
Option 3:
planar triangle, sp3d3
Option 4:
square planar, sp3d2
Correct Answer:
octahedral, sp3d2
Solution:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The process is isothermal reversible expansion
Hence dT = 0
U=0
Q. 6 The standard electrode potentials of four metals A, B, C and D are - 1.2 V , 0.6 V,
0.85 V and - 0.76 V,respectively. The sequence of deposition of metals on applying potential
is :
Option 1:
A, C, B, D
Option 2:
B, D, C, A
Option 3:
C, B, D, A
Option 4:
D, A, B, C
Correct Answer:
C, B, D, A
Solution:
The higher the standard electrode potential of the metal, greater is its tendency to get reduced
and get deposited on the electrode.
Q. 7 A current of 10.0 A flows for 2.00 h through an electrolytic cell containing a molten salt of
metal X. This results in the decomposition of 0.250 mol of metal X at the cathode. The
oxidation state of X in the molten salt is : (F= 96,500 C)
Option 1:
1+
Option 2:
2+
Option 3:
3+
Option 4:
4+
Correct Answer:
3+
Solution:
i = 10 A, t = 2hr
Therefore, the correct option is (3).
Q. 8 How many electrons would be required to deposit 6.35 g of copper at the cathode during the
electrolysis of an aqueous solution of copper sulphate ? (Atomic mass of copper = 63.5 u,
NA=Avogadro’s constant) :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
According to the reaction:
After simplifying.
Therefore, Option 3 is correct.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
The given reaction is
Let's breakdown the reaction into parts and balance the electrons
Therefore balance the electrons we add 2 and 3 and multiply each by 2 and add all reactions.
Option 1:
D-fructose
Option 2:
D-ribose
Option 3:
D-glucose
Option 4:
L-glucose.
Correct Answer:
D-glucose
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cellulose -
- wherein
Linkage : linkage
Cellulose is a straight chain polymer of D-glucose, which upon hydrolysis gives its monomer (D-glucose)
Option 1:
Uracil
Option 2:
Cytosine
Option 3:
Guanine
Option 4:
Thymine
Correct Answer:
Uracil
Solution:
As we learnt in
Made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is ribose, Phosphoric acid and bases
(Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and uracil)
Option 1:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Option 2:
(A)-(S), (B)-(R), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Option 3:
(A)-(S), (B)-(R), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
Option 4:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
Correct Answer:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is ribose, Phosphoric acid and bases
(Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and uracil)
-
Phenelzine contains Hydrazine
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Haloform reaction -
- wherein
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Addition of Hydrogen Halide on alkene -
hydrogen halides add up to alkenes to form alkyl halides. The order of reactivity of the hydrogen halides
is HI>HBr>HCl
- wherein
Option 1:
(a) (b) (d)
Option 2:
(a) (b) (c)
Option 3:
(a) (c) (d)
Option 4:
(b) (c) (d)
Correct Answer:
(a) (b) (c)
Solution:
The reaction occurs as follows:
It is an example of an elimination reaction which follows Saytzeff rule.
Q. 16 Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the
following will not give a test of chloride ions with silver nitrate at ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The coordination number of Cobalt (III) in the octahedral complex is 6. In , all we have is 6
ligands, which implies all of them are in the coordination sphere and won't ionize.
Q. 17 The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex
(where is ethyenediamine) is:
Option 1:
9
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
has 3 bidentate ligands which can lead with 2 sites simultaneously. So, the
coordination number is
has a negative charge of 2. Add the negative charge on Cl and the total negative charge becomes
3. The actual atom must have a +3 charge to neutralize the complex.
therefore, O.N = +3
therefore, ON + CN = 3+6 = 9.
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Stereoisomers -
Stereoisomers have the same chemical formula and chemical bonds but have different spatial
arrangements.
,
Possible isomers are:
Since, this product is chiral, so its mirror image will also be a possible isomer. This one is not chiral. So, no
mirror image isomer.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The change in entropy for an ideal gas in terms of C(p) -
Where,
Now,
for isothermal process
and
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Based on the data given above ,strongest oxidising agent will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learned in
It measures the tendency of a chemical species to acquire electrons and thereby be reduced. It is
measured in volts or mv.
...........2
..........3
...........4
Higher the value of E° (ERP or Standard Reduction Potential) of the reaction, greater will be the oxidizing
power of the constituents.
Clearly, 1.51V>1.36V>1.33V>-0.74V
Therefore, the order of oxidizing power is :
Option 1:
3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
Option 2:
2-Methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid
Option 3:
4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid
Option 4:
4,4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid
Correct Answer:
3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
Solution:
Nomenclature of the given compound -
3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
(b)
(c)
Option 1:
(a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.
Option 2:
(a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction.
Option 3:
(a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions.
Option 4:
(a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
Correct Answer:
(a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction.
Solution:
Option 1:
Increase
Option 2:
Decrease
Option 3:
Remain Same
Option 4:
Either Increase or Decrease
Correct Answer:
Increase
Solution:
Henry's constant depends on temperature and nature of gas.
Q. 25 If k1 and k2 are the rate constants at temperature T1 and T2 then which of the following
relation holds good?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of above
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have the rate constant K1 at temperature T1 and rate constant K2 at temperature T2.
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
As we learnt in
Electronic Configuration -
Option 1:
has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
Option 2:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
Option 3:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuraton.
Option 4:
has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration
Correct Answer:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuraton.
Solution:
The electronic configuration of is . act as a strong field ligand and
does the pairing of 3d electrons and form a low spin complex.
Option 1:
Fluroboric acid
Option 2:
Hypophosphorus acid
Option 3:
Potassium halide
Option 4:
water
Correct Answer:
Hypophosphorus acid
Solution:
As we have learned
Option 1:
The product obtained by reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows
inversion of configuration.
Option 2:
Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other.
Option 3:
A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation.
Option 4:
reaction yields mixture of both enantiomers.
Correct Answer:
Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other.
Solution:
Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images on each other
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
III.Alkene
D. IV..Nitroalkane
Option 1:
A–IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Option 2:
A–I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Option 3:
A–I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Option 4:
A–III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Correct Answer:
A–III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Solution:
Q. 32 If Avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 x 1023 mol-1 to 6.022 x 1020 mol-1, this would
change :
Option 1:
the definition of mass in units of grams.
Option 2:
the mass of one mole of carbon.
Option 3:
the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation.
Option 4:
the ratio of elements to each other in a compund.
Correct Answer:
the mass of one mole of carbon.
Solution:
As we learnt in
One mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many particles or entities as there are atoms in
exactly 12 g (or 0.012 kg) of the 12C isotope.
1 mole of substance = 6.0221367 X 1023 units of that substance (such as atoms, molecules, or ions). The
number 6.0221367 X 1023 is known as Avogadro's number or Avogadro's constant.
Option 1:
de-Broglie's wavelength is given by , where m = mass of the particle, = group velocity of
the particle.
Option 2:
The uncertainty principle is
Option 3:
Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement.
Option 4:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.
Correct Answer:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.
Solution:
As we learned in
The principal quantum number determines the size and to large extent the energy of the orbital.
For a hydrogen-like atom, the energy of the 2s orbital is the same as the energy of the 2p orbital.
Q. 34 The formation of the oxide ion O2-(g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and
then an endothermic step as shown below:
Option 1:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration
Option 2:
ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom.
Option 3:
Oxygen is more electronegative.
Option 4:
Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion.
Correct Answer:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration
Solution:
The first electron gain enthalpy of the Oxygen atom is negative, as when the electron is added, the
attractive forces between the incoming electron and nucleus outweigh the repulsions in between
electrons.
But on adding the second electron, the repulsions take over attractive forces, hence it's an endothermic
process.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Resonance -
For molecules and ions showing resonance it is not possible to draw a single Lewis structure.All the
properties can only be explained by two or more Lewis structures.
- wherein
Because of double bond character in the carbon-carbon bridge this compound will have an atom planar.
Q. 36 At 320 K, a gas is 20% dissociated to A(g). The standard free energy change at 320 K and 1
atm in is approximately : (R=8.314 ; ln 2=0.693; ln 3=1.098)
Option 1:
4763
Option 2:
2068
Option 3:
1844
Option 4:
4281
Correct Answer:
4281
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Q. 37 Equimolar solutions of the following substances were prepared separately. Which one of
these will record the highest pH value?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Value of pH -
For all the species except BaCl2, pH will be lower than 7 because they are salt of a weak base and strong
acid.
is a salt of a strong base and strong acid so, its pH will be 7, the highest.
Q. 38 Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with atomic
numbers .Which one of them is expected to have the highest value ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Standard Electrode Potential Value -
value of Co is highest, which is 1.97 V.
Option 1:
(i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Option 2:
(iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
Option 3:
(ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
Option 4:
(ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)
Correct Answer:
(ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
Solution:
The ease of hydrolysis depends upon the magnitude of the partial positive charge on the carbonyl group.
Electron-withdrawing groups increase the magnitude of partial positive charge and electron-donating
groups decrease the magnitude of the partial positive charge. Thus, the decreasing order of reactivity
towards hydrolysis is:
Q. 40 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
Option 1:
Bond angle changes but bond length remain same
Option 2:
Both bond angle and bond length change
Option 3:
Both bond angles and bond length remains same
Option 4:
Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
Correct Answer:
Both bond angles and bond length remains same
Option 2:
Increases
Option 3:
First Increases then decreases
Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
Increases
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Solubility of Gases on Temperature and Pressure -
As
On increasing pressure, the collision of gas molecules on the liquid surface increases thus solubility of the
gas in liquid increases.
