KCET 2024 Preparation Guide PDF Compressed 1

KCET 2024
Preparation
Guide
Content
About
1. Karnataka Common Entrance Test
a. Introduction
b. Exam Dates
c. Exam Pattern
d. Syllabus
2. Preparation Study Material
3. Mock Tests
a. Mock Test 1
b. Mock Test 2
c. Mock Test 3
d. Mock Test 4
e. Mock Test 5
About
Welcome to the definitive resource for mastering the Karnataka Common Entrance Test (KCET)
in 2024. Crafted with precision and expertise, this ebook is your companion on the journey to
success in one of Karnataka's most esteemed entrance examinations.
KCET serves as the gateway to prestigious undergraduate programs in various disciplines
across the Karnataka state. As the landscape of education continually evolves, staying ahead
with thorough preparation and strategic insights becomes indispensable. This guide is
meticulously curated to equip aspiring candidates like you with the tools, knowledge, and
confidence needed to excel in KCET 2024.
What You Will Find in the Ebook:
● Introduction: Gain a thorough understanding of KCET, its significance, and its role in
shaping your academic journey.
● Exam Dates: Stay updated with crucial dates and deadlines to ensure you're on track
with your preparation schedule.
● Exam Pattern: Familiarize yourself with the structure, format, and marking scheme of
KCET 2024 to formulate an effective exam strategy.
● Syllabus: Delve into the detailed syllabus, ensuring you cover all the essential topics
and domains as prescribed for KCET 2024.
● Preparation Study Material: Access curated study materials designed to cater

specifically to the syllabus and requirements of KCET 2024, aiding in comprehensive
preparation.
● Mock Tests: Put your knowledge to the test with a series of 5 mock tests meticulously
crafted to simulate the actual exam environment. These tests are invaluable for
assessing your progress, identifying strengths and weaknesses, and fine-tuning your
exam-taking strategy.
Embark on your KCET 2024 preparation journey with confidence, armed with the insights and
resources provided in this comprehensive guide. Let this ebook be your trusted companion as
you strive towards achieving your academic aspirations and unlocking the doors to a brighter
future.
Happy learning!
Warm regards,
Team Careers360
Karnataka Common Entrance Test
Introduction
KCET (Karnataka Common Entrance Test) is a state-level examination conducted by Karnataka
Examination Authority (KEA) for admission to engineering, Pharmacy, and agriculture courses
into various colleges/institutions in Karnataka State. Eligibility for the KCET exam requires
candidates to meet specified academic qualifications. Following qualification, candidates attend
mandatory counselling sessions where seats in colleges are allotted based on merit and
preferences. The examination assesses candidates' knowledge and proficiency in the specified
subjects, serving as a gateway to pursue higher education in various disciplines across
Karnataka's prestigious
Exam Dates
The KCET 2024 exam dates are 18, and 19 April 2024.
Exam Pattern
KCET Exam Pattern 2024
Section Name No of Questions

Physics 60
Chemistry 60
Mathematics 60
Total 180
Syllabus
Units and Measurements

Kinematics
Laws of motion
Physics
Work, Energy and Power
Gravitation
Rotational motion
Properties of Solids and Liquids
Kinetic theory of Gases
Thermodynamics
Oscillations and Waves
Electrostatics
Current Electricity
Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
Electromagnetic waves
Optics
Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
Atoms & Nuclei
Electronic Devices
Some basic concepts in chemistry
Atomic Structure
Classification of Elements and Periodic table
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Chemical Thermodynamics
Equilibrium
Redox Reaction and Electrochemistry
Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

Chemistry
Hydrocarbons
Solutions
Chemical kinetics
d - and f - BLOCK ELEMENTS
Co-ordination Compounds
Organic Compounds containing Halogens
Organic Compounds containing Oxygen
Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Biomolecules
Sets, Relations and Functions
Trigonometry
Maths Complex numbers and quadratic equations
Permutations and combinations
Binomial theorem and its simple applications
Sequence and series
Three Dimensional Geometry
Limit , continuity and differentiability
Statistics and Probability
Matrices and Determinants
Differential equations
Co-ordinate geometry
Integral Calculus
Vector Algebra
Preparation Study Material
Physics
Chapter Name - Physics and Measurement

Concept Name Study link
1 Physical Quantity STUDY HERE
Fundamental And Derived Quantities And
2 Units STUDY HERE
3 System Of Unit STUDY HERE
4 Practical Units STUDY HERE
5 Dimensions Of Physical Quantities STUDY HERE
6 Dimensionless Quantities STUDY HERE
7 Applications Of Dimensional Analysis STUDY HERE
8 Significant Figures STUDY HERE
9 Errors Of Measurements STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Kinematics

1 Kinematics Terminologies STUDY HERE
2 Mathematical Tools STUDY HERE
3 Scalars And Vectors STUDY HERE
4 Vector Addition And Vector Subtraction STUDY HERE
5 Multiplication Of Vectors STUDY HERE
6 Distance And Displacement STUDY HERE
7 Speed And Velocity STUDY HERE
8 Acceleration STUDY HERE
9 Kinematics Graphs STUDY HERE
10 Equation Of Motions STUDY HERE
11 Uniform Circular Motion STUDY HERE
12 Motion Of Body Under Gravity STUDY HERE
13 Projectile Motion STUDY HERE
14 Horizontal Projectile Motion STUDY HERE
15 Equation Of Path Of A Projectile STUDY HERE
16 Projectile On An Inclined Plane STUDY HERE
17 Relative Velocity STUDY HERE
18 Boat River Problem STUDY HERE
19 Rain-man Problem STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Laws Of Motion

1 Inertia STUDY HERE
2 Forces STUDY HERE
3 Common Forces In Mechanics STUDY HERE
4 Equilibrium Of Concurrent Forces STUDY HERE
5 Newton’s First Law Of Motion STUDY HERE
6 Linear Momentum STUDY HERE
7 Newton's Laws Of Motion STUDY HERE
Acceleration Of Block On Horizontal
8 Smooth Surface STUDY HERE
Acceleration Of Block On Smooth Inclined
9 Plane STUDY HERE
10 Motion Of Bodies In Contact STUDY HERE
Motion Of Blocks When Connected With
11 String STUDY HERE
12 Motion Of Connected Blocks Over Pulley STUDY HERE
13 Incline With Mass And Pulley STUDY HERE
14 Spring Force STUDY HERE
15 Apparent Weight Of Body In A Lift STUDY HERE
16 Recoiling Of Gun STUDY HERE
17 Rocket Propulsion STUDY HERE
18 Friction STUDY HERE
19 Kinetic Friction STUDY HERE
20 Static Friction STUDY HERE
Graph Between Applied Force And The
21 Force Of Friction STUDY HERE
22 Angle Of Repose STUDY HERE
Calculation Of Necessary Force In
23 Different Conditions On Rough Surface STUDY HERE
24 Acceleration Of Block Against Friction STUDY HERE
Motion Of Two Bodies One Resting On
25 The Other STUDY HERE
26 Motion Of An Insect In The Rough Bowl STUDY HERE
Minimum Mass Hung From The String To
27 Just Start The Motion STUDY HERE
28 Maximum Length Of Hung Chain STUDY HERE
Coefficient Of Friction Between A Body
29 And Wedge STUDY HERE
30 Stopping Of Block Due To Friction STUDY HERE
31 Sticking Of A Block With Accelerated Cart STUDY HERE
32 Centripetal Force And Centrifugal Force STUDY HERE
Sticking Of Person With The Wall Of
33 Rotor STUDY HERE
34 Skidding Of Vehicle On A Level Road STUDY HERE
Skidding Of Object On A Rotating
35 Platform STUDY HERE
36 Bending A Cyclist STUDY HERE
37 Banking Of Road STUDY HERE
38 Reaction Of Road On Car STUDY HERE
Centripetal Force For Non-uniform Circular
39 Motion STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Rotational Motion

1 Rotational Motion Of Rigid Body STUDY HERE
2 Center Of Mass STUDY HERE
3 Center Of Mass Of The Uniform Rod STUDY HERE
4 Centre Of Mass Of Semicircular Ring STUDY HERE
5 Centre Of Mass Of Semicircular Disc STUDY HERE
6 Centre Of Mass Of A Triangle STUDY HERE
7 Centre Of Mass Of Hollow Hemisphere STUDY HERE
8 Centre Of Mass Of Solid Hemisphere STUDY HERE
9 Centre Of Mass Of Hollow Cone STUDY HERE
10 Centre Of Mass Of A Solid Cone STUDY HERE
11 Motion Of The Centre Of Mass STUDY HERE
Relationship Between Linear And Angular
12 Motion STUDY HERE
13 Torque STUDY HERE
14 Rotational Equilibrium STUDY HERE
15 Moment Of Inertia STUDY HERE
16 Moment Of Inertia Of A Rod STUDY HERE
17 Moment Of Inertia Of A Rectangular Plate STUDY HERE
18 Parallel And Perpendicular Axis Theorem STUDY HERE
19 Moment Of Inertia Of A Ring STUDY HERE
20 Moment Of Inertia Of A Disc STUDY HERE
21 Moment Of Inertia Of Hollow Cylinder STUDY HERE
22 Moment Of Inertia Of The Solid Cylinder STUDY HERE
23 Moment Of Inertia Of Hollow Sphere STUDY HERE
24 Moment Of Inertia Of A Solid Sphere STUDY HERE
25 Moment Of Inertia Of Solid Cone STUDY HERE
26 Angular Momentum STUDY HERE
Law Of Conservation Of Angular
27 Momentum STUDY HERE
Work, Energy And Power For Rotating
28 Body STUDY HERE
Rigid Bodies: Translational Motion And
29 Rotational Motion STUDY HERE
30 Rolling Without Slipping STUDY HERE
Rolling Without Slipping On An Inclined
31 Plane STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Gravitation

1 Newton's Law Of Gravitation STUDY HERE
2 Acceleration Due To Gravity STUDY HERE
3 Mass And Density Of Earth STUDY HERE
4 Gravitational Field Intensity STUDY HERE
5 Gravitational Potential STUDY HERE
6 Gravitational Potential Energy STUDY HERE
Relation Between Gravitational Field And
7 Potential STUDY HERE
8 Work Done Against Gravity STUDY HERE
9 Kepler’s Laws Of Planetary Motion STUDY HERE
10 Escape Velocity STUDY HERE
11 Orbital Velocity STUDY HERE
12 Orbital Velocity of Satellite STUDY HERE
13 Time Period And Energy Of A Satellite STUDY HERE
14 Geostationary And Polar Satellites STUDY HERE
15 Weightlessness STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Properties of Solids and Liquids

1 Elasticity STUDY HERE
2 Stress And Strain STUDY HERE
3 Stress Strain Relationship STUDY HERE
4 Hooke’s Law STUDY HERE
5 Work Done In Stretching A Wire STUDY HERE
Relation Between Volumetric Strain,
6 Lateral Strain And Poisson’s Ratio STUDY HERE
7 Pressure In A Fluid STUDY HERE
8 Variation Of Pressure STUDY HERE
9 Pascal's Law STUDY HERE
Variation Of Pressure In An Accelerated
10 Fluid STUDY HERE
11 Barometer And Manometer STUDY HERE
12 Archimedes Principle STUDY HERE
13 Type Of Flow STUDY HERE
14 Equation Of Continuity STUDY HERE
15 Bernoulli's Theorem STUDY HERE
16 Viscosity STUDY HERE
17 Stokes' Law And Terminal Velocity STUDY HERE
18 Surface Tension STUDY HERE
19 Surface Energy STUDY HERE
20 Excess Pressure STUDY HERE
21 Contact Angle STUDY HERE
22 Capillary Action STUDY HERE
23 Temperature And Its Scales STUDY HERE
24 Thermometer And Its Types STUDY HERE
25 Thermal Expansion STUDY HERE
26 Thermal Stress And Thermal Strain STUDY HERE
27 Thermal Expansion In Liquids And Gases STUDY HERE
28 Heat STUDY HERE
29 Change Of State STUDY HERE
30 Triple Point Of Water STUDY HERE
31 Joule's Law Of Heating STUDY HERE
32 Calorimetry Principle STUDY HERE
33 Heating Curve STUDY HERE
34 Heat Transfer STUDY HERE
35 Staedy Conduction Heat Transfer STUDY HERE
36 Law Of Thermal Conductivity STUDY HERE
37 Electrical Analogy For Thermal Conduction STUDY HERE
38 Combination Of Metallic Rods STUDY HERE
39 Heat Transfer By Convection STUDY HERE
40 Heat Transfer By Radiation STUDY HERE
41 Black Body Radiation STUDY HERE
42 Kirchhoff's Law STUDY HERE
43 Wien's Displacement Law STUDY HERE
44 Stefan Boltzmann Law STUDY HERE
45 Newton's Law Of Cooling STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Kinetic Theory of Gases

1 States Of Matter STUDY HERE
2 Kinetic Theory Of Gases Assumptions STUDY HERE
3 The Gas Laws STUDY HERE
4 Ideal Gas Equation STUDY HERE
5 Real Gas And Equation STUDY HERE
6 Pressure Of An Ideal Gas STUDY HERE
7 The Maxwell Distribution Laws STUDY HERE
8 Mean Free Path STUDY HERE
9 Degree Of Freedom STUDY HERE
10 Kinetic Energy Of Ideal Gas STUDY HERE
11 Specific Heat Of A Gas STUDY HERE
12 Mayer's Formula STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Thermodynamics

1 Introduction To Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
Thermodynamic State Variables And
2 Equation Of State STUDY HERE
3 Thermodynamic Equilibrium STUDY HERE
Heat, Internal Energy And Work -
4 Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
5 First Law Of Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
6 Isobaric Process STUDY HERE
7 Isochoric Process STUDY HERE
8 Isothermal Process STUDY HERE
9 Adiabatic Process STUDY HERE
10 Polytropic Process STUDY HERE
11 Cyclic And Non Cyclic Process STUDY HERE
12 Reversible And Irreversible Process STUDY HERE
13 Heat Engine STUDY HERE
14 Second Law Of Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
15 Entropy STUDY HERE
16 Carnot Engine STUDY HERE
17 Refrigerator Or Heat Pump STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Oscillations and Waves

1 Periodic And Oscillatory Motions STUDY HERE
Simple Harmonic Motion (S.H.M.) And Its
2 Equation STUDY HERE
Important Terms In Simple Harmonic
3 Motion STUDY HERE
Simple Harmonic Motion And Uniform
4 Circular Motion STUDY HERE
5 Composition Of Two SHM STUDY HERE
6 Energy In Simple Harmonic Motion STUDY HERE
7 Oscillations Of A Spring-mass System STUDY HERE
8 Oscillation Of Two Particle System STUDY HERE
9 Oscillation Of Pendulum STUDY HERE
10 Angular Simple Harmonic Motion STUDY HERE
11 Physical Pendulum STUDY HERE
Motion Of A Ball In Tunnel Through The
12 Earth STUDY HERE
13 Time Period Of Torsional Pendulum STUDY HERE
14 The Oscillation Of Floating Bodies STUDY HERE
15 Free, Forced And Damped Oscillation STUDY HERE
16 Wave Motion STUDY HERE
17 Types Of Wave STUDY HERE
18 Travelling Waves STUDY HERE
19 Travelling Sine Wave STUDY HERE
Relation Between Phase Difference And
20 Path Difference STUDY HERE
21 Speed Of Transverse Wave On A String STUDY HERE
22 Power Transmitted Along The String STUDY HERE
Interference And Principle Of
23 Superposition STUDY HERE
Reflection And Transmission Of Waves
24 On A String STUDY HERE
25 Standing Wave On A String STUDY HERE
26 Sonometer STUDY HERE
27 Sound Wave STUDY HERE
28 Propagation Of Sound Wave STUDY HERE
29 Displacement Wave And Pressure Wave STUDY HERE
30 Velocity Of Sound In Different Media STUDY HERE
Newton's Formula For The Velocity Of
31 Sound In Gas STUDY HERE
32 Intensity Of Sound Waves STUDY HERE
33 Sound Wave Interference STUDY HERE
34 Standing Sound Waves STUDY HERE
35 End Correction STUDY HERE
36 Resonance Column Method STUDY HERE
37 Beats STUDY HERE
38 Doppler Effect STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Electrostatics

1 Electric Charge STUDY HERE
2 Electric Charge And Electrification STUDY HERE
3 Coulomb's Law STUDY HERE
4 Electric Field STUDY HERE
5 Electric Field Lines STUDY HERE
Electric Field Intensity: Continuous Charge
6 Distribution STUDY HERE
7 Electric Field Due To A Uniformly Charged Ring STUDY HERE

8 Electric Field Of Charged Disk STUDY HERE
Electric Field Due To An Infinitely Long Charged
9 Wire STUDY HERE
10 Motion of charged particle in uniform electric field STUDY HERE

11 Electric Dipole STUDY HERE
12 Electric Field Of A Dipole STUDY HERE
Torque On An Electric Dipole In A Uniform Electric
13 Field STUDY HERE
14 Electric Flux STUDY HERE
15 Electric Flux Through Cone Or Disc STUDY HERE
16 Gauss Law And It's Application STUDY HERE
17 Electric Potential STUDY HERE
18 Relation Between Electric Field And Potential STUDY HERE

Electric Potential Of Uniformly Charged Ring, Rod,
19 And Disc STUDY HERE
Potential Due To Hollow Conductiong, Solid

20 Conducting, Hollow Non Conducting STUDY HERE
Electric Potential Of A Dipole And System Of
21 Charges STUDY HERE
22 Equipotential Surface STUDY HERE
23 Electrostatic Potential Energy STUDY HERE
24 Potential Energy Of A Dipole In An Electric Field STUDY HERE

25 Capacitor And Capacitance STUDY HERE
26 The Parallel Plate Capacitor STUDY HERE
27 Spherical And Cylindrical Capacitors STUDY HERE
28 Combination Of Capacitors - Parallel And Series STUDY HERE

29 Energy Stored In Capacitor STUDY HERE
30 Dielectrics STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Current Electricity

1 Electric Current STUDY HERE
2 Current Density STUDY HERE
3 Drift Velocity STUDY HERE
4 Ohms Law STUDY HERE
5 Mobility Of Electron STUDY HERE
6 Resistance And Resistivity STUDY HERE
Change Of Resistance In Wires By
7 Stretching STUDY HERE
8 Resistor Colour Code STUDY HERE
9 Heat And Power Developed In A Resistor STUDY HERE
Resistors In Series And Parallel
10 Combinations STUDY HERE
11 Emf Of A Cell STUDY HERE
12 Internal Resistance Of A Cell STUDY HERE
13 Current Given By A Cell STUDY HERE
14 Grouping Of Cells STUDY HERE
Charging Of Battery And Discharging Of
15 Battery STUDY HERE
16 Kirchhoff First Law STUDY HERE
17 Kirchhoff's Second Law STUDY HERE
18 Galvanometer STUDY HERE
19 Ammeter STUDY HERE
20 Voltmeter STUDY HERE
21 Wheatstone's Bridge STUDY HERE
22 Meter Bridge STUDY HERE
Potentiometer - Principle And
23 Applications STUDY HERE
24 Calculation Of Resistance By Symmetry STUDY HERE
25 Charging Of Capacitor And Inductor STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

1 Biot-savart Law STUDY HERE
Magnetic Field Due To Current In Straight
2 Wire STUDY HERE
Magnetic Field Due To Circular Current
3 Loop STUDY HERE
Magnetic Field On The Axis Of Circular
4 Current Loop STUDY HERE
Ampere's Circuital Law And Its
5 Applications STUDY HERE
6 Solenoid STUDY HERE
7 Toroid STUDY HERE
Force On A Moving Charge In Magnetic
8 Field STUDY HERE
Motion Of A Charged Particle In Uniform
9 Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
10 Lorentz Force STUDY HERE
11 Cyclotron STUDY HERE
Force On A Conductor Carrying Current
12 In A Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
Force Between Two Parallel Current
13 Carrying Conductors STUDY HERE
Torque On Current Loop And Magnetic
14 Moment Derivation STUDY HERE
Magnetic Moment Of Revolving Electron
15 And Bohr Magneton STUDY HERE
16 Moving Coil Galvanometer STUDY HERE
17 Magnetic Field Lines STUDY HERE
18 Bar Magnet As An Equivalent Solenoid STUDY HERE
19 The Dipole In A Uniform Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
20 Gauss Law Of Magnetism STUDY HERE
21 Earth's Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
22 Magnetization And Magnetic Intensity STUDY HERE
23 Magnetic Properties Of Materials STUDY HERE
24 Hysteresis Curve STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Electromagnetic Induction And Alternating Currents

1 Magnetic Flux STUDY HERE
2 Faraday's Law Of Induction STUDY HERE
3 Lenz's Law STUDY HERE
4 Motional Electromotive Force STUDY HERE
5 Induced Electric Field STUDY HERE
6 Time Varying Magnetic Field STUDY HERE
7 Eddy Currents STUDY HERE
8 Self Inductance STUDY HERE
9 Mutual Inductance STUDY HERE
10 Energy Stored In An Inductor STUDY HERE
11 AC Generator STUDY HERE
Average And Rms Value Of Alternating
12 Current And Voltage STUDY HERE
13 AC Voltage Applied To A Resistor STUDY HERE
14 AC Voltage Applied To An Inductor STUDY HERE
15 AC Voltage Applied To A Capacitor STUDY HERE
16 Series LR Circuit STUDY HERE
17 Series RC Circuit STUDY HERE
18 Series LCR Circuit STUDY HERE
19 Resonance In Series LCR Circuit STUDY HERE
20 Quality Factor In An AC Circuit STUDY HERE
21 Power And Power Factor In AC Circuits STUDY HERE
22 LC Oscillations STUDY HERE
23 Transformers STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Electromagnetic Waves

1 Displacement Current STUDY HERE
2 Maxwell's 4 Equations STUDY HERE
3 Nature Of Electromagnetic Waves STUDY HERE
Energy Density And Intensity Of EM
4 Waves STUDY HERE
5 Electromagnetic Spectrum STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Optics

1 Laws Of Reflection STUDY HERE
2 Reflection On A Plane Mirror STUDY HERE
3 Object And Image Velocity In Plane Mirror STUDY HERE
4 Spherical Mirrors STUDY HERE
5 Image Formation By Spherical Mirrors STUDY HERE
Spherical Mirror Formula And
6 Magnification STUDY HERE
7 Refraction Of Light STUDY HERE
8 Real Depth And Apparent Depth STUDY HERE
9 Total Internal Reflection STUDY HERE
10 Refraction Of Light Through Glass Slab STUDY HERE
Refraction And Dispersion Of Light
11 Through A Prism STUDY HERE
12 Refraction At Spherical Surface STUDY HERE
Concave And Convex Lenses - Image
13 Formation STUDY HERE
14 Lens Maker's Formula STUDY HERE
15 Power Of Lens And Mirror STUDY HERE
16 Magnification In Lenses STUDY HERE
Relation Between Object And Image
17 Velocity In Lens STUDY HERE
18 Compound Lenses STUDY HERE
19 Silvering Of Lens STUDY HERE
20 Lens Displacement Method STUDY HERE
21 Structure And Functions Of Human Eye STUDY HERE
22 Simple Microscope STUDY HERE
23 Compound Microscope STUDY HERE
24 Astronomical Telescope STUDY HERE
25 Terrestrial Telescope STUDY HERE
26 Wavefronts STUDY HERE
27 Huygens Principle STUDY HERE
Interference Of Light - Condition And
28 Types STUDY HERE
29 Young's Double Slit Experiment STUDY HERE
30 Optical Path STUDY HERE
31 Ydse With Thin Slab STUDY HERE
32 Lloyd's Mirror Experiment STUDY HERE
33 Fresnel's Biprism STUDY HERE
34 Thin Film Interference STUDY HERE
35 Diffraction Of Light STUDY HERE
36 Fraunhofer Diffraction By A Single Slit STUDY HERE
Resolving Power Of Microscope And
37 Telescope STUDY HERE
38 Polarization Of Light STUDY HERE
39 Malus's Law STUDY HERE
40 Polarization By Reflection And Brewster's Law STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

1 Electron Emission STUDY HERE
2 Photon Theory Of Light STUDY HERE
3 The Photoelectric Effect STUDY HERE
4 Einstein's Photoelectric Equation STUDY HERE
5 Radiation Pressure STUDY HERE
Wave Nature Of Matter And De Broglie's
Chapter Name - Atoms And Nuclei

Rutherford's Atomic Model And
1 Limitations STUDY HERE
2 Bohr Model Of The Hydrogen Atom STUDY HERE
3 Energy Level - Bohr's Atomic Model STUDY HERE
4 Line Spectra Of Hydrogen Atom STUDY HERE
De-broglie's Explanation Of Bohr's
5 Second Postulate STUDY HERE
6 Effect Of Nucleus Motion On Energy STUDY HERE
7 Atomic Collision STUDY HERE
8 Nucleus Structure STUDY HERE
9 Binding Energy Per Nucleon STUDY HERE
10 Radioactive Decay STUDY HERE
11 Law Of Radioactivity Decay STUDY HERE
12 Simultaneous And Series Disintegration STUDY HERE
13 Nuclear Fission STUDY HERE
14 Nuclear Fusion STUDY HERE
15 X-rays STUDY HERE
16 Continuous X-ray STUDY HERE
17 Characteristic X-rays STUDY HERE
18 Moseley's Law STUDY HERE
19 Bragg's Law STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Electronic Devices

1 Band Theory Of Solids STUDY HERE
Types Of Semiconductor: Intrinsic And
2 Extrinsic Semiconductor STUDY HERE
3 Electric Conductivity STUDY HERE
4 Zener Diode STUDY HERE
5 Special Purpose P-N Junction Diodes STUDY HERE
6 P-N Junction STUDY HERE
Semiconductor Diode - Forward Bias And
7 Reverse Bias STUDY HERE
8 P-N Junction As A Rectifier STUDY HERE
Bipolar Junction Transistor (N-P-N And
9 P-N-P Transistor) STUDY HERE
Transistor As A Device - Switch And
10 Amplifier STUDY HERE
11 Logic Gates STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Communication Systems

1 Elements Of Communication System STUDY HERE
2 Propagation Of Electromagnetic Waves STUDY HERE
Need Of Modulation In Communication
3 Systems STUDY HERE
4 Amplitude Modulation STUDY HERE
5 Production Of Amplitude Modulated Wave STUDY HERE
6 Detection Of Amplitude Modulated Wave STUDY HERE
Chemistry
Chapter Name - Some Basic Concepts In Chemistry

1 Nature and Characteristics of Matter STUDY HERE
Properties of Matter and Their
2 Measurement STUDY HERE
3 Uncertainty In Measurement STUDY HERE
Laws Of Chemical Combination For
4 Elements And Compounds STUDY HERE
5 DALTON'S ATOMIC THEORY STUDY HERE
6 Atomic Mass And Molecular Mass STUDY HERE
7 Mole Concept Basic STUDY HERE
8 Percent Composition Formula STUDY HERE
9 Empirical and Molecular Formula STUDY HERE
10 Stoichiometric Calculations STUDY HERE
11 Gravimetric Analysis STUDY HERE
12 Molarity And Mole Fraction STUDY HERE
13 Law of Equivalence STUDY HERE
14 Oleum and its % labeling STUDY HERE
Some Basic Concept in Chemistry
15 Formula STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Atomic Structure

1 Thomson atomic model STUDY HERE
Rutherford atomic model and its
2 limitations STUDY HERE
Atomic Number(Z), Mass number(A),
3 Isotopes and Isobars STUDY HERE
4 Electromagnetic radiation STUDY HERE
5 Planck's quantum theory STUDY HERE
6 Photoelectric effect STUDY HERE
7 Hydrogen Spectrum STUDY HERE
8 Bohr's Model Of An Atom STUDY HERE
9 Zeeman and Stark's effect. STUDY HERE
10 De Broglie Relationship STUDY HERE
11 Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle STUDY HERE
Frequency, Time Period and Angular
12 Frequency STUDY HERE
13 Quantum Numbers STUDY HERE
14 Shape of Orbitals STUDY HERE
15 Radial nodes and planar nodes STUDY HERE
Hund's Rule, Pauli Exclusion Principle,
16 and the Aufbau Principle STUDY HERE
17 Electronic Configuration of Elements STUDY HERE
Stability Of Orbitals: Half-Filled And
18 Completely-Filled STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Classification Of Elements And Periodic Table

1 Development Of Modern Periodic Table STUDY HERE
2 Mendeleev’s Periodic table STUDY HERE
3 Modern periodic table STUDY HERE
Electronic Configuration in Periods and
4 Groups STUDY HERE
Nomenclature Of Elements With Atomic
5 Number STUDY HERE
Classification of Elements and Periodicity
6 in Properties STUDY HERE
7 Metals, Non-metals and Metalloids STUDY HERE
8 Atomic Size & Atomic Radius STUDY HERE
9 Ionisation Enthalpy STUDY HERE
10 Electron Gain Enthalpy STUDY HERE
11 Electronegativity STUDY HERE
Physical and chemical properties of
12 elements STUDY HERE
13 Modern periodic table trend STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

1 Chemical Bonding STUDY HERE
2 Lewis Electron Dot Structures STUDY HERE
3 Formal Charge And Its Properties STUDY HERE
4 Limitations of The Octet Rule STUDY HERE
5 Ionic Bond or Electrovalent Bond STUDY HERE
6 Lattice Energy STUDY HERE
Bond Parameters - Bond Order, Angle,
7 Length, and Energy STUDY HERE
8 Dragos Rule STUDY HERE
9 Resonance Structures STUDY HERE
10 Fajan’s Rule STUDY HERE
11 Valence Bond Theory STUDY HERE
12 Pi Bonds STUDY HERE
13 Hybridisation STUDY HERE
14 VSEPR Theory STUDY HERE
15 Molecular geometry STUDY HERE
16 Molecular Orbital Theory STUDY HERE
17 Energy Level Diagram STUDY HERE
18 Dipole Moment STUDY HERE
19 Ionic Bond - Partially Covalent in Nature STUDY HERE
20 Van Der Waals Forces STUDY HERE
21 Hydrogen Bonding STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Chemical Thermodynamics

1 Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
2 Thermodynamic Property STUDY HERE
3 State Functions STUDY HERE
Reversible, Irreversible, Polytropic
4 Process STUDY HERE
5 Zeroth Law Of Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
Introduction To Heat, Internal Energy And
6 Work STUDY HERE
7 Isothermal Expansion of an Ideal Gas STUDY HERE
Graphical Comparison of Thermodynamic
8 Processes STUDY HERE
Heat Capacity - Relationship between Cp
9 and Cv STUDY HERE
10 Thermochemistry STUDY HERE
11 Enthalpy Change STUDY HERE
Standard Enthalpy Of Formation,
12 Combustion And Bond Dissociation STUDY HERE
Lattice Enthalpy, Hydration Enthalpy And
13 Enthalpy Of Solution STUDY HERE
Enthalpy of Neutralization of Strong Acid
14 and Strong Base STUDY HERE
15 Ionization And Electron Gain Enthalpy STUDY HERE
16 Resonance Energy STUDY HERE
17 Kirchoff’s Equation STUDY HERE
18 Hess’s Law STUDY HERE
19 Born Habers Cycle STUDY HERE
20 Bomb Calorimeter STUDY HERE
21 Entropy Change STUDY HERE
22 Spontaneity in Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
Gibbs Energy Change And Criteria For
23 Equilibrium STUDY HERE
24 Third Law Of Thermodynamics STUDY HERE
25 Chemical thermodynamics formula STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Equilibrium
1 Equilibrium STUDY HERE
2 Law Of Mass Action STUDY HERE
3 Equilibrium Constant STUDY HERE
4 Relation between Kp and Kc STUDY HERE
5 Degree of Dissociation STUDY HERE
6 Le Chatelier's Principles on Equilibrium STUDY HERE
7 Ionic Equilibrium STUDY HERE
Bronsted Lowry and Lewis Acid-Base
8 theory STUDY HERE
9 Ionization Of Acids And Bases STUDY HERE
10 Ka and Kb Relationship STUDY HERE
11 pH Of Acids And Bases STUDY HERE
12 Common ion effect STUDY HERE
13 Buffer Solution STUDY HERE
14 Salt Hydrolysis STUDY HERE
15 Solubility and Solubility Product STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Redox Reaction and Electrochemistry

1 Oxidation Number STUDY HERE
2 Redox Reactions STUDY HERE
3 Displacement Reaction STUDY HERE
4 Electrochemistry STUDY HERE
5 Electrochemical Series STUDY HERE
6 Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis STUDY HERE
7 Galvanic Cells STUDY HERE
8 Salt Bridge STUDY HERE
9 Standard Hydrogen Electrode STUDY HERE
10 Gibbs Free Energy of Reaction STUDY HERE
11 Nernst Equation STUDY HERE
12 Concentration Cells STUDY HERE
13 Molar Conductivity STUDY HERE
14 Kohlrausch's Law STUDY HERE
Types Of Battery - Primary cell &
15 Secondary cell STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Solutions

1 Types of Solutions STUDY HERE
2 Expression of Concentration of Solutions STUDY HERE
3 Vapour Pressure of solutions STUDY HERE
4 Ideal Solution STUDY HERE
5 Raoult’s Law STUDY HERE
6 Azeotropic Mixture STUDY HERE
7 Elevation in Boiling Point STUDY HERE
8 Depression in Freezing Point STUDY HERE
9 Osmotic Pressure STUDY HERE
10 Reverse Osmosis STUDY HERE
11 Isotonic, Hypertonic, Hypotonic Solution STUDY HERE
Van't Hoff Factor and Abnormal Molar
12 Mass STUDY HERE
13 Solubility and Henry's Law STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Chemical Kinetics

1 Rate of Reaction STUDY HERE
2 Rate Law STUDY HERE
3 Order of Reaction STUDY HERE
4 Zero Order Reaction STUDY HERE
5 First Order Reaction STUDY HERE
6 Second Order Reaction STUDY HERE
7 nth Order Reaction STUDY HERE
8 Methods of Determining Reaction Order STUDY HERE
9 Molecularity of reaction STUDY HERE
10 Pseudo First Order Reaction STUDY HERE
11 Elementary and Complex Reactions STUDY HERE
12 Arrhenius Equation STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - The d- and f-Block Elements

1 Transition Elements STUDY HERE
2 Colour Of Transition Elements STUDY HERE
3 Properties Of Interstitial Compounds STUDY HERE
4 KMnO4 - Potassium Permanganate STUDY HERE
5 Potassium Dichromate - K2Cr2O7 STUDY HERE
6 F Block Elements STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Coordination Compounds

1 Coordination Compounds STUDY HERE
2 Werner's Theory STUDY HERE
Valence Bond Theory of Coordination
3 Compounds STUDY HERE
4 Crystal Field Theory (CFT) STUDY HERE
Factors Affecting the Stability of
5 Complexes STUDY HERE
6 Isomerism in Coordination Complexes STUDY HERE
7 Organometallic Compounds STUDY HERE
8 Pi - Complex STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Some Basic Principles Of Organic Chemistry
Organic Compounds - Classification Of
1 Organic Compounds STUDY HERE
2 Functional Groups STUDY HERE
3 Homologous Series STUDY HERE
IUPAC Nomenclature of Organic
4 Chemistry STUDY HERE
5 Isomerism STUDY HERE
6 Organic Chemistry STUDY HERE
7 Carbocations STUDY HERE
8 Carbanions STUDY HERE
9 Alkyl Free Radicals STUDY HERE
10 Nucleophiles and Electrophiles STUDY HERE
11 Inductive Effect STUDY HERE
12 Electromeric Effect STUDY HERE
13 Mesomeric or Resonance Effect STUDY HERE
14 Hyperconjugation STUDY HERE
15 Tautomerism STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Hydrocarbons

1 IUPAC Nomenclature of Alkanes STUDY HERE
2 Adsorption and Degree of Unsaturation STUDY HERE
3 Preparation of Alkanes STUDY HERE
4 Physical Properties of Alkanes STUDY HERE
5 Chemical Properties of Alkanes STUDY HERE
Conformation, Sawhorse and Newman
6 Projections STUDY HERE
7 Nomenclature and Isomerism of Alkenes STUDY HERE
8 Preparation of Alkenes STUDY HERE
9 Chemical Properties of Alkenes STUDY HERE
10 Hydroboration and Oxidation STUDY HERE
11 Preparation of Alkynes STUDY HERE
12 Chemical Properties of Alkynes STUDY HERE
13 Aromaticity STUDY HERE
14 Reaction of Aromatic Compounds STUDY HERE
15 Electrophilic Substitution Reaction STUDY HERE
16 Friedel-Crafts Reaction STUDY HERE
Benzene Reactions - Sulfonation,
17 Nitration and Halogenation STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Organic Compounds containing Halogens

1 Alkyl Halides STUDY HERE
Physical & Chemical Properties of
2 Haloalkanes STUDY HERE
3 Haloarene STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Organic Compounds containing Oxygen

1 Preparation of Alcohols STUDY HERE
Physical and Chemical Properties of
2 Alcohols STUDY HERE
3 Preparation of Phenols STUDY HERE
Physical and Chemical Properties of
4 Phenols STUDY HERE
5 Williamson's Ether Synthesis STUDY HERE
Methods of Preparation of Aldehydes and
6 Ketones STUDY HERE
7 Reaction of Aldehydes and Ketones STUDY HERE
8 Carboxylic Acids STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
1 Preparation of Amines STUDY HERE
2 Test for Amines STUDY HERE
3 Basicity of Amines STUDY HERE
4 Azo-Coupling Reaction STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Biomolecules

Classification of Carbohydrates and its
1 Structure STUDY HERE
2 Tests for Carbohydrates STUDY HERE
3 Properties of Glucose STUDY HERE
4 Amino Acids STUDY HERE
5 Proteins STUDY HERE
6 Enzymes STUDY HERE
7 Vitamins STUDY HERE
Maths
Chapter Name - Sets, Relations and Functions

1 Sets, Roster and Set Builder form of Sets STUDY HERE
2 Equal and Equivalent Sets STUDY HERE
Subsets, Proper Subset, Improper
3 Subset, Intervals STUDY HERE
4 Finite set, Infinite set, Singleton set STUDY HERE
5 Power set, Universal set STUDY HERE
6 Union of sets, Properties of union STUDY HERE
Intersection of Set, Properties of
7 Intersection STUDY HERE
8 Difference of set STUDY HERE
Complement of a set, Law of
9 Complement, Property of Complement STUDY HERE
10 Cardinal number of some sets STUDY HERE
11 De-Morgan's Laws STUDY HERE
Ordered pair, Cartesian product of two
12 sets STUDY HERE
13 Relation, Number of relation STUDY HERE
14 Domain, Range of Relation STUDY HERE
15 Relation, and its types STUDY HERE
16 Functions, Image and Pre-image STUDY HERE
Domain of function, Co-domain, Range of
17 function STUDY HERE
18 Inequalities STUDY HERE
19 Transcendental function STUDY HERE
20 Logarithmic Inequalities STUDY HERE
21 Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
22 Inverse Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
Modulus Function, Properties of Modulus
23 Function STUDY HERE
24 Algebraic function STUDY HERE
25 Piecewise function STUDY HERE
26 One to One Function STUDY HERE
27 Many One Function STUDY HERE
28 Onto Function or Surjective STUDY HERE
29 Into Function and Bijective function STUDY HERE
Composition of function: Conditions and
30 Properties STUDY HERE
31 Inverse of a function STUDY HERE
32 Even and Odd Function STUDY HERE
33 Periodic Functions STUDY HERE
34 Vertical and Horizontal Transformation STUDY HERE
35 Transformations of Functions STUDY HERE
f(x) = min{g1(x), g2(x).......... } or
36 max{g1(x), g2(x).......... } STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations

1 Powers of Iota STUDY HERE
2 Complex number STUDY HERE
3 Algebraic operation on Complex Numbers STUDY HERE

4 Multiplication of Complex Numbers STUDY HERE
5 Conjugates of Complex Numbers STUDY HERE
Modulus of complex number and its
6 Properties STUDY HERE
7 Argument of complex number STUDY HERE
8 Polar form of complex numbers STUDY HERE
9 Euler form of complex number STUDY HERE
10 Square root of complex numbers STUDY HERE
11 De-moivre’s theorem STUDY HERE
12 Cube roots of unity STUDY HERE
13 nth root of unity STUDY HERE
14 Rotation Of Complex Numbers STUDY HERE
Distance formula and Equation of
15 perpendicular bisector STUDY HERE
16 Quadratic Equation STUDY HERE
Nature Of Roots Depending Upon
17 Coefficients And Discriminant STUDY HERE
18 Transformation of Quadratic Equations STUDY HERE
19 Condition for common roots STUDY HERE
Graphical Representation of Quadratic
21 Sign of Quadratic Expression STUDY HERE
22 Quadratic Inequalities STUDY HERE
23 Quadratic Equation in two Variables STUDY HERE
24 Location of Roots STUDY HERE
25 Remainder Theorem STUDY HERE
26 Rational Inequalities Calculator STUDY HERE
27 Irrational equations and Inequalities STUDY HERE
28 Exponential Equations In Quadratic Form STUDY HERE
29 Logarithmic Equations in Quadratic form STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Trigonometry

1 Measuring Angles STUDY HERE
2 Trigonometric Ratios STUDY HERE
3 Trigonometric Identities STUDY HERE
4 Sign of Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Graphs of General Trigonometric
5 Functions STUDY HERE
6 Trigonometric Ratios of Allied Angles STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios of Compound
7 Angles STUDY HERE
Sum-to-Product and Product-to-Sum
8 Formulas STUDY HERE
9 Product To Sum Formulas STUDY HERE
10 Double Angle Formulas STUDY HERE
11 Triple Angle Identities STUDY HERE
12 Half Angle Formula STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratio of Submultiple of an
13 Angle STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios of Some Specific
14 Angles STUDY HERE
15 Summation Of Series In Trigonometry STUDY HERE
16 Conditional Trigonometric Identities STUDY HERE
Maximum and Minimum value of
17 Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
General Solution of Trigonometric
18 Equations STUDY HERE
19 Simultaneous Trigonometric Equations STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Equation using Minimum
20 and Maximum value of Function STUDY HERE
21 Trigonometric Inequality STUDY HERE
22 Law of Sines STUDY HERE
23 Law of Cosines STUDY HERE
24 Law Of Tangents STUDY HERE
25 Projection Formula STUDY HERE
26 Semiperimeter and Half Angle Formulae STUDY HERE
27 Area of Triangle STUDY HERE
28 Circumcircle of a Triangle STUDY HERE
29 In-Circle and In-Centre STUDY HERE
30 Escribed Circle of Triangle STUDY HERE
31 Important Solutions of Triangle Formulas STUDY HERE
32 Height and Distance STUDY HERE
33 Inverse Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
Domain and Range of Trigonometric
34 Functions STUDY HERE
35 Inverse Functions STUDY HERE
36 Graph of Inverse Trigonometric Function STUDY HERE
Trigonometric Ratios of Complementary
37 Angles STUDY HERE
Sum and difference of angles in terms of
38 arctan STUDY HERE
39 Multiple Angles STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Matrices and Determinants

1 Determine The Order Of Matrix STUDY HERE
2 Types of Matrices STUDY HERE
Triangular matrix (Upper and Lower
3 triangular matrix) STUDY HERE
4 Matrix operations STUDY HERE
5 Matrix Multiplication STUDY HERE
6 Transpose of a Matrix STUDY HERE
Symmetric Matrix & Skew Symmetric
7 Matrix STUDY HERE
8 Conjugate of a Matrix STUDY HERE
9 Hermitian matrix STUDY HERE
10 Skew Hermitian Matrix STUDY HERE
11 Trace of a matrix and properties STUDY HERE
Orthogonal matrix and Unitary matrix and
12 Idempotent matrix STUDY HERE
Periodic matrix and Nilpotent matrix and
13 involutory matrix STUDY HERE
14 Elementary row operations STUDY HERE
15 Singular Matrix STUDY HERE
16 Minors And Cofactors STUDY HERE
17 Adjoint and Inverse of a Matrix STUDY HERE
18 Inverse Matrix STUDY HERE
19 Multiplication of Two Determinants STUDY HERE
20 Properties of Determinants STUDY HERE
21 System of Linear Equations STUDY HERE
22 Cramer’s Rule STUDY HERE
Homogeneous System of Linear
24 Solving Linear Equations Using Matrix STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Sequence and Series

1 Sequence And Series STUDY HERE
2 Arithmetic Progression STUDY HERE
3 Sum of n Terms of an AP STUDY HERE
4 Arithmetic Mean in AP STUDY HERE
5 Geometric Progression STUDY HERE
6 Geometric Mean In GP STUDY HERE
7 Sum To n Terms Of a GP STUDY HERE
8 Harmonic Progression STUDY HERE
9 Harmonic Mean in HP STUDY HERE
10 Relation between A.M., G.M. and H.M. STUDY HERE
11 Arithmetico Geometric Series STUDY HERE
Sum of an Infinite Arithmetic Geometric
12 Series STUDY HERE
13 SUMMATION FORMULA STUDY HERE
14 Sum of Common Series STUDY HERE
If the differences of successive terms of a
15 series are in A.P.and G.P STUDY HERE
16 Method of Difference STUDY HERE
17 Sum to n Terms of Special Series STUDY HERE
18 Application of AM-GM Inequality STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Co-ordinate geometry

