PC CRT Merged Sol

All India Chapter Wise Revision Test-1 / [Solution] CRACK NEET 2021 / CRT / 01-Jan.
-2021
PHYSICS
1. (D) [NCERT-22] 5. (C) [NCERT-22]
'd 'x 'a 1 'b 1 'c

u 100 u 100 u 100 u 100
Given ×100 = 3% x a 3 b 2 c
d
1 1
4 1 u3 u4 4%
As V = Sr3 3 2
3
6. (D) [NCERT-16 ]
1 3 Dimension of E = ML2T–2
= Sd
6 = kg - m2 - sec–2.
7. (B) [NCERT-16]
'V 'd Joule is S.I. System, the unit of work.
so ×100 = 3 ×100 = 3 × 3% = 9%
V d 8. (D) [NCERT-32]
2. (B) [NCERT-36]
mv 2
Centripetal force =
m r
U
ASr2 = MLT–2.
9. (B) [NCERT-16 ]
'U 'm 2'r 'A

U m r A Stress
Y
Strain
'A 0.06 cm, A 12cm; 'r 0.005cm;r 1cm
= ML–1T–2 = kg m–1 sec–2.
m = 0.3 gm; 'm = 0.003 gm 10. (B) [NCERT- 16]
'U 2.5 u 100 'U S = a + bt + c t 2 2
? u 100 2.5%
U 100 U
s bt ½ s c 2t2
¾
3. (A) [NCERT-35] [LT 1 ] b °¿ c [L1/ 2 T 1 ]
11. (D) [NCERT- 32]

§ 'R ·
? ¨ u 100 ¸
© R ¹max d
V a bt
ct
'V 'i 4 0.2
= u 100 u 100 u 100 u 100 a = [LT–1], b = [LT–2], d = [L], C = [T]
V i 50 20
12. (A) [NCERT-31]
= (8 + 1)% = 9%
V Sr 2l
4. (B) [NCERT-22]
'V § 'r 'l ·
2 u 100 u 100¸
abc 2 V ©¨ r l ¹
P
d3 e1/ 2
§ 0.01 0.1·
'P ª 1 'a 1 'b 'c 'd 1 'e º ¨© 2 u 2 50 ¸¹ u 100
u 100 « 2 u a 2 u b c 3 u d 2 u e » u 100
P ¬ ¼
= 0.01 × 100 + 0.02 × 100
ª1 1 º = 1 + 2 = 3%.
« 2 u 2% 2 u 3% 2% 3 u 1% 2 u 8%»
¬ ¼ 13. (B) [NCERT-31]
= [1% + 1.5% + 2% + 3% + 4%] M6 G2 M6 .[M1L3 T 2 ]2
= [M] = mass.
The maximum amount of error is contributed by EJ2 [ML2 T 2 ] [ML2 T 1 ]2
the measurement of e.
NLI / 2
All India Chapter Wise Revision Test-1 / [Solution] CRACK NEET 2021 / CRT / 01-Jan.-2021
14. (A) [NCERT- 31] 21. (A) [NCERT-27]
Y = a sin (Bt – Ax + C) A, B and C are const. Volume of liquid coming out of the tube per second
T = At 4
V2 ª r2 º
A = [L ] –1
« »
V1 ¬ r1 ¼
B = [T–1]
= V1(1.05)4 = 1.2178 volt
C = [M0L0T0].
15. (D) [NCERT- 31] 'V V2 V1 1.2178 V
21.78%
V V V
16. (D) [NCERT-31 ]
Approx 22%
M 3M 3 u 2 u 1030 22. (C) [NCERT-32]
U
4 2 4SR2 4 u 3.14 u (7 u 108 )3 Dimension of m2 / c2 = [M2L–2T2].
SR
3
23. (A) [NCERT-24]
= 1.392 × 103 kg/m3
Length of rod A is
17. (C) [NCERT-22]
LA = 3.25 ± 0.01 and that of B is LB = 4.19 ± 0.01
1 T
LC or Then, the rod B is longer than rod A by a length
2SX 2S
'l = LB – LA
1 'l = (4.19 ± 0.01) – (3.25 ± 0.01)
X
T
'l = (0.94 ± 0.02) cm
So, LC has the dimension of time. 24. (B) [NCERT-27]
18. (B) [NCERT- 32]
DZ
T v Pa SbDc In the given equation, should be dimensionless
kT
[T] = [ML–1T–2]a [MT–2]b [ML–3]c
kT
T = [Ma+b+c L–a–3c T–2a–2b] ?D
Z
a + b + c = 0 , –a – 3c = 0 – 2a – 2 b = 1
[ML2 T 2K 1 ][K] D
a = –3/2, b = 1, c = 1/2 [D ] [MLT 2 ] and p
[L] E
19. (B) [NCERT-32]
Angular momentum (J) ªD º [MLT 2 ]
[E] «p » [M0L2 T 0 ]
dJ ¬ ¼ [ML1T 2 ]
Fur
dt 25. (D) [NCERT-32]
F.LT = J. The Richardosons equation is given by J= AT 2
e I /KT the dimensional formula for I is same as
FL2 T
J that for kT.
L
26. (A) [NCERT-32]
FA If force (f), acceleration due to gravity (g) and
J [FAv 1 ] J pressure (p) are taken as the fundamental units,
LT 1
what will be the dimensional formula for mass in
20. (D) [NCERT- 34] this system of units [fg–1p0].
1 2 LQ2 27. (A) [NCERT-27]
Magnetic energy LT
2 2T 2 l
g 4S 2
(L = inductance, I = current) t2
Energy has the dimensions = [ML2T–2] Taking log and differentiating
Equate the dimensions, we have
'g 'l 't
2 2 ? 2
[Q ] [ML ] g l t
[ML2T–2] = henry × henry
[T 2 ] [Q2 ]
= 1 %+ 2 × 3 % = 7%
NLI / 3
28. (D) [Class notes ] 32. (D) [NCERT-33]
2 lvh v G
a b c
P0 H0
[L] = [ML2T–1]a [LT–1]b [ML3T–2]c
1 [M0L1T0] = [Ma–c] [L2a + b +3c] [T–a – b – 2c]
c
P0 H0 a–c=0
a=c ....(i)
1 1 2a + b + 3c = 1 .....(ii)
So, c
2
P 0 H0 –a – b – 2c = 0 .....(iii)
P0 H0 c2
Solving these equaiton
1 1 1 1 3
2
2
c ,a ,b
P0 H0 § 1· 2 2 2
¨© 2 ¸¹
c 1 3 1
l h2 v 2 G2
1
c 4 [L4 T 4 ] hG
1 =
v3 / 2
c4
33. (D) [NCERT-31]
29. (A) [NCERT-31] [MLT ] = [MLT ] [L ] [T ]
–2 –1 2 b c
[ML–3] v [MLT
T–2]a [LT–1]b [T]c ML2T–2 = [Ma] [La–2b] [T–a + c]
ML–3 v Ma La+b T–2a – b + c a = 1, a + 2b = 2, –a + c = 2
a = 1, a + b = 2, –a + c = 2
a = 1, a + b = –3, –2a – b + c = 0
1 + b = 2, –1 + c = –2
b = –4 b = 1/2, c = –1
–2 + 4 + c = 0 FV–4T–2 [M1L1/2T–1]
2+c=0 a=1 34. (C) [NCERT-32]
c = –2. Y = 1.9 × 1011 N/m 2
30. (D) [NCERT-33] 1.9 u 1011 u 105

= 4
dyne / cm2
[ML2T–1] = [ML2T–2]a [LT–1]b [T]c 10
ML2T–1 = M2 L2a+b T –2a – b + c = 1.9 × 1012 dyne/cm2.
a = 1, –2 + c = –1 35. (A) [NCERT-31]
2a + b = 2, c = 1 av = 1
b = 0. 1
a v 1
31. (B) [NCERT-32] v
Vc v K U r x y z the dimension of v is equal to dimension of c (speed
of light).
F = 6 H here
[MLT–2] = n [L] [LT–1] 1
c
P0 H0
[MLT 2 ] 1 1
n [ML T ] a = v–1 = c–1
[L2 T 1 ]
= P0 H0
P = [ML–3]
[LT–1] = [ML–1T–1]x [ML–3]y [L]z 36. (A) [NCERT-27]
LT –1 = [Mx + y] [L–x – 3y + z] [T –x] Significant figure in 1.0030 is 5.
x+y=0 ......(i)
– x – 3y + z = 1 ......(ii) 37. (C) [NCERT-27]
–x = –1 –1 – 3 (–1) + Z = 1
Significant figure in 1.00 is 3.
x=1 –1 + 3 + Z = 1
y = –1 2+Z=1Z=1–2 38. (C) [NCERT- 16]
Joule is S.I. System, the unit of energy.
1, –1, –1 Z = –1.
NLI / 4
39. (A) [NCERT-31]
Density = 0.5 g/cc
0.5 u 10 3
kg / m3
(102 )3
= 0.5 × 103
= 500 kg.
40. (D) [NCERT-31]
volt
Electric field intensity =
meter
41. (C) [NCERT-27]
There is one significant figure .
42. (C) [NCERT-31]
§ L ·
Dimension of ¨
© RCV ¸¹
L
'Q CV, t
R
§ L · T
Dimension of ¨ [A 1 ]
RCV ¸¹ AT
=
©
43. (A) [NCERT-27]
There is 5.
44. (B) [NCERT-31]

Work and torque have same dimension
= [ML2T–2].
45. (A) [NCERT-32]
L
t
R
1 R
frequency =
time L
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (C) [NCERT 19] 55. (C) [NCERT 18]
wt. of solute 20 C2H4 + 3O2 o 2CO2 + 2H2O

% w/w = wt. of solution u 100 20 60
u 100 1 mole 3 mole
28 gm 96 gm
= 25%
47. (B) [NCERT 19] 28 gm ethylene require 96 gm O2
vol. of solute 10 2.8 gm ethylene require 9.6 gm O2

% v/v = vol. of solution u 100 10 120
u 100
56. (C) [CBSE 2004]
= 7.7% Equal volumes contain equal no. of molecules.
48. (A) [NCERT 19] Hence No. of atoms of H2, He, O2 and O3 will be in
wt. of solute 7.5 the ratio 2 : 1 : 2 : 3.
% w/v = vol. of solution u 100 100
u 100
57. (D) [NCERT 25]
= 7.5% wt of Solute(gm)
Conc. of Solution u 106
49. (D) [NCERT 14] wt of Solution(gm)
64 u 100
M.M = 10
43.8 = u 10 6
1000
50. (D) [NCERT15]
= 104
The reaction taking place
58. (C) [NCERT 20]
CaCO3 + 2HCl o CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O
wt. of solvent = 300 – 10 = 290 gm
Moles of CO2 = Moles of pure CaCO3.
(m = V.D = 25×1.2 = 300 gm)
51. (C) [NCERT 17]
The reaction taking place is w 1000
m= u
C3H8 + O2 o 3CO2 GMM w(solvent)
20 ml 60 ml
10 1000
and CH4+CO+O2 o 2CO2 = u = 0.945
36.5 290
80 ml 80 ml
59. (A) [CBSE 2000]
Total = 60+80 = 140 ml 1m = 10 lt.
3 3
52. (A) [NCERT 15]

Vlt 1000
6.02 u 1023 no. of moles = =
No. of moles of electron = 1 mole 22.4 22.4
6.02 u 1023
= 44.6 molt.
10 mole electron = 1 mole H2O = 18 gm
60. (B) [NCERT 24]
53. (A) [NCERT 16]
no. of atom = no. of molecule × no. of atom in 1
W u 1000 molecule
2
250 u 63 nNo×atom
W = 31.5
so the compound having max. no. of mole having
31.5 u 100 largest no. of atom
Wt. of conc. HNO3 =
70 or (having low m.wt.)
54. (B) [NCERT 22] in this question it is Na.
No. of H atom = nNA×6
61. (B) [NCERT 24]
= 3NA×6
= 18 NA Mass of single atom of carbon
No. of C atom = nNA×2 12 12
1.9927 u 10 23 g
= 3NA×2 NA = 6.023 u 1023
= 6NA
NLI / 6
62. (D) [CBSE 1999] 68. (C) [NC 17-18]
4.48 22.4 L of methane reacts with 44.8 L of oxygen to
n1 = 0.2 give 22.4 L of CO2 and 44.8 L of water.
22.4
69. (C) [NCERT 25]
6.02 u 1021 Atomic mass of He = 4 gm
n2 = 10–2
6.02 u 1023
100
100 gm of He contain u N0 25N0 atoms
33.6 4
n3 = 1.5
22.4 of He
36 70. (C) [NCERT 18]
n4 =3
18 1.6
No.of moles (n) =
So 36 gm water have max. no. of moles (C) 16
63. (C) [NCERT 35] N = nNA = 0.1 NA
The definition of % by volume. No. of electron = 0.1 NA×10 = NA
64. (B) [CBSE 2004] 71. (C) [CBSE 1994]
4.4 72. (C) [NCERT-18]
Molecules of CO2 = = 0.1 No According to the chemical equation,
44
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) o CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
4.48
Molecules of O2 = = .2 No. 44 g CO2(g) is obtained from 16 g CH4(g).
22.4
[' 1 mol CO2(g) is obtained from 1 mol of CH4(g)]
total molecules = 0.3 No
mole of CO2(g)
= 0.3x6.023x1023
= 18.069x1022 1 mol CO2 (g)
= 22 g CO2 (g) u
= 1.8069 x1023 44 g CO2 (g) = 0.5 mol CO2 (g)
65. (A) [NC 17-19]
Hence, 0.5 mol CO2(g) would be obtained from 0.5
2 g H2 = 1 mole + 32 g O2 = 1 mole mol CH4 (g) or 0.5 mol of CH4(g) would be required
Total volume of 2 moles of gases at NTP = to produce 22 g CO2(g).
2 × 22.4 L = 44.8 L 73. (A) [NCERT 18]
66. (A) [NCERT 19, AIPMT 2014]
Vlt 5.6 1
Reaction involved is : n
22.4 22.4 4
H2(g) + Cl2(g) o 2HCl
Given 22.4 liter 11.2 liter 1
N = nNA = u 6.02 u 10 23
limiting reagent is Cl2 4
and from stoichiometry = 1.5×1023
moles of HCl formed = 2 ×mole of Cl2 74. (D) [CBSE 2003]
11.2 75. (B) [NCERT 17]
= 2× =1
22.4 The balanced equation for combustion of methane
67. (A) [NCERT 19, AIPMT 2014] is :
Reaction is : CH4(g) + 2O2(g) o CO2(g) + 2H2O (g)
2 Mg + O2 o 2MgO (i) 16 g of CH4 corresponds to one mole.
(ii) From the above equation, 1 mol of CH4(g) gives 2
1 0.56
no. of moles of Mg = , no. of mole of O2= mol of H2O(g).
24 32
2 mol of water (H2O = 2×(2 + 16)
hence O2 is limiting reagent
= 2x18 = 36 g
hence reactant in excess is Mg from stoichiometric
48 u 0.56 18 g H2O
1 mol H2O = 18 g H2O 1
calculation moles of Mg reacts = 1 mol H2O
32
= 0.84 18 g H2O
Hence 2 mol H2O ×
hence moles of Mg left = 1– 0.84 1 mol H2O
= 0.16 = 2 × 18 g H2O = 36 g H2O
NLI / 7
76. (C) [NCERT 18]
32x + 28 (100-x)
CaCO3(S) o CaO(s) + CO2 14.4×2 =
100
100 gm 56 gm
volume of oxygen at STP
100 gm CaCO3 gives 56 gm CaO No. of mole =
22.4
56 87. (A) [NCERT 15]
30 gm ...................... u 30 = 16.8 CaO
100
2.3
77. (B) [NCERT 13] MM of x =
0.1
1 atom = 108 amu
= 108×1.66×10–24 gm 0.008 u 6.021 u 10 23
and MM of y =
= 1.79×10–25 Kg 3.01 u 1020
78. (A) [NCERT 15] 88. (C) [NCERT 15]
% of element = CH3COOH o 2CO + 2H2O
No. of atoms per molecule u at. wt. u 100 25×1.2

No. of moles of CH3COOH =
molecular mass 60
89. (D) [NCERT 13]
2 u 23 Average mol. mass of mixture = 2×V.D.
= u 100 = 32.39%
142
= 2×38.3 = 76.6
79. (A) [NCERT 18] Let mixture contains a moles of NO2 and b moles
14 g of N3– ions have valence electrons = 8 NA of N2O4
4.2 g of N3– ions have valence electrons a u 46 b u 92
=76.6
8N A u 4.2 ab
= = 2.4 NA (Molar mass of NO2 = 46 g mol–1, molar mass of
14
N2O4 = 92 g mol–1)
80. (A) [NCERT 15]
Let mass of NO2 = x and mass of N2O4 = 100–x
34 17
34 g H2O = moles = 1.9 moles x 100 x
18 9 a and b
46 92
As it has maximum number of moles therefore it
contains maximum no. of molecules. x 100 x
76.6
x 100 x
81. (D) [CBSE 1999]
46 92
82. (A) [NCERT 17]
83. (B) [NCERT 18] x 100 x 100

Mg + 2HCl o MgCl2 + H2 46 92 76.6
24 g 2g 100 u 15.4
x=
Mass of Mg used : Mass of hydrogen produced 76.6
= 24 : 2 = 12 : 1 x
84. (A) [NCERT 15] No. of moles of NO2, a =
46
15 u 1000 100 u 15.4
119.5 u 106 = = 0.437
46 u 76.6
85. (C) [Mod. NCERT] 90. (C) [NCERT-12]
CxHy o xCO2 + y/2 H2O
According to Avogadro’s law “equal volumes of all
gases contain equal number of molecules under
86. (B) [NCERT 15]
similar conditions of temperature and pressure”.
MM of mixture 14.4×2
supose % of oxygen in mixture is x.
NLI / 8
All India Chapter Wise Revision Test-2/[Solution] CRACK NEET 2021 / CRT / 04-Jan-2021
PHYSICS
1. (B) [NCERT -72] 5. (C) [NCERT-45]

v = u – gt Given : Velocity
0= 20 – 10t dx
V At Bt 2 At Bt 2
t = 2 sec dt
So total time of flight = 2t By integrating we get distance travelled
= 2 × 2 = 4 sec. 2
³ dx ³ (At Bt
2
2. (A) [NCERT -72] ) dt
1
When a particle moves along a curved path then Distance travelled by the particle between 1s and
its velocity is tangential to its path. 2s.
3. (D) [NCERT -72] A 2 2 B 3A 7B
x (2 1 ) (23 13 )
directly proportional to the square root of the 2 3 2 3
displacement 6. (D) [NCERT -73]
intial velocity u =0 The area of acceleration time graph gives change
constant acceleration = a (let) in velocity.
let in time (t) body covers 7. (A) [NCERT -73]

distance (s) 1
Sn = u + a (2t – 1)
2
1 2
s = ut + at 1
2 S5th = 7 + (4) (2×5 – 1) = 7 + 18 = 25 meter
2
1 2 8. (C) [NCERT -73]
s=0+ at
2
Average velocity average speed
2S 9. (A) [NCERT -73]
t=
a
1
h = 2t – u 10 u t 2
t v S 2
4. (D) [NCERT -72]

1
Regular interval = t 40 h 20t
u 10 u t 2
2
3 drops has formed with in the time of its drop 40 20t 5t 2 20 5t 2
reaching ground
t 1s
1 2 h 20 u 1 5(1)2 15m
s ut at (For first drop t´ = 3t)
2 Therefore 15m above from the ground
1 2 10. (D) [NCERT -73]

18 u 10 u 3t
2
dx p
4 xp = at + bt2 a 2bt
t dt
10
dx Q
II. x2 = 2t xQ ft t 2 f 2t
dt
2
1 2 1 § 4 · If velocities are equal
x2 u g u 2t u 10 u ¨ 2 u 8m
2 2 © 10 ¸¹ dx p dx Q
III. x3 = t dt dt
a + 2bt = f – 2t
1 2 1 4
x3 ugu t u 10 u 2m
2 2 10 f a
then, t
2(b 1)
NLI / 2
11. (D) [NCERT -73] 17. (A) [NCERT-42]
1 2
S ut at displacement PP’ = (Sr)2 (2r)2
2
1 2
If u = 0, then S = at
2
1
u a u (2)2
2
S = 2a
a = S/2
= 9 S 2 36 11.17
12. (A) [NCERT -71]
18. (B) [NCERT-42]
If athletes complete one round of a circular track of
radius R. In 40 sec then after 2 m 20 sec = 140 sec Average speed = total distance/totaltime
he would have completeted 3.5 rounds that means total distance = d + d = 2d
he will be at the diametrically opposite point of
total time = 2 + 3 = 5 hour
starting point.
average speed = 2d/5
Displacement = Diameter = 2R.
19. (B) [NCERT-42]
13. (A) [NCERT-47]
S
1 v
S S S
h = –ut + gt2
2 3 u 20 3 u 30 3 u 40
3 u 120 360
= – 29 × 10 +
1
×10×100 = 210 m = | 28m/sec
2 643 13
20. (C) [NCERT-39]
14. (B) [NCERT -72]
G
On applying breaks, average retardation is same. G dv d
a (20 0.1 t 2 ) 0.2 t
Using v = u – 2as with final velocity = 0
2 2 dt dt
? s v u2 Since acceleration depends on time, t it is non-

2
uniform acceleration
8 § 30 ·
21. (D) [NCERT-42]
s2 ©¨ 60 ¸¹
v
2v1 v2 2u6 u 8
? s2 = 32 m 6.8 m/s
v1 v2 = 14
15. (C) [NCERT -72]
22. (A) [NCERT-39]
The graph for real motion
1) Graph should be smooth
2) Continuous
3) Single valued for time
16. (D) [NCERT -72]
Please, notice that distance from origin means
displacement
24 24 OA 102 202

x4– x2
2 2
=3x2=6 = 500 = 22.36 km
NLI / 3
23. (C) [NCERT- 42] 29. (C) [NCERT-67]
|a – b| t |a| – |b|
v12 2(g a)h 0
30. (A) [NCERT-69]
v1 2(g a)h and v2 2(g a)h
1
ab sin T ab cos T
? v1 ! v 2 , there is loss of energy during the motion 3
so it is clear that v1 > v2
1
24. (B) [NCERT-151] tan T
3
Cross product of two vector can be equal to AB or less
than AB but never can be greater than AB. S
25. (C) [NCERT-72]
T 30o
6
G G 31. (B) [NCERT-69]
Let A 5iˆ 6ˆj B î ˆj
G G
G G A.B ab cos T
so A x B = A B cos T
= 3 × 5 × cos 30o
G G
A xB 5iˆ 6ˆj î ˆj
so A cos T = 3
B 2 = 15 u 12.99
2
56 11 32. (B) [NCERT-65]
= =
2 2 360
The angle between them is 20o
26. (C) [NCERT-87] 18
33. (A) [NCERT-69]
Since displacement is along the y direction, hence G G
G A 2iˆ 3 ˆj kˆ B î ˆj kˆ
displecement s 10ˆj .
GG
Work done = F .s (2iˆ 15 ˆj 6kˆ) x 10 ˆj 150 J î ˆj kˆ
G G G
27. (A) [NCERT-85] C A uB 2 3 1
JG 1 1 1
A 2iˆ 4 ˆj 5kˆ
JG 2 2 2
î(3 1) ˆj(2 1) k(
ˆ 2 3) 4iˆ ˆj 5kˆ
? | A| 2 4 5 45
G
| C | 42 12 52 16 1 25 42
2 4 5
? cos D 45
,cos E
45
,cos J
45
Therefore desired unit vector is -
1
28. (A) [NCERT-67] (4iˆ ˆj 5k)
ˆ
42
R = (A2 + A2 + 2AA cos T)1/2
34. (B) [NCERT-65]
' both are equal magnitude G
R = (2A2 + 2A2 cos T)1/2 |F| 82 122 2 u 8 u 12 u cos120o
= [2A2 (1 + cos T)]1/2 G § 1·
|F| 64 144 2 u 8 u 12 u ¨ ¸
1/ 2 © 2¹
§ 2 2 T·
¨© 2A . 2 cos 2 ¸¹
64 144 96 112
T A sin T 4 7N
R 2A cos and tan T '
2 A cos T A 35. (B) [NCERT-67]
G G
T A B 3iˆ 3kˆ and unit vector along x-axis is î
tan T ' tan
2
3iˆ 3kˆ î 3 1
T ? cos T 45o
direction (T ') 3 32 2
1 2
3 2 2
2
NLI / 4
36. (C) [NCERT-65] 42. (D) [NCERT-85]
G G G
The value of 'A = A 2 – A 1 G G
G G G G F 3iˆ ˆj 5kˆ ; r 7î 3 ˆj kˆ
Given, A 1 = A , A 2 = – A
G G G G G G G
'A = – A – A = –2 A Torque (W ) r u F
G G
Also, | A | = |– A |
G = (7iˆ 3 ˆj kˆ) u (3iˆ ˆj 5kˆ)
'| A | = 0
Option (C) is correct. = 7î 35( ˆj ) 9(kˆ) 15iˆ 3 ˆj (iˆ)
37. (B) [NCERT-69]
G G
Two vectors P and Q are said to be parallel = 14iˆ 38ˆj 16kˆ
G G
If the can put as P K(Q) . 43. (A) [NCERT-72]
G
C 5.1iˆ 6.8 ˆj R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2 P Q cos T ....(A)
51 ˆ 68 ˆ 17 ˆ If Q is doubled
i j (3i 4ˆj)
10 10 10
2Q sinT
17 ˆ 17 G tan D = tan 90 =
P 2Q cos T
(6i 8ˆj) A
20 20
As tan 90o = f
38. (D) [NCERT-67]
Option (D) is correct. P
39. (D) [NCERT-69] P + 2Q cosT =0 cos T=
2Q
G G G 2 3 7 by putting the value of cosT in equation (A)