Option 1:
180
Option 2:
900
Option 3:
300
Option 4:
120
Correct Answer:
900
Solution:
We know this for first-order reactions-
So, half-lives
Then,
t = 900 sec
Option 1:
Th
Option 2:
Ac
Option 3:
Pa
Option 4:
U
Correct Answer:
Ac
Solution:
Electronic configuration - Actinoids follow the general configuration
Due to the electronic configuration of Actinium, it only shows a +3 oxidation state because,
after the loss of 3 electrons, actinium acquires noble gas electronic configuration.
Option 1:
has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
Option 2:
has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high spin configuration.
Option 3:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration.
Option 4:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
Correct Answer:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
Solution:
Magnetic Moments (spin only) -
Q. 45 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Order of acidic nature of the following compounds is A > B > C.
Option 1:
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Option 2:
A is false but R is true
Option 3:
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Option 4:
A is true but R is false
Correct Answer:
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Solution:
Acidic strength –I effect
effect
Option 1:
phenol < methanol < p-ethoxyphenol
Option 2:
methanol < p-ethoxyphenol < phenol
Option 3:
phenol <p-ethoxyphenol < methanol
Option 4:
methanol < phenol < p-ethoxyphenol
Correct Answer:
phenol <p-ethoxyphenol < methanol
Solution:
Phenol has one -OH group and the oxygen will resonate with benzene. Here the bond between O and C
will double bond most of the time.
p-ethoxyphenol has one -OH group and one -OCH3 , from both groups oxygen will resonate with
benzene. There are two oxygen is present, so they will resonate one by one. So, the Bond length between
C and O will be larger here than phenol.
Methanol has one -OH group and there will be no resonating between C and O. So, the Length between C
and O will be maximum.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction of tertiary arylamines with HNO2 -
Tertiary arylamines react with nitrous acid to form p - Nitroso aromatic compounds. Electrophilic
aromatic substitution occurs on the benzene ring in which a Nitroso group is substituted on the Benzene
ring.
Option 1:
Maltose and lactose has 1, 4-glycosidic linkage.
Option 2:
Sucrose and amylose has 1, 2-glycosidic linkage.
Option 3:
Cellulose and amylose has 1, 4-glycosidic linkage.
Option 4:
Lactose contains β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose.
Correct Answer:
Sucrose and amylose has 1, 2-glycosidic linkage.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Starch -
A polymer of that consists of having two components , amylose ( water soluble
unbranched chain ) and amylopectin ( water insoluble having branched chain)
- wherein
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
No. of electrons in
No. of electrons in
Q. 51 Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen
bond?
Option 1:
H 2 O2
Option 2:
HCN
Option 3:
Cellulose
Option 4:
Concentrated acetic acid
Correct Answer:
Cellulose
Solution:
Hydrogen Bonding -
Attractive force which binds hydrogen atom of one molecule with the electronegative ( F, O, N ) atom of
another molecule.
- wherein
It is of two type
1. Intermolecular and
2. Intramolecular
H2O2 , HCN and concentrated CH3 COOH (acetic acid) form inter-molecular hydrogen bonding while
cellulose has intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
Q. 52 fG
0 at 500 K for substance ‘S’ in liquid state and gaseous state are +100.7 kcal mol −1 and
+103 kcal mol−1 , respectively. Vapour pressure (in atm) of liquid ‘S’ at 500 K is approximately
equal to : (R=2 cal K−1 mol−1 )
Correct Answer:
0.1
Solution:
Δ G of equilibrium
At Equilibrium
and
Option 1:
These give unionized acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali.
Option 2:
Acids and alkalies in this solution are shielded from attack by other ions.
Option 3:
They have large excess of ions.
Option 4:
They have a fixed value of pH.
Correct Answer:
These give unionized acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali.
Solution:
Buffer Solutions - The solutions which resist change in pH on dilution or with the addition of small
amounts of acid or alkali are called buffer solutions.
Buffer solutions resist a change in pH because they react with any added acid or base to give a salt.
Option 1:
5, 2 and 8
Option 2:
5, 2 and 16
Option 3:
2, 5 and 8
Option 4:
2, 5 and 16
Correct Answer:
2, 5 and 16
Solution:
The given reaction is:
by correlating, we get
Therefore,option(4) is correct
Q. 55 Which of the following compounds will show the maximum 'enol' content?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Difinition of Tautomerism -
Tautomers are isomers of a compound that differ only in the position of the protons and electrons. The
carbon skeleton of the compound is unchanged. A reaction that involves simple proton transfer in an
intramolecular fashion is called tautomerism.
The stability of enol depends on the factors
(1) Resonance
(2) Hydrogen-bonding
(3) Hyperconjugation
(4) Hydrogen which is removed from - carbon should be acidic in Nature for enol formation.
Over the resonance effect decreases because of cross conjugation. So the stability of the enol form
decreases.
The two -dicarbonyl compounds have a higher enol content than the two mono carbonyl compounds
because hydrogen bonding and conjugation stabilize their enols. The enol content in C (a mono aldehyde)
is higher than D because of the reasons outlined above.
Q. 56 The value of & are 80, 145, 75, and 35 Kbar respectively, the least
soluble gas in water is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Gases having more values will have less solubility.
Q. 57 If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 second and 75% of the reaction occurs in 200 second, the
order of this reaction is :
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 second and 75% of the reaction occurs in 200 second -
Ans = 1
Option 1:
On passing through acidified solution, a milky colour is observed.
Option 2:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis.
Option 3:
solution in acidic medium is orange.
Option 4:
solution becomes yellow on increasing pH beyond 7.
Correct Answer:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis.
Solution:
Due to hygroscopic nature of
Option 1:
The -bond involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese.
Option 2:
There is no -bonding.
Option 3:
The -bonding involves the overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese.
Option 4:
The bonding involves overlap of d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese.
Correct Answer:
The -bond involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese.
Solution:
The -bonding takes place by the overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese.
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Primary is not formed very easily and hence, it does not give SN, reaction .
Maths
Q. 1 Let N denote the set of all natural numbers.
Define two binary relations on N as
and
Then :
Option 1:
Range of R1is {2, 4, 8}.
Option 2:
Range of is {1, 2, 3, 4}.
Option 3:
Both R1 and are symmetric
relations
Option 4:
Both R1 and are transitive
relations
Correct Answer:
Range of is {1, 2, 3, 4}.
Solution:
As we have learned
Range -
The range of the relation R is the set of all second elements of the ordered pairs in a relation R.
- wherein
So for
i.e.
Q. 2
if is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
are real and distinct, then the set of all values of ‘a’ is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
So
So for real value of x
But
So
Correct option is 3.
Q. 4 Consider three boxes, each containing 10 balls labelled Suppose one ball is
randomly drawn from each of the boxes. Denote by the label of the ball drawn from the
box, Then, the number of ways in which the balls can be chosen such that
is :
Option 1:
164
Option 2:
120
Option 3:
82
Option 4:
240
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
Theorem of Combination
Each of the different groups or selection which can be made by taking r things from n things is called a
combination.
Now, required number of ways is same as the number of ways of selecting 3 distinct numbers from 1
to 10,
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
Q. 6 Three positive numbers form an increasing G.P. If the middle term in this G.P. is doubled, the
new numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of the G.P. is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
a, ar, ar2 in G.P
Q. 7 The distance of the point (1, 0, 2) from the line point of intersection of the line
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
plane
intersect at P
x=3k+2, y=4k-1,z=12k+2
x-y+z=16
3k+2-4k+1+12k+2=16
11k-11 k=1
Point is (5,3,14)
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
L - Hospital Rule -
- wherein
If
Put, x=1, y=1
Put,
Q. 9 Let two fair six-faced dice A and B be thrown simultaneously. If E1 is the event that die A
shows up four, E2 is the event that die B shows up two and E3 is the event that the sum of
numbers on both dice is odd, then which of the following statements is NOT true ?
Option 1:
E1 and E2 are independent.
Option 2:
E2 and E3 are independent.
Option 3:
E1 and E3 are independent.
Option 4:
E1, E2 and E3 are independent.
Correct Answer:
E1, E2 and E3 are independent.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Independent events -
If A and B are independent events then probability of occurrence of A is not affected by occurrence or
non occurrence of event B.
and
so
-
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
If n is the order of a square matrix, then
But
Q. 11
The general solution of the differential equation, ,is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
=>P=-cosec2x
I.F. =
Q. 12 A circle passes through (−2, 4) and touches the y - axis at (0, 2). Which one of the following
equations can represent a diameter of this circle ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Since circle touches x=0 at the point (0, 2), so let the equation of circle be
It passes through
Thus,
Equation of circle is
Out of the given options, the line in option (B) satisfies this point, hence it is a diameter if the given circle
Q. 13
is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Walli's Method -
where
- wherein
Q. 14 If are unit vectors such that then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now,
Q. 15
Let be a function defined as , where and
. Then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16 Two ships A and B are sailing straight away from a fixed point O along routes such that
AOB is always 1200. At a certain instance, OA = 8 km, OB = 6 km and the ship A is sailing at
the rate of 20 km/hr while the ship B sailing at the rate of 30 km/hr. Then the distance
between A and B is changing at the rate (in km/hr) :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
The height or length of an object or the distance between two distant objects can be determined with the
help of trigonometric ratios.