1 Coordinate Axes STUDY HERE
2 Distance Between Two Points Formula STUDY HERE
3 Section Formula & Conic Sections STUDY HERE
Centroid, Incentre and Circumcentre and
4 Orthocentre of a Triangle STUDY HERE
5 Incentre STUDY HERE
6 Circumcentre and Orthocentre STUDY HERE
7 Excenters of Triangle STUDY HERE
8 Area of Triangle in Coordinate Geometry STUDY HERE
9 Locus STUDY HERE
10 Transformations of Axes STUDY HERE
11 Rotation of Axes About Origin STUDY HERE
12 Straight Lines STUDY HERE
13 Equation of Straight Line STUDY HERE
14 Angle Between Two Lines STUDY HERE
Position of two points with respect to a
15 line STUDY HERE
16 Parallel and Perpendicular Lines STUDY HERE
17 Distance of a Point From a Line STUDY HERE
18 Point of Intersection Formula STUDY HERE
19 Family of Lines STUDY HERE
20 Line Equally Inclined with two lines STUDY HERE
21 Equation of the Bisectors STUDY HERE
22 Foot of Perpendicular and Image STUDY HERE
23 Pair of Straight Line STUDY HERE
Homogeneous Equations in Two
24 Variables STUDY HERE
25 Circle STUDY HERE
26 Explain parametric equation of a circle. STUDY HERE
Locus of Mid Point of the Chord of the
27 Circle STUDY HERE
28 Diametric Form of a Circle STUDY HERE
29 Intercepts Made by Circle on the Axis STUDY HERE
30 Position of a Point With Respect to Circle STUDY HERE
31 Line and Circle STUDY HERE
32 Length of Intercept Cut-Off from a line STUDY HERE
Equation of the Tangent and Normal to
33 the Circle STUDY HERE
34 Power of a point wrt Circle STUDY HERE
35 Chord of Contact STUDY HERE
36 Pair of Tangent STUDY HERE
37 Director Circle STUDY HERE
38 Diameter Of A Circle STUDY HERE
39 Intersection of Two Circle STUDY HERE
40 Common Chord of two Circles STUDY HERE
41 Family of Circles STUDY HERE
42 Angle of Intersection of Two Circle STUDY HERE
43 Radical Axis STUDY HERE
44 Conic Sections STUDY HERE
45 Parabola STUDY HERE
Equation of parabola when equation of axis
and tangent at vertex and latusrectum are
46 given STUDY HERE
47 Position of a Point with Respect to a Parabola STUDY HERE
48 Line and a Parabola STUDY HERE
49 Tangent to a Parabola STUDY HERE
Normal in point and Parametric and Slope
50 form of parabola STUDY HERE
51 Normal at t1 meets the parabola again at t2 STUDY HERE
52 Co-normal Points STUDY HERE
53 Chord of Contact and Diameter of Parabola STUDY HERE
54 Subtangent and Subnormal STUDY HERE
55 Some Standard Property of Parabola STUDY HERE
56 Ellipse STUDY HERE
57 Latus Rectum STUDY HERE
58 Parametric equation of Ellipse STUDY HERE
59 Horizontal and Vertical Ellipse STUDY HERE
60 Position of a point with respect to Ellipse STUDY HERE
61 Line and the Ellipse STUDY HERE
62 Equation of Tangent to Ellipse STUDY HERE
Equation of Normal in Point Form and
63 Parametric Form STUDY HERE
64 Diameter of Ellipse STUDY HERE
65 Director Circle of Ellipse STUDY HERE
Length of sub-Tangent and Sub-Normal of an
66 Ellipse STUDY HERE
67 Hyperbola STUDY HERE
68 Position of a point with respect to Hyperbola STUDY HERE
69 Line and the Hyperbola STUDY HERE
70 Tangents to Hyperbolas STUDY HERE
Equation of Normal of Hyperbola in Point
71 ,Parametric Form STUDY HERE
72 Director Circle of Hyperbola STUDY HERE
73 Asymptotes of Hyperbolas STUDY HERE
74 Rectangular Hyperbola STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Limit , Continuity and Differentiability

1 Limit STUDY HERE
2 Left-Hand Limits and Right-Hand Limits STUDY HERE
3 Algebra of Limits STUDY HERE
Limit of Indeterminate Form and Algebraic
4 limit STUDY HERE
5 Limit of Algebraic function STUDY HERE
6 Limit Using Expansion STUDY HERE
7 Sandwich Theorem STUDY HERE
8 Limits of Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
9 Exponential and Logarithmic Limits STUDY HERE
10 Limits of the form (1 power infinity) STUDY HERE
11 L’ Hospital’s Rule STUDY HERE
Limit of the form (0 power 0 or infinity
12 power 0) STUDY HERE
13 Differentiation STUDY HERE
Derivative of Polynomials and
14 Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
15 Differentiation Rules STUDY HERE
16 Differentiation of Implicit Function STUDY HERE
Differentiation of Function in Parametric
17 Form STUDY HERE
Differentiation of Inverse Trigonometric
18 Function (cos/sine/tan) STUDY HERE
19 Differentiation Using Logarithm STUDY HERE
Differentiation of a Function wrt Another
Function and Higher Order derivative of a
21 Differentiation of Determinants STUDY HERE
22 Differentiation of Function and Relation STUDY HERE
23 Differentiation of Inverse Function STUDY HERE
24 Continuity and Discontinuity STUDY HERE
Directional Continuity and Continuity over
25 an Interval STUDY HERE
Non - Removable, Infinite and Oscillatory
26 Type Discontinuity STUDY HERE
Continuity and Discontinuity obtained by
27 Algebraic Operations STUDY HERE
28 Continuity of Composite Function STUDY HERE
29 The Intermediate Value Theorem STUDY HERE
Differentiability and Existence of
30 Derivative STUDY HERE
Examining differentiability Using Graph of
32 Continuity And Differentiability STUDY HERE
33 Differentiability of Composite Function STUDY HERE
34 Derivative as Rate Measure STUDY HERE
Approximations and Errors using
35 Derivatives STUDY HERE
36 Tangent to the Curve at a Point STUDY HERE
37 Angle of Intersection between Two Curves STUDY HERE
Length of Tangent and Normal and
38 Subtangent and subnormal STUDY HERE
39 Rolle’s Theorem STUDY HERE
40 Monotonicity and Extremum of Functions STUDY HERE
41 Inflection Point STUDY HERE
42 Maxima and Minima in Calculus STUDY HERE
43 First Derivative Test STUDY HERE
44 Application of Monotonicity STUDY HERE
45 Nature of Roots of Cubic Polynomial STUDY HERE
Application of Extremum in Plane Geometry
46 and Solid geometry STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Integral Calculus

Integration as an Inverse Process of
1 Differentiation STUDY HERE
2 Integration of Trigonometric Functions STUDY HERE
3 Integration by Substitution STUDY HERE
Fundamental Formulae of Indefinite
Integration (Inverse Trigonometric
4 Functions) STUDY HERE
5 Integrals of Particular Function STUDY HERE
6 Trigonometric Integrals STUDY HERE
7 Integration By Parts Formula STUDY HERE
8 Integration Using Partial Fraction STUDY HERE
9 Integration of Irrational Algebraic Function STUDY HERE
10 Reduction Formula STUDY HERE
11 Indirect Substitution in Integral STUDY HERE
12 Definite Integral - Calculus STUDY HERE
13 Definite integral as the limit of a sum STUDY HERE
Evaluation of Definite Integrals by
14 Substitution STUDY HERE
15 Properties of the Definite Integral STUDY HERE
16 Piecewise Definite integration STUDY HERE
Application of Even- Odd Properties in
17 Definite Integration STUDY HERE
18 Newton-Leibnitz's Formula STUDY HERE
Application of Inequality in Definite
19 Integration STUDY HERE
20 Area Between Two Curves - Calculus STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Differential Equations

1 Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Formation of Differential Equation and
2 Solutions of a Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Differential equations with variables
3 separable STUDY HERE
4 Homogeneous Differential Equation STUDY HERE
5 Linear Differential Equation STUDY HERE
6 Bernoulli’s Equation STUDY HERE
7 Orthogonal Trajectory STUDY HERE
8 Exact Differential Equation STUDY HERE
9 Application of Differential Equation STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Vector Algebra

1 3D Geometry STUDY HERE
2 Vectors and Scalars STUDY HERE
3 Vectors Joining Two Points STUDY HERE
4 Types Of Vectors STUDY HERE
Direction Cosines & Direction Ratios Of A
5 Line STUDY HERE
6 Vector Addition and Subtraction STUDY HERE
Multiplication Of Vectors And Scalar
7 Quantity STUDY HERE
8 Section Formula STUDY HERE
9 Linear Combination of Vectors STUDY HERE
10 Dot Product Of Two Vectors STUDY HERE
Finding Components of a vector Along
11 and Perpendicular to another Vector STUDY HERE
12 Cross product STUDY HERE
Geometrical Interpretation of Product of
13 Vectors STUDY HERE
14 Scalar Triple Product of Vectors STUDY HERE
15 Proof of the Vector Triple Product STUDY HERE
16 Lagrange's Identity STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Three Dimensional Geometry

1 Equation Of A Line In Three Dimensions STUDY HERE
2 Image of a Point in the given Line STUDY HERE
3 Shortest Distance between Two Lines STUDY HERE
4 Equation of A Plane In The Normal Form STUDY HERE
Equation of a plane perpendicular to a
given vector and passing through a given
5 point STUDY HERE
Equation of a plane passing through three
6 non collinear point STUDY HERE
Equation of a Plane Passing Through a
Given Point and Parallel to Two Given
7 Vectors STUDY HERE
Angle Between Two PlanesAngle
8 Between Two Planes - Planes & Angles STUDY HERE
9 Family of Plane STUDY HERE
Perpendicular Distance Of A Point From
10 A Plane STUDY HERE
11 Image of a Point in the Plane STUDY HERE
12 Two Sides of a Plane STUDY HERE
Equation of The Plane Bisecting the
13 Angle Between Two Planes STUDY HERE
Line of Intersection of Two Plane and
14 Angle Between a Line and a Plane STUDY HERE
15 Coplanarity of Two Lines STUDY HERE
16 Equation of Sphere STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Permutations and Combinations

Introduction Permutation and
1 Combination STUDY HERE
2 Fundamental Principle Of Counting STUDY HERE
3 Permutation STUDY HERE
Permutation Of Objects When Few Are
4 Identical STUDY HERE
5 Applications Of Permutation STUDY HERE
6 Geometrical Permutations STUDY HERE
7 Rank Of A Word In A Dictionary STUDY HERE
8 Introduction Of Combinations STUDY HERE
9 Applications Of Selections STUDY HERE
10 Selection Of Any Number Of Objects STUDY HERE
11 Formation of Groups STUDY HERE
Finding Number Of Solutions Of
13 Distribution Of Things STUDY HERE
14 Derangement STUDY HERE
15 Permutation Vs Combination STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Statistics and Probability

1 Introduction STUDY HERE
2 Representation of Data STUDY HERE
3 Central Tendency STUDY HERE
4 Measures of Dispersion STUDY HERE
Dispersion (Variance and Standard
5 Deviation) STUDY HERE
6 Coefficients of Dispersion STUDY HERE
Some Important Point Regarding
7 Statistics STUDY HERE
Important Terminologies and Definitions
8 of Probability STUDY HERE
9 Algebra of Events STUDY HERE
10 Basic Probability Practise Session STUDY HERE
11 Set Theoretical Notations of Probability STUDY HERE
12 Conditional Probability STUDY HERE
13 Multiplication Theorem on Probability STUDY HERE
14 Independent Event STUDY HERE
Total Probability Theorem and Bayes'
15 Theorem STUDY HERE
Random Variables and its Probability
16 Distributions STUDY HERE
17 Bernoulli Trials and Binomial Distribution STUDY HERE
Chapter Name - Binomial Theorem and its Simple Applications

Binomial Theorem - Formula, Expansion,
1 Problems and Applications STUDY HERE
2 Some Standard Expansions STUDY HERE
3 General and Middle Terms STUDY HERE
4 Greatest Term (numerically) STUDY HERE
5 An Important Theorem STUDY HERE
6 Problems on Divisibility STUDY HERE
7 Finding last digits STUDY HERE
8 Important Result (Comparison) STUDY HERE
9 Multinomial Theorem STUDY HERE
10 Series Involving Binomial Coefficients STUDY HERE
Differentiation form of Binomial
11 Coefficients STUDY HERE
12 Use of Integration in Binomial STUDY HERE
13 Product of two Binomial Coefficients STUDY HERE
14 Binomial Inside Binomial STUDY HERE
15 Binomial Theorem for any Index STUDY HERE
Important Results of Binomial Theorem
16 for any Index STUDY HERE
Mock Test 1
Physics
Q. 1 Two coherent sources of light can be obtained by
Option 1:
Two different light source
Option 2:
Two different light source but of same power
Option 3:
Two different light source of same colour
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
None of the above
Solution:
As we learn
Coherent Source -
If they produce wave of same frequency with a constant phase different.
- wherein
Necessary condition to observe interference.
Two coherent sources of ligh can be obtainrd by one source only
Q. 2 In a wave the path difference corresponding to a phase difference of is

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Relation between phase & path difference -
- wherein
Phase difference
Path Difference
Wavelength
Q. 3 When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a
plane sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index:
Option 1:
equal to that of glass
Option 2:
less than one
Option 3:
greater than that of glass
Option 4:
less than that of glass
Correct Answer:
equal to that of glass
Solution:
As we learnt in
Lensmaker's Formula -
- wherein
refractive index of medium of object
refractive index of lens
are radius of curvature of two surface
This can happen only when the refractive index of liquid is equal to refractive index of lens.
Q. 4 The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at - bt2, where a and b
are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
i.e, current flows from t=0→t=t0
the heat produced is
Q. 5 A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of

E.M.F. because the method involves :
Option 1:
cells
Option 2:
potential gradients
Option 3:
a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
Option 4:
a combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances
Correct Answer:
a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potentiometer -
It is a device used to measure e.m.f of a given cell and to compare e.m.f's of cells
- wherein
It is also used to measure internal resistance of given cell

Because the method involves a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer the device can be
used to measure P.D internal resistance of a cell and compare emf's of two sources.
Q. 6 The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted and stretched to 'n' times its original length,
its new resistance will be :
Option 1:
nR
Option 2:
Option 3:
n2 R
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
n2 R
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resistance formula -
- wherein
resistivity of material
Number of free electrons per unit volume.

According to the question, l2 = nl1
Q. 7 The potential difference (VA - VB) between the points A and B in the given figure is
Option 1:
-3 V
Option 2:
+3 V
Option 3:
+6 V
Option 4:
+9 V
Correct Answer:
+9 V
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potential difference -
The voltage accross the terminals of a cell when it is supplying current to external resistance is known as
Potential Difference .
- wherein
=2 2+3+1 2=9V
Q. 8 The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse bias
resistance is :
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
10−6
Option 3:
106
Option 4:
100
Correct Answer:
10−6
Solution:
.
Forward Resistance
Reverse bias Resistance
Ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance
Correct option is 2.
Q. 9 A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i, on one face of prism of angle A (assumed
to be small) and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the
prism is , the angle of incidence i is nearly equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 10 A concave mirror of focal length 'f1' is placed at a distance of 'd' from a convex lens of focal
length 'f2'. A beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens - concave
mirror combination returns to infinity. The distance 'd' must equal:
Option 1:
f1+f2
Option 2:
-f1+f2
Option 3:
2f1+f2
Option 4:
-2f1+f2
Correct Answer:
2f1+f2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Mirror Formula -
- wherein
Object distance from pole of mirror.
Image distance from pole of mirror.
focal length of the mirror.
Thin lens formula -
- wherein
are object and image distance from lens.
First image will form at distance from lens.
For final image to return to infinity, the first image must be centre of curvature of mirror. Hence distance
of image I from the mirror must be equal to
Correct option 3.
Q. 11 The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance
between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are:
Option 1:
10 cm, 10 cm
Option 2:
15 cm, 5 cm
Option 3:
18 cm, 2 cm
Option 4:
11 cm, 9 cm
Correct Answer:
18 cm, 2 cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Astronomical Telescope -
- wherein
= focal length of objective
focal length of eyepiece
magnifying power =
Also
Q. 12 In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of
two wavelengths 1 = 12000 and 2 = 10000 . At what minimum distance from the
common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one
interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?
Option 1:
3 mm
Option 2:
8 mm
Option 3:
6 mm
Option 4:
4 mm
Correct Answer:
6 mm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Fringe Width -
- wherein
Distance of
Maxima
Distance of
maxima
let mth bright fringe of first will concide with nth bright fringe of other
minimum Value of m=5 & n= 6
Minimum distance of such point from Central
Maxima
Q. 13 To get an output of 1 from the circuit shown in figure the input must be :
Option 1:
a = 0, b = 1, c = 0
Option 2:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
Option 3:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Option 4:
a = 0, b = 0, c = 1
Correct Answer:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Solution:
To get an output of 1, from the NAND gate
both input should be 1.
C=1
Now Resultant of a & b should be 1.
So the Correct option is 3.

Q. 14 A Zener diode is connected to a battery and a load as shown below :
The currents I, IZ and IL are respectively
Option 1:
5 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA
Option 2:
15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
Option 3:
12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
Option 4:
12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
Correct Answer:
12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
Solution:
In the given figure
Voltage across RL= 2K is same as that across zener dioxide i.e 10V
Total applied potential = 60 V
Potential difference across 4K will be 50 V
Current through 4K =
Current through diode

Q. 15 If N0 is the original mass of the substance of halflife period =5 years, then the amount of
substance left after 15 years is
Option 1:
N0/8
Option 2:
N0/16
Option 3:
N0/2
Option 4:
N0/4
Correct Answer:
N0/8
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of nuclei after disintegration -
or
Number of nucleon activity at a time t is exponentional function
Now,
No is the initial amount of substance and N is the amount left after decay.
So,
Q. 16 In the nuclear fission reaction,
given that the repulsive potential energy between the two nuclei is
the temperature at which the gases must be heated to initiate the
reaction is nearly
[ Boltzmann's constant
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Nuclear fission -
e.g.
- wherein
In nuclear fission neutron trigger the reaction & in the process more than one neutron is released.
At temperature T, the kinetic energy is .
Q. 17 The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition
shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Energy emitted due to transition of electron -
- wherein
Highest difference of energy is between n = 1 and n = 3.

According to . Correct option is III. Since I is absorption of photon.
Q. 18 For which of the following Bohr model is not valid?
Option 1:
Hydrogen atom
Option 2:
singly ionised helium atom
Option 3:
Deuteron atom
Option 4:
singly ionised neon atom
Correct Answer:
singly ionised neon atom
Solution:
Bohr's theory is applicable to hydrogen-like atoms (single electron system).
But does not have one electron
So Bohr model is not valid for
Q. 19 Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 240 m high with initial
speed of 10 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. Which of the following graph best represents the
time variation of relative position of the second stone with respect to the first? (Assume
stones do not rebound after hitting the ground and neglect air resistance, take g=10 m/s2
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20
Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are
being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the
blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force (in N) applied by
the wall on block B is :
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
Solution :
Q. 21 Moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is . Initially the body is ate rest. In
order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of , the angular acceleration of
must be applied about the axis for a duration of :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given
Q. 22 A circular disc of radius b has a hole of radius a at its centre (see figure). If the mass per unit
area of the disc varies as , then the radius of gyration of the disc about its axis passing
through the centre is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 23
A rod ' ' has non-uniform linear mass density given by where a and b
are constants and The value of x for the centre of mass of the rod is at :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 24 If the dimensions of a physical quantity quantity are given by MaLbTc, then the physical
quantity will be:
Option 1:
Velocity if a=1, b=0,c=-1
Option 2:
Acceleration if a=1,b=1,c=-2
Option 3:
Force if a=0,b=-1,c=-2
Option 4:
Pressure if a=1,b=-1,c=-2
Correct Answer:
Pressure if a=1,b=-1,c=-2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Time period of a simple pendulum -
Equating exponents of similar quantities
a=0 b=1/2 c=-1/2
- wherein
Q. 25 In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%,
3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows: % error in P is:
Option 1:
10%
Option 2:
7%
Option 3:
4%
Option 4:
14%
Correct Answer:
14%
Solution:
As we learnt in
Relative error /Fractional error -
Ratio of mean absolute error to mean value of the quantity measured
- wherein
% In P = [ 3 1 + 2(2) + 1(3) + 1(4)]
% error In P = 14%
Q. 26 If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two
vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
Option 1:
0o
Option 2:
90o
Option 3:
45o
Option 4:
180o
Correct Answer:
90o
Solution:
As we learnt in
Parallelogram law of vector Addition -

If two vector are represented by both magnitude and direction by two adjacent side of parallelogram taken from
same point then their resultant is also represented by both magnitude and direction taken from same point but by
diagonal of parallelogram.
- wherein
Represents law of parallelogram vector Addition
Q. 27 The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of
projection of the projectiles is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Horizontal Range -
Horizontal distance travelled by projectile from the point of projectile to the point on ground where its hits.
- wherein
Special case of horizontal range
For man horizontal range.
R=H
Q. 28 A particle moves so that its position vector is given by . Where is
a constant.
Which of the following is true?
Option 1:
Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to .
Option 2:
Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to .
Option 3:
Velocity is perpendicular to and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
Option 4:
Velocity is perpendicular to and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
Correct Answer:
Velocity is perpendicular to and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector or cross product -
Vector or cross product of two vector & written as is a single vector whose magnitude is equal to
product of magnitude of & and the sine of smaller angle between them.
- wherein
Figure 6 shows representation of vector or cross product of vectors.
shows representation of vector or cross product of vectors

For two perpendicular vectors
and
So, velocity is to r and is directed towards the origin.
Q. 29
A Carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the
work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower
temperature is :
Option 1:
1J
Option 2:
90 J
Option 3:
99 J
Option 4:
100 J
Correct Answer:
90 J
Solution:
As we learnt in
Coefficient of performance (beta) -
- wherein
For a perfect refrigerator

Efficiency of a carnot cycle -
are in kelvin
- wherein
Source temperature
Sink Temperature
For a carnot cycle
= Coefficient of performance
= Efficiency of carnot engine
Q. 30 One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation
. The heat capacity (in terms of R) of the gas during this process is
Option 1:
1.5
Option 2:
2.5
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
From eqn(1),
For monoatomic gas,
Q. 31 A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period T. If d is the density of
the earth and G is the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity represents:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 32
Two hypothetical planets of masses m1 and m2 are at rest when they are infinite distance
apart. Because of the gravitational force they move towards each other along the line joining
their centres. What is their speed when their separation is ‘d’ ?
(Speed of m1 is 1 and that of m2 is 2)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Initial energy of the system = 0
Final energy =
From conservation of energy
From conservation of Linear Momentum
Similarly
Q. 33 A 60 HP electric motor lifts an elevator having a maximum total load capacity of 2000 kg. If
the frictional force on the elevator is 4000N , then the speed of the elevator at full load is
close to: (1 HP=746 W, g=10 ms-2).
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Power -
Instantaneous power-
Where,
i.e. power is equal to the scalar product of force with velocity
so, net force act on elevator =mg+F
Fnet=(2000 x 10+4000)=24000 N
using power =Fnet x speed
So speed= =1.9 m/s
So, Option (4) is correct.
Q. 34 After perfectly elastic oblique collision of two bodies of equal masses (if the second body is
at rest), the scattering angle would be
Correct Answer: 90
Solution:
Perfectly elastic oblique collision -
Let two bodies moving as shown in figure.
By law of conservation of momentum
Along x-axis-
….. (1)
Along y-axis-
…..(2)
By law of conservation of kinetic energy
….(3)
And In Perfectly Elastic Oblique Collision
Value of e=1
So along line of impact (here along in the direction of )
We apply e=1
And we get ….. (4)
So we solve these equations (1),(2),(3),(4) to get unknown.
Special condition
Then, from equation (1), (2) and (3)
We get,
i.e; after perfectly elastic oblique collision of two bodies of equal masses (if the second body
is at rest), the scattering angle would be .
So, answer is -
Q. 35 When 100 g of a liquid A at 100oC is added to 50 g of a liquid B at temperature 75oC , the

temeprature of the mixture becomes 90oC. The temperature of the mixture (in oC), if 100 g
of liquid A at 100oC is added to 50 g of liquid B at 50oC, will be :
Correct Answer: 80
Solution:
Specific Heat -
- wherein
C = specific heat
Change in temperature
m = Amount of mass
For (I)
now for (II)
From (1) & (2)
Q. 36
The ratio of the specific heats in terms of degrees of freedom (n) is given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Specific heat capacity at constant pressure -
- wherein
f = degree of freedom
R= Universal gas constant
Specific heat of gas at constant volume -
- wherein
f = degree of freedom
R= Universal gas constant
n= degree of freedom
Q. 37 Two identical beakers A and B contain equal volumes of two different liquids at each
and left to cool down. Liquid in A has density of and specific heat of
while liquid in B has density of and specific heat of
which of the following best describes their temperature versus time
graph schematically ?(assume the emissivity of both the beakers to be the same)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Newton's Law of Cooling -
- wherein
Temperature difference is not very large.
From given
and
By newtons law of cooling
at
and we know
So slope of T v/s t curve for A is more than B.
Q. 38 Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature; the
pressure of A being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be 1.5
times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ideal gas equation PV=nRT
OR
where
Divide the two equation
Given
Q. 39 When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we Learned
Electric charge -The loss of electrons gives a Positive charge.
By using
Q. 40 When a body is earth connected, electrons from the earth flow into the body. This means the body is
Option 1:
Unchanged
Option 2:
Charged positively
Option 3:
Charged negatively
Option 4:
An insulator
Correct Answer:
Charged positively
Solution:
When a positively charged body is connected to the earth, electrons flow from earth to body and the body becomes
neutral.
Q. 41 Two copper balls, each weighing 10g are kept in air 10 cm apart. If one electron from every 106 atoms
is transferred from one ball to the other, the coulomb force between them is (atomic weight of copper
is 63.5)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Properties of Charge -
Transferable
- wherein
It can be transferred from one body to another.
Number of atoms in given mass =
Transfer of electron between balls =
Hence magnitude of charge gained by each ball.

Force of attraction between the balls
Q. 42 A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 6.7×10−2 Am2 and moment of inertia 7.5×10−6 kg m2
is performing simple harmonic oscillations in a magnetic field of 0.01 T. Time taken ( in
seconds) for 10 complete oscillations is :
(give answer till 2 decimal places)
Correct Answer:
6.65
Solution:
As we learned in
The time period of Oscillating Bar Magnet -
Using
we get T = 0.665 s
For 10 oscillations, total time taken = t = 6.65 s
Q. 43 A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane
perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The
induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is:
Option 1:
4.8 V
Option 2:
0.8 V
Option 3:
1.6 V
Option 4:
3.2 V
Correct Answer:
3.2 V
Solution:
Induced emf in the loop is given by where A is the area of the loop.
So
Q. 44 A wire carrying current I is tied between points P and Q and is in the shape of a circular arch
of radius R due to a uniform magnetic field B (perpendicular to the plane of the paper,
shown by xxx) in the vicinity of the wire. If the wire subtends an angle at the centre of
the circle (of which it forms an arch) then the tension in the wire is :
Option 1:
IBR
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
IBR
Solution:
As we learned in
Total magnetic force -
Q. 45 A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of the

condenser are then connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L. The current through the
inductor when the potential difference across the condenser reduces to V2 is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 46 Three straight parallel current carrying conductors are shown in the figure. The force
experienced by the middle conductor of length 25 cm is :
Option 1:
3 x 10-4 N toward right
Option 2:
6 x 10-4 N toward left
Option 3:
9 x 10-4 N toward left
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
3 x 10-4 N toward right
Solution:
Force due to wire one
towards right
Force due to wire two
towards left
Net force =
Q. 47 In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the
voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively
Option 1:
100 V, 2.0 A
Option 2:
150 V, 2.2 A
Option 3:
220 V, 2.2 A
Option 4:
220 V, 2.0 A
Correct Answer:
220 V, 2.2 A
Solution:
and are equal and out of phase with each other and thus get cancelled.
Thus and
Q. 48 Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain
minimum:
Option 1:
frequency
Option 2:
power
Option 3:
wavelength
Option 4:
intensity
Correct Answer:
frequency
Solution:
Q. 49 Electron used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage
is increased to 100 kV then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would
Option 1:
increase by 2 times
Option 2:
decrease by 2 times
Option 3:
increase by 4 times
Option 4:
increase by 4 times
Correct Answer:
decrease by 2 times
Solution:
As we learnt in
De - Broglie wavelength with charged particle -
- wherein
wavelength decreases by a factor of 2.

Q. 50 The momentum of a photon of energy h v will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Kinetic mass of photon -
- wherein
For photon E = pc.

Q. 51 For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of is
4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is ,
then the input signal voltage is
Option 1:
10 mV
Option 2:
20 mV
Option 3:
30 mV
Option 4:
15 mV
Correct Answer:
20 mV
Solution:
As we learnt in
Transistor -
Three layered semiconducting device .
NPN or PNP
- wherein
1. Emitter is heavily doped
2. collector is moderately doped .
3. Base is lightly doped & very thin

Q. 52
Given : A and B are input terminals.
Logic 1 = > 5 V
Logic 0 = < 1 V
Which logic gate operation, the following circuit does ?
Option 1:
AND Gate
Option 2:
OR Gate
Option 3:
XOR Gate
Option 4:
NOR Gate
Correct Answer:
AND Gate
Solution:
As we have learned
AND Gate -
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
When both inputs > 5 V then
When one of the inputs is > 5 V and other < 1 V we get
When both input are < 1V Then
Hence A B output
1 1 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 0
Q. 53 The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current
flowing through the resistance R1 will be
Option 1:
2.5 A
Option 2:
10.0 A
Option 3:
1.43 A
Option 4:
3.13 A
Correct Answer:
2.5 A
Solution:
As we learnt in
P -N junction as diode -
It is a one way device. It offers a low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
In the given figure is in Reverse biased mode. hence no current will flow through it while is in
forward biased mode hence will offer Zero resistance
Correct Option is 1.
Q. 54 The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as a medium is With the
introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes . The permittivity of the
medium is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 55 A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of The electric potential due to
the dipole at a point at a diatnce of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on the line
making an angle of with the dipole axis is:
Option 1:
50 V
Option 2:
200 V
Option 3:
400 V
Option 4:
zero
Correct Answer:
200 V
Solution:
Q. 56 Needles N1,N2,and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic
substance respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will
Option 1:
attract all three of them
Option 2:
attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
Option 3:
attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
Option 4:
attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly.
Correct Answer:
attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
Solution:
Ferromagnetic substance magnetizes strongly in the direction of magnetic field N1 is made up of
this material paramagnetic substance magnetizes weakly in the direction of magnetic field. N2 is made of
this material. Diamagnetic substance magnetizes weakly in the opposite direction of magnetic field. N3 is
made of this material.
∴ Magnet will attack N1 strongly, N2 weakly and it will repel N3 weakly.
Q. 57 A 220-volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0
ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the
primary windings of the transformer is
Option 1:
5.0 ampere
Option 2:
3.6 ampere
Option 3:
2.8 ampere
Option 4:
2.5 ampere
Correct Answer:
5.0 ampere
Solution:
Q. 58 A cylindrical piston of mass M slides smoothly inside a long cylinder closed at one end,
enclosing a certain mass of gas. The cylinder is kept with its axis horizontal. If the position is
disturbed from its equilibrium position, its oscillates simple harmonically. The period of the
oscillation will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the piston be displaced through distance towards left, then volume decreases, pressure increases.
If is increase in pressure and is decrease in volume, then considering the process to take place
gradually (i.e. isothermal)
This excess pressure is responsible for providing the restoring force to the piston of mass .
Hence
Comparing it with
Q. 59 A simple pendulum has a time period T in vacuum. Its time period when it is completely
immersed in a liquid of density one-eight of the density of the material of the bob is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In vacuum,
Let be the volume and be the density of the mass of the bob.
Net downward force acting on the bob inside the liquid
= weight - upthrust
So, time period of the bob inside the liquid

Q. 60 From the top of a 64 metres high tower, a stone is thrown upwards vertically with the
velocity of 48 m/s. The greatest height (in metres) attained by the stone, assuming the value
of the gravitational acceleration g=32 m/s2, is :
Option 1:
100
Option 2:
88
Option 3:
128
Option 4:
112
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
As we have learned
Collinear Vectors -
Two vectors are said to be collinear if their directed line segments are parallel disregards to their
direction.
- wherein
If and are collinear , then where K R
Negative of a vector -
The negative of a vector is collinear with vector itself.
- wherein
is collinear with
So , height = 64 + 36 = 100
Chemistry
Q. 1 6.02 x 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of the
solution is:
Option 1:
0.01 M
Option 2:
0.001 M
Option 3:
0.1 M
Option 4:
0.02 M
Correct Answer:
0.01 M
Solution:
As we learnt in
Molarity (M) = (Number of moles of solute)/(volume of solution in litres)
Molarity is defined as the number of moles of the solute in 1 litre of the solution.
No. of molecules (given) =
No. of moles
Volume of solution = 100 ml = 0.1 L
Therefore,
Therefore, the correct option is (1).
Q. 2 The electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from higher orbitals to the orbital
of radius 211.6 pm. This transition is associated with :
Option 1:
Lyman series
Option 2:
Balmer series
Option 3:
Paschen series
Option 4:
Brackett series
Correct Answer:
Balmer series
Solution:
As we have learned,
Hence, the option number (2) is correct.
Q. 3 The correct option with respect to the Pauling electronegativity values of the elements is :
Option 1:
Ga < Ge
Option 2:
P>S
Option 3:
Si < Al
Option 4:
Te > Se
Correct Answer:
Ga < Ge
Solution:
Electronegativity -
A qualitative measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract shared electron is
electronegativity.
- wherein
It is not a measurable quantity.
Electronegativity and non-metallic character -
Non-metallic elements have strong tendency to gain electrons.Therefore electronegativity is directly

related to non-metallic properties of elements.
- wherein
Electronegativity non-metallic property
Correct order
Therefore, Option(1) is correct
Q. 4 molecular is tetrahedral having:
Option 1:
Two bonds
Option 2:
One bond
Option 3:
Four bonds
Option 4:
Three bonds
Correct Answer:
Four bonds
Solution:
One s and three p orbital undergo sp3 hybridization. Four sp3 hybrid orbitals form four σ bonds with
oxygen atoms. They are σ sp3 – p. Four pπ – dπ bonds are also formed with oxygen atoms by the
unpaired electrons.
Q. 5 In which case change in entropy is negative?
Option 1:
Evapouration of water
Option 2:
Expansion of a gas at constant temperature
Option 3:
Sublimation of solid to gas
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
degree of randomness decreases
entropy decreases and is negative.

Q. 6 In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits the highest oxidation state?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The Correct answer is option 3.
Q. 7 The correct order of the atomic radii of C, Cs, Al and S is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Periodicity of atomic radius and ionic radius in period -
In a period from left to right the effective nuclear charge increases because the next electron fills in the
same shell. So the atomic size decrease.
- wherein
Electronegativity and atomic radius -
The attraction between the outer electrons and the nucleus increases as the atomic radius decreases in a
period.
- wherein
Size of atom and ion in a group -
In a group moving from top to the bottom the number of shell increases.So the atomic size increases.
- wherein
As we know that
From Left to right in a period size decreases and when going down the group size increases
Q. 8 A mixture of potassium chlorate, oxalic acid, and sulphuric acid is heated. During the
reaction which element undergoes the maximum change in the oxidation number?
Option 1:
S
Option 2:
H
Option 3:
Cl
Option 4:
C
Correct Answer:
Cl
Solution:
In the mixture, potassium chlorate acts as an oxidizing agent while oxalic acid act as a reducing agent.
Carbon will oxidize while Chlorine will be reduced as per the given equation.
The maximum change in oxidation number of chlorine i.e. from + 5 to - 1, while carbon goes from +3 to
+4.
Q. 9 The weight of silver (at.wt = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600
mL of O2 at STP will be :
Option 1:
5.4 g
Option 2:
10.8 g
Option 3:
54.0 g
Option 4:
108.0 g
Correct Answer:
108.0 g
Solution:
As we learnt in
The second law of electrolysis -
The masses of different substances, liberated or dissolved by the electricity are proportional to their
equivalent masses.
According to Faraday's second law

Now we know,
22400 mL = 1 mol at STP
so, 1 mL = 1/22400 mol at STP
now, 5600 ml = 5600/22400 mole at STP
so, 5600ml = 0.25 mol at STP.
But we have to find weight because in the formula there is W.
so, mole = weight / molar mass
then 0.25 mol = weight / 32
(molar mass of O2 = 32 gram /mol)
so, the weight of O2 = 0.25 X 32
Now, equivalent mass of O2 = molar mass / valancy
Now, equivalent mass of O2 = 32/(2+2) = 8 , Due to 2 oxygen atoms.
Now, we have
WAg = 108
Q. 10 The reason for double helical structure of DNA is the operation of :
Option 1:
Electrostatic attractions
Option 2:
van der Waals forces
Option 3:
Dipole - Dipole interactions
Option 4:
Hydrogen bonding
Correct Answer:
Hydrogen bonding
Solution:
As learnt in
The double-helical structure of DNA is the operation of hydrogen bonding.
Q. 11 The dipeptide, Gln-Gly, on treatment with CH3COCl followed by aqueous work up gives :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of the dipeptide Gln-gly is given as
Now, acetylation occurs at the free hydroxy and amino groups. Amides do not undergo acetylation.
So, Gly-Gly on treatment with CH3COCl followed by hydrolysis gives
Hence, the correct answer is Option (3)

Q. 12
A is :
Option 1:
Glucose cyanohydrin
Option 2:
Glucose oxime
Option 3:
Glucosazone
Option 4:
Gluconic acid
Correct Answer:
Glucose cyanohydrin
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Glucose reacts with Hydrogen cyanide and undergoes nucleophilic addition reaction to form its
cyanohydrin.

Q. 13 Which ones are dihalogen derivatives of alkanes?
Option 1:
a, b only
Option 2:
a, b and d only
Option 3:
b only
Option 4:
a,b and c only
Correct Answer:
a,b and c only
Solution:
Dihalogen derivatives of hydrocarbons contain two halogen atoms apart from carbon and hydrogen
Here, in
It is Dihalogen derivatives of alkene not alkane.
In (c) Hydrogen is replaced from the alkane group, not from the Benzene group, so it is Dihalogen
derivatives of alkane.
a,b and c are Dihalogen derivatives of alkene.

Therefore, option (4) is correct.
Q. 14 Consider the Hunsdiecker reaction given below
What should be the order of reactivity of the above reaction if R is Carbon.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The reaction mechanism involves formation of free radicals and 1o carbon free radicals will react faster
due to lesser steric hinderance followed by 2o and then 3o.
Q. 15 The order of reactivity of the given haloalkanes towards nucleophile is:
Option 1:
RI >RBr >RCl
Option 2:
RCl>RBr>RI
Option 3:
RBr>RCl>RI
Option 4:
RBr>RI>RBr
Correct Answer:
RI >RBr >RCl
Solution:
The reactivity for nucleophile will be higher for those which can release H+ or R+ as easily as possible.
Thus, the correct order is:
RI > RBr > RCl
Q. 16 Consider the given complexes
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Out of the following, select the set containing only paramagnetic complexes
Option 1:
(i), (ii)
Option 2:
(ii), (iii)
Option 3:
(i), (iii)
Option 4:
(i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer:
(i), (iii)
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Cyanide ions are strong field ligands and cause pairing of electrons.
The electronic arrangement in the central metal ions in the given complexes with the Strong field ligand is
shown below:
Hence, only complexes (i) and (iii) are paramagnetic as they contain unpaired electrons
Q. 17 In any ferric salt, on adding potassium ferrocyanide, a Prussian blue colour is obtained,
which is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Potassium Ferrocyanide reacts with ferric chloride to form Prussian's Blue

Q. 18 An aqueous solution of potash alum gives
Option 1:
Two types of ions
Option 2:
Only one type of ion
Option 3:
Four types of ions
Option 4:
Three types of ions
Correct Answer:
Three types of ions
Solution:
Potash alum is a mixed salt of and and upon dissolution in water, it gives all the
three ions from which it is made viz.
Q. 19 U is equal to :
Option 1:
Adiabatic work
Option 2:
Isothermal work
Option 3:
Isochoric work
Option 4:
Isobaric work
Correct Answer:
Adiabatic work
Solution:
Adiabatic Process -
Heat exchange between the system and surroundings is zero.
So,
No change in internal energy = Adiabatic work
Ans(1)
Q. 20 A container at contains at pressure and an excess of

(neglect the volume of solid ). The volume of the containers is now decreased by
moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the container,
when pressure of attains its maximum value, will be :
(Given that : )
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Before compression,
After Compression
For the maximum Volume of the container, let's assume that

The correct answer is option 1.
Q. 21 In acidic medium, H2O2 changes to which has two

bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in is:
Option 1:
+5
Option 2:
+3
Option 3:
+6
Option 4:
-10
Correct Answer:
+6
Solution:
CrO5 has a butterfly structure having two peroxo bonds.
peroxo oxygen has - 1 oxidation state. Let oxidation state of Cr be x.
CrO5 : x + 4( - 1) + 1 (-2) = 0
Q. 22 The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is :
Option 1:
Sublimation
Option 2:
Chromatography
Option 3:
Crystallisation
Option 4:
Steam distillation
Correct Answer:
Steam distillation
Solution:
The 1:1 mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols is separated by steam distillation
Q. 23 The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula
Option 1:
C 3 H6
Option 2:
C 2 H2
Option 3:
C4H10
Option 4:
C 2 H4
Correct Answer:
C 3 H6
Solution:
The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula .
Unsymmetrical alkenes generally are more reactive than the symmetrical alkenes, alkynes and alkanes.
That is why, propene is more reactive than the other given compounds.
Q. 24 Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution
containing 1 mol of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is
further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg.
Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure states will be, respectively
Option 1:
200 and 300
Option 2:
300 and 400
Option 3:
400 and 600
Option 4:
500 and 600
Correct Answer:
400 and 600
Solution:
Given that 1 mole of X and 3 moles of Y are present
(1)
After adding 1 mole y the vapour pressure is 560
(2)
By solving equation 1 & 2
Therefore, option(3) is correct.
Q. 25 A first-order reaction is 50 % completed in 20 min at 27oC and in 5 min at 47oC. The energy
of activation (in kJ/mol) of reaction is:
Correct Answer:
55.14
Solution:
Given,
A first-order reaction is 50 % completed in 20 min at 27oC and in 5 min at 47oC.
Case 1 ; T1= 27oC = 300 K , t1/2 = 20 min

Case 1 ; T2= 47oC = 320 K , t1/2 = 5 min
Now,
Arrhenius Equation -
= Rate constant
So,
Take both sides (ln)-
Put values from the above calculations-
Q. 26 Apart from +3 oxidation state, other stable oxidation states shared by f-block elements
is/are:
Option 1:
+2 only
Option 2:
+2 and +4
Option 3:
+4 only
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
+2 and +4
Solution:
As we have learned
Valence characteristics of f- block elements -
– They are all metals.
– They show variable valency.The +3 is the most important oxidation state.Few elements show +2 and
+4 oxidation states.
+2 and +4 oxidation state are also shown by f-block elements.
Therefore, Option(2) is correct.
Q. 27 [Co2(CO)8] displays :
Option 1:
one Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Option 2:
one Co−Co bond, four terminal CO and four bridging CO
Option 3:
no Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Option 4:
no Co−Co bond, four terminal CO and four bridging CO
Correct Answer:
one Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Solution:
The structure of [Co2(CO)8]
In one Co-Co bond, six terminal bond and two bridge CO are present
Q. 28 In which of the following pairs A is more stable than B?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is resonance stabilised while is stable due to hyperconjugation, Since resonance is
dominating over hyperconjugation,
So, is more stable than .
option(1): B is more stable than A as B involves resonance.
Option(2): B is more stable than A as B has more alpha hydrogen(7 to 4) which implies more number of
hyperconjugation structures. This makes B more stable.
Option(3): B is more stable than A as a six-membered ring is more stable than a 3 membered ring due to
the lesser ring strain of the six-membered ring.
Option(4): A is more stable than B due to the possibility of resonance with each of the phenyl groups
attached to C.B doesn't show any resonance.
Q. 29 The major product of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrite with ethyl bromide is:
Option 1:
Ethane
Option 2:
Ethene
Option 3:
Ethylalcohol
Option 4:
Nitroethane
Correct Answer:
Nitroethane
Solution:
Reaction of alkyl halide with AgNO_{2} -
Alkyl halides when treated with AgNO2 in aqueous ethanol, Nitro alkane is obtained as a product.
- wherein
Q. 30 The major product of the following reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given substrate undergoes dehydrohalogenation to form an alkene and the
subsequent polymerisation reaction occurs as:
It is to be mentioned that the chlorine attached to the Benzene ring will not undergo substitution with
KOH very easily due to partial double bond character between the benzene ring and the chloro group.
Q. 31 Which of the following potential energy (PE) diagram represents the reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
reaction occurs in two steps. The first step is the formation of the Carbocation while the second step
is the attack of the nucleophile to form the final product.
Since the formation of the Carbocation is the slow step in the reaction, the energy profile diagram will
have a higher peak for the formation of the carbocation. The second peak represents the activation
energy required for the nucleophile to bond with the Carbocation which will have a lower peak than the
slowest step.
Q. 32 When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to:
Option 1:
1 mol of HCl (g)
Option 2:
2 mol of HCl (g)
Option 3:
0.5 mol of HCl (g)
Option 4:
1.5 mol of HCl (g)
Correct Answer:
1 mol of HCl (g)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of Moles of a gas at STP = given volume of gas / 22.4 litre
Concept of limiting reagent and excess reagent -
The reactant which gets consumed and thus limits the amount of product formed is called the limiting
reagent.
Therefore, 22.4 L volume at STP is occupied by
Therefore, 11.2 L volume will be occupied by,
Since, Cl2 possesses a minimum number of moles,
thus it is the limiting reagent.
As per the equation,
Q. 33 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
Option 1:
Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
Option 2:
Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
Option 3:
Both bond angle and bond length change
Option 4:
Both bond angles and bond length remains same
Correct Answer:
Solution:
= Both bond angles ad bond length remains same
Q. 34 Identify the wrong statement in the following :
Option 1:
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius.
Option 2:
Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius.
Option 3:
Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table.
Option 4:
Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of
the periodic table.
Correct Answer:
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius.
Solution:
The Atomic radius of the elements decreases across a period from left to right due to an increase in
effective nuclear charge. On moving down a group, since, the number of shells increases, so atomic
radius increases. Amongst isoelectronic species, the ionic radius increases with increases in negative
charge or decrease in positive charge.
Q. 35 Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?
Option 1:
BeCl2, XeF2
Option 2:
Tel2, XeF2
Option 3:
Option 4:
IF3, XeF2
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Species Number of electron Structure

38 Linear
72 Linear
158 Bent
72 Linear
124 Linear
72 Linear
80 T-shaped
72 Linear
In this question, in place of isoelectronic there should be same number of valence electron.
Q. 36 A reaction at 1 bar is non-spontaneous at low temperature but becomes spontaneous at

high temperature. Identify the correct statement about the reaction among the following :
Option 1:
Both ∆H and ∆S are negative.
Option 2:
Both ∆H and ∆S are positive.
Option 3:
∆H is positive while ∆S is negative.
Option 4:
∆H is negative while ∆S is positive.
Correct Answer:
Both ∆H and ∆S are positive.
Solution:
ΔG=ΔH−TΔS
At low temperature,
TΔS < ΔH
ΔG > 0 and the reaction is non-spontaneous.
At high temperature,
TΔS > ΔH
ΔG < 0 and the reaction is spontaneous.
Q. 37 The equilibrium constants of the following are:
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the
reaction in the forward direction.
is the equilibrium constant for the reverse direction.
, - - - - - - - -- (1)
.......................(2)
- - - - - - - - - - (3)
adding (1) (2) (3)
Q. 38 In acidic medium, changes to which has two bonds.