A.(B u C) = 1 2 0
0 1 1 R2 = P 2 + Q 2 – P 2
= 2(–2) +3(–1) +7(1)
or R2 = Q2 ; ? R=Q
= –4 – 3 + 7
= zero. 44. (C)
40. (B) [NCERT-67]
G
Clearly from diagram u a î bjˆ
G
As, u is in Ist quadrent, hence both of its
components a and b will be positive and as v is in
IVth quadrent.
G 45. (D)
For v piˆ qjˆ , as it is in positive x-direction and
JG JG JG
located downward hence, x-component p will be A. B 0 A is perpendicular on B
positive and y-component q will be negative.
Hence, Option (B) is correct. JG JG JG
A. C 0 A is perpendicular on C also
41. (C) [NCERT-66]
The angle subtended is, JG JG JG JG
B u C Also perpendicular on B and C
4 4 § 4 ·
cos T ; T cos1 ¨ ¸ . JG
4 3 (12)
2 2 2 13 © 13 ¹ so it is parallel to A
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (B) [Mod. Exemplar Q.No.-9, P.No.-16] 52. (C) [NC 46]
No. of spherical node = n–l–1
h 6.626 u 10 34 Js
for 3p = 3–1–1 = 1 O | 10 33 meters
mv 60 u 103 u 10
4d = 4–2–1 = 1
53. (D) [NC 53]
for 4s = 4–0–1 = 3
The splitting of spectral lines in the presence of
5p = 5–1–1 = 3 magnetic field is known as Zeeman effect.
so option 2 and 3 will be have same no. of spherical 54. (C) [NC 58]
node.
Electron first occupy the lowest energy orbital
47. (D) [NC 51] available to them and enter into higher energy
i. no. of electron 2n2/2 = n2 = 16 electron orbitals only after the lower energy orbitals are filled.
ii. n = 3, l = 0 3s have 2 electron 55. (B) [NCERT 48]
48. (A) [Mod. NCERT 39] Rydberg constant = 109678 cm–1
hc 56. (A) [NCERT 42]
E
O Velocity of electron in nth orbit of 'H' atom
34
(6.6 u 10 )(3 u 10 ) 8
velocity of electron in first orbit
3.98 u 10 15 J Vn =
0.5 u 1010 n
49. (A) [NCERT 48] Given, velocity of electron in 4th orbit = V
Total spin from d8
velocity of electron in first orbit
1 V=
=2u 1 4
2
50. (A) [Mod. NCERT] or velocity of electron in first orbit - 4V.
57. (B) [Mod. NCERT]
13.6Z 2
En = ev/atom, for H, Z=1 for a d-electron, l=2
n2
h
13.6 u 12 orbital angular momentum = l(l 1).
E1 = = –13.6 eV.. 2S
12
h h
13.6 u 12 = 2(2 1). 6.
Ef = 0.00 eV 2S 2S
f2
Energy required for ionization 58. (B) [NCERT 28, 29]
Ef E1 0 ( 13.6) Charge and mass of the particles constituting
cathode rays does not depends upon the nature
= +13.6 eV. of the gas.
51. (A) [NCERT 42]
59. (C) [NCERT 51, 52]
I.E. of Na atom =
17
Cl o 1s22s22p63s23p5
1240
eV / atom
242
1240 u 1.6 u 1019 n = 3 , l= 1, m=1, s = +1/2

J / atom
242 60. (C) [NCERT 59]
Pairing of electrons in the orbitals belonging to
1240 u 1.6 u 1019 u 103
u (6.023 u 1023 ) kJ/mol1 the same subshell (p, d or f) does not take place
242
= 493.78 kJ mol–1 until each orbital belonging to that subshell has
got one electron each i.e., it is singly occupied.
NLI / 6
61. (C) [NCERT 60, 61] 68. (C) [Mod. Exemplar Q.No.-19, P.No.-18]
for 4f n=4, l=3, m = –3 to +3, s = +1/2 or –1/2
because of half filled electronic configuration.
69. (A) [NCERT 35]
Stability based on electronic configuration as
h § h ·
below. ' O
O ©¨ mu ¸¹
Momentumof photon = mu =
Full filled > half filled > normal filled.
6.6 u 1034
62. (C) [NCERT 60] = = 3.3×10–23 kg ms–1
2 u 10 11
The valence electronic configurations of Cu, is
70. (C) [NCERT 53]
3d10 4s1 and not 3d9 4s2.
n+l is maximum in 3rd option having value = 5
63. (B) [NCERT 43] 71. (B) [NCERT 46]
RCh u x
by using En = un = u3 =
n2 n 3
72. (B) [NCERT 43]
13.6
En =
n2 nh
Angular momentum =
2S
E1
E2 = –328 = Angular momentum in the 5th orbit = 5h/2S
4
= 2.5 h/S.
E1 = –328×4 73. (A) [NCERT 46]
328 u 4 1 1
E4 = 82 KJ / mol mv 2 0.5J u 1 kg u v 2 0.5 J
16 2 2
64. (C) [NCERT 43] or v = 1 ms–1
RChZ 2 h 6.626 u 10 34 kg ms 1
By using En = O
n2 mv 1 kg u 1 ms 1
13.6 Z 2 = 6.626×10–34 m.
E=
n2 74. (C) [NCERT 47]
13.6 4 'x × m × 'v = h/4S

EHe = = –54.4 (0.1 × 10–10 m) × (9.11 × 10–31 kg) × 'v
1
65. (A) [NCERT 52] 6.626 u 10 34 kg m 2 s 1
=
The subshel for which l=3 is fsubshell. Maxi 4 u 3.14
mum number of electrons in fsubshell =14.
6.626 u 107
66. (A) [NCERT 43] 'v = 5.79×106 ms–1
4 u 3.14 u 0.1u 9.1
Apply 75. (A) [NCERT 47]
1 § 1 1 ·
Q RZ2 ¨ 2 2 ¸ h h
O 'x.'p If 'x 'p; 'p 2
© n1 n2 ¹ 4S 4S
67. (C) [NCERT 43]
h
r n = r1 × n 2
or 'p
4S
r3 9
? r 4 h
2 i.e., m 'v =
4S
r3 = 2.25 R
1 h 1 h
or 'v
m 4S 2m S
NLI / 7
76. (B) [NCERT 53] 83. (D) [NCERT 42]
No. of orbitals in a subshell = 2l + 1
Given
no. of electrons in a subshell = 2(2l+1)
r(n+1) – r(n) = r(n–1)
= 4l + 2
(n+1)2 – (n)2 = (n–1)2
77. (C) [NCERT 49]
= n=4
For n = 4, the possible
84. (D) [NCERT 83]
values of l is 0, 1, 2, 3
Using (According to
l = 0 4s o 1 orbital; l = 1
Bohr’s atomic theory)
4p o 3 orbitals
l = 2 4d o 5 orbital; l = 3 IE Rchz2
4f o 7 orbitals 85. (D) [NCERT 43]
78. (A) [Mod. Exemplar Q.No.-6, P.No.-15] n 2
Using rn = 0.529 ,
Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1 Z
we get r2 = 0.529 for Be3+, which is Bohr's 1st orbit
For 3s 3–0–1=2 radius.
86. (D) [NCERT 44]
For 2p 2–1–1=0
Ze2 Ze2
79. (A) [AIPMT 2011] EKinetic = , EPotential = –
2r r
According to n+l rule Ze2
ETotal = –
energy v n+l 2r
87. (B) [NCERT 42]
ns o (n-2)f o (n-1)d o np Shortest wavelength is for series limit, for Balmer
if n = 6, 6o7o7o7 1 ª1 1º
series limit n1=2, n2= f , using O R « n2 n2 »
when n+l have same value then energy v n ¬ 1 2¼
80. (C) [AIPMT Mains 2011] 4

O x
R
ª1 1º
'E v « 2 2 » , where n > n For longest wavelength of Lymen
n
¬ 1 n2 ¼
2 1
n1 = 1, n2= 2
? n=6 to n=5 will give least energetic photon. 4
Hence O
81. (A) [AIPMT Mains 2012] 3R
x
h therefore O
Orbital angular momentum (m) = l(l 1) 3
2S 88. (B) [NCERT 58]
for pelectrons ; l = 1 89. (B) [NCERT 45]
Using law of conservation
of energy
2h h E = E1 + E2
Thus, m =
2S 2S
hc hc hc

82. (A) [NCERT 51, AIPMT 14] O O1 O 2
90. (D) [NCERT 46]
n = 3, l = 1, m = 0
1 2 h
is for 3 p and single oreintation of electron shows using Ekintic = mv and O
2 mv
that it is one p-orbital only.
NLI / 8
PHYSICS
1. (D) [NCERT-77] 5. (C) [NCERT-77]
Taking vertical motion

u2 sin2 
H
2g
1 2
sy  uy t  gt  uy  0
 is constant & g is also constant. 2
H  u2 1
490   9.8  t 2  t 10 sec
2
u2 sin 2
R  is constant Taking horizontal motion
g
ux = 180 × 5/18 = 50 m/s, ax = 0
So, R  u2
Horizontal range, x  50  10  500m
So, percentage change in R = percentage change
in H = 5%. 6. (C) [NCERT-77]
2. (A) [NCERT-77] The vertically upward component of the velocity of
As we know projection = 50 sin 30o m/s = 25 ms–1
2uy If t is the time taken to reach the ground,

T (Independent of accleration aloong x-
g
1 2
direction). h  ut  gt
2
Taking motion along x-direction
 70 = –25 × t + 1/2 × 10 × t2
ux = u cos , ax = – g cot , t = T
 5t2 – 25t – 70 = 0, so t = –2s or t = 7s
1
x  ucos  T  gcot  T 2 Here, t = –2 s is not valid.
2
x=0 7. (B) [NCERT-77]
taking motion along y-direction 3 2

y  12x  x
uy = u sin , ay = – g, t = T 4
Compare with standarded equation of trajectory
1
y  usin  T  g T2
2  tan   2
y  x tan    x
y=0  R 
So, ball will retun to the point 'O'.
tan  3
3. (D) [NCERT-77] tan   12, 
R 4
First increases then decreases with height
So, R = 16 m.
4. (C) [NCERT-77] 8. (D) [NCERT-77]

Velocity at the highest point, v f  î (ucos )
Velocity at the starting point


v i  î (ucos )  ˆj(usin )
 tOA = tBC
 | v |  | {iˆ (ucos )  î (u cos )   ˆj(usin )} |
 tOA + tOB = t BC + tOB
= u sin .
= T.
NLI / 2
9. (C) [NCERT-77] 14. (D) [NCERT-78]
We know that at the uppermost point of a projectile u2 sin 2  u2 sin 2
the vertical component of the velocity becomes H and R 
2g g
zero, while the horizontal component remains
constant and the acceleration due to gravity is Since, H = R
always vertically downwards. Therefore at the
u2 sin2  u2  2 sin  cos 
uppermost point of a projectile, its velocity and 
acceleration are at an angle of 90o. 2g g
10. (A) [NCERT-77] or tan  = 4 or  = tan–1 (4).

15. (A) [NCERT-78]
u cos  = 1, u sin  = 2
u2 = (4 + 1) = 5
u sin  2
tan   
ucos  1
The desired equation is,
gx 2 u2 sin 2
y  x tan   R
2u2 cos2  g
10x2 100 3
 x 2  2 =
 1  10  2
2 5 
 5 = 5 3  5  1.731
or y = 2x – 5x2. = 8.66 m.
11. (D) [NCERT-77] 16. (A) [NCERT 78]
Maximum range and time flight are independent of
acceleration along x-direction.
2uy u2y
We know that T  and H 
g 2g
So, time flight and maximum height remains same.

12. (C) [NCERT-78] ux = 2m/s, uy = 0
Ranges are equal for complimentry angles ax = 0, ay = 10 m/s2
( and 90 – ). 1
Sy = uyt + a t2
2
u sin 2 2
u sin (90  )2 2 y
y1  and y 2 
2g 2g
1
Sy  0   10  4
2
u2 cos2 
y2  = 20.
2g
Sx = uxt
= 4.
u2 (sin2   cos 2  ) u2
So, y1  y 2    its positive co-ordinates are (4,0).
2g 2g
17. (C) [NCERT-79]
13. (B) [NCERT-78]
x2
Here, u cos  = 6, u sin  = 8 and g = 10 y = 4x –
3
u2 sin2 2 2u2 sin  cos  When particle strike the ground at, x = Range
R 
g g where y = 0
x2
2(usin )(ucos ) 2  8  6 0 4x
   9.6m 3
g 10
x 12m
NLI / 3
18. (C) [NCERT-77] 23. (A) [NCERT-79]
u2 dx
g dt
Acceleration a= –g using the 3rd equation of motion.
2dy
v2 – u2 = –2gH ( v = 0)
dt
t=0
dy
19. (B) [NCERT-78]
dt
2
o
2 24. (A) [NCERT-78]

....(i)
u20
Rmax = ....(ii)
g
Rmax =
20. (C) [NCERT-77]
 = 15o
Time to go from A to B = t
R = 50 m
AC = Horizontal displacement in time
= ( u cos 60o) t
R
g ut
AC =
2
In right angled ABC
AC = AB cos 30o
u2 = 100 × 10 = 10 10
Now  = 45o AB
2
25. (A) [NCERT-76]
For the shortest time, the man should swim
perpendicular to the bank, i.e., due north.
21. (D) [NCERT-79] 26. (A) [NCERT-78]
Speed T1
T2
Since the question has instantaneous speed as
constant, it means distance covered (path) in a 2uy T1
Time of flight = 
time is constant/equal rest of the options are g 2
related to velocity but not speed.

27. (C) The vertile velocity is 13kˆ . The time of light =
22. (D) [NCERT-77]
ux = u cos 
uy = u sin  10
when angle =  The distance covered in x and y direction are
vx = v cos 
that must to be equal to
ux = u cos 
NLI / 4
28. (A) [NCERT-76] 32. (B) [NCERT-76]
Using relative motion concept 
v rg = velocity of rain w.r.t. ground

vmg = velocity of man w.r.t. ground

v rm = velocity of rain w.r.t. man
  
tan o .....(i)
Taking horizontal components eqn. (i) gives
At shortest distance -
33. (C) [NCERT-76]
r
cos 45o =
100
= 5 hrs.
29. (D) [NCERT-76]

Velocity of Approach = VB – VA.
sin30o
30. (B) [NCERT-76]
  
  
34. (D) [NCERT-76]

 
35. (D) [NCERT-76]

Relative velocity of parrot w.r.t train
velocity of car w.r.t train (vct) is towards W-N. = 5 – (–10) = 5 + 10 = 15 m/s
31. (C) [NCERT-76] time taken by parrot
36. (D) [NCERT-51]

Distance travelled perpendicular river flow vc = 8 m/s E = vpassanger
2 2 vTC = 15 m/s N vT = ?
d v u t
Distance travelled in downstream

d  (v  u)T
v 2  u2 t  (v  u)T
v  u (v  u) t 2  (v  u)2 T 2
v TC  v T  vC
v  2 v  2 v T  v TC  vC
 u  1 T   u  1 t
   
= 15jˆ  8jˆ
v T2  t 2
 2
u t2  T 2 vT  15  82 = 17 m/s
NLI / 5
  42. (B) [NCERT-86]
37. (D) True relation in
vm = vb = 5
38. (D) [NCERT-56]
1
sab = 1/2×1×(50)2 = 1250 m. so v =  4km/hr
15
39. (B) [NCERT-86] hr
60
vm 3
tan    v
vr 15
W=1km v v
vr = vb2  v2  52  42 = 3 km/h
vm = 3
vm vm 43. (A) [NCERT-86]
vrm v =3
vr=15
vr
3
 = tan–1 from vertical
15 w 1 60
40. (A) [NCERT-86] t  hr   15min
vm 4 4
Vrm = vr2  Vm2  32  4 2  5m / s AB = vr × t = 3×1/4×100 m = 750 m
44. (B) [NCERT-76]
41. (D) [NCERT-77]
Boat covers 16 km in still water in 2 hrs
so vb = 16/2 = 8 km/hr
vw = 4 km/hr
50  50 100
Time taken for going upstream time of crossing    4 sec
10  ( 15) 25
8 8 45. (B)
t1    2hr
vB  v W 8  4 Their is no relative acceleration of between A and B
Time taken for going down stream

so time of collision t where YBA = vertical
8 8
t2 =  hr displacement of B w.r.t. A = 10 m
8  4 12 (VY)BA = vertical velocity of B w.r.t.
8
so t = t1 + t2 = 2  = 2 hr, 40 min
12
d = horizontal distance travelled by B w.r.t.
NLI / 6
CHEMISTRY
46. (C) [NCERT 85] 58. (C) [NC- 86]

Greatest amount of energy involves in the Ionization enthalpy of B is exceptionly slightly less
transformation of Li  Li+2 + e– than Be.
47. (B)
59. (A) [NC- 86]
This is given by Henry Moseley
Ionization enthalpy decreases on going down.
48. (C) [NC-78]
60. (A) [NCERT 86]
4f- inner transition  Lanthanoid series (Rare earth)
61. (C) [NCERT 84]
5f - inner transition  Actinoid series
49. (D) [NCERT 76]

Maximum element containing group is IIIrd B and
Tc is 1st man made radioactive element. 62. (C) [NCERT 87]
50. (D) [NC- 81] Repulsion of already negative charge present on O
Metallic character and reactivity increases as we 63. (D) [NCERT-86]
go down to group due to mainly in decrease in It is defination of electron gain enthalpy.

ionization enthalpy and increase insize. 64. (D) [NCERT-78]
51. (B) [NC- 82]
A decrease in the ionization potential, An increase
Mercury, Gallium and Caesium are not solid at room in atomic radii
temperature.
65. (A) [NCERT-84]
52. (D) [NC- 82]
A-(He) – 1s2
All are metalloids.
B - (Ne) – 1s2, 2s22p6
53. (A) [NC- 82]
C - (C) – 1s2, 2s22p2
Metallic character increases down a group and
D - (B) – 1s2, 2s22p1
decreases along a period as we move from left to
On going from left to right in a period ionisation
right.
potential increases
54. (B) [NC- 84]
66. (D) [NCERT-85]
Ionization enthalpy
Ionization energy increases along the period and
55. (D) [NC- 85] decreases down the group.
Due to increase in Z-effective. 67. (C) [NCERT-82]
56. (A) [NC- 85] In a period non metallic character increases from
Ionisation enthalpy increases as we go left to right left to righ. F > N > C > B
in periods. So that Noble gases have maximum 68. (C) [NCERT-86]
ionization enthalpy and alkali metals have
Amongst O, S and Se the EA of O is the smallest
minimum. due to inter electronic repulsions present in its
57. (A) [NC- 86] relatively compact 2 p-subshell. EA of Se is, however,
smaller than S due to its greater size. Thus, the
because of shielding
overall sequence is S > Se > O.
NLI / 7
69. (C) [NCERT-84] 78. (A) [NCERT 76]
Amongst isoelectronic ionsm, ionic radii of anions According electronic configuration it comes in llA
is more than that of cations. Further size of the group and 5th period.
anion increases with increase in –ve charge and
79. (B) [NCERT 78]
size of cation decreases with increase in +ve charge.
An element with atomic number 112 comes under
70. (B) [NCERT 85] transition metal.
Ionic radii are inversely proportional tothe effective 80. (D) [NCERT 90]
nuclear charge. Diagonal relationship is shown by Li-Mg, Be-Al,
71. (C) [Mod. NCERT] B-Si .
81. (D) [CBSE-2003]
Their are seven bridge elements in periodic table. IE1 of N > IE1 of O due to half filled nature in N.
82. (A) [CBSE 2009]
72. (D) [NCERT 82, 83]
It has more stable electronic configurations .
83. (A) [NCERT 340]
Ionic radius
84. (C) [CBSE 2010]
73. (B) [NCERT 79] More negative numeral is less

85. (A) [NCERT 82, AIPMT 2014]
Because last electron goes to 5p The order of ionic radii which correct for the given
option is : H– > H > H+
74. (C) [NCERT 79]
86. (C) [NCERT -95]
It is Arsenic which is metalloid. Should be : Removal of electron from orbitals bear-
ing lower n value is difficult than from orbital hav-
75. (D) [NCERT 90]
ing higher n value.
Mg and Li are similar in their properties due to
similar ionic potential (charge/size) 87. (C) [NCERT 85-86]
88. (B) [NCERT 82]
76. (C) [NCERT 76] 89. (C) [NCERT 85]
It is Sc, comes under transition element Greatest amount of energy involves in the
transformation of Li+  Li+2 + e–
77. (A) [NCERT 71] 90. (A) [NCERT 85]
The discovery of Inert gases elements gave death Ionsation potential increases along the period,
decreases down the group.
to the Newland's law of octaves.
NLI / 8
All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-4 / [Solution] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 8-Jan-2021
PHYSICS
1. (D) 10. (D) [NCERT-81]

Tension in the string Apply principle of vector subtraction,
using cosine law, v = v 2  v 2  2v 2 cos 40 o

T  m  2 r  4 2n2 mr
T  n2 2v 2 (1  cos 40 o )  2v 2 2sin2 20o
n1 T2
  =2v sin 20o
n2 T1
11. (D) [NCERT-81]
2T
n2  5  7rpm ac = r = r (2  n)
2 2
T
25
2. (D) [NCERT- 80] = 4 2 rn2 = 4 2 × ×22 =42
100
v 12. (A) [NCERT-80]
r = r,  =
r mv 2
mg =
3. (D) [NCERT- 81] r
2 v= gr  10  1.6  4ms 1
Thour = radian /hr
12 13. (B) [NCERT-80]
2 v2
Tearth = rad/hr tan  =
24 rg
Thour hand 2
 v2
Tearth 1 tan 5.71o = 0.1 =
200  9.8
4. (A) [NCERT- 47]  v = 14 ms2
Tangential to its path 14. (A) [NCERT-80]
5. (B) [NCERT-80] mv2