-
.......................... (2)
Option 1:
straight line parallel to x-axis.
Option 2:
straight line parallel to y-axis.
Option 3:
circle of radius 2.
Option 4:
circle of radius
Correct Answer:
circle of radius 2.
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
Given ,
Q. 18 Let S be the set of all triangles in the xy-plane, each having one vertex at the origin and the
other two vertices lie on coordinate axes with integral coordinates. If each triangle is S has
area 50 sq. units, then the number of the elements in the set S is:
Option 1:
9
Option 2:
32
Option 3:
18
Option 4:
36
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:
Let and be vertices of
Eg, (5, 20) gives (5,20), (-5,20), (5, -20), (-5, -20)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Binomial Theorem
Now,
So, S =
= (1+x)11 - x11
Q. 20 Given an A.P. whose all terms are positive integers. The sum of its first nine terms is greater
than 200 and less than 220. If the second term in it is 12, then its 4th term is :
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
As we learnt in
Sum of n terms of an AP
or
In this Question,
Then a+3d=?
And d = 4 ( as d = 12 - a)
4th term = a + 3d = 8 + 12 = 20
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of any plane passing through the line of intersection of two planes (Cartesian form ) -
The equation of any plane passing through the line of intersection of two planes
and
is given by
After substituting
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Let,
So that
m=4
and
Correct option is 4.
Q. 23 Let X be a set containing 10 elements and P(X) be its power set. If A and B are picked up at
random from P(X), with replacement, then the probability that A and B have equal number of
elements, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Let S be the sample space then the probability of occurrence of an event E is denoted by P(E) and it is
defined as
- wherein
Probability =
Q. 24
If
Correct Answer: 24
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
Q. 25 At present, a firm is manufacturing 2000 items. It is estimated that the rate of change of
production P w.r.t. additional number of workers is given by . If the
firm employs 25 more workers, then the new level of production of items is:
Correct Answer:
3500
Solution:
and for x = 25
Option 1:
7
Option 2:
-7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
-5
Correct Answer:
-7
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of directrices -
- wherein
or
for Hyperbola
Also
Also,
Q. 27 The area (in sq. units) of the region
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let be two curve then area bounded between the curves and the lines
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
and
Area
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein
Here
- wherein
7
Q. 29 Consider the following two relations on the set A = {a,b,c},
and
Then :
Option 1:
both R1 and R2 are not symmetric.
Option 2:
R1 is not symmetric but it is transitive.
Option 3:
R2 is symmetric but it is not transitive.
Option 4:
both R1 and R2 are transitive.
Correct Answer:
R2 is symmetric but it is not transitive.
Solution:
As we learned
Now,
Reflexive: R1 is reflexive since (a,a), (b,b) and (c,c) are present.
Transitive: (b,c) and (c,a) belong to the relation, but (b,a) does not. So, it is not transitive.
Symmetric: (a,b) and (b,a) both are present. Also (c,a) and (a,c) are also present,. So, it is symmetric
Transitive: (b,a), (a,c) are present but (b,c) is not present, so not transitive
Q. 30 if then is equal to :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Now,
Q. 31 Let and be the roots of equation
is equal to:
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
-6
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
-3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
- wherein
- wherein
Option 1:
250
Option 2:
374
Option 3:
372
Option 4:
375
Correct Answer:
374
Solution:
Natural numbers less than 7,000
There are 3 ways to fill position 1 (i.e. 0,1,3: 0 can be there as it can also be a number which has lesser
than 4 digits) and for the remaining position there are 5 ways each so,
(0000 is not included as it is not a natural number, so we subtract 1)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt
Now,
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
As we learnt in
Now,
20 terms
Put n=1,2,3...n
Put n=20
k=120
Q. 35
The image of the line in the plane is the line :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Image of a point -
Q. 36
Option 1:
−2
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
−2
Solution:
Option 1:
66
Option 2:
69
Option 3:
74
Option 4:
75
Correct Answer:
74
Solution:
Q. 38
if is a matrix satisfying the equation AAT=9I, where I is 3x3
(a, b) is equal to :
Option 1:
(2, -1)
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Multiplication of matrices -
by given condition
Q. 39 Let be the solution of the differential equation
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt
- wherein
Thus
also
Thus
put
and
Q. 40 A ray of light is incident along a line which meets another line, 7x − y + 1 = 0, at the point (0,
1). The ray is then reflected from this point along the line, y + 2x = 1. Then the equation of
the line of incidence of the ray of light is :
Option 1:
41x − 38y + 38 = 0
Option 2:
41x + 25y − 25 = 0
Option 3:
41x + 38y − 38 = 0
Option 4:
41x − 25y + 25 = 0
Correct Answer:
41x − 38y + 38 = 0
Solution:
Q. 41
The integral
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Integration by substitution -
The functions when on substitution of the variable of integration to some quantity gives any one of
standard formulas.
- wherein
Let
Thus I=
Q. 42 The sum of the distinct real values of , for which the vectors,
are co-planar, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For these vectors to be coplanar
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number of subsets of a set -
In this Question,
Subsets = Total Subsets - Number of subsets which have only odd numbers
Q. 44 The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point P on the horizontal ground
was observed to be . After moving a distance 2 metres from P towards the foot of the
tower, the angle of elevation changes to . Then the height of the tower (in metres) is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now, PQ=2
Q. 45 if then a value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
We have to find
Now
Now x2 - y2 + i 2xy = 7 + 24 i
Correct option is 1.
Q. 46 Consider a class of 5 girls and 7 boys. The number of different teams consisting of 2 girls and
3 boys that can be formed from this class, if there are two specific boys A and B, who refuse
to be members of the same team, is:
Option 1:
500
Option 2:
200
Option 3:
300
Option 4:
250
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
Required number of ways
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Binomial Coefficient of the middle term is greatest.
Now,
Q. 48 In a geometric progression, if the ratio of the sum of first 5 terms to the sum of their
reciprocals is 49, and the sum of the first and the third term is 35. Then the first term of this
geometric progression is :
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
Let the G.P is G, Gr, Gr2.................
Given that
( -7 is rejected because first and third term always have the same sign, and thus their sum cannot equal
35 if Gr2 = third term = -7)
Q. 49 Equation of the plane which passes through the point of intersection of lines
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
The equation of a line passing through two points and parallel to vector having direction ratios as
is given by
- wherein
Point of interactionof two lines
and
Point is (4,3,5)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given function is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Let S be the sample space then the probability of occurrence of an event E is denoted by P(E) and it is
defined as
- wherein
If we consider equilateral triangle, there are 63 occurrences of non-equilateral triangle and 6 occurrences
of equilateral triangle.
Required probability =
Q. 52 The set of all values of for which the system of linear equations :
Option 1:
is an empty set.
Option 2:
is a singleton.
Option 3:
contains two elements.
Option 4:
contains more than two elements.
Correct Answer:
contains two elements.
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and
Q. 53 The differential equation representing the family of ellipses having foci either on the
x-axis or on the y-axis, center at the origin and passing through the point (0, 3) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
A differential equation can be derived from its equation by the process of differentiation and other
algebraical process of elimination
Let y and x be the dependent and the independent variables respectively. The equation of (x, y, c) = 0 , is
family of curves
- wherein
Equation of ellipse :
; differentiating we get
Q. 54 A straight line through origin O meets the lines 3y = 10 − 4x and 8x + 6y + 5 = 0 at points A
and B respectively. Then O divides the segment AB in the ratio
Option 1:
2:3
Option 2:
1:2
Option 3:
4:1
Option 4:
3:4
Correct Answer:
4:1
Solution:
Given equation of the lien are
4x + 3y = 10
and 8x + 6y + 5 = 0
Q. 55
For x>0,let
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Integration by substitution -
The functions when on substitution of the variable of integration to some quantity gives any one of
standard formulas.
- wherein
Put t= (substitution)
=
=
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 57 The number of functions f from {1,2,3,........,20} onto {1,2,3,........,20} such that f(k) is a
multiple of 3, whenever k is a multiple of 4, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Onto function -
If f:A B is such that each & every element in B is the f image of atleast one element in A.Then it is Onto
function.
- wherein
f(k) = 3,6,9,12,15,18
for k = 4,8,12,16,20
ways = 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 6!
Option 1:
Both statements I and II are true.
Option 2:
Both statements I and II are false.
Option 3:
Statement I is true and statement II is false.
Option 4:
Statement I is false and statement II is true.
Correct Answer:
Statement I is false and statement II is true.
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
When
However, this is an insufficient condition as sin-1 x is between which will impose additional
constraints.
Not true
Statement 2: (true)
Hence,
Hence,
Q. 59
If z is a complex number such that then the minimum value of
Option 1:
is strictly greater than
Option 2:
is strictly greater than but less than
Option 3:
is equal to
Option 4:
lies in the interval (1, 2)
Correct Answer:
lies in the interval (1, 2)
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
Hence,
Q. 60 The number of ways in which the examiner can assign 30 marks to 8 questions, giving not
less than 2 marks to any questions, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence,
Mock Test 5
Physics
Q. 1 The focal length of the objective and the eyepiece of compound microscope are 2cm and 3cm
respectively. The distance between the objective and eyepiece is 15 cm. The final image formed by
eyepiece is at infinity the distance (in cm) of the object and image produced by the objective,
measured from the objective lens are respectively.