Oxidation state of in is:-
Option 1:
+5
Option 2:
+3
Option 3:
+6
Option 4:
-10
Correct Answer:
+6
Solution:
The reaction proceeds as follows:
In peroxide linkages, the oxidation state of each oxygen atom is -1. Let O.S. of Cr be x
Then, x-2-2*2=0
= x=+6
O.S, is +6

Q. 39 The IUPAC name of the compound
is _______.
Option 1:
3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Option 2:
5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
Option 3:
5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 40 The size of the iso-electronic species and is affected by :
Option 1:
azimuthal quantum number of valence shell
Option 2:
nuclear charge
Option 3:
electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
Option 4:
principal quantum number of valence shell
Correct Answer:
nuclear charge
Solution:
Ionic Radii -
The ionic radius is the distance between the nucleus of an ion and the point where the nucleus exerts its
influence on the electron cloud.
Isoelectronic species -
A series of atom, ions and molecules in which each species contains the same number of electrons but
different nuclear charge.
- wherein
Size of isoelectronic species -
Smaller the value of z/e, larger the size of that species.Smaller z means effective nuclear charge is small
hence size is large.
For isoelectronic species the size is compared by Nuclear charge.
Q. 41 The Van't Hoff factor will be highest for:
Option 1:
Sodium chloride
Option 2:
Magnesium chloride
Option 3:
Sodium phosphate
Option 4:
Urea
Correct Answer:
Sodium phosphate
Solution:
Van't Hoff factor for dissociation of strong electrolyte
Na3PO4 gives the maximum ions and hence it shows the highest Van't Hoff factor.
Therefore, option(3) is correct
Q. 42 For the first-order reaction:
(A) The concentration of the reactant decreases exponentially with time.
(B) The half-life of the reaction decreases with increasing temperature.
(C) The half-life of the reaction depends on the initial concentration of the reactant.
(D) The reaction proceeds to 99.6% completion in eight half-life duration.
The correct statements are -
Option 1:
Only A and B
Option 2:
Only B and C
Option 3:
A, B, and D
Option 4:
A, B, C, and D
Correct Answer:
A, B, and D
Solution:
A) The concentration of reactant which is following first-order kinetics always decreases exponentially and
becomes zero at infinity.
B) The half-life of the reaction decreases with increasing temperature
As the temperature increases, the rate constant increases and the half-life decreases since half-life is
inversely dependent on the rate constant.
K increase on increasing T.
C) The half-life of the reaction does not depend on the initial concentration of the reactant.
D) The reaction proceeds to 99.6% completion in eight half-life duration
After eight half-lives.
So, A, B, and D are correct.
Option 3 is correct.
Q. 43 The complex, has electronic configuration and has one unpaired
electron, which of the following statements are true?
1 ) The complex is octahedral
2) It is outer sphere complex
3) It is diamagnetic
4) Coordination number of this compound is 6
Option 1:
1,2,3,4
Option 2:
1,2,3
Option 3:
2,3
Option 4:
1,2,4
Correct Answer:
1,2,4
Solution:
As we have learned
Metallic character of transition elements -
Transition elements have relatively low ionisation energies and have one or two electrons in their outer
most energy level (ns1 or ns2).As a result, metallic bonds are formed.The unpaired d- electron also result
in the formation of the metallic bond.
Since there are 6 H2O molecules attached as the ligand, thus its coordination number is 6 and its
geometry is octahedral but since it has 1 unpaired electron thus the complex is paramagnetic.
Therefore, Option(4) is correct,
Q. 44 In the extraction of which of the following, complex ion is formed:

Option 1:
Cu
Option 2:
Ag
Option 3:
Fe
Option 4:
Na
Correct Answer:
Ag
Solution:
The extraction of Silver is done using the McArthur Forest Cyanide method.
Sodium dicyano argentate
Sodium tetracyano zincate
Q. 45 The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold and dilute aqueous NaOH are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
(Cold)
Q. 46 Dissolving 120 g of a compound of (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density
1.12 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is :
Option 1:
1.00 M
Option 2:
2.00 M
Option 3:
2.50 M
Option 4:
4.00 M
Correct Answer:
2.00 M
Solution:
We have given, density of solution = 1.12g/ml
Therefore, total volume of solution =
Now, total moles of solute =
Molarity is given as
Molarity = (Moles of solute) / volume (L)
Thus, moles = 2 and volume = 1L
Therefore, molarity = 2 / 1
= 2M
Therefore, Option (2) is correct
Q. 47 The major product of the reaction
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 48 Which of the following is a peptide bond ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Peptide bond is an amide linkage formed between two amino acids which is formed by condensation
reaction.
The bond formed between two amino acids by the elimination of a water molecules is called peptide
linkage or bond
Q. 49 In a nucleophilic substitution reaction :
which one of the following undergoes complete inversion of configuration?
Option 1:
C6H5CHC6H5Br
Option 2:
C6H5CH2Br
Option 3:
C6H5CH CH3Br
Option 4:
C6H5CCH3C6H5Br
Correct Answer:
C6H5CH2Br
Solution:
It is a type reaction which requires less crowded substance. Among the given option
is least crowded substrate.
Nucleophilic substitution reactions that lead to inversion in configuration follow mechanism. Since it
involves the formation of a transition state which is crowded by 5 groups attached to a carbon atom,
steric hindrance of a major factor in these kinds of reactions. Due to steric hindrance of the benzene ring,
option (1) and (4) are ruled out. Among (2) and (3), (3) has a bulkier group attached to the C having Br. It
also has 3 hydrogens compared to 2.Thus (3) will offer more steric hinderance than (2). Thus (2) will give
inversion in the configuration.

Q. 50 The ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion- exchange resins follows
the order:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resin decreases as the size of
alkali metal ion increases.
Since the order of the size of alkali metal ion follows the order-
Therefore, the ease of adsorption follows the order-
Q. 51 The species, having bond angles of 120° is :
Option 1:
PH3
Option 2:
CIF3
Option 3:
NCl3
Option 4:
BCl3
Correct Answer:
BCl3
Solution:
Hybridisation -
When one s - and two p - orbitals of the same shell of an atom mix to form three new equivalent
orbitals.The hybridised orbital is called sp2 orbital.
- wherein
Shape is Trigonal planar
Q. 52 For the reaction, A(g) + B(g) → C(g) + D(g), H0 and S0 are, respectively, −29.8 kJ mol−1 and
−0.100 kJ K−1 mol−1 at 298 K. The equilibrium constant for the reaction at 298 K is :
Option 1:
1.0 × 10−10
Option 2:
1.0 × 1010
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 53 The of , are respectively,
. Which one of the following salts
will precipitate last if AgNO3 solution is added to the solution containing equal moles of
?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let us calculate the solability of each salt
1 0 0
1-s 2s s
s s
s s
s s
Since the solubility of is the maximum hence, it will precipitate last.
Q. 54 Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron ?
Option 1:
Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe
Option 2:
Liberation of H2 from steam by iron at high temperature
Option 3:
Rusting of iron sheets
Option 4:
Decolourization of blue CuSO4 solution by iron
Correct Answer:
Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe
Solution:
The below reactions shows the oxidation state of iron for all given condition.
Clearly, During the formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe, there is no change in the oxidation state of iron.
Q. 55 The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is:
Option 1:
Chromatography
Option 2:
Crystallisation
Option 3:
Steam distillation
Option 4:
Sublimation
Correct Answer:
Steam distillation
Solution:
Steam Distillation -
This method is used to separate substances which are steam volatile and are immiscible with water.
- wherein
e.g. O-nitrophenol and P-nitrophenol
Steam distillation is the most suitable method of separation of 1: 1 mixture of ortho and para
nitrophenols as there are intramolecular H-bonds in ortho nitrophenol.
Q. 56 The osmotic pressure of solution increases, if
Option 1:
Temperature is decreased
Option 2:
Solution concentration is increased
Option 3:
Number of solute molecules is increased
Option 4:
Volume is increased
Correct Answer:
Number of solute molecules is increased
Solution:
As we learned
Osmotic Pressure -
Osmotic Pressure ( ) is excess pressure developed on solution side due to osmosis.
As soon as the solute molecules increases the osmotic pressure of solution increase.
Q. 57 The half life of a first order reaction varies with temperature according to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt for a first order reaction,
Now, ln(c) = b and Ea/R = a
So,
Hence, option number (1) is correct.
Q. 58 Which one of the following has highest metallic character?
Option 1:
K
Option 2:
Ni
Option 3:
Al
Option 4:
Ca
Correct Answer:
K
Solution:
As we have learned
Decreasing order of metallic character -
K has highest metallic character among the given elements as it has the highest size among the given
elements thus removing the electron from potassium is easiest.

Q. 59 Types of isomerism shown by
Option 1:
Optical
Option 2:
Co-ordination
Option 3:
Geometrical
Option 4:
Linkage
Correct Answer:
Linkage
Solution:
As we have learnt,
is an ambidentate ligand and can be attached from both the N site as well as the O site in the form
of and respectively.
Hence, the given complex can show Linkage isomerism
Option 1:
CH2=CHCH2CH=CHCH3
Option 2:
CH2=CHCH=CHCH2CH3
Option 3:
CH3CH=C=CHCH2CH3
Option 4:
CH3CH=CH−CH=CHCH3
Correct Answer:
CH3CH=CH−CH=CHCH3
Solution:
Conjugated alkene in which double bonds are more substituted is the major product. When
dibromoalkane is heated with CH3OH/KOH, it undergoes dehydrohalogentation. Two molecules
of HBr are eliminated to form alkadiene.
Maths
Q. 1 Let be the solution of the differential equation
Then is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2
For, let and
then the value of is approximately equals to:
Correct Answer:
1.67
Solution:
Put n = 0
Put n = 1
Put n = 2
( same as fo(x))
So at n = 0, 3, 6, ...............96,99;
at n = 1, 4, 7, ...................97,100,103;
and n = 2, 5, 8,............98,101,104 ;
Q. 3 Let a vertical tower AB have its end A on the level ground. Let C be the mid-point of AB and
P be a point on the ground such that AP=2AB. If , then tan β is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Height and Distances -
The height or length of an object or the distance between two distant objects can be determined with the
help of trigonometric ratios.
Let, AC=CB=h, AB=2h and AP=4h
Q. 4 Let p(x) be a quadratic polynomial such that p(0)=1. If p(x) leaves remainder 4 when divided
by (x−1) and it leaves remainder 6 when divided by (x+1); then :
Option 1:
p(2)=11
Option 2:
p(2)=19
Option 3:
p(−2)=19
Option 4:
p(−2)=11
Correct Answer:
p(−2)=19
Solution:
Let
Remainder when p(x) is divided by (x-1) equals p(1) [Using remainder Theorem]. So,
Similarly,
Adding these 2 equations
and
Q. 5
if then n satisfies the equation :
Option 1:
n2 + 3n − 108 = 0
Option 2:
n2 + 5n − 84 = 0
Option 3:
n2 + 2n − 80 = 0
Option 4:
n2 + n − 110 = 0
Correct Answer:
n2 + 3n − 108 = 0
Solution:
which satisfies the equation
Q. 6
The term independent of x in expansion of is :
Correct Answer:
210
Solution:
As we have learned
General Term in the expansion of (x+a)^n -
Now,
For term independent of x,

Q. 7 Let if is such that a+b+c=3 and
is equal to :
Correct Answer:
330
Solution:
As we learnt in
Summation of series of natural numbers -
and
Now,
f(x) = ax2 + bx + c
a+b+c=3
f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)+xy
Then
f(1) = a + b + c =3
f(1) =3
put x = 1, y = 1
f(2) = f(1) + f(1) + 1 1
=2f(1)+1
=2 3+1=7
put x=1, y = 2
f(3)= f(1)+f(2)+2 1
=3+7+2
=12
Similarly f(4) = 18 (By putting x = 2 and y = 2)
f(1)+f(2)+f(3)+ f(4)+.....------= 3+7+12+18---
Now, as differences of cosecutive terms are 4, 5, 6, ..... which is an AP, so
Let An2+Bn+C
put n =1: 3 = A+B+C
At n =2: 7 = 4A+2B+C
At n =3: 12 = 9A+3B+C
Subtracting these equations
4 = 3A+B and 5 = 5A+B
1= 2A
B+C =
2B+C
=7-2 = 5
C=0
So
put n =10
= 330
Q. 8 If the line lies in the plane,
2x−4y+3z=2,
then the shortest distance between this line and the line
is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
As we have learned
Shortest distance between two skew lines (vector form) -
Shortest distance between is given by

- wherein
shortest distance is among the line which is perpendicular to both
shortest distance will be projection of PQ = on LM
So,
Where
So distance = 0
Q. 9 The value of k for which the function
is continuous at, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Result of 1 to the power of infinity Form -

Let
Put
So that,
Q. 10 An unbiased coin is tossed eight times. The probability of obtaining at least one head and at
least one tail is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number of throws = 8
Let 'getting at least one head' be represented by A, and 'getting at least one tail' be represented by B
P(Atleast one H and atleast one T)
= P (A ∩ B)
= 1 - P ((A ∩ B)')
= 1 - P (A' U B') (Using DeMorgan's Law)
Now A' means getting no Head (all tails) and B' means getting no Tails (all heads)
= 1 - ( P(A') + P(B') - 0) (As A' ∩ B' is empty set)
Q. 11 For two 3 × 3 matrices A and B, let A + B = 2B' and 3A + 2B = I3, where B' is the transpose of B
and I3 is 3 × 3 identity matrix. Then :
Option 1:
5A + 10B = 2I3
Option 2:
10A + 5B = 3I3
Option 3:
B + 2A = I3
Option 4:
3A + 6B = 2I3
Correct Answer:
10A + 5B = 3I3
Solution:
Given A + B = 2B' .............(1)
Taking transpose of both the sides

(A + B)' = (2B')'
A' + B' = 2(B')'
A' + B' = 2B ...........(2)
Also given, 3A + 2B = I ....(3)
Taking transpose of both the sides
3A' + 2B' = I ....(4)
(Note: Transpose of I is I itself)
Now from these 4 equations we need to get a relation in A and B by eliminating A' and B'
Let us first eliminate B'
From (4): 3A' + A + B = I (Using (1)) ....(5)
And 2 x (2):
2A' + 2B' = 4B
2A' + A + B = 4B
2A' + A - 3B = 0 .....(6)
From (5) and (6) we can eliminate A' as well
From (5): 3A' = I - A - B .....(7)
From (6): 2A' = 3B - A .....(8)
2x(7) - 3x(8): 0 = 2I + A - 11B .....(9)
From (9) and (3): A = B = I/5
For option (B) : 10A + 5B = 2I + I = 3I
Hence option (B) is correct
Q. 12 if and
then is equal to :
Correct Answer:
-24
Solution:
As we learnt in
Differential Equations -
An equation involving independent variable (x), dependent variable (y) and derivative of
dependent variable with respect to independent variable
- wherein
eg:
......................(i)
from (i)
Q. 13 A square, of each side 2, lies above the x-axis and has one vertex at the origin. If one of the
sides passing through the origin makes an angle 300 with the positive direction of the x-axis,
then the sum of the x-coordinates of the vertices of the square
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Parametric form -
- wherein
Where is the inclination of the line and is the distance between and
x-coordinates of A is
angle of OB with positive x-axis is
Hence x - coordinate of B is
x-cordinate of C is -2sin =-1
Hence Sum=
Q. 14
If and then the ordered
pair (A, B) is equal to : (where C is a constant of integration)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept
Rule of integration by Partial fraction -
Linear and non-repeated:
Let
Find ...
By comparing and
Q. 15 Let ABC be a triangle whose circumcentre is at P. If the position vectors of A, B, C
and P are
respectively, then the position vector of the orthocentre of this triangle, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Circumcentre of triangle -
Equate the distance of circumcentre from the three vertices.
- wherein
Euler line -
In any non equilateral triangle the circumcentre (O), the centriod (G) and the orthocentre (H) are collinear and G
divides OH in ratio 1:2
- wherein
Let orthocentre = H
So, PG:GH=1:2
&P,G,H are collinear.
So,
So,
Q. 16
If and then S:
Option 1:
is an empty set
Option 2:
contains exactly one element
Option 3:
contains exactly two elements
Option 4:
contains more than two elements
Correct Answer:
contains exactly two elements
Solution:
Put at the place of
(i)
(ii)
Multiplying (i) by 2
and
Q. 17 The number of for which
is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
As we know that
Now,
he number of is 4.
Q. 18 Let , the set of complex numbers. Then the equation,
represents :
Option 1:
a circle
Option 2:
an ellipse
Option 3:
a straight line
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
a circle
Solution:
Method 1
Putting z = x + iy
Clearly, this is a circle
Method 2
Q. 19 If all the words (with or without meaning) having five letters, formed using the letters of the
word SMALL are arranged as in a dictionary; then the position of the word SMALL is :
Option 1:
46th
Option 2:
59th
Option 3:
52nd
Option 4:
58th
Correct Answer:
58th
Solution:
Alphabetical order A, L, L, M, S
Starting with A : 4! / 2! = 12 words
Starting with L : 4! = 24 words
Starting with M : 4! / 2! = 12 words
Starting with SA : 3! / 2! = 3 words
Starting with SL : 3! = 6 words
Next word is SMALL itself: 1 word
Position = 12+24+12+3+6+1 = 58th
Q. 20
The sum of the rational terms in the binomial expansion of is
Option 1:
25
Option 2:
32
Option 3:
9
Option 4:
41
Correct Answer:
41
Solution:
There are only two rational terms - first term and last term.
Q. 21 Let x, y, z be positive real numbers such that and

. Then is equal to :
Option 1:
270
Option 2:
258
Option 3:
342
Option 4:
216
Correct Answer:
216
Solution:
As we have learned
Relation between AM, GM and HM of two positive numbers -
Now,
This is the AM between these 12 numbers
Now let us find GM between these 12 numbers
Now, as
But given
Which means as given A.M = G.M
Q. 22 The distance of the point (1, 3, −7) from the plane passing through the point (1, −1, −1),
having normal perpendicular
to both the lines and is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Distance of a point from plane (Cartesian form) -
The length of perpendicular from to the plane
is given by
Normal vector of Plane=
Equation of plane is of the form
With Point (1,-1,-1) we get
5-7-3=C=-5
So plane is 5x+7y+3y+5=0
distance from (1,3,-7) is
Q. 23 The function f defined by
is:
Option 1:
increasing in R.
Option 2:
decreasing in R.
Option 3:
decreasing in (0, ∞) and increasing in (−∞, 0).
Option 4:
increasing in (0, ∞) and decreasing in (−∞, 0).
Correct Answer:
increasing in R.
Solution:
First Derivative Test to Get Extrema -
First Derivative Test to Get Extrema
First find the value of x such that f’(x) = 0, let at x = a, f’(x) = 0
Now, find f”(x) at x = a.
1. If f”(a) < 0, then f(x) is maximum at x = a
2. If f”(a) > 0, then f(x) id minimum at x = a
3. If f”(a) = a
Then, find f’’’(x) at x = a.
If f’’’(a) ≠ 0, then f(x) has neither maximum nor minimum (inflection point) at x = a.
But, if f”’(a) = 0, then find fourth derivative of f(x) at x = a, i.e. f iv(x) at x = a.
If f iv(a) < 0, then f(x) is maximum at x = a and if f iv(a) > 0 then f(x) is minimum at x = a and so on.
SUMMARY
-
So,
for
Q. 24 From a group of 10 men and 5 women, four member committees are to be formed each of
which must contain at least one woman. Then the probability for these committees to have
more women than men is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let A be the event that at least one woman is selected in the committee
So A' is the event that no woman is selected in the committee
P (A) = P (atleast 1 woman) =1 - P(A') = 1- P(no woman is selected in the committee)
Let B be the event that there are more women than men in the committee
P (B) =
So,
(Note that here B is a subset of A, so their intersection equals B itself)
Q. 25 If is a solution of the system of linear equations
such that the point (a, b, c) lies on the plane then equals :
Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cramer's rule for solving system of linear equations -
When and ,
then the system of equations has infinite solutions.
- wherein
and
are obtained by replacing column 1,2,3 of by column
and given
solve for a,b, and c
so that
Q. 26 If
and y(0)=1,then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Solution of Differential Equation -
put
- wherein
Equation with convert to
Now put
Q. 27 A line drawn through the point P(4, 7) cuts the circle x2+y2=9 at the points A and B. Then
PA⋅PB is equal to :
Option 1:
53
Option 2:
56
Option 3:
74
Option 4:
65
Correct Answer:
56
Solution:
As we learnt
Length of a tangent -
- wherein
Length of tangent from a external point to circle
Since we know,
Q. 28
,then k is equal to:
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Integration by substitution -
The functions when on substitution of the variable of integration to some quantity gives any one of
standard formulas.
- wherein
Since all variables must be converted into single variable ,
put t = x-1
Q. 29 Let be two unit vectors such that if then
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector Product of two vectors(cross product) -
If and are two vectors and is the angle between them , then
- wherein
is unit vector perpendicular to both
and
Scalar Product of two vectors (dot product) -
- wherein
is the angle between the vectors
Squaring both sides

Q. 30 For then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
COMPOSITION OF FUNCTIONS -
Let f∶ A → B and g∶ B → C be two functions.

composition of f and g, denoted by g o f, then g o f (x) = g (f (x)), ∀ x ∈ A.
Q. 31 Let
be
two sets. Then :
Option 1:
P ⊂ Q and Q−P ≠ φ
Option 2:
Q⊄P
Option 3:
P⊄Q
Option 4:
P=Q
Correct Answer:
P=Q
Solution:
Let P
Let Q
From above, we observe that P = Q
Q. 32 The sum of all the real values of x satisfying the equation is :
Correct Answer: -4
Solution:
As we have learned
Roots of Quadratic Equation with real Coefficients -

are roots if
is satisfied by
- wherein
We have ,.
Sum = -4
Q. 33 The number of ways of selecting 15 teams from 15 men and 15 women, such that each team
consists of a man and a woman, is
Option 1:
1120
Option 2:
15!
Option 3:
1880
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
15!
Solution:
Let us fix men (M1, M2, ......,M15), and pair them with women
To find a team-mate for M1, we have 15 options
......
To find a team-mate for M15, we have 1 option
So, total number of ways = 15.14.13.12.......1 = 15!
Q. 34 If for positive integers , , the coefficients of the and powers of x

in the expansion of are equal,then n is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 35 Let a1, a2, a3, ......, an, ..... be in A.P. If a3 + a7 + a11 + a15 = 72, then the sum of its first 17
terms is equal to :
Option 1:
306
Option 2:
153
Option 3:
612
Option 4:
204
Correct Answer:
306
Solution:
Given that
a1, a2, a3, ......, an, .... are in AP
Also given that
a3 + a7 + a11 + a15 = 72
a3 + a15 = a7 + a11 = a1 + a17 = 36
Sum of first 17 term
Q. 36 If the image of the point P(1, −2, 3) in the plane, 2x+3y−4z+22=0 measured
parallel to the line, is Q, then PQ is equal to :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Intersection of line and plane -
Let the line
plane
intersect at P
to find P assume general point on line as
now put it in plane to find ,
Distance formula -
The distance between two points is =
- wherein
= -
PQ=2PM
Now, for finding M
Putting in equation of plane,

So,
Q. 37 Let f be a polynomial function such that for all Then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is given a polynomial function
Let having degree
becomes degree
becomes degree
Now it is given that
If we consider only degree
Assume
we get
and
Now Comparing coefficient of
Here a=0 or b=0
a cannot be zero so b=0
c=0
Similarly d=0
Hence
and
Option 2 is correct
Q. 38 Let E and F be two independent events. The probability that both E and F happen
is and the probability that neither E nor F happens is , then a value of P(E) + P(F) is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let P(E) = x and P(F) = y
and P (neither E nor F happens)
= P( E' ∩ F')
= P(E').P(F')
= (1 - P(E)).(1 - P(F))
= (1 - x)(1 - y)
Given that P (neither E nor F happens) = 1/2
So (1 - x)(1 - y) = 1/2
Q. 39
If then adj is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we leant in
Multiplication of matrices -
Adjoint of a square matrix -
Transpose of the matrix of co-factors of elements of is called the adjoint of
- wherein
adj A= Transpose of cofactors
so that
Q. 40 The order and the degree of the differential equation of all ellipses with centre at the origin,
major axis along x-axis and
eccentricity \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} are, respectively :
Option 1:
2, 2
Option 2:
1, 1
Option 3:
2, 1
Option 4:
1, 2
Correct Answer:
1, 1
Solution:
As we learned in
Order of a Differential Equation -
The order of a differential equation is the order of highest order occurring in a differential equation
- wherein
order of
is 2.
Let the equation of ellipse is
Q. 41 The eccentricity of an ellipse having centre at the origin, axes along the co-ordinate axes and
passing through the points (4, −1) and (−2, 2) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Eccentricity -
- wherein
For the ellipse
It passes through (4,-1) and (-2,2)
and
Q. 42
Let
If , where C is a constant of integration, then the ordered pair

(a, b) is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence, and b = 0
Q. 43 In a certain town, 25% of the families own a phone and 15% own a car ; 65% families own
neither a phone nor a car and 2,000 families own both a car and a phone. Consider the
following three statements :
(a) 5% families own both a car and a phone.
(b) 35% families own either a car or a phone.
(c) 40,000 families live in the town.
Then,
Option 1:
Only (a) and (b) are correct.
Option 2:
Only (a) and (c) are correct.
Option 3:
Only (b) and (c) are correct
Option 4:
All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
Correct Answer:
All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
Solution:
Let P denote families owning a phone, C denote families owning a car
Let us find all the percentages first
Families owning none of phone or car = n(U) - n(P ∪ C) = 65 (given)
n(U) - n(P ∪ C) = 65 (given)
100 - n(P ∪ C) = 65
n(P ∪ C) = 35% (statement (b) is correct)
Also, n(P ∪ C) = n(P) + n(C) - n(P ∩ C)
35 = 25 + 15 - n(P ∩ C)
n(P ∩ C) = 5%
So families owning both phone and car is 5% (statement (a) is correct)
Let x families live in the town.
So, 5% of x = 2,000
5x/100 = 2,000
x = 40,000
So, total 40000 families live in this town (statement (c) is correct)
Q. 44 The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point A, due east of it is 450. The
angle of elevation of the top of the same tower from a point B, due south of A is 300. If the
distance between A and B is m , then the height of the tower (in metres), is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
Q. 45
The equation represents a part of a circle having radius
equal to :
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned in
Definition of Complex Number -
& i2=-1
- wherein
Real part of z = Re (z) = x & Imaginary part of z = Im (z) = y
Equality in Complex Numbers -
z=x+iy & w=a+ib are equal iff x=a & y=b
- wherein
Two complex numbers are equal iff real parts as well as imaginary parts are equal.
Take z = x + iy
Proceeding further by Division of complex numbers
Im part = - 1
The correct option is 3.
Q. 46 If in a regular polygon the number of diagonals is 54, then the number of sides of this
polygon is :
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
12
Option 3:
9
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
As we have learned
The number of diagonals of n sided convex polygon is (Where n > 3)
Now,
no. of diagonals =
Q. 47
If the 7th term in the binomial expansion of , , is equal to 729,
then x can be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
e
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
e
Solution:
Given expansion is
According to the question
Q. 48 If the 2nd, 5th and 9th terms of a non-constant A.P. are in G.P., then the common ratio of this
G.P. is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
A, B, C are in G.P where A, B, C are 2nd, 5th and 9th terms of an A.P
For AP, let first term is a and common difference is d, and for GP first term is G and common ratio be r
then
A, B and C are in G.P.
So let A = G, B= Gr, and C = Gr2
A = a+d = G
B = a+4d = Gr
C= a+8d = Gr2
Now,
Q. 49 The shortest distance between the lines
and
lies in the interval :

Option 1:
[0, 1)
Option 2:
[1, 2)
Option 3:
(2, 3]
Option 4:
(3, 4]
Correct Answer:
(2, 3]
Solution:
As we learnt in
Shortest distance between two skew lines (Cartesian form) -
Shortest distance between
and is given by
Where
Cross product of DRS is
So shortest distance =
It lies in interval (2,3]

Q. 50 if
for some positive real number a, then a is equal to :
Option 1:
7
Option 2:
8
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Q. 51 The sum of 100 observations and the sum of their squares are 400 and 2475, respectively.
Later on, three observations, 3, 4 and 5, were found to be incorrect. If the incorrect
observations are omitted, then the variance of the remaining observations is :
Option 1:
8.25
Option 2:
8.50
Option 3:
8.00
Option 4:
9.00
Correct Answer:
9.00
Solution:
As we learnt in
ARITHMETIC Mean -
For the values x1, x2, ....xn of the variant x the arithmetic mean is given by
in case of discrete data.
Short cut Method for Variance -
In case of discrete frequency distribution
Omitting 3, 4, 5 we get
Sum of squares = 2475-50=2425
Variance =
=25-
Q. 52 If S is the set of distinct values of ‘b’ for which the following system of linear equations
x+y+z=1
x+ay+z=1
ax+by+z=0
has no solution, then S is :
Option 1:
an infinite set
Option 2:
a finite set containing two or more elements
Option 3:
a singleton
Option 4:
an empty set
Correct Answer:
an empty set
Solution:
As we leant in
When and ,
- wherein
and
= 1 (a -b) - 1(1 -a) + 1 (b - a2) = 0
=a - b - 1 + a + b - a2 = 0
=> 2a - 1 -a2 =0
=> a2- 2a +1 =0
=> (a - 1)2 = 0
=> a = 1
It is independent of b
Q. 53 The solution of the differential equation
and y(0)=1, is given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given differential equation is
Q. 54 If y = mx + c is the normal at a point (in first quadrant) on the parabola y2 = 8x whose focal
distance is 8 units, then |c| is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here
We know that for ,
Focal distance = a + x-coordinate of the point
Thus 8 = 2 + at2
2t2 = 6
Now
Put value
Comparing with y = mx + c
Q. 55
The integral is equal to :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Properties of Definite integration -
When
- wherein
Put the at the place of x in

Also,
=2
Q. 56 In a parallelogram , and , then has

the value:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Thus let A be position vector of B is , D is
..............(i)
Also here,
Put in (i)
Q. 57 Let A = {x1,x2,x3......,x7} and B = { y1 ,y2 ,y3 } be two sets containing seven and three distinct
elements respectively. Then the total number of functions : A B that are onto, if there
exist exactly three elements x in A such that (x) = y2, is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of Onto function -
&
Number of onto functions
No. of onto functions.

Since if there exist exactly three elements x in A. which give single image y2. If means four elements of A
will give image of y1 and y3. So that (24 - 2) of .
Q. 58 The number of real values of x lying in [0, 2π) , which satisfy the equation cos x + cos 2x + cos
3x + cos 4x = 0, is
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
General Solution of Trigonometric Ratios
Now,
Thus,
Hence, there are a total number of 7 solutions.

Q. 59 If, for a positive integer n, the quadratic equation,
has two consecutive integral solutions, then n is equal to :
Correct Answer:
11
Solution:
As we learnt in
Condition for Real and distinct roots of Quadratic Equation -
- wherein
is the quadratic equation

So maximum value n is11.
Q. 60 The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and
8, without repetition, is :
Option 1:
216
Option 2:
192
Option 3:
120
Option 4:
72
Correct Answer:
192
Solution:
Such numbers can be 4-digit or 5 digit
1. Four-digit numbers can be
3 options (6,7,8) for first place as number has to be greater than 6,000
2. Five-digit numbers
As all 5 digit numbers will be greater than 6000, so
5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 120
Total = 192

Mock Test 2
Physics
Q. 1 A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to
each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices and and R is
the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the
combination is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Lens placed close to each other -
Equivalent focal length.
- wherein
are focal lenght of lenc 1, 2, 3, -----n

Focal length of convex lens is
Focal length of concave lens is
Resultant focal length is
or
Q. 2 A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent
screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased,
which of the following statements is correct ?
Option 1:
The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected.
Option 2:
Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons.
Option 3:
The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase.
Option 4:
The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
Correct Answer:
The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Radius of diffraction disc -
- wherein
Distance of screen from hole
slit width
If speed of electron is increased then its wavelength will decrease.
Since angular width
Hence angular width of central maximum will decrease.
Q. 3 For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40 D and the least
converging power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D. Using this information, the
distance between the retina and the cornea - eye lens can be estimated be:
Option 1:
1.5 cm
Option 2:
5 cm
Option 3:
2.5 cm
Option 4:
1.67 cm
Correct Answer:
1.67 cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Optical power of a mirror -
- wherein
focal length with sign and is in meters unit of power = diopter
Given,
and,
We have
Q. 4 A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is
connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R
Option 1:
230
Option 2:
46
Option 3:
26
Option 4:
13
Correct Answer:
26
Solution:
Q. 5 A cell having an emf and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external
resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is
given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Current in the circuit
The potential difference across R:
When,
Hence the correct option is 2.
Q. 6 The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
In parallel Grouping -
Power
150R = 100(5+R) => 150R = 500+100R
Q. 7 A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere

range. The value (in ohm) of necessary shunt will be:
Option 1:
0.001
Option 2:
0.01
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
0.05
Correct Answer:
0.001
Solution:
As we learnt in
Required shunt -
- wherein
Current through galvanometer
Full scale deflection current
The value of shunt required for converting it into ammeter of range 25 ampere is
Q. 8 In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500
and R = 100 the galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value of VB is:
Option 1:
4V
Option 2:
2V
Option 3:
12 V
Option 4:
6V
Correct Answer:
2V
Solution:
Q. 9 In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V.
The resistance of collector is 3 . If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 ,
the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is :
Option 1:
200 and 1000
Option 2:
15 and 200
Option 3:
150 and 15000
Option 4:
20 and 2000
Correct Answer:
150 and 15000
Solution:
As we learnt in
Amplifier -
Transistor is used as an amplifier
- wherein
in such circuit output is amplified as compared to input .
Voltage gain =
Power gain=
Q. 10 In the Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where
the path difference is is K, ( being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point
where the path difference is , will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resultant Intensity of two wave -
- wherein
Intencity of wave 1
Intencity of wave 2
Phase difference
at a point where path difference is
When path a difference is
phase difference =
Q. 11 For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength ' ' diffraction is produced by a
single slit whose width 'a' is of the order of the wavelength of the light. If 'D' is the distance of
the screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For the condition of maxima
Q. 12 In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away.
A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for
obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central maxima of single slit pattern ?
Option 1:
0.5 mm
Option 2:
0.02 mm
Option 3:
0.2 mm
Option 4:
0.1 mm
Correct Answer:
0.2 mm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Fringe Width -
- wherein
Distance of
Maxima
Distance of
maxima
We need to obtain 10 maxima of double slit with in central maxima of single slit
For single slit, angular width of central maxima =
or or ----------------------(1)
For interference pattern

Fringe width = ---------------------(2)
According to question
Q. 13 A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right angled prism.
The refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue
wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47, respectively.
The prism will:
Option 1:
separate all the three colours from one another
Option 2:
not separate the three colours at all
Option 3:
separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
Option 4:
separate the blue colour part from the red and green colours
Correct Answer:
separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
Solution:
As we learnt in
Critical angle -
= Refractive index of rarer medium / Refractive index of denser medium
- wherein
When angle of incidence of a travelling from a dence medium to rarer medium is greater than critical
angle, no refraction occurs.
angle of incidence at surface AC=
Critical Angle of incidence
For red
For green
For blue
Since refractive index of green and blue is greater than and hence their critical angles are less than
So green and blue will be completely reflected while red will emerge out of prism. Hence red will be
separated from green and blue.
Q. 14 Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
For forward biased P type should be at higher potential from the figure only 1 is in forward biased mode.
Q. 15 The given electrical network is equivalent to:
Option 1:
AND gate
Option 2:
OR gate
Option 3:
NOR gate
Option 4:
NOT gate
Correct Answer:
NOR gate
Solution:
As we learnt in
NOR Gate -
NOT + OR Gate
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
= =
It represent NOR gate
Q. 16 A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2:1 The
ratio of their nuclear sizes will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From conservation of momentum
m1 v1 = m 2 v2
Hence, A1v1 = A2v2

Q. 17 Bragg's law for X-rays is -
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Bragg's law -
(condition of constructive maxima )
d=distance between parallel lines
= wavelength
= angle between light & plane
Q. 18 The half-life period of a radio-active element X is same as the mean life time of another
radio-active element Y . Initially they have the same number of atoms. Then
Option 1:
X and Y decay at same rate always
Option 2:
X will decay faster than Y
Option 3:
Y will decay faster than X
Option 4:
X and Y have same decay rate initially
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So
And corresponding Activity is given as
The correct option is 2
Q. 19 Question is based on the following paragraph.
Wave property of electrons implies that they will show diffraction effects. Davisson and
Germer demonstrated this by diffracting electrons from crystals. The law governing the
diffraction from a crystal is obtained by requiring that electron waves reflected from the
planes of atoms in a crystal interfere constructively (see figure).
Question : Electrons accelerated by potential are diffracted from a crystal. If

should be about
Option 1:
50
Option 2:
2000
Option 3:
100
Option 4:
500
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
As we learnt in
Bragg’s formula -
- wherein
Condition of constructive interference is
Take n = 1
So
&
Square both side

Q. 20 Two blocks of masses 50 Kg and 30 Kg connected by a massless string pass over a tight
frictionless, pulley and rest on two smooth planes inclined at angles and respectively
with horizontal as shown in the figure. If the system is released from rest then find the time
taken by 30 Kg block to reach the ground
Option 1:
20 sec
Option 2:
30 sec
Option 3:
10 sec
Option 4:
50 sec
Correct Answer:
10 sec
Solution:
As we have learned
Double inclined plane with different angles -
- wherein
Adding (1) and (2)
Now
Q. 21
A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a
uniform acceleration of 5m/s2. What would be the reading on the scale. (g=10m/s2)
Correct Answer:
1200
Solution:
Solution :
Reading of weighing scale = m(g+a) = 80(10 + 5) = 1200 N
Q. 22 Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.
(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body
is zero.
(c) A couple on a body produce both translational and rotational motion in a body.
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a
large load.
Option 1:
(b) and (d)
Option 2:
(a) and (b)
Option 3:
(b) and (c)
Option 4:
(c) and (d)
Correct Answer:
(b) and (d)
Solution:
As we learnt in concept
Centre of gravity -
Centre of gravity of a body is a point, through which the resultant of all the forces experienced by various
particles of the body due to attraction of earth, passes irrespective of the orientation of the body.
1) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of body is wrong
2) M.A=load / effort
Q. 23 Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through
centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities 1 and 2. They are
brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of
energy during this process is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resolving power
Law of conservation of angular moment -
- wherein
If net torque is zero
i.e.
angular momentum is conserved only when external torque is zero .