Work done by centripetal force is always zero. F1 r r
 12  2
6. (D) [NCERT-81] F2 mv r1
r2
1
KE   mv 2 ; m, v both constants 15. (D) [NCERT-111]
2
T = F = mr 42n2
7. (A) [NCERT-80]
2
2
 200 
v 2
19.6  = 0.1 × 2 × 4 × 9.87 ×  
tan    1 ;  = tan–1 1  60 
gr 9.8  39.2
= 87.64 N
8. (A) [NCERT-80] 16. (A) [NCERT-112]
a = r2  9.8 = .2 2 W = F.S cos 90 = 0.
17. (C) [NCERT-112]
 = 7.
2
mv
9. (C) [NCERT-81] At lowest point T  mg 
r
a = r2 = r (2f)2 mv2
T  mg 
4f 2r r
NLI / 2
18. (D) [NCERT-80] 25. (D)
Work done W = FScos
120
  2n  2  4 where  is the angle between F and S.
60
If = 90°
19. (D) [NCERT-112]
W=0
Thus the work done by a force will be zero if the
r 4
T  2  2 = 4 sec. object moves in a direction perpendicular to the di-
g 10 rection of applied force.
Displacement of the body revolving in a circular path
20. (D) [NCERT-111]
is along the tangent whereas centripetal force acts
2
radially inwards i.e they are perpendicular to each
mv 2 m  p  p2 other.
Radial force     
r r  m mr Hence, work done in this case by the centripetal
force is zero.
[As p = mv]
26. (C)
21. (D) [NCERT-80]
The acceleration of the particle is along the radius
The average acceleration vector for a particle having
27. (C)
a uniform circulur motion is a null vector.
2
22. (B) [NCERT-104] Time period of revolution T 

v2 20  20 As according to question, T1 = T2
tan   
gr 20  10
2 2
–1
 
 = tan 2 1  2
23. (A) 1   2
.
1 1
mgcos– N = mv²/r   1: 1
2 1
N = mgcos – mv²/r
Now, m,v and r will be constant this means they will 28. (C)
have the same value throughout the motion. On the Net acceleration is due to braking and centripetal
other hand, The angle which the line joining the acceleration
motorcyclist makes with the vertical keeps on
deceasing as result cosine value is increasing, Due to Braking,
since it increases from 90° to 0°. aT = 0.5 m/s2
As a result, Normal Reaction is increasing continu- Speed of the cyclist, v = 27km/h = 7.5m/s
ously. Radius of the circular turn, r = 80m
24. (A) Centripetal acceleration is given as :
mv 2 v2
Maximum tension  mg ac 
r r
 (7.52 ) / 80  0.70 m / s2
0.5v 2 Since the angle between ac and aT is 90°,

3.7  10   0.5  10
4
v  16 m / s the resultant acceleration a is given by:
v 16
    4 rad / s a  (a2c  a2T )1/ 2
r 4
a  (0.72  0.52 )1/ 2  0.86 m / s2
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29. (D) 33. (D) [NCERT-104]
Tangential acceleration a t  2 m / s 2
Kinetic energy
v 2 900
Centripetal acceleration ar    1.8 m / s 2 34. (C) [NCERT-104]
r 500
Net acceleration 22  (1.8)2  2.7 m / s2 km m

v  36  10 
30. (D) h s
D 42 mv 2 500  100
Radius of the sphere r    21m F   1000N.
2 2 r 50
The particle after starting from point A reaches the point
35. (B) [NCERT-104]
P where it leaves contact with the surface
2
2  1200 
2 30
For the particle to loose contact at P, cos    r  4 n r = 4  60   100
2 2 2
3
2r
From figure OB  r cos  
3  4740 m / s2
2r 5r
Height from the ground h  r   36. (D) [NCERT-104]
3 3
Minimum speed at the highest point of vertical circular
5  21
h  35m path v  gR
3
31. (A)
v2 37. (B) [NCERT-104]

Radial acceleration 
r
mv 2
T  mg 
4t 2 4  9 l
   120 m / s 2
0.3 0.3
 mg  2mg  3mg
dy d(2t)
Tangent acceleration   2 where v  2gl from
dt dt
At = 2 m/s .
32. (B) 38. (C) [NCERT-104]
mv2/r d d
  (2t 3  0.5)  6t 2
dt dt
x
at t = 2 s,
mgsin 
  6  22  24 rad / sec
1m
39. (B) [NCERT-104]

mv 2
cos   mgsin  Increment in angular velocity   2(n2  n1 )
r
v2
 tan  
rg rad 2 600 rad
  2(1200  600) 
for same triangle min 60 s
x v2
 tan   rad
1 rg  20
2
s
x  20 1
    0.1m  10cm
1 400  10 10
NLI / 4
40. (D) [NCERT-104] 42. (A) [NCERT-104]
mv 2
2 T 
 1 r
a  42n2r  42    50  493 cm / s 2
2
0.25 v 2
25   v  14 m / s
1.96
43. (C) [NCERT-104]
41. (A) [NCERT-104]
No where.
2
mv k k 1 k 44. (D) [NCERT-104]
 2  mv 2   K.E.= mv 2 
r r r 2 2r In non-uniform circular motion particle possess both
centripetal as well as tangential acceleration.
k k 45. (A) [NCERT-104]
P.E.   F dr   2
dr  
r r v2 h v2
tan    
gr b gr
k k k
 Total energy = K.E. + P.E.   
2r r 2r v 2b
h=
Rg
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (A) [NCERT 102] 58. (B) [NCERT 104]

Maximum no. of covalent bonds, an atom can Bond energy follows F – F < O = O < N  N
form is called maximum covalency. 59. (C) [NCERT 110]
47. (A) [NCERT 119] NF3 and H3O+ are pyramidal where as NO3– and
BF3 are trigonal planer.
O = C = C = C = O each 'C' is surrounded by 2
sigma electron pair hence each 'C' is sp hybridised. 60. (B) [Mod. NCERT]
48. (B) [NCERT 125] In C2–2 one sigma and two pi bonds are present.
61. (A) [NCERT 117]
Bond order of O2 = 2, O2+ = 2.5, H2+ = 0.5, NO=2.5
With the increase in % 'p' character
49. (B) [NCERT 107] electronegativity decreases.
Dipole moment of CHCl3 is +ve. 62. (A) [NCERT 111]
50. (B) [NCERT 102] IF5 is sp3d3 with one lone pair hence it is square
If I.E. of A is less, it will lose electron easily and pyramidal and IF7 is sp3d3 hybridised with no
E.A of B is high it will gain electron easily so lone pair hence it is pentagonal bipyramidal.
ionic bond is easily formed. 63. (C) [NCERT 117]
51. (A) [NCERT 98]
N C CN
1 CC
N C CN
Ionic character of a covalent bond  
Double bonded 'C' atoms are sp2 hybridised and
charg e triply bonded 'C' atoms are sp hybridised.
 = C4+ > Si4+ > Pb4+ > Pb2+ 64. (B) [NCERT 117]
(radius)2
In AlH3 Al is sp2
hybridised whereas in AlH4– it is
52. (D) [NCERT 103] 3
sp hybridised.
During hydration, due to attraction between
opposite poles some heat is released which
helps weakening of forces which leads to 65. (B) [CBSE 2001]
dissociation.
66. (B) [Module 171]
53. (B) [NCERT 102]
Aqueous solution of orthoboric acid has H+ and
Ionic and metallic bonds are non directional.
[B(OH)4]–.
54. (B) [NCERT 102]
Ionic compounds have high M.P. and B.P, soluble 67. (A) [NCERT 126]
in polar solvents, have non directional bond.
1
55. (D) [NCERT 117] Bond length  ; B.O. of O 22 , O2 , O2
Bond order
If x is the molecular axis following combinations
and O 22 are 3.0, 2.5, 1.5 and 1 respectively..
are possible -
i. S–Px ii. Px–Px 68. (C) [Mod. NCERT]
iii. S–S iv. Py–Py SCl4 has see-saw shape, rest are tetrahedral.
v. Pz–Pz 69. (A) [Module 143]
56. (A) [NCERT 313]
Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent
H H H H
bond character follows the order LiCl < BeCl2 <
H – C – C – H , H – Si – Si – H
BCl3 < CCl4
H H H H
57. (C) [NCERT 111]
XeF4 is square planer, where as rest molecules
are tetrahedral.
NLI / 6
70. (D) [AIPMT 2012] 79. (C) [NCERT 116]
P in PCl3 is in sp3 hybrid state. It has three bond BF3 is planer hence the dipole moment of the
molelcule zero NF3 is pyramidal having dipole
pairs and one lone pair.
moment.
P Cl 80. (B) [NCERT 97]
Cl Cl In PCl5, P-contains 10 electrons.
71. (A) [NCERT 174] 81. (D) [NCERT 102]
+ –
Nitroniumnitrate is NO NO and so hybridisationof
2 3 NaCl is a ionic compound, ionic compound does
nitrogen will be sp and sp2. not hydrolysed.
82. (D) [NCERT 127]
72. (B) [CBSE 2008] Diethyl ether does not show hydrogen bonding.
The geometry of all the species is tetrahedral. 83. (D) [NCERT 105]
BaSO 4 is water insoluble, it means lattice
NH4 NH3 NH2 energy dominates over hydration energy.
Bond pairs 4 3 2 84. (B) [NCERT 108]
Lone pairs 0 1 2 85. (C) [NCERT 103]
+ ++ ++
Li (aq) < Mg (aq) < Be (aq) - Surface charge
Total 4 4 4
density increases so ionic hydration increases,
Geometry Tetrahedral Tetrahedral Tetrahedral hydrated radii increases so ionic mobility
decreases.
(Pyramidal) (Angular)
86. (D) [NCERT 102]
Angle 109°28' 107° 104.5°
Polarisation is minimum in BaCl2 as size of Ba2+ is
73. (C) [NCERT 111] maximum and thus highly ionic compound.
3
XeO3 is sp with 1 lp. 87. (A) [NCERT 126]
Isoelectronic species have same bond order.
74. (C) [NCERT 280]
CN— = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14 electrons, O2— = 8 + 8
H + 1 = 17 electrons; NO+ = 7 + 8 – 1 = 14
O–O
O–H is polar bond electrons;
O–O is non-polar bond
H CN+ = 6 + 7 – 1 = 12 electrons.
88. (C) [NCERT 112]
75. (D) [NCERT 111]
F -
Be
F
O
F xx xx
F
O
xx H H
F–S–F C F F – Xe – F
F F F F F F F Cl
1 lb Zero lb 2 lb
Xe Si
76. (B) [NCERT 121] Cl Cl
C2 -bonds are present. F Cl
77. (A) [NCERT 121] 89. (D) [NCERT 111]
In * molecular orbitals 2 nodel planes are
CO23  Trigonal planar
present.
78. (C) [NCERT 116] NO2  Angular
+ 2
Hybridisation in ClO2 of central elements is sp
90. (C) [Mod. NCERT]
and -bonds are formed by p-p and p–d
overlaping. In CH3+, sp2 and CH3–, sp3
NLI / 7
PHYSICS
1. (A) [NCERT-99] 5. (A) [NCERT-95]


p  pxiˆ  pyjˆ 1 2
x  ut  at
 2
p  2cos t î  2 sin tjˆ
 1
 dp x  10  25   20  (25)2
F 2
dt
x = 250 – 10 × 625

F  2 sin t î  2cos t ˆj x = 250 – 6250
 x = –6000 m
F.p  4 sin t cos t  4 sin t cos t
6. (D) [NCERT-100]

F.p  0  Fp cos   0  cos   0
b b
o A y B
   90  
l
2. (A) [NCERT-96] O
from conservation of momentum M

Q
P
m1v1 = m2v2
200 × 10–3 × 80 = 100 v 2
v 2 = 16 cm s–1 As P and Q fall down, the length l decreases at
3. (B) [NCERT-92] the rate of U m/s.
m2a m2 a From the figure, l2  b2  y 2

Differentiating with respect to time
F M m1
m1g dl db dy
2l   2b   2y 
dt dt dt
m2a = m1g
m1g  db dl 
a  As dt  0, dt  U
m2
F = (m1 + m2+ M)a
dy  l  dl dy  1  U
mg       U
F  1 (m1  m3  M) dt  y  dt dt  cos   cos 
m2
7. (D) [NCERT-96]
4. (B) [NCERT-99]
2v1 + v2 = 2v3.
Taking East as x-axis and North as y-axis
     8. (D) [NCERT-93]
F1  F2  F3  F4  F5  8iˆ .....(i)
5g – T = 5a1 ...(i)

If F1  0 2T – 8g = 8a2 ....(ii)
    a1 = 2a2
then, F2  F3  F4  F5  14 ˆj .....(ii)
from eq. (i) and (ii) by adding eq. (i) and (ii)
 a2 = 5/7 m/s2
F1  8iˆ  14ˆj
9. (C) [NCERT-98]
F1  64  196 T (1) + T (7) + T (2) + T(a) = 0
F1  260 10 + a = 0
a = –10 m/s2 downwards.
260
a  a  65m / s2
2
NLI / 2
10. (B) [NCERT-99] 15. (B) [NCERT-99]
Impulsive force does not transmited on the body.
16. (A) [NCERT-96]
m2a2= m1a2
F
m2
at equilibrium a1  a2
3m m1
F = 3mg
3mg 17. (A) [NCERT-98]

Impulse = charge in momentum = P
When string is cut then block 'm' falls freely under
gravity with acceleration g. after each 2 sec momentum changed.
Now making F.B.D of upper block 18. (B) [NCERT-96]
3mg – 2mg = 2ma F = 3mg
hand man box
g = 2a a N T
2m
T T N
g
a F 50 g 30 g
2 2mg
F=T N + T = 50g T = N + 30g
11. (C) [NCERT-97]
Tension in the spring will be 5N.
= 50g – T + 30g
2T = 80g
12. (D) [NCERT-99]
T = 40g
T Fpc N = 10g = 100 Newton.
19. (C)
mg Maximum force by surface when friction works
Mg F f 2  R 2  ( R)2  R 2  R  2  1
Minimum force =R when there is no friction Hence
ranging from R to
Force on the pulley by clamp
R 2  1
Fpc  T 2  [(M  m)g]2 Mg  F  Mg  2  1
20. (A) [NCERT-105]
Fpc  (Mg)2  [(M  m)g]2
2T  VB  3TV0
Fpc  M2  (M  m)2 g 3
VB  V0
13. (C) [NCERT-93] 2
Force exerted by the ball on hands of the player 21. 
Limiting friction between block and slab
dv 0.15  20 = µsmAg
m   30N
dt 0.1 = 0.6×10 × 9.8 = 58.8 N
14. (C) [NCERT-96] But applied force on block A is 100 N. So the block will
slip over a slab.
dm Now kinetic friction works between block and slab
Fu  m(g  a)
dt Fk = µkmAg = 0.4 × 10 × 9.8 = 39.2 N
This kinetic friction helps to move the slab
dm 5000(10  20)
  187.5 kg / s
dt 800 39.2 39.2 2
 Acceleration of slab m  40  0.98 m / s
B
NLI / 3
22. (A) 28. (A)
In cycling, the rear wheel moves by the force
a  g(sin    cos )  9.8(sin 45  0.5 cos 45)
communicated to it by pedalling while front wheel
moves by it self. So, while pedalling a bicycle, the 4.9
force exerted by rear wheel on ground makes force  m / sec 2
2
of friction act on it in the forward direction (like
walking). Front wheel moving by itself experience 29. (D) [NCERT-92]
force of friction in backward direction (like rolling of v = v 0 + at ; 0 = 5 +a ×2
a ball). [However, if pedalling is stopped both wheels
5 2 5
move by themselves and so experience force of a= ms ; F = m (–a) =10× =25 N
friction in backward direction] 2 2
23. (A) 30. (C)
mg sin = µ mgcos  a  g(sin    cos )  10(sin60  0.25cos 60)
 tan = µ
a  7.4 m / s 2
1
or cot    3 . 31. (C) [NCERT -112]

24. (A) dm
Forced exerted on block F  v  4  3  12N
 1 1 dt
  tan   1  2   1  2
 n  n
 As   45
F 12
25. (D) [NCERT -97 ] So acceleration of block a    2.4 m / s2 .
m 5
F 32. (B) [NCERT -120]
Acceleration a 
Mm According to given problem change in momentum
of the ball
p = pt – pi = m(v – u) = 150 × 10–3 [20 – (–12)]
So by impulse momentum theorem impulse I = P =
4.8 N–s
And by time average definition of force in case of impulse
I p 4.80
Fav     480 N
t t 0.01
For the block to be stationary, 33. (B)
ma cos  = mg sin .
F – 12g = 12a
F 16g – 12g = 12a
 .cos   g. sin 
Mm
4g = 12a
 F = (M + m)g. tan .
a = g/3 = 10/3 = 3.33.
26. (C) [NCERT- 95]
34. (A)
Mm 4 2 g
Acceleration, a = g g From the frame of reference of train, there is pseudo
Mm 4 2 3 force of ma on bob in backward direction.
Applying Newton’s 2nd law on mass C Balancing force in horizontal direction, Tsin = ma
g Balancing force in vertical direction, Tcos = mg
mcg – T’ = mca (a = ) Taking ratio,
3
2g sin  a a a
2g – T’ = 2a =   tan      tan1
3 cos  g g g
2g 4g 4  9.8 35. (C) [NCERT -96 ]
T’ = 2g –    13 N
3 3 3 If momentum remains constant then force will be
27. (C) [NCERT-94] dP
zero because F 
dp dt
F
dt
NLI / 4
36. (A) [NCERT -96 ] 40. (B) [NCERT- 95]
Using lami’s Theoram Let T be the tension in the string then using
Newton’s 2nd law
For 5 kg mass, 5g – T = 5a
and for 4 kg mass T = 4a
5  9.8
Adding 9a = 5g, a=
9
49
=  5.44 ms 2
10 3 T1 T 9
 
sin120 sin90 sin150 41. (B) [NCERT-94]
T1 10 3

sin90 sin(90  30) 1 2 l
l at or t  l , t' 
10 3 10 3 2 2
T 1   20N
cos30 3 /2
t' 1 t 4 2
T2 or,  or, t'   x
 T 1 20 t 2 2 2 2
sin(180  30)
T2  10N = 2 2 sec.
42. (D)
37. (D)
Net force = Applied force – Friction force F F 98 1
     0.1
ma = 24– µmg = 24 – 0.4 × 5 × 9.8 = 24 – 19.6 R mg 100  9.8 10
 a = 4.4/5 = 0.88 m/s2 43. (A)
38. (D) [NCERT-103] 44. (A)
Frictional force = mg For limiting condition
 retardation = g
S = 0 – 1/2 mg .r2 mB

2S 2 1 mA  mC
t or t
g  5
 0.2   2  0.2 m C  5
10  mC
39. (B) [NCERT-93]  mC  15 kg
F=K
dv 45. (A)
mv k
dS
u s F
k  ma
mg
0 udv  m 0 dS
a  g
1 v 2  u2  2as
2
v  v 2  u2  2g
m
32 32
1 g    0.08
v 40 400
m   0.1
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (4) [NCERT 142] 57. (D) [NCERT 141]

n1RT1 = n2RT2
PV
1 1 T
Use  1
P2V2 T2 n1 T2
or 
n2 T1
47. (D) [NCERT 143]
3 3 2
Kinetic energy = RT if n1 = 1, n2 = 1  
2 5 5
48. (3) [NCERT 136]
5 T2
so, 
K 2 300
According to Boyle's law V 
P or T2 = 750 K = 4770C
49. (C) [NCERT 147] 58. (B) [NCERT 143]

The temperature below which the gas can be lique-
fied by the application of pressure alone is called  3RT   3RT 
   2 
critical temperature.  M SO2  M  O2
50. (B) [NCERT 143]
3 T T
KE  RT    4 
2  M  SO2  M O2
51. (A) [CBSE 1994]
TSO2 300
 4  2400 K = 21270C
r  1/d 64 32
52. (D) [NCERT 145] 59. (C) [NCERT 143]
These are pressure and volume correction
respectively for ideal gas, taking care of attraction
8RT
force and size of the molecules which is dominating
v 4 2
at high pressure and low temperatutre conditions.  M  
53. (B) [NCERT 142]  2RT  
Using partial pressure of hydrogen M
= mole fraction of hydrogen × total pressure
54. (A) [NCERT 144] 60. (C) [NCERT 142]
3RT 2
using Vrms  Moles of H2 1;
M 2
(Vrms )H2 50  32 32
 1 moles of SO2=  0.5
(Vrms )O2 2  800 64
55. (B) [NCERT 142] Total moles = 1 + 0.5 = 1.5
PM pressure of 1.5 moles = P–
d
RT
hence high pressure and low temperature will favour P P 2P
pressure of 1 mol =  
the density. 1.5 3 /2 3
56. (A) [NCERT 148]
Critical temp. of A is greater than B so it is 61. (C) [NCERT 145, 146]
liquificable. Higher the value of van der Waal's constant a easier
is the gas to liquify.
NLI / 6
62. (B) [NCERT 146] 76. (D) [NCERT 140]
PV V12  V22  V32  V42

Z Vrms 
nRT 4
As Z < 1 (given) 77. (B) [NCERT 141]
PV P
 1 or PV < nRT d
nRT T
(1 atm) × V < 1 78. (A) [NCERT 144]
mol × (0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1) ×(273 K) 79. (C) [NCERT 138]
Vm < 0.0821×283 L Apply Grahms law.
Vm < 22.4 L
80. (B) [NCERT 139]
63. (D) [NCERT 144]
volume of gas diffused
w1 M  Rate of diffusion =
  1 time taken
Use
w2  M2 
81. (B) [NCERT 139]
64. (C) [NCERT 136]
A constant temperature refers for isothermal pro- r1 M2
Apply 
cess. r2 M1
65. (B) [NCERT 141]
82. (D) [NCERT 139]
PM Lower will be molecular mass higher will be the
use relation d 
RT rate of diffusion.
66. (A) [NCERT 138] 83. (B) [NCERT 137]
use PV = nRT
r1 M2 84. (D) [NCERT 144]
Apply 
r2 M1
Real gas is less pressure due to intermolecular
67. (A) [NCERT 139] forces between gas molecules.
Use Grahams law. 85. (A) [NCERT 143]
68. (D) [NCERT 138] At temperature T 1
Gases having same molecular mass will have P1  M
d1 
same rate of diffusion. R  T1
69. (B) [NCERT 147] At temperature T 2
P2  M
70. (C) [NCERT 144] d2 
R  T2
(P+a/V2) is responsible for intermolecular forces.
86. (C) [NCERT 142]
71. (D) [NCERT 144]
87. (D) [NCERT 148]
72. (A) [NCERT 144]
Plot is straight line parellel to x-axis.
73. (B) [NCERT 144]
88. (D) [NCERT 142]
74. (B) [NCERT 143]
1
The velocity of most of the molecules is known
 3RT  2
as most probable velocity. use  
 M 
75. (C) [NCERT 138]
89. (A) [NCERT 142]
r1 d2
use  90. (B) [NCERT 143]
r2 d1
Kinetic energy depends only on temperature.
NLI / 7
[All India Test & Discussion Series] Test-6/[Solution] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 13-Jan-2021
PHYSICS
1. (B) 6. (C)
If only conservative forces are acting in the system. 1 2 1 1  10 2
W ext=U (If body moves without acceleration) kx     0.1
2 2 0.02
W ext = U +KE
= 2.5 Joule
(if body moves with acceleration)
7. (D)
W conservative = –U (always)
2. (B) x = x2 W = mgh
If a particle at x 1 is displaced slightly towards left or w mgh 300  9.8  2
right the force is in the same direction. Hence the P=    1960 watt
t t 3
equilibrium is unstable. Whereas at x2 the force is
directed opposite to displacement. 8. (A)
3. (A) P = mgsin × v
k1x1= k2x2 100x1 = 150x2
1 30  5
and x1 + x2 = 2.5  x2= 1cm x1 = 1.5cm = 30,000 × 10 × 
10 18
1 2
W.D.=– (x – xI1); = 25 kW
2 f
9. (C)
1
 100  (1.5)2
2 3 m
Ratio =  P
1 2 t
 150  (1)2
2
P1 m1t 2 60 11
4. (C)  P  m t  50  12
The work done by gravity is the work done, as if all the 2 2 1
mass were concentrated at the centre of mass. The = 11 : 10

work necessary to lift the object can be thought of as
the work done against gravity and is just W = mgh, 10. (C)
where h is the height through which the centre of mass
is raised. 1 3
Power of a pump = Av
W=180(9.8) (1.7) = 3.0 kJ 2
5. (D) To get twice amount of water from same pipe v has
t 3 to be made twice. So power is to be made 8 times.
S=
3 11. (A) P × 40% = W/t
dS = t2dt
d2 S d2  t 3   
a=  2    2t m/s2 746 W  W 
dt 2 dt  3    
4 t 600  2 
Now work done by the force  2  
 60 
2 2
W =  F.ds   ma.dS  W = 7.46 J