Option 1:
2.4 and 12
Option 2:
2.4 and 15
Option 3:
2.3 and 3
Option 4:
2.3 and 12
Correct Answer:
2.4 and 12
Solution:
As we learnt
= 2 cm = 3cm
l = 15cm
Final image formed at infinity hence image formed by objective is at focal point of eyepiece
For objective:
or
or,
Q. 2 In a Young's double slit experiment, the path difference , at a certain point on the screen
between two interfering waves is of the wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this
point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is close to:
Option 1:
0.80
Option 2:
0.94
Option 3:
0.85
Option 4:
0.74
Correct Answer:
0.85
Solution:
Resultant Intensity of two wave -
- wherein
Phase difference
Putting
we get
At the centre
Q. 3 In young's double slit experiment, 16 fringes are observed in a certain segment of the
screen when light of wavelength 700 nm is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400
nm, the number of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen would be:
Option 1:
30
Option 2:
28
Option 3:
18
Option 4:
24
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
Q. 4 A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 shows full scale deflection when a current of
1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0
amp by:
Option 1:
putting in series a resistance of 15
Option 2:
putting in series a resistance of 240
Option 3:
putting in parallel a resistance of 15
Option 4:
putting in parallel a resistance of 240
Correct Answer:
putting in parallel a resistance of 15
Solution:
Galvanometer is a very sensitive instrument therefore it cannot measure heavy currents. In order to
convert a Galvanometer into an Ammeter, a very low shunt resistance is connected in parallel to
Galvanometer. The value of shunt is so adjusted that most of the current pass through the shunt.
If the resistance of the galvanometer is and it gives full-scale deflection when current is passed
through it.
Then,
Q. 5 A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in
series. If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of 20 ohm, the reading in
the ammeter will be:
Option 1:
0.25 A
Option 2:
2A
Option 3:
1A
Option 4:
0.5 A
Correct Answer:
0.5 A
Solution:
As we learnt in
Ammeter -
- wherein
Resistance of ammeter is
As ammeter is in series with 40.8 Ω
R=40.8Ω Ω+19.2Ω
Q. 6 A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm.
The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the
Figure, is:
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
0.6
Correct Answer:
0.6
Solution:
Q. 7 A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf and internal
resistance r) as a function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope, and intercept, of
the graph between V and I, then, respectively, equal:
Option 1:
- r and
Option 2:
r and -
Option 3:
- and r
Option 4:
and - r
Correct Answer:
- r and
Solution:
The terminal potential difference (V) of a cell is given as
V= - Ir ----------(1)
Q. 8 The thermo e.m.f. E in volts of a certain thermo-couple is found to vary with temperature
difference in °C between the two junctions according to the relation
Option 2:
400°C
Option 3:
225°C
Option 4:
30°C
Correct Answer:
225°C
Solution:
Q. 9 To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is
Option 1:
A=0, B=1, C=0
Option 2:
A=1, B=0, C=0
Option 3:
A=1, B=1, C=0
Option 4:
A=1, B=0, C=1
Correct Answer:
A=1, B=0, C=1
Solution:
OR gate -
- wherein
Y is out put
AND Gate -
- wherein
Y is output
Y = (A+B).C
From left side the first gate is OR gate and next one is AND gate. So the out put of OR gate is A+B and the
output of AND gate Y=(A+B).C
We know that for AND gate the put will be 1 if both inputs are 1. So, A+B=1and C=1
Q. 10 An object is placed at a distance of 15cm from a concave mirror of the focal lenth 10cm. The
magnification of the image is:
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
-2
Option 3:
0.4
Option 4:
-0.4
Correct Answer:
-2
Solution:
As we learn
Mirror Formula -
- wherein
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
-2
Option 3:
0.4
Option 4:
-0.4
Correct Answer:
-2
Solution:
As we learned
Mirror Formula -
- wherein
Option 1:
0.25 I1
Option 2:
0.75 I1
Option 3:
I1
Option 4:
0.5 I1
Correct Answer:
0.75 I1
Solution:
As we learn
- wherein
Q. 13 In a Young’s double slit experiment with light of wavelength the separation of slits is d and
distance of screen is D such that D > > d > > . If the Fringe width is , the distance from
point of maximum intensity to the point where intensity falls to half of maximum intensity
on either side is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Malus Law -
- wherein
- wherein
Distance of
Maxima
Distance of
maxima
Here
so
(i)
(ii)
Correct option is 2.
Q. 14 The following Figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output Y.The
voltage waveforms of A,B and Y are given:
Option 1:
NAND gate
Option 2:
NOR gate
Option 3:
OR gate
Option 4:
AND gate
Correct Answer:
NAND gate
Solution:
As we learnt in
NAND gate -
Y is out put
A B Y
1 1 0
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
This represents NAND gate
Q. 15 A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V is used in a voltage regulator circuit
shown in figure. The current through the diode is:
Option 1:
20 mA
Option 2:
5 mA
Option 3:
10 mA
Option 4:
15 mA
Correct Answer:
5 mA
Solution:
Q. 16 If the energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 13.6 ev then the energy of He+ ion in
the first excited state will be -
Option 1:
-6.8 ev
Option 2:
-54.4 ev
Option 3:
-27.2 ev
Option 4:
-13.6 ev
Correct Answer:
-13.6 ev
Solution:
As we learn
- wherein
Q. 17 In a radioactive decay chain , the initial nucleus is . At the end there are 6 -
particles and 4 - particles which are emitted. . If the end nucleus is , A and Z are given
by :
Option 1:
A = 208 ; Z = 80
Option 2:
A = 200 ; Z = 81
Option 3:
A = 202 ; Z = 80
Option 4:
A = 208 ; Z = 82
Correct Answer:
A = 208 ; Z = 82
Solution:
α -decay -
- wherein
β minus decay -
- wherein
Initially
Let finally
So let reaction
Balance Z -
Balance A -
So A =208 and Z = 82
Q. 18
A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field U(r) = . If
Bohr's quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals and energy levels vary
with quantum number n as :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 For a radioactive material T is half life, then the fraction that would remain after a time T/2 is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
- wherein
Q. 20 A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the
banking angle is 45°, the speed of the car is:
Option 1:
20 ms-1
Option 2:
30 ms-1
Option 3:
5 ms-1
Option 4:
10 ms-1
Correct Answer:
30 ms-1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Bending a Cyclist -
From figure.
(i)
(ii)
V = velocity
r = radius of track
- wherein
Correct option is 2.
Q. 21 A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle . The
coefficient of friction between the types of the car and the road is s. The maximum safe
velocity on this road is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
angle of banking
coefficient of friction
V = velocity
- wherein
Option 1:
B
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
D
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
B
Solution:
According to parallel axis theorem,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
g/L
Option 4:
2g/L
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Option 1:
Disc
Option 2:
Ring
Option 3:
Solid sphere
Option 4:
Hollow sphere
Correct Answer:
Disc
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
K=Radius of gyration
= Angle of inclination
After solving
so object is disc.
Q. 25 If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity will
be:
Option 1:
Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = -1
Option 2:
Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = -2
Option 3:
Force if a = 0, b = - 1, c = - 2
Option 4:
Pressure if a = 1, b = - 1, c = - 2
Correct Answer:
Pressure if a = 1, b = - 1, c = - 2
Solution:
and
and
and
Option 1:
[L-1 T]
Option 2:
[L T-1]
Option 3:
[L1/2 T1/2]
Option 4:
[L1/2 T-1/2]
Correct Answer:
[L T-1]
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
C=
Correct option is 2.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
5 Units
Option 4:
9 Units
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 28 The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point
B is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of path -
it is equation of parabola
initial velocity
Angle of projection
- wherein
From Fig, x component remains unchanged, while the y component is Reverse, so velocity at point B will
be
Correct option is 4.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
4 RT
Option 2:
15 RT
Option 3:
9 RT
Option 4:
11 RT
Correct Answer:
11 RT
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
(Always)
is degree of freedom
or
Correct option is 4.
Q. 31 Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram.
Column-1 Column-2
P. Process I a. Adiabatic
Q. Process II b. Isobaric
S. Process IV d. Isothermal
Option 1:
P a, Q c, R d, S b
Option 2:
P c, Q a, R d, S b
Option 3:
P c, Q d, R b, S a
Option 4:
P d, Q b, R a, S c
Correct Answer:
P c, Q a, R d, S b
Solution:
Q. 32 A body of mass 'm' is taken from the earth's surface to the height equal to twice the radius
(R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
mg 2R
Option 3:
Option 4:
3 mgR
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Mass = m, height = 2R
At height the acceleration due to gravity decreases , hence the value of acceleration due to gravity
becomes
Q. 33 A body of mass 'm' is taken from the earth's surface to the height equal to twice the radius
(R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
3 mgR
Option 3:
Option 4:
mg2R
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
mass of body
Mass of earth
- wherein
Q. 34 A particle of mass m is dropped from a height h above the ground. At the same time another
particle of the same mass is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a speed of
. If they collide head-on completely inelastically, the time taken for the combined
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
After t1 -
and
so time
Q. 35 A constant power delivering machine has towed a box, which was initially at rest , along a
horizontal straight line. The distance moved by the box in time 't' is proportional to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 36 There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not mix and of densities d1
and d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends 900 angles at the centre. The radius joining
their interface makes an angle with vertical. Ratio is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Pressure at interface A must be the same from both sides in equilibrium.