Loss in K.E =
Q. 24 A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the
angluar acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
25
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Torque -
- wherein
This can be calculated by using either
= perpendicular distance from origin to the line of force.
= component of force perpendicular to line joining force.
and,
Analogue of second law of motion for pure rotation -
- wherein
Torque equation can be applied only about two point

(i) centre of motion.
(ii) point which has zero velocity/acceleration.
Q. 25 The density of material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100g, the value of density of material will be
Option 1:
0.4
Option 2:
40
Option 3:
400
Option 4:
0.04
Correct Answer:
40
Solution:
As we learnt in
To convert a physical quantity from one system to other -

- wherein
Q. 26 The pair of quantities having same dimensions is
Option 1:
Young's modulus and energy
Option 2:
Impulse and surface tension
Option 3:
angular momentum and work
Option 4:
work and torque
Correct Answer:
work and torque
Solution:
As we learnt in
Dimension -
The power to which fundamental quantities must be raised in order to express the given physical
quantities.
Work and torque

Q. 27 A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5ms-1 and angle with the
horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms-1 at the same
angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the
earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms-2) is: (given g = 9.8
ms-2)
Option 1:
3.5
Option 2:
5.9
Option 3:
16.3
Option 4:
110.8
Correct Answer:
3.5
Solution:
As we learnt in
Horizontal Range -
Horizontal distance travelled by projectile from the point of projectile to the point on ground where its hits.
- wherein
Special case of horizontal range
For man horizontal range.
Range should be equal
(P plant, e earth)
Q. 28 From a sphere of mass M and radius R, a smaller sphere of radius is carved out such that
the cavity made in the original sphere is between its centre and the periphery. (See figure).
For the configuration in the figure where the distance between the centre of the original
sphere and the removed sphere is 3R, the gravitational force between the two spheres is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
Newton's Law of Gravitation -
Force
Gravitalional constant
Masses
Distance between masses
- wherein
Force is along the line joining the two masses
Volume of removed sphere
Vremoved =
Volume of the sphere (remaining)
Vremain =
Therefore the mass of removed sphere and remaining sphere are at respectively and
Q. 29 A vehicle travels half the distance with speed v and the remaining with speed 2v. Its average
speed is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 30 An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the P -
V diagram:
If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and U1,
U2, U3 indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then:
Option 1:
Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 = U2 = U3
Option 2:
Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and U1 > U2 > U3
Option 3:
Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 > U2 > U3
Option 4:
Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3
Correct Answer:
Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Property of internal energy -
U (internal energy) is a state function.
- wherein
i.e. It depends only on initial and final state.
Since change in internal energy is a state function hence

work done is
Since
Q. 31 During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of
its temperature. The ratio of
for the gas is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of state -
- wherein
On solving
In the given question
or = constant ......(1)
From adiabatic equation
.....(2)
From equation 1 and 2
Q. 32 What is the depth at which the value of acceleration due to gravity become 1/n times the
value that at the surface of earth ? (radius of earth =R)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 33 Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at a distance R. The gravitational potential on the
line joining the bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be (G = gravitational
constant) :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let point P is the point where the gravitational field equals zero
Q. 34 If W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along three
different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown) in the gravitational field of a point mass m,
find the correct relation
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Work Done in Conservative and Non-Conservative Field -
1. Conservative field-
In the conservative field, work done by the force depends only upon the initial and final position.
In the conservative field, work done by the force does not depend on the path.
In the conservative field, work done by the force along a closed path is zero.
2. Conservative force-
The forces of these type of fields are known as conservative forces.
Example: Electrostatic forces, gravitational forces, the spring force
So,
As gravitational field is conservative in nature. So work done in moving a particle from A to B does not
depends upon the path followed by the body. It always remains the same.
Q. 35 A 10 kg satellite completes one revolution around the earth at a height of 100 km in 108
minutes. The work done by the gravitational force of earth will be
Option 1:
108 x 100 x 10 J
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
Zero
Solution:
3. Zero work
Under three condition Work can be zero
a. If the force is perpendicular to the displacement
Means
E.g-When a body moves in a circle the work done by the centripetal force is always zero.
b. If there is no displacement (means s = 0)
E.g- When a person tries to displace a wall by applying a force and can't able to move the
wall
So the work done by the person on the wall is zero.
c. If there is no force acting on the body (means F=0)

E.g-Motion of an isolated body in free space.
So,
Work done by centripetal force in circular motion is always equal to zero .
Q. 36 A boy's catapult is made of rubber cord which is long, with diameter of cross-
section and of negligible mass. The boy keeps a stone weighing on it and stretches
the cord by by applying a constant force. When released, the stone flies off with a
velocity of . Neglect the change in the area of cross-section of the cord while
stretched. The young's modulus (Nm-2) of rubber is closest to :
Option 1:
100000000
Option 2:
1000
Option 3:
1000000
Option 4:
10000
Correct Answer:
1000000
Solution:
For string
for stone
So apply energy conservation.
P.E. stored in string = K.E of stone

Q. 37 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific heat capacity of the gas at constant
volume is 5.0 JK-1 mol-1. If the speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952 ms-1, then the heat
capacity at constant pressure is
(Take gas constant R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-l)
Option 1:
7.5 JK-1 mol-1
Option 2:
7.0 JK-1 mol-1
Option 3:
8.5 JK-1 mol-1
Option 4:
8.0 JK-1 mol-1
Correct Answer:
8.0 JK-1 mol-1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Atomicity or adiabatic coefficient (gamma) -
- wherein
for Monoatomic gas
for Diatomic gas

for Triatomic gas
given M = 4gm
Velocity of sound
Q. 38 A small spherical droplet of density d is floating exactly half immersed in a liquid of density p
and surface tension T. The radius of the droplet is (take note that the surface tension applies
an upward force on the droplet) :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 39 Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature, the
pressure of A being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be 1.5
times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ideal gas equation PV=nRT
OR
where
Divide the two equation
Given
Q. 40 The electric field near a conducting surface having a uniform surface charge density is
given by
Option 1:
and is parallel to the surface
Option 2:
and is parallel to the surface
Option 3:
and is normal to the surface
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Surface charge distribution -
charge per unit Area
- wherein
(Plane sheet, sphere, cylinder etc)
Electric field near the conductor surface is given by and it is perpendicular to surface.
Q. 41 The current produced in wire when 107 electron/sec are flowing in it

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 42 A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled,

then the outward electric flux will:
Option 1:
Be doubled
Option 2:
Increase four times
Option 3:
Be reduced to half
Option 4:
Remain the same
Correct Answer:
Remain the same
Solution:
As we learnt in
Gauss's Law -
Total flux linked with a closed surface called Gaussian surface.
Formula:
Qenc - charge enclosed by closed surface.
Electric flux through a surface =
since is constant, flux will remain same.
Q. 43 An electron, moving along the x-axis with an initial energy of 100 eV, enters a region of the
magnetic field at S(See figure). The field extends between x=0 and
x=2 cm. The electron is detected at the point Q on a screen placed 8cm away from point S.
The distance d between P and Q (on the screen) is: (in cms)
(electron's charge , mass of electron
Correct Answer:
12.87
Solution:
The radius of charged particles -
m=mass of particle
P=momentum of particle
k= kinetic energy of the particle

R = 2.25 cm
here
Similarly
so
Q. 44 The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 45 An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper
carrying same current 'I' along the same direction is shown in Fig. Magnitude of force per
unit length on the middle wire ' B' is given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Force between two parallel current carrying conductors -

- wherein
I1 and I2 current carrying two parallel wires
a-seperation between two wires
Force between wires A and B = Force between B and C
, net force on wire B
Q. 46 A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac

source of 200 volt, 100 Hz is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
2.0 A
Option 3:
4.0 A
Option 4:
8.0 A
Correct Answer:
4.0 A
Solution:
Q. 47 A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1cm and width 1.25cm carries a current of 85 and
subjected to magnetic field of strength 0.85T. Work done for rotating the coil by against
the torque is
Option 1:
4.55
Option 2:
2.3
Option 3:
1.15
Option 4:
9.1
Correct Answer:
9.1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Work done by current carrying coil -
work done = NIAB (1- )
N = 250, A= L X b = 2.1 cm X 1.25 cm
, ,
Q. 48 The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf
with time would be
Option 1:
a
Option 2:
b
Option 3:
c
Option 4:
d
Correct Answer:
a
Solution:
induced emf
During 0 to = constant
So, e =-ve
For to , =0
i.e., e=0
For to , = constant
i.e., e =+ve
Q. 49 Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5eV respectively
illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of maximum
speeds of emitted electrons will be
Option 1:
1:4
Option 2:
1:2
Option 3:
1:1
Option 4:
1:5
Correct Answer:
1:2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Conservation of energy -
- wherein
Q. 50 In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron
gun can be increased by
Option 1:
increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Option 2:
increasing the filament current
Option 3:
decreasing the filament current
Option 4:
decreasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Correct Answer:
increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Solution:
As we learnt in
Galvanometer in Davisson Germer Experiment -
To measure the small values of current:
- wherein
Electron is accelerated by applying potential difference between anode & cathode hence velocity of
electron emitted from the electron gun can be increased by increasing potential difference between the
anode and the filament.
Q. 51 In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of
most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is
Option 1:
1.8 V
Option 2:
1.2 V
Option 3:
0.5 V
Option 4:
2.3 V
Correct Answer:
0.5 V
Solution:
As we learnt in
Stopping Potential /Cut-off Potential -
It is defined as the potential necessary to stop any electron from reaching the other side.
Stopping potential is amount of voltage needed to stop maximum energy electron.
Here maximum Kinetic energy = 0.5 eV
Stopping potential = 0.5 V
Q. 52 The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 . Base current is changed by which
results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter
amplifier with a load resistance of . The voltage gain of the amplifier is:
Option 1:
3000
Option 2:
4000
Option 3:
1000
Option 4:
2000
Correct Answer:
2000
Solution:
As we learnt in
Transistor -
Three layered semiconducting device .
NPN or PNP
- wherein
1. Emitter is heavily doped
2. collector is moderately doped .
3. Base is lightly doped & very thin
Voltage gain
Q. 53 A transistor is operated in common-emitter configuration at Vc = 2 V such that a change in

the base current from 100 A to 200 A produces a change in the collector current from 5
mA to 10 mA. The current gain is:
Option 1:
100
Option 2:
150
Option 3:
50
Option 4:
75
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Current gain =
Q. 54 Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:
Option 1:
0A
Option 2:
10-2 A
Option 3:
10-1 A
Option 4:
10-3 A
Correct Answer:
10-2 A
Solution:
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
The potential difference =10V
since diode is ideal and it is in forward biased mode it will not offer resistance
Q. 55 In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3 the electric potential is found to be 5V
throughtout. The magnitufde of electric field in this region is:
Option 1:
zero
Option 2:
0.5 N/C
Option 3:
1 N/C
Option 4:
5 N/C
Correct Answer:
zero
Solution:
Q. 56 Two cells are connected between points A and B as shown. Cell 1 has emf of and
internal resistance of . Cell 2 has emf of and internal resistance of An external
resistor R of is connected across and . The current flowing through will be
___________ A.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 57 A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic
field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic
field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be
Option 1:
nB
Option 2:
n2B
Option 3:
2nB
Option 4:
2n2B
Correct Answer:
n2B
Solution:
As we learnt in
Magnetic field due to Circular Current Carrying arc -
- wherein
Let L be the length of the wire
At the centre of loop
Q. 58 In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e=200 100t volts is connected to a capacitor of

capacity 1 . The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is
Option 1:
10 mA
Option 2:
100mA
Option 3:
200mA
Option 4:
20mA
Correct Answer:
20mA
Solution:
As we learnt in
Wave Form (Sinusoidal) -
R.M.S. Value=
average value=
- wherein
Q. 59 The ratio of densities of nitrogen and oxygen is 14:16. The temperature at which the speed
of sound in nitrogen will be same at that in oxygen at is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
(since given the velocities are same)
Q. 60
Intensity level of a sound of intensity I is 30 dB. The ratio is (where I0 is the threshold for
hearing)
Correct Answer:
1000
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
and how much?
(At. wt.Mg = 24; O = 16)
Option 1:
Mg, 0.16 g
Option 2:
O2 , 0.16 g
Option 3:
Mg, 0.44 g
Option 4:
O2, 0.28 g
Correct Answer:
Mg, 0.16 g
Solution:
The reaction is as follows:
moles of
moles of
According to reaction stoichiometry, 1 mole of Mg require 1/2 moles of O2.
So, moles of Mg require moles of O2 or 0.02083 moles of O2
Clearly, O2 is the limiting reagent.
moles of Mg required by 0.0175 moles of O2
we know 1 mole of Mg = 24 gram
so, 0.00667 mol = 0.00667 X molar mass
= 0.00667 X 24
= 0.16 g
Q. 2 The order of stability of the following carbocations:
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The order of stability of carbocation is -
So, III > I > II
Q. 3 Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in

Smaller the value of z/e, the larger the size of that species. Smaller z means the effective nuclear charge
is small hence size is large.
Cations lose electrons and are smaller in size than the parent atom, whereas anions add electrons and
are larger in size than the parent atom. Hence the order is
For isoelectronic species, the ionic radii decrease with an increase in atomic number, i.e., nuclear charge.
Hence the correct orders are as given below:
Q. 4 Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
Option 1:
CO, NO
Option 2:
O2, NO+
Option 3:
CN-, CO
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
CN-, CO
Solution:
Bond Order -
Bond order is defined as one half the difference between the number of electrons present in the bonding
and the antibonding orbitals.
- wherein
Bond order
O2 : N b = 10, N a = 6, Bond order = 2
NO+ : N b = 10, N a = 4, Bond order = 3
CN- : N b = 10, Na = 4, Bond order = 3
CO : N b = 10, Na = 4, Bond order = 3
N2 : N b = 10, Na = 4, Bond order = 3
O-2 : N b = 10, Na = 7, Bond order = 1.5
NO : N b = 10, Na = 5, Bond order = 2.5
Q. 5 The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are −393.5 and −283.5 kJ mol−1,
respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is:
Correct Answer:
-110
Solution:
Q. 6 Oxidation numbers of P in , of S in and that of Cr in , are respectively:
Option 1:
+ 3, + 6 and + 5
Option 2:
+ 5, + 3 and + 6
Option 3:
- 3, + 6 and + 6
Option 4:
+ 5, + 6 and + 6
Correct Answer:
+ 5, + 6 and + 6
Solution:
Option (4) is correct answer.
Q. 7 The values of for the reaction, are 170

kJ and 170 , respectively. The reaction will be spontaneous at
Option 1:
910K
Option 2:
1110K
Option 3:
510K
Option 4:
710K
Correct Answer:
1110K
Solution:
Gibb's free energy -
Now,
For the reaction to be spontaneous
given
is -ve only when which is possible only at i.e. reaction will be

spontaneous
Option (2) is correct.

Q. 8 The correct option with respect to the Pauling electronegativity values of the elements is :
Option 1:
Ga < Ge
Option 2:
P>S
Option 3:
Si < Al
Option 4:
Te > Se
Correct Answer:
Ga < Ge
Solution:
Electronegativity -
A qualitative measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract shared electron is
electronegativity.
- wherein
It is not a measurable quantity.
Electronegativity and non-metallic character -
Non-metallic elements have strong tendency to gain electrons.Therefore electronegativity is directly

related to non-metallic properties of elements.
- wherein
Electronegativity non-metallic property
Correct order
Q. 9 Oxidiation states of P in and are respectively
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
, let x be the O.S. of P
then,
then,
then,
The correct answer is option 4
Q. 10 Which of the following forces stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins i.e. further folding of
the secondary structure?
Option 1:
disulphide linkages
Option 2:
hydrogen bond
Option 3:
electrostatic forces of attraction
Option 4:
all of these
Correct Answer:
all of these
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Tertiary proteins are obtained when polypeptides undergo further folding and coiling of secondary
protein
Structure is stabilized by :
1. Ionic bond
2. Disulphide bond
3. bond
4. Vander waals forces
5. Electrostatic forces
Q. 11
The above reaction is catalysed by which class of enzymes ?
Option 1:
Ligases
Option 2:
Hydrolases
Option 3:
Lyases
Option 4:
Oxidareductases
Correct Answer:
Ligases
Solution:
As we have learned
Ligase -
Enzymes are responsible for linking together of two molecules into one at the expense of energy.
- wherein
Eg. Synthetase
Ligases remove the elements of water from two fundamental groups to form a single bond.
Q. 12 Which of the following are water-soluble vitamins?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Ascorbic acid
d ) Pyridoxine
e) Vitamin D
Option 1:
c,d
Option 2:
a,b,e
Option 3:
b,c
Option 4:
c,e
Correct Answer:
b,c
Solution:
As we have learned
Water-soluble vitamins -
They are soluble in water but not in fats or oils.
Vitamin groups, Vitamin are water-soluble vitamins.
Pyridoxine (Vitamin ) and ascorbic acid ( Vitamin ) are water-soluble.
Q. 13 Bromination of cyclohexene under conditions given below yields :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Preparation of haloalkanes by treating alkenes with NBS -
NBS (N-bromosuccinimide) undergo free radical substitution at allylic position.
- wherein
It is free radical substitution reaction

Q. 14 The absolute configuration of
is :
Option 1:
(2R, 3S)
Option 2:
(2S, 3R)
Option 3:
(2S, 3S)
Option 4:
(2R, 3R)
Correct Answer:
(2S, 3R)
Solution:
As we learnt ,
Chiral Carbon -
Those carbon on which four different groups are present.
- wherein
For C2
This rotation suggests R but the least prior group is at horizontal position so the configuration is R.
For C3
This rotation suggests S but the least prior group is at horizontal position so the configuration is S.
Q. 15 Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of followed by treatment with a saturated

solution of gives
Option 1:
acetone
Option 2:
acetamide
Option 3:
2-methyl-2-propanol
Option 4:
acetyl iodide.
Correct Answer:
2-methyl-2-propanol
Solution:
As we learnt in
Reaction of Grignard reagent with Alcohol -
Alkane is obtained.
- wherein
Q. 16 The oxidation state of cobalt in the complex compound is
Option 1:
+3
Option 2:
+6
Option 3:
+5
Option 4:
+2
Correct Answer:
+3
Solution:
Applying charge balance on the cationic complex gives us
Q. 17 The coordination number of a metal in coordination compounds is
Option 1:
Same as primary valency
Option 2:
Sum of primary and secondary valencies
Option 3:
Same as secondary valency
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Same as secondary valency
Solution:
According to Werner's theory, primary valency of complex compound is its oxidation number while
secondary valency is the co-ordination number.
Hence, the co-ordination number of any metal is the same as its secondary valency
Therefore, option (3) is correct
Q. 18 Which complex has square planar structure?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is hybridised and thus has a square planar structure
and are hybridised and are tetrahedral
is hybridised and is an octahedral complex
Q. 19 The heat of atomization of methane and ethane are 360 kJ/mol and 620 kJ/mol, respectively.
The longest wavelength of light capable of breaking the C - C bond is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The heat of the atomization of methane is 360 kJ/mol.
This corresponds to the breaking of four C−H bonds.
Hence, the heat corresponding to the breaking of one C−H bond is
The heat of atomization of ethane is 620 kJ/mol.
This corresponds to the breaking of one C−C bond and six C−H bonds.
The heat corresponding to the breaking of on C-C bond will be 620−6(90)=80 kJ/mol
This corresponds to 1 mole. For one single bond, the required energy that can be obtained by dividing
with Avogadro's number is given by
The energy is related to wavelength by relation
Substitute values in the above expression.
Q. 20 and two nearly insoluble salts, have the same values of at

room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard of and ?
Option 1:
The molar solubilities of in water are indetical.
Option 2:
The molar solubility of in water is less than that of .
Option 3:
The salts and are more soluble in than in pure water.
Option 4:
The addition of the salt of to solution of will have no effect on their solubilities.
Correct Answer:
The molar solubility of in water is less than that of .
Solution:
Also
Clearly s' > s
Q. 21 The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is:
Option 1:
HNO3, NH4CI, NO, N2
Option 2:
HNO3, NO, NH4C1, N2
Option 3:
HNO3, NO, N2, NH4C1
Option 4:
NH4C1, N2, NO, HNO3
Correct Answer:
HNO3, NO, N2, NH4C1
Solution:
The oxidation state of N in the given compounds is -
Q. 22 The IUPAC name of the compound is :

Option 1:
5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
Option 2:
5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The IUPAC name of the compound will be "3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal"
Q. 23 Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc of and . If a large

amount of is added to the mixture, tne rate of nitration will be
Option 1:
faster
Option 2:
slower
Option 3:
unchanged
Option 4:
doubled
Correct Answer:
slower
Solution:
Effect of concentration change on the equilibrium - When the concentration of any of the reactants or
products in a reaction at equilibrium is changed, the equilibrium mixture's composition changes to
minimize the effect of concentration change. If we add reactant, the equilibrium shift towards the right.
In the nitration of benzene in the presence of concentrated , benzene is formed.

+
If a large amount of is added to this mixture more HSO4- ion furnishes and hence the
concentrate of electrophile decreases, rate of electrophile aromatic reaction slows down.
the correct answer is option 2.
Q. 24 Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
Option 1:
The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl2 > KCl >
CH3COOH > sucrose.
Option 2:
The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation where M is the molarity
of the solution.
Option 3:
Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its
mole fraction.
Option 4:
Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing
point depression.
Correct Answer:
Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing
point depression.
Solution:
As we have learnt
Freezing -
Freezing occurs when liquid solvent is in equilibrium with solid solvent. As non volatile solute decreases, the vapour
pressure freezing point decreases.
The extent of depression in freezing point varies with the number of solute particles for a fixed solvent
only and it is a characteristics feature of the nature of solvent also. So for two different solvents the
extent of depression may vary even if number of solute particles be dissolved.
Q. 25 For a reaction scheme if the rate of formation of B is set to be

zero then the concentration of B is given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Reaction:
Given,
Question [B]=?
So, Net rate of formation of
Correct Option is 4.
Q. 26 The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series of the element by and large
means?
Option 1:
Increase in both atomic and ionic radii.
Option 2:
Decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii.
Option 3:
Decrease in both atomic and ionic radii.
Option 4:
Increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii.
Correct Answer:
Decrease in both atomic and ionic radii.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
As a result of the Lanthanoid contraction, both the atomic radii and ionic radii decrease gradually in the
lanthanoid series.
Therefore,option(3) is correct
Q. 27 Which of the following is not true about valence bond theory?
Option 1:
It states there should be maximum overlapping of atomic orbitals
Option 2:
Greater is overlapping, higher is the strength of chemical bond.
Option 3:
It explains magnetic properties
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
It explains magnetic properties
Solution:
Valence bond theory does not explain the magnetic properties of the molecules.
Q. 28 Electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of fluorine is less than that of chlorine due to :
Option 1:
High ionization enthalpy of fluorine
Option 2:
Smaller size of chlorine atom
Option 3:
Smaller size of fluorine atom
Option 4:
Bigger size of 2p orbital of fluorine
Correct Answer:
Smaller size of fluorine atom
Solution:
The negative electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less than that of chlorine. It is due to the small size of
the fluorine atom. As a result, there are strong interelectronic repulsions in the relatively small 2p orbitals
of fluorine and thus, the incoming electron does not experience much attraction.
Q. 29 Among the following compounds which can be dehydrated very easily ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Dehydration of alcohols -
Ease of dehydration
- wherein
The more stable carbocation generated, more easily it will dehydrated. The order of stability of
carbocations
tertiary > secondary > primary
Q. 30 Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give:
Option 1:
alkenes
Option 2:
alkyl copper halides
Option 3:
alkanes
Option 4:
alkenyl halides
Correct Answer:
alkanes
Solution:
As we learnt in
The reaction of an alkyl halide with R2CuLi -
Corey House alkane synthesis, the alkane is obtained as a product.
- wherein
(alkane)
Q. 31 Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give
Option 1:
a mixture of anisole and
Option 2:
a mixture of benzene and
Option 3:
a mixture of toluene and
Option 4:
a mixture of phenol and
Correct Answer:
a mixture of benzene and
Solution:
As learnt in
Zerewitinoff Method -
Reaction of alcohol with grignard reagent.
- wherein
Reaction of Grignard reagent with Alcohol -

Alkane is obtained.
- wherein
Q. 32 What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00m aqueous solution?
Option 1:
0.177
Option 2:
1.770
Option 3:
0.0354
Option 4:
0.0177
Correct Answer:
0.0177
Solution:
As we learnt in
Given,
It is a 1.0 molal aqueous solution.
If we have 1 mole of solute in 1 molal solution.
Then, wt. of solvent will be = 1 kg
It is an aqueous solution means the solvent is water.

Q. 33 If the shortest wavelength in Lyman series of hydrogen atom is A, then the longest
wavelength in Paschen series of He+ is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
we know that,
Q. 34 Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
Option 1:
H+
Option 2:
Li+
Option 3:
Na+
Option 4:
Mg2+
Correct Answer:
Li+
Solution:
Isoelectronic species are those which have an equal number of electrons present in them.
Electronic Configuration of beryllium -

- Be and are isoelectronic to each other.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Q. 35 Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]3- :
Option 1:
It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral
Option 2:
It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
Option 3:
It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
Option 4:
It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
Correct Answer:
It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
Solution:
Shape of molecules -
-
hybridised and it is octahedral.
Q. 36 The following reaction is performed at 298 K .
2NO(g) + O2 (g) 2NO2 (g)
The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K.
What is the standard free energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Given that
and we know that

Q. 37 The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5N*H) in a 0.10 M aqueous
pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 x 10-9) is:
Option 1:
0.0060%
Option 2:
0.013%
Option 3:
0.77%
Option 4:
1.6%
Correct Answer:
0.013%
Solution:
% pyridine that form pyridinium
Correct answer is option is (2)

Q. 38 For the redox reaction
the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are
Option 1:
2 16 5
Option 2:
2 5 16
Option 3:
16 5 2
Option 4:
5 16 2
Correct Answer:
2 5 16
Solution:
Balancing of Redox Reactions -
Oxidation number method

1. Write the correct formula for each reactant and product.
2. Identify the atom whose oxidation number is changed.
3. Calculate the increase/decrease in oxidation number per atom and for the entire molecule/ion in which
it occurs.
4. Add on appropriate side so that the total ionic charges of reactants and products are
equal.
5. Make the numbers of hydrogen atoms in the expression on the two sides equal by adding to the
reactant or product
Q. 39 The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its
alphacarbon is :
Option 1:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon never equilibrates with its
corresponding enol.
Option 2:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidily equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde - ketone equilibration.
Option 3:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrium with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation.
Option 4:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as keto - enol tautomerism.
Correct Answer:
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this process is known as keto - enol tautomerism.
Solution:
This is called keto - enol tautomerism.
Q. 40 In the reaction,
X and Y are:
Option 1:
X = 1-Butyne; Y = 3-Hexyne
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
X=1-Butyne and Y= 3-Hexyne
Q. 41 The rise in the boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 gram of glucose in 100 g of a solvent
in 0.10C. The molal elevation constant of the liquid is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 42 A bacterial infection in an internal wound grows as ,
where the time t is in hours. A dose of antibiotic, taken orally, needs 1 hour to reach the
wound.
Once it reaches there, the bacterial population goes down as .
What will be the plot of vs. t after 1 hour ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From t hour =>
After 1 hour, it is given :
at t = 1 hour ,
Now,
After 1 hour the graph will be from 1 hour to t hour and N' from eNo to N.
This equation is similar to the straight-line equation (Y=mx+C)
So, the curve will be a straight line and the slope will be positive.
Option (3) is correct.

Q. 43 An octahedral complex of Co3+ is diamagnetic. The hybridisation involved in the formation
of the complex is :
Option 1:
sp3d2
Option 2:
dsp2
Option 3:
d2sp3
Option 4:
dsp3d
Correct Answer:
d2sp3
Solution:
As we discussed in
Hybridisation -
sp3d2 - square bipyramidal or octahedral
d2sp3 - octahedral
sp3 - tetradedral
dsp2 - square planar
- wherein
sp3d2 - outer complex
d2sp3 - inner complex
sp3 -
dsp2 -
diamagnetic octahedralcomplex of is hybridised.

Q. 44 The magnetic moment of an octahedral homoleptic Mn (II) complex is 5.9 BM. The suitable
ligand for this complex is :
Option 1:
CO
Option 2:
ethylenediamine
Option 3:
NCS-
Option 4:
CN-
Correct Answer:
NCS-
Solution:
As we have learnt in magnetic moment,
implies that the number of unpaired electrons = 5 .
Now, has a configuration and presence of 5 unpaired electrons will only be possible for weak
field ligands like
Q. 45 Fluorobenzene can be synthesised in the laboratory
Option 1:
by heating phenol with and
Option 2:
from aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium salt with
Option 3:
by direct fluorination of benzene with gas
Option 4:
by reacting bromobenzene with solution.
Correct Answer:
from aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium salt with
Solution:
As we learnt in
By Sandmeyer's reaction -
In the reaction benzene diazonium chloride is treated with cuprous chloride cuprous bromide.
Q. 46 In the following sequence of reactions,
the compound D is
Option 1:
propanal
Option 2:
butanal
Option 3:
-butyl alcohol
Option 4:
-propyl alcohol.
Correct Answer:
-propyl alcohol.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Test for alcohols by Victor - Meyer's test -
Reagents used
- wherein
The reaction of Haloalkanes with Mg in the presence of ether - Grignard reagent is obtained
- wherein
Q. 47 Arrange the following in the order of basicity :
Option 1:
c>a>b
Option 2:
b > a> c
Option 3:
a>b>c
Option 4:
a>c>b
Correct Answer:
a>b>c
Solution:
All the given bases are aromatic amines having their lone pairs in conjugation with the Benzene ring.
Among the given bases, " a" is most basic because of methyl at the para position and "c" is least basic
because it shares lone pair with both phenyl rings.
Therefore, the correct order of basic strength of the given aromatic amines follow the order:
(a) > (b) > (c)

Q. 48
The above process in which and form remain in equilibrium with acyclic form and a
change in optical rotation is observed which is called as -
Option 1:
Mutarotation
Option 2:
Epimerisation
Option 3:
Condensation
Option 4:
Inversion
Correct Answer:
Mutarotation
Solution:
When either of the two forms of glucose ( and ) is dissolved in
water , there is spontaneous change in specific rotation till the equilibrium value of
The above phenomenon is called as mutarotation.
Q. 49 The size of the iso-electronic species and is affected by :
Option 1:
azimuthal quantum number of valence shell
Option 2:
nuclear charge
Option 3:
electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
Option 4:
principal quantum number of valence shell
Correct Answer:
nuclear charge
Solution:
Ionic Radii -
The ionic radius is the distance between the nucleus of an ion and the point where the nucleus exerts its
influence on the electron cloud.
Isoelectronic species -
A series of atom, ions and molecules in which each species contains the same number of electrons but
different nuclear charge.
- wherein
Smaller the value of z/e, larger the size of that species.Smaller z means effective nuclear charge is small
hence size is large.
For isoelectronic species the size is compared by Nuclear charge.
Q. 50 Which of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most
negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F, O?
Option 1:
Ca < Al < C < O < F
Option 2:
Al < Ca < O < C < F
Option 3:
Al < O < C < Ca < F
Option 4:
C < F < O < Al < Ca
Correct Answer:
Ca < Al < C < O < F
Solution:
As we learnt
Variation of electron gain enthalpy in periodic table -
1. Electron gain enthalpy decreases down the group.

2. Generally, electron gains enthalpy increases (more negative) along the period.
Electron gain enthalpy increases along the period as the attraction between incoming electron and the
nucleus increases or Zeff Increases.
Also, it decreases down the group due to increased atomic size.
Increasing order of electron gain enthalpy:
Ca < Al < C < O < F
Q. 51 Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
Option 1:
The H - C - H bond angle in CH4, the H - N - H bond angle in NH3, and the H - O - H bond angle in H2O
are all greater than 90o.
Option 2:
The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H - C - H bond angle in CH4.
Option 3:
The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H - N - H bond angle in NH3.
Option 4:
The H - C - H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H - N - H bond angle in NH3.
Correct Answer:
The H - O - H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H - C - H bond angle in CH4.
Solution:
VSEPR Theory -
1. The shape of the molecule is determined by repulsions between all of the electron pair present in
valence shell.
2. Order of repulsion
3 Repulsion among the bond pair is directly proportional to the bond order and electronegativity
difference between the central atom and the other atom.
From the above fugure it is clear that H—O—H bond angle in is smaller than H—C—H bond angles
in .
Q. 52 For complete combustion of ethanol,

the amount of heat produced as in bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol-1 at 250C. Assuming
ideality the Enthalpy of combustion (in kJ mol-1), for the reaction will be:
-1
(R = 8.314 kJ mol )
Correct Answer:
-1366.95
Solution:
Q. 53 The solubility of with solubility product in solution would be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
zero
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now , as is a strong electrolyte.
The correct answer is option 2
Q. 54 Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reactions?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Select the correct option from the following:
Option 1:
(a) and (b) only
Option 2:
(a), (b) and (c)
Option 3:
(a), (c) and (d)
Option 4:
(a) and (d) only
Correct Answer:
(a) and (b) only
Solution:
Disproportionation Reactions - A special type of redox reaction in which one oxidation state is
simultaneously oxidized and reduced. One of the reacting substances in a disproportionation reaction
always contains an element that can exist in at least three oxidation states.
+1 -1 +1 -2 0
Option 1
Disproportionation is a type of redox reaction in which a species is simultaneously reduced and oxidized
forming two different products.
(a)
(b)
The Correct answer is option 1
Q. 55 The correct order for acid strength of compounds
is as follows :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Acid strength is the measure of the ability of the acid to lose its H+ ion.
sp hybridised carbon atoms are more electronegative than sp2 hybridised carbon atoms, which are in
turn more electronegative than sp3 carbon atoms.
The reason for the difference in electronegativity is that p orbitals are on average further away from the
nucleus than s orbitals, so the more p-orbital contribution you have to the hybrid orbital, the less
electronegative the hybrid orbital. sp orbitals are said to have the greatest "s-character" and sp3 orbitals
the least.
Hence, the acidic nature of these species can be decided on the basis of the greater electronegativity of
alkynes carbons which would stabilise the conjugate base

Q. 56 What will be the molarity of a solution containing 5 g of sodium hydroxide in 250 ml solution:
Correct Answer:
0.5
Solution:
Q. 57 A first order reaction has a rate constant, , calculate the Half life of
reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Half life for a first order reaction is given as:
Q. 58 Consider the coordination compound, [Co(NH3)6]Cl3.
In the formation of this complex, the species which acts as the Lewis acid is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
Central atom -
In coordination entity, the atom/ion to which a fixed no of ions/groups are bound in a definite
geometrical arrangement around it.
- wherein
eg: is called Central metal atom
In works as lewis acid and works as lewis base.
Q. 59 Which of the following has a square planar geometry?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Electronic configuration of and are given as
Now, as Pt belongs to the 5d series, weaker ligands are also able to cause pairing because of greater
splitting due to larger size of the orbiratal.
Hence, it has hybridisation and square planar geometry.
Electronic configuration of
With a weak field ligand like Chloride ion, it shows hybridisation
With a weak field ligand like Chloride ion, it shows hybridisation and tetrahedral geometry.
Hence, it has hybridisation and tetrahedral geometry.
Q. 60 The element having greatest difference between its first and second ionization energies, is :
Option 1:
Ca
Option 2:
Sc
Option 3:
Ba
Option 4:
K
Correct Answer:
K
Solution:
K is from the first group
Mg and Sr are from the second group and Sc is from the IIIB group
K, after IE1 it will reach Noble gas configuration and its IE2 will be very high,
IE2 >>> IE1
Maths
Q. 1 Let A and B be two sets containing four and two elements respectively. Then the number of
subsets of the set A x B, each having at least three elements is :
Correct Answer:
219
Solution:
As we learnt in
SUBSETS -
A set A is said to be a subset of a set B if every element of A is also an element of B.
- wherein
It is represented by . eg. A B if A={2,4} and B= {1,2,3,4,5}
Let A having elements {a, b, c, d} and B having {e, f}
Then having 8 elements and no. of subsets = 28 = 256
No. of subsets = and (ae, be)...........=256
Now 8 subsets having only one element
{ae},{af},{be},.......{df}
Similarly
No of sets having two elements
{ae,af}, {ae,be}, .....{ae,df}=7 elements
{af,be},{af,bf}..........= 6 elements
.
7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 28 (having two elements)
and a subset having single element
28 + 8+1 = 37
Atleast three elements = 256 - 37 = 219
Q. 2 A man is walking towards a vertical pillar in a straight path, at a uniform speed. At a certain
point A on the path, he observes that the angle of elevation of the top of the pillar is 300.
After walking for 10 minutes from A in the same direction, at a point B, he observes that the
angle of elevation of the top of the pillar is 600. Then the time taken (in minutes) by him,
from B to reach the pillar, is :
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learnt in
Let PQ represent pillar. Say height = h
In ,
In
Now, the person is walking at a uniform speed, hence time taken will be proportional to distance
travelled.
Thus,
Hence, time required is 5 minutes.
Q. 3 Let ω be a complex number such that
where if
then k is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
-1
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have,
Using, Multiplication of Complex Numbers -
(a+ib)(c+id)=(ac-bd)+i(bc+ad)
In order to find out k, we have to find the value of:
Here,
So,
After expansion of determinant, we get,
Therefore,
Q. 4 The sum of the digits in the unit’s place of all the 4-digit numbers formed by using the
numbers 3, 4, 5 and 6, without repetition, is :
Option 1:
432
Option 2:
108
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
18
Correct Answer:
108
Solution:
No. of 4 digits number formed = 4 !
Now each digit comes equal no. of times at unit place = 3!
Each digit appears at unit place
So sum = 3! (3+4+5+6)
= 6 x 18
= 108
Q. 5 The ratio of the coefficient of to the term independent of in the expansion of

is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Term that is independent of x when 30 - 3r = 0
r = 10
The term independent of x is

Q. 6 If the sum of the first ten terms of the series
then m is equal to:
Correct Answer:
101
Solution:
Q. 7 The distance of the point (1, −2, 4) from the plane passing through the point (1, 2, 2) and
perpendicular to the planes x − y + 2z = 3 and 2x −2y + z + 12=0, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
is given by
Normal vector of plane is
So equation of plane is
passes through (1,2,2)
3+6=C
3x+3y=9 => x+y=3

Distance
Q. 8 A tangent to the curve,
meets x-axis at A and y-axis at B. If AP : BP=1 : 3 and (1)=1, then the curve also passes
through the point :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt in
Selection formula -
- wherein
If P(x,y) divides the line joining A(x1,y1) and B(x2,y2) in ration
A slope of a line -
- wherein
Slope of line joining A(x1,y1) and B(x2,y2) .
We have,
Now, Slope m=
Also, slope =
So,
Q. 9 A box contains 15 green and 10 yellow balls. If 10 balls are randomly drawn, one-by-one,
with replacement, then the variance of the number of green balls drawn is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number of trials, n = 10
p = probability of drawing green ball in one trial = 15/25 = 3/5
As it remains constant in each trial, so it is a Binomial Probability Distribution
Now, q = 1 - p = 2/5
We know that for a Binomial Probability Distribution,
Variance = npq =
Q. 10
If and
Q=PAPT, then PT Q2015 P is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Transpose of a Matrix -
The matrix obtained from any given matrix , by interchanging its rows and columns.
- wherein
-
2015 times
Now , if
so , .
Q. 11 If a curve passes through the point and satisfies the differential

equation, then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Linear Differential Equation -
- wherein
P, Q are functions of x alone.
Put
Q. 12 The two adjacent sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are 2 and 5 and the angle between them is
600. If the area of the
quadrilateral is then the perimeter of the quadrilateral is :
Option 1:
12.5
Option 2:
13.2
Option 3:
12
Option 4:
13
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
As we have Learnt
Using concept ABDC, Cyclic quadrilateral (opp. angles are supplementary), and concept of properties
of triangle
Area of
Area of
now,
(Using cosine's rule)
and
(Using cosine's rule)
Also
Hence, Perimeter =(x+y)+5+2=5+7=12
Q. 13 The area (in sq. units) of the region
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Area along x axis -
Let be two curve then area bounded between the curves and the lines
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
Point of intersection of
Q. 14 Let be three non-zero vectors such that no two of them are collinear and
if is the angle between vectors
then a value of is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector Triple Product (VTP) -
- wherein
are three vectors.
and
- wherein
Thus
Q. 15 If is the set of
natural numbers,then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let us 1st simplify set X
For n=1; X=0
For n=2; X=9
For n=3; X=54
And
For n=1; Y=0
For n=2; Y=9
For n=3; Y=18
For n=7; Y=54
Hence we can say
Q. 16 In a
Then the ordered pair is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Also,
From (1) and (2),

Q. 17 The point represented by 2+i in the Argand plane moves 1 unit eastwards, then 2 units
northwards and finally from there
units in the south-westwards direction. Then its new position in the Argand plane is at
the point represented by
Option 1:
2+2i
Option 2:
1+i
Option 3:
−1− i
Option 4:
−2−2 i
Correct Answer:
1+i
Solution:
As we have learned
Definition of Complex Number -
& i2=-1
- wherein
Polar Form of a Complex Number -
- wherein
r= modulus of z and is the argument of z

Q. 18 An eight digit number divisible by 9 is to be formed using digits from 0 to 9 without repeating
the digits. The number of ways in which this can be done is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here, 0+1+2+......+9= 45, which is divisible by 9
Now we have to select 8 digits to form an 8-digit number, which means we have to reject 2 no.s while
keeping the sum divisible by 9
So, (0,9), (1,8) (2,7), (3,6) ,(4,5) can be rejected.
1) if (0,9) is rejected, we can form numbers in 8 ! ways
2) If other 4 sets are rejected, we can form numbers in 7 (7!) (0 can't be at first place)
So no. of ways = 4* 7 (7!)
Adding (1) and (2): (8)! + 28 (7!)= 36 (7!)
Q. 19 If the coefficients of x3 and x4 in the expansion of (1 + ax + bx2) (1 - 2x)18 in powers of x are

both zero, then (a, b) is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Expression of Binomial Theorem -

Now,
coeff of
coeff of
and
and
a = 16
b = 272/3
Q. 20 Let the sum of the first three terms of an A.P. be 39 and the sum of its last four terms be
178. If the first term of this A.P. is 10, then the number of terms of the A.P. is :
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
Let the AP is
given
Now
Q. 21 ABC is a triangle in a plane with vertices A(2, 3, 5), B(−1, 3, 2) and C(λ, 5, µ). If the median
through A is equally inclined to the coordinate axes, then the value of (λ3+µ3+5) is :
Option 1:
1130
Option 2:
1348
Option 3:
676
Option 4:
1077
Correct Answer:
1348
Solution:
DRs of median
So,
So,
Q. 22
equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Put
Q. 23 For three events A, B and C, P(Exactly one of A or B occurs) =P(Exactly one of B or C occurs)
=P(Exactly one of C or A occurs) and P(All the three events occur
simultaneously)
Then the probability that at least one of the events occurs, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
P (exactly one of A or B) =P(exactly B or C)
=P (exactly one of A or C) =
P(A) + P (B) - 2P (A B)=
P(B) +P (C) - 2P (B C)=
P(C)+P(A)-2P (C A)=
P (A) + P (B) -2 P (A B) - P(B C)-P(C A) =
P(A B C)=
P(A B C)=
Q. 24 The number of distinct real roots of the
equation, in the
interval is
Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
As we leant in
When and ,
- wherein
and
C1 C1+C2+C3
Q. 25 If y(x) is the solution of the differential equation
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
-1
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
=8 - 8 - 13 log | 2 | + 13 log 2 = 0
Hence, y =0 is the solution of the given differential equation.
Hence, y(-4) = 0.
Q. 26 Let k be an integer such that the triangle with vertices (k, −3k), (5, k) and (−k, 2) has area 28
sq. units. Then the value of k is
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Area = 28 sq units
or
On solving k= 2 is the only integral solution
Q. 27
If
where k is a constant of integration, then A + B + C equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
Q. 28 If equals:
Option 1:
17
Option 2:
7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Thus
Q. 29 if and the equation (where denotes the

greatest integer ) has no integral solution, then all possible values of a lie in the interval :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here, we have,
now, x - [x] = {x} = t (say)

And,
hence, we have
Now, Let us consider that this equation has some solution.
then, as LHS is always positive or zero.
And,
Hence,
therefore, for solution to happen LHS should also be same.
Hence, for no solution
Q. 30
if then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now using formula in first two terms,
as x (= 5) > 0, y (=5) > 0, xy = 5.5 = 25 > 1, so
Q. 31 If the equations x2 + bx − 1 = 0 and x2 + x + b = 0 have a common root different from −1, then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Condition for one common root -
- wherein
&
are the 2 equations
For one common root , we have ,
Q. 32 8 - digit numbers are formed using the digits 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 4. The number of such
numbers in which the odd digits do not occupy odd places, is :
Option 1:
160
Option 2:
120
Option 3:
60
Option 4:
48
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
Odd nos - 1,1,3
Even nos . - 2,2,2,4,4
Let us first find places for odd numbers
1,1,3 can come at any of the 4 even places (2nd, 4th, 6th and 8th)
First select three places for them in 4C3 ways (=4)
Now, 1,1,3 can be arranged in these 3 places in (3!)/(2!) ways (=3)
So, number of ways for arranging 1,1,3 = 4 x 3 = 12
Now 2,2,2,4,4 can be arranged in remaining 5 places
Number of ways of doing that = 5! / (3!)(2!) = 10 ways
So total number of ways = 12 x 10 = 120
Q. 33 The number of terms in the expansion of (1 + x)101 (1 + x2 - x)100 in powers of x is :
Correct Answer:
202
Solution:
As we have learned
Now,
Q. 34
The value of is equal to
Option 1:
7785
Option 2:
8155
Option 3:
7775
Option 4:
8100
Correct Answer:
8155
Solution:
Now
So that
So
Q. 35 The number of distinct real values of λ for which the lines
and
are coplanar is:
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
For two lines to be coplanar
Two values of are possible

Q. 36
If for , the derivative of
is then equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Inverse Trigonometric Functions -
The functions and are the inverse trigonometric

functions.
- wherein
If
then,
Let,
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. x we get:
................ ( 1 )
Now,
................... ( 2 )
From ( 1 ) and ( 2 )
On comparison,
Q. 37 If two different numbers are taken from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, ......, 10}; then the probability that
their sum as well as absolute difference are both multiple of 4, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Probability of occurrence of an event -
Let S be the sample space then the probability of occurrence of an event E is denoted by P(E) and it is
defined as
- wherein
Where n repeated experiment and E occurs r times.
Set is
Total ways of selecting two numbers =
Possible pairs
Probability =
Q. 38 Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix such that A2 − 5A + 7I = O.
Statement - I :
Statement - II : The polynomial A3 − 2A2 − 3A + I can be reduced to 5(A − 4I).