0 0
2 12. (A) y = 10 – 10 2  4 2  0.84m

2
 3  2t  t dt
0 1
Thus mv 2 = mgy
2 2 10 m
3 3 4 2
=  6t dt  t 
0 2  0
4m
v= 2gy  2  9.8  0.84
= 24 J y
= 4.05 m/s
NLI / 2
13. (B) 20. (D)
W  Fs  200  10  2000 J Thus U(x) = K[1 – (1 – x2)] = Kx2

dsin 30  h
dU d(kx 2 )
1 F=   2Kx
 10  h5 dx dx
2
Thus, the motion is an SHM.
By work energy theorem
21. (B) [NCERT- 122]
1
Fd  mgh  m(v 2  u2 )
2 a,a
w  k(xiˆ  yj).
ˆ (dxiˆ  dyj)
ˆ
1 0,0
 2000  (10  10  5)  10v 2
2
 v  10 3  17 ms1  k  xdx  ydy
14. (B) In the frame of lift displacement is zero, is d(x 2  y 2 )

 k 
W = F.S = T.S = 0 2
15. (A)
k (a,a )
Work done against gravity    x 2  y 2 (0,0 )
2
= mgd = 2 × 10 × 10 = 200 J
= –ka2.
Actual work done = 300 J
Work done against friction = 300 – 200 = 100J 22. (A) [NCERT-125]
16. (A)
 g 5
Work done = Area conv ered in between force w  m  g   h  mgh
 4 4
displacement curve and
displacement axis = Mass Area covered in between 23. (B) [NCERT-129]
acceleration displacement curve and displacement axis. New K.E., E' = 9E
1 P= 2mE and P' = 2mE'
10 × (8 × 10–2 × 20 × 10–2)
2
P' 2m  9E
= 8 × 10–2 J  3
17. (B)
P 2mE
1 x P'
x1 x1 x  1 – 1 = 3 – 1 [ on substrating 1 in both sides]
w  F.dx   Cx dx  C  2   Cx12 P
0 0
 2 0 2
18. (A) P' P

 100 = (3 – 1) × 100 = 200%
Potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases P
when the height of the particle increases it is clear from 24. (A)
the graph.
19. (A) ms s ms 2
P  F.V.  mav  .  3
t2 t t
W.D.
P= Pt 3
time s2 
m
WD in 1 beat by heart = 0.5 J
WD in 72 beats by heart = 0.5 × 72 = 36 J 25. (A) [NCERT 128]
Time = 1 minute = 60 S 200 10
n 
W.D. 36 6 60 3
P=    0.6W
t 60 10
mgL 4  10  2
Hence, power used by heart to beat 72 times a minute w=   3.6J
2n2 2(10 /3)2
is 0.6 W.
NLI / 3
26. (C) [NCERT 126] 33. (A)

P = Fv
  P = mav
P  F.v
dv
= 120 – 60 + 15 = 75J P = mv. .v
ds
27. (D) [NCERT-116] p
.ds = v2.dv
1 m
Pot. E = kx2 , Pot E  x2 Integrate both sides under limits V from v 1 to v 2
2 ds from 0 to S
x1 = 2 cm, x2 = 10 cm v2
 v3  Ps
Pot, E in 2nd case is (5)2 times we get  3  
v1
m
28. (A) [NCERT-119]
1 3 Ps
F = (v 2  v 13 ) 
Power , P = Fv = F at = F × t 3 m
m
m 3
Pt =
3p

v 2  v13 
29. (B) [NCERT-118] 34. (D)
Inital KE of the shotput
Use p = 2m(KE) , p  KE
W hen KE is doubled, momentum becomes 1
= (10kg)(1m / s2 )  5J
2
2 times. Intial PE of the shotput as a height 1.5 m above
30. (B) [NCERT-39] ground = mgh = (10 kg) (10 m/s2) (1.5 m) = 150 J
Total intial energy of the shotput = 155 J.
S = t2 + 2t
35. (D)
ds
v= = 2t+2
dt mv 2
mg  mgcos  
v t =2 = 2×2+2 R
K  U  0
= 6 m/s
1 2 1 2
v t=4  2×4+2  mv  mu   mg(R  Rcos  )  0
2 2
 10 m/s 2
From work energy theorem  v2   gl   2v 2
W = K gl
3v 2  gl  v 
2
W = 1/2 mV – 1/2 mV
2 1
2 3
W = 1/2 ×2 (100– 36)
36. (C)
W = 64 J
work done in the friction is
31. (D) [NCERT-126]
W  (mgcos )s
F  s – 1/3
h
W  (mgcos )s( )  mghcot 
vdv sin 
m  s 1 /3
ds now cot 1  cot 300  3
–1/3
v dv  s ds
1
v 2  s2/3 = v  s1/3 now cot 1  cot 600 
3
P = F.v
P = s – 1/3 x s 1/3  W1  W2
P  s0 i.e, kinetic energy in first case will be less.
(K = mgh – W) or
32. (D)
K1 < K 2
NLI / 4
37. (C) 42. (B)
No displacement is there. No work at all
When a body will move at the speed near to the speed
38. (C)
of light then the mass of it will dilate. We cannot treat
kinetic energy 1 mv 2 the mass of it as a constant parameter anymore. So
Stopping dis tance  s the kinetic energy =1/2mv 2 can be written in the non-
retarding force 2 F
relativistic regime only.
If lorry and car both possess same kinetic energy and 43. (B)
retarding force is also equal then both come to rest in Potential energy = mgh
the same distance.
Potential energy is maximum when h is maximum
39. (D) 44. (B)
Because linear momentum is vector quantity where as Let h is that height at which the kinetic energy of the
kinetic energy is a scalar quantity. body becomes half its original value i.e. half of its kinetic
40. (C) energy will convert into potential energy
490
mgh   2  9.8  h
P  2mE 2
P m h  12.5
(If E  cons tan t) 45. (B)
P1 m1 Potential energy of water = kinetic energy at turbine

P2 m2
1
mgh  mv2
2
41. (C)
 v  2gh  2  9.8  19.6
Work in raising a box = (Weight of the box) × (height by
v  19.6 m/ s
which it is raised)
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (C) [NCERT 156] 58. (B) [NCERT 179]

Only work is path function among Internal energy Standard Gibbs free energy is defined as Gibbs
enthalpy, work and entropy. energy change when one mole of substance is
formed from its elements in their standared states.
47. (A) [NCERT 161]
59. (D) [NCERT 179]
This relation is valid only at constant pressure
Go = –2.303 nRT logK
condition.
60. (D) [NCERT 179]
48. (D) [NCERT 160]
Go = –2.303 nRT logK
For adiabatic process Go = 0 if Keq. = 1
q = 0 so 61. (A) [Mod. AIPMT 2006, 2009]
T = 0 G = H – TS
and for free expansion w = 0 62. (D) [Mod. NCERT]
49. (B) [NCERT 156] According to third law of thermodynamics for
There is no exchange of heat in adiabatic process cristiline solids TLt . S  0
0
so Q = 0 63. (B) [NCERT 163]
50. (B) [NCERT 160]
1
Heat of formation for 2 mole of HCl = 194 KJ C(s)  O2 (g)  CO(g)
2
194 H – E = nRT
so heat of formation for 1 mole of HCl =
2 H – E = 0.5 × 8.314 × 298
= 97 = 1238.78 J mol–1
51. (D) [NCERT 171] 64. (A) [NCERT 170]
The dissociation energy of H–H bond will be

C(s) + O2(g)  CO2 ----------- (i)
+434.8 KJ
CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g)  CO2(g) ----------- (ii)
52. (A) [NCERT 178]
on subtracting eq. (i) from (ii)
G = H – TS we get required equation
= 3000 – 300×10 65. (A) [NCERT 163]
G = 0 The heat required to raise temperature of body by
10C is called as specific heat.
so above 300 K reaction will be spontaneous.
66. (D) [NCERT 177]
53. (C) [NCERT 173]
n = 0 for the reaction
The heat of neutralisation of any strong acid and
H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
strong base = –57.3 KJ
so H = U
54. (A) [Mod. NCERT]
67. (B) [NCERT 166]
Hess law is used to calculate enthalpy of reaction. The enthalpy change for the given reaction will be
55. (B) [NCERT 161] +92 KJ
n = –2 68. (C) [NCERT-171]
apply H = E + nRT 1 1
A 2  B 2  AB, H  50 K cal
so H = E – 2RT 2 2
56. (B) [NCERT 173]
1 1 x
Heat of neutralisation will be minimum for the  2 x  2 2   x  50
 
mixture of weak acid and weak base.
57. (B) [NCERT 170] x x
 2  4   x  50
On combustion of 32gm sulphur  –298  
298 2x  x
On combustion of 4 gm sulphur  4  x  50
32 4
= –37.25 KJ x = 200.
NLI / 6
69. (C) [NCERT-178] 82. (C) [NCERT-170]
For H2O(l)  H2O(g), S is +ve.
3
70. (D) [NCERT-166] CH3 OH  O2  CO2  2H2 O
2
C(graphite) + O2 (g)  CO2 (g). H = –723 K J mol–1
71. (B) [NCERT-155] If one mole is used, then heat evolved
Reactions is which products has lesser energy than
2
reactant are exothermic reaction G    723
3
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NO3 + 92 kJ.
= –482 kJ.
72. (A) [NCERT-160]
83. (A) [NCERT-173]
w = 2.303 nRT log P2/P1
H2SO4 KOH
= 2.303 × 1 × 2 × 300 log 10/2
N.V. = 0.1 × 2 = (0.2 × 1) × (0.15)
w = 965.84
= 0.2 = 0.03
At. const., temperature E = 0
Heat liberated by 1 equivalent = 57.2 kJ.
E = q + w q = –w.
So, heat liberated by 0.03 equivalent.
73. (A) 0
= 57.2 × 0.03
74. (C) [NCERT-161]
= 1.7 kJ.
G = H – TS
84. (B) [NCERT-184]
at eqn. G = 0 Cl2 is gas while Br2 is liquid.
So, H = TS 85. (A) [NCERT-174]
75. (B) [NCERT-176] S(A  B) = S(A  C) + S(C  D) – S(B  D)
76. (B) [Mod. AIPMT 2015] = 50 + 30 – 20 = 60 e.u.
Evolution of 680 Kcal is accompanied by 86. (B) [Mod. CBSE]
With H2SO4, 2 moles of water will form so heat will
CO2 = 6×44 = 264 g
Evolution of 170 Kcal is accompanied by y
be two times y=2x or x 
2
264
CO2 =  170 = 66 g 87. (C) [NCERT-177]
680
So = SP – SR
77. (B) [NCERT-166] So = –40 J K–1 mol–1
78. (A) [NCERT-178]
Ho 30  103 J
Apply G = H – TS. T o

S 40 J K 1mol1
79. (D) [NCERT-170]
= 750 K.
Enthalpy of combustion is always exothermic in 88. (D) [NCERT-162]
nature.
Those properties which are independent of mass
80. (B) [NCERT-163] are known as intensive properties.
H = E + ngRT 89. (A) [Mod. AIPMT 2003]
n = 2 – 1 > 0 Heat of reaction is equals to heat of formation when
one mole product is formed and no by product,
For spontaneous process G < 0.
product formed from those reactant which are
If H > 0, then to maintain G negative S, should naturally stable.
be positive. 90. (D) [NCERT-179]
81. (A) [NCERT-160] If process is spontaneous than G < 0 but if
H = +ve, S = –ve then the value of G will always
 P1  be +ve according to G = H –TS
wrev = – 2.303 nRT log  P 
 2
NLI / 7
All India Test and Discussion Series : TD-7 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 18-Jan-2021
PHYSICS
1. (D) 7. (A)
m 1x 1 = m 2x 2
m1v1 m2 v 2 m3 v 3
v cm G
m1 m2 m3
G F 16i 8j 1ˆ
acm i i
Here total momentum of system is zero, because m 16 2
momentum of each particle is same in magnitude and § 1·
2
5
they are symmetrically oriented. So acm 12 ¨ ¸ m / s2
© 2¹ 2
Total momentum 8. (A)

v cm
Total man
G G G G G G G
p1 p 2 p 0 G m1v A m2 v B v A vB
v com
m1 m2 2
So vcm of system is zero.
G aiˆ bjˆ
2. (B) 0 v com
2
3. (A) a1 a23 ˆ ˆ
acom (ai bj)
2 2
k 2 G
x dx.x VCOM is parallel to acom hence path will be straight line
L 3
x cm ³ k 2 4
L
x dx
L
9. (A) Kinetic energy of the system alone is conserved
4. (A)
As in gravity free space displacement of centre of mass 10. (A)
of man and ball system should not move. If displacement initial momentum of body = pi= mu = – mu
of the ball be h then the displacement of man in upward
final momentum of body = mu
direction
change in momentum = p=pf–pi
mh = Mv– (–Mv) = 2Mv
mh Mh´ h´
M 11. (A)
Hence the position of man w.r.t.
ª mº m
H h´ h h «1 » Man of one part =
¬ M¼ 4
3m
5. (C) mass of other shell =
4
Final momentum of system.
using conservation of momentum
G
mv mv î mvjˆ m 3m 2
mv u0 v
by the law of consevation of momentum after epxlosion 4 4
G 4
mv mv î mvjˆ 0 v2 v
G 3
v v(iˆ ˆj)
12. (C)
6. (C)
The mass move under the influence of gravitational pull hn he2n
which acts along the vertical. Thus CM changes along 1
n 2e 0.5
vertical while it remains unchanged in the horizontal 2
direction. § 1·
4
32
32 ¨ ¸ 2m
© 2¹ 16
NLI / 2
13. (A) 16. (A)
Let x be the distance of the particle of mass of m2 be Height attained after n jumps
moved so that the centre of mass is at the same h'=e2nh
position.
As n=2, hence,
? m1d m2 ( x) 0 h'=e2+2 h = e4h
§ m1 · 17. (B)
?x ¨© m ¸¹ d
2
According to conservation of momentum ;
14. (C)
m1v1 m2 v 2 (m1 m2 )v,
If we consider the elastic collision of two bodies having
0.1 u 1 0.4 u (–0.1) (0.1 0.4)v
masses m1 and m2 then according to law ot conservation
of momentum, 0.06
Now v 0.12m / s
0.5
18. (C)
Here, m= 0.25 kg, u1=3 ms–1, u2=–1 ms–1
It i an inelastic collision
According to coservation of momentum
mu1+mu2 = (m+m)v
mu1 mu2 u1 u2
v or v
2m 2
3 1
i.e. e=1 (condition for collision to be perfectly elastic), v 1ms –1
2
i.e., there is no difference between elastic and perfectily
elastic collision by definition. 19. (D)
15. (A) As the spherical bodies have their own size so the
Here, m1 = m, m2 = 2 m distance covered by both the body 12R–3R=9R, but
individual distance covered by each body depends upon
u1 =2 m/s, u2=0 their masses
Coefficient of restitution, e= 0.5
Let v1 and v2 be theri respective velocities after collision
Applying the law of conservation of linear momentum,
we get,
m1u1 m2u2 m1v1 m2 v 2

Let smaller body cover distance × just before collision
? m u 2 2m u m u v1 2m u v 2 From m1r1 = m2r2, we get
2m mv 1 2mv 2 Mx 5M(9R x) x 7.5R

20. (C)
G G
m1 1, m2 35.5, r1 0, r2 1.27i
G G
G m1 r1 m2r2
r
m1 m2
G 35.5u1.27 G
r i
135.5
G 35.5
r u1.27iˆ 1.24iˆ 1.24Å
36.5
NLI / 3
21. (A) 28. (A) 10 ms —1
Momentum conservation 29. (C) [NCERT-129]
5 u 10 20 u 0 5 u 0 20 u v v 2.5m / s Applying conservation of momentum
22. (B) m1 u1 + m2 u2= m1 v1 + m2 v2
Fraction decrease in kinetic energy of neutron 15 + 10 = v1 + v2---------------------- (1)
2 v2 v1
§ m m2 · we know that e
1 ¨ 1 (As m 1 1 and m2 2) u1 u2
© m1 m2 ¸¹
u1 - u2 = v2 - v1 {e = 1 for perfectly elastic collision}

2 2
§ 1 2· § 1· 1 8
1 ¨ 1 ¨ ¸ 1 15 - 10 = v2 - v1-------------------------(2)
© 1 2 ¸¹ © 3¹ 9 9
From eq. (1) and (2)
23. (C)
v1 = 10 and v2 = 15 m/s.
By the conservation of momentum in the absence of
30. (C) [NCERT-144]
external force total momentum of the system (ball +
earth) remains constant. 2 u 2 3u 2 4 u 0 1u 0
xcm
2 3 4 1
24. (C) Momentum
10
xcm xcm 1m
25. (C) 10
31. (D) [NCERT-144]
m1v1 – m2v2 = (m1 + m2)v
2 × 3 – 1 × 4 = (2 + 1)v
m1v1 m2v2
Vcm =
m1 m2
v = 2/3 m/s
2(2) 4(10)
26. (C) = = 6 m/s.
24
m1m2 2
32. (A) [NCERT–129]
Loss in K.E. = 2(m m ) u1 u2
1 2 1 m1m2
Here Loss of K.E. = 2 m m v1 v 2
2 2
1 2
4u6
(12 0)2
2 u 10 1 40 u 60 2
' Ek u 42
172.8 J 2 40 60
27. (D) 1200

= (4) 48 J
100
After collison the man = m + 3m 33. (B) [NCERT-138]
ab = (a + c) v0
§ m m2 ·
v´ ¨ 1 ab
© m m ¸¹ v0 =
1 2
ac
v
v 34. (D)
3
During an elastic collision the K.E is converted into
k.Ebefore 1/ 2 mv 2
9 :1 potential energy. As the potential energy of a system
k.Eafter 1/ 2 m(v / 3)2 of two masses varies inversely as the distance between
them. So option 4 is correct .
NLI / 4
35. (A) [NCERT-148] 39. (C)
m m 3m
m1v1 m2v2 Here masses of parts are , , . The momentum
Vcm = 5 5 5
m1 m2 of each part flying at right angles will be same and will
act at 45° with the direction of third.
20 u 20 5 u 0 400
= = = 16 ms–1 m m
20 5 25 u 15cos 45q u 15cos 45q
5 5
36. (D) [NCERT-148] 3m
v 5 2 ms 1
G G 5
G m1V1 m2V2 40. (C)
Vcm =
m1 m2 Here velocities after collision will be
m1 m2
5(î 2 ˆj 2kˆ) 2(2iˆ 5 ˆj 3kˆ) v1 u1 and here
= m1 m3
52
2 m1 m2
u1 v1 u1 or 2m1 2m2
3 m1 m2
5iˆ 10 ˆj 10kˆ 4iˆ 10 ˆj 6kˆ
= m1 5
7 3m1 3m2 or
m2 1
G iˆ 4 kˆ 41. (D)
Vcm = m/s
According to conservation of momentum
7
G G
37. (B) [NCERT-148,mod CBSE-1997] Piˆ 3Pjˆ p 0, where p momentum of C
2 2
|p| P 3 P 4P2 2P
G
It can be shown that p makes an angle of 150° with
it shows from the figure that that of B and 60° with the direction of A.
42. (B)
m1 u 0 m2L m2 Here velocities after collision are
Xcm = m1 m2 = m m L
1 2
§ m1 m2 · § 2m1 ·
v1 ¨© m m ¹¸ u1 and v 2 ©¨ m m ¸¹ u1
m1 u 0 m2 u 0 1 2 1 2
Ycm = m1 m2 =0
But v1 v 2 and
m1 m2 2m1 or 3m1 m2
m1 u 0 m2 u 0
Zcm = m1 m2 =0 43. (C)
The principle of conservation of linear momentum can
centre of mass is at a distance [m2L/(m1 + m2)] be strictly applied during a collision between two
from m 1 internally on the line joining the two particles provided the time of impact is Extremely small
particles.
44. (D)
38. (C)
In a collision of two bodies wether it is perfectly inelastic,
Applying conservation of momentum linear momentum always conserved but kinetic energy
m.v. = 2m × V cos 45° need not be conserved.
45. (C)
v P comes to rest and Q moves forward with speed v
or V
2
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (C) [NCERT 195] 54. (D) [NCERT 194]
equ. of I2 = equ. of hypo = 0.5 55. (B) [NCERT 204]
? mole of I2 = 0.25 In the reactions;
Hence [H2] = [I2] = 0.25 and [HI] = 0.5 at equilibrium 1 ZZX

K1
SO2 (g) O2 (g) YZZ SO3 (g) ;
2
[H2 ][I2 ] 0.25 u 0.25 1
KC
[HI]2 0.50 u 0.50 4 SO3
K1
[SO2 ][O2 ]1 / 2
47. (B) [NCERT 195]
' ng
Using the relation KP = Kc(RT) , for (2), 'ng is ZZX
2SO3 (g) YZZ
2 K
2SO2 (g) O2 (g)
equal to –2.
2
48. (A) [NCERT 204] SO2 [O2 ] 1
K2
[SO3 ]2 K12
49. (B) [NCERT 199]
2 1
Z K1
X + Y U 2Z QC [X] = 5/5 = 1 K2
[X][Y]
[Y] = 10/5 = 2 56. (D)
1
Stability of reactant v
2
3
= [Z] = KC
[1][2]
15/5 = 3 57. (C) [NCERT 194]
= 4.5 The given reaction is :
since, Q c > K c, the reaction will proceed in
ZZX
A + B YZZC + D
backward direction.
4 4 0 0
50. (C) [NCERT 203]
4-x 4-x x x
Equilibrium constant does not depend upon volume.
x=2
51. (A) [CBSE 1993] Kc = 1
'n
Kp = Kc (RT) , 58. (B) [NCERT 225]
'n = –1 ZZX
For the equilibrium I2(g) YZZ 2I(g)
Kp = 26×(0.0821×523) = 0.61 atm–1 –1
4D 2P
52. (C) [NCERT 189] KP
1 D2
Equilibrium is established in closed container.
D = 0.5
53. (C) [NCERT 200] Kp= 4
[N2H4]=2, [N2] = 3–2 = 1 and [H2]=2 putting the values P = 3.0 atm
[N2H4 ] 59. (D) [NCERT 189]

using KC According to Le Chaterlier’s principle.
[N2 ][H2 ]2
NLI / 6
60. (B) [NCERT 194-195] 72. (C) [NCERT 194]
XY2(g) U XY(g)+Y(g)
ZZX
C2H5OH + CH3COOH YZZ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
600-x x x
t=0 1 1 1 1
600+x = 800
or x = 200 at t 1/3 1/3 2/3 2/3
61. (A) [NCERT 211] 2/ 3 u 2/3

K eq. 4
H = Antilog (–pH)
+
1/ 3 u 1/ 3
= Antilog (–5.3) 73. (C) [NCERT 199]
= 5×10 –6
The reaction will proceed in the direction of
62. (C) [NCERT 197] reactants, for this relation between concentration
quotient (QC) and equilibrium quotient (KC) will be
ZZX
The unit of Kc for the reaction N2 + 3H2 YZZ 2NH3 KC < QC
is mole–2 lt2 74. (B) [NCERT 214]
63. (A) [NCERT 208]
2
H2O is acid it give H+ to NH3 § 3.2 ·
cD 2 0.2 u ¨ 2.048 u 104
© 100 ¸¹
Kb
64. (D) [NCERT 220]
Ksp for AgCl = s 2
75. (C) [NCERT 211]
65. (A) [CBSE 2008] 0.05 MH2SO4
The pH of salt BaCl2 > 7 whereas SrCl2 and CaCl2 =
H+ = N = nM = 2×0.05
7 and MgCl2 < 7.
66. (C) [NCERT 219] = 0.1, pH = 1
0.05 NH2SO4
Kw
for WA and WB Kh = Ka .Kb H+ = N = 5 × 10–2
67. (C) [NCERT 220] pH = 2 log5
Precipitation only occur in super saturated solu- = 1.3

tion only when IP > SP.
76. (D) [NCERT 197]
68. (B) [NCERT 219]
The chemical reaction
For WA and WB degree of hydrolysis do not de-
pend upon conc. or dilution. 1
BaO2 (s) o BaO(s) O2 (g) 'H ve
69. (D) [NCERT 220] 2
Ksp = 4s 3
In equilibrium condition pressure of oxygen depends
8×10 –12
= 4s 3 upon increase in temperature
s = 2×10–4 mole/lit 77. (A) [NCERT 204]
70. (C) [NCERT 192] In a reversible reaction if we increase the

temperature of endothermic reaction, then
According to law of mass action rate of chemical
equilibrium constant for reaction will be Increase
reaction is proportional to Molar concentration of
reactant’s 78. (B) [NCERT 227]
71. (B) [NCERT 191] Describe the effect of removal of CO on the
The right representation for a reversible reaction ZZX
equilibrium of the reaction 2H2 + CO YZZ CH3OH
equilibrium shift in backward direction
ZZX
A YZ 79. (D) [NCERT 203-204]
ZB
For melting of ice, the favourable condition will be
high temperature, high pressure
NLI / 7
80. (C) [NCERT 196] 87. (B) [NCERT 213]
Kp K c (RT)'n H Ka.C 4.9 u 10 8 u 0.1 7 u 10 5