So
Q. 37 In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass of all the molecules is halved and their
speed is doubled, then the resultant pressure will be:
Option 1:
4P
Option 2:
2P
Option 3:
P
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
2P
Solution:
Pressure of a gas -
- wherein
m = mass of a molecule
Pressure of a gas
Q. 38 Three rods of Copper, Brass and Steel are welded together to form a Y - shaped structure.
Area of cross - section of each rod = 4 cm2. End of copper rod is maintained at 1000C where
as ends of brass and steel are kept at 00C. Lengths of the copper, brass and steel rods are
46, 13 and 12 cms respectively. The rods are thermally insulated from surroundings except
at ends. Thermal conductivities of copper, brass and steel are 0.92, 0.26 and 0.12 CGS units
respectively. Rate of heat flow through copper rod is :
Option 1:
1.2 cal/s
Option 2:
2.4 cal/s
Option 3:
4.8 cal/s
Option 4:
6.0 cal/s
Correct Answer:
4.8 cal/s
Solution:
The arrangement of rods is shown in the above figure.
So using
So
Q. 39 The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius 'r') is inversely proportional to:
Option 1:
r3
Option 2:
r2
Option 3:
r
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
r2
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
temperature
Boltzmann's Constant
Option 1:
1.8 X 104 V
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
1.8 V
Option 4:
1.4 X 108 V
Correct Answer:
1.8 X 104 V
Solution:
The electric potential due to charged ring at its axial position is given by
Q. 41 Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ as shown in the following
figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
- wherein
Hence force experienced by the charge at A in the direction normal to BC is zero.
Q. 42 Figure shows a solid hemisphere with a charge of 5 nC distributed uniformly throughout its
volume. The hemisphere lies on a plane and point P is located on the plane, along a radial
line from the centre of curvature at distance 15 cm. The electric potential (in Volt) at point P
due to the hemisphere, is :
Option 1:
150
Option 2:
300
Option 3:
450
Option 4:
600
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
- wherein
By argument of symmetry, it will be half of the potential produced by the full sphere
Q Charge on hemisphere = Q,
so charge on sphere = 2Q
Q. 43 A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform
magnetic field. What should be the energy of an - particle to describe a circle of same
radius in the same field?
Option 1:
1 MeV
Option 2:
0.5 MeV
Option 3:
4 MeV
Option 4:
2 MeV
Correct Answer:
1 MeV
Solution:
E = Kinetic energy
Rproton = R -particle
and
Option 1:
8
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Induced Charge -
- wherein
Q. 45 A proton carrying 1MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of redius R in uniform
magnetic field. What should be the energy of an -particle to describe a circle of same radius
in the same field?
Option 1:
2MeV
Option 2:
1MeV
Option 3:
0.5MeV
Option 4:
4MeV
Correct Answer:
1MeV
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
Q. 46 In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is
removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the
circuit is . If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again . The
power factor of the circuit is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Impedence -
Power factor -
- wherein
resistance
impedence
when C is removed from the Circuit
Power factor
Option 1:
will become rigid showing no movement
Option 2:
will stay in any position
Option 3:
will stay in north-south direction only
Option 4:
will stay in east-west direction only
Correct Answer:
will stay in any position
Solution:
As we learnt in
Total intensity can be resolved into horizontal component (BH) and vertical component (Bv)
-
A compass needle which is allowed to move a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It will Stay
in any Position as the horizontal. Component of earth is naganetic field become Zero at the geomagnetic
pole.
Q. 48 The current (I) in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure.
Which one of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the coil?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
slope of graph
Q. 49 For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cut-off frequency is v. If radiation of
frequency 2v impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted
electron will be (m is the electron mass)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Conservation of energy -
- wherein
here
Q. 50 Which of the following figures represent the variation of particle momentum and the
associated de-Broglie wavelength ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Momentum of photon -
- wherein
The graph between will be rectangular hyperbola. Hence correct option is 4.
Q. 51 If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage
change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is :
Option 1:
25
Option 2:
75
Option 3:
60
Option 4:
50
Correct Answer:
75
Solution:
As we have learned in
De - Broglie wavelength -
- wherein
Kinetic energy
or (E = Kinetic energy)
Change in wavelength
Q. 52 Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 x 1016
m-3. Doping by Indium increases nh to 4.5 x 1022 m-3.
Option 1:
n-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 x 1023 m-3
Option 2:
p-type having electron concentration ne = 5 x 109 m-3
Option 3:
n-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 x 1022 m-3
Option 4:
p-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 x 1010 m-3
Correct Answer:
p-type having electron concentration ne = 5 x 109 m-3
Solution:
Q. 53 A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at Vc = 2 V such that a change in
the base current from 100 A to 300 A produces a change in the collector current from 10
mA to 20 mA. The current gain is:
Option 1:
25
Option 2:
50
Option 3:
75
Option 4:
100
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Q. 54 If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal:
Option 1:
Its resistance is increased
Option 2:
It becomes a p-type semiconductor
Option 3:
The antimony becomes an acceptor atom
Option 4:
There will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
Correct Answer:
There will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
Solution:
When a small amount of antimony (pentavalent) is added to germanium (tetravalent) crystal, then crystal
becomes n-type semiconductor. In n-type semiconductor electrons are the majority charge carriers and
the holes are the minority charge carriers.
Q. 55 Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage
is increased to 100 kV, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would:
Option 1:
Increase by 4 times
Option 2:
Increase by 2 times
Option 3:
Decrease by 2 times
Option 4:
Decrease by 4 times
Correct Answer:
Decrease by 2 times
Solution:
Q. 56 Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
respectively, illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of
maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be:
Option 1:
1:5
Option 2:
1:4
Option 3:
1:2
Option 4:
1:1
Correct Answer:
1:2
Solution:
Q. 57 An -particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83cm in the presence of a magnetic field
of . The wavelength associated with the particle will be:
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
0.1
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
0.01
Correct Answer:
0.01
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
Q. 58 A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the
induced e.m.f. is:
Option 1:
six times per revolution
Option 2:
once per revolution
Option 3:
twice per revolution
Option 4:
four times per revolution
Correct Answer:
twice per revolution
Solution:
As we learnt in
Option 1:
10 Hz
Option 2:
20 Hz
Option 3:
30 Hz
Option 4:
40 Hz
Correct Answer:
20 Hz
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
length of pipe
number of overtones
Nearest harmonics of an organ pipe closed at one and differ by twice of its fundamental frequency
Q. 60 Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n - 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose
to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Beat -
A phenomena resuits when two sound wave having equal amplitude and travelling in a medium in the
same direction but having slightly different frequency.
Beat Frequency -
- wherein
Chemistry
Q. 1 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of
water produced in this reaction will be -
Option 1:
1 mol
Option 2:
2 mol
Option 3:
3 mol
Option 4:
4 mol
Correct Answer:
4 mol
Solution:
The reaction will be-
Two moles of H2 and one mole of O2 will produce two moles of water.
5 Moles of H2 can produce 5 moles of water while 2 moles of O2 can produce 4 moles of water.
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
An asymmetric carbon atom (chiral carbon) is a carbon atom that is attached to four different types
of atoms or groups of atoms.
Option 1 is correct.
Q. 3 For the second period elements, the correct increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is
Option 1:
Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
Option 2:
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
Option 3:
Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
Option 4:
Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
Correct Answer:
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
Solution:
Ionization enthalpy -
It is defined as the minimum energy required to remove the electron from the outermost shell of an
isolated gaseous atom (X) to form the gaseous ion.
- where
On moving left to right in the period, atomic radii of elements decrease as the effective nuclear charge
increases. Hence, the Ionization energy increases along the period.
For N and O, Nitrogen has half filled (2p3) electronic configuration while O (2p4) has partially. Hence, the
ionization energy of N is more than that of O.
For B and Be, In B electron is to be removed from p- subshell ( 2s22p1), and in Be, it is from (2s2).
Since the penetration power of s>p>d>f. More energy is required to take an electron out from Be than B.
Option 1:
sp, sp3 and sp2
Option 2:
sp2, sp3 and sp
Option 3:
sp, sp2 and sp3
Option 4:
sp2, sp and sp3
Correct Answer:
sp, sp2 and sp3
Solution:
Dettermination of shape of molecules using VSEPR Theory -
-
For
For
Q. 5 Given:
Correct Answer:
-56.2
Solution:
The given reaction can be obtained by multiplying the second reaction with 3 and adding with the first
equation
Correct Answer:
4.08
Solution:
Oxidation Number -
Oxidation number denotes the oxidation state of an element in a compound ascertained according to a
set of rules formulated on the basis that electron pair in a covalent bond belongs entirely to more
electronegative elements.
3x + 2 (0.98 -x) = 2
x + 1.96 = 2
x = 0.04
Q. 7 When 9.65 ampere current was passed for 1.0 hour into nitrobenzene in acidic medium, the
amount of p-aminophenol produced (in g) is :
Correct Answer:
9.81
Solution:
Faraday's first law of electrolysis -
The mass of any substance deposited or dissolved at any electrode during electrolysis is directly
proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution.
W=ZIt
Q. 8 How long (approximate in hours) should water be electrolysed by passing through 100
amperes current so that the oxygen released can completely burn 27.66 g of diborane ?
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Faraday's first law of electrolysis -
The mass of any substance deposited or dissolved at any electrode during electrolysis is directly
propotional to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution.