Option 1:
Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
Option 2:
Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
Option 3:
Both the statements are true.
Option 4:
Both the statements are false.
Correct Answer:
Both the statements are true.
Solution:
Given that
The statement is 1 is true
Statement 2 is also correct
Q. 39 The solution of the differential equation if
is equal to :
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Put & Q = 2y
Its solution is
2+1=x
x=3
Q. 40 The radius of a circle, having minimum area, which touches the curve y=4−x2
and the lines, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Standard equation of parabola -
- wherein
and concept
Perpendicular distance of a point from a line -
- wherein
is the distance from the line .
This figure shows the circle with least area satisfying the conditions.
Circle touches y=x;
In the figure, centre (x,y) of the circle is (0,4-r)

Now using distance formula to determine the radius of the circle,
On rationalising,
Q. 41
If
is equal to :
Option 1:
log4
Option 2:
Option 3:
log2
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
log2
Solution:
Integration By PARTS -
Let and are two functions then
- wherein
Where is the Ist function is he IInd function

Q. 42 if then a value of
Option 1:
Option 2:
12
Option 3:
24
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Collinear Vectors -
Two vectors are said to be collinear if and only if there exists a scalar m such as that
- wherein
m is a Scalar.
Q. 43 Let where Then equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt in
Double Angle Formula -

- wherein
These are formulae for double angles.
Q. 44
If is the arithmetic mean of
and , then
is equal to :
Correct Answer:
1.4
Solution:
As we learnt in
Trigonometric Ratios of Submultiples of an Angle -

where-in
This shows the transformation formulae and double angle formulae.
Therefore,
dividing (2) by (1), we get
Now, we are given that is the arithmetic mean of and .
[By making triangle]
Thus,
Q. 45
If x is a solution of the equation ,
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 46 Let be the number of all possible triangles formed by joining vertices of an n-sided
regular polygon. If then the value of n is
Option 1:
8
Option 2:
7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
As we have learnt,
If there are n points in the plane and out of which no three are collinear then, total no. of triangles that
can be formed using these n points = nC3
Now,
no. of the selection of 3 vertices out of n vertices
Q. 47 The coefficient of x50 in the binomial expansion of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Now,
The given series is a G.P with a common ratio =
No. of terms = 1001
So sum =
Now coefficient of
Q. 48 The sum of the 3rd and the 4th terms of a G.P. is 60 and the product of its first three terms is
1000. If the first term of this G.P. is positive, then its 7th term is :
Correct Answer:
320
Solution:
As we learnt in
General term of a GP -
where
first term
common ratio
Now, let first term is a and common ratio is r then
Also
put in
Q. 49 The distance of the point (1, −5, 9) from the plane x − y + z = 5 measured along the
line x = y = z is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Distance formula -
The distance between two points is =
- wherein
= -
Cartesian eqution of a line -
The equation of a line passing through two points and parallel to vector having direction ratios as
is given by
The equation of a line passing through two points is given by
- wherein
Q. 50 The normal to the curve y(x−2)(x−3)=x+6 at the point where the curve intersects the y-axis
passes through the point :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of Normal -
Equation of normal to the curve y = f(x) at the point P(x1, y1) on the curve having a slope MN is
-
equation of normal
Q. 51 Two numbers are selected at random (without replacement) from the first six positive
integers. If X denotes the smaller of the two numbers, then the expectation of X is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Probability of Distribution Of the Random Variable -
X: 0 1 2 3 .......... r
P(X) : P(0) P(1) P(2) P(3) ...........P(r)
such that
-
The two positive integers can be selected from the first six positive integers without replacement in 6 X 5
= 30 ways.
X represents the larger of the two numbers obtained. Therefore, X can take the value of 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6.
For X=2, the possible observations are (1,2) and (2,1).
For X=3, the possible observations are (1,3),(2,3),(3,1), and (3,2).
For X=4, the possible observations are (1,4),(2,4),(3,4),(4,3),(4,2), and (4,1).
For X=5, the possible observations are (1,5),(2,5),(3,5),(4,5),(5,4),(5,3),(5,2), and (5,1).
For X=6, the possible observations are (1,6),(2,6),(3,6),(4,6),(5,6),(6,4),(6,3),(6,2), and (6,1).
Therefore, the required probability distribution is as follows.
Q. 52
if ,then the determinant of the matrix (A2016−2A2015−A2014) is :
Option 1:
2014
Option 2:
−175
Option 3:
2016
Option 4:
−25
Correct Answer:
−25
Solution:
We need to find determinant of the matrix
Q. 53 Let y(x) be the solution of the differential equation
Then y(e) is equal to :
Option 1:
e
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
2e
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
I.F.
Put x=1
0=c-2 = c=2
at x=e
Q. 54 The eccentricity of an ellipse whose centre is at the origin is . If one of its directrices is x = −
4, then the equation of the normal to it at is:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have
Directrix: x = - 4
So a = 2
Now,
Hence, the equation of the ellipse is
Using point form of normal, the equation of normal at is
Q. 55 The area (in sq. units) of the region described by A = {(x, y)|y ≥ x2 − 5x + 4, x + y ≥ 1, y ≤ 0} is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area along x axis -
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
Point of intersection of
y= x2-5x+4 and x+y=1 are x=1,3

at x=1, y=0;
x=3, y= -2
Req Area
Q. 56 If are three unit vectors in three-dimensional space, then the minimum value of
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Unit vector -
A vector of unit magnitude in direction of a vector is called unit vector along .
- wherein
It is denoted by .
Scalar Product of two vectors -
- wherein
Dot product is commutative for , where is the angle between the vectors
Minimum value 3
Q. 57 Let P be the relation defined on the set of all real numbers such that
.Then P is
Option 1:
reflexive and symmetric but not Transitive.
Option 2:
reflexive and transitive but not symmetric.
Option 3:
symmetric and Transitive but not reflexive.
Option 4:
an equivalence relation.
Correct Answer:
an equivalence relation.
Solution:
Hence P is Reflexive
Using Equation 1
Hence P is symmetric
Adding Eq 1 and 2
Hence, P is Transitive
So P is an equivalence relation
Q. 58 Let 10 vertical poles standing at equal distances on a straight line, subtend the same angle of
elevation at a point O on this line and all the poles are on the same side of O. If the height
of the longest pole is ‘h’ and the distance of the foot of the smallest pole from O is ‘a’, then
the distance between two consecutive poles is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For all poles to subtend the same angle, the longest pole must be farthest, smallest pole must be nearest,
while all other poles are arranged in ascending order of height. Let distance between 2 cosecutive poles
be x. Then,
In,
..............( 1 )
Q. 59 Let z=1 + ai be a complex number, a > 0, such that z3 is a real number. Then the sum
1+z+z2+.....+z11 is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
z = 1 + ai, a>0
given that z3 is a real number.
Now,
Q. 60 From 6 different novels and 3 different dictionaries, 4 novels and 2 dictionary are to be
selected and arranged in a row on a shelf so that the dictionaries are always in the middle.
The number of such arrangements is :
Option 1:
at least 750 but less than 1000
Option 2:
Option 3:
at least 2000
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
at least 2000
Solution:
6 Different novels, 3 different dictionaries.
Selections are and
For arranging these selected ones
Dictionaries can be arranged in middle 2 places (out of 6 total) in 2! ways
Novels can be arranged in remaining 4 places in 4! ways
Number of such arrangements

Mock Test 3
Physics
Q. 1 Which of the following is true about an object in light rays.
Option 1:
there are two types of objets real object and vitrul object
Option 2:
it may be point object or an extended pbject
Option 3:
both (A) ,and (B)23705
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
both (A) ,and (B)23705
Solution:
as we lern
Object -
A source of light rays that are incident on an optical element. It may be a point object or an extended
object .They are of two kind real object & virtual object.
- wherein
There are two types of objects, rel object and virtual object
Q. 2 if keeping the incedence ray fixed ,the mirrior rotates by an angle the reflected light will
deviate from its original path by an angle
Option 1:
o
Option 2:
00
Option 3:
2 0
Option 4:
4 0
Correct Answer:
2 0
Solution:
as we learn
Rotation of Mirror -
Keeping the incidence ray fixed, When mirror is rotated by an angle , the reflected ray is rotated by an
angle .
- wherein
The reflected raywill deviate by an angle 2
Q. 3
Focal length of a convex lens water is 40cm. Find its focal length in air. Given that
and
Option 1:
80 cm
Option 2:
5 cm
Option 3:
10 cm
Option 4:
40 cm
Correct Answer:
10 cm
Solution:
As we learn
Lensmaker's Formula -
- wherein
refractive index of medium of object
refractive index of lens
are radius of curvature of two surface
Q. 4 If voltage across a bulb rated 220 volt - 100 watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the
percentage of the rated value by which the power would decrease is:
Option 1:
20%
Option 2:
2.5%
Option 3:
5%
Option 4:
10%
Correct Answer:
5%
Solution:
Q. 5 A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 . Find the points A and B as shown in
the figure, at which a current carrying conductor should be connected so that the resistance
R of the sub circuit between these points is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
In series Grouping -
- wherein
Equivalent Resistance
In parallel Grouping -
Let x be resistance per unit length of the wire
Upper Portion
Lower Portion
Equivalent resistance between A and B is
-------------------------(i)
-----------------------------------(ii)
or
Let
=>
Q. 6 A wire of resistance 4 is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched
wire would be:
Option 1:
16
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
As we learnt in
Resistance formula -
- wherein
resistivity of material
Number of free electrons per unit volume.
Volume of wire remains constant
New resistance
Q. 7 The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of
10 is:
Option 1:
1.0
Option 2:
0.2
Option 3:
0.5
Option 4:
0.8
Correct Answer:
0.5
Solution:
given
Q. 8 Two cities are 150km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through
copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5
. The power loss in the wires is:
Option 1:
19.2W
Option 2:
19.2kW
Option 3:
19.2J
Option 4:
12.2kW
Correct Answer:
19.2kW
Solution:
As we learnt in
Power dissipiated in external resistance -
Power loss=
Power loss=
Q. 9 The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
X = A.B
Correct Answer:
X = A.B
Solution:
As we learnt in
AND Gate -
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
Q. 10 An astronomical teloscope has an angular magnification 8 for a distant objects. Determine
the focal length of eye piece if the the sepration between objective and eye piece is 36cm:
Option 1:
32 cm
Option 2:
2 cm
Option 3:
30 cm
Option 4:
4 cm
Correct Answer:
4 cm
Solution:
As we learn
Length of compound microscope -
- wherein
Image distance from objective.
Object distance from eyepiece
so
36
Q. 11 An object is placed between two plane morriors inclined at an angle of 600 the number of
image formed are
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
5
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
as we learn
Combination of two plane Mirror -
No. of image formed
a) If even number
Number of image =
b) If odd number
Number of image =
If object is placed on the angle bisector.
b) If odd number
Number of image =
If object is not placed on the angle bisector.
-
number of images=
Q. 12 In the given figure the image formed will be
Option 1:
real
Option 2:
virtual
Option 3:
real or virtual depending upon the distance of object from mirror
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
virtual
Solution:
as we learn
Image -
Point of convergence or apparent point of divergence of rays. Image can be real or virtual.
- wherein
The image formed will be virtual
Q. 13 An object of length 9 Cm is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 'F
' at a distance 4F the length of image will be
Option 1:
2 Cm.
Option 2:
3Cm
Option 3:
4Cm
Option 4:
5Cm
Correct Answer:
3Cm
Solution:
as we learn
Longitudinal magnification -
- wherein
Longitudinal magnification is used when object is placed along principal axis.
u = object distance
v = image distance
Q. 14 In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true:
Option 1:
Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
Option 2:
Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
Option 3:
Electron are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Option 4:
Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Correct Answer:
Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
Solution:
The n-type semiconductor can be produced by doping impurity atoms of valence 5 i.e. pentavalent atoms,
i.e., phosphorous.
Q. 15 Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by
the battery is:
Option 1:
0.75 A
Option 2:
zero
Option 3:
0.25 A
Option 4:
0.5 A
Correct Answer:
0.5 A
Solution:
As we learned in
biased.
- wherein
R = 0, Forward
R Reverse
Since D2 is in Reverse biased mode, hence no current will flow through it.
Diode D1 is in forward biased mode hence it will offer zero resistance
Q. 16 X- rays are -
Option 1:
Stream of neutral particles
Option 2:
Stream of negatively charged particles
Option 3:
Stream of protons
Option 4:
electromagnetic radiations of high frequency
Correct Answer:
electromagnetic radiations of high frequency
Solution:
As we learn
Characteristics x-ray -
- wherein
Characteristics x ray can be defined by knocking out of electron from inner orbit of an atom
Q. 17 Both the nucleus and the atom of some element are in their respective first excited
states. They get de-excited by emitting photons of wavelengths ,
respectively. The ratio is closest to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
10
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The nucleus emits radiation of order of 0.1 (like rays)
And the energy of rays is in order of Mev.
Similary for hydrogen-like atoms

that energy of hydrogen-like atoms is in order of eV.
or atom emits radiation of order of
ratio
or
Q. 18 Muon ( ) is a negatively charged ( |q| = |e| ) particle with a mass = , where

is the mass of the electron and e is the electronic charge. If is bound to a proton to
form a hydrogen like atom, identify the correct statements.
(A) Radius of the muonic orbit is 200 times smaller than that of the electron.
(B) The speed of the in the orbit is times that of the electron in the orbit.
(C) The ionization energy of muonic atom is 200 times more than that of an hydrogen atom.
(D) The momentum of the muon in the orbit is 200 times more than that of the electron.
Option 1:
(A), (B), (D)
Option 2:
(A), (C), (D)
Option 3:
(B), (D)
Option 4:
(C), (D)
Correct Answer:
(A), (C), (D)
Solution:
As we learnt
Radius of nth orbital -

- wherein
and
Energy of electron in nth orbit -
- wherein
Velocity of electron in nth orbital
hence, option (2) is correct
Q. 19 An x- ray tube is operated at 25 Kv. The minimum wavelength produced is :
Option 1:
0.25 A0
Option 2:
0.5 A0
Option 3:
0.75 A0
Option 4:
1.25 A0
Correct Answer:
0.5 A0
Solution:
As we learn
Continuous x-ray -
- wherein
Also called cutoff wavelength . All other wavelength are greater than this.
Q. 20 In case (i) plane is smooth and in case (ii) plane is rough. If the time taken by the block in
case (ii) to come down is 3 times to the time to come down in case (i) then the coefficient of
friction of plane in case (ii) is?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Length covered in both cases is same so for smooth wedge
For rough wedge
Now
Solving
Q. 21 Calculate the acceleration of block of the following diagram. Assume all surfaces are
frictionless . Here m1 = 100kg and m2 = 50kg
Option 1:
0.33m/s2
Option 2:
0.66m/s2
Option 3:
1m/s2
Option 4:
1.32m/s2
Correct Answer:
1.32m/s2
Solution:
(i)
(ii)
solving (i) and (ii)

Q. 22 A uniform disc of radius R and mass M is free to rotate only about its axis. A string is
wrapped over its rim and a body of mass m is tied to the free end of the string as shown in
the figure. The body is released from rest. Then the acceleration of the body is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 23 From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube of maximum possible volume is cut.
Moment of inertia of cube about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to
one of its faces is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
M.O.I. of the cube about the given axis.

Q. 24 A cylinder of mass Mc and sphere of mass Ms are placed at points A and B of two inclines,
respectively.
(See Figure). If they roll on the incline without slipping such that their accelerations are the
same, then
The ratio is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Acceleration along inclined plane
For sphere
For cylinder
Q. 25 The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature
and voltage supply are
Option 1:
Instrumental errors
Option 2:
Personal errors
Option 3:
Least count errors
Option 4:
Random errors
Correct Answer:
Random errors
Solution:
Cause is not known so, It is Random error.
Q. 26 If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as the fundamental quantities, the
dimensional formula of surface tension will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
[E V-2 T-2]
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
[E V-2 T-2]
Solution:
P=power
Surface Tension =
Surface Tension
Q. 27 The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t - 2t2 and y = 10t respectively,
where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
5m /s2
Option 3:
-4m /s2
Option 4:
-8m /s2
Correct Answer:
-4m /s2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Introduction to Differentiation -
- wherein
x = 5t - y = 10t
vx=5-4t vy=10
ax=-4 ay=0
Acceleration of particle at
Q. 28 The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s . The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is
flowing due east . If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross he river along the
sortest path , the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t north is given by :
Option 1:
30 west
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
30 west
Solution:
Boat - River Problem -
To cross river in the shortest path
condition ( velocity of boat along river flow must be zero)

width of river
v = Speed of Boat w.r.t. river
u = speed of river
Q. 29 Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked
up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving
escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the
moving escalator will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Velocity of Preeti
Velocity of escalator
distance
Q. 30 A gas is taken through the cycle A B C A, as shown. What is the net work done by the
gas?
Option 1:
-2000 J
Option 2:
2000 J
Option 3:
1000 J
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
1000 J
Solution:
As we learnt in
Work done in cyclic process -
It is the area under the cycle.

- wherein
Work is positive if cycle is clock wise. Work is negative if cycle is anti clock wise.
(for P - V diagram)
The given diagram is a P-V indicator diagram. Work done for P-V indicator diagram is area of the cycle.
Area of cycle
Work is positive as cycle is clockwise.
Q. 31 A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2 V,

and then adiabatically to a volume 16 V. The final pressure of the gas is:
Option 1:
64 P
Option 2:
32 P
Option 3:
Option 4:
16 P
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Equation of state -
- wherein
On solving
For Isothermal expansion,
For adiabatic expansion,
Q. 32 Infinity number of the masses, each 1 kg , are placed along the X-axis at
. The magnitude of the resultant
gravitational potential in terms of gravitational constant G at the origin is . Then 'n'
will be :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
8
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
As we know
Total Potential (v) [because particle along both sides]
As, m =1 kg
So, V= 4G
Hence n = 4.
Q. 33 A particle of mass 1 kg is placed at a distance of 4m from center on an axis of a uniform ring

of mass 5 kg and radius 3 m. Calculate the potential difference to increase the distance of
the particle from 4m to m in terms of G will be.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Potential at point A
Potential at point B
Potential difference
Q. 34 A body of mass makes an elastic collision with a second body at rest and continues to
move in the original direction but with one fourth of its original speed.What is the mass (in
kg) of the second body ?
Correct Answer: 1.2
Solution:
Perfectly Elastic Collision -
- wherein
mass of body =
initial velocity of body
mass of body
A B
rest
(from e=1)
momentum balance
Q. 35 A body of mass moving with an unknowm velocity of , undergoes a collinear collision
with a body of mass moving with a velocity . After collision , and move with
velocities of and , respectively.
If and , the is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Perfectly Elastic Collision -
Law of conservation of momentum and that of Kinetic Energy hold good.
- wherein
before collision:
after collision:
&
Q. 36 Consider a solid sphere of Radius R and mass density

The minimum density of a liquid in which it will float
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As
Buoyant force-
The buoyant force is given as
Where FB=Buoyant force
= density of the fluid
V= Volume of the solid body immersed in the liquid or Volume of the fluid displaced
So
Applying force balance

So the correct option is 1.
Q. 37 If cp and cv denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight M,
then (where R is the molar gas constant)
Option 1:
cp-cv=R/M2
Option 2:
cp-cv=R
Option 3:
cp-cv=R/M
Option 4:
cp-cv=MR
Correct Answer:
cp-cv=R/M
Solution:
Q. 38 The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction of incidence, received at a
distance R from the centre of a star of radius r, whose outer surface radiates as a black body
at a temperature T K is given by
(where is Stefan's constant)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
(Where is Stefan's constant)
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have leaqrned
Rate of Loss of Heat -
Power of radiation
Intensity of this energy at a distance R is
Q. 39 ‘n’ moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process A→B as shown in the figure. The maximum
temperature of the gas during the process will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At any point between A & B, we can write relation between P & V by using the equation of the straight line
From ideal gas equation
PV = nRT
For temperature to be maximum at any point

Q. 40 Within a spherical charge distribution of charge density ρ(r), N equipotential surfaces of
potential V0, V0 + V, V0 + 2V, .......... ( ), are drawn and have increasing
radii r0, r1, r2,..........rN, respectively. If the difference in the radii of the surfaces is constant
for all values of V0 and then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Relation between field and potential -
- wherein
Potential gradient.
If P lies inside -
We know
Here and are same for any pair of surfaces.
E= constant
Now, electric field inside the spherical charge distribution
E would be constant of
Q. 41 A parallel plate capacitor is made of two plates of length l, width w and separated by
distance d. A dielectric slab (dielectric constant K) that fits exactly between the plates is held
near the edge of the plates. It is pulled into the capacitor by a force where U is
the energy of the capacitor when dielectric is inside the capacitor up to distance x (See
figure). If the charge on the capacitor is Q then the force on the dielectric when it is near the
edge is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 42 The electric field in a region of space is given by, where E0=100 N/C. The
flux of this field through a circular surface of radius 0.02 m parallel to the Y-Z plane is nearly :
Option 1:
0.125 Nm2/C
Option 2:
0.02 Nm2/C
Option 3:
0.005 Nm2/C
Option 4:
3.14 Nm2/C
Correct Answer:
0.125 Nm2/C
Solution:
New flux
Q. 43 An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of
3.57 x 10-2 T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 x 1011 C/kg, the frequency of revolution of the
electron is
Option 1:
1 GHz
Option 2:
100 MHz
Option 3:
62.8 MHz
Option 4:
6.28 MHz
Correct Answer:
1 GHz
Solution:
As we learnt in
Radius of charged particle -
Frequency of charged particle -
Frequency =
Q. 44 A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50Hz frequency. If an ac
source, of 200volt, 100Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be
Option 1:
4.0A
Option 2:
8.0A
Option 3:
Option 4:
2.0A
Correct Answer:
4.0A
Solution:
As we learnt in
Inductive reactance (XL) -
Opposition offered by inductive circuit.
- wherein
Inductive reactance =
Then at 100Hz,
Q. 45 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an
infinitesimal current element (IdI) of a current carrying conductor only.
Statement II : Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge q,
with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter
being produced by a vector source, q.
In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Option 2:
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Solution:
1) Statement (I) is correct
Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current
element (Idl) of a current-carrying conductor only
Statement (II) is incorrect

Biet-sarort's law is analogous to coulomb's inverse square law of charge q with the former being related
to the field produced by the vector source, Idl while the latter is produced by a ' scalar source ' '
The correct option is (II)
Q. 46 A 800 turn coil of effective area is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field

. When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90 around any of its coplanar axis in
0.1 s , the emf induced in the coil will be :
Option 1:
2V
Option 2:
0.2 V
Option 3:
0.0002 V
Option 4:
0.02 V
Correct Answer:
0.02 V
Solution:
Rate of change of magnetic Flux -
- wherein
change in flux
N = 800
case 1 B and A are parallel
So
case 2 B and A are perpendicular
So
Q. 47 A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resiatance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying
coil in the shape of
(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'
(ii) a square of side 'a'
the magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 48 A square shaped coil of area having 600 turns rotates in a magnetic field of
, about an axis which is parallel to one of the side of the coil and perpendicular
to the direction of field. If the coil completes 500 revolution in a minute, the instantaneous
emf when the plane of the coil is inclined at with the field, will be ________ V.
Correct Answer:
44
Solution:
Induced emf in rotating coil is given by
Q. 49 The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is Hz. If light of frequency

Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission is
nearly
Option 1:
2V
Option 2:
3V
Option 3:
5V
Option 4:
1V
Correct Answer:
2V
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
&
Stopping Potential /Cut-off Potential -
It is defined as the potential necessary to stop any electron from reaching the other side.
-
Q. 50 An electron is accelerated through a potential diffrence of 10000 V . Its debrogile wavelength
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
12.2 nm
Correct Answer:
Solution:
De - Broglie wavelength of Electron -
- wherein
SO v=10000
SO
Q. 51 An electromagnetic wave of wavelength is incident on a photosensitive surface of
negligible work function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-
Broglie wavelength then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Work Function negligible
Q. 52 A photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of . It can

detect a signal of wavelength.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Photo diode -
A special type of photo detector.
- wherein
By measuring the change in the conductance of the semiconductors one can measure the intensity of the
optical signal
Q. 53 A transistor is operated in common-emitter configuration at such that a change in

the base current from to produces a change in the collector current from
5mA to 10mA.The current gain is
Option 1:
100
Option 2:
150
Option 3:
50
Option 4:
75
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
As we learnt in
Relation between ? and ? -
- wherein
(current gain )
Current gain =
Q. 54 Symbolic representation of four logic gate are shown as
Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND, and NOT gates, respectively
Option 1:
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
Option 2:
(iii), (ii) and (i)
Option 3:
(iii), (iii) and (iv)
Option 4:
(ii), (iv) and (iii)
Correct Answer:
(ii), (iv) and (iii)
Solution:
As we learnt in
OR gate -
Relation between input and output
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
AND Gate -
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
NOT gate -
- wherein
A is input
Y is out put
NAND gate -
NOT + AND gate
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
i) is OR gate
ii) is AND gate
iii) is NOT gate
iv) is NAND gate

Q. 55
If the potential difference between and is zero, the value of is . The value of
is__________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 56 In the circuit shown below, the readings of the voltmeter and the ammeter will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ammeter -
It is a device used to measure current and is always connected in series.
Voltameter -
It is a device used to measure Potential differences and is always put in parallel with the circuit element.
Circuit 1
Circuit 2
The resistance of the voltmeter is very high. So a negligible amount of current flows through the
voltmeter. So we can consider almost all currents flow through upper 10
Q. 57 Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each
other. The currents flowing in them are I and 2 I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field
induction at the centre will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 58 An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are

connected in series to an ac source of potential difference 'V' volts as shown in figure.
Potential difference across, C and R is 40 V, 10V and 40V, respectively. The amplitude of
current flowing through LCR series circuit is . The impedance of the circuit is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 59 Two cars are moving in 2 perpendicular roads towards a crossing with speeds of 72 km/hr
and 36 km/hr. If first car blows horn of 280 Hz then frequency (in Hz) of horn heard by driver
of second car when line joining the car makes with roads, will be
(Take velocity of sound is air = 330 m/s)
Correct Answer:
298
Solution:
As we learnt in
Doppler Effect when source and observer are not in line -
- wherein
are velocities of car 1 and car 2 respectively
are angle shown in the fig.

Q. 60 The length of the sonometer wire AB is 110 cm. There are two bridges be placed from A to B,
and the wire is divide into 3 segments whose fundamental frequency is in ratio 1:2:3. What
will be the ratio of their length?
Option 1:
(30, 40, 40) cm
Option 2:
(20, 80, 10) cm
Option 3:
(60,30, 20) cm
Option 4:
(10, 60, 40) cm
Correct Answer:
(60,30, 20) cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Sonometer -
It is a device used to measure the velocity of the transverse mechanical wave in a stretched wire.
- wherein
The principle of sonometer is based on resonance of string vibration.

,
Chemistry
Q. 1 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and
8.0 g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the
sample ?
(At. Wt. : Mg = 24)
Option 1:
75
Option 2:
96
Option 3:
60
Option 4:
84
Correct Answer:
84
Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of Moles = given mass of substance/ molar mass of the substance
By the stoichiometry of the reaction above, we know that 1 mol of the gives 1 mol of MgO.
moles of MgO obtained

Moles of MgO that should have been obtained in a pure sample = 0.238
moles of in the sample
= moles of MgO in the sample
= 0.2
Q. 2 of weigh and of weigh

The molar mass of and molar mass of in are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the atomic mass of A = x & atomic mass of B = y
& :
Solving equations (I) & (II), simultaneously, we get:
&
Thus,
Q. 3 Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
Option 1:
H+
Option 2:
Li+
Option 3:
Na+
Option 4:
Mg2+
Correct Answer:
Li+
Solution:
Electronic config of
Electronic config of
Be2+ is isoelectronic with
Option (2) is correct answer.
Q. 4 Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules
Option 1:
I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
Option 2:
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
Option 3:
Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
Option 4:
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
Correct Answer:
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
Solution:
Bond strength -
The energy required to break one mole of bonds of particular type in gaseous state is called bond energy
or bond strength.
- wherein
The same amount of energy is released in formation of one mol of particular bond.
Bond dissociation enthalpies of halogen family decreases down the group as the size of atom increases.
The bond dissociation enthalpy of fluorine, is however, lower than those of chlorine and bromine because
of inter electronic repulsion present in small atoms of flourine.
Hence order of bond dissociation enthalpies for halogen is
Q. 5 The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is -46.0 kJ/mol. If the enthalpy of formation of H2
from its atoms is -436 kJ/mol and that of N2 is -712 kJ/mol, the average bond enthalpy (in
kJ/mol) of N-H bond in NH3 is :
Correct Answer:
352
Solution:
Let x be the bond enthalpy of N-H bond then
Q. 6 What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction ?
Option 1:
0 to -4
Option 2:
+4 to +4
Option 3:
0 to +4
Option 4:
-4 to +4
Correct Answer:
-4 to +4
Solution:
In the oxidation number of carbon is -4 while in the oxidation number of Carbon is +4.
Hence, the oxidation state changes from -4 to +4.
Q. 7 Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction ? Choose the right
option.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Decomposition reaction leads to the breakdown of a compound into two or more components at least
one of which must be in the elemental state.
Both reactions (1) and (4) are examples of decomposition reactions.
In a displacement reaction, an ion (or an atom) in a compound is replaced by an ion (or an atom) of
another element. There are two types of displacement reactions:
Metal displacement - A metal in a compound can be displaced by another metal in the uncombined state
Non-metal displacement - The non-metal displacement redox reactions include hydrogen displacement
and a rarely occurring reaction involving oxygen displacement.
Reactions (2) and (3), both are examples of displacement reactions,
But reaction (2) is an example of a metal displacement reaction because metal is displacing there.
Q. 8 Which one of the following reactions does not come under hydrolysis type reaction ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The above reaction is an example of a Redox reaction wherein water is oxidised by Fluorise.
Q. 9 The oxidation number of the underlined atom in the following species
Identify the incorrect option.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In is in oxidation state and oxygen is in oxidation state.
Q. 10 A certain compound gives a negative test with ninhydrin and positive test with Benedict's
solution. The compound is:
Option 1:
Protein
Option 2:
Monosaccharide
Option 3:
Lipid
Option 4:
An amino acid
Correct Answer:
Monosaccharide
Solution:
A compound which gives a negative test with ninhydrin, it cannot be a protein or an amino acid. As it
gives a positive test with Benedict's solution. So, it must be a monosaccharide but not a lipid.
Therefore, (2) option is correct.

Q. 11 Match the following:
Species Deficiency disease
(i) Riboflavin (a) Beriberi
(ii) Thiamine (b) Scurvy
(iii) Pyridoxine (c) Cheilosis
(iv) Ascorbic acid (d) Convulsions
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Vitamin - Night blindness , Xerophthalmia
Vitamin (Thiamine) - Beriberi
Vitamin (Riboflavin) - Cheilosis
Vitamin (Niacin) - Pellagra
Vitamin (Pyridoxine) - Convulsions , Anaemia
Vitamin - Pernicious anaemia
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) - Scurvy
Vitamin - Rickets ( in children's )
Osteomalacia ( in adults )
Vitamin E - Increased RBCs fragility , muscular weakness
Vitamin K - Poor blood clotting
Hence, the correct match is
(i) Riboflavin - (c) Cheilosis

(ii) Thiamine - (a) Beriberi
(iii) Pyridoxine - (d) Convulsions
(iv) Ascorbic acid - (b) Scurvy
Q. 12 Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves:
Option 1:
6 molecules of ATP
Option 2:
18 molecules of ATP
Option 3:
10 molecules of ATP
Option 4:
8 molecules of ATP
Correct Answer:
18 molecules of ATP
Solution:
As we have learned in
Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves 18 molecules of ATP.
Q. 13 The pair that has similar atomic radii is:
Option 1:
Mn and Re
Option 2:
Ti and Hf
Option 3:
Sc and Ni
Option 4:
Mo and W
Correct Answer:
Mo and W
Solution:
Atomic Radius -
The distance from the centre of the nucleus to the outermost shell containing the electrons is called
atomic radius.It can be measured by the spectroscopic method and by x-ray diffraction or electron
diffraction techniques.
Q. 14 In comparison to boron, beryllium has:
Option 1:
lesser nuclear charge and lesser first ionisation enthalpy
Option 2:
greater nuclear charge and lesser first ionisation enthalpy
Option 3:
greater nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy
Option 4:
lesser nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy
Correct Answer:
lesser nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy
Solution:
Variable of effective nuclear charge in period -
It is observed that the magnitude of effective nuclear charge increase in a period when we move from left
to the right.
Effective nuclear charge(zeff) -
"Be" has 4 proton & "B" has 5 protons so, the Nuclear charge of "Be" is less than "B"
And half or fully filled configuration is more stable than partially filled orbitals.
IE1 --- Be > B
2s2 2p1
Q. 15 The IUPAC name for the following compounds is:
Option 1:
3-methyl-4-(3-methylprop-1-enyl)-1-heptyne
Option 2:
3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-6-en-1-yne
Option 3:
3-methyl-4-(1-methylprop-2-ynyl)-1-heptene
Option 4:
3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-1-en-6-yen
Correct Answer:
3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-1-en-6-yen
Solution:
The IUPAC name will be-
3, 5-dimensions 1-4-propylhep -1-en-6-yne
In the case of double bond & triple bond, positions are the same & the position of substituents are also
the same. then double bond considers as senior so, the numbering starts from a double bond.
Q. 16 Consider the complex ions -
trans- (A) and cis - (B)
The correct statement regarding them is :-
Option 1:
Both (A) and (B) cannot be optically active.
Option 2:
Both (A) and (B) can be optically active.
Option 3:
(A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active.
Option 4:
(A) can be optically active, but (B) cannot be optically active.
Correct Answer:
(A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active.
Solution:
Trans - [Co(en)2Cl2]+ has plane of symmetry. So it is not optically active.
Cis - [Co(en)2Cl2]+ does not have any plane of symmetry, so it can be optically active.

Q. 17 The d-electron configuration of and , respectively are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ru belongs to the 4d series of elements and ethylene diamine(en) is a chelating ligand which causes a
larger splitting in the 4d orbitals. This leads to a pairing of electrons in the orbital due to which the
electronic configuration is
is a weak field ligand which is unable to cause pairing in and hence the configuration is
accomodated as
Therefore, Option 3 is correct.

Q. 18 The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) of is:
Option 1:
-0.8 + 2P
Option 2:
-0.4
Option 3:
- 0.8
Option 4:
-0.4 +P
Correct Answer:
-0.4
Solution:
Means all ligands behaves as weak field ligands
So,
Q. 19 The molar heat capacity (Cp) of CD2O is 10 cals at 1000 K. The change in entropy (in cal deg-1)
associated with cooling of 32 g of CD2O vapour from 1000 K to 100 K at constant pressure
will be :
(D = deuterium, at. mass = 2 u)
Correct Answer:
-23.03
Solution:
Entropy for isobaric process -
Q. 20 Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?
Option 1:
BF3
Option 2:
PF3
Option 3:
CF4
Option 4:
SiF4
Correct Answer:
PF3
Solution:
A lewis base is a compound that can donate a lone pair of electrons while a lewis acid accepts a lone pair
of electrons.
behave like lewis's base because it has one pair of electrons, while can accept lone pair of an
electron in and in vacant orbitals and act as lewis acid.
has complete octet and acts as none.
Henec, the correct answer is option 2.
Q. 21 On balancing the given redox reaction,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 22 Which amongst the following is the strongest acid?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
CN is highly electron withdrawing group and it exerts both as well as effect.

The conjugate base of is .The conjugate base is extremely stable due to
delocalisation of the negative charge with the three cyanide groups.
Q. 23 The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of
ethane is:
Option 1:
The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered
conformation has torsional strain
Option 2:
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed
conformation has no torsional strain
Option 3:
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the
eclipsed conformation has torsional strain
Option 4:
The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered
conformation has no torsional strain.
Correct Answer:
The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered
conformation has no torsional strain.
Solution:
Thus, staggered conformation is more stable than eclipsed conformation because of no torsional strain.
Q. 24 A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressure of the pure
hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mm Hg for pentane and 120 mm Hg for hexane. The mole
fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be:
Correct Answer:
0.478
Solution:
Q. 25 For a first order reaction, calculate the ratio between the time taken to complete 3/4 th of
the reaction and time taken to complete half of the reaction?
Option 1:
4/3
Option 2:
8/3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 26 Which of the following is Turnbull's blue?
Option 1:
Ferricyanide
Option 2:
Ferrous ferricyanide
Option 3:
Ferrous cyanide
Option 4:
Ferri ferrocyanide
Correct Answer:
Ferrous ferricyanide
Solution:
Turnbull's blue has the formula
It is named as Ferrous ferricyanide
Q. 27 The type of isomerism shown by the complex is
Option 1:
Ionization isomerism
Option 2:
Coordination isomerism
Option 3:
Geometrical isomerism
Option 4:
Linkage isomerism
Correct Answer:
Geometrical isomerism
Solution:
Geometrical Isomers -
This is due to the difference in the relative position of the ligands attached to the central metal atom with
respect to each other.
shows geometrical isomerism.
Q. 28 Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated
nitric acid, gives:
Option 1:
nitrobenzene
Option 2:
2, 4, 6-trinitrobenzene
Option 3:
2,4,6- trinitrophenol
Option 4:
p-nitrophenol
Correct Answer:
2,4,6- trinitrophenol
Solution:
Direct nitration of phenol is difficult as it gets oxidised by the nitrating mixture
. However, picric acid is formed as a minor product in the reaction.
To get a better yield of Picric acid, it is prepared by treating phenol first with concentrated sulphuric acid
which converts it to phenol-2,4-disulphonic acid, and then with concentrated nitric acid to get 2,4,6-
trinitrophenol.

Q. 29 The ammonia released on quantitative reaction of 0.6g, urea with
sodium hydroxide can be neutralised by:
Option 1:
200 ml of 0.2 N HCl
Option 2:
200 ml of 0.4 N HCl
Option 3:
100 ml of 0.1N HCl
Option 4:
100 ml of 0.2N HCl
Correct Answer:
100 ml of 0.2N HCl
Solution:
2 × mole of Urea = mole of ........(1)
mole of = mole of ........(2)
mole of HCl = 2 × mole of Urea
mole of HCl = ...(i)
[We know , mole = M X V = N X n X V]
...as (i).
Q. 30 The number of chiral carbons in chloramphenicol is ________
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
The structure of chloramphenicol is given below:
Thus, the number of chiral carbons in chloramphenicol is 2.
Q. 31 The correct order of statbility for the following alkoxides is:
Option 1:
C>A>B
Option 2:
C>B>A
Option 3:
B>A>C
Option 4:
B>C>A
Correct Answer:
C>B>A
Solution:
When a negative charge is delocalised with an electron-withdrawing group like (NO2) then stability
increases.
(A) The negative charge is localised
(B) The negative charge is delocalised with the carbon of the alkene
(C) Negative charge is delocalised with NO2 group
So, the order will be
C>B>A
Q. 32 The number of water molecules is maximum in :
Option 1:
18 molecules of water
Option 2:
1.8 gram of water
Option 3:
18 gram of water
Option 4:
18 moles of water
Correct Answer:
18 moles of water
Solution:
Mole Concept -
one mole = 6.0221367 1023 = NA
Let us check the number of molecules in each option.
18 molecules of water have 18 molecules
1.8 grams of water has
18 grams of water has
18 moles of water has 18 NA molecules
Q. 33 The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:
Option 1:
Schiff base
Option 2:
Ketone
Option 3:
Carboxylic acid
Option 4:
Aromatic acid
Correct Answer:
Schiff base
Solution:
The reaction
Q. 34 The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their
radii increase ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned in
In the case of isoelectronic species, radius decreases with an increase in nuclear charge.
So, the increasing order of radii of given species
Q. 35 Predict the correct order among the following:
Option 1:
lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
Option 2:
lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
Option 3:
bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
Option 4:
lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
Correct Answer:
lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
Solution:
VSEPR Theory -
valence shell.
According to VSERPR theory the repulsive forces between lone pair are greater than between lone pair
and bond pair which are further greather than bond pair and bond pair.
Q. 36 The entropy (So) in (JK-1mol-1) of the following substances are :
The entropy change for the reaction
Correct Answer:
-312.7
Solution:
Given reaction
Q. 37 Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction
has a value of at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium constant
for the following reaction at the same temperature?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the
reaction in the forward direction.
is the equilibrium constant for the reverse direction.
for

Q. 38 Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 . The specific conductance of the
solution is 1.4 S m-1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 . The
molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol-1 is :
Option 1:
5 x 10-4
Option 2:
5 x 10-3
Option 3:
5 x 103
Option 4:
5 x 102
Correct Answer:
5 x 10-4
Solution:
Specific conductance,
Resistivity,
Resistance, R=
Now, for a 0.5 M solution, R=280
molar conductivity,

Q. 39 What is the IUPAC name of the following compound
Option 1:
2-Bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
Option 2:
3-Bromo-1,2-dimethylbut-1-ene
Option 3:
4-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
Option 4:
3-Bromo-3-methyl-1,2dimethylprop-1-ene
Correct Answer:
4-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
Solution:
The given structure is -
The sum of this numbering will be the lowest. So, it is correct and alkene is getting a smaller number.
IUPAC Name of the compound will be 4-Bromo-3methylpent-2-ene.
Q. 40 If the enthalpy of atomisation for is and bond enthalpy for is

, the relation between them :
Option 1:
is x < y
Option 2:
does not exist
Option 3:
is x >y
Option 4:
is x = y
Correct Answer:
is x >y
Solution:
Q. 41 Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is
75 torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 20°C for a
solution containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is:
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Q. 42 The half life of a first order reaction is 60 min. How long (in min.) will it take to consume 90%
of the reaction?
Correct Answer:
200
Solution:
For the first-order reaction,
Q. 43 Which of the following can be detected by the borax bead test ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both a and b
Correct Answer:
Both a and b
Solution:
Borax bead -
Used for the detection of coloured basic radicals in borax bead test.
Therefore,option (4) is correct.
Q. 44 The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex are:
Option 1:
square planar geometry and paramagnetic
Option 2:
tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
Option 3:
square planar geometry and diamagnetic
Option 4:
tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
Correct Answer:
tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
Solution:
Q. 45 Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic subsitution reaction most easily?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Q. 46 When is reduced with the compound obtained will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
LiAlH4 is a strong reducing agent, it reduces carboxylic group into primary alcoholic group without
affecting the double bond in the compound

Q. 47 The molarity of HNO3 in a sample which has density 1.4 g/mL and mass percentage of 63% is
____ (in mol/L) (Molecular weight of HNO3 = 63)
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
Let, mass of solution be 100g
Mass of HNO3 is 63 g
Moles of HNO3 is 1
Q. 48 RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains
Option 1:
ribose sugar and thymine
Option 2:
ribose sugar and uracil
Option 3:
deoxyribose sugar and thymine
Option 4:
deoxyribose sugar, and uracil.
Correct Answer:
ribose sugar and uracil
Solution:
As we learned, Ribonucleic acid (RNA) -
It is made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is ribose, Phosphoric acid and
bases (Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and uracil)
-
DNS deoxyribose sugar
RNA ribose sugar
Also, instead of thymine, uracil is present in RNA.
Q. 49 Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?
Option 1:
d z 2, d x
Option 2:
dxz, dy
Option 3:
dz 2 , dx2 - y 2
Option 4:
dxy , dx2- y2
Correct Answer:
dz 2 , dx2 - y 2
Solution:
The shape of d orbitals :
orbitals have electron density along the axis,
while orbitals have electron density in between the axis.

Q. 50 The formation of the oxide ion O2-(g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and
then an endothermic step as shown below:
Thus process of formation of in gas phase is unfavourable even though is

isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that
Option 1:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
Option 2:
ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom.
Option 3:
Oxygen is more electronegative.
Option 4:
Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion.
Correct Answer:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
Solution:
The first electron gain enthalpy of the Oxygen atom is negative, as when the electron is added, the
attractive forces between the incoming electron and nucleus outweigh the repulsions in between
electrons.
But on adding the second electron, the repulsions take over attractive forces, hence it's an endothermic
process.

Q. 51 Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column
II and mark the correct option.
Column I Column II
(a) XeF6 (i) distorted octahedral
(b) XeO3 (ii) square planar
(c) XeOF4 (iii) pyramidal
(d) XeF4 (iv) square pyramidal
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Option 1:
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Option 2:
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Option 3:
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Option 4:
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Correct Answer:
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Solution:
VSEPR Theory -
valence shell.
Dettermination of shape of molecules using VSEPR Theory -
distorted octahedron
pyramidal
square pyramidal
square planar
Q. 52 The standard enthalpy of formation ( fHo298) for methane, CH4 is -74.9 kJ mol-1. In order to
calculate the average energy given out in the formation of a C - H bond from this it is
necessary to know which one of the following?
Option 1:
the dissociation energy of the hydrogen molecule, H2.
Option 2:
the first four ionisation energies of carbon.
Option 3:
the dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon (graphite).
Option 4:
the first four ionisation energies of carbon and electron affinity of hydrogen.
Correct Answer:
the dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon (graphite).
Solution:
Enthalpy of Sublimation -
Amount of enthalpy change to sublimise 1 mole solid into 1-mole vapour at a temperature below its
melting point
Bond dissociation enthalpy -

It is the average of enthalpy required to dissociate the said bond present in the different gaseous
compounds into free atoms in the gaseous state.
The standard eventually of form
Now,
Step 1 :
Step 2 :
Hence dissociation energy of hydrogen and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon is required.
Q. 53 Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by and to give the compound
.
At equilibrium, the concentration
If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at , then the value of Kc will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Law of Chemical equilibrium -
At a given temperature, the product of the concentration of the reaction products raised to the respective
stoichiometric coefficient in the balanced chemical equation divided by the product of the concentration
of the reactants raised to their individual stoichiometric coefficients has a constant value.
are equilibrium concentration
Q. 54 The equivalent conductance of NaCl at concentration C and at infinite dilution are and
, respectively. The correct relationship between and is given as :
(Where the constant B is positive)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
According to the Debye Huckel equation:
We have
Where = Equivalent conductance at C concentration.
= Equivalent conductance at the infinite concentration.
Q. 55 Monocarboxylic acids are functional isomers of :
Option 1:
Ethers
Option 2:
Amines
Option 3:
Ester
Option 4:
Alcohols
Correct Answer:
Ester
Solution:
A carboxylic acid is an ester derived from a carboxylic acid. Acids have formula RCOOH while esters are
RCOOR'.
Q. 56 Which of the following mixture form maximum boiling azeotrope?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Benzene + Toluene
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Solution showing negative deviation from Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotropes. The mixture of
and form non-ideal solution which shows negative deviation form Raoult's law.
Q. 57 Raising the concentration of a particular reactant by a factor of 5 increases the reaction rate
25 times. What is the kinetic order of this reactant?
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Let the reaction rate -
Raising the concentration of a particular reactant by a factor of 5 increases the reaction rate 25 times.