= 0.033
pH = 5 – log 7
81. (A) [NCERT 211]
= 5 – 0.85 = 4.15
PH = 12
88. (D)
so POH = 2
[H+] = 10–3 M, [H+] = 10–4 M, [H+] = 10–5 M for the
[OH–] = 10–2M given acids.
10 2 MmixVmix = M1V1 + M2V2 + M3V3

hence Ca(OH)2 = M
2 Mmix × 3 = 10–3 × 1 + 10–4 × + 10–5 ×1
Now N = M × acidity of base

105 [100 10 1] 111 u 10 5
Mmix =
10 2 3 3
= u2 10 2
2 = 37×10–5 M
Hence mili equ. = 10–2 × 100 = 1 = 3.7×10–4 M
82. (D) [NCERT 195] 89. (D) [NCERT 210]
Unit of Kc = (Conc.)'ng , since 'ng is zero for all CH3COOH o CH3COO– + H+

the given reactions, none will have unit for Kc. WA Strong base
83. (C) [CBSE 2015] 90. (D) [NCERT 189]
84. (A) [CBSE 2003]
ZZZ
X
N2 3H2 YZZ
Z 2NH3 'H = –ve
CO2(g) + C(s) U 2CO(g)
i. low temp
85. (A) [Mod. NCERT]
ii. high pressure
NH4HS(s) U NH3(g) + H2S(g)
iii. excess H2 and N2
Kp PNH3 . PH 2S iv. removal of NH3
86. (C)
pKa = 14 – pKb = 14 – 1.62 = 12.38

pH = 1/2 [pKw + pKa + log C]
= 1/2 [14 + 12.38 + 0] = 13.19
NLI / 8
PHYSICS
1. (C) 5: 3 9. (B)
2 2
Here Is mR12 and IH  mR 22 1  l2 R 2 
5 3 Here MR2  M   
2
2 12 4 
2 2 R 5 .
 mR12  mR 22 or 12  l2 3 l 3
5 3 R2 3 or  or 
R2 1 R 1
2. (D) 2 : 1
10. (B)
1 1
Here I1  mr12 and I2  mr22
2 2 1 1 1 1 1
Here mgh = mv 2  I 2  mv 2   mR 2 2
I1 r12 2 2 2 2 2
  2 Also if '  ' is the density
I2 r2
then r12 1  r22 2 (masses equal) 1 1 3
 mv 2  mv 2  mv 2
r 2
 I  2 4 4
1
  2 or 1  2
2 4 4
r2 2 I2 1 or v 2 gh or v  gh
3 3
3. (A)
M.I. about perpendicular axis = MR2 + MR2= 2 MR2 11. (A)
1
= MR2 and M.I. about dia.  MR 2 = Ratio = 4 : 1. 2 2
2 Here M1R 2  M2R 2
5 3
4. (A)
2 1 1
M.I.  MR2  5  M2 or M2  3 kg
5 5 3
2 4
  R3.R2 12. (C)
5 3
8 22 5 176 5
  R  R gsin  g  sin30
15 7 105 a 
2
 k   h2 
5. (C)  1  r 2   1  r 2 
Here I11  I2  2 or mk 121  mk 22 . 2 g/ 2 g

a 
k1 2 1 1 4
or  .
k2 1
13. (D)
6. (A)
Here As the mass in this case is nearest to axis.
m  ml2  14. (C) E2 > E1

I  (2l)2      I 
12 t 3t
7. (A) Here I11  I2  2 and I1212  I22  22
2
2 2 2   R   2
(MR 2 )   M    
5 24 5   2   T E1 I112
Now 
or T  6 hours. E2 I2  22
8. (C) E1 I12 12 I2 E I

or  2 2  or 1  2
E2 I2  2 I1 E2 I1
1 2 1  E1
Here mr    mr 2  mr 2  ´ But I2  I1  1
2 2 
E2
. 
 ´
3
NLI / 2
15. (A) 21. (B)
Here Iz = Ix + Iy (Also Ix = Iy)  MR2 2Ix gsin 

Here a
k2
MR2 1 2
or Ix  and by theorem of parallel axis r
2
The solid cylinder has least value of K and hence greater
acceleration. It will reach the bottom first..
MR 2 3
It  Ix  MR 2   MR 2  MR 2
2 2 22. (D)
16. (A) Torque in rotatory motion is equivalent to force in linear

motion.
r
2
mr 2  23. (B)
Here L  mr 2  and L´ m   . 
 2 4 From the law of conservation of angular momentum I11
L . = I22. When the child sits on the disc, M.I. increases
Thus L´ while angular velocity decreases while angular velocity
4
decreases. No change in angular momentum takes
17. (C) place.
Here the torque produced is by the component of weight 24. (D)

Mg sin , parallel to the plane
1 2
a Here E I
  Mg sin   2
2 L  I  L2  I  I 2
18. (B) or L2  I  2E orL  2EI
1 1 3 25. (B)
Here mv 02  I 2  mgh or mv 20  mgh
2 2 4 If   0, then L is not constant
3 v 20
h gsin30
4 g
2
3 42 1
h   1.2 m 26. (A) Ratio = 5
4 10 gsin30
19. (B) 5

7
1 2 27. (B) Mvh = I
Here (K.E.)Rot.  I
2 2 v
1 2
Mvh  MR 2 
  1.2 0   25t   5 R
2  
1500  0.6  625  t 2 2
h R
1500 5
or t2 
625  0.6 h 2
t 2  4 or t  2s 
R 5
28. (B) [NCERT-165]
20. (D) Diameter of the disc lies parallel to X-axis
By theorem of perpendicular axis ,
MR 2  MR 2  M.I. of disc about diameter
Here I   MR2   2
2  2  1  MR2  MR2
MR 2
7 =  
  MR 2  2MR2  MR2 2 2  4
2 2
NLI / 3
29. (A) [NCERT-154] 34. (C) [NCERT-165]
As he lowers his hands, mass comes closer to the
axis of rotation.
MR2
30. (B) [NCERT-154] I=
4
As the masses rotates the attached moment of
inetria increase, the angular velocity decreases. MR2 I'
I'   MR2
Now I1  1 = I2  2 2
or MR2  = (M+2m)R2  2 3
 MR2  6I
2
M
or 2 = 35. (D) [NCERT-155]
M  2m
31. (B) [NCERT-154] 1 2
K I
2
A
J2
K [J  I]
F3 I
O J2 J2 n K
x K    J 
x 2J 2 n
x
F1 B F2 K J
C So J'  
22n 4
Let perpendicular distance of any side of the triangle 36. (B) [NCERT-164]
form O is x. 1 2 1 2
Mgh  M  I 
Taking moment about O, we get 2 2
F1x + F2 x – F3x = 0 Mg  52 1 1 2
or  M2  mK 2 2
 F1 + F2 = F3 6g 2 2 R
32. (D) [NCERT-164] 5 K2

or  1 2
3 R
ML2 ML2 2ML2
I  
3 3 3 K2 5 2
or  1
R2 3 3
33. (B) [NCERT-126]
2 2
Applying Conservation of energy K2  R
3
1 2 2
mg (2R) = I So I = MR2
2 3
2
37. (D) [NCERT-165]
1 5 2 v
2mg R =  mR 
 2 2
2 4  R I MR 2  MR 2
5
5 2
2mg R = mv 7 7
8 MK 2  MR2  K  R
5 5
16gR 38. (A) [NCERT-155]

v2 = When the tube filled partially with water is rotated
5
about its perpendicular bisector, mass tries to go
away from the axis (because of centrifugal force),
16gR therefore, moment of inertia of the system
 v= .
5 increases.
NLI / 4
39. (B) [NCERT-179] 44. (B)
1 1
mv 2  I 2
1 1 1 TotalK.E 2 2
K  I2   mR2  2 
2 2 2 Rot.E 1 2
I
2
1 2 1 1 2 2
1 mv   MR 
 20  0.25  0.25  10 4  3125J .
4 2 2 2
1 1 2 2
 MR 
2 2
l 1
40. (C) Here r = Mv2  Mv2
2 2 3
 
1 2 1
Mv
l2 1 2
M.I.  Mr 2  M  2
 .MI2 45. (B)
4 4 2
ETotal  ER  Er
41. (A) Thus I  R 5
1 2 1 2
 I  Mv
2 2
5 5
I1  R1   1 1 1 2 1
       MR 2 2  Mv 2
I2  R2   2 32 2 5 2
1 2 1
42. (C) Angular momentum must be conserved which is  Mv  Mv 2
5 2
conclusion from Keplers law which governs the
orbital motion. 7 7
 Mv 2   2  (0.5)2
10 10
43. (A) As in uniform circular motion the force acting is
only centripetal for which the torque about centre 14 1
   0.35 J
is zero. Thus angular momentum is conserved. 10 4
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (D) [NCERT 179] 57. (B) [NCERT 260]

Oxidation number of P in ortho-phosphoric acid is x 1 1
+ 3. CH2 Cl2  x  2  2  0 ;
47. (C) [NCERT 272]
i.e., x = 0
NaBH4 = O.N. of B is +3
H4P2O7 = O.N. of P is +5 y 1 2
48. (D) [NCERT 261]

C 6 H12 O6  6y  12  12  0
49. (D) [NCERT 265] i.e., y = 0
Br3O8 (Tribromo octa-oxide 58. (B) [Mod. CBSE]
-2
-2 O -2 W
O +6 +6
O  1000  n  M  V
-2 +4 -2
O Br Br Br O E
-2 -2
O O O 59. (C) [NCERT 265]
-2
50. (C) [NCERT-264] at.wt.

Using eq. wt. =
valancy
0 1  1
Cl2 (g)  2OH (aq)  Cl O (aq)  Cl (aq) . for MO, at. wt. of M = eq. wt. × valency = 28×2
= 56
 H2O(l)
In M2O3 using as above
51. (D) [NCERT 265] 60. (D) [NCERT 260]
The balanced equation will be
O O 2NO3– + 10H++ 8e–  N2O + 5H2O
– +5 0 0 61. (A) [NCERT 271]
Na+ O S O–Na+
+5
S S S
1
O O Reducing power 
SREP
From the structure, it is clear that the sulphur atoms 62. (A) [NCERT 267]
acting as dononr atoms have +5 oxidation number 2 4 3 4
(each). On the other hand, the sulphur atom involved Sn  Sn, C2 O4 2  CO2
in pure covalent bond formation has zero oxidation n1 = 2 n2 = 2
number. n = n1 + n2 = 2 + 2 =4
52. (D) [NCERT 260]
BaO2  KO2  O3  OF2 M
eq. wt. .
1 1 /2 0 2 4
53. (A)
The CrO5 have two peroxide ilnks 63. (C) [NCERT 259, 260]
O O 6
Cr  MnO 2
 (1)
 4
O O 4
 
O 7
 MnO2  (3)
KMnO4   3
So four oxygen atoms have O.N. –1.
54. (D) [NCERT 261]
Mn2 O3  (4)
 2 2
In KMnO 4 oxidation no. of Mn is +7 which is  Mn  (5)
maximum so KMnO4 only act as a oxidising agent
not reducing agent and in CO2 Oxidation no. of 64. (C) [NCERT 268]
Carbon is +4, which is miximum so CO2 act as KMnO4 FeC2O4
only oxidising agent never reducing agent. nf × mole = nf × mole
55. (B) [NCERT 262] 65. (B) [Mod. NCERT]
1 2
Zn0  2 Ag CN 
 2Ag 0  Zn(CN)2 Mol. wt. of acid
Equivalent wt. of acid =
56. (A) [NCERT 267-268] Basicity
NLI / 6
66. (B) [Mod. NCERT] 77. (B)
H3PO4 behaving as dibasic acid in the given reac- H2S S

tion.
–2 0
Mol. wt. 98 Change = 2
EW   = 49
Basicity 2
SO2  S
67. (D)
+4 0
S2O4–2 = O.N of S = +3
Change = 4
SO3–2 = O.N of S = +4 78. (D)
S2O6–2 = O.N of S = +5 PO4– – – x – 8 = –3  x = +5
68. (C) [NCERT 264] P4O10 4x – 20 = 0  x = +5
Fluorine does not show disproportionation becaue P2O –4
2x – 14 = –4  2x = 10  x = +5
7
oxidation number of fluorine does not change.
H3PO3 3 + x – 6 = 0  x = +3 (Lowest)
69. (A)
79. (D)
Equivalent weight = Molecular weight/n
70. (B) CIO4– does not disproportionate because it has
n1×mole of O.A. = n2 × mole of R.A. chlorine in maximum oxidation state of +7, i.e., it
71. (B) does not show the process of oxidation .
M Disproportionation of other species may be given
Eq. wt. = = M/2 as
n
72. (C) 1 1 5
In both 3 Cl O–  2 Cl +
ClO3
H2O2 + O3  H2O + 2O2 3

5

1

H2O2 is reducing agent and in 6 ClO 2  4 ClO3 + 2 Cl
H2O2 + Ag2O  2Ag+H2O + O2 1 7
H2O2 is reducing agent. 4CIO3–  Cl + 3 ClO4

73. (C) [NCERT 267, AI PMT 80. (C)
2014]
b
Mg H 2PO 2 g 2
Mg    2H 2PO 2
O O
H2PO2–
The structure of CrO5 is : Cr 2 x 1 + x – 4 = –1
O O
O x = +1
in which oxidation state of Chromium is +6 81. (B)
74. (C) CrO2Cl2 = MnO4–
x–4–2=0 x – 8 = –1
Here Fe+3 is converted into Fe++. So Fe act as
oxidising agent and Sn+2 is converted into Sn+4 so x+6 x = +7
Sn act as reducing agent Cr have highest +6
75. (C) and Mn have highest = +7
82. (B)
 0
0
Disproportion means the reaction in which same
H N  C
1 1 2 compound is oxidised as well as reduced.
2
83. (C)
O.N of Nitrogen = N = –1–2

= –3 CrO24
76. (D) 
Cr2O27
Fe2O3  +3
x+[(–2)x4] = – 2
Fe(CO)5  0 2x + (-2)x7 = – 2
FeS x=8–2=+6
 +2
Fe3O4
12
 8/3 2x = 14 –2 = 12, x= = +6
2
In Fe3O4, Iron have fractional O.N.
NLI / 7
84. (D) 87. (B)
HOCl is the strongest oxidising agent. the correct SnCl6– –

order of oxidising power is
X + 6x-1 = –2
1 3 5 7 x = +4
HClO  HClO2  HClO3  HClO 4
88. (C)
Because anion ClO– is least stable.
Sulphur have minimum O.N = –2
85. (B)
Sulphur have maximum O.N = +6
2MnO4  10Fe2  16H  10Fe3  2Mn2  8H2O 89. (B)
the balanced chemical equation is:
86. (D) 3I2 + 6OH–  5I– + IO3– + 3H2O
In the above reaction the oxidation number of Br2 90. (A)

increase from zero (in Br2) to +1 (in HOBr) and
decreases from zero (in Br2) to –1 (in HBr). Thus Pb3O4 is a mixture of 2PbO + PbO2
Br2 is oxidised as well as reduced and hence it is So two lead atom have +2
a redox reaction.
and one lead atom have +4
NLI / 8
PHYSICS
1. (3) 7. (2)
Here (P.E.)final – (P.E.)initial
GMp GMe
gp 
Rp2 and ge  R2 GMm GMm GMm
p   
2R 3R 6R
gp Mp R2e 2Me  Re2 1 8. (4)
 g  2
  2

R Me (2Re )  Me 2
e p
T  R30 / 2 and (4R0 )3 / 2
2. (1) T'
or  (4)3 / 2  (64)1/ 2  8
Since the point remains the same T
GM 9. (1)
 M and R are same and g 
R2 1
T inside a satellite g = 0  T  
remains the same g
3. (1) 10. (1)
The weight of the body is W=mg.
GM
At centre of earth the value of g becomes zero v0 
R0
So weight becomes zero at centre of earth
4. (3) v0 1 GM GM
and   R  R R0

R30
mg' 1 g' 1 (R)2 0 0
 or   or
mg 100 g 100 (R  h)2 11. (2)
1 1
R 1 Here Ee  mv e2 and E0  mv 02
 or 9R  h 2 2
R  h 10
or h=6400×9 = 57600 km E e v e2 2
  2  ( 2)2 
5. (3) E0 v 0 1
12. (1)
g' R2

g (R  h)2 4 3 4 3 
 3 R d  3 R d
Here F  G 
1 R2 1 R (2R)2
 2  (R  h)2  
R h
2
4
R  h  2 R  h  ( 2  1)  G 2 d2R 4
9
R. 13. (2)
h=0.414 R  GMm
6. (3) Since U =
r
GM Hence total gravitational potential energy will
Here g  decrease.
R2
14. (1)
or log g = log G + log M – 2 log R Here orbital velocity close to earth
dg 2dR v 0  gR  7.92 kms1
Differentiating  00
g R
The escape velocity is
 dg  v e  2gR  11.2kms1
Hence % change  g   100
Additional velocity is given by
v  v e  v 0  11.2  7.92
 dR 
 2   100  ( 2)  (2)  4% = 3.28 km s–1
 R 
NLI / 2
15. (1) 21. (2)
Let v be the velocity, then M.E. = P.E. + K.E.
Since the projectile will not escape hence if will always
 GMm  1 mv 2   GMm be in gravitational field it's M.E. always negative.
R 2 RR
22. (1)
v  gR 23. (4)
v  10  6400  103  R 
2
Here mg´ w  Now

 R  h 
1
v  8000 ms
16. (3) 2
 RR  W
mg´ w  
1 1  R  3R  4
Here h  ge t e2 and h  gm t m2
2 2
24. (4)
ge
 ge t e2  gm t m2 or t m2   t e2 T12  1013 
3
gm   (10)3  1000
T22  1012 
ge
tm   te  6 te T1
gm   1000  10 10
T2
17. (3)
25. (1)
2
1  11  2
 1 2
Here if m is the mass of the projectile, then
Here 2 m  19 v e   v e   2 mv
  1 1 1
mv 2  mv 02  mv 02 or v 2  v 20  v 2e
2 2 2
 121  2
  1 v e  v 2 or 0.21 v 2e  v 2
100   (3v e )2  v 2e or v 0  8v 2e
 v  0.21 v e  0.458 v e  2 2  11.2 kms–1 = 31.68 kms–1

18. (3) 26. (1)
19. (2)
2
GMm  2 
Here n
 mr2  mr  
r  T
3 5
10 kg x 2-x 10 kg
(mr)(4 2 )r n 4  2r n 1
 T2  
(2  x)2 2x GMm GM
 100 or  10 n 1
x2 x T  (r) 2
or 10x  2  x
27. (2)
2 Using the relationship
or x  m
11
T2  r 3
20. (4)
We get
3/2
r3 T1  r / 4  
Here time period of a satellite is T  2   
GM T2  r  8
T r3 1 r3 28. (3)
 2  or 
GM  gR2 The gravitational force is radial and torque acting on
the planet is zero, therfore, the angular momentum
1 r3 3 gR 2 remains conserved.
 or r 
 2 gR2 2
NLI / 3
29. (1) 36. (1)
Work done depends only displacement. Hence it Suppose parts are M1 and M2
will be path independent.
So, M1 + M2 = M
30. (2)
Gm1m2
Perpendicular to orbital plane Force = F 
r2
31. (1)
GM1(M  m)
F
 R2 cos2   r2
g'  g  1  
 g G
F
r

M1m  M12 
At poles  = 90°
g´ = g dF G
For F to be max dM  2  M  2M1 
1 r
maximum value
 cos2   1(max)  M  2M1

M
2
 g'  g  R is the least value M1 
2
32. (3) M M
M2  M  
2 2
g'equator = g  R 2 cos 2 0  g  R 2
37. (3)
When earth stops rotating then   0
Due to symettry electric field cancel each other.
 g'equator  g 38. (3)
So value of g at equator increases by R 2 Gravitational intensity does not upon on medium

39. (2)
33. (3)
Decrease at the equator but remain unchanged at
Force balance
the poles
Gm81M GmM 40. (4)


x2 (d  x)2 There is no gravitational intensity in side the spherical
81 1 9 cell
2
 2
x D
x (d  x) 10
41. (2)
34. (4)
2GMe
ve  M  6Me , R  3Ree
 Re
F  5(2yiˆ  2xj)
ˆ
2 2
 10y dx   10x dy 2GMe 2GMe 6

0 0 .
 40 J v 3Re Re 3
 
ve 2GMe 2GMe
35. (2) Re Re
gR2 v
v0   2
Rh ve
hR
v e  2v
So, v 0  gR
42. (2)
NLI / 4
43 (1) M
Mass of the cavity cut out  M´
8
mv 0 sin   mvrmax. ....(i)
Fnet  FMm  FM´m
1 GMem 1 GMe m
mv 20   mv 2  ...(ii)
2 Re 2 rmax
GMm GM´m
 
Solving these two equation with given data, we get. 4R2  5  2
 R
2
3R e .
rmax  23 GMm
2 
100 R2
Re
or the maximum height hmax = rmax – Re  . 45. (2)
2
44. (4) Te2  re3
Let mass of the cavity = M´ Tp2  rp3
2 3
 Tp   2R e 
M
 T    R 
Density of the sphere = 4 r 3 e e
3  24.5  25 years
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (4) [NCERT 277] 59. (3) [NCERT 284]
Covalent molecules occupy solid structure due to Ca2+ and Mg2+ forms insoluble salts with soap.
increasing van der waals' forces. 60. (1) [NCERT 284]
47. (4) [NCERT 284] Permutit are complex inorganic salts like sodium
In A, B, C and D pure gases product – N2 , N2, Cl2 alumino silicate (Na2Al2SiO3.xH2O) or zeolite (Na2Z)
and H2 will obtained, in which hydrogen is lightest.
where Z is Al2SiO3.xH2O.
48. (3) [NCERT 286]
61. (2) [NCERT 280]
Rate of reaction of protium will be greater than
duterium due to lower bond dissociation energy. Ca+2H2O  Ca(OH)2 + H2
49. (3) [NCERT 285] CaH2 + 2H2O  Ca(OH)2 + H2
4H2O2 + Cr2O72– + 2H+  CrO5 + 2H2O 62. (1) [NCERT 278]
50. (1) [Mod. NCERT] Hg is placed below H in electrochemical series.
Water obtained by purification with organic ion
63. (4) [NCERT XI 282]
exchange resins will free from all ionic impurities.
51. (2) [NCERT-285] The bond angle and dipole moment of water
respectively are 104.5o, 1.84 D
Using the formula
17 
% strength   volume strength O
56  
H H
52. (1) [NCERT 285]
64. (1) [NCERT XI 284]
H2O2 acts as reducing agent
In calgon process sodium hexametaphosphate
53. (2) [NCERT-XI-II 280]
(NaPO3)6 is used which is known as Calgon.
d- and f-block elements forms interstitial hydride.
65. (4)
54. (1) [NCERT 285] The hardness of water is estimated by EDTA method
Except H2SO4 all compound contain peroxide bond 66. (2) [NCERT XI 284]
and give H2O2 on hydrolysis.
Ca(OH)2 is used in Clark's method for the removal
55. (1) [NCERT-285] of temporary hardness
Non polar bond of H2O2 is formed by overlapping of 67. (3)
sp3, sp3 hybrid orbitals. 673 K
CO (g) + H2O (g) 
Catalyst
 CO2(g) + H2(g)
56. (4) [NCERT-XI-II 278]
Above reactions increases production of dihydrogen
Only Mg and Mn react with cold dil. HNO3 to give from synthesis gas
H2
68. (4)
57. (4) [NCERT 286] Multiply normality by 5.6 i.e. 5.6×1.5 =8.4
Industrial process is based on electrolysis followed 69. (3)
by hydrolysis of dil. H2SO4.
Polyphosphates (sodium hexametaphosphates,
58. (2) [NCERT 286] sodium tripolyphosphate or STPP) from soluble
complexes with Ca+2, Mg+2 present in hard water.
O12  2e  2O2  (As oxidant)
70. (4)
Critical temperature of water is more than O2 due
O12  O20  2e (As reductan t) to its dipole moment (Dipole moment of water =
1.84 D; Dipole moment of O2 = zero D.
NLI / 6
71. (3) 80. (3)
Ca 3 P2  6 H 2 O  2 PH 3  3 Ca (OH ) 2 Fire due to action of water on saline hydrides cannot
(Cal. phosphide )
1 mole
phosphene
(2 moles)
be extinguished with water or CO2. These hydrides
can reduce CO2 at high temperature to produce O2.
72. (4)
81. (1)
Mg  2 H 2 O  Mg(OH )2  H 2  82. (3)
LiH  H 2 O  LiOH  H 2  83. (1)
73. (2) 84. (2)
74. (4) Presence of CO32– and SO42– ions in water reduced

the tendency of dissolution of Pb in water as
Ice is a poor conductor of heat (a good thermal Pb(OH)2.
insulator) and its density is less than water.
85. (2)
75. (4)
H2 will not reduce heated Al2O3. NaCl does not make water hard.
76. (1) 86. (2)
Cu and dil. HCl will not produce H2. 87. (2)