- wherein
W=ZIt
So 3 moles of O2 is required
Q. 9 When an electric current is passed through acidified water, 112 mL of hydrogen gas at N.T.P.
was collected at the cathode in 965 seconds. The current assed, inampere , is :
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Faraday's first law of electrolysis -
The mass of any substance deposited or dissolved at any electrode during electrolysis is directly
proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution.
W = ZIt
Z = electrochemical equivalent
i = 1 ampere
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Nucleoside -
1. Pentose sugar
2. Nitrogenous base
Q. 11
Option 1:
Glucose and manmose
Option 2:
mannose and galactose
Option 3:
Glucose and fructose
Option 4:
fructose and galactose
Correct Answer:
Glucose and fructose
Solution:
As we have learned
Sucrose is boiled with dilute or in alcoholic solution , glucose (dextorotatory) and fructose
(laevorotatory) are obtained in equal amount .
- wherein
Glucose and fructose are obtained when sucrose is boiled with dilute acid
Q. 12
What is A ?
Option 1:
Fructose
Option 2:
Glucose
Option 3:
mannose
Option 4:
Galactose
Correct Answer:
Glucose
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
Starch can be hydralysed to glucose by boiling with dilute acid or by actiion of enzymes like amylase
Is an example of ________
Option 1:
Benzylic halide
Option 2:
Aryl Halide
Option 3:
Allylic halide
Option 4:
Vinylic halide
Correct Answer:
Allylic halide
Solution:
Option 1:
CH3COCl
Option 2:
CH3COOCH3
Option 3:
CH3CONH2
Option 4:
CH3COOCOCH3
Correct Answer:
CH3COCl
Solution:
is most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group as chloride ion is a good
leaving group.
Q. 15 The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives 'X' and reaction in presence of
light gives 'Y'. Thus, 'X' and 'Y' are:
Option 1:
X=Benzal chloride, Y=0-Chlorotoluene
Option 2:
X=m-Chlorotoluene, Y=p-Chlorotoluene
Option 3:
X= o- and p - Chlorotoluene, Y= Trichloromethyl - benzene
Option 4:
X = Benzyl chloride, Y= m - Chlorotoluene
Correct Answer:
X= o- and p - Chlorotoluene, Y= Trichloromethyl - benzene
Solution:
Halogenation reaction of haloarene -
1,2 - di chlorobenzene
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Splitting occurs as follows for octahedral
For High spin complex and low spin complexes, the respective arrangement of electrons will be
CN- being a strong field ligand casusedcausede splitting and forms a low spin complex with electronic
configuration. is the correct distribution.
Option 2 is correct.
Q. 17 Which of the following is correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form
coordination compounds?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination Compounds -
List - I List - II
(b) (ii) 0 BM
Option 1:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c)- (i), (d)- (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c)- (iii), (d)- (i)
Option 3:
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c)- (iv), (d)- (ii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c)- (ii), (d)- (iii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c)- (ii), (d)- (iii)
Solution:
is a strong field ligand and will cause pairing while is a weak field ligand and will not cause
pairing
Thus, which has configuration and will have 1 unpaired electron in the complex with and
5 unpaired electrons in the complex with
And, which has configuration and will have 0 unpaired electron in the complex with and 4
unpaired electrons in the complex with
1 1.73
5 5.92
0 0
4 4.9
Q. 19 Which of the following lines correctly show the temperature dependence of equilibrium
constant, K, for an exothermic reaction ?
Option 1:
A and D
Option 2:
A and B
Option 3:
B and C
Option 4:
C and D
Correct Answer:
A and B
Solution:
As we learnt,
and,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Lewis acids and bases - Lewis defined an acid as a species that accepts electron pairs and bases which
donate an electron pair.
In lewis acid, many acids do not have protons but have vacant orbitals to accept lone pair of electrons.
has no lone pair of electrons but can accept lone pair of electrons acting as a lewis acid.
Q. 21 for NaCl, HCl and NaA are 126.4, 425.9 and 100.5 S cm2mol-1, respectively. If the
conductivity of 0.001 M HA is 5 X 10-5 S cm-1, degree of dissociation of HA is :
Correct Answer:
0.125
Solution:
We know
Option 1:
5-Chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
Option 2:
2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
Option 3:
3-Chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
Option 4:
2-Methyl-5-nitro-1-chlorobenzene
Correct Answer:
2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
Solution:
All three functional group attached to the benzene ring are to be treated as substituents with no
particular order of priority.
Hence lowest locant rule will be followed and the numbering will be done as shown
Thus, the IUPAC name of the given compound following alphabetical order is
2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Addition of water on alkyne -
By the addition of water on alkyne in presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4 alkyne give aldehyde or ketone.
- wherein
Q. 24 The freezing point of a diluted milk sample is found to be , while it should have
been for pure milk. How much water has been added to pure milk to make the
diluted sample ?
Option 1:
2 cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk.
Option 2:
3 cups of water to 2 cups of pure milk.
Option 3:
1 cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk.
Option 4:
1 cup of water to 2 cups of pure milk.
Correct Answer:
3 cups of water to 2 cups of pure milk.
Solution:
Freezing point of milk
Q. 25
For a first-order reaction, , (half-life) is 10 days. The time required for
conversion of A (in days) is :
Correct Answer:
4.1
Solution:
Fro the first-order reaction: -
Q. 26 Which of the statements is not true?
Option 1:
On passing through acidified solution, a milky colour is observed
Option 2:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis
Option 3:
solution in acidic medium is orange
Option 4:
solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
Correct Answer:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis
Solution:
A hygroscopic substance is one that readily attracts water from its surroundings, through either
absorption or adsorption.
Option 1:
Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms
Option 2:
Unidentate ligand
Option 3:
Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
Option 4:
Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
Correct Answer:
Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms
Solution:
The structure of EDTA is -
It is a Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms.
Q. 28 The increasing order of the acidity of the following carboxylic acids is:
Option 1:
I < III < II < IV
Option 2:
IV < II < III < I
Option 3:
II < IV < III < I
Option 4:
III < II < IV < I
Correct Answer:
III < II < IV < I
Solution:
As we learnt in
Ring deactivating groups increases the acidic character whereas ring activating groups decreases the
acidic strength.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Nucleophilic Substitution Reaction -
reaction involves the formation of carbocation tertiary carbocation tertiary carbocation is most
stable.
Q. 30 When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces:
Option 1:
Glycerol Triiodide
Option 2:
2-iodopropane
Option 3:
Allyl iodide
Option 4:
Propene
Correct Answer:
2-iodopropane
Solution:
When glycerol is treated with an excess of HI, it produces 2-iodopropane.
In the first step, a molecule of glycerol reacts with 3 HI molecules to form an unstable 1,2,3-
triiodopropane. This loses a molecule of iodine to form allyl iodide.
Allyl iodide adds a molecule of HI to obtain an unstable molecule which loses a molecule of iodine to form
propene.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Alcohols reaction with phosphorus trihalides -
- wherein
X = Cl, Br, I
Option 1:
0.477 M and 0.477 M
Option 2:
0.955 M and 1.910 M
Option 3:
1.910 M and 0.955 M
Option 4:
1.90 M and 1.910 M
Correct Answer:
1.910 M and 0.955 M
Solution:
Option 1:
The uncertainty principle is:
Option 2:
Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement.
Option 3:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen-like atoms.
Option 4:
de-Broglie's wavelength is given by
where m=mass of the particle , v=group velocity of the particle
Correct Answer:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen-like atoms.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Option 1:
(d), (iv)
Option 2:
(a), (i)
Option 3:
(b), (ii)
Option 4:
(c), (iv)
Correct Answer:
(d), (iv)
Solution:
Ununnunium is Roentgenium.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Both have 42 electrons and trigonal planar geometry.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
or
Therefore ;
Option 1:
Na2S > ZnS > CuS
Option 2:
CuS > ZnS > Na2S
Option 3:
ZnS > Na2S > CuS
Option 4:
Na2S > CuS > ZnS
Correct Answer:
Na2S > ZnS > CuS
Solution:
Ionic character of the compound decrease as the size of the cation increases and solubility decrease as
ionic character decreases.
Solubility order is
Q. 38 Given :
Based on the above thermochemical equations, find out which one of the following algebraic
relationships is correct?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Introduction to Electrochemistry -
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Electrochemistry is the branch of the science that deals with the transformation of chemical energy into
electrical energy and vice versa or it deals with the relationship between electrical and chemical energy
produced in a redox reaction.
Electrolytic Cell
Consider the following redox reaction:
In the above reaction, Zn displaces copper ions (Cu2+) from aqueous solution. This reaction can be
achieved very easily in practice. Put a Zn rod into a solution of CuSO4 (containing Cu2+ ions). It is observed
that the blue colour of CuSO4 solution disappears after some time. In this situation, Zn loses 2 electrons
per atom and Cu2+ ions in the solution accepts them. Cu2+ ions from solution in this manner are
deposited out in the form of solid Cu and Zn goes into the solution as Zn2+ (colourless). The reaction can
well be understood in terms of two half-reactions:
Now, we can make the same reaction take place even if the copper ions and zinc rod are not in direct
contact. If we put the Cu2+ ions and Zn rod in two separate containers and connect the two by a
conducting metallic wire and introduce an inverted U shape instrument (called as salt-bridge), then
electrons will still be transferred through the connecting wires. The electrons from Zn rod travel to Cu2+
ions through the connecting wires and the same reaction takes place.