Q. 58 Of the following outer electronic configurations of atoms, the highest oxidation state is
achieved by which one of them?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 59 Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by:-

(At nos., Ni=28, Ti=22, Cr=24, Co=27)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Magnetic moment
Where n=2,
Correct Option is 4
Q. 60 Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reactions :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction will be -
Due to Cl being a good leaving group, it will leave the alkane in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 and
forms 1-degree carbonation then convert to 2-degree carbocation.
Maths
Q. 1 Let be an odd function defined on the set of real numbers such that for
Then is equal to:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2 If the angles of elevation of the top of a tower from three collinear points A, B and C, on a
line leading to the foot of the
tower, are 300, 450 and 600 respectively,then the ratio, AB : BC, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
In
...................... ( 1 )
In
.................... ( 2 )
In
..................... ( 3 )
Now,
Q. 3
A value of θ for which is purely imaginary is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Purely Real Complex Number -
& i2=-1
- wherein
Let
for purely imaginary, real part must be zero.
Q. 4 The number of numbers between 2,000 and 5,000 that can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2,
3, 4 (repetition of digits is not allowed) and are multiple of 3 is :
Option 1:
24
Option 2:
30
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
48
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
To be divisible by 3, sum of 4 numbers should be divisible by 3
So 2 options: (0,2,3,4) and (0,1,2,3)
For (0,2,3,4)
4 digit number
For 0,2,3,4
(First place cannot be filled by 0 or 1, as the number should be greater than 2000)
Total number = 30
Q. 5 If is expanded in the ascending powers of x and the coefficients of powers of x in

two consecutive terms of the expansion are equal, then these terms are
Option 1:
7th and 8th
Option 2:
8th and 9th
Option 3:
28th and 29th
Option 4:
27th and 28th
Correct Answer:
8th and 9th
Solution:
As we have learned
General Term in the expansion of (x+a)^n -

Now, let the terms be rth and (r+1)th
Terms are 8 th and 9 th
Q. 6
If then k is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So,
.......
Adding these
Given, this equals k/3
Q. 7 If the points (1, 1, ) and (-3, 0, 1) are equidistant from the plane, 3x+4y-12z+13=0, then
satisfies the equation :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
is given by
Distance from plane are
or
or
These are roots of equation
Q. 8 Twenty meters of wire is available for fencing off a flower-bed in the form of a circular
sector. Then the maximum area (in sq. m) of the flower-bed, is :
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
As we have learned
Method for maxima or minima -
By second derivative method :

- wherein
So,
So ,
Hence
Q. 9 If the mean deviation of the numbers 1, 1+d, ..., 1+100 d from their mean is 255, then a value
of d is :
Option 1:
10.1
Option 2:
20.2
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
5.05
Correct Answer:
10.1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Mean Deviation -
If x1, x2, ...xn are n observations then the mean deviation from the point A is given by :
Mean
Mean deviation
d=10.1
Q. 10
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Hence,
And
Given that these two matrices are equal, so by comparing the elements of these 2 matrices
15a - 2b = 0 and 10a + 3b =13
(Also for these values , so these values are correct)
Q. 11 Let the population of rabbits surviving at a time t be governed by the differential equation
. If equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Solution of Differential Equation -
put
- wherein
Equation with convert to
Q. 12 A hyperbola passes through the point and has foci at (±2, 0).
Then the tangent to this hyperbola at P also passes through the point
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As foci lie on x-axis and mid-point of foci is th eorigin, so the equation of hyperbola can be assumed to be
Focus is
Also we know,
Hyperbola passes through , so
Solving these 2 equations we get
Equation of hyperbola is
Equation of tangent at P using point form is
Out of the given options satisfies it.
Q. 13
The integral
is equal to: (where C is a constant of integration.)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 14 If the vectors and are the sides of a triangle ABC ,then

the length of the median through A is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Mid point formula -
- wherein
If and , position vector of mid-point of AB
Q. 15 A relation on the set where Z is the set of integers is defined by

Then the number of elements in the power set of R is :
Option 1:
32
Option 2:
16
Option 3:
8
Option 4:
64
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Consider set .
All elements of the set A, defined by x, are also contained in Z, the set of integers. It's also given that the
absolute value of these elements is strictly less than 3.
Hence possibly this set in roster form will be,
A relation R on the set A where is defined in set builder notation as

.
Thus is possible if y is the absolute value of x and x is not equal to -1.
And also,
Hence possibly R in roster form will be,
Here we get that .
Thus,
Q. 16
Let where
Then a value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Formulae of Inverse Trigonometric Functions
when
Q. 17 The sum of all real values of x satisfying the equation is

Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Also there is a case
So solutions are 4,1,6,-10,2
Sum = 4+1+6+(-10)+2= 3
Q. 18 Two different families A and B are blessed with an equal number of children. There are 3
tickets to be distributed amongst the children of these families so that no child gets more
than one ticket. If the probability that all the tickets go to the children of the family B is 1/12,
then the number of children in each family are:
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Let the number of children in each family be x.
Thus the total number of children in both the families are 2x.
Now, it is given that 3 tickets are distributed among the children of these two families. Thus the
probability that all the 3 tickets go to the children of family B is:
Q. 19 If the coefficients of the three successive terms in the binomial expansion of (1+x)n are in
the ratio 1 : 7 : 42, then coefficient of first of these three terms is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Properties of Binomial Theorem -
and
Now,
Let the three consecutive terms be
Thus (i)
Also, (ii)
n - 7r = 6 (from (i))
n - 8r = - 1 (from (ii))
Thus r = 7, n = 55
The first term among these three is
Q. 20 If m is the A.M. of two distinct real numbers l and n (l, n > 1) and G1, G2 and G3 are three
geometric means between l and n, then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Arithmetic mean of two numbers (AM)
and
Geometric mean of two numbers (GM) -
Now,
Given l + n = 2m .........(i)
G1, G2 and G3 are three geometric means between l and n

So, n is 5th term of GP: l, G1, G2, G3 , n
Q. 21
If the shortest distance between the lines and
,then
a value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
and is given by
Where
Normal vector of line is
One point on is (0,1,-2) and on is (1,-1,0)
Distance =
Q. 22
If , then 'a' is equal to :
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
1 to the power of infinity Form -
It is form.
Q. 23 If A and B are any two events such that P(A)=2/5 and , then the
conditional probability, where denotes the complement of A, is equal
to :
Option 1:
1/4
Option 2:
5/17
Option 3:
8/17
Option 4:
11/20
Correct Answer:
5/17
Solution:
Now,
Here, (Using De-Morgan's Law)
And
Q. 24 The system of linear equations
x +λy −z = 0
λx − y − z = 0
x + y − λz = 0
has a non-trivial solution for :
Option 1:
infinitely many values of λ.
Option 2:
exactly one value of λ.
Option 3:
exactly two values of λ.
Option 4:
exactly three values of λ.
Correct Answer:
exactly three values of λ.
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and
Q. 25
if is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
eg:
Then
Now,
.............(i)
...........(ii)
So that,
Q. 26 If the tangent at a point P, with parameter t, on the curve x = 4t2 + 3, y = 8t3 − 1, t R, meets
the curve again at a point Q, then the coordinates of Q are :
Option 1:
( t2 + 3, −t3 −1 )
Option 2:
( 4t2 + 3, −8t3 −1 )
Option 3:
( t2 + 3, t3 − 1 )
Option 4:
( 16t2 + 3, −64t3 −1 )
Correct Answer:
( t2 + 3, t3 − 1 )
Solution:
As learnt in concept @MNOP
and
at P;
Tangent at P is
We get
Hence
Hence, Q = ( t2 + 3, t3 −1 )
Q. 27 The value of the integral
denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is :
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Using Property
Q. 28 Let be a vector coplanar with the vectors and . If is

perpendicular to and • = 24, then is equal to :
Option 1:
84
Option 2:
336
Option 3:
315
Option 4:
256
Correct Answer:
336
Solution:
As we have learned.
Vector Product of two vectors(cross product) -
If and are two vectors and is the angle between them , then
- wherein
is unit vector perpendicular to both

- wherein
Q. 29 The function ,is a periodic function with period :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
If period of f(x) is T, then period of f(cx+d) is T/|c|

If period of f(x) is T1 and period of g(x) is T2, then period for f(x) + g(x) is the lcm of T1 and T2
Period of |sin(x)| and |cos(x)| is π
Now,
As period of |sin(x)| is π, so period of |sin(4x)| is π/4, and
As period of |cos(x)| is π, period of |cos(2x)| is π/2
So period of |sin(4x)| + |cos(2x)| is the lcm of π/4 and π/2, which is π/2
Q. 30
The value of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 31 The largest value of r for which the region represented by the set
is contained in the region represented by the set is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Perpendicular bisector -
Locus of point equidistant from two given points.

z will lie on perpendicular bisector of line joining and .
- wherein
and are any two fixed points . z is a moving point in the plain which is equidistant from and .so
z will lie on perpendicular bisector
Equation of circle -
= centre of circle
r= radius of circle
z lies on circle.
- wherein
Locus of z will be a circle as z is always at a fixed distance r from a fixed point
1)
2)
3)
distance =
Q. 32 The number of four letter words that can be formed using the letters of the word BARRACK
is
Option 1:
120
Option 2:
144
Option 3:
264
Option 4:
270
Correct Answer:
270
Solution:
Word is BARRACK
Letters are 2A, 2R, 1B, 1C, 1K
Different 4 letter selections can be
Case I : 2 alike of one kind, 2 alike of other kind
Only one such selection: AARR
Total words possible from this selection =
Case II : 2 alike of one kind, 2 different (eg. AARC)
Number of ways to select such letters =
Words = = 2 x 6 x 12 = 144
Case III : All different (Eg, ABCK)
Number of ways to select letters =
Words =
Total words = 6 + 144 + 120 = 270
Q. 33 The coefficient of in the product is :
Correct Answer:
84
Solution:
And
General Term in the expansion of (x+a)n

Now,
So coefficient of x18 = coefficient of x18 in - coefficient of x16 in
Q. 34 The sum of first 9 terms of the series
Correct Answer:
96
Solution:
Put n = 9
Q. 35 The shortest distance between the z-axis and the line
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
and is given by
Where
The normal vector of the line is
Put z=0
We get x+y=3
2x+3y=4
y=-2, x=5
(5,-2,0) is the point
The equation of line will be
The equation of z-axis is
Shortest distance =
Q. 36
If the function is differentiable at x = 1, then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Rule for continuous -
A function is continuous at x = a if and only if
L.H.L R.H.L value at x = a.
- wherein
Where
1+b=0 b=-1
Now f(x) will be continuous at x=1
Q. 37 The mean of 5 observations is 5 and their variance is 124. If three of the observations are 1,
2 and 6 ; then the mean deviation from the mean of the data is :
Option 1:
2.4
Option 2:
2.8
Option 3:
2.5
Option 4:
2.6
Correct Answer:
2.8
Solution:
Initially, we need to look at the following concepts:
ARITHMETIC Mean -
For the values x1, x2, ....xn of the variant x the arithmetic mean is given by
in case of discrete data.

-
Mean Deviation -
If x1, x2, ...xn are n observations then the mean deviation from the point A is given by :
Variance -
In case of discrete data
Now,
Let the two observations be a & b
a+b+1+2+6=25
a+b=16
a2+b2+12+22+62=745
a2+b2+1+4+36=745
a2+b2=704
Q. 38 The least value of the product xyz for
which the determinant
is
non-negative, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Value of determinants of order 3 -
-
So that minimum value of x, y, z are: x = -2, y = -2 and z = -2 which satisfy this inequality.
Q. 39 If the differential equation representing the family of all circles touching -axis at the origin
is equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Formation of Differential Equations -
A differential equation can be derived from its equation by the process of differentiation and other
algebraical process of elimination
-
Let the equation of circle is
or
Put a in (i)
Q. 40 If a variable line drawn through the intersection of the lines
meets the coordinate axes at A and B, (A ≠ B), then the locus of the midpoint of AB is :
Option 1:
6xy = 7(x + y)
Option 2:
4( x + y )2 − 28( x + y ) + 49=0
Option 3:
7xy = 6( x + y )
Option 4:
14( x + y )2 − 97( x + y ) + 168 = 0
Correct Answer:
7xy = 6( x + y )
Solution:
As we have learned
Section formula -
- wherein
If P(x,y) divides the line joining A(x1,y1) and B(x2,y2) in ration
Family of straight lines -
- wherein
are the equations of the lines and is a constant.
Family of lines
Now for x = 0
This (h,k ) satisfies

Q. 41 For if is a differentiable function such that
then y(x)
equals : (where C is a constant.)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
differentiate above equation
Again differentiate
Solve the differential equation
Q. 42 The length of the projection of the line segment joining the points (5, −1, 4) and (4, −1, 3) on
the plane, x+y+z=7 is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Projection of a line segment on a line -
Projection of line segment joining the points P(x1,y1,z1) and Q(x2,y2,z2) on a line having direction cosines (l,m,n) is
- wherein
Here PQ is the projection
Also PQ = BC
Also
Q. 43 Let A and B be two sets containing 2 elements and 4 elements respectively. The number of
subsets of A B having 3 or more elements is
Correct Answer:
219
Solution:
n(A) = 4, n(B) = 2
As n(A x B)=n(A).n(B)
So,
Number of subsets having atleast 3 elements
Q. 44 A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20 m high and its elevation from a point O on
the ground is 450. It flies off horizontally straight away from the point O.After one second,
the elevation of the bird from O is reduced to 300. Then the speed (in m/s) of the bird is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Q. 45 If is one of the roots of the equation, then the

real root of this equation :
Option 1:
does not exist.
Option 2:
exists and is equal to
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Sum of roots of cubic Equation -
- wherein
is the cubic equation
Product of roots of cubic equation -
- wherein
is the cubic equation
and
Q. 46 n-digit numbers are formed using only three digits 2, 5 and 7 (with repitition allowed). The
smallest value of n for which at least 900 such distinct numbers can be formed, is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number of ways to form an n digit number with 2, 5 and 7
Each place has 3 options
So total such numbers that can be formed = 3n
Q. 47 If + , then the ordered pair

is equal to :
Option 1:
(420, 19)
Option 2:
(420, 18)
Option 3:
(380, 18)
Option 4:
(380, 19)
Correct Answer:
(420, 18)
Solution:
Properties of Binomial Theorem
Now,
+ +
LHS :
= n.2n-1 + n(n-1)2n-2
Here n = 20
So, 20.219 + 380.218
= 20. 218 (2 + 19)
= 420.218
Q. 48 If (10)9 + 2(11)1 (10)8 + 3(11)2 (10)7 +...... +10 (11)9 = k (10)9, then k is equal to
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
(10)9 + 2(11)1 (10)8 + 3(11)2 (10)7 +...... +10 (11)9 = k(10)9
Take 109 common

Shift and Subtract
Q. 49
A plane containing the point (3, 2, 0) and the line also contains
the point :
Option 1:
(0, -3, 1)
Option 2:
(0, 7, 10)
Option 3:
(0, 7, -10)
Option 4:
(0, 3, 1)
Correct Answer:
(0, 7, 10)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Normal form (cartesian form ) -

where d is the distance from origin.
- wherein
putting in
We get -
Normal vector of Plane is
15x-11y+10z=23
It passes through (0,7,10)
Q. 50 The minimum distance of a point on the curve y = x2 − 4 from the origin is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in concept @ZWYX and use of maxima/minima
Let point at minimum distance from O is
Q. 51 If the standard deviation of the numbers 2, 3, a and 11 is 3.5,then which of the following is
true ?
Option 1:
3a2 − 26 a + 55 = 0
Option 2:
3a2 − 32a + 84 = 0
Option 3:
3a2 − 34a + 91 = 0
Option 4:
3a2 − 23a + 44 = 0
Correct Answer:
3a2 − 32a + 84 = 0
Solution:
As we learnt in
Standard Deviation -
If x1, x2...xn are n observations then square root of the arithmetic mean of
- wherein
where is mean
Q. 52
If then which one of the following statements is not correct ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
For option 3,
Q. 53
If the general solution of the differential equation for some function is
given by where c is an arbitrary constant, then (2) is equal to :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
Option 3:
-4
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
and
Q. 54 The point (2, 1) is translated parallel to the line L : x − y = 4 by units. If the new point Q
lies in the third quadrant, then the equation of the line passing through Q and perpendicular
to L is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Parametric form -
- wherein
Where is the inclination of the line and is the distance between and
Slope – point from of a straight line -
- wherein
slope
point through which line passes
Condition for perpendicular lines -
- wherein
Here are the slope of perpendicular lines.
So,
Line Required
Q. 55
The integral is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein

Differentiating,
Q. 56 Let , and a vector be such that
and then equals
Option 1:
11/3
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Vector Product of two vectors -

- wherein
Properties of Scalar Product -
thus
and
also
y=2/3 and z= 2/3 and x= 5/3

Q. 57 Two sets A and B are as under : A={(a, b) R×R :| a−5| < 1 and |b−5| < 1}; B={(a, b) R×R :
4(a−6)2+9(b−5)2 ≤ 36}. Then :
Option 1:
neither A B nor B A
Option 2:
B A
Option 3:
A B
Option 4:
A B=
Correct Answer:
A B
Solution:
We have, and
Taking axes as a-axis and b-axis
The set A represents square PQRS inside set B representing ellipse and hence
Q. 58 The number of values of in for which
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learnt in
Trigonometric Equations -
The equations involving trigonometric function of unknown angles are known as trigonometric equations.
- wherein
e.g.
Hence, possible solutions are
Hence solutions are
Q. 59
If z is a non-real complex number, then the minimum value of
Correct Answer:
-4
Solution:
As we have learned
Polar Form of a Complex Number -
- wherein
r= modulus of z and is the argument of z

Euler's Form of a Complex number -
- wherein
r denotes modulus of z and denotes argument of z.
So,
So,
for minimum value , diffrentiating w.r.t
So,
for n= 1
Q. 60 There are m men and two women participating in a chess tournament. Each participant
plays two games with every other participant. If the number of games played by the men
between themselves exceeds the number of games played between the men and the
women by 84, then the value of m is
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
As per the question,
Mock Test 4
Physics
Q. 1
In the given digram the mirror and object is moving with speed 2 m/s
as shown then the velocity of image with respect to object
Option 1:
0 m/s
Option 2:
5 m/s
Option 3:
2 m/s
Option 4:
4 m/s
Correct Answer:
0 m/s
Solution:
AS we learn
Relation between object and image velocity if object is moving along principal axis -
= -
= -
- wherein
= velocity of light
= velocity of image
= velocity of mirror
= velocity of object w.r.t. mirror
= velocity of image w.r.t. mirror
Q. 2 If the speed of light in vacum 10 m/s then the velocity of light in a medium of refrective
index 1.3 is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Refractive index -
- wherein
speed of light in vacuum.
speed of light in medium.
Q. 3 Using monochromatic light of wavelength , an experimentalist sets up the Young’s double

slit experiment in three ways as shown.
If she observes that , the wavelength of light used is :
Option 1:
520 nm
Option 2:
540 nm
Option 3:
560 nm
Option 4:
580 nm
Correct Answer:
540 nm
Solution:
Given
Now
Q. 4 The resistance in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 and R , respectivilty. When the
resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance point is at . The
resistance 'R' is:
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
15
Option 3:
20
Option 4:
25
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
As we learnt in
Meter bridge -
To find the resistance of a given wire using a meter bridge and hence determine the specific resistance of
its materials
- wherein
Divide and
Or,
From equation
Q. 5 See the electric circuit shown in the figure.
Which of the following equations is a correct equation for it?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Apply Kirchoff law:
Q. 6 In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of

galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
Current through the shunt
Resistance of ammeter RA is
Q. 7 A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8 ohm. The resistance that must be
connected in series with the wire and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2V, so as to get a potential
gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is:
Option 1:
44 ohm
Option 2:
48 ohm
Option 3:
32 ohm
Option 4:
40 ohm
Correct Answer:
32 ohm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Potential gradient -
- wherein
internal resistance
So for 400 cm
Q. 8 A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are connected in series with a battery of
e.m.f. E0 and a resistance r1. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length I of the
potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will be given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Current in the circuit having
voltage dropped in potentiometer wire of length L is:
since the balanced point is obtained at length I of the potentiometer wire, the emf of the cell E has to
match the voltage dropped in length I of the wire.
Q. 9 The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output Y. The
voltage waveforms of A, B and Y are as given
The logic gate is
Option 1:
NOR gate
Option 2:
OR gate
Option 3:
AND gate
Option 4:
NAND gate
Correct Answer:
NAND gate
Solution:
It is clear from the given logic circuit, that the output Y is low when both the inputs are high, otherwise it
is high.Thus logic circuit is NAND gate.
Q. 10 A ray of light is incident from a denser to a rarer medium. The critical angle for total internal
reflection is and the Brewster’s angle of incidence is , such that
. The relative refractive index of the two media is :
Option 1:
0.2
Option 2:
0.4
Option 3:
0.8
Option 4:
0.9
Correct Answer:
0.8
Solution:
= refractive index of the rarer medium.
= refractive index of the rarer medium.
In the case of Brewster’s angle
From Brew's law:
or
Q. 11 An object is at a distance of 10 cm from a mirror and the image of the object is at a distance
of 30 cm from the mirror on the same side as the object. Then nature of the mirror and its
focal length is:
Option 1:
Convex, 15cm
Option 2:
Concave, 1.5cm
Option 3:
Convex, 7.5cm
Option 4:
Concave, 7.5cm
Correct Answer:
Concave, 7.5cm
Solution:
As we learn
Sign Convention -
1) All distance are measured from pole.
2) Distance measured in the direction of incident rays are taken as positive.
3) Distance measured in the direction opposite to that of incident rays are taken as negative.
4) Distance above the principal axis as positive and below the principal axis as negative.
u = -10 cm
v = - 30cm from sign convention
from mirror formula
f = -7.5 cm
since focal length is negative hence its mirror concave
Q. 12 A light ray is incident on a glass sphere of refractive index at an angle of incidence

600 as shown the total deviation after two refraction is
Option 1:
300
Option 2:
450
Option 3:
750
Option 4:
600
Correct Answer:
600
Solution:
At point A:
from symmetry
Apply snell's law at B
total deviation =600
Q. 13 A right angled prism of apex angle 40 and r. i. 1.5 is located in front of vertical plane mirror as
shown in fig.A horizontal ray of light is falling on the prism. Find the total deviation produced
in the light ray at it emerges second time from the prism:
Option 1:
80 cw
Option 2:
60 cw
Option 3:
1800 cw
Option 4:
1760 cw
Correct Answer:
1760 cw
Solution:
As we learn
Deviation from thin prism -
- wherein
Applicable when A is very small
( i.e. thin prism )
Deviation produced by prism is
Angle of incidence of mirror is , so deviation produced by mirror is
deviation produced by the prism for second refraction is
Net deviation is 1760 cw

Q. 14 For transistor action
(a) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.
(b) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(c) The emitter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased.
(d) Both the emitter-base junction as well as the base-collector junction are forward biased.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?
Option 1:
(d), (a)
Option 2:
(a), (b)
Option 3:
(b), (c)
Option 4:
(c), (d)
Correct Answer:
(b), (c)
Solution:
For a transistor action, the junction must be lightly doped so that the base region is very thin.
Also, the emitter junction must be forward-biased and collector junction should be reverse-biased.
Q. 15 A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 and an
output impedance of 200 . The power gain of the amplifier is
Option 1:
50
Option 2:
500
Option 3:
1000
Option 4:
1250
Correct Answer:
1250
Solution:
As we learnt in
power gain = (current gain) X (voltage gain) =
Q. 16 In x-ray diffraction first maxima occur at =300 then the wavelength of X-ray are
( ):
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Bragg's law -
(condition of constructive maxima )
d=distance between parallel lines

= wavelength
= angle between light & plane
Here in X-ray diffraction n=1
Q. 17 If the Rydbarg's constant is R then the wave number in second brackett series is -
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Brackett Series -
- wherein
When electron jump from higher orbital to n=4 energy level

Q. 18 In the Bohr's model of hydrogen - like atom the force between the nucleus and the electrons
is modified as,
Where is a constant . For the atom, the radius of the nth orbit in the terms of the Bohr
radius
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
From Bohr's postulate
comparing both we get
So,
Q. 19 When electron jumps from higher orbital to n = 3, energy level then this is belongs to
spectral series:
Option 1:
Lymen
Option 2:
Pfund
Option 3:
Paschen
Option 4:
Balmer
Correct Answer:
Paschen
Solution:
As we learn
Paschen Series -
- wherein
When electron jump from higher orbital to n=3 energy level
Q. 20 Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure.
The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are
respectively:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
g, g
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Reaction or Normal Force -
A force which is perpendicular to the surface in contact.
- wherein
Before cut Kx = 4mg
After cut T=0
Q. 21 A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum P. If the
same stone is dropped from a height 100% more than previous height, the momentum
when it hits the ground will change by:
Option 1:
41%
Option 2:
200%
Option 3:
100%
Option 4:
68%
Correct Answer:
41%
Solution:
change
Q. 22 A hollow hemisphere of mass m is placed on a hollow sphere of mass m. The center of mass
of given arrangement from point A is at the height
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 23 Three masses are placed on the x-axis: 300 g at origin, 500 g at x=40 cm and 400 g at x=70
cm. The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is
Option 1:
40 cm
Option 2:
45 cm
Option 3:
50 cm
Option 4:
30 cm
Correct Answer:
40 cm
Solution:
As we learnt in
Centre of mass when some mass is added in the body -
- wherein
m1 & are mass and position of centre of mass for whole body. m2 & are mass and position of centre
of mass of added mass.
Q. 24 ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre. represent three forces acting
along the sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If the total torque about O is zero the magnitude
of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 25 Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are
three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the
dimension of length?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
To convert a physical quantity from one system to other -
- wherein
As a research tool to derive new relation -
Use the method of dimensional analysis between the quantities can be derived
Let Length
Comparing Power of both sides
Q. 26
A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and is (c
is velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Time period of a simple pendulam -
Equating exponents of similar quantities
a=0 b=1/2 c=-1/2
- wherein
on comparing both sides we get

Q. 27 The displacement time graphs of two moving particles make angles of and with the
x-axis as shown in the figure. the ratios of their respective velocity are
Option 1:
1:1
Option 2:
1:2
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For the displacement-time graph,
Slope = velocity
Q. 28 Energy required to move a body of mass m from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
E=
Q. 29
In a certain region of space, the gravitational field is given by Taking the
reference point to be at and potential at the reference point as .
Then find the potential at a general point ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As or
Q. 30 Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. Engine A receives heat from a reservoir
at 600 K and rejects heat to a reservoir at temperature T. Engine B receives heat rejected by
engine A and in turn rejects it to a reservoir at 100 K. If the efficiencies of the two engines A
and B are represented by ηA and ηB, respectively,then what is the value of ? (Work
output is same for both)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Efficiency of a carnot cycle -

are in kelvin
- wherein
Source temperature
Sink Temperature
from eqn1:
Q. 31 A gas is compressed is isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed
separately through and adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
Option 1:
Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
Option 2:
Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
Option 3:
Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
Option 4:
Which of the case (wheather compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires
more work will depend upon the atomicty of the gas.
Correct Answer:
Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Comparision between isothermal and adiabatic process in compression -
- wherein
Consider the P-V indicator diagram shown below.
ia Isothermal process
ib Adibatic process
Since slope of adiabatic process is greater than slope of isothermal process.
Work done under adiabatic process is greater than work done under isothermal process as area under ib
is greater than area under ia.
Q. 32 The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th, its weight on the surface of Earth
(radius R), is:
Option 1:
5R
Option 2:
15R
Option 3:
3R
Option 4:
4R
Correct Answer:
3R
Solution:
As we learnt in
Vector form of formula -

Positive vector
- wherein
So,
Weight at surface of earth is =
Weight at height
According to question
or Re + h = 4 Re or h = 3 Re
Q. 33 A spherical planet has a mass MP and diameter DP. A particle of mass m falling freely near
the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity, equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 34 A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000
times. Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated.
How much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up?
Fat supplies 3.8×107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20%
efficiency rate. Take g = 9.8 ms−2 :
Option 1:
2.45×10−3 kg
Option 2:
6.45×10−3 kg
Option 3:
9.89×10−3 kg
Option 4:
12.89×10−3 kg
Correct Answer:
12.89×10−3 kg
Solution:
As we discussed in
If only conservative forces act on a system, total mechanical energy remains constant -
Total work done by the person in lifting the weight = mgh
Total mechanical energy produced by burning 1 kg fat
Total fat burn
Q. 35 Two particles, of masses M and 2M, moving as shown, with speeds of 10 m/s and 5 m/s,
collide elastically at the origin. After the collision, they move along the indicated directions
with
speeds and . The values of and are approximately :
Option 1:
6.5 m/s and 6.3 m/s
Option 2:
3.2 m/s and 6.3 m/s
Option 3:
6.5 m/s and 3.2 m/s
Option 4:
3.2 m/s and 12.6 m/s
Correct Answer:
6.5 m/s and 6.3 m/s
Solution:
................................(1)
............................................(2)
On adding (1) and (2)
Q. 36 A body cools in 7 minutes from to . The temperature of the surrounding is

. The temperature of the body after the next 7 minutes
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Method-1
Using exact law of cooling
Case-I:
Case-II: or
Dividing (2) by (1)
Or
Methode-2
Using newton’s average law of cooling
Case-I:- .......(i)
Case-II:- ........(ii)
Dividing (2) by (1)
Q. 37 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp
and Cv, respectively. If
and R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Divide equation (1) by Cv we get
Q. 38 The pressure (in pa) that has to be applied to the ends of a steel wire of length 10 cm to keep
its length constant when its temperature is raised by 1000C is :
(For steel Young’s modulus is 2 x 1011 N m-2 and coefficient of thermal expansion is 1.1 x
10-5 K-1)
Correct Answer: 220000000
Solution:
As we have learned
Thermal Strain -
- wherein
Thermal strain
Thermal stress = Y strain
Pressure required =
Q. 39 In the given (V - T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures P1 and P2 ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Cannot be predicted
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For an ideal gas
or
For V-T graph slope
From figure,
or
or
Q. 40 A charged particle is suspended in equilibrium in a uniform vertical electric field of intensity 20000 V/m.
If mass of the particle is , the charge on it and excess number of electrons on the
particle are respectively
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Electric field of intensity =20,000 V/m
The mass of particle =9.6 x 10-16 kg
For charge in equilibrium, qE=mg
Q. 41 A charge of Q coulomb is placed on a solid piece of metal of irregular shape. The charge will distribute
itself
Option 1:
Uniformly in the metal object
Option 2:
Uniformly on the surface of the object
Option 3:
Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
Option 4:
Such that the total heat loss is minimised
Correct Answer:
Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
Solution:
As we learned
Charge on a conductor -
Charge given to a conductor always resides on it's outer surface.
Potential energy depends upon the charge at peaks of irregularities. Since every event in the universe leads to the
minimisation of energy
Q. 42 The acceleration of an electron in an electric field of magnitude 50 V/cm, if e/m value of the
electron is C/kg, is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 43 An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5A as shown. An electron is moving
with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the
electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant.
Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 44 A series of LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the
circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is If instead C is removed from
the circuit, the phase difference is again between current and voltage. The power factor of
the circuit is:
Option 1:
zero
Option 2:
0.5
Option 3:
1.0
Option 4:
-1.0
Correct Answer:
1.0
Solution:
Q. 45 An rion rod of susceptiblity 599 is subjectede to a magnetising fild of 1200 A m-1. The
permeablity of the material of the rod is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 46 A square loop of side ad resistance is placed in a magnetic field of . If the plane

of the loop is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field, the magnetic flux through
the loop is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence correct option is 1

Q. 47 A bar magnet of length 'l' and magnetic dipole moment 'M' is bent in the form of an arc as
shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
M
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Magnetic moment or magnetic dipole moment -
- wherein
It is a vector quantity directed from south to north.
Let m be the strength of each pole of bar magnet of length l.

when bar magnet bent in the form of an arc.
new magnetic dipole moment
Q. 48 A light bulb and an inductor coil are connected to an ac source through a key as shown in
the figure below. The key is closed and after sometime an iron rod is inserted into the
interior of the inductor. The glow of the light bulb
Option 1:
remain unchanged
Option 2:
will fluctuate
Option 3:
increases
Option 4:
decreases
Correct Answer:
decreases
Solution:
After inserting the iron rod
As L increases, emf induced across the inductor will increase leaving less voltage across the bulb.
Therefore, the glow of the light bulb decreases.
Q. 49 The graph which shows the variation of the De Broglie wavelength (A) of a particle and its
associated momentum (p) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The Broglie wavelength of a particle is
momentum of particle
the graph will be a rectangular hyperbola
Hence the correct option is 3
Q. 50 The wavelength of an electron and of a photon are of same energy E are related by
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Energy of a photon -
- wherein
&
- wherein
For photon
For electron,
Q. 51 The de-Broglie wavelength of neutron in thermal equilibrium at tempreture T is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
Q. 52 Which one of the following bonds produces a solid that reflects light in the visible region and
whose electrical conductivity decreases with temperature and has high melting point?
Option 1:
Covalent bonding
Option 2:
Metallic bonding
Option 3:
Van der Waal's bonding
Option 4:
Ionic bonding
Correct Answer:
Metallic bonding
Solution:
Metals (metallic bonds) have these physical properties-
1) Metals reflect the photons of the visible spectrum (light) falling on their surface, thus metals are often
silver-white or greyish with the characteristic specular reflection of metallic lustre.
2) The electrical conductivity of metals decreases with a rise in temperature.
3) Metals have a high melting point.
Q. 53 The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is
Option 1:
zener diode
Option 2:
junction diode
Option 3:
integrated circuit
Option 4:
junction transistor
Correct Answer:
integrated circuit
Solution:
The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is called Integrated Circuits
Q. 54 To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown below, the input must be
Option 1:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
Option 2:
a = 0, b = 1, c = 0
Option 3:
a = 0, b = 0, c = 1
Option 4:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Correct Answer:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Solution:
To get an output of 1, from the NAND gate
both input should be 1.
C=1
Now Resultant of a & b should be 1.
So the Correct option is 4.
Q. 55 Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of
600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to the
occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be
Option 1:
0.02
Option 2:
0.03
Option 3:
0.04
Option 4:
0.01
Correct Answer:
0.02
Solution:
As discussed
Fundamental frequency with end correction -
(one end open)
(Both end open)
e = end correction
Q. 56 Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm air and at 3500 m/s through a warm air and
at 3500 m/s through brass. The wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from
warm air
Option 1:
decreases by a factor 10
Option 2:
increases by a factor 20
Option 3:
Option 4:
decreases by a factor 20
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Here,
When a sound wave travels from one medium to another medium its frequency remains the same
Since f remains the same in both the medium
Q. 57 A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires of work to turn it

through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be:
Option 1:
3J
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
3J
Solution:
--------------------- (i)
The Torgue on the needle is
in magnitude
-----------------(ii)
from equation (i) and (ii)
Q. 58 A coil of resistance 400 is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux (wb) linked with
the coil varies with time t ( ) as . The current in the coil at t=2 sec is:
Option 1:
0.5A
Option 2:
0.1A
Option 3:
2A
Option 4:
1A
Correct Answer:
0.5A
Solution:
As we learnt in
Faraday Second Law of Induction emf -

-
Q. 59 A sound wave of frequency 245 Hz travels with the speed of 300 ms -1 along the positive x-
axis. Each point of the wave moves to and fro through a total distance of 6 cm. What will be
the mathematical expression of this travelling wave ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So the equation that suits the following is -

Q. 60 Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5
m/s respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The
frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s]:
Option 1:
350 Hz
Option 2:
361 Hz
Option 3:
411 Hz
Option 4:
448 Hz
Correct Answer:
448 Hz
Solution:
As we learnt in
Frequency of sound when source and observer are moving towards each other -
- wherein
Speed of sound
Speed of observer
speed of source
Original frequency
apparent frequency
Chemistry
Q. 1 What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m aqueous solution ?
Option 1:
0.177
Option 2:
1.770
Option 3:
0.0354
Option 4:
0.0177
Correct Answer:
0.0177
Solution:
As we learned in
Q. 2 How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and I = 1?
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
14
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Each orbital contains 2 e.
shell (n) subshell( l) orbital( m)
n = 1 , l = 0 . m = 0 = 1s2
n=2 , l = 0,1 m = 0 and - 1,0,1.= 2s2 and 2p6
n=3 , l = 1 then m= - 1,0,1
m has 3 value means 3 orbitals and each orbitals can have 2 electrons.
So total 6 electrons.
Q. 3 Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have
the highest ionization energy?
Option 1:
Ne [3s23p2]
Option 2:
Ar [3d104s24p3 ]
Option 3:
Ne [3s23p1]
Option 4:
Ne [3s23p3]
Correct Answer:
Ne [3s23p3]
Solution:
Option (d) has the highest ionisation energy because of extra stability associated with half-filled 3p-
orbital. In option (b), the presence of 3d10 electrons offers shielding effect, as a result the 4p3 electrons do
not experience much nuclear charge and hence the electrons can be removed easily.
Q. 4 The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are
Option 1:
octahedral, sp3d2
Option 2:
trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
Option 3:
planar triangle, sp3d3
Option 4:
square planar, sp3d2
Correct Answer:
octahedral, sp3d2
Solution:
hybridisation(octahedrai geometry square planar shape).

Q. 5 A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a
constant temperature of 370 C. As it does so ,it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and w
for the process will be :
(R= 8.314 J/mol K) (In 7.5 = 2.01)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The process is isothermal reversible expansion
Hence dT = 0
U=0
Now, work is given by the formula
Now, using 1st law of thermodynamics
Q. 6 The standard electrode potentials of four metals A, B, C and D are - 1.2 V , 0.6 V,
0.85 V and - 0.76 V,respectively. The sequence of deposition of metals on applying potential
is :
Option 1:
A, C, B, D
Option 2:
B, D, C, A
Option 3:
C, B, D, A
Option 4:
D, A, B, C
Correct Answer:
C, B, D, A
Solution:
The higher the standard electrode potential of the metal, greater is its tendency to get reduced
and get deposited on the electrode.
Order of the given
The order of deposition will be C, B, D, A.
Q. 7 A current of 10.0 A flows for 2.00 h through an electrolytic cell containing a molten salt of
metal X. This results in the decomposition of 0.250 mol of metal X at the cathode. The
oxidation state of X in the molten salt is : (F= 96,500 C)
Option 1:
1+
Option 2:
2+
Option 3:
3+
Option 4:
4+
Correct Answer:
3+
Solution:
i = 10 A, t = 2hr
Q. 8 How many electrons would be required to deposit 6.35 g of copper at the cathode during the
electrolysis of an aqueous solution of copper sulphate ? (Atomic mass of copper = 63.5 u,
NA=Avogadro’s constant) :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
According to the reaction:
We require 2 moles of electrons or 2NAelectrons to deposit 1 mol or 63.5 g of Cu.
So, for 6.35 g of Cu, require electrons.
After simplifying.
Therefore, Option 3 is correct.
Q. 9 How many electrons are involved in the following redox reaction ?
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
The given reaction is
Let's breakdown the reaction into parts and balance the electrons
Reaction 1 involves reduction with 6 electrons.
Reaction 2 and 3 involves oxidation with 1 and 2 electrons respectively.
Therefore balance the electrons we add 2 and 3 and multiply each by 2 and add all reactions.
We get balanced electrons on both sides.
No. of electrons in oxidation and reduction = 6
Q. 10 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
Option 1:
D-fructose
Option 2:
D-ribose
Option 3:
D-glucose
Option 4:
L-glucose.
Correct Answer:
D-glucose
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cellulose -
A straight chain polymer of
- wherein
Constituent of plant cell wall
Linkage : linkage
Cellulose is a straight chain polymer of D-glucose, which upon hydrolysis gives its monomer (D-glucose)
Q. 11 Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
Option 1:
Uracil
Option 2:
Cytosine
Option 3:
Guanine
Option 4:
Thymine
Correct Answer:
Uracil
Solution:
As we learnt in
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) -
Made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is deoxyribose, Phosphoric acid

and bases (Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and thymine)
-
Ribonucleic acid (RNA) -
Made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is ribose, Phosphoric acid and bases
(Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and uracil)
In RNA uracil is present instead of thymine.
Q. 12 The correct match between items of List - I and List - II is :

List - I List - II
(A) Phenelzine (P) Pyrimidine
(B) Chloroxylenol (Q) Furan
(C) Uracil (R) Hydrazine
(D) Ranitidine (S) Phenol
Option 1:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Option 2:
(A)-(S), (B)-(R), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Option 3:
(A)-(S), (B)-(R), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
Option 4:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
Correct Answer:
(A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Ribonucleic acid (RNA) -
Made up of nucleotides consisting of pentose sugar which is ribose, Phosphoric acid and bases
(Adenine , Guanine , cytosine and uracil)
-
Phenelzine contains Hydrazine
Chlaroxylenol contains Phenol
Uracil is the Pyrimidine base
Ranitidine contains Furan ring.
Q. 13 Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with

NaOI produced by reacting Y with NaOH and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
smell.
A and Y are respectively
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Haloform reaction -
- wherein
Q. 14 The reaction of with HBr produces:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Addition of Hydrogen Halide on alkene -
hydrogen halides add up to alkenes to form alkyl halides. The order of reactivity of the hydrogen halides
is HI>HBr>HCl
- wherein
Q. 15 Elimination reaction of 2-bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is:
(a) -elemination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev's rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction
Option 1:
(a) (b) (d)
Option 2:
(a) (b) (c)
Option 3:
(a) (c) (d)
Option 4:
(b) (c) (d)
Correct Answer:
(a) (b) (c)
Solution:
The reaction occurs as follows:
It is an example of an elimination reaction which follows Saytzeff rule.
Q. 16 Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the
following will not give a test of chloride ions with silver nitrate at ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The coordination number of Cobalt (III) in the octahedral complex is 6. In , all we have is 6
ligands, which implies all of them are in the coordination sphere and won't ionize.
There will be no precipitation of AgCl and no test will be positive.
Q. 17 The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex
(where is ethyenediamine) is:
Option 1:
9
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
7
Option 4:
8
Correct Answer:
9
Solution:
has 3 bidentate ligands which can lead with 2 sites simultaneously. So, the
coordination number is
has a negative charge of 2. Add the negative charge on Cl and the total negative charge becomes
3. The actual atom must have a +3 charge to neutralize the complex.
therefore, O.N = +3
therefore, ON + CN = 3+6 = 9.
Q. 18 Number of possible isomers for the complex will be (en =

ethylenediamine)
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Stereoisomers -
Stereoisomers have the same chemical formula and chemical bonds but have different spatial
arrangements.
,
Possible isomers are:
Since, this product is chiral, so its mirror image will also be a possible isomer. This one is not chiral. So, no
mirror image isomer.
total possible isomers =
The Correct Answer is option 3.
Q. 19 For which of the following processes, ΔS is negative?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The change in entropy for an ideal gas in terms of C(p) -
Where,
Molar heat capacity at constant pressure
Now,
for isothermal process
and
Q. 20 The pH of a saturated solution of is . The value of the solubility product

of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 21 Given
Based on the data given above ,strongest oxidising agent will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learned in
Standard reduction potential -
It measures the tendency of a chemical species to acquire electrons and thereby be reduced. It is
measured in volts or mv.
Given that ...........1
...........2
..........3
...........4
All the above are oxidizing agents undergoing reduction.
Higher the value of E° (ERP or Standard Reduction Potential) of the reaction, greater will be the oxidizing
power of the constituents.
Clearly, 1.51V>1.36V>1.33V>-0.74V
Therefore, the order of oxidizing power is :
Q. 22 The IUPAC name of the following compound is :
Option 1:
3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
Option 2:
2-Methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid
Option 3:
4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid
Option 4:
4,4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Nomenclature of the given compound -

Q. 23 For the following reactions:
(a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH CH3CH = CH2 + KBr + H2O
(b)
(c)
Which of the following statements is correct?
Option 1:
(a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.
Option 2:
(a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction.
Option 3:
(a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions.
Option 4:
(a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
Correct Answer:
(a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction.
Solution:
This reaction is elimination reaction.
This reaction is nucleophilic substitution reaction.
This reaction is an addition reaction.

Q. 24 On increasing the temperature, the value of will
Option 1:
Increase
Option 2:
Decrease
Option 3:
Remain Same
Option 4:
Either Increase or Decrease
Correct Answer:
Increase
Solution:
Henry's constant depends on temperature and nature of gas.
increases on increasing temperature.
Therefore, option (1) is correct
Q. 25 If k1 and k2 are the rate constants at temperature T1 and T2 then which of the following
relation holds good?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of above
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We have the rate constant K1 at temperature T1 and rate constant K2 at temperature T2.
We know that the Arrhenius equation is given as follows:
On subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get:
where, Ea is activation energy.
Q. 26 The number of - electrons retained in ions is
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
As we learnt in
Electronic Configuration -
The 'd' block elements follow the general configuration .
Q. 27 Which of these statements about is true?
Option 1:
has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
Option 2:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
Option 3:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuraton.
Option 4:
has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration
Correct Answer:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuraton.
Solution:
The electronic configuration of is . act as a strong field ligand and
does the pairing of 3d electrons and form a low spin complex.
The electronic configuration becomes having no unpaired electrons.
Spin only magnetic moment
For spin only magnetic moment is zero.
Q. 28 Reaction of benzene diazonium with A will give us benzene. A is
Option 1:
Fluroboric acid
Option 2:
Hypophosphorus acid
Option 3:
Potassium halide
Option 4:
water
Correct Answer:
Hypophosphorus acid
Solution:
As we have learned
Benzene can be obtained by reacting benzene diazonium with H3PO2
Q. 29 The incorrect statement regarding chirality is :
Option 1:
The product obtained by reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows
inversion of configuration.
Option 2:
Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other.
Option 3:
A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation.
Option 4:
reaction yields mixture of both enantiomers.
Correct Answer:
Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other.
Solution:
Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images on each other
Statement (2) is incorrect
Hence the correct option is 2.
Q. 30 The major product for the following reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 31 Match List I with List II

I – Bromopropane is reacted with reagents in List I to give product in List II
LIST I-Reagent LIST II – Product
A KOH (alc) I.Nitrile
B. KCN (alc) II..Ester
III.Alkene
D. IV..Nitroalkane
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Option 1:
A–IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Option 2:
A–I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Option 3:
A–I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Option 4:
A–III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Correct Answer:
A–III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Solution:
Q. 32 If Avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 x 1023 mol-1 to 6.022 x 1020 mol-1, this would
change :
Option 1:
the definition of mass in units of grams.
Option 2:
the mass of one mole of carbon.
Option 3:
the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation.
Option 4:
the ratio of elements to each other in a compund.
Correct Answer:
the mass of one mole of carbon.
Solution:
As we learnt in
One mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many particles or entities as there are atoms in
exactly 12 g (or 0.012 kg) of the 12C isotope.
1 mole of substance = 6.0221367 X 1023 units of that substance (such as atoms, molecules, or ions). The
number 6.0221367 X 1023 is known as Avogadro's number or Avogadro's constant.
1 mol of carbon has mass = 12 g
atoms of carbon mass = 12 g
So if now, 1 mole = 6.022 1020
then 6.022 1020 atoms of carbon mass =
1 mol of carbon atom mass = 0.012 g

Q. 33 Which one is the wrong statement?
Option 1:
de-Broglie's wavelength is given by , where m = mass of the particle, = group velocity of
the particle.
Option 2:
The uncertainty principle is
Option 3:
Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement.
Option 4:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.
Correct Answer:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.
Solution:
As we learned in
The principal quantum number determines the size and to large extent the energy of the orbital.
For a hydrogen-like atom, the energy of the 2s orbital is the same as the energy of the 2p orbital.
Q. 34 The formation of the oxide ion O2-(g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and
then an endothermic step as shown below:
Thus process of formation of in gas phase is unfavourable even though is

isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that
Option 1:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration
Option 2:
ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom.
Option 3:
Oxygen is more electronegative.
Option 4:
Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion.
Correct Answer:
Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration
Solution:
The first electron gain enthalpy of the Oxygen atom is negative, as when the electron is added, the
attractive forces between the incoming electron and nucleus outweigh the repulsions in between
electrons.
But on adding the second electron, the repulsions take over attractive forces, hence it's an endothermic
process.
Q. 35 In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Resonance -
For molecules and ions showing resonance it is not possible to draw a single Lewis structure.All the
properties can only be explained by two or more Lewis structures.
- wherein
Because of double bond character in the carbon-carbon bridge this compound will have an atom planar.
Q. 36 At 320 K, a gas is 20% dissociated to A(g). The standard free energy change at 320 K and 1
atm in is approximately : (R=8.314 ; ln 2=0.693; ln 3=1.098)
Option 1:
4763
Option 2:
2068
Option 3:
1844
Option 4:
4281
Correct Answer:
4281
Solution:
As we learnt in
Relation between Gibbs energy and reaction Quotient -
- wherein
is standard Gibbs energy.
Q. 37 Equimolar solutions of the following substances were prepared separately. Which one of
these will record the highest pH value?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Value of pH -
Acidic solution has pH < 7
Basic solution has pH > 7
A neutral solution has pH = 7
For all the species except BaCl2, pH will be lower than 7 because they are salt of a weak base and strong
acid.
is a salt of a strong base and strong acid so, its pH will be 7, the highest.
Q. 38 Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with atomic
numbers .Which one of them is expected to have the highest value ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Standard Electrode Potential Value -
value of Co is highest, which is 1.97 V.
Q. 39 Consider the following compounds:
The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is:
Option 1:
(i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Option 2:
(iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
Option 3:
(ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
Option 4:
(ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)
Correct Answer:
(ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
Solution:
The ease of hydrolysis depends upon the magnitude of the partial positive charge on the carbonyl group.
Electron-withdrawing groups increase the magnitude of partial positive charge and electron-donating
groups decrease the magnitude of the partial positive charge. Thus, the decreasing order of reactivity
towards hydrolysis is:
Q. 40 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
Option 1:
Bond angle changes but bond length remain same
Option 2:
Both bond angle and bond length change
Option 3:
Option 4:
Bond angle remains same but bond length changes
Correct Answer:
Q. 41 On increasing pressure of a gas, solubility of gas in liquid:

Option 1:
Decreases
Option 2:
Increases
Option 3:
First Increases then decreases
Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
Increases
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Solubility of Gases on Temperature and Pressure -
As
On increasing pressure, the collision of gas molecules on the liquid surface increases thus solubility of the
gas in liquid increases.
Q. 42 A flask contains a mixture of compounds A and B. Both compounds decompose by first-

order kinetics. The half-lives for A and B are and , respectively. If the
concentrations of A and B are equal initially, the time required for the concentration of A to
be four times that of B (in s) is : (Use e ln 2 = 0.693)
Option 1:
180
Option 2:
900
Option 3:
300
Option 4:
120
Correct Answer:
900
Solution:
We know this for first-order reactions-
So, half-lives
The concentration of A to be four times that of B
So, At and Bt are related as [A] = 4[B]
If the concentrations of A and B are equal initially, A0 = B0
Then,
t = 900 sec
Q. 43 Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state?
Option 1:
Th
Option 2:
Ac
Option 3:
Pa
Option 4:
U
Correct Answer:
Ac
Solution:
Electronic configuration - Actinoids follow the general configuration
Due to the electronic configuration of Actinium, it only shows a +3 oxidation state because,
after the loss of 3 electrons, actinium acquires noble gas electronic configuration.
Q. 44 Which of these statements about is true?
Option 1:
has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
Option 2:
has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high spin configuration.
Option 3:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration.
Option 4:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
Correct Answer:
has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
Solution:
Magnetic Moments (spin only) -
where n= the number of the unpaired electron.
Electronic config of for =

will be paired up because is an SFL
has no unpaired and is in a low-spin configuration.
Q. 45 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Order of acidic nature of the following compounds is A > B > C.
Reason R : Fluoro is a stronger electron withdrawing group than Chloro group.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
Option 1:
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Option 2:
A is false but R is true
Option 3:
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Option 4:
A is true but R is false
Correct Answer:
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Solution:
Acidic strength –I effect
effect
F, Cl exerts -1 effect, Methyl exerts +I effect, C is least acidic.