77. (1) Organic ion exchange resins can remove only ionic
impurities.
34g H2O2 has 2 g H
88. (2)
2 x 100
 100 g H2O2 has = 5.88 g H On burning hydrogen in air, the colour of the flame
34
is light blue
78. (3)
89. (2)
Hydrogen behaves as a metal at very high pressure. 90. (3)
79. (4) It gives rise to proton
H2O absorbs neutrons more than D2O and this
H(g)  H+ + e–
decreases the number of neutrons for the fission
process. Proton
NLI / 7
All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-10 / [Solution] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 02-Feb-2021
PHYSICS
1. (1) 10. (2)
F L L Since material and cross section is same hence

∆L = ' 2 ∆L ∝ breaking force will reamain same
Y πr r2
11. (2)
L
is maximum for alternative
r2 ωL
(1) L = 50 cm r= 0.25 mm calculate each and 1.0 =
yA
confirm
2. (1)
2w L
∆L =L
g A
= T = g w
A=2 × 1 0 −3 with pully w w
+
g g
T L
=L ×
107 2 × 1 0 −6
since Tensian remains same, elengatia will be same
T = 20 N
12. (3)
3. (1)
4. (2) 3L
5. (3) Tensiar at the point from lower
4
6. (3)
Liquids do not have a definite shape and not capable 3L w 3w
end w1 + =w1 +
to attain linear or shear strain 4 L 4
7. (4)
3W
streess w1 +
y= = scape of linear porhan of stress-strain stress = 4
strain
S
curve
13. (4)
8 × 107
slope = = 2 × 1011
4 × 10 −4 14. (3)
8. (2) stress will be diveloped only when rod is subjected to
Let maximum length = Lmax the condition-3
L × A ×d×g 15. (4)
σ b = max
A
Let breaking stress is σ b
σb 106
L=
max = = 33.3 ≅ 34m
d × g 3 × 103 × 10 mg
mg +
9. (2) Stress is A = 3 = 4mg
πrA2 3πrA2
 d 
mg  1 − ω  L
mg L  dm  mg
=la = lω Stress is B = 3πr 2
Y A YA B
 d  wire A will break if σ A > σ B

lω lq  1 − ω 
Now =
 dm 
4mg mg
dω l >
= 1− w 3πrA2 3πrB2
dm la
rA2 < 4rB2 ⇒ rA < 2rB
dm la
relative density d = l − l So 1, 2, 3 are correct hence 4 is right answer
ω a ω
NLI / 2
16. (1) 29. (2)
A ∆V ∆P
F Sinθ =
v B
3 ∆l 1 × 105
F =
l 1.33 × 1011
θ F Sinθ
B ∆l −6
So = 0.25 × 10
l
F sin θ F sin θ F
= = = sin2 θ
AB A / sin θ A
30. (2)
17. (3)
longitutional stress will be maximum when θ = 90° Let original length = lo and length at 9N is l
18. (1) Fl0

∆L= = kF
Elasticity decreases with temperature E (T2)>E(T1) AY
⇒ T2 < T1 a − l0 =
k4
19. (2) b − l0 =
5k
20. (2) l − l0 =
9k
young's modules = stress per unit
Now solving l= 5b–4a
DL 31. (3)
strai ⇒ = 1 ⇒ ∆L = L
L
Since mire are attached end to end hence tensi mill be
21. (3) same
Fbreaking = σ B × A T K
∆L = .
making the diameter double. The breaking force will Y A
increase by a factor of 4
1 ∆L Stell YAe 7
22. (2) ∆L ∝ = =
Y ∆L Al YStell 20
(1.0)(10) 0.9
=∆L 11
×= .075mm
1.2 × 10 (10 −3 )2
32. (2)
23. (2)
due to series cambination stress will be same but strain
100 100 Strain
Y= × = 1011 N/ m2 =
10−6 .1 Y
24. (1) 33. (3)
F L 34. (1)
∆L = 2
Y πr
F/A
Y= Rearranging
25. (1) ∆L / L
∆L F YA
= =F .( ∆L) and comparring
L Y πr 2 L
26. (4)
YA
3
F = k∆x k = L
∆P 100 × 10 × 10
=B = = 109
∆V / V .1/100 35. (1)
27. (1) Hook's Law
28. (3) within elastic limit stress ∝ strain
NLI / 3
36. (1) 43. (1)
OR
1.5 × 10 4 1
=∆L −4
× (1)
1.5 × 10 2 × 1011
Y
= 1 − 2σ
108 10 −3 3B
= = = 0.5mm
2 × 1011
2 But, in pratice σ, is in between 0 to 1/2
37. (1) 0 < 1 – 2σ < 1
Young's mddules is the property of material, if will not Y

So, < and Y < 3B
change with dimensians 3B
38. (3) 44. (1)
OR
∆L L
=
Strain = = .01 (1)
L 100
45. (2)
39. (1) OR
40. (1) (2)
41. (4) Let dimeter is D and volume is V, then
OR πD2L
V=
4
(4)
Since volume does not change
42. (1)
0 = π2DdD.L + πD2
OR
(dD / D)
(1) or = −0.5
(dL / L)
NLI / 4
CHEMISTRY
46. (4) [NCERT 301] 58. (1)
47. (2) [NCERT 301, CBSE 2007] The size of alkaline earth metals is smaller as
compared to its corresponding alkali metals and
Be & Mg does not give flame test its effective nuclear charge is also more than that
of its corresponding alkali metals.
48. (1) [NCERT 298]
59. (2)
Super oxides are coloured
Heat
BaSO 4 + 4 C  → BaS + 4 CO
49. (4) [CBSE 2006]
Thus, on heating they produce BaS + 4 CO .
The correct order of mobility of the alkali metal ions
in aqueous solutions. Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+ due to 60. (4)
following order of hydration energy of these ions Smaller the atomic size tendency of hydration is
Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ and due to hydration of ion more as the size increases tendency for hydration
also decreases.
mobility decreases.
61. (1)
50. (1) [NCERT 301]
Fusion mixture is Na 2 CO 3 + K 2 CO 3 .
Smaller in size of anion, lesser is its polarisation,
more is ionic nature, more is lattice energy. 62. (2)
51. (4) [NCERT 107] NaOH + Al +3 → NaAlO2

Sod. metaalumin ate
The structure of H2O is angular V-shape and has (Soluble in NaOH )
sp3 hybridisation and bond angle is 1050. Its dipole

NaOH + Fe +3 → No reaction (Insoluble in NaOH)
moment value is positive or more than zero.
:O: 180
0 63. (4)
The composition of the common glass is
H 104.5 H
0
F Be F
µ =0 Na 2 O .CaO . 6 SiO 2 .
µ>0
But in BeF 2 , structure is linear due to sp 64. (4)
hybridisation (µ=0). Thus due to µ>0, H2O is dipolar 65. (4) .
and due to µ=0, BeF2 is non polar.
52. (2) [NCERT 294] under
CaCN 2 + 3 H 2 O  → CaCO 3 + 2 NH 3 .
pressure
The reactivity of alkali metals increases down the
group. 66. (2)
53. (1) [NCERT 293] Marble statue → CaCO 3 ; Calcinated Gypsum
The basic character of alkali metal hydroxides in- → CaSO 4 . 2 H 2 O ; Sea shell ; Dalom ite
creases down the group.
→ CaCO 3 .MgCO 3 .
54. (1) [NCERT 296]
67. (2)
Li2CO3 decomposes on heating :
Sodium is basic in nature.
Li2CO3 → Li2O +CO2
68. (4)
55. (2) [NCERT 297]
By corbonets li and group II can not optained in
It is a reason for given fact. solid physical state
56. (4) [NCERT 295] 69. (4)
Alkalimetal hydroxides are more stonger base than 2 Mg + O 2 → 2 MgO
alkaline earth metal hydroxides. Also basic char-
acter of hydroxides of alkaline earth metals in- 3 Mg + N 2 → Mg 3 N 2
creases down the gp. 70. (1)
57. (4) In the compounds of alkaline earth metals all the
Second group elements are show strong reducing electrons are paired. Hence, they are diamagnetic
properties but less Ist group element show less. in nature.
NLI / 5
71. (1) 82. (4) [Mod. NCERT]
Alkaline solution of pyrogallol quickly absorbs Gypsim CaSO 4 .2H 2 O. Plaster of paris
oxygen.
1
72. (1) CaSO4. HO
2 2
KO 2 is used in oxygen cylinder because it absorbs
83. (1) [CBSE 1997]
CO 2 and increases O 2 content. Super oxides
reacts with water to give H 2 O 2 &. Sodium is heated in flame gives golden yellow
73. (1) colour.

Due to their low ionisation energy. 84. (1) [Mod. NCERT]
74. (4) ∆ 1
CaSO4 .2H2O 
1200 C
→ CaSO4 . H2O or 2(CaSO4 ).H2O
Gypsum 2
75. (2) 85. (2) [NCERT 294]
LiAlH4 act as reducing agent The concentrated solution, the blue colour changes
CH 3 CHO + 2 H  LiAlH 4
→ CH 3 C H 2OH to bronze colour and becomes diamagnetic.
76. (2) 86. (4) [Mod. NCERT]

Lithium nitrate on heating gives
120oC CaSO4 ½ H2O
∆
4 LiN O3 → 2 L i2O + 4 NO 2 ↑ +O 2 ↑ Dead burnt plaster
(S ) ( S) CaSO4 .2H2O
CaSO4
200 C
o
77. (4) Strongly heated

CaCO3 > NaHCO3 > KHCO3 is the Increasing order CaO + SO4 + ½ O2
of solubility. Calcium oxide (lime)
78. (3)
87. (1) [Mod. NCERT]
Nitrolim is CaCN 2 + C .
Hydration occurs during setting of cement which
is exothermic.
Solubility of alkaline earth metal carbonates and
sulphates in water decrease down the group due For an ionic compound to be soluble in water its
hydration energy should be more than its lattice
to decrease in hydration energy rapidely as com-
energy.
pare to lattice energy
80. (4) [NCERT 297] 89. (3) [NCERT 305]
Na2CO3.10H2O → Na2CO3.H2O + 9H2O Li2CO3→ Li2O + CO2
90. (1) [NCERT 296]
81. (2) [NCERT 295] 6Li +N2 
→ 2LI3N
2Na+O2 → Na2O2 lithium nitride
NLI / 6
PHYSICS
1. (2) 6. (4)
As excess pressure inside soap bubble The velocity head is given by –
4T v2
P= =
R 2g
4 3 100
& V= πR =
3 2 × 10
4T 4 3 =5m
So PV = × πR
R 3 7. (2)
PV α R2 The terminal velocity is given as:
2. (2) 2 r2 (ρ − σ)g
Volume of big drop = Volume of 8 small droplets. v=
9 η
4 3 4
πR =8 × πr3 neglecting air density σ
3 3
2 r2ρg 2r 2 mg
R =v =
r= 9 η 9 Vη
2
2T 2 r2mg
For small drop ∆Ps = =
r 9 4 πr3η
3
2T 4T
= =
R/2 R 1 mg
=
For bigger drop 6 πηr
2T
∆Pb = mg
R v∝
rη
∆Ps 8. (1)
∆Pb =
2
In this law of Conservation of energy will be hold.
3. (3) The K.E. per unit volume will be equal to P.E. per
On heating the water or by mixing the soap into unit volume.
water the surface tension reduced in both cases.
4. (1) 1 2
So ρv =
ρgh
The weight of body is balanced by the upthrust and 2
the retarding viscous force of the medium.
5. (2) r2ω2 =2gh
The formula for terminal velocity is given as:–
r2 ω2
2 r2 (ρ − σ) h=
v= g 2g
9 η
(.05)2 (4)2
So v ∝ r2 =
2 × 10
2 2
VA  rA  r 
=  = A  .05× .05× 4 × 4
VB  rB   2rA  =
2 × 10
1 = 200 x 10 –5
= ⇒ VA : VB = 1 : 4
4 ⇒ h =0.002 m
NLI / 2
9. (1) 13. (1) [CPMT-2006]
M Pπ r 4 Pressure at bottom of tank P = 3×105

As Q = =
d 8η  so Pressure due to liquid column = 3×105 – 1×105
= 2×105
Pπr4
so M =
8(η /d) velocity of water V= 2gh
As M is same
2 ρ gh
η
Pπ r 4 =
so = ρ
d 8M
η1 η 2 2P 2 × 2 × 105
so = = = =
d1 d2 ρ 103
η1 d1 = 400 m/sec
then =
η2 d2
14. (2)
10. (3)
Consider water on one side of section ABCD. Clearly
For incompressible liquid mass entering per sec it half cylinder. Draw the forces on this cylinder by
will be equal to mass leaving per sec so . another half cylinder. Consider a strip of width dx at
M = m1 + m2 a depth x from the tip surface
Av1 = Av2 + 3/2 Av
10 = 4 + (3/2) v
v = 4 m/s
11. (1)
2 r ( d1 − d2 )
2
Terminal velocity v = g
9 η
viscous force F = 6πηrv
2 r ( d1 − d2 )
2
F= 6πηr× g
9 η
Pressure on the strip = (P0 + ρgx)
4
= πr3 (d1–d2)g ∴ Force on the strip = (P0 + ρgx). 2 Rdx
3
∴ Total force on one half cylinder by another half
m cylinder is
=
d1 (d1–d2)g h
F
= ∫ (P0 + ρgx).2Rdx − 2RT
 d2  0
⇒ F = mg  1 − d 
 1 
h2
= 2P0Rh + 2Rρg − 2RT
12. (1) 2
The volume flowing per second is given as = 2P0Rh + Rρgh2 − 2RT
Q = A×v
15. (1) [NCERT 259]
= πr2 × 2gh Viscosity of gases Increases with Increase in
So temperature.
Q depends on r, g & h & independent on density of 16. (1)
liquid .
NLI / 3
17. (1) [NCERT 255] 21. (3) [NCERT-258]
Horizontal range covered by the liquid 4 3 4 3
3× πr = πR
x = horizontal velocity (v) × time (t) 3 3
R=3 r
1/3
2(H − h) Since v ∝ r 2
=2gh × 2 h(H − h)
=
g
v1 r2
H  H H 2H = 2/3 2
= 2 H −  = 2 × v2 3 r
3  3  3 3
v 2 = (9)1/ 3 v1
2H 2 8 22. (2) [NCERT-254]
= = H
3 3 Angle of contact for pure water and glass is 00.
18. (1) [NCERT 266] 23. (4)
Excess pressure in two soap bubbles are
4T
Pp =
r
4T
PQ =
2r
2T
So ∆P = PP –PQ =
r
Suppose R is radius of curvature at common
24. (2)
interface then
4T 2T
=
R r
R = 2r
19. (2)
We know that excess pressure in a soap bubble is
inversely proportional to its radius. The soap bubble
at end 1 has small radius as compared to the soap
bubble at end 2 (given). Therefore, excess pressure
at 1 is more. 25. (4)
Water will rise upto full length of tube due to surface

tension becasue water is weightless in an artificial
statellite
26. (1)
As the value is opened, air flows from end 1 to 2
and the volume of soap bubbleat end 1 decreases. 27. (2)
20. (3) [NCERT-261]
Pressure of liquid above the body will support the weight
Soap bubble has two surface, Hence , of body and hence the body will sink to the bottom.
W = T ∆A
28. (3)
Here, ∆A = 2[4π{(2.5×10–2)2 – (1.0×10–2)2}] Mean pressure at walls
= 1.32×10–2 m2 0+h 1
= ρg= h ρg
∴ W = (3.0×10 )(1.32×10 ) J
–2 –2 2 2
= 3.96×10–4 J
NLI / 4
29. (3) 34. (2)
For soap bubble, excess pressure is
8 ηl
Here Let initial liquid flow = C
πr 4
4T
Pi − P0 =
r Then pressure difference P = CR .......... (i)
4 × 30
= = 2400 dyne / cm2
0.5 × 10−1 8 ηl
R´= 4
30. (2) Resistance  110r 
π
 100 
4
 100   8ηl 
=
 110   πr 4 
4
R  110 
∴ = (1.1)4 =
= 1.4641
R´  100 
C´R´= CR
31. (4)
C´ R
= = 1.4641
Here P.E. of the ball C R´
∴ % age increase
= (1.46 − 1) × 100
m  = +46%
mgh
=  × σ × g – mg H, where H is the
ρ 
depth to which it sinks. Then 35. (2)
σ  ρh Apparent weight = True weight – weight of liquid

h  − 1 H or H =
= displaced
 p  σ −ρ
32. (3) W
=W − .ρ1
ρ
Tω h d cos θm 10 × 1 × cos135° 1
= ω ω × = =  ρ 
Tm cos θω hm × dm 1 × 3.42 × 13.6 6.57 = W 1 − 1 
 ρ
33. (2)
36. (3)
4 3
Here 6πηrv + πr ρg
3 4T
Excess pressure for soap bubbles is Pi – P0 =
r
4
= πr 3 3.ρ.g
3 1
⇒ Excess pressure ∝
r
4 3
or 6πηrv + πr g(3ρ − ρ)
3 Air goes from higher pressure to lower pressure
F= 6πηrv ∴ air flows from smaller bubble to bigger bubble.
4 3 8 3 37. (4)
= πr × 2ρ.g = πr ρg
3 3 According to stoke's law
8 3 F= 6πηRv
πr ρg
F 2
= 3=
Ratio W 4 3 1
πr ρg ∴ F ∝ R and F ∝ v
3
NLI / 5
38. (3) 42. (2)
In case of water, the meniscus shape is concave Here energy released 4 π(nr 2 − R 2 ).σ
upwards. Also according to formula
2T cos θ W 4σπ 2
h= =
Heat produced = (nr − R2 )
rρg J J
The surface tension (T) of soap solution is less than

water. Therefore, rise of soap solution in the capillary 4 3
Heat produced in drop= πR × 1 × θ
tube is less as compared to water. As in the case of 3
water the meniscus shape of soap solution is concave
upwards. 4σπ 2 4
∴ = (nr − R2 ) = πR3 θ
39. (2) J 3
3σ  1 1  .
OR = θ −
For a streamline flow of an ideal liquid, VA = VB J  r R 
The pressure at B = pressure at A + pressure due to

43. (3)
column of liquid of height AB.
Here a1v1 + a2v2a × 3 = 1 × 1.5 + 1.5a × v2
40. (4)
OR v2 = 1 ms–1.
Excess pressure for soap bubble pi – p0 = 4T/r
44. (4)
1
⇒ Excess pressure ∝ Since the freely falling system is in weightless condition,
r
so water rises to the top and stays there.
and air goes from high pressure to low pressure, So
size of sphere A and C will start collapsing and volume 45. (3)
of B will increase.
41. (3)
Here volume remains the same
4 4
∴ πR3 = 8 πr 3
3 3
⇒ R= 2r
Since terminal velocity,
2 2
=v .r [ρ − σ]g
9η
⇒ v ∝ r2
Terminal velocity becomes 4 times as radius becomes

double 5
h1 = H
3
New terminal velocity = 4 × 10 = 40 cm/s
NLI / 6
CHEMISTRY
46. (4) [NCERT 311] 59. (3) [NCERT 318]

As size of surrounding element decreases stearic High P
rupulsion decrease so stability increase. CO + NaOH 
High T

→ HCOONa
47. (4) [NCERT 309] 60. (2) [NCERT 319]

Most abundant metal and 3rd most abundant ele-
CO burns with blue flame.
ment (8.3% by mass after oxygen and si).
48. (4) [NCERT 313] 61. (4) [Mod. CBSE]
In diborane both the borans are in sp3-hybridised CO2 is acid anhydride of H2CO3
state there are 6σ-bond (involving 12 electrons), 4
62. (1) [NCERT 318]
terminal B–H bond associated with 2 boran atoms,
two hydrogen brigde bond (banana bond) present The C–X bond energy in CF4, CCl4, CBr4 and Cl4 are
below and above the molecular plane. 116, 81, 68 and 51 respectively.
49. (4) [NCERT 310]
63. (2) [NCERT 178]
In IIIA on moving down the group the stability of +3
oxidation state decreases. Pyrophosphoric acid, Cyclic meta phsopheric acid
has one and three P–O–P bond respectively.
50. (2) [NCERT 312]
64. (3) [NCERT 178]
There are 2 isotopic forms of boron.
The number of P–P and P–O–H bonds present re-
10
B (19%), 11
B (81%)
spectively in hypophosphoric acid is 1 and 4.
51. (2) [NCERT 313]
65. (4) [NCERT 179]
In diborane Ht–B–Ht and Hb–B–Hb bond angles are
1200 and 970 respectively. The basicity of orthophosphoric acid is three so it
52. (4) [NCERT 309] forms two acidic salt and one normal salt.
Thermite is a mixture of Fe2O3 and Al powder. 66. (4) [NCERT 165]

53. (4) [NCERT 309] i. Reducing nature increases from NH3 to BiH3 be-
Correct order = B > Tl > Ga > Al > In cause release of hydrogen increases, due to de-
crease in thermal stability.
54. (4) [NCERT 308]
ii. Tendency to give lone pair of electrons decreases
Na3AlF6 – cryolite
from NH3 to BiH3 due to decrease in bond pair lone
KAl3Si3O10(OH)2 – Mica pair repulsion or increase in size of central ele-
K2O.Al2O3.6H2O – Feldspar ments.
CaF2 – Flourspar iii. Thermal stability of hydrides decreases from NH3
to BiH3 due to increase in bond length.
55. (4) [Mod. CBSE]
iv. bond angle decreases from NH3 to BiH3 due to de-
It is a fact, also known as white lead.
crease in electronegativity of central elements.
56. (2) [NCERT 320] 67. (2) [NCERT 166]
Na2SiO3 + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2SiO3 All the bonds in nitrogen molecule are formed by
the overlapoing of p-p atomic orbital.
Strong alkali Weak acid
68. (3) [NCERT 171]
57. (3) [NCERT 319]
The hydrolysis of NCl3 by water produces NH3 and
Water gasis CO + H2. HOCl.
58. (3) [NCERT 320] 69. (1) [NCERT 179]
It is a fact. H3PO2 has two P–H bond so its basicity is two.
NLI / 7
70. (3) [NCERT 172] 80. (3)
N2O4 is a mix an hydride so after reaction with base Carbon has 2 electrons in their penultimate shell
it gives nitrate and nitrite, two types of salts. configuration so due to d-orbital in penultimate shell
is false statement.
71. (3) [NCERT 178]
81. (4)
Us acid of phosphorus has at least one P–H bond.
All other oxides of nitrogen except N 2 O and NO
72. (3) are acidic in nature.
Correct sequence is 82. (1)
NH 2 CONH 2 > NH 4 N 3 > NH 3 NO 3 > NH 4 Cl . PbCl 4 < PbCl 2 < CaCl 2 < NaCl is the increasing
73. (4) [NCERT-314] order of ionic character.
In elemental state, carbon is available as coal, 83. (1)
graphite and diamond. Si + 3 HCl → SiHCl 3 + H 2
74. (1) silicon chloroform
(1) Peroxide is H 2 O 2 (4 ) ; (2) Super oxide is KO 2 (3) 84. (4) [NCERT-308]