-
Therefore,option(4) is correct
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction occurs as
Q. 40 In the reaction
X and Y are :
Option 1:
X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
Option 2:
X = 2-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
Option 3:
X = 2-Butyne ; Y = 2-Hexyne
Option 4:
X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 2-Hexyne
Correct Answer:
X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
Solution:
(x)
(X) (Y)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given,
Correct Answer:
106.25
Solution:
t=0 50 0 0
t=50min
=25
t=100min
12.5
+ +
of Hg
=50+56.25
=106.25mm of Hg
Q. 43 Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect?
Option 1:
They have higher melting points than pure metal.
Option 2:
They retain metallic conductivity.
Option 3:
They are chemically reactive.
Option 4:
They are much harder than the pure metal.
Correct Answer:
They are chemically reactive.
Solution:
Formation of Interstitial Compounds -
Interstitial compounds are those which are formed when small atoms like H, C, or N are trapped inside
the crystal lattices of metals. They are usually nonstoichiometric and are neither typically ionic nor
covalent, for example, TiC, Mn4N, Fe3H, VH0.56, and TiH1.7, etc. The formulas quoted do not, of course,
correspond to any normal oxidation state of the metal. Because of the nature of their composition, these
compounds are referred to as interstitial compounds. The principal physical and chemical characteristics
of these compounds are as follows:
(i) They have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals.
(ii) They are very hard, some borides approach diamonds in hardness.
(iii) They retain metallic conductivity.
(iv) They are chemically inert.
Interstitial compounds are chemically unreactive, much harder than pure metal, they have a higher
melting point than pure metal, and retain metallic conductivity.
Option 1:
diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)
Option 2:
dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)
Option 3:
diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
Option 4:
dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)
Correct Answer:
diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
Solution:
aqua , diaqua
cyanide , dicyanido
Oxidation state of
Q. 45 The correct order of increasing reactivity of C - X bond towards nucleophile in the following
compound is:
Option 1:
I < II < IV < III
Option 2:
II < III < I < IV
Option 3:
IV < III < I <II
Option 4:
III < II < I < IV
Correct Answer:
I < II < IV < III
Solution:
Alkyl halides are reactive than aryl halides, as the halogen is readily available in alkyl halides than in aryl
halides due to the presence of partial double bonds between the halogen and the benzene group and
resonance also stabilizes the aryl halides. Among the alkyl halides, more stable the carbocation more is its
reactivity, tertiary carbocation bearing halides are more reactive than secondary and primary. Nitro group
which is an electron withdrawing group increases the reactivity in aryl halides.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Between OH and OMe, OH is more attacking species due to the formation of phenoxide ion by OH group.
Option 1:
a,c
Option 2:
a,d
Option 3:
b,c
Option 4:
b,d
Correct Answer:
b,c
Solution:
As we have learned
In a neutral medium, it converts into hydroxylamine {Reagent Zn + NH4Cl } and in the basic medium, it
converts to azobenzene { Reagent Zn + NaOH }
- wherein
In the neutral medium, it converts to hydroxylamine and in basic medium, it converts to azobenzene.
Q. 48 At which carbon number in the chain does fructose contain a ketone group ?
Option 1:
1st
Option 2:
2nd
Option 3:
3rd
Option 4:
4th
Correct Answer:
2nd
Solution:
As we have learned
-
Structure of fructose (open chain form )
Option 1:
Principle quantum number
Option 2:
Magnetic quantum number
Option 3:
Azimutual quantum number
Option 4:
Spin quantum number
Correct Answer:
Spin quantum number
Solution:
As we learned in
For the two electrons occupying the same orbital value of n, l and m are the same but is different.
Option 1:
unnilennium
Option 2:
unununnium
Option 3:
ununoctium
Option 4:
ununennium
Correct Answer:
ununennium
Solution:
IUPAC name of the element with atomic number 119 is ununennium
Q. 51 During change of O2 to ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?
Option 1:
orbital
Option 2:
orbital
Option 3:
orbital
Option 4:
orbital
Correct Answer:
orbital
Solution:
The incoming electron during change of to will enter in .
Q. 52 Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Bond dissociation energies of the halogen family decrease down the group as the size of the atom
increases. The bond dissociation energy of fluorine, is, however, lower than those of chlorine and
bromine because of interelectronic repulsions present in the small atom of fluorine. Thus, bond energy
decreases in the order
Option 1:
6.13
Option 2:
7.00
Option 3:
7.87
Option 4:
5.13
Correct Answer:
6.13
Solution:
Pure water is always neutral, at different temperatures the pH scale can change but water is always
neutral.
On an increase of temperature range of the pH scale decreases.
At
At
Q. 54 Iodine reacts with concentrated to yield Y along with other products. The oxidation
state of iodine in Y, is :
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
7
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Oxidation state of oxygen family -
The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is -2. There are two exceptions.
In peroxide (H2O2; Na2O2), the oxidation number is -1.
- wherein
As we have learned in oxidation number the reaction is
Y here is HIO3 and the oxidation state of iodine in HIO3 is given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Nucleophile:-
Those electron-rich chemical species have the capacity to attack the electron-deficient portion of the
substrate.
Nucleophile must have complete octet and at least one lone pair
The order of Nucleophilicity is
Both (a) and (c) are resonance stabilized ions, so, donating tendency of electrons on oxygen is reduced,
but delocalisation of electrons is more in CH3SO3-. Thus, it is a weak nucleophile than CH3COO-. Further, it
has been found that a reactive atom bearing a negative charge is always a better nucleophile than the
same neutral atom.
Q. 56 Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire composition range . At 350 K , the vapor
pressures of pure A and pure B are , respectively . The
composition of the vapor in equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mol percent of A at this
temperature is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know that
Therefore, option(2) is correct
Q. 57 for a reaction
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Rate of reaction -
The rate of the reaction during the courses of a reaction in any instant of time is the change in
concentration of reacting species. Rate is a positive quantity.
Option 4 is correct.
Option 1:
Yb2+
Option 2:
Ce2+
Option 3:
Sm2+
Option 4:
Eu2+
Correct Answer:
Yb2+
Solution:
The electron configuration of Yb is [Xe] 4f14,6s 2 and due to no unpaired electrons in Yb2+ it is diamagnetic.
Q. 59 The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes
is
Option 1:
(C)>(B)>(A)
Option 2:
(C)>(A)>(B)
Option 3:
(B)>(A)>(C)
Option 4:
(A)>(B)>(C)
Correct Answer:
(C)>(A)>(B)
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Metal ion remaining save, splitting is greater for strong field chelating ligands.
Q. 60 Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Electron withdrawing groups are the keys to increase the probability of Nucleophilic substitution.
has electron withdrawing group -NO2 which reduces the double bond character between
carbon of benzene ring and chlorine. Thus, the correct order of nucleophilic substitution reactions.
Maths
Q. 1
Let a function be defined by
Then is:
Option 1:
not injective but surjective
Option 2:
both injective as well as surjective
Option 3:
neither injective nor surjective
Option 4:
injective only
Correct Answer:
not injective but surjective
Solution:
Curve of
Hence, it is not injective but surjective
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
are in A.P
But
Thus
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
- wherein
Also
Q. 4 On the sides AB,BC,CA, of 3,4,5 distibct points (excuding vertices A,B,C) are
respectively chosen. the number of trangles that can be constructed using these chosen
points as vertices are:
Option 1:
210
Option 2:
205
Option 3:
215
Option 4:
220
Correct Answer:
205
Solution:
Case 1:
Case 2:
Case 3:
Case 4:
Case 6:
Second Approach
then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know
Now,
Correct Option (2)
Q. 6 The sum of the first 20 terms common between the series 3+7+11+15+..... and
1+6+11+16+..... , is :
Correct Answer:
4020
Solution:
Use
Sum of n terms of an AP -
or
where
first term
common difference
number of terms
Now,
and 1,6,11,16,21,26,31....................