Among A and B; since inductive effect is distance dependent, Extent of –I effect is higher in A followed by
B
even though F is stronger electron withdrawing group than Cl. Thus, A is more acidic than B.
Q. 46 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of C-OH bond length:

methanol, phenol, p-ethoxyphenol
Option 1:
phenol < methanol < p-ethoxyphenol
Option 2:
methanol < p-ethoxyphenol < phenol
Option 3:
phenol <p-ethoxyphenol < methanol
Option 4:
methanol < phenol < p-ethoxyphenol
Correct Answer:
phenol <p-ethoxyphenol < methanol
Solution:
Phenol has one -OH group and the oxygen will resonate with benzene. Here the bond between O and C
will double bond most of the time.
p-ethoxyphenol has one -OH group and one -OCH3 , from both groups oxygen will resonate with
benzene. There are two oxygen is present, so they will resonate one by one. So, the Bond length between
C and O will be larger here than phenol.
Methanol has one -OH group and there will be no resonating between C and O. So, the Length between C
and O will be maximum.
The correct order of bond length is given below:

Phenol < p-ethoxyphenol < methanol

Q. 47 Consider the reaction given below
The major product (A) obtained in the reaction is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction of tertiary arylamines with HNO2 -
Tertiary arylamines react with nitrous acid to form p - Nitroso aromatic compounds. Electrophilic
aromatic substitution occurs on the benzene ring in which a Nitroso group is substituted on the Benzene
ring.
The reaction is given below
Q. 48 Among the following, the incorrect statement is :
Option 1:
Maltose and lactose has 1, 4-glycosidic linkage.
Option 2:
Sucrose and amylose has 1, 2-glycosidic linkage.
Option 3:
Cellulose and amylose has 1, 4-glycosidic linkage.
Option 4:
Lactose contains β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose.
Correct Answer:
Sucrose and amylose has 1, 2-glycosidic linkage.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Starch -
A polymer of that consists of having two components , amylose ( water soluble
unbranched chain ) and amylopectin ( water insoluble having branched chain)
- wherein
Main storage polysaccharide of plants
Amylose : , glycosidic linkage
Amylopectin : linkage and linkage
In amylose 1,4 - glycosidic linkage is present
Q. 49 In which pair of ions do both the species contain bond?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Q. 50 Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
No. of electrons in
No. of electrons in
and , both are hybridized and thus have similar structure.
Q. 51 Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen
bond?
Option 1:
H 2 O2
Option 2:
HCN
Option 3:
Cellulose
Option 4:
Concentrated acetic acid
Correct Answer:
Cellulose
Solution:
Hydrogen Bonding -
Attractive force which binds hydrogen atom of one molecule with the electronegative ( F, O, N ) atom of
another molecule.
- wherein
It is of two type
1. Intermolecular and
2. Intramolecular
H2O2 , HCN and concentrated CH3 COOH (acetic acid) form inter-molecular hydrogen bonding while
cellulose has intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
Q. 52 fG
0 at 500 K for substance ‘S’ in liquid state and gaseous state are +100.7 kcal mol −1 and
+103 kcal mol−1 , respectively. Vapour pressure (in atm) of liquid ‘S’ at 500 K is approximately
equal to : (R=2 cal K−1 mol−1 )
Correct Answer:
0.1
Solution:
Δ G of equilibrium
At Equilibrium
and
Q. 53 Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because :
Option 1:
These give unionized acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali.
Option 2:
Acids and alkalies in this solution are shielded from attack by other ions.
Option 3:
They have large excess of ions.
Option 4:
They have a fixed value of pH.
Correct Answer:
These give unionized acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali.
Solution:
Buffer Solutions - The solutions which resist change in pH on dilution or with the addition of small
amounts of acid or alkali are called buffer solutions.
Many body fluids e.g. blood
Buffer solutions resist a change in pH because they react with any added acid or base to give a salt.
Q. 54 Consider the following reaction:
The values of , and in the

reaction are, respectively:
Option 1:
5, 2 and 8
Option 2:
5, 2 and 16
Option 3:
2, 5 and 8
Option 4:
2, 5 and 16
Correct Answer:
2, 5 and 16
Solution:
The given reaction is:
Balancing the charges on both sides, we got
Balancing the O atoms on both sides, we got
Substituting the value of z in (1)

Now, substitute the value of y and z in terms of x in the original reaction:
Solving further we get,
by correlating, we get
x=2, y=5, z=16
Q. 55 Which of the following compounds will show the maximum 'enol' content?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Difinition of Tautomerism -
Tautomers are isomers of a compound that differ only in the position of the protons and electrons. The
carbon skeleton of the compound is unchanged. A reaction that involves simple proton transfer in an
intramolecular fashion is called tautomerism.
The stability of enol depends on the factors
(1) Resonance
(2) Hydrogen-bonding
(3) Hyperconjugation
(4) Hydrogen which is removed from - carbon should be acidic in Nature for enol formation.
CH2 is present between 2-
electron-withdrawing group, It is having acid 'H'
Over the resonance effect decreases because of cross conjugation. So the stability of the enol form
decreases.
The two -dicarbonyl compounds have a higher enol content than the two mono carbonyl compounds
because hydrogen bonding and conjugation stabilize their enols. The enol content in C (a mono aldehyde)
is higher than D because of the reasons outlined above.
Q. 56 The value of & are 80, 145, 75, and 35 Kbar respectively, the least
soluble gas in water is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Gases having more values will have less solubility.
Among the given gases 'He' has the highest value.
Q. 57 If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 second and 75% of the reaction occurs in 200 second, the
order of this reaction is :
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 second and 75% of the reaction occurs in 200 second -
Here half-life is constant.
In First order reaction, Half-Life is constant.
Ans = 1
Q. 58 Which of the statements is not true?
Option 1:
On passing through acidified solution, a milky colour is observed.
Option 2:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis.
Option 3:
solution in acidic medium is orange.
Option 4:
solution becomes yellow on increasing pH beyond 7.
Correct Answer:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis.
Solution:
Due to hygroscopic nature of
Correct Answer is Option 2

Q. 59 The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral, due to:
Option 1:
The -bond involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese.
Option 2:
There is no -bonding.
Option 3:
The -bonding involves the overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese.
Option 4:
The bonding involves overlap of d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese.
Correct Answer:
The -bond involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese.
Solution:
Manganate ion:- [Green, paramagnetic]
Permanganate ion:- [purple, diamagnetic]
These ions are tetrahedral in shape.
The -bonding takes place by the overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese.
Q. 60 Which of the following will not undergo reaction with ?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Primary is not formed very easily and hence, it does not give SN, reaction .
Hence the right answer is option 2
Maths
Q. 1 Let N denote the set of all natural numbers.
Define two binary relations on N as
and
Then :
Option 1:
Range of R1is {2, 4, 8}.
Option 2:
Range of is {1, 2, 3, 4}.
Option 3:
Both R1 and are symmetric
relations
Option 4:
Both R1 and are transitive
relations
Correct Answer:
Range of is {1, 2, 3, 4}.
Solution:
As we have learned
Range -
The range of the relation R is the set of all second elements of the ordered pairs in a relation R.
- wherein
eg. R={(a,b),(c,d)}. Then Range is {b,d}
So for
i.e.
Q. 2
if is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 3 If the two roots of the equation,
are real and distinct, then the set of all values of ‘a’ is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Condition for Real and distinct roots of Quadratic Equation -
- wherein
is the quadratic equation
So
So for real value of x
But
So
Q. 4 Consider three boxes, each containing 10 balls labelled Suppose one ball is
randomly drawn from each of the boxes. Denote by the label of the ball drawn from the
box, Then, the number of ways in which the balls can be chosen such that
is :
Option 1:
164
Option 2:
120
Option 3:
82
Option 4:
240
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
Theorem of Combination
Each of the different groups or selection which can be made by taking r things from n things is called a
combination.
Now, required number of ways is same as the number of ways of selecting 3 distinct numbers from 1
to 10,
Q. 5 If the sum of the coefficients of all even powers of x in the product

is 61, then n is equal to
_________.
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
Q. 6 Three positive numbers form an increasing G.P. If the middle term in this G.P. is doubled, the
new numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of the G.P. is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
a, ar, ar2 in G.P
a, 2ar, ar2 in A.P (given)
lies between 0 and 1, so the GP will be decreasing.
Hence is correct option
Q. 7 The distance of the point (1, 0, 2) from the line point of intersection of the line
and the plane , is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Intersection of line and plane -
Let the line
plane
intersect at P
to find P assume general point on line as
now put it in plane to find ,
Point of intesection of line
x=3k+2, y=4k-1,z=12k+2
x-y+z=16
3k+2-4k+1+12k+2=16
11k-11 k=1
Point is (5,3,14)
Distance between (5,3,14) and (1,0,2)
is
Q. 8 If is a differentiable function in the interval (0, ∞) such that = 1 and

for each , then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
L - Hospital Rule -
- wherein
Now, let y=f(x)
If
Put, x=1, y=1
Put,
Q. 9 Let two fair six-faced dice A and B be thrown simultaneously. If E1 is the event that die A
shows up four, E2 is the event that die B shows up two and E3 is the event that the sum of
numbers on both dice is odd, then which of the following statements is NOT true ?
Option 1:
E1 and E2 are independent.
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
E1, E2 and E3 are independent.
Correct Answer:
E1, E2 and E3 are independent.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Independent events -
If A and B are independent events then probability of occurrence of A is not affected by occurrence or
non occurrence of event B.
and
so
-
Q. 10 If A is a 3 3 matrix such that , then is equal to :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
If n is the order of a square matrix, then
And we also know,
For the given case, n = 3
But
Q. 11
The general solution of the differential equation, ,is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
P, and Q are functions of x alone.
=>P=-cosec2x
I.F. =
Q. 12 A circle passes through (−2, 4) and touches the y - axis at (0, 2). Which one of the following
equations can represent a diameter of this circle ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using Family of circles, a circle touching a given line L=0 at (x1,y1) is
Since circle touches x=0 at the point (0, 2), so let the equation of circle be
It passes through
Thus,
Equation of circle is
Centre of the circle is (-2, 2)
Out of the given options, the line in option (B) satisfies this point, hence it is a diameter if the given circle
Q. 13
is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Walli's Method -
Definite integral by first principle
where
- wherein
Q. 14 If are unit vectors such that then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now,
Q. 15
Let be a function defined as , where and
. Then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The function is invertible and
Q. 16 Two ships A and B are sailing straight away from a fixed point O along routes such that
AOB is always 1200. At a certain instance, OA = 8 km, OB = 6 km and the ship A is sailing at
the rate of 20 km/hr while the ship B sailing at the rate of 30 km/hr. Then the distance
between A and B is changing at the rate (in km/hr) :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
Now, [Differenting both side by t]
Now, at the given instant, OA=8, OB=6 .......................... (2)
.......................... (2)
Using (1) and (2),
Q. 17 A complex number z is said to be unimodular if . Suppose z1 and z2 are

complex numbers such that
is unimodular and z2 is not unimodular.Then the point z1 lies on a :
Option 1:
straight line parallel to x-axis.
Option 2:
straight line parallel to y-axis.
Option 3:
circle of radius 2.
Option 4:
circle of radius
Correct Answer:
circle of radius 2.
Solution:
As we have learned
Property of conjugate of complex number -
- wherein
Given ,
Q. 18 Let S be the set of all triangles in the xy-plane, each having one vertex at the origin and the
other two vertices lie on coordinate axes with integral coordinates. If each triangle is S has
area 50 sq. units, then the number of the elements in the set S is:
Option 1:
9
Option 2:
32
Option 3:
18
Option 4:
36
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:
Let and be vertices of
Now if we fix one divisor of 100 as , then is automatically fixed.
Eg, if , then (From above equation)
So, Number of pairs which are possible = number of divisors of 100
and number of divisors of 100 (=22.52) is (2+1)(2+1) = 9
Now, each pair of , pair gives 4 values of pairs
Eg, (5, 20) gives (5,20), (-5,20), (5, -20), (-5, -20)
So, total number of triangles
Q. 19 The coefficient of in the expression

is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Binomial Theorem
Now,
Given series S is a GP, with a = (1+x)10 , r = x/(1+x), n = 11
So, S =
= (1+x)11 - x11
Hence coefficient of x7 is 11C7 = 330
Correct option (2)
Q. 20 Given an A.P. whose all terms are positive integers. The sum of its first nine terms is greater
than 200 and less than 220. If the second term in it is 12, then its 4th term is :
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
As we learnt in
Sum of n terms of an AP
or
In this Question,
given 200 < S9 < 220
and a+d=12 -----(i)
Then a+3d=?
Now 200 < 9(48 - 3a) <220
200/9 < 48 - 3a < 220/9
- 25.78 < - 3a < - 23.56
- 23.56/-3 < a < - 25.78/-3
7.8 < a < 8.59
So, a = 8 (because a is integer)
And d = 4 ( as d = 12 - a)
4th term = a + 3d = 8 + 12 = 20
Q. 21 The equation of the plane containing the line
and parallel to the plane,
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of any plane passing through the line of intersection of two planes (Cartesian form ) -
The equation of any plane passing through the line of intersection of two planes
and
is given by
Equation of a plane be ..........(i)
Since a plane is parallel to x+3y+6z-1
After substituting
Hence required plane will be

Q. 22 If m and M are the minimum and the maximum values of
then M−m is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Method for maxima or minima -
First and second derivative method :
- wherein
Let,
So that
m=4
and
Q. 23 Let X be a set containing 10 elements and P(X) be its power set. If A and B are picked up at
random from P(X), with replacement, then the probability that A and B have equal number of
elements, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
defined as
- wherein
Total number of subsets of set
Number of subsets with one element =
Number of subsets with two elements=
Number of subsets with ten elements=
A and B are taken from P(x) from subsets, total ways =

Number of ways =
Probability =
Q. 24
If
then ‘a’ is equal to :
Correct Answer: 24
Solution:
As we learnt in
Value of determinants of order 3 -
-
Q. 25 At present, a firm is manufacturing 2000 items. It is estimated that the rate of change of
production P w.r.t. additional number of workers is given by . If the
firm employs 25 more workers, then the new level of production of items is:
Correct Answer:
3500
Solution:
and for x = 25
Q. 26 Let a and b respectively be the semitransverse and semi-conjugate axes of a hyperbola

whose eccentricity satisfies the equation 9e2−18e+5=0. If S(5, 0) is a focus and 5x=9 is the
corresponding directrix of this hyperbola, then a2−b2 is equal to :
Option 1:
7
Option 2:
-7
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
-5
Correct Answer:
-7
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of directrices -
- wherein
For the Hyperbola
or
for Hyperbola
Also
Also,
Q. 27 The area (in sq. units) of the region
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area along x axis -
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
and
Area
, after standard calculation.
Q. 28 Let be three unit vectors, out of which vectors are non-parallel. If

are the angles which vector makes with vectors respectively and
then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Angle between vector a and vector b -
- wherein
Here
Vector Triple Product (VTP) -
- wherein
are three vectors.
7
Q. 29 Consider the following two relations on the set A = {a,b,c},
and
Then :
Option 1:
both R1 and R2 are not symmetric.
Option 2:
R1 is not symmetric but it is transitive.
Option 3:
R2 is symmetric but it is not transitive.
Option 4:
both R1 and R2 are transitive.
Correct Answer:
R2 is symmetric but it is not transitive.
Solution:
As we learned
REFLEXIVE RELATION: A relation R in A is said to be reflexive, if a R a ,∀ a ∈ A
SYMMETRIC RELATION: A relation R in A is said to be symmetric, if a R b ⇒ b R a,∀ a,b ∈ A
TRANSITIVE RELATION: A relation R in A is said to be transitive, if a R b and b R c ⇒ a R c ∀ a,b,c ∈ A
Now,
Reflexive: R1 is reflexive since (a,a), (b,b) and (c,c) are present.
Symmetric: (b,c) is present, but (c,b) is not, so not symmetric
Transitive: (b,c) and (c,a) belong to the relation, but (b,a) does not. So, it is not transitive.
R2 = {(a,b), (b,a), (c,c), (c,a), (a,a), (b,b), (a,c)}
Reflexive: since (a,a), (b,b) and (c,c) are present, it is reflexive
Symmetric: (a,b) and (b,a) both are present. Also (c,a) and (a,c) are also present,. So, it is symmetric
Transitive: (b,a), (a,c) are present but (b,c) is not present, so not transitive
Q. 30 if then is equal to :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Now,
Q. 31 Let and be the roots of equation
is equal to:
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
-6
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
-3
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Sum of Roots in Quadratic Equation -
- wherein
are root of quadratic equation
Product of Roots in Quadratic Equation -
- wherein
are roots of quadratic equation:

Q. 32 The number of natural numbers less than 7,000 which can be formed by using the digits
0,1,3,7,9 (repetition of digits allowed) is equal to
Option 1:
250
Option 2:
374
Option 3:
372
Option 4:
375
Correct Answer:
374
Solution:
Natural numbers less than 7,000
There are 3 ways to fill position 1 (i.e. 0,1,3: 0 can be there as it can also be a number which has lesser
than 4 digits) and for the remaining position there are 5 ways each so,
(0000 is not included as it is not a natural number, so we subtract 1)
Q. 33 The number of ordered pairs (r,k) for which where k is an

integer, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt
Now,
r should be less than or equal to 35
Hence for k to be an integer, r can be 5 and 35
For r=5 we get k = -2, 2
For r=35 we get k=-3,3
We get 4 ordered pair (5,-2), (5,2), (35,-3), (35, 3)
Correct Option (1)

Q. 34
If the sum up to 20 terms is equal to , then k is
equal to :
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
As we learnt in
Summation of series of natural numbers
Sum of squares of first n natural numbers
Now,
20 terms
Put n=1,2,3...n
Put n=20
k=120
Q. 35
The image of the line in the plane is the line :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Image of a point -
Let be the image of point in the plane
will be given by the formula
Image of (1,3,4) in plane is

So equation of line is
Q. 36
Option 1:
−2
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
−2
Solution:
Now use series expansion

Q. 37 A factory is operating in two shifts, day and night, with 70 and 30 workers respectively. If per
day mean wage of the day shift workers is 54 and per day mean wage of all the workers is
60, then per day mean wage of the night shift workers is :
Option 1:
66
Option 2:
69
Option 3:
74
Option 4:
75
Correct Answer:
74
Solution:
Number of workers in day = 54
Number of workers in night = 30
Total workers = 100
Using combined mean formula,

Calculating x=74
Q. 38
if is a matrix satisfying the equation AAT=9I, where I is 3x3
identity matrix, then the ordered pair
(a, b) is equal to :
Option 1:
(2, -1)
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
by given condition
Q. 39 Let be the solution of the differential equation
. If , then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt
- wherein
\sin x\frac{\mathrm{d} y}{\mathrm{d} x}+y\cos x= 4x

IF =
Thus
also
Thus
put
and
Q. 40 A ray of light is incident along a line which meets another line, 7x − y + 1 = 0, at the point (0,
1). The ray is then reflected from this point along the line, y + 2x = 1. Then the equation of
the line of incidence of the ray of light is :
Option 1:
41x − 38y + 38 = 0
Option 2:
41x + 25y − 25 = 0
Option 3:
41x + 38y − 38 = 0
Option 4:
41x − 25y + 25 = 0
Correct Answer:
41x − 38y + 38 = 0
Solution:
Q. 41
The integral
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
Let
Thus I=
Q. 42 The sum of the distinct real values of , for which the vectors,
are co-planar, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For these vectors to be coplanar
Sum of real numbers of
Q. 43 Let The number of non-empty subsets A of S such that the

product of elements in A is even is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number of subsets of a set -
If a set has n elements, then it has 2n subsets.
In this Question,
Subsets = Total Subsets - Number of subsets which have only odd numbers
Q. 44 The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point P on the horizontal ground
was observed to be . After moving a distance 2 metres from P towards the foot of the
tower, the angle of elevation changes to . Then the height of the tower (in metres) is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now, PQ=2
Q. 45 if then a value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Square Root of a Complex Number -
We have to find
Now
and (Put - i at the place of i)
Now x2 - y2 + i 2xy = 7 + 24 i
Solve for x & y, it is
Q. 46 Consider a class of 5 girls and 7 boys. The number of different teams consisting of 2 girls and
3 boys that can be formed from this class, if there are two specific boys A and B, who refuse
to be members of the same team, is:
Option 1:
500
Option 2:
200
Option 3:
300
Option 4:
250
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
Required number of ways
=Total no. of ways - when A and B both are included.
Q. 47 If a, b and c are the greatest values of respectively, then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Binomial Coefficient of the middle term is greatest.
Now,
Correct Option (1)
Q. 48 In a geometric progression, if the ratio of the sum of first 5 terms to the sum of their
reciprocals is 49, and the sum of the first and the third term is 35. Then the first term of this
geometric progression is :
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
Let the G.P is G, Gr, Gr2.................
Given that
( -7 is rejected because first and third term always have the same sign, and thus their sum cannot equal
35 if Gr2 = third term = -7)
And given the sum of first and third term = 35, so
Q. 49 Equation of the plane which passes through the point of intersection of lines
and and has the largest distance from

the origin is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
is given by
- wherein
Point of interactionof two lines
and
Point is (4,3,5)
Plane 4x+3y+5z=50 has maximum distance from origin

Q. 50 Let a, b R, (a ≠ 0). If the function defined as
is continuous in the interval [0, ∞), then an ordered pair (a, b) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given function is
since the function is continuous

Q. 51 If the lengths of the sides of a triangle are decided by the three throws of a single fair die,
then the probability that the triangle is of maximum area given that it is an isosceles triangle,
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
defined as
- wherein
Consider 21 cases of isosceles triangle each case occurring thrice
Hence required probability =
If we consider equilateral triangle, there are 63 occurrences of non-equilateral triangle and 6 occurrences
of equilateral triangle.
Required probability =
Q. 52 The set of all values of for which the system of linear equations :
has a non-trivial solution,
Option 1:
is an empty set.
Option 2:
is a singleton.
Option 3:
contains two elements.
Option 4:
contains more than two elements.
Correct Answer:
contains two elements.
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and
Q. 53 The differential equation representing the family of ellipses having foci either on the
x-axis or on the y-axis, center at the origin and passing through the point (0, 3) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
A differential equation can be derived from its equation by the process of differentiation and other
algebraical process of elimination
Let y and x be the dependent and the independent variables respectively. The equation of (x, y, c) = 0 , is
family of curves
- wherein
C is the arbitrary Constant
Equation of ellipse :
pass through (0,3)
; differentiating we get
Q. 54 A straight line through origin O meets the lines 3y = 10 − 4x and 8x + 6y + 5 = 0 at points A
and B respectively. Then O divides the segment AB in the ratio
Option 1:
2:3
Option 2:
1:2
Option 3:
4:1
Option 4:
3:4
Correct Answer:
4:1
Solution:
Given equation of the lien are
4x + 3y = 10
and 8x + 6y + 5 = 0
these lines are parallel to each other
Length of perpendicular from (0,0) to the line 4x + 3y = 10
Length of perpendicular from (0,0) to the line 8x + 6y = 5
Q. 55
For x>0,let
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
Put t= (substitution)
=
=
Q. 56 A tetrahedron has vertices The

angle between the faces OPQ and PQR is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Vector Product of two vectors -

- wherein
Vector perpendicular to face OAB
Vector perpendicular to face ABC
ANgle between two faces
Q. 57 The number of functions f from {1,2,3,........,20} onto {1,2,3,........,20} such that f(k) is a
multiple of 3, whenever k is a multiple of 4, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Onto function -
If f:A B is such that each & every element in B is the f image of atleast one element in A.Then it is Onto
function.
- wherein
The range of f is equal to Co - domain of f.
f(k) = 3,6,9,12,15,18
for k = 4,8,12,16,20
ways = 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 6!
For remaining numbers = (20-5)! = 15!
Total ways = 15! x 6!
Q. 58 Statement I : The equation has a solution for all
Statement II : For any ,
Option 1:
Both statements I and II are true.
Option 2:
Both statements I and II are false.
Option 3:
Statement I is true and statement II is false.
Option 4:
Statement I is false and statement II is true.
Correct Answer:
Statement I is false and statement II is true.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Important Results of Inverse Trigonometric Functions -
- wherein
When
Statement 1: cubing both sides
The statement along with (1) becomes

Solution for (2) is
Now (3) is defined only if
However, this is an insufficient condition as sin-1 x is between which will impose additional
constraints.
Not true
Statement 2: (true)
Now, attains maxima at and minima at
Hence,
Hence,
Q. 59
If z is a complex number such that then the minimum value of
Option 1:
is strictly greater than
Option 2:
is strictly greater than but less than
Option 3:
is equal to
Option 4:
lies in the interval (1, 2)
Correct Answer:
lies in the interval (1, 2)
Solution:
As we have learned
Triangle Law of Inequality in Complex Numbers -
- wherein
|.| denotes modulus of z in complex numbers
Hence,
3/2 lies in the interval (1,2)
Q. 60 The number of ways in which the examiner can assign 30 marks to 8 questions, giving not
less than 2 marks to any questions, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence,
Mock Test 5
Physics
Q. 1 The focal length of the objective and the eyepiece of compound microscope are 2cm and 3cm
respectively. The distance between the objective and eyepiece is 15 cm. The final image formed by
eyepiece is at infinity the distance (in cm) of the object and image produced by the objective,
measured from the objective lens are respectively.
Option 1:
2.4 and 12
Option 2:
2.4 and 15
Option 3:
2.3 and 3
Option 4:
2.3 and 12
Correct Answer:
2.4 and 12
Solution:
As we learnt
Length of compound microscope -
Image distance from objective.
Object distance from eyepiece
= 2 cm = 3cm
l = 15cm
Final image formed at infinity hence image formed by objective is at focal point of eyepiece
For objective:
or
or,
Q. 2 In a Young's double slit experiment, the path difference , at a certain point on the screen
between two interfering waves is of the wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this
point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is close to:
Option 1:
0.80
Option 2:
0.94
Option 3:
0.85
Option 4:
0.74
Correct Answer:
0.85
Solution:
Resultant Intensity of two wave -
- wherein
The intensity of wave 1

The intensity of wave 2
Phase difference
Putting
we get
At the centre
and at that point
Q. 3 In young's double slit experiment, 16 fringes are observed in a certain segment of the
screen when light of wavelength 700 nm is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400
nm, the number of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen would be:
Option 1:
30
Option 2:
28
Option 3:
18
Option 4:
24
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
Q. 4 A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 shows full scale deflection when a current of
1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0
amp by:
Option 1:
putting in series a resistance of 15
Option 2:
putting in series a resistance of 240
Option 3:
putting in parallel a resistance of 15
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Galvanometer is a very sensitive instrument therefore it cannot measure heavy currents. In order to
convert a Galvanometer into an Ammeter, a very low shunt resistance is connected in parallel to
Galvanometer. The value of shunt is so adjusted that most of the current pass through the shunt.
If the resistance of the galvanometer is and it gives full-scale deflection when current is passed
through it.
Then,
Let a shunt of resistance ( ) is connected in parallel to the galvanometer.
If the total current through the circuit is I.

So option C is correct
Q. 5 A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in
series. If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of 20 ohm, the reading in
the ammeter will be:
Option 1:
0.25 A
Option 2:
2A
Option 3:
1A
Option 4:
0.5 A
Correct Answer:
0.5 A
Solution:
As we learnt in
Ammeter -
It is a device used to measure current and always connected in series
- wherein
Resistance of ammeter is
As ammeter is in series with 40.8 Ω
Total resistance of the circuit
R=40.8Ω Ω+19.2Ω
From omni's law
Q. 6 A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm.
The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the
Figure, is:
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
0.6
Correct Answer:
0.6
Solution:
Q. 7 A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf and internal
resistance r) as a function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope, and intercept, of
the graph between V and I, then, respectively, equal:
Option 1:
- r and
Option 2:
r and -
Option 3:
- and r
Option 4:
and - r
Correct Answer:
- r and
Solution:
The terminal potential difference (V) of a cell is given as
V= - Ir ----------(1)
compare with straight-line equation y=mx+c
Slope =-r, Intercept =
Q. 8 The thermo e.m.f. E in volts of a certain thermo-couple is found to vary with temperature
difference in °C between the two junctions according to the relation
The neutral temperature for the thermo-couple will be

Option 1:
450°C
Option 2:
400°C
Option 3:
225°C
Option 4:
30°C
Correct Answer:
225°C
Solution:
Q. 9 To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is
Option 1:
A=0, B=1, C=0
Option 2:
A=1, B=0, C=0
Option 3:
A=1, B=1, C=0
Option 4:
A=1, B=0, C=1
Correct Answer:
A=1, B=0, C=1
Solution:
OR gate -
The relation between input and output
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
AND Gate -
- wherein
A and B are input
Y is output
Output of the given circuit is
Y = (A+B).C
From left side the first gate is OR gate and next one is AND gate. So the out put of OR gate is A+B and the
output of AND gate Y=(A+B).C
We know that for AND gate the put will be 1 if both inputs are 1. So, A+B=1and C=1
In logic gate , 1+0=1 so A=1,B=0,C=1 will be the correct choice.
Q. 10 An object is placed at a distance of 15cm from a concave mirror of the focal lenth 10cm. The
magnification of the image is:
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
-2
Option 3:
0.4
Option 4:
-0.4
Correct Answer:
-2
Solution:
As we learn
Mirror Formula -
- wherein

Q. 11 An object is placed at a distance of 15cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10cm. The
magnification of the image is
Option 1:
2
Option 2:
-2
Option 3:
0.4
Option 4:
-0.4
Correct Answer:
-2
Solution:
As we learned
Mirror Formula -
- wherein

Q. 12 Maximum intensity in YOSE is I1. The intensity at a point on the screen where the phase
difference between two interfering beam is :
Option 1:
0.25 I1
Option 2:
0.75 I1
Option 3:
I1
Option 4:
0.5 I1
Correct Answer:
0.75 I1
Solution:
As we learn
Young Double Slit Experiment -
- wherein
Distance of a point on screen from central maxima

Path difference at that point
Q. 13 In a Young’s double slit experiment with light of wavelength the separation of slits is d and
distance of screen is D such that D > > d > > . If the Fringe width is , the distance from
point of maximum intensity to the point where intensity falls to half of maximum intensity
on either side is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Malus Law -
angle made by E vector with transmission axis.
- wherein
Intensity of transmitted light after polarisation .
Intensity of incident light.

Fringe Width -
- wherein
Distance of
Maxima
Distance of
maxima
Here
so
(i)
(ii)
Therefore, from equation (i) and (ii)
Q. 14 The following Figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output Y.The
voltage waveforms of A,B and Y are given:
Option 1:
NAND gate
Option 2:
NOR gate
Option 3:
OR gate
Option 4:
AND gate
Correct Answer:
NAND gate
Solution:
As we learnt in
NAND gate -
NOT + AND gate

- wherein
A and B are input
Y is out put
A B Y
1 1 0
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
This represents NAND gate
Q. 15 A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V is used in a voltage regulator circuit
shown in figure. The current through the diode is:
Option 1:
20 mA
Option 2:
5 mA
Option 3:
10 mA
Option 4:
15 mA
Correct Answer:
5 mA
Solution:
Q. 16 If the energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 13.6 ev then the energy of He+ ion in
the first excited state will be -
Option 1:
-6.8 ev
Option 2:
-54.4 ev
Option 3:
-27.2 ev
Option 4:
-13.6 ev
Correct Answer:
-13.6 ev
Solution:
As we learn
Energy of electron in nth orbit -
- wherein
Q. 17 In a radioactive decay chain , the initial nucleus is . At the end there are 6 -
particles and 4 - particles which are emitted. . If the end nucleus is , A and Z are given
by :
Option 1:
A = 208 ; Z = 80
Option 2:
A = 200 ; Z = 81
Option 3:
A = 202 ; Z = 80
Option 4:
A = 208 ; Z = 82
Correct Answer:
A = 208 ; Z = 82
Solution:
α -decay -
- wherein
β minus decay -
- wherein
Initially
Let finally
So let reaction
Balance Z -
Balance A -
So A =208 and Z = 82
Q. 18
A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field U(r) = . If
Bohr's quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals and energy levels vary
with quantum number n as :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 For a radioactive material T is half life, then the fraction that would remain after a time T/2 is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
0.5
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Number of nuclei in terms of half life -
- wherein
Very useful to determine number of nuclei in terms of half life

Fraction remain after n half lives
Q. 20 A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the
banking angle is 45°, the speed of the car is:
Option 1:
20 ms-1
Option 2:
30 ms-1
Option 3:
5 ms-1
Option 4:
10 ms-1
Correct Answer:
30 ms-1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Bending a Cyclist -
From figure.
(i)
(ii)
(i) & (ii)
V = velocity
r = radius of track
angle with which cycle leans
- wherein
* radius of curve is small.
* velocity of the cyclist is large
Q. 21 A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle . The
coefficient of friction between the types of the car and the road is s. The maximum safe
velocity on this road is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
If friction is also present in banking of road -
angle of banking
coefficient of friction
V = velocity
- wherein
Maximum speed on a banked frictional road

Q. 22 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to
the disc and passing through
Option 1:
B
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
D
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
B
Solution:
According to parallel axis theorem,
R is maximum for point B, so Imax about B.

Q. 23 A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless
string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of
the rod is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
g/L
Option 4:
2g/L
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt in
Torque on rod= Moment of weight of the rod about P.
Moment of inertia of rod about P is

Q. 24 A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity ' '. It
reaches upto a maximum height of
with respect to the initial position. The object is:
Option 1:
Disc
Option 2:
Ring
Option 3:
Solid sphere
Option 4:
Hollow sphere
Correct Answer:
Disc
Solution:
As we learnt in
Rolling of a body on an inclined plane -
- wherein
K=Radius of gyration
= Angle of inclination
After solving
so object is disc.
Q. 25 If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity will
be:
Option 1:
Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = -1
Option 2:
Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = -2
Option 3:
Force if a = 0, b = - 1, c = - 2
Option 4:
Pressure if a = 1, b = - 1, c = - 2
Correct Answer:
Pressure if a = 1, b = - 1, c = - 2
Solution:
and
and
and
i.e option 4 is correct
Q. 26 The dimensions of are:
Option 1:
[L-1 T]
Option 2:
[L T-1]
Option 3:
[L1/2 T1/2]
Option 4:
[L1/2 T-1/2]
Correct Answer:
[L T-1]
Solution:
As we learnt in
Permeability of free space -
Dimension of permeablity of free space ( )-
- wherein
Where, C = Speed of light
C=
Q. 27 A particle has initial velocity and acceleration . The magnitude

of velocity after 10 seconds will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
5 Units
Option 4:
9 Units
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 28 The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point
B is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Equation of path -
it is equation of parabola
Acceleratio due to gravity
initial velocity
Angle of projection
- wherein
Path followed by a projectile is parabolic is nature.
From Fig, x component remains unchanged, while the y component is Reverse, so velocity at point B will
be
Q. 29 A projectile is given an initial velocity of , where is along the ground and is

along the vertical. If g = 10m/s2 , the equation of its trajectory is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 30 A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all

vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is
Option 1:
4 RT
Option 2:
15 RT
Option 3:
9 RT
Option 4:
11 RT
Correct Answer:
11 RT
Solution:
As we learnt in
Total internal energy -
- wherein
Change in internal energy
(Always)
is degree of freedom
Internal energy of a system is
or
Q. 31 Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram.
Match the following
Column-1 Column-2
P. Process I a. Adiabatic
Q. Process II b. Isobaric
R. Process III c. Isochoric
S. Process IV d. Isothermal
Option 1:
P a, Q c, R d, S b
Option 2:
P c, Q a, R d, S b
Option 3:
P c, Q d, R b, S a
Option 4:
P d, Q b, R a, S c
Correct Answer:
P c, Q a, R d, S b
Solution:
Q. 32 A body of mass 'm' is taken from the earth's surface to the height equal to twice the radius
(R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
mg 2R
Option 3:
Option 4:
3 mgR
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Mass = m, height = 2R
At height the acceleration due to gravity decreases , hence the value of acceleration due to gravity
becomes
Q. 33 A body of mass 'm' is taken from the earth's surface to the height equal to twice the radius
(R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
3 mgR
Option 3:
Option 4:
mg2R
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Gravitational Potential Energy at centre of earth relative to infinity -
mass of body
Mass of earth
- wherein
change in potential energy
Q. 34 A particle of mass m is dropped from a height h above the ground. At the same time another
particle of the same mass is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a speed of
. If they collide head-on completely inelastically, the time taken for the combined
mass to reach the ground, in units of is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
time for collision -
After t1 -
and
at the time of collision

and height from ground
so time
Hence the correct option is (3).
Q. 35 A constant power delivering machine has towed a box, which was initially at rest , along a
horizontal straight line. The distance moved by the box in time 't' is proportional to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 36 There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not mix and of densities d1
and d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends 900 angles at the centre. The radius joining
their interface makes an angle with vertical. Ratio is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Pressure at interface A must be the same from both sides in equilibrium.
So
Q. 37 In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass of all the molecules is halved and their
speed is doubled, then the resultant pressure will be:
Option 1:
4P
Option 2:
2P
Option 3:
P
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
2P
Solution:
Pressure of a gas -
- wherein
m = mass of a molecule
n = number of molecule /volume
< v2 > = Rms velocity
Pressure of a gas
if mass is halved and speed is doubled pressure becomes 2P
Q. 38 Three rods of Copper, Brass and Steel are welded together to form a Y - shaped structure.
Area of cross - section of each rod = 4 cm2. End of copper rod is maintained at 1000C where
as ends of brass and steel are kept at 00C. Lengths of the copper, brass and steel rods are
46, 13 and 12 cms respectively. The rods are thermally insulated from surroundings except
at ends. Thermal conductivities of copper, brass and steel are 0.92, 0.26 and 0.12 CGS units
respectively. Rate of heat flow through copper rod is :
Option 1:
1.2 cal/s
Option 2:
2.4 cal/s
Option 3:
4.8 cal/s
Option 4:
6.0 cal/s
Correct Answer:
4.8 cal/s
Solution:
The arrangement of rods is shown in the above figure.
So using
So
Q. 39 The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius 'r') is inversely proportional to:
Option 1:
r3
Option 2:
r2
Option 3:
r
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
r2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Formula for mean free path -
- wherein
Diameter of the molecule
pressure of the gas
temperature
Boltzmann's Constant
mean free path is inversely proportional to r2.
Q. 40 Charge Q = 10 is distributed over a circumference of ring of radius 3 m alng x-y plane

with centre at origin. Find electric potential at point (0,0,4) .
Option 1:
1.8 X 104 V
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
1.8 V
Option 4:
1.4 X 108 V
Correct Answer:
1.8 X 104 V
Solution:
The electric potential due to charged ring at its axial position is given by
Q. 41 Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ as shown in the following
figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Magnitude of the Resultant force -
- wherein
Hence force experienced by the charge at A in the direction normal to BC is zero.
Q. 42 Figure shows a solid hemisphere with a charge of 5 nC distributed uniformly throughout its
volume. The hemisphere lies on a plane and point P is located on the plane, along a radial
line from the centre of curvature at distance 15 cm. The electric potential (in Volt) at point P
due to the hemisphere, is :
Option 1:
150
Option 2:
300
Option 3:
450
Option 4:
600
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
Outside the sphere (P lies outside the sphere) -
- wherein
- surface charge density.
By argument of symmetry, it will be half of the potential produced by the full sphere
Q Charge on hemisphere = Q,
so charge on sphere = 2Q
Q. 43 A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform
magnetic field. What should be the energy of an - particle to describe a circle of same
radius in the same field?
Option 1:
1 MeV
Option 2:
0.5 MeV
Option 3:
4 MeV
Option 4:
2 MeV
Correct Answer:
1 MeV
Solution:
Radius of a particle moving in magnetic field is given by
E = Kinetic energy
Rproton = R -particle
and
therefore, E = Ep= 1 MeV

Q. 44 In a coil of resistance 10 , the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux
through it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through
the coil in weber is:
Option 1:
8
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Induced Charge -
- wherein
Induced Charge time independent

Amount of charge passes through the coil
Area under graph=
Q. 45 A proton carrying 1MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of redius R in uniform
magnetic field. What should be the energy of an -particle to describe a circle of same radius
in the same field?
Option 1:
2MeV
Option 2:
1MeV
Option 3:
0.5MeV
Option 4:
4MeV
Correct Answer:
1MeV
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
Q. 46 In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is
removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the
circuit is . If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again . The
power factor of the circuit is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
As we learnt in
Impedence -
Power factor -
- wherein
resistance
impedence
when C is removed from the Circuit
Power factor
Q. 47 A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic

pole. It:
Option 1:
will become rigid showing no movement
Option 2:
will stay in any position
Option 3:
will stay in north-south direction only
Option 4:
will stay in east-west direction only
Correct Answer:
will stay in any position
Solution:
As we learnt in
Horizontal component of earth's magnetic field at any other Place -
Total intensity can be resolved into horizontal component (BH) and vertical component (Bv)
-
A compass needle which is allowed to move a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It will Stay
in any Position as the horizontal. Component of earth is naganetic field become Zero at the geomagnetic
pole.
Q. 48 The current (I) in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure.
Which one of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the coil?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Faraday Second Law of Induction emf -
slope of graph
for 0<t<T/2, slope is positive & constant
T/2<t<T, slope is negative & constant
Hence only d represent correct value of V.
Q. 49 For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cut-off frequency is v. If radiation of
frequency 2v impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted
electron will be (m is the electron mass)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
- wherein
here
Q. 50 Which of the following figures represent the variation of particle momentum and the
associated de-Broglie wavelength ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Momentum of photon -
- wherein
The graph between will be rectangular hyperbola. Hence correct option is 4.
Q. 51 If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage
change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is :
Option 1:
25
Option 2:
75
Option 3:
60
Option 4:
50
Correct Answer:
75
Solution:
As we have learned in
De - Broglie wavelength -
- wherein
Kinetic energy
or (E = Kinetic energy)
When E becomes 16 E, becomes
Change in wavelength
Q. 52 Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 x 1016
m-3. Doping by Indium increases nh to 4.5 x 1022 m-3.
The doped semiconductor is of:
Option 1:
n-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 x 1023 m-3
Option 2:
p-type having electron concentration ne = 5 x 109 m-3
Option 3:
n-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 x 1022 m-3
Option 4:
p-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 x 1010 m-3
Correct Answer:
p-type having electron concentration ne = 5 x 109 m-3
Solution:
Q. 53 A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at Vc = 2 V such that a change in
the base current from 100 A to 300 A produces a change in the collector current from 10
mA to 20 mA. The current gain is:
Option 1:
25
Option 2:
50
Option 3:
75
Option 4:
100
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Q. 54 If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal:
Option 1:
Its resistance is increased
Option 2:
It becomes a p-type semiconductor
Option 3:
The antimony becomes an acceptor atom
Option 4:
There will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
Correct Answer:
There will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
Solution:
When a small amount of antimony (pentavalent) is added to germanium (tetravalent) crystal, then crystal
becomes n-type semiconductor. In n-type semiconductor electrons are the majority charge carriers and
the holes are the minority charge carriers.
Q. 55 Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage
is increased to 100 kV, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would:
Option 1:
Increase by 4 times
Option 2:
Increase by 2 times
Option 3:
Decrease by 2 times
Option 4:
Decrease by 4 times
Correct Answer:
Decrease by 2 times
Solution:
Q. 56 Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
respectively, illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of
maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be:
Option 1:
1:5
Option 2:
1:4
Option 3:
1:2
Option 4:
1:1
Correct Answer:
1:2
Solution:
Q. 57 An -particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83cm in the presence of a magnetic field
of . The wavelength associated with the particle will be:
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
0.1
Option 3:
10
Option 4:
0.01
Correct Answer:
0.01
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
Q. 58 A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the
induced e.m.f. is:
Option 1:
six times per revolution
Option 2:
once per revolution
Option 3:
twice per revolution
Option 4:
four times per revolution
Correct Answer:
twice per revolution
Solution:
As we learnt in
If Angle theta — change -
Twice per revolution.