In general non-metals have higher Electro
(3) Dioxide is PbO 2 (2) ; (4) Suboxide is C 3 O 2 (1)
negativities, Ionisation enthalpies then the metals
75. (3) 85. (2) [NCERT-308]
SnO 2 + 2 NaOH → Na 2 SnO 3 + H 2 O
Generally metals oxides are basic in nature.
86. (4) [NCERT-309]
SnO 2 + 4 HCl → SnCl 4 + 2 H 2 O Orthoboric acid – H3BO3
76. (4) Borax – Na2B4O7. 10HrO
Kernite – Na2B4O7.4H2O
Mn and Mg → H2
87. (2) [NCERT-309]
77. (1)
88. (1) [NCERT 319]
N2O5 is most acidic.
It is a reason for given fact
78. (2)
89. (4) [NCERT 319]
There are no free electron in N 2 O 4 , so it is
dimagnetic in nature. SnCl2 + 2NaOH → Sn(OH)2 + 2NaCl
79. (2) Sn(OH)2 + 2NaOH → Na2SnO2+2H2O
Because yellow phosphorus is most reactive form 90. (1) [NCERT 318]
of phosphorus and is highly polymerised.
CO + Cl2 → COCl2 (Phosgene)
NLI / 8
PHYSICS
1. (1) 6. (1)
∆d = d α ∆θ Heat gained by the water = (Heat supplied by the coil)
= 4.24 × 1.70 × 10–5 × 200 × (Heat dissipated to environment)
= 1.44 × 10–2 Cm ⇒ mc ∆θ = PCoil t – PLoss t
2. (2) ⇒ 2 × 4.2 × 103 × (77 – 27) = 1000t – 160 t
∆ρ ⇒ t = 8 min 20 sec
= γ∆θ
ρ 7. (2)
Heat gained = heat lost
=49 × 10 −5 × 30
= 1.47 × 10 −2 8. (3)
3. (1) Since there is zero change in temperature but heat is

being absorbed
Q mc∆θ
=
Q
p ×=
t mc∆θ ∴ =∝
0
 2.5  9. (2)
50 × 10 × 103  3
= 8 × 0.91× 10 × ∆θ
 60  Here if m is the mass of ice and M is the mass of water,
then
∆θ ≈ 103 °C 80m = m × 0.5 × 15 + (M – m) × 1 × 1[0 – (–15)]
4. (1) =m × 7.5 + 15M – 15m
m 6
Here, mass of copper block, or =
M 35
M = 2.5 kg = 2.5 × 103g 10. (3)
Rise in temperature of the copper block , β = 2α.
11. (2)
∆T = 500°C – 0°C = 500°C
Total energy = 200×5×60=6×104J
Specific heat of copper, c = 0.39J/g°C
6 × 10 4 10
Lalent heat of fusion of water, L = 335J/g = cals.
= × 10 4 cals.
4.2 7
If m is the mass of ice melted, applying the principle of = 1.43 ×104 cals.
calorimetry. 12. (1)
Heat gained by ice = heat lost by copper block m1cθ1 + m2cθ 2

= θmixture
m1c + m2c
i.e., mL = Mc ∆T
3
So, θmixture = T
Mc∆T 2
or, m=
L 13. (3)
2.5 × 103 (g) × 0.39(J / gC°) × 500(C°)
= mg(h2 − h1 )
335 (J / g) Here = msθ
J
= 1.45 kg
10(10 − 1)
Or = θ
5. (3) 4.2 × 0.12 × 103 × 0.1
The densest layer of water will be at bottom. The density 90
Or =
θ = 0.18° C
of water is maximum at 4°C. So the temperature of 42 × 12 × 1
bottom of lake will be 4°C.
NLI / 2
14. (1) 25. (4)
Bimetals are made of two different metals having
1 1
2 −3 2
Here mv = × 50 × 10 × (840) = 4200 cals. different coefficient of expansion. A bimetallic strip is
2 2 used to convert a temperature change into mechanical
Also heat given by bullet to cool to 0°C mc θ displacement. Bimetal has the property of bending when
heated,so used for open or close circuits. Thermostats
= 50 × 0.02 × 30 = 30 cals
can be constructed in many ways and may use a variety
Total heat = 4230 = mL of sensors to measure the temperature, commonly a
thermistor or bimetallic strip. The output of the sensor
4230
=
or M = 52.875 g then controls the heating or cooling apparatus.
80
26. (4)
15. (4)
Solids expand on heating because the potential energy
Here use curve is asymmetric about the equilibrium distance
Lt–L0 = – α . L0 . t between neighbouring atoms
or 10–3 = –(2×10–5)×1×(t–20), 27. (3)
or t= – 30ºC
∆L
16. (3) = α∆θ = 0.01
L
Here 22 (90–20) × 4.2
m 2260 + m(100 − 90)
=× ∆A
= 2α∆θ= 0.02
A
or m = 2.84 g
∴ Total mass is =22 + 2.8 =24.8 g ⇒ 2%
17. (3) 28. (1)
Total heat drawn out in one hour
Q = mc∆T + mL
= 15 × 1 × 50 + 50 × 80
= 750 + 4000 = 4750
Heat removed/min
4750
= = 79.2 cal / min
60
18. (4) 29. (2)
Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1>d2) are
19. (2) cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated – When a
∆l1 =∆l2 body is heated, the distance between any two points
on it increases.
α a l1 ∆T =α sl2 ∆T
30. (4)
l1 α s l α 31. (1)
= ∴ 1 = s
l2 α a l1 + l2 α s + α a VsdLg = V × ds× g
20. (4) ds
sub merged fraction k = d
First decreses and then increases L
21. (3) where ds and dL are densities are solid and liquid at
0°C
22. (4)
d
4 k1 = Fe
∆V = V0 (3α )∆T = π(10)3 × 3 × 23 × 10−6 × 100 dHg
3
dFe 1 + γ Hg 60
∆V =28.9 cc =k2 ×
1 + γ Fe 60 dHg
23. (1)
k1 1 + 60 γ Fe
It has high specific heat capacity. =
k 2 1 + 60 γ Hg
24. (2)
NLI / 3
32. (2) 39. (3)
Caloimeter. αc
α 2α
33. (1)
L 2L
Amount of steam m
(3L) (αC) ∆θ = (L) α ∆θ + (2L) (2α) (∆θ)
m × 536 + m × 1 × (100 – 80) = 40 × 1 × (80 – 30)
3αC = 5α
m × 556 = 40 × 50
5α 10
40 × 50 αc = = α
Total Mass = 40 + g 3 6
556
34. (1)
This is the best suitade graph first temperature of ice 40. (3)
will increase from – 10°C to 0°C then ice will melt for
some time then temperature of water will increase and
finally it well get converted into steam. 41. (3)
35. (3)
36. (4) ∆ρ
∆Q
γ=
s= ρ1 (∆T)
m ∆T
37. (4) ( ρ1 − ρ 2 )
γ=
w =1 × 80 × 4.2
ρ1 (T2 − T1 )
w = 336 J
(10 − 9.7 )
38. (2)
γ=
10 × (100 − 0)
The amount of heat rejected by the
γ = 3×10–4
Water = ms∆t
3 × 10 −4
= 1000 × 1 × 24 = 24000 cal so α = γ/3 = = 10 −4
3
we know that Q = mL
so heat required to melt completly
42. (2)
Q = 1200 × 80
= 96000 cal.
So it is clear that heat required by ice to melt 43. (3)
completly is more than heat given by water so only
some part of ice will melt. So amount of ice which
melt. 44. (1)
24000 = m x 80 condensation of water vapor
m = 300 gm
So fraction of ice which melts 45. (3)
Amount of ice melts 300 1

= = =
Total Amount of ice 1200 4
→ fraction left = 1–1/4 = 3/4
NLI / 4
CHEMISTRY
46. (3) [NCERT 189] 57. (4) [NCERT 207]

SO 2 gas acts as bleaching agent in moist
Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen will be most
negative in their group. conditions and has one pπ–dπ and one pπ–pπ along
with two σ-bond
In the see-saw gemetory of SF4, lone pair occupies 58. (1)
equatorial position
59. (1) [NCERT 188]
On partial hydrolysis of 1 mole of Marshells acid, 1
mole of H2SO4 and 1 mole of H2SO5 will obtained. SF6 is stable
47. (4) [NCERT 185] 60. (3) [NCERT 198]
48. (3) [NCERT 186] I2 + 10HNO3 → 2HIO3 + 10NO2 + 4H2O
H2SO5 61. (1) [NCERT 199]
Correct stability order Cl3 < Br3 <I3 : It is due to
– – –
49. (2) [NCERT 187]
dispersal of charge.
PCl5 is chlorinating reagent it replaces –OH group 62. (3) [NCERT 205]
by –Cl group.
ICl2– and XeF2 both are lenear.
50. (1) [NCERT 189]
63. (3) [NCERT 206]
S
Alkali metal fluorides act as fluoride ion donor
H–O–S–O–H accept LiF.
O
64. (1) [NCERT 183]
51. (4) [NCERT 186]
In solid state SO3 exist as (SO3)3
O O 65. (1) [NCERT 166]

S Due to extra stability of half filled p-orbital of group
–
–O
15 element, large amount of energy is required to

–O
remove electrons as compared to group 16 element.

–
O S–O–S O
O O 66. (4) [NCERT 183]
H2S is less acidic than H2Te due to decrease in
All the π bonds are pπ–dπ bond dissociation enthalpy down the group, acidic
character increases.
52. (4) [NCERT 202]
67. (4) [NCERT 183]
These all are facts.
Amongst tetrafluorides, SF4 is a gas, SeF4 a liquid
53. (3) [Exmp. NCERT 90] and TeF 4 a solid. These fluorides have sp 3d
Greater the reduction potential greater will be hybridisation and thus, have trigonal bipyramidal
tendency to be reduced, and so stronger will be structures in which one of the equatorial positions
oxidising agent. is occupied by a lone pair of electrons. This
54. (1) [Mod. PCET 2008] geometry is also regarded as see-saw geometry
Bleaching action SO2 and Cl2 is due to reduction

and oxidation respectively. 68. (3) [NCERT 189]
55. (4) [NCERT 200] H2S2O7 is formulae of oleum called as fuming
sulphuric acid.
Correct order of oxidising power :
69. (2) [NCERT 184]
HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
Dioxygen directly reacts with nearly all metals and
56. (2) [NCERT 201]
non-metals except some metals ( e.g., Au, Pt) and
ICl3 + 2H2O → 3HCl + HIO2 some noble gases. Its combination with other
Oxoanion IO2– is obtained in this hybridisation and elements is often strongly exothermic which helps
oxidation state of iodine is sp3 and +3. in sustaining the reaction.
NLI / 5
70. (4) [NCERT 186] 82. (2) [NCERT 191]
2O3 → 3O2 ∆H = –ve
H2 SO4
C12H22O11  → 12C + 11H2O

∆S = +ve
So, ∆G = –ve 83. (4) [NCERT 196]
71. (3) [NCERT 182] Reaction of iodine with water is not spontaneous.
O–O bond through shortest but weak due to strong
lone pair - lone pair repulsion due to the small size 84. (4) [NCERT 197]
of O atoms.
2NaCl + Conc. H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2HCl
72. (1) [NCERT 183]
Due to hydrogen bonding in H2O it have highest 85. (2) [NCERT 200]
boiling point.
The type of inter halogen compounds are
73. (4) [NCERT 183]
Bond angle decreases down the group. XX1, Xx3, Xx5 and Xx7 in which the example of Xx7 is
74. (1) [NCERT 183] only one - IF7
Acidic strength decreases down the group. 86. (2) [NCERT 201]
75. (1)
When ever dry slaked lime react with Cl the
HI is the strongest reducing agent among bleaching powder will be fundamental product.
halogen acids because of lowest bond
dissociation energy.
87. (4) [NCERT 200]
76. (2)
Due to regular geometry, absence of lone pair IF7
Carnellite is KCl .MgCl 2 .6 H 2 O . The mother liquor
is non polar.
life after crystallisation of KCl from carnellite
contain about 0.25% of bromine as MgBr2 and
KBr. 88. (1)
77. (1) Electron Affinity order F2 < Cl2 > Br2 > I2
HF is liquid because of intermolecular H-

Bonding. Oxidising nature HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
78. (1) 89. (4)
H+ + ClO − Due to being strong oxidizing conc. H2SO4 oxidizes

HClO Ì! Strong conjugate
Weak acid ba se
I– into I2.
79. (3)
90. (1)
XeF 2 , XeOF 2 . XeF 4 , XeOF 4 . XeF 6 , XeO 3 .
Due to inter molecular halogen bonding HF get
80. (3) dimarizes as H2F2
81. (2)
NLI / 6
PHYSICS
1. (2)
15. (3)
First law of thermodynamics 'U Q W For isothermal process
2. (2) dU = 0 and work done = dW P(V2 V1 )
'U 'Q W 35 15 20J V1 V PV
3. (2) V2 ?dW
2 2 2
The first law of thermodynamics based on " The law of work done by the gas is negative
conservation of energy".
16. (2)
4. (3)
Differentiate PV = constant w.r.t V
'Q= 'U + 'W 'W =0 'Q = 'U = nc v 'T
'P 'V
P'V V'P 0
3R P V
2u u (373 273) = 300 R
2 17. (1)
5. (1) "Internal Energy" refers to the total energy of the
The fire syringe is an example of adiabatic heating. particles.
6. (3) 18. (1)
SI Unit for measuring heat is joule. It is an isothermal process. Hence work done
7. (2) P(V2 V1 )
'Q ' U ' W 'W 'Q 'U 110 40 70J 1 u 105 u (1.091 1) u 10 6 0.0091J
8. (1) 19. (4)
In isothermal process PV=constt.
J
9. (4) § RT ·
PV J cons tan t P ¨ cons tan t
© P ¸¹
"R" is not thermodynamics co-ordinate
10. (3) P1 J T J cons tan t
'Q 'U 'W 20. (4)
'U 200 cal 200 u 4.2 840J and 'W 40J EI JP 1.4 u (1 u 105 ) 1.4 u 105 N / m2
'U 'Q 'W 840 40 800 J 21. (4)

11. (1) Isovolumitric process is a thermodynamic process that
In adiabatic Process Q is equal to zero takes place at a const. volume so that no workdone on
12. (2) or by the system
0.8 u 5 P u (3 5) P 0.5m 22. (1)

A cyclic process ends at the state where it started thus
13. (2)
there is no change in state functions in a cyclic process
Amount of heat given = 540 calories
and hence ' U=0
Change in volume 'V 1670 c.c 23. (3)
Atmospheric pressure P 1.01 u 106 dyne / cm2 J
P2 § V1 · P'
Work done against atmospheric pressure P1 ¨© V ¸¹ P (8)5 / 2 P ' P u (2)15 / 2
2
1.01 u 10 6 u 1670 24. (4)

W P 'V | 40 cal
4.2 u 107 This is formula is valid for gases.
14. (1) 25. (1)
Heat energy always moves from high temprature to low The correct value of R universal gas constant is
temprature object. 2 cal/mol K.
NLI / 2
26. (4) 35. (1)
For adiabatic process For cyclic process. Total work done
'W 'U ( 'Q 0) WAB WBC WCA
'W ( 100) (100J) 'W P'V 10(2 1) 10 jand 'W 0
27. (4) From FLOT 'Q

J 3/2
'U 'W
P ª V1 º ª4º 8
P1V1 P2 V2 2 « » « 1»
P1 ¬ V2 ¼ ¬ ¼ 1 'U 0 (Process ABCA is cyclic)
28. (4) 'Q 'Wa 'Wb 'Wc
5 10 0 'W 'W 5J
The system is back to its initial state is called "cyclic
36. (3)
process"
For Isobaric process, Heat given to a system is used
29. (2)
up in raising the temperature only
'W P'V 103 u 0.25 250 J
37. (4)
30. (2)
Adiabatic curves are more stepper than isothermal
At constant pressure
W P'V PR 'T 1 u 8 .3 1 u 1 0 0 8 3 1J curves.
31. (4) 38. (3)
In adiabatic process relation between P and T is As internal energy is a point function therefore change
J / J 1 5
P J 1 T J = constt. P v T J in internal energy does not depends upon the path
3
5 followed i.e. 'UI 'UII
J 2 5
for monoatomic gas c 39. (3)
J 1 5 2
1
2
32. (2) In an adiabatic process there is no. "Heat" transfer
between the gas and the surrounding.

To not pass through.
40. (4)
33. (2)
Oxygen is diatomic gas, hence its energy of two moles
For isobaric process will remain same PB P
5
For isothermal process P1V1=P2V2 So Pc = 2P 2 u RT 5RT
2
For adiabatic process PV J PA V 3 / 2 Argon is a monoatomic gas, hence its internal energy
3
PA 2 2P of 4 moles 4 u RT 6RT
2
So PA : PB : PC = 2 2 : 1: 2
Total Internal energy = (6 5)RT 11RT
34. (4)
41. (3)
Process CD is isochoric as volume is constant, Process
In an isochoric process, no work is done on or by the
DA is isothermal as temperature constant and Process
gas. V is constant.
AB is isobaric as pressure is constant.
NLI / 3
42. (2)
44. (1) [NCERT-XI-317]
dT dT
Heat of combusion = 4 × 104 J/g
dw dT dE
ncp dT Cp 7R Specific heat of water, c = 4.2 J g–1 °C–1

ncp dT nc v dT Cp Cv 2R
Mass of flowing water, m = 3.0 litre/min = 3000 g/min
§ 7R · Total heat used, 'Q = mc 'T

¨© diatomic of gas Cp 2 ¸¹
= 3000 × 4.2 × (77-27)
43. (1) [NCERT-XI-316]
From the first law of thermodynamics, we have = 6.3 × 105 J/min
Q=U+W 6.3 u 105
? Rate of consumption = 15.75 g / min
Where, U = Internal energy 4 u 10 4
45. (3) [NCERT-XI-316]
?U = Q – W
= 100 – 75 Since no work is being done by the gas during the
= 25 J/s
= 25 W expansion of the gas, the temperature of the gas will
Therefore, the internal energy of the given electric heater not change at all.
increases at a rate of 25 W.
NLI / 4
CHEMISTRY
46. (1) [NCERT-XI-332]

47. (3) [NCERT-XI-33] 56. (1) [NCERT-XI-365]
CH3 CH3 CH3

|
(A) CH3–C–OH ; (B) CH3–C–NH2 H3C C CH3
|
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH CH2 CH2 CH3
|
A is tertiary alcohol while B is primary amine H3 C CH
|
48. (3) [NCERT-XII-350] CH3
4-ter. butyl-5-isopropyl octane

57. (2) [NCERT-XII-350]
CH3 – CH2 – C – COOH
||
t- butyl iso butyrate CH2
49. (2) [NCERT-XII-351] 2-ethyl-2-propenoic acid
The structure of allyl vinyl thioether is 58. (2) [NCERT-XII-381]
CH2=CH–S–CH2–CH=CH2
50. (3) [NCERT-XI-365]
Correct IUPAC name of 2-ethyl-3-pentyne is
4-methyl hexyne-2
2-methyl-1-phenyl propan-1-amine
51. (4) [NCERT-XI-365]
59. (3) [NCERT-XI-281]
4, 5-dimethyl oct-4-ene
52. (2) [NCERT-XI-365]
3-chloro-5-fluoro-3,5-dimethyl heptane
60. (4) [NCERT-XII-281]
3-ethyl -4- methyl hexane

53. (1) [NCERT-XI-365]
5-bromo-2, 3-dimethylhexane
61. (1) [NCERT-XII-316]
(C2H5)2 CH.CH2 OH
2-ethyl-3-methyl-4-pentyn-1-ene
2-ethyl butanol-1
54. (4) [NCERT-XI-365] 62. (2) [NCERT-XII-350]
CH3 CHO
| |
CH3 (CH2 ) 4 CH C CH2 CH2 CH3 CH 3 CH 2 CH CH CH 3
| | |
CH3 CH2 CH3 CH 3
4- Ethyl-4, 5-dimethyl decane 2-isopropyl butanal

63. (3) [NCERT-XII-358]
55. (2) [NCERT-XI-365]
CH3 CHCH2CH3
|
C6H5
2-phenyl butane
3, 3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol
NLI / 5
64. (3) [NCERT-XII-350] 73. (4) [NCERT-XI-365]
Secondary radicals
2-cyclohexenol (CH3)2CH—
65. (4) [NCERT-XI-331]
74. (1) [NCERT-XI-0]
–C – H Incorrect IUPAC name 3–Pentyne
||
75. (3) [NCERT-XII-316]
O
66. (1) [NCERT-XII-349]

BrCH2 CH CO CH2 CH2CH3
|
CONH2 3,3–dimethyl–1–cyclohexanol
2-bromo methyl-3-oxo hexanamide 76. (3) [NCERT-XI-328]
67. (2) [NCERT-XII-350]
HO CH2 CH CH C CH2 C C OH
| | || ||
CH3 Cl O O
Propane–1,2,3–tricarbonitrile
-oic acid, chloro, hydroxy, methyl, oxo, 4-heptene
77. (1) [NCERT-XII-282]
68. (4) [NCERT-XI-0]
Gem-dihalide -
COOH CH COOH
|
COOH
2- carboxy propanedioic acid
69. (2) [NCERT-XII-381] 78. (2) [NCERT-XII-350]
79. (4) [NCERT-XII-0]
Ethanoic methanoic anhydride

1-amino-2-methyl-1-phenyl propane
80. (3) [NCERT-XI-365]
70. (1) [NCERT-XII-350] CH3CH2NHCHO is :
N–ethyl methanamide
81. (2) [NCERT-XII-350]
2-methoxy-4-nitro benzene carbaldehyde

4–Formyl–2–oxo cyclohexane carboxylic acid
71. (3) [NCERT-XI-365]
82. (3) [NCERT-XI-328]
tertiary radicals
Alkyne group – C9H16
83. (2) [NCERT-XI-365]
CH2 CH— is called as Ethenyl
84. (4) [NCERT-XI-327]
72. (4) [NCERT-XI-365] 85. (3) [NCERT-XI-326]
2–chloro–3–iodo–2–pentene
2,4–Dimethyl hexane
NLI / 6
86. (4) [NCERT-XI-331] 89. (1) [NCERT-XII-382]
–COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2, –CHO Example of 3° amide?
87. (2) [NCERT-XI-331]
90. (3) [NCERT-XI-365]

3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene
A compound with molecular formula, C6H14 has two
88. (1) [NCERT-XI-331] tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is 2, 3-dimethyl
3–Methyl–2–pentanone is : butane
NLI / 7
PHYSICS
1. (3) 11. (1)