It is an AP with a = 11, d = 20
Q. 7 A line in the 3-dimensional space makes an angle with both the x and the y
axes. Then the set of all possible values of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the direction angles be
We get
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9 If 12 identical balls are to be placed in 3 identical boxes, then the probability that one of the
boxes contains exactly 3 balls is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Let S be the sample space then the probability of occurrence of an event E is denoted by P(E) and it is
defined as
- wherein
Q. 10
If and and
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
-1
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Given determinant can be written as
Option 1:
a circle of radius one
Option 2:
a hyperbola
Option 3:
an ellipse
Option 4:
a circle of radius two
Correct Answer:
a circle of radius one
Solution:
If y = kx
At (1 , 1), C = 2
Q. 12 A hyperbola whose transverse axis is along the major axis of the conic
and has vertices at the foci of this conic. If the eccentricity of the
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 The area (in square units) of the region bounded by the curves y + 2x2 = 0 and y + 3x2 = 1 , is
equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Let be two curve then area bounded between the curves and the lines
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
y+2x2=0; y+3x2=1
y= -2x2; y=1-3x2
-2x2= 1-3x2
=> x2=1
=> x= 1
=>
=>
If the distance of C from the bisector of the acute angle between OA and OB is , then the
sum of all possible values of is:
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
- wherein
Here
Answer is
Q. 15
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
(-1,1)-{0}
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Range of function -
Range of
Q. 16
The expression can be written as:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 Let be a complex number. Then the set of all complex numbers z satisfying
the equation for some real number k, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
Now,
And
Q. 18 5- digit numbers are to be formed using 2,3,5,7,9 without repeating the digits.If p be the
number of such numbers that exceed 20000 and q be the number of those that lie between
30000 and 90000 then p:q is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number greater than 20000 or p
1st place can be placed with 5 possibilities and second with 4 possibilities and so on
So
And
1st place can be placed with 3 possibilities(3,5,7) and second with 4 possibilities and so on
So
Correct Answer:
615
Solution:
has general term
With a + b + c = 10 .....(i)
Q. 20 Let G be the geometric mean of two positive numbers a and b, and M be the arithmetic
mean of and
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
and
Now, given G2 = ab
and
Q. 21 Let A (2, 3 ,5), B (-1, 3, 2) and C be the vertices of a ABC. If the median through A
is equally inclined to the coordinate axes, then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Direction Ratios -
is given by
-
DRS of median =
Thus,
Q. 22 If
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
clearly, tan A + tan B is minimum when
Q. 23 The mean of the data set comprising of 16 observations is 16. If one of the observation
valued 16 is deleted and three new observations valued 3, 4 and 5 are added to the data,
then the mean of the resultant data is
Option 1:
16.8
Option 2:
16.0
Option 3:
15.8
Option 4:
14.0
Correct Answer:
14.0
Solution:
Given, old mean = 16
Q. 24 If A is an 3 x 3 non - singular matrix such that AA' = A'A and B = A-1 A' , then BB' equals :
Option 1:
B-1
Option 2:
(B-1)'
Option 3:
I+B
Option 4:
I
Correct Answer:
I
Solution:
As we learnt in
Property of Transpose -
- wherein
So that
Now,
If
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
In order to obtain the solution of differential equation, we integrate it as many times as the order of the
differential equation
Solving
Q. 26 Two sides of a rhombus are along the lines, x−y+1=0 and 7x−y−5=0. If its diagonals intersect
at (−1, −2), then which one of the following is a vertex of this rhombus ?
Option 1:
(−3, −9)
Option 2:
(−3, −8)
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
slope
Let C be
and
Slope of
Hence, slope of
equation of
Q. 27
If where C is a constant, then g(2) is equal
to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Integration by substitution -
The functions when on substitution of the variable of integration to some quantity gives any one of
standard formulas.
- wherein
Put
So,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Coplanar vectors -
A given number of vectors are called coplanar if their line segments are parallel to the same plane.
- wherein
- wherein
for
Q. 29
Let R : x is not a positive integer. Define a function as
then f is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
not injective
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
,
Thus
Q. 31 If equations
, and
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
&
- wherein
- wherein
&
So , non real roots which means both roots are common (as complex roots occurs in conjugate )
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Case 1
Case 2
Case 3
Case 4
Hence
Q. 33
In the expansion of , if is the least value of the term independent
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
General Term of Binomial Expansion
Now,
Correct option 1
Q. 34
The least positive integer n such that is
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
7
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Use @4
Let
SD minimum value of n is 6
Option 1:
(1, -2, 5)
Option 2:
(1, 0, 5)
Option 3:
(0, 3, -5)
Option 4:
(-1, -3, 0)
Correct Answer:
(1, 0, 5)
Solution:
Line is
As the point (1, 2, 3) lies on the line, so it also lies on the plane
5(x - 1) - (y - 2) - (z - 3) = 0
5x - y - z = 5 - 2 - 3 = 0
5x - y - z = 0
Q. 36
Let then log p
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
It is form
Q. 37
Let A and B two events such that
where stands for the complement of the event A. Then the events A and B are :
Option 1:
independent but not equally likely.
Option 2:
independent and equally likely.
Option 3:
mutually exclusive and independent.
Option 4:
equally likely but not independent.
Correct Answer:
independent but not equally likely.
Solution:
As learnt
in general:
and
Independent events -
If A and B are independent events then A and as well as and B are independent events.
- wherein
Also,
Option 1:
a+b+c
Option 2:
abc
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
-1
Correct Answer:
abc
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
then the system of equations has infinite solutions.
- wherein
and
Q. 39
Let be the solution of the differential equation,
If then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein
- wherein
Putting x = 2 we get C = 0
Q. 40 The centres of those circles which touch the circle, x2+y2−8x−8y−4=0, externally and also
touch the x-axis, lie on :
Option 1:
a circle.
Option 2:
an ellipse which is not a circle.
Option 3:
a hyperbola.
Option 4:
a parabola.
Correct Answer:
a parabola.
Solution:
As we learnt in
When two circles touch each other externally, there are three common tangents, two of them are direct.
- wherein
- wherein
Circle:
externally
we get
compared to
Represent a parabola
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
As learnt in concept
- wherein
Hence
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein
Here
Projection of on
and,
and
Q. 43 In a class of 140 students numbered 1 to 140, all even numbered students opted
Mathematics course, those whose number is divisible by 3 opted Physics course and those
whose number is divisible by 5 opted Chemistry course. Then the number of students who
did not opt for any of the three courses is;
Option 1:
102
Option 2:
42
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
38
Correct Answer:
38
Solution:
Number of Elements in Union A , B & C -
- wherein
Given A, B and C be any finite sets. then Number of Elements in union A , B & C is given by this formula.
So the total number of students who opted for at least one subject =
Hence total no. of students who not adopted for any course = total number of students -total number of
students who opted for at least one course = 140 - 102 = 38
Q. 44 PQR is a triangular park with PQ=PR=200 m. A T.V. tower stands at the mid-point of QR. If the
angles of elevation of the top of the tower at P, Q
and R are respectively 45º, 30º and 30º, then the height of the tower (in m) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
100
Option 3:
50
Option 4:
100
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
As we learnt in
Angle of Depression -
If an object is below the horizontal line from the eye, we have to lower our head to view the object.
- wherein
In
Q. 45
if are the root of equation ,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein
We have ,
Now ,
Q. 46 The number of ways of choosing 10 objects out of 31 objects of which 10 are identical and
the remaining 21 are distinct, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Theorem of Combination
Each of the different groups or selection which can be made by taking r things from n things is called a
combination.
Now,
Number of Identical objects chosen Number to be chosen from 21 distinct objects Number of ways
10 0 1.21C0
9 1 1.21C1
8 2 1.21C2
7 3 1.21C3
6 4 1.21C4
5 5 1.21C5
4 6 1.21C6
3 7 1.21C7
2 8 1.21C8
1 9 1.21C9
0 10 1.21C10
Now, we know
So,
Q. 47 If and then k is
equal to _________.
Correct Answer:
51
Solution:
Properties of Binomial Theorem and Binomial Coefficient
Now,
Applying summation
k = 51
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cartesian eqution of a line -
The equation of a line passing through two points and parallel to vector having direction ratios as
is given by
- wherein
Vector =
Put y=1
So live becomes
Q. 50 A wire of length 2 units is cut into two parts which are bent respectively to form a square of
side=x units and a circle of radius=r units. If the sum of the areas of the square and the
circle so formed is minimum, then :
Option 1:
2x = (π+4) r
Option 2:
(4−π) x = πr
Option 3:
x = 2r
Option 4:
2x = r
Correct Answer:
x = 2r
Solution:
As we learnt in
Circle -
A circle is the locus of a moving point such that its distance from a fixed point is constant.
- wherein
Let the length of two parts be 'a' and '2-a'
and
r is radius of circle
sum of Areas
of
Hence
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt
Variance -
Q. 52 If B is a 3x3 matrix such that B2=0, then det. [ (I + B)50 - 50B] is equal to :
Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Multiplication of matrices -
-
Since so that
OR
Q. 53
For if , then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Differential Equations -
An equation involving independent variable (x), dependent variable (y) and derivative of
dependent variable with respect to independent variable
- wherein
eg:
Q. 54 If one of the diameters of the circle, given by the equation, x2 + y2 − 4x + 6y − 12=0, is a chord
of a circle S, whose centre is at (−3, 2), then the radius of S is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
centre =
radius =
Now
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Putting
Q. 56 Let and
be three vectors such that
Option 1:
(1,3,1)
Option 2:
(-1/2,4,0)
Option 3:
(1/2,4,-2)
Option 4:
(1,5,1)
Correct Answer:
(-1/2,4,0)
Solution:
Scalar multiplication -
- wherein
- wherein
Here
Given,
................................(1)
Given and is perpendicular
So,
...........................(2)
Now,
satisfies this.
Q. 57
For , let and be three given
functions. If a function, satisfies then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given that
Given
Now,
, then k is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Q. 59
If z1, z2 and z3, z4 are 2 pairs of complex conjugate numbers, then
equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given
and
So,
Q. 60 All possible numbers are formed using the digits 1,1,2,2,2,2,3,4,4 taken all at a time. The
number of such numbers in which the odd digits occupy even places is :
Option 1:
180
Option 2:
160
Option 3:
175
Option 4:
162
Correct Answer:
180
Solution:
PERMUTATION OF OBJECTS WHEN FEW ARE IDENTICAL -
If there n objects of which p objects are of one type, q objects of another type, r objects of yet another
type and all others are distinct, the total number of ways of arranging all the objects is
Theorem of Combination -
Each of the different groups or selection which can be made by taking r things from n things is called a
combination.
Now,
We have total 4 even place and 3 odd digits (1,1,3) should come at these places