Q. 59 The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz
and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?
Option 1:
10 Hz
Option 2:
20 Hz
Option 3:
30 Hz
Option 4:
40 Hz
Correct Answer:
20 Hz
Solution:
As we learnt in
The frequency in open organ pipe -
- wherein
velocity of sound wave
length of pipe
number of overtones
Nearest harmonics of an organ pipe closed at one and differ by twice of its fundamental frequency
Q. 60 Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n - 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose
to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learnt in
Beat -
A phenomena resuits when two sound wave having equal amplitude and travelling in a medium in the
same direction but having slightly different frequency.
Beat Frequency -
- wherein
Where are frequency of two wave differ slightly in value of frequency.
Beats produced is max difference two wave frequency
(1) and (2) x-(x-1) =1
(2) and (3) (x+1) -x = 1
(1) and (3) (x+1) (x-1) = 2
Chemistry
Q. 1 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of
water produced in this reaction will be -
Option 1:
1 mol
Option 2:
2 mol
Option 3:
3 mol
Option 4:
4 mol
Correct Answer:
4 mol
Solution:
The reaction will be-
Two moles of H2 and one mole of O2 will produce two moles of water.
5 Moles of H2 can produce 5 moles of water while 2 moles of O2 can produce 4 moles of water.
Thus, O2 is the limiting reactant and 4 moles H2O will be produced.
Q. 2 The number of chiral centres in penicillin is:
Option 1:
3
Option 2:
4
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
An asymmetric carbon atom (chiral carbon) is a carbon atom that is attached to four different types
of atoms or groups of atoms.
As shown in the figure below, there are 3 chiral carbons in penicillin.
Q. 3 For the second period elements, the correct increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is
Option 1:
Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
Option 2:
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
Option 3:
Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
Option 4:
Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
Correct Answer:
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
Solution:
Ionization enthalpy -
It is defined as the minimum energy required to remove the electron from the outermost shell of an
isolated gaseous atom (X) to form the gaseous ion.
- where
On moving left to right in the period, atomic radii of elements decrease as the effective nuclear charge
increases. Hence, the Ionization energy increases along the period.
For N and O, Nitrogen has half filled (2p3) electronic configuration while O (2p4) has partially. Hence, the
ionization energy of N is more than that of O.
For B and Be, In B electron is to be removed from p- subshell ( 2s22p1), and in Be, it is from (2s2).
Since the penetration power of s>p>d>f. More energy is required to take an electron out from Be than B.
Stability order of the orbitals with electrons
Fully Filled > Half Filled > Partially Filled
Q. 4 The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in and respectively are
Option 1:
sp, sp3 and sp2
Option 2:
sp2, sp3 and sp
Option 3:
sp, sp2 and sp3
Option 4:
sp2, sp and sp3
Correct Answer:
sp, sp2 and sp3
Solution:
Dettermination of shape of molecules using VSEPR Theory -
-
For
For
Q. 5 Given:
Free energy change, (in kJ mol −1) for the reaction

will be :
Correct Answer:
-56.2
Solution:
The given reaction can be obtained by multiplying the second reaction with 3 and adding with the first
equation
Thus, we can say that

Q. 6 Experimentally it was found that a metal oxide has formula M0.98O.Metal M, is present as
M2+and M3+ in its oxide. Fraction of the metal which exists as M3+ would be:
Correct Answer:
4.08
Solution:
Oxidation Number -
Oxidation number denotes the oxidation state of an element in a compound ascertained according to a
set of rules formulated on the basis that electron pair in a covalent bond belongs entirely to more
electronegative elements.
3x + 2 (0.98 -x) = 2
x + 1.96 = 2
x = 0.04
Q. 7 When 9.65 ampere current was passed for 1.0 hour into nitrobenzene in acidic medium, the
amount of p-aminophenol produced (in g) is :
Correct Answer:
9.81
Solution:
Faraday's first law of electrolysis -
The mass of any substance deposited or dissolved at any electrode during electrolysis is directly
proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution.
W=ZIt
W = mass of electrolyte get deposited
Z = electro chemical equivalent

n-factor for the reaction is 4
the molecular weight of is 109
Q. 8 How long (approximate in hours) should water be electrolysed by passing through 100
amperes current so that the oxygen released can completely burn 27.66 g of diborane ?
(Atomic weight of B=10.8 u)
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
propotional to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution.
- wherein
W=ZIt
Z = electro chemical equivalent

No. of moles of
So 3 moles of O2 is required
M eq. of charge = M eq. of substance
Q. 9 When an electric current is passed through acidified water, 112 mL of hydrogen gas at N.T.P.
was collected at the cathode in 965 seconds. The current assed, inampere , is :
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution.
W = ZIt
Z = electrochemical equivalent
i = 1 ampere
Q. 10 Which of the following is the correct structure of Adenosine ?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Nucleoside -
Made up of two components :
1. Pentose sugar
2. Nitrogenous base
Q. 11
What are A and B ?
Option 1:
Glucose and manmose
Option 2:
mannose and galactose
Option 3:
Glucose and fructose
Option 4:
fructose and galactose
Correct Answer:
Glucose and fructose
Solution:
As we have learned
Preparation of glucose and fructose from sucrose ( cane sugar ) -
Sucrose is boiled with dilute or in alcoholic solution , glucose (dextorotatory) and fructose
(laevorotatory) are obtained in equal amount .
- wherein
Glucose and fructose are obtained when sucrose is boiled with dilute acid
Q. 12
What is A ?
Option 1:
Fructose
Option 2:
Glucose
Option 3:
mannose
Option 4:
Galactose
Correct Answer:
Glucose
Solution:
As we have learned
Preparation of glucose from starch -

By the hydrolysis of starch.
- wherein
Starch can be hydralysed to glucose by boiling with dilute acid or by actiion of enzymes like amylase
Q. 13 The given compound
Is an example of ________
Option 1:
Benzylic halide
Option 2:
Aryl Halide
Option 3:
Allylic halide
Option 4:
Vinylic halide
Correct Answer:
Allylic halide
Solution:
It is an example of Allylic halide.

Q. 14 Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl
group is :
Option 1:
CH3COCl
Option 2:
CH3COOCH3
Option 3:
CH3CONH2
Option 4:
CH3COOCOCH3
Correct Answer:
CH3COCl
Solution:
is most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group as chloride ion is a good
leaving group.
Q. 15 The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives 'X' and reaction in presence of
light gives 'Y'. Thus, 'X' and 'Y' are:
Option 1:
X=Benzal chloride, Y=0-Chlorotoluene
Option 2:
X=m-Chlorotoluene, Y=p-Chlorotoluene
Option 3:
X= o- and p - Chlorotoluene, Y= Trichloromethyl - benzene
Option 4:
X = Benzyl chloride, Y= m - Chlorotoluene
Correct Answer:
X= o- and p - Chlorotoluene, Y= Trichloromethyl - benzene
Solution:
Halogenation reaction of haloarene -
1,2 - di chlorobenzene
1,4 - di chlorobenzene is obtained (major)

- wherein
Q. 16 What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in based on

crystal field theory?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Splitting occurs as follows for octahedral
For Fe2+ (d6), electron distribution occurs as follows:
For High spin complex and low spin complexes, the respective arrangement of electrons will be
CN- being a strong field ligand casusedcausede splitting and forms a low spin complex with electronic
configuration. is the correct distribution.
Q. 17 Which of the following is correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form
coordination compounds?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination Compounds -

Q. 18 Match List - I with List - II
List - I List - II
(a) (i) 5.92 BM
(b) (ii) 0 BM
(c) (iii) 4.90 BM
(d) (iv) 1.73 BM
Choose the correct options from the given below:
Option 1:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c)- (i), (d)- (iii)
Option 2:
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c)- (iii), (d)- (i)
Option 3:
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c)- (iv), (d)- (ii)
Option 4:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c)- (ii), (d)- (iii)
Correct Answer:
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c)- (ii), (d)- (iii)
Solution:
is a strong field ligand and will cause pairing while is a weak field ligand and will not cause
pairing
Thus, which has configuration and will have 1 unpaired electron in the complex with and
5 unpaired electrons in the complex with
And, which has configuration and will have 0 unpaired electron in the complex with and 4
unpaired electrons in the complex with
Complex unpaired electrons (n) Magnetic moment (BM)
1 1.73
5 5.92
0 0
4 4.9
Q. 19 Which of the following lines correctly show the temperature dependence of equilibrium
constant, K, for an exothermic reaction ?
Option 1:
A and D
Option 2:
A and B
Option 3:
B and C
Option 4:
C and D
Correct Answer:
A and B
Solution:
As we learnt,
and,
using equations (1) and (2)

For exothermic reaction slope will be positive & intercept may be positive or negative for a graph of
so correct graphs are A and B.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2)
Q. 20 Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Lewis acids and bases - Lewis defined an acid as a species that accepts electron pairs and bases which
donate an electron pair.
In lewis acid, many acids do not have protons but have vacant orbitals to accept lone pair of electrons.
has no lone pair of electrons but can accept lone pair of electrons acting as a lewis acid.
Whereas, have lone pair of electrons and act as lewis bases.
Q. 21 for NaCl, HCl and NaA are 126.4, 425.9 and 100.5 S cm2mol-1, respectively. If the
conductivity of 0.001 M HA is 5 X 10-5 S cm-1, degree of dissociation of HA is :
Correct Answer:
0.125
Solution:
We know
Q. 22 The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :
Option 1:
5-Chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
2-Methyl-5-nitro-1-chlorobenzene
Correct Answer:
Solution:
All three functional group attached to the benzene ring are to be treated as substituents with no
particular order of priority.
Hence lowest locant rule will be followed and the numbering will be done as shown
Thus, the IUPAC name of the given compound following alphabetical order is
Therefore, the correct answer is Option (2)
Q. 23 Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following recation.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Addition of water on alkyne -
By the addition of water on alkyne in presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4 alkyne give aldehyde or ketone.
- wherein
Q. 24 The freezing point of a diluted milk sample is found to be , while it should have
been for pure milk. How much water has been added to pure milk to make the
diluted sample ?
Option 1:
2 cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk.
Option 2:
Option 3:
1 cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk.
Option 4:
1 cup of water to 2 cups of pure milk.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Freezing point of milk
Freezing point of milk (diluted)
Q. 25
For a first-order reaction, , (half-life) is 10 days. The time required for
conversion of A (in days) is :
(ln 2=0.693, ln 3=1.1)
Correct Answer:
4.1
Solution:
Fro the first-order reaction: -
Q. 26 Which of the statements is not true?
Option 1:
On passing through acidified solution, a milky colour is observed
Option 2:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis
Option 3:
solution in acidic medium is orange
Option 4:
solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
Correct Answer:
is preferred over in volumetric analysis
Solution:
A hygroscopic substance is one that readily attracts water from its surroundings, through either
absorption or adsorption.
Being hygroscopic, sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7
cannot be used in volumetric analysis
All other given statements are true.
Q. 27 Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
Option 1:
Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms
Option 2:
Unidentate ligand
Option 3:
Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
Option 4:
Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
Correct Answer:
Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms
Solution:
The structure of EDTA is -
It is a Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms.
Q. 28 The increasing order of the acidity of the following carboxylic acids is:
Option 1:
I < III < II < IV
Option 2:
IV < II < III < I
Option 3:
II < IV < III < I
Option 4:
III < II < IV < I
Correct Answer:
III < II < IV < I
Solution:
As we learnt in
Acidic strength of carboxylic acid -

-NO2 and -Cl are electron withdrawing groups while -OH is electron donating group.
Ring deactivating groups increases the acidic character whereas ring activating groups decreases the
acidic strength.
Q. 29 Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Nucleophilic Substitution Reaction -
SN1substitution nucleophilic unimolecular reaction.
These reactions proceed in two steps.
reaction involves the formation of carbocation tertiary carbocation tertiary carbocation is most
stable.
Q. 30 When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces:
Option 1:
Glycerol Triiodide
Option 2:
2-iodopropane
Option 3:
Allyl iodide
Option 4:
Propene
Correct Answer:
2-iodopropane
Solution:
When glycerol is treated with an excess of HI, it produces 2-iodopropane.
In the first step, a molecule of glycerol reacts with 3 HI molecules to form an unstable 1,2,3-
triiodopropane. This loses a molecule of iodine to form allyl iodide.
Allyl iodide adds a molecule of HI to obtain an unstable molecule which loses a molecule of iodine to form
propene.
A molecule of HI is added to propene to form 2-iodopropane.

Q. 31 Consider the following reaction,
the product Z is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Alcohols reaction with phosphorus trihalides -
Form alkyl halides
- wherein
X = Cl, Br, I
Alcohol formation by hydration of alkenes -
Follow electrophilic addition mechanism (Markownikoff)

- wherein
Q. 32 25.3 g of sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) is dissolved in enough water to make 250 ml of

solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates completely, the molar concentration of sodium ion
(Na+) and carbonate ion are respectively (Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 g mol-1
Option 1:
0.477 M and 0.477 M
Option 2:
0.955 M and 1.910 M
Option 3:
1.910 M and 0.955 M
Option 4:
1.90 M and 1.910 M
Correct Answer:
1.910 M and 0.955 M
Solution:
Q. 33 Which one of the following is the wrong statement?
Option 1:
The uncertainty principle is:
Option 2:
Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement.
Option 3:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen-like atoms.
Option 4:
de-Broglie's wavelength is given by
where m=mass of the particle , v=group velocity of the particle
Correct Answer:
The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen-like atoms.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Total energy of electron in nth orbit -
Where z is atomic number
Total energy of electron in nth orbit
for length 2s & 2p electrons, n = 2
they have the same energy.
Q. 34 Identify the incorrect match:
Name IUPAC official name
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstaditum
Option 1:
(d), (iv)
Option 2:
(a), (i)
Option 3:
(b), (ii)
Option 4:
(c), (iv)
Correct Answer:
(d), (iv)
Solution:
Ununnunium is Roentgenium.
Q. 35 Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Both have 42 electrons and trigonal planar geometry.
So, this pair of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural.
Q. 36 For which of the following reactions, is equal to ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Molar heat capacity for isobaric process C(p) -
- wherein
or
Therefore ;
Q. 37 Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium:
Option 1:
Na2S > ZnS > CuS
Option 2:
CuS > ZnS > Na2S
Option 3:
ZnS > Na2S > CuS
Option 4:
Na2S > CuS > ZnS
Correct Answer:
Na2S > ZnS > CuS
Solution:
Ionic character of the compound decrease as the size of the cation increases and solubility decrease as
ionic character decreases.
Solubility order is
Q. 38 Given :
Based on the above thermochemical equations, find out which one of the following algebraic
relationships is correct?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Introduction to Electrochemistry -
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Electrochemistry is the branch of the science that deals with the transformation of chemical energy into
electrical energy and vice versa or it deals with the relationship between electrical and chemical energy
produced in a redox reaction.
Electrolytic Cell
Consider the following redox reaction:
In the above reaction, Zn displaces copper ions (Cu2+) from aqueous solution. This reaction can be
achieved very easily in practice. Put a Zn rod into a solution of CuSO4 (containing Cu2+ ions). It is observed
that the blue colour of CuSO4 solution disappears after some time. In this situation, Zn loses 2 electrons
per atom and Cu2+ ions in the solution accepts them. Cu2+ ions from solution in this manner are
deposited out in the form of solid Cu and Zn goes into the solution as Zn2+ (colourless). The reaction can
well be understood in terms of two half-reactions:
Now, we can make the same reaction take place even if the copper ions and zinc rod are not in direct
contact. If we put the Cu2+ ions and Zn rod in two separate containers and connect the two by a
conducting metallic wire and introduce an inverted U shape instrument (called as salt-bridge), then
electrons will still be transferred through the connecting wires. The electrons from Zn rod travel to Cu2+
ions through the connecting wires and the same reaction takes place.
-
Q. 39 The major product in the following reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction occurs as
Q. 40 In the reaction
X and Y are :
Option 1:
X = 1-Butyne ; Y = 3-Hexyne
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
(x)
(X) (Y)
Q. 41 A mixture of 100 m mol of and 2 g of sodium sulphate was dissolved in water

and the volume was made up to 100 mL .The mass of calcium sulphate formed and the
concentration of in resulting solution , respectively , are : (Molar mass of
, are 74, 143 and 136 g , respectively ;
)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given,
Mol of Na2SO4 = 2/142 = 14 m mol

Q. 42 decomposes to and and follows first order kinetics. After 50 minutes, the
pressure inside the vessel increases from 50 mmHg to 87.5 mmHg.
The pressure (in mmHg ) of the gaseous mixture after 100 minute at constant temperature
will be :
Correct Answer:
106.25
Solution:
t=0 50 0 0
t=50min
=25
t=100min
12.5
+ +
50 minutes is half-life period
for 100 minutes (2 half-life)
of Hg
Total Pressure at 100 minutes
=50+56.25
=106.25mm of Hg
Q. 43 Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect?
Option 1:
They have higher melting points than pure metal.
Option 2:
They retain metallic conductivity.
Option 3:
They are chemically reactive.
Option 4:
They are much harder than the pure metal.
Correct Answer:
They are chemically reactive.
Solution:
Formation of Interstitial Compounds -
Interstitial compounds are those which are formed when small atoms like H, C, or N are trapped inside
the crystal lattices of metals. They are usually nonstoichiometric and are neither typically ionic nor
covalent, for example, TiC, Mn4N, Fe3H, VH0.56, and TiH1.7, etc. The formulas quoted do not, of course,
correspond to any normal oxidation state of the metal. Because of the nature of their composition, these
compounds are referred to as interstitial compounds. The principal physical and chemical characteristics
of these compounds are as follows:
(i) They have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals.
(ii) They are very hard, some borides approach diamonds in hardness.
(iii) They retain metallic conductivity.
(iv) They are chemically inert.
Interstitial compounds are chemically unreactive, much harder than pure metal, they have a higher
melting point than pure metal, and retain metallic conductivity.
Q. 44 The name of the complex - is :
Option 1:
diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)
Option 2:
dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)
Option 3:
diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
Option 4:
dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)
Correct Answer:
diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
Solution:
Cation complex Anion complex
Cation Complex Metal name : Silver
Anion Complex Metal name ( Suffix-ate or Latin names )
Argentate ( Latin name of Ag )
aqua , diaqua
cyanide , dicyanido
Oxidation state of
So IUPAC Name : Diaquasilver (I) dicyanidoargentate (I)
Hence correct option is 3
Q. 45 The correct order of increasing reactivity of C - X bond towards nucleophile in the following
compound is:
Option 1:
I < II < IV < III
Option 2:
II < III < I < IV
Option 3:
IV < III < I <II
Option 4:
III < II < I < IV
Correct Answer:
I < II < IV < III
Solution:
Alkyl halides are reactive than aryl halides, as the halogen is readily available in alkyl halides than in aryl
halides due to the presence of partial double bonds between the halogen and the benzene group and
resonance also stabilizes the aryl halides. Among the alkyl halides, more stable the carbocation more is its
reactivity, tertiary carbocation bearing halides are more reactive than secondary and primary. Nitro group
which is an electron withdrawing group increases the reactivity in aryl halides.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Between OH and OMe, OH is more attacking species due to the formation of phenoxide ion by OH group.
Q. 47 Pick the correct option about the reduction of nitro group:
a) in neutral medium converts to azobenzene
b) in neutral medium converts to hydroxylamine
c) in basic medium converts to azobenzene
d) in basic medium converts to hydroxylamine
Option 1:
a,c
Option 2:
a,d
Option 3:
b,c
Option 4:
b,d
Correct Answer:
b,c
Solution:
As we have learned
Reduction in neutral medium -
In a neutral medium, it converts into hydroxylamine {Reagent Zn + NH4Cl } and in the basic medium, it
converts to azobenzene { Reagent Zn + NaOH }
- wherein
In the neutral medium, it converts to hydroxylamine and in basic medium, it converts to azobenzene.
Q. 48 At which carbon number in the chain does fructose contain a ketone group ?
Option 1:
1st
Option 2:
2nd
Option 3:
3rd
Option 4:
4th
Correct Answer:
2nd
Solution:
As we have learned
Fructose / fruit sugar -
Contain a ketonic functional group at carbon number 2
-
Structure of fructose (open chain form )
Q. 49 Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :
Option 1:
Principle quantum number
Option 2:
Magnetic quantum number
Option 3:
Azimutual quantum number
Option 4:
Spin quantum number
Correct Answer:
Spin quantum number
Solution:
As we learned in
Spin Quantum Number ( )-
It has two values +1/2 and -1/2
For the two electrons occupying the same orbital value of n, l and m are the same but is different.
Q. 50 The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is
Option 1:
unnilennium
Option 2:
unununnium
Option 3:
ununoctium
Option 4:
ununennium
Correct Answer:
ununennium
Solution:
IUPAC name of the element with atomic number 119 is ununennium
Hence correct option is 4.
Q. 51 During change of O2 to ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?
Option 1:
orbital
Option 2:
orbital
Option 3:
orbital
Option 4:
orbital
Correct Answer:
orbital
Solution:
The incoming electron during change of to will enter in .
Q. 52 Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Bond dissociation energies of the halogen family decrease down the group as the size of the atom
increases. The bond dissociation energy of fluorine, is, however, lower than those of chlorine and
bromine because of interelectronic repulsions present in the small atom of fluorine. Thus, bond energy
decreases in the order
Q. 53 At the of water is times its value at C. What will be the of neutral

solution?
Option 1:
6.13
Option 2:
7.00
Option 3:
7.87
Option 4:
5.13
Correct Answer:
6.13
Solution:
Pure water is always neutral, at different temperatures the pH scale can change but water is always
neutral.
On an increase of temperature range of the pH scale decreases.
At
At
the COrrect answer is option 1.
Q. 54 Iodine reacts with concentrated to yield Y along with other products. The oxidation
state of iodine in Y, is :
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
7
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Oxidation state of oxygen family -
Oxygen shows -2,+2 and -1
oxidation states other elements show +2,+4 and +6 oxidation states
Rules for Oxidation Number -
The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is -2. There are two exceptions.
In peroxide (H2O2; Na2O2), the oxidation number is -1.
- wherein
As we have learned in oxidation number the reaction is
The reaction occurs as follows:
Y here is HIO3 and the oxidation state of iodine in HIO3 is given below:
Q. 55 The increasing order of nucleophilicity of the following nucleophiles is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Nucleophile:-
Those electron-rich chemical species have the capacity to attack the electron-deficient portion of the
substrate.
Nucleophile must have complete octet and at least one lone pair
The order of Nucleophilicity is
Both (a) and (c) are resonance stabilized ions, so, donating tendency of electrons on oxygen is reduced,
but delocalisation of electrons is more in CH3SO3-. Thus, it is a weak nucleophile than CH3COO-. Further, it
has been found that a reactive atom bearing a negative charge is always a better nucleophile than the
same neutral atom.
Thus, OH- is a better nucleophile than H2O.
Therefore, d > a > c > b
Q. 56 Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire composition range . At 350 K , the vapor
pressures of pure A and pure B are , respectively . The
composition of the vapor in equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mol percent of A at this
temperature is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know that
Q. 57 for a reaction
What is the rate of the reaction with respect to A?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Rate of reaction -
The rate of the reaction during the courses of a reaction in any instant of time is the change in
concentration of reacting species. Rate is a positive quantity.
Q. 58 Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
(At no.s. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)
Option 1:
Yb2+
Option 2:
Ce2+
Option 3:
Sm2+
Option 4:
Eu2+
Correct Answer:
Yb2+
Solution:
The electron configuration of Yb is [Xe] 4f14,6s 2 and due to no unpaired electrons in Yb2+ it is diamagnetic.
Q. 59 The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes
is
Option 1:
(C)>(B)>(A)
Option 2:
(C)>(A)>(B)
Option 3:
(B)>(A)>(C)
Option 4:
(A)>(B)>(C)
Correct Answer:
(C)>(A)>(B)
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Energy absorbed by complexes depends upon the sitting energy.
Metal ion remaining save, splitting is greater for strong field chelating ligands.
Order of sitting in given complexes is
(C) (A) (B)
hence correct option is 2.
Q. 60 Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Electron withdrawing groups are the keys to increase the probability of Nucleophilic substitution.
has electron withdrawing group -NO2 which reduces the double bond character between
carbon of benzene ring and chlorine. Thus, the correct order of nucleophilic substitution reactions.
Hence, the correct order of nucleophilic substitution reactions are,
Maths
Q. 1
Let a function be defined by
Then is:
Option 1:
not injective but surjective
Option 2:
both injective as well as surjective
Option 3:
neither injective nor surjective
Option 4:
injective only
Correct Answer:
not injective but surjective
Solution:
Curve of
Hence, it is not injective but surjective
Q. 2 If are in A.P. and are also in A.P. , then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Double Angle Formula -
- wherein
These are formulae for double angles.
are in A.P
But
from (1) and (2)
Thus
Q. 3 Let and be the roots of equation are in A.P. and

then the value of is ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein

- wherein
Also
Also p+r =2q
Q. 4 On the sides AB,BC,CA, of 3,4,5 distibct points (excuding vertices A,B,C) are
respectively chosen. the number of trangles that can be constructed using these chosen
points as vertices are:
Option 1:
210
Option 2:
205
Option 3:
215
Option 4:
220
Correct Answer:
205
Solution:
Single triangle needs 3 vertices
Case 1:
One point in each side
Case 2:
1 point from side AB & 2 points from BC
Case 3:
1 point from side BC & 2 points from AC
Case 4:
1 point from side AC & 2 points from BC

Case 5:
1 point from side AB & 2 points from AC
Case 6:
1 point from side AC & 2 points from AB
Total Triangle = 60+18+12+40+30+30+15=205
Second Approach
Totel vertices =3+4+5=12
Q. 5 If and be the coefficients of and respectively in the expansion of
then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know
Now,
Correct Option (2)
Q. 6 The sum of the first 20 terms common between the series 3+7+11+15+..... and
1+6+11+16+..... , is :
Correct Answer:
4020
Solution:
Use
Sum of n terms of an AP -
or
where
first term
common difference
number of terms
Now,
series are 3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31..............
and 1,6,11,16,21,26,31....................
So common terms are 11,31,............
It is an AP with a = 11, d = 20
Q. 7 A line in the 3-dimensional space makes an angle with both the x and the y
axes. Then the set of all possible values of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the direction angles be
We get
Q. 8 Let . Then is an increasing function in the interval :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9 If 12 identical balls are to be placed in 3 identical boxes, then the probability that one of the
boxes contains exactly 3 balls is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
defined as
- wherein
Q. 10
If and and
then K is equal to:
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
-1
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Given determinant can be written as
Expressing it as a product of two determinants
Now we know that each of these determinants equal
Hence, given expression
Q. 11 The curve satisfying the differential equation, and passing

through the point (1, 1) is:
Option 1:
a circle of radius one
Option 2:
a hyperbola
Option 3:
an ellipse
Option 4:
a circle of radius two
Correct Answer:
a circle of radius one
Solution:
If y = kx
At (1 , 1), C = 2
The radius of circle = 1
Q. 12 A hyperbola whose transverse axis is along the major axis of the conic
and has vertices at the foci of this conic. If the eccentricity of the
hyperbola is then which of the following points does NOT lie on it ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
the eccentricity of the hyperbola
Clearly point does not lies on it.
Q. 13 The area (in square units) of the region bounded by the curves y + 2x2 = 0 and y + 3x2 = 1 , is
equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area along x axis -
x = a and x = b is
- wherein
Where
y+2x2=0; y+3x2=1
y= -2x2; y=1-3x2
Calculate the point of intersection first
-2x2= 1-3x2
=> x2=1
=> x= 1
=>
=>
Q. 14 Let respectively be the position vectors of the

points A,B and C with respect to the origin O.
If the distance of C from the bisector of the acute angle between OA and OB is , then the
sum of all possible values of is:
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
- wherein
Here
Angle bisector passes through and origin.

Angle bisector is x - y = 0
Perpendicular distance from c =
Answer is
Q. 15
Let be defined by Then the range of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
(-1,1)-{0}
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Range of function -
All possible values of domain is known as Range

-
Range of
Q. 16
The expression can be written as:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 Let be a complex number. Then the set of all complex numbers z satisfying
the equation for some real number k, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Property of Modulus of z(Complex Number) -
- wherein
|.| denotes modulus of complex number
Definition of Modulus of z(Complex Number) -
is the distance of z from origin in Argand plane

- wherein
Real part of z = Re (z) = a & Imaginary part of z = Im (z) = b
Now,
And
Q. 18 5- digit numbers are to be formed using 2,3,5,7,9 without repeating the digits.If p be the
number of such numbers that exceed 20000 and q be the number of those that lie between
30000 and 90000 then p:q is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Number greater than 20000 or p
1st place can be placed with 5 possibilities and second with 4 possibilities and so on
So
And
Number greater than 30000 and less than 90000 or q
1st place can be placed with 3 possibilities(3,5,7) and second with 4 possibilities and so on
So
Q. 19 The coefficient of in the expansion of is
Correct Answer:
615
Solution:
has general term
With a + b + c = 10 .....(i)
For coefficient of x4, b + 2c = 4 .....(ii)
Possible combinations of a, b and c satisfying (i) and (ii) both are
1. When c = 0, b = 4 (from (ii)) , and a = 6 (from (i))
So, (8,0,2), (7,2,1), (6, 4, 0)
So, coefficients are = 615
Q. 20 Let G be the geometric mean of two positive numbers a and b, and M be the arithmetic
mean of and
if is 4:5 then a:b can be:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Arithmetic mean of two numbers (AM)
and
Geometric mean of two numbers (GM) -
Now, given G2 = ab
and
Q. 21 Let A (2, 3 ,5), B (-1, 3, 2) and C be the vertices of a ABC. If the median through A
is equally inclined to the coordinate axes, then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Direction Ratios -
(i) if a,b,c are direction ratios then direction cosines will be
(ii) Direction ratios of line joining two given points
is given by
(iii) If be a vector with direction cosines l, m, n then
-
DRS of median =
All are same,
Thus,
Q. 22 If
then the minimum value of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
clearly, tan A + tan B is minimum when
Q. 23 The mean of the data set comprising of 16 observations is 16. If one of the observation
valued 16 is deleted and three new observations valued 3, 4 and 5 are added to the data,
then the mean of the resultant data is
Option 1:
16.8
Option 2:
16.0
Option 3:
15.8
Option 4:
14.0
Correct Answer:
14.0
Solution:
Given, old mean = 16
For new data set, sum of all observations is
New number of observations = 18

New mean
Q. 24 If A is an 3 x 3 non - singular matrix such that AA' = A'A and B = A-1 A' , then BB' equals :
Option 1:
B-1
Option 2:
(B-1)'
Option 3:
I+B
Option 4:
I
Correct Answer:
I
Solution:
As we learnt in
Property of Transpose -
- wherein
A ' is the conjugate matrix of
So that
Now,
[since A-1A = I and multiply by A-1]

Q. 25
Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation , where
If
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Solution of differential equations -
In order to obtain the solution of differential equation, we integrate it as many times as the order of the
differential equation
Solving
This is in the form of first order linear differential equation
solution of the equation is

So,
Q. 26 Two sides of a rhombus are along the lines, x−y+1=0 and 7x−y−5=0. If its diagonals intersect
at (−1, −2), then which one of the following is a vertex of this rhombus ?
Option 1:
(−3, −9)
Option 2:
(−3, −8)
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Slope – point from of a straight line -

- wherein
slope
point through which line passes
Point of intersection of AB and AD is
Let C be
and
Slope of
Hence, slope of
equation of
Point satisfies the line BD
Q. 27
If where C is a constant, then g(2) is equal
to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
standard formulas.
- wherein
Put
So,
Q. 28 Let , and be coplanar

vectors.
Then the non-zero vector is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Coplanar vectors -
A given number of vectors are called coplanar if their line segments are parallel to the same plane.
- wherein
Two vectors are always coplanar.
For three coplanar vectors,
- wherein
, and are three coplanar vectors.

for
for
Hence, option (3) is the correct answer,
Q. 29
Let R : x is not a positive integer. Define a function as
then f is:
Option 1:
injective but not surjective
Option 2:
neither injective nore surjective
Option 3:
not injective
Option 4:
surjective but not injective
Correct Answer:
injective but not surjective
Solution:
One - One or Injective function -

A function in which every element of range of function corresponds to exactly one elements.
- wherein
A line parallel to x - axis cut the curve at most one point.
This can be written as
f is one-one i.e injective but not surjective.
Q. 30 ABCD is a trapezium such that AB and CD are parallel and BC CD.
If ADB = , BC= p and CD = q, then AB is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
,
Thus
Q. 31 If equations
, and
Have a common root ,then a:b:c equals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Quadratic Expression Graph when a > 0 & D < 0 -
No Real and Equal root of
&
- wherein
Condition for both roots common -
- wherein
&
are the 2 equations
has determinant = 9-32 = -23 < 0
So , non real roots which means both roots are common (as complex roots occurs in conjugate )
So, a:b:c = 2:3:4

Q. 32 A committee of 4 person is to be formed from 2 ladies , 2 old men and 4 young men such
that it includes at least 1 lady, at least 1 old man and at most 2 young men . Then the total
number of ways in which this committee can be formed is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Case 1
0 young men 2 old men and 2 lady
Case 2
Case 3
Case 4
Hence
Q. 33
In the expansion of , if is the least value of the term independent
of when and is the least value of the term independent of when

, then the ratio is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
General Term of Binomial Expansion
Term independent of x: It means term containing x0,
Now,
Correct option 1
Q. 34
The least positive integer n such that is
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
6
Option 4:
7
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Use @4
Let
SD minimum value of n is 6
Q. 35 The plane containing the line and parallel to the line

passes through the point
Option 1:
(1, -2, 5)
Option 2:
(1, 0, 5)
Option 3:
(0, 3, -5)
Option 4:
(-1, -3, 0)
Correct Answer:
(1, 0, 5)
Solution:
Line is
The normal vector of plane is
As the point (1, 2, 3) lies on the line, so it also lies on the plane
So equation of the plane is
5(x - 1) - (y - 2) - (z - 3) = 0
5x - y - z = 5 - 2 - 3 = 0
5x - y - z = 0
It passes through (1,0,5)
Q. 36
Let then log p
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
1 to the power of infinity Form -
It is form
Q. 37
Let A and B two events such that
where stands for the complement of the event A. Then the events A and B are :
Option 1:
independent but not equally likely.
Option 2:
independent and equally likely.
Option 3:
mutually exclusive and independent.
Option 4:
equally likely but not independent.
Correct Answer:
independent but not equally likely.
Solution:
As learnt
Addition Theorem of Probability -
in general:
and
Independent events -
If A and B are independent events then A and as well as and B are independent events.
- wherein
Also,
Q. 38 If a, b, c are non - zero real numbers and if the system of equations
has a non-trivial solution, then ab+bc+ca equals :
Option 1:
a+b+c
Option 2:
abc
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
-1
Correct Answer:
abc
Solution:
As we learnt in
When and ,
- wherein
and
Q. 39
Let be the solution of the differential equation,
If then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein
Multiply by which is the Integrating factor
- wherein
P is the function of x alone
Putting x = 2 we get C = 0
Q. 40 The centres of those circles which touch the circle, x2+y2−8x−8y−4=0, externally and also
touch the x-axis, lie on :
Option 1:
a circle.
Option 2:
an ellipse which is not a circle.
Option 3:
a hyperbola.
Option 4:
a parabola.
Correct Answer:
a parabola.
Solution:
As we learnt in
Common tangents of two circles -
When two circles touch each other externally, there are three common tangents, two of them are direct.
- wherein
Circle touching x-axis and having radius r -

- wherein
Where f is a variable parameter.
Standard equation of parabola -
- wherein
Circle:
externally
radius of circle touching x-axis=k,
we get
On squaring both sides
compared to
Represent a parabola
Q. 41 Let be a function such that
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
Properties of Definite Integration -
For periodic function
Let Period (T) then
- wherein
Where is periodic function with period T and n is any integer.
Hence
Q. 42 Let and be three

vectors such that the projection vector of on is . If is perpendicular to ,
then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Projection of vector a on vector b -
- wherein

- wherein
Here
From the concept we have learnt
Projection of on
and,
From (1) and (2)
and
Q. 43 In a class of 140 students numbered 1 to 140, all even numbered students opted
Mathematics course, those whose number is divisible by 3 opted Physics course and those
whose number is divisible by 5 opted Chemistry course. Then the number of students who
did not opt for any of the three courses is;
Option 1:
102
Option 2:
42
Option 3:
1
Option 4:
38
Correct Answer:
38
Solution:
Number of Elements in Union A , B & C -
n (A ∪ B ∪ C) = n (A) + n (B) + n (C) – n (A ∩ B) – n (A ∩ C) – n (B ∩ C) + n (A ∩ B ∩ C)
- wherein
Given A, B and C be any finite sets. then Number of Elements in union A , B & C is given by this formula.
From the concept,
Let n(M) = no. of students opted maths = 70
n(P) = student opted physics = 40
n(C) = student opted chemistry = 28
n(M ∩ P) = number of students opted for physics and maths = 23
n(M ∩ C) = number of students opted for maths and chemistry = 14
n(P ∩ C) = number of students opted for physics and chemistry = 9
n(M ∩ P ∩ C) = number of students opted for all three students = 4
So the total number of students who opted for at least one subject =
n(M ⋃ P ⋃ C) = n(M) + n(P) + n(C) - n(M ∩ P) - n(M ∩ C) - n(P ∩ C) + n(M ∩ P ∩ C)
So putting the values, we have
n(M ⋃ P ⋃ C) = 70+46+28-23-14-9+4 = 102
Hence total no. of students who not adopted for any course = total number of students -total number of
students who opted for at least one course = 140 - 102 = 38
Q. 44 PQR is a triangular park with PQ=PR=200 m. A T.V. tower stands at the mid-point of QR. If the
angles of elevation of the top of the tower at P, Q
and R are respectively 45º, 30º and 30º, then the height of the tower (in m) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
100
Option 3:
50
Option 4:
100
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
As we learnt in
Angle of Depression -
If an object is below the horizontal line from the eye, we have to lower our head to view the object.
- wherein
In
Q. 45
if are the root of equation ,
then the equation has root
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
- wherein

- wherein
We have ,
Now ,
Q. 46 The number of ways of choosing 10 objects out of 31 objects of which 10 are identical and
the remaining 21 are distinct, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Theorem of Combination
combination.
Now,
Number of Identical objects chosen Number to be chosen from 21 distinct objects Number of ways
10 0 1.21C0
9 1 1.21C1
8 2 1.21C2
7 3 1.21C3
6 4 1.21C4
5 5 1.21C5
4 6 1.21C6
3 7 1.21C7
2 8 1.21C8
1 9 1.21C9
0 10 1.21C10
Now, we know
So,
Q. 47 If and then k is
equal to _________.
Correct Answer:
51
Solution:
Properties of Binomial Theorem and Binomial Coefficient
Now,
General term for given series is: (4r + 1).25Cr
Applying summation
k = 51
Q. 48 The sum of first 20 terms of the sequence 0.7 ,0.77,0.777,.........,is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 49 A symmetrical form of the line of intersection of the planes

is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
is given by
- wherein
x-ay-b=0 and cy-z+d=0
Normal vector will be
Vector =
So DRs are (a, 1, c)
Put y=1
x=a+b and z=c+d
So live becomes
Q. 50 A wire of length 2 units is cut into two parts which are bent respectively to form a square of
side=x units and a circle of radius=r units. If the sum of the areas of the square and the
circle so formed is minimum, then :
Option 1:
2x = (π+4) r
Option 2:
(4−π) x = πr
Option 3:
x = 2r
Option 4:
2x = r
Correct Answer:
x = 2r
Solution:
As we learnt in
Circle -
A circle is the locus of a moving point such that its distance from a fixed point is constant.
- wherein
Let the length of two parts be 'a' and '2-a'
and
where x is side of square
r is radius of circle
sum of Areas
of
Hence
Q. 51 The variance of first 50 even natural numbers is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As learnt
Variance -
In case of discrete data
Q. 52 If B is a 3x3 matrix such that B2=0, then det. [ (I + B)50 - 50B] is equal to :
Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
As we learnt in
-
Since so that
OR
Q. 53
For if , then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
- wherein
eg:
Using both sides
Q. 54 If one of the diameters of the circle, given by the equation, x2 + y2 − 4x + 6y − 12=0, is a chord
of a circle S, whose centre is at (−3, 2), then the radius of S is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
General form of a circle -
- wherein
centre =
radius =
Radius of given circle =5
Distance between centres= and
Now
Q. 55 Let be a continuous function. If
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
NEWTON LEIBNITZ THEOREM -
By newton leibnitz rule
Putting
Q. 56 Let and
be three vectors such that
and is perpendicular to .Then a possible value of is:
Option 1:
(1,3,1)
Option 2:
(-1/2,4,0)
Option 3:
(1/2,4,-2)
Option 4:
(1,5,1)
Correct Answer:
(-1/2,4,0)
Solution:
Scalar multiplication -
- wherein
The directed line segment becomes m times longer
- wherein
Here
From the concept
Given,
................................(1)
Given and is perpendicular
So,
...........................(2)
Now,
satisfies this.
Q. 57
For , let and be three given
functions. If a function, satisfies then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given that
Given
Now,
Q. 58 If sum of all the solutions of the equation

in is
, then k is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Triple Angle Formula -

- wherein
These are formulae for triple angles.
General Solution of Trigonometric Ratios -
- wherein
is the given angle
Q. 59
If z1, z2 and z3, z4 are 2 pairs of complex conjugate numbers, then
equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given
and
So,
Q. 60 All possible numbers are formed using the digits 1,1,2,2,2,2,3,4,4 taken all at a time. The
number of such numbers in which the odd digits occupy even places is :
Option 1:
180
Option 2:
160
Option 3:
175
Option 4:
162
Correct Answer:
180
Solution:
PERMUTATION OF OBJECTS WHEN FEW ARE IDENTICAL -
If there n objects of which p objects are of one type, q objects of another type, r objects of yet another
type and all others are distinct, the total number of ways of arranging all the objects is
Theorem of Combination -
combination.
Now,
We have total 4 even place and 3 odd digits (1,1,3) should come at these places
Number of way placing odd digit at even places =
Number of ways placing even digits
So total number of ways =

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KCET 2024

What You Will Find in the Ebook:

● Preparation Study Material: Access curated study materials designed to cater

KCET Exam Pattern 2024

Section Name No of Questions

Units and Measurements

Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry

Preparation Study Material

Chapter Name - Physics and Measurement

Chapter Name - Kinematics

Chapter Name - Laws Of Motion

Chapter Name - Rotational Motion

Chapter Name - Gravitation

Chapter Name - Properties of Solids and Liquids

Chapter Name - Kinetic Theory of Gases

Chapter Name - Thermodynamics

Chapter Name - Oscillations and Waves

Chapter Name - Electrostatics

7 Electric Field Due To A Uniformly Charged Ring STUDY HERE

10 Motion of charged particle in uniform electric field STUDY HERE

18 Relation Between Electric Field And Potential STUDY HERE

Potential Due To Hollow Conductiong, Solid

24 Potential Energy Of A Dipole In An Electric Field STUDY HERE

28 Combination Of Capacitors - Parallel And Series STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Current Electricity

Chapter Name - Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism

Chapter Name - Electromagnetic Induction And Alternating Currents

Chapter Name - Electromagnetic Waves

Chapter Name - Optics

40 Polarization By Reflection And Brewster's Law STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation

Chapter Name - Atoms And Nuclei

Chapter Name - Electronic Devices

Chapter Name - Communication Systems

Chapter Name - Some Basic Concepts In Chemistry

Chapter Name - Atomic Structure

Chapter Name - Classification Of Elements And Periodic Table

Chapter Name - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Chapter Name - Chemical Thermodynamics

Chapter Name - Redox Reaction and Electrochemistry

Chapter Name - Solutions

Chapter Name - Chemical Kinetics

Chapter Name - The d- and f-Block Elements

Chapter Name - Coordination Compounds

Chapter Name - Hydrocarbons

Chapter Name - Organic Compounds containing Halogens

Chapter Name - Organic Compounds containing Oxygen

Chapter Name - Biomolecules

Chapter Name - Sets, Relations and Functions

Chapter Name - Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations

3 Algebraic operation on Complex Numbers STUDY HERE

Chapter Name - Trigonometry

Chapter Name - Matrices and Determinants

Chapter Name - Sequence and Series

Chapter Name - Co-ordinate geometry

Chapter Name - Limit , Continuity and Differentiability

Chapter Name - Integral Calculus

Chapter Name - Differential Equations

Chapter Name - Vector Algebra