The mean free path is average distance covered by a
molecule between two successive collision is 12. (3)
1 A triatomic gas molecule has 3 degrees of freedom
λ= 2
2 nπd due to translator motion and 3 degrees of freedom due
2. (1) to rotator motion.
13. (2)
Total translational kinetic energy = (3 / 2)n0RT
The first graph is incorrect
3. (1)
14. (1)
 (2)2 + (3)2 + (4)2 + (5)2   54 
v rms = =   For Charle's Law ρT =Constant
 4  4
15. (4)
4. (2)
Equation of Real gas is
The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule depends
 n2 a 
only on the absolute temperature of the gas and is  P + (v − nb) =
nRT
v 2 
directly proportional to it.
16. (3)
5. (4)
1
The average velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas v rms ∝
is zero because the molecules possess all sorts of m
velocities in all possible directions so their vector sum For constant temperature,
and hence the average is zero. (v rms )H2
(M(O2 =
) / M(H2 ) ) (32 / 2) 4 : 1
6. (3) (v = ) =
rms O2
=
γRT 17. (3)

v=
M
As temperature increases, velocity of molecules
increases and hence the pressure.
7
v(N2 ) γN2 MHe 5× 4 = 3 18. (4)
= × =
v(He) γHe MN2 5 28 5 According to the equation of ideal gas, PV = nRT
2
P = Pressure
7. (2) V = Volume
They all occupy the same volume n = Number of moles of gases
8. (1) R = Gas constant
Relation between pressure and kinetic energy is T = Temperature
2 Thus we have to rewrite this equation in such a way
P= E
3 that no. of moles is given by.
9. (4) P1V1 P2 V2
=
Small amounts of energy are lost during collisions RT1 RT2
between gas molecules
PV(1.1T)
=P2 ⇒ 1.05P
10. (3) (1.05)VT
At Boyle's temperature, a gas obeys Boyle's law to a Hence final pressure lies betweem P and 1.1 P
high degree of accuracy. Above and below this 19. (3)
temperature, the gas deviates from Boyle's law.
(a) Translational K.E. and rotional K.E. both obey
Maxwell's distribution independent of each other
NLI / 2
(b) Rotational K.E. is different for different molecules ordered motion.
(c) Molecules of ideal gases possess only translation 27. (4)
motion, So they posses only translational K.E. but in Energy = 300 J/litre = 300 × 103 J/m 3
the case of non ideal gas there is a smaller rotational
energy 2 2 × 300 × 103
P= E= = 2 × 105 N / m2
3 3
K Rotational KT 2
= ⇒ 28. (1)
(d) K 3 3
Translation KT 3P
2 Formula of root mean square speed vrms =
ρ
 2 29. (4)
Rotational energy at a given temperature is   rd of
3 γR
translation K.E. of each molecules Molar specific heat of constant pressure is =
γ −1
20. (2) 30. (1)
v12 + v 22 (9 × 10 6 )2 + (1 × 106 )2 Value of γ is Different for all monoatomic, diatomic

vrms = =
2 2 and triatomic molecules
31. (1)
⇒ 41 × 106 m / s
Specific heat of mixture at constant volume :
21. (4)
n1Cv1 + n2 C v2
1 Cvmix =
v rms ∝ n1 + n2
m
32. (2)
mA > mB > m C
The kinetic theory of an ideal gas gives the relation
So, (vrms)A < (vrms)B < (vrms)C
or (vrms)C > (vrms)B > (vrms)A 1
P= nmv 2
3
22. (1)
33. (4)
2 2
1 λ 1  d2   2 4 Degree of freedom in diatomic gas is
λ ∝ 2 ⇒=  =   =
d λ 2  d1  1  1 2 Rotational + 3 translational
23. (1) 34. (1)
In kinetic theory of gases, which of the following
3RT v T2 (273 + 90) statement regarding elastic collisions of the molecules
vrms = ⇒ 2= = = 1.1
M v1 T1 (273 + 30) is wrong "Kinetic energy is lost in collisions"
35. (3)
 v2 
% increase =  − 1 × 100 = 0.1 × 100 = 10% It T be the required temperature, then
 v1 
v rms − v p =
200 m / s
24. (3)
Mean kinetic energy of molecule depends upon 3RT 2RT
temperature only. For O2 it is same as that of H2 at the Or − 200m / s
=
MHe MHe
same temperature of –73°C
25. (2) Or T[ 3 − 2] = 200 ⇒ T = 190.2K
CO is diatomic gas, for diatomic gas 36. (1)
CP 7R / 2 A gas can be liquafied by applying pressure alone is

7 5 = 1.4
CP = R and CV = R ⇒ γ=
di =
C V 5R / 2 8a
2 2
called critical temprature is equal to Tc =
27Rb
26. (3)
37. (4)
Temperature of the gas is concerned only with it's
disordered motion. It is no way concerned with it's As v rms ∝ T As temperature increases from 300 K to
1200 K that is four times, so, vrms will be doubled.
NLI / 3
(v rms )1 300 1
= =
(v rms )2 1200 2 43. (2)
Average K.E.
38. (1)
1 3
mv 2 = kT
8KT 2 2
Average speed of Gas molecules is
πm
(Av.K.E.)600K 600
∴ = 2
=
39. (3) (Av.K.E.)400K 300
Equal volume of all the gases under similar conditions
∴ T 600 K it will be 2 times than that at 300 K
of temperature and pressure contain equal number of
molecules its define by vagadro's law
44. (1)
40. (4)
NA PA VA TB 3RT
PV = NkT ⇒ = × ∴C =
NB PB VB TA M
3 × 8.314 × 300
N P × V × (2T) 4 (1930)2 = ≈ 2 × 10 −3
⇒ A
= = M
NB V 1
2P × × T The gas is H2
4
41. (3)
45. (2)
µ1γ 1 µ2 γ 2 PV = nRT
+
γ1 −1 γ2 −1
γ mix = ∴ P1V = n1 RT1 and P2V = n2RT2
µ1 µ 2 Here
+
γ1 −1 γ2 −1 P2 n2 T2
= � ⇒ P2 = P × 1 × 2 = 2P
P1 n1 T1
7 5
µ1 =µ 2 =1; γ 1 = and γ 2 =
5 3
3
∴ γ mix =
2
42. (1)
For f degree of freedom, the equipartition of energy can
be given as
Total energy possessed by N molecules = N(f/2)KT
NLI / 4
CHEMISTRY
46. (1) [NCERT 340] 54. (3) [NCERT 340]

C4H10O has seven isomers. 4 in alcohols and 3 in
O
ehter.
CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − C − CH3
47. (3) [NCERT 340] (Keto)
O OH OH
NH2 − C − NH2 NH = C − NH2 CH3 − CH2 − CH = C − CH3
48. (3) [NCERT 341] (enolic)
butyne-1 and butyne-2 are position isomers.
55. (1) [Mod. CBSE 2005]
butyne-1 and but-1,3-diene is functional isomers.
Methyl cyclopropene and butyne-1 are ring chain
56. (1) [NCERT 340, AIPMT 2004]
isomers.
49. (4) [NCERT 340] CH 2 , when one of the H-atom
CH3
C O + H2 N − OH
= is replaced by a –Cl atom, then only four
CH3 monochloroderivatives are formed i.e,
–H2O
CH3
C= N − OH CH
CH3 (Oxime) i.
In the oxime two methyl group are present in same Cl
carbon atom, show it is not show geometrical
isomerism. ii. CH 2 Cl
50. (1) [NCERT 341]
CH3CH2OH and CH3–O–CH3 are the examples of
functional isomerism.
CH 2
iii.
51. (3) [NCERT 340] Cl
CH 3
CH 3 – C – CH 3 CH2
iv.
CH 3 Cl
neo-pentene can form only one monochloro 57. (2) [NCERT 341, AIIMS 2008]
derivative and n-pentene can form three monochloro O O
derivative. Pentan-2, 4-dione has α-H atoms and
Isopentene can form four monochloro derivative.
two C=O groups. It is also stabilized by H-bonding
52. (2) [NCERT 340]
in its enol form, so it has maximum enol content
Glucose have 4 chiral carbon atom so no. of optical
here.
isomers = 2 4 = 16.
53. (4) [NCERT 341]
C5H10 have five cyclic isomers, i.e.,
CH 3 (76% enol)
58. (3) [NCERT 340]

i. ii. Option (3) will not show tautomerism.
Methyl
Cyclopentane
Cyclobutane 59. (4) [NCERT 340]
C2 H 5 H 3C CH3 Four isomers of p-amines ar possible for the
formula, C4H11N.
i. CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2 ii. CH 3CH 2CHCH 3
iii. iv.
1,1-Dimethyl Butan −1 − amine
NH2
Ethyl Cyclopropane cyclopropane Butan-2-amine
H H H 3C H CH3
iii. CH 3–CH2–CH 2NH2 iv. CH 3–C–CH3
HC3 CH 3 H CH3
v. CH 3
cis-1,2-Dimethyl trans-1,2-Dimethyl NH3
2-Methyl propan-1-amine 2-Methyl propan-2-amine
cyclopropane cyclopropane
NLI / 5
60. (2) [NCERT 341] 69. (3) [Mod. CBSE]
COOH OH
(CH3)3C–NO2 showe functional isomerism not
CHO
and are functional isomers. tautomerism.
70. (2) [Mod. NEET 2015]

61. (4) [NCERT 340]
CH2–CH2OH compound can not change
2,3-Dimethyl butane, CH 3 – CH – CH – CH 3
into keto form due to absence of resonance.
CH3 CH3
62. (4) [NCERT 341] 71. (3) [NCERT 336]
All > C = C <, > C = N –, – N = N – will show Fumeric acid and maleic acid are geometrical
restricte rotation. isomers.
63. (2) [NCERT 340]
Three isomers, 72. (3) [NCERT 336]
Cl Due to presence of chiral carbon atom. 3-methyl
Cl heptane is optical active.
Cl
Cl
CH3
i. Cl ii.
Cl H 3C – CH 2 – CH 2 – CH 2 – C – CH2–CH3
1, 2, 3 1, 2, 4 H
Cl
73. (2) [NCERT 374]
Compound C6H5 – C = N – OH does not show
iii. Cl
Cl C 6 H5
1, 3, 5 geometrical isomerism due to same group (C6H5–)
64. (4) [NCERT-340] present.
74. (3) [NCERT 337]
O O
O O
CH3–CH2–CH2–C–OH & CH3–CH2–C–O–CH3
CH3–CH2 –C & CH3 – CH – C – H are
Butanoic acid Methyl propanoate
NH2 NH2
are functional isomers because functional group is
differ. functional isomers because functional group is
change.
65. (3) [NCERT-340]
75. (1) [NCERT-I 378]
Cyclopentene and pentyne are ring chain isomers
due to same molecular formular C5H8 and different Geometrical isomerism is shown by alkenes
structure 2-butene
66. (3) [Mod. CBSE] 76. (4) [NCERT-I 297]
H3C–CH2–HC=CH2
CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3 H CH3
(n −Pentane) C=C
Chain of 5 − 'C'
CH3 trans H
CH3 − CH − CH2 − CH3 H3C CH3

C=C
CH 3 H cis H
(n −Pen tane)
Chain of 4 − 'C' CH3 H
C=C
67. (4) [Mod. CBSE] CH 3 H
o–cresol and benzyl alcohol are functional isomers.
68. (4) [NCERT 340]
C2H5–O–C2H5 and CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO are not

isomers because molecular formula is differ. CH3
NLI / 6
77. (2) [NCERT-II 296] 84. (4) [NCERT-I 340]
The separation of racemic mixture into the pure Alkyl halide does not show functional isomerism.
enantiomers is called resolution
78. (4) [NCERT-I 340] 85. (1) [NCERT II-297]
C4H10O
H
i.e., compound is saturated will not show
tautomerism. Cl–CH2–CH2–C–CH2–CH2–Br
79. (1) [NCERT-II 298] Cl
Meso-tartaric acid is optically inactive because of No. of optical isomers = 2
Internal compensation
86. (3) [Mod. CBSE]
80. (2) [NCERT-I 340] Aromatic isomers of molecular formula (C7H8O) is
Functional group having carbon atom do not show five
position isomerism.
87. (3) [NCERT 341]
81. (1) [NCERT-II 297]
Due to same methyl group at one C-atom.
In order to show optical isomerism compound must
have chiral carbon center. 88. (2) [NCERT 341]
H and OH groups present in oxime show G.I.
CH3 H H
H 3C – C – C*– C – CH3 89. (2) [NCERT 341]
H CH3 H Staggered form of ethane and chair form of cyclo
82. (4) [NCERT-I 340] hexane are more stable.
Compound contain –CHO and –COCl group
respectively hence shown functional group 90. (1) [NCERT 341]
isomerism. HOOC H
C
83. (3) [NCERT-I 340] C 2H 5COO OH
CH3 CH3 Chiral C-atom
Cl
CH3–C–CH3 CH3–C–CH2Cl
CH3 CH3
NLI / 7
PHYSICS
1. (1) 9. (1)
The apparent value 'g' increases to (g + a) Here v =
ω A 2 − y2
1
and T ∝ . Hence T is decreased 2π A2
g+ a =
Now v A2 −
T 4
2. (2)
πA 3
2π or v =
Here v = rω = × 0.03 × 100 = π cm s–1 T
6
10. (2)
3. (4)
5T 2π 5π
Because total displacement is zero. φ=
1 × =
4 T 2
4. (4)
5T 2π
1 mg φ1 = × = 2π
T= . In first case k1 = and in second 4 5T
k ∆L
5π
∆φ
= − 2π
mg 2
case for each part k2 = ∴k 2 = 4k 1 and time
∆L
π
4 = ∆φ =
2
period is reduced to half i.e.,
11. (2)
1
1
T∝ ∝ The value of maximum frequency corresponds to
4 2 the max, displacement and acceleration.
5. (2)
1 Acc. 1 g
∴n
= =
1 225π 1 2 2π disp 2π d
Here f = = × 150π
2π .01 2π 12. (4)
= 75 Hz Thus no rersonance.
1
6. (1) Here T = mω 2 (A 2 − x 2 )
2
M 1
Here T = 2π V
= mω 2 x 2
k 2
5 M+m T A 2 − x2
and T= 2π ∴ =2
4 k V x
2
13. (2)
 5 M+m
∴  4  = Here the K.E. of the pendulum for angular
M displacement θ is Ek = mgl cos θ
25 m m 9 1 2
or = −1 or
= mv = mgl (1− cosθ)
16 M M 16 2
7. (2) θ
2
v2 = 2gl × 2sin
The graph between l and T is parabola. 2
8. (3) 2 θ
= 4glsin
2
l l T
T' =
2π 2π
= =
2
10 + 10 2
10 2 (2)1/ 2 θ
∴ v=
2 gl sin
2
NLI / 2
14. (2) 22. (4)
Here velocity,
= v w A 2 − x2 1
Total energy E = mω2 A2 ⇒ E ∝ A2
1 2
or v∝ Since amplitude is doubled, so energy becomes
T
four times. Further time period is independent of
v1 T2 6 2 amplitude
Now v = T= 3= 1
2 1 23. (3)
15. (4) 1 1 2
Total energy = mω 2 A 2 = kA
Α1 ω 2 k2 2 2
= =
A 2 ω1 k1 Thus energy depends upon k and A
24. (2)
(∴ A1ω1 = A 2 ω 2 )
As the displacement of bob is less than maximum
16. (4) displacement so there are two components of
 
m acceleration a t and ac are
Here T = 2π
Area × gρ shown in fig.
Here m = 0.02 kg, a = (0.1)2 m 2.
So, T = 0.0885 second
ac
17. (1)
a
1 2 2 2
We know that K.E. = mω (A − X )
2
a1
At mean position X = 0
25. (2)
1
∴ K.E. = mω2 A2 is maximum
2 l l
T= 2π and T' = 2π
18. (3) g g+a
1
T.E = m ω 2r 2 = constant i.e., independent of l
2 ⇒ T' = 2π
g
displacement from the mean position g+
3
19. (2)
1 − cos 2 ωt 1 1 3l 3
sin2 ωt = = − cos 2 ωt ∴ T' = 2π ⇒ T' = .T.
2 2 2 4g 4
⇒ Motion is periodic but not S.H.M.
26. (2)
20. (2)
1 2
d2 X Here E1 = kx
+ αx =0 2
dt 2
Comparing it with standard equation of S.H.M. k
or E1 = x ....... (i)
2
2
d X
+ ω 2 X = 0 we have ω2 = α
dt 2 k
2π 2π Also E2 = y ........ (ii)
= 2
Time period T =
ω α
21. (1) 1 k
Now =E k(x + y)2 or =E (x + y)
2 2
2π
Vmax = rω = r ⋅
T k k
=E x+ y or E
= E1 + E2
2πr 22 7 1 2 2
⇒T= =2 × × × = 10−2 s
Vmax 7 1000 4.4
NLI / 3
27. (1) 32. (3)
Here The S.I. unit of frequency Hertz
x = A cos ωt 33. (2)
 π The periodic time (t p) is 2π/ω
y = A cos  2ωt + 
2 34. (2)
= – A sin 2ωt Phase difference between displacement and
= – 2 A sin ωt cos ωt velocity is π/2.
1/ 2
= – 2A 1 − cos2 ωt  .cos ωt ........... (i) 35. (3)
If the values of x2 and y2 are substituted only the 1

K.E. = mω2 (A2 – x2)
first eqn. is satisfied 2
x 1
cos ωt = , puting on equation no - 1 so, we find P.E. = mω2x2
A 2
36. (1)
2 x2  2 If a cylinder of mass m, length L, denisty of material
=
the releation y 4x  1 − 2 
 a  ρ and uniform area of cross section A, oscillates
vertically in a liquid of density σ, then the time period
28. (1)
Lρ
α = rω2, β = rω of oscillation is T= 2π
σg
β2 37. (2)
∴ β = r 2 ω 2 or = r
α
Frequency of a particle executing S.H.M. may be
29. (4) expressed in the following way
At extreme position acceleration is maximum amax 1 Spring factor
= rω2. So the coin will leave the platform for the first υ=
2π Internal factor
time at extreme position only when amplitude is
increased 38. (2)
30. (4) The rotation of earth about its axis is both periodic
motion and periodic but not S.H.M. both a and c is
m m correct
t1 = 2π & t2 =
2π
k1 k2
39. (1)
 1 1 length of stroke 1
T=
2π m  +  A= = = 0.5 m
 k1 k 2  2 2
vmax = ωA
m m = 200 × 0.5 = 100 m/min
∴ T 2 = 4π 2 . + 4π2 .
k1 k2
40. (3)
2
T= t + t2 2
−k
1 2
a= x Among the given equations, only
m
31. (3) equation a = – 10x is written in the above with
k
= 10 . Hence this relation represents S.H.M.
h m
2 cm
41. (2)
We know that :
A O B
Aρg The particle is moving toward point O from the end
ω=
m B. This direction of motion is opposite to the
conventional positive direction, which is from A to
2 π m B. Hence, the particle velocity and acceleration,
∴ Time period, T = = 2 π
ω A ρ g and the force on it are all negative
NLI / 4
42. (1) 44. (3)
The force acting on mass m in S.H.M. is F = – kx It is known as amplitude
43. (1) 45. (4)
The block executes S.H.M. its angular frequency 1
E
= mω 2a2
k 2
is
m
E ∝ a2
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (3) [NCERT 344] 61. (3) [NCERT 342]

Because Nitrogen have valency not more than four. Homolytic or homopolar or non-polar fission formed
47. (1) [NCERT 342] CFR (Carbon free radical).
The order of subsititution of hydrogen is 30 > 20 > 62. (2) [NCERT 342]
10. Carbocation consist sp2-hybridisation and planar
48. (2) [NCERT 341] geometry.
Tertiary carbocation is more stable then secondary 63. (1) [NCERT 344]
Stability ∝ No. of resonating structure.
CH 3 64. (1) [NCERT 342]
CH2 – C – OH Carbocation contain sextet of e– (6e–) or three pairs
and primary, In this + compound lone
of e –.
CH3
65. (1) [NCERT 344]
pair of oxygen are easily available for electron defi-
cient carbon.  1 
 Stability ∝ 
49. (1) [NCERT 347]  quantity of charg e (+ ve) or (− ve) 
CH3 Stability order :
This compound have three alpha hydro- + + +
CH3 − CH − CH3 > CH3 − CH2 > CH2 − CH2
gen. So hyperconjugation is maximum from oth-
EDG present NO2
ers. EWG present
50. (2) [NCERT 344]
In CH2 – NO2 compound have maximum –I effect. Less (+ve) charge More (+ve) charge
NO2 more stable less stable.
66. (3) [NCERT 342]
So hydrogen is easily released.
• Methyl carbanion - 10e–
51. (3) [NCERT 344]
(CH3–) - Pyramidal shape
Due to +I effect of CH3 group.
52. (2) [NCERT 344]  NH
••

• Ammonia  3 - 10e–
Sulphur have large atomic size so hydrogen is eas-
ily released from others.
 NH
••

53. (3) [NCERT 342]
 3 - Pyramidal shape
Free radicals are neutral and high reactive.
54. (3) [NCERT 341]
67. (2) [NCERT 342]
In the carbeen two sigma bond and no any long
Nu– always attack that substrate which contain low
pair of electrons are present. So hybridisation is
density means e– dificient species.
sp.
68. (2) [NCERT 341]
55. (4) [NCERT 342]
Na+ have complete octate. In CH3–CH2OH the bond that undergoes heterolytic
cleavage most readily is O–H bond.
56. (3) [NCERT 342]
Order of SN2 reaction is CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > 69. (3) [NCERT 344]
CH3F Order of –I effect.
57. (3) [NCERT 342] 70. (4) [NCERT 342]
–OCH3 group highly activate the benzene ring to- Stability order :
wards electrophile due to +I effect. −
CH ≡ C − > HC3 − C ≡ C− > CH2 = CH > CH3 − CH2
−
58. (3) [NCERT 348]

sp-hybrid carbon. sp2-hybrid sp3-hybrid
The reactivity order for H atom is 30 H > 20 H > 10 H. more E.N. carbon. carbon carbon.
Contain (–ve) charge more electro
59. (1) [NCERT 342]
positive carbon
e– deficient neutral species. contain –ve
60. (3) [NCERT 342] charge
Carbanion has complete octet (8e–) more stable less stable
NLI / 6
71. (4) [NCERT 344] 80. (4) [NCERT 348]
–I effect increasing, acidity increases.
Elimination reactions involves removal of a molecule
72. (2) [NCERT 344]
Due to resonance. (HBr here) from a substrate.
73. (3) [NCERT 344] 81. (3) [NCERT 341]
Conjugation present but RS not possible because
nitrogen does not follow octet rule. •
Unpaired electron in C H3 occupies in p-orbital.
74. (4) [NCERT 345]
Stability order :
82. (2) [NCERT 346]
+ + + Addition of HCl is not peroxide effect and it occurs
> >
O O via electrophilic addition.
83. (2) [NCERT 347]
> (due to conjugation) and (no.of
+ due to reverse hyperconjugation effect.
α-H) 84. (2) [NCERT 342]
75. (3) [NCERT 344] acidic nature ∝ value of Ka
Stability order :
1
CH2 acidic nature ∝
value of pKa
< <
85. (1) [NCERT 348]
2 RS 3 RS 4 RS
α β β α
[Stability ∝ No. of R.S] Br C H2 − C H2 − C H2 − C H2Br + KOH 
→
76. (1) [NCERT 342]
Stronger is acid, weaker is its conjugate base or CH 2 = CH − CH = CH 2 + 2H 2O + 2KBr
Buta −1,3 − diene
weaker is nucleophilicity.
86. (3) [NCERT 346]
77. (2) [NCERT 348]
According to definition of electromeric effect.
The SN1 reactivityorder depends upon the ease of
formation of carbocation. 87. (4) [NCERT 345]
+ + Me Me O is more electronegative.
Me Me + 88. (3) [NCERT 345]
(1 ) (2 ) (2 )
0 0 0
Addition of HCl and HI is presence of peroxide, the

(Resonance stabilized) chain propagation step is endothermic in both
cases.
78. (2) [NCERT 347]
89. (3) [NCERT 342]
The former possesses 12α-H atom whereas, later
possesses six α-H atom. More is the no. of α-H KOH + CHCl3 → : CCl2 + KCl + H2O
atom, more is delocalisationand more is stability. alc.
90. (4) [NCERT 348]
79. (2) [NCERT 346] It undergoes dehydration easily as the product ob-
tained is conjugated and more stable.
The chain propagation step involves the use of free
radical and regeneration of another free radical.
NLI / 7
All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-16 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 05-March-2021
PHYSICS
1. (2) 13. (3)

In transverse wave motion of the particle is A phenomenon that occurs when the frequency of
Perpendicular to the wave direction of propagation forced vibrations on an object matches the objects
natural frequency is called resonase
2. (3)
14. (1)
A sound wave is an example of a Longitudinal wave.
A guitar is turned to adjust its pitch. What is it that
3. (2)
a changed The wavelength of the fundamental
The amplitude of wave is a measure of its Intensity
15. (1)
4. (2)
Frequency of sound produced from an organ pipe
Wave speed is the period of a wave is independent open at both ends are Even and odd harmonics
of time 16. (1)
5. (2) A closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is excited
to support the third overtone. It is found that air in
T
We know that, v = the pipe has Four nodes and four antinodes
P
17. (3)
m 2.5
P 0.125kg / m 3v 2v 3 1 lc 3
l 20
4 lc 2lo 4lc lO lo 4
Hence wave speed
18. (3)
200 Frequency (X) = 800 Hz
v 1600 m / s 40 m / s
0.125
As the pipe is closed at one end, so
T = 20/40 = 0.5 Second
O
6. (4) l3 l2 l2 l1 21.5 cm
2
Sound waves vibrates our eardrums so we can hear
? O 43.0 cm
7. (3)
Mechanical waves and electromagnetic wave both v
As X v XO
are transfers energy O
8. (3) 800 u 43
? v 344 ms 1
Longitudinal and machenical wave is a sound wave 100
9. (4) 19. (2)
As frequency of a wave increases both wavelenght The velocity of sound in air at 27°C is v = 2(X)
and energy decreases [L2 – L1]; where ? = frequency of tuning fork and
10. (4) L1, L2 are the successive column length.
v = nO ? v = 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2

= 339.2 ms–1 | 339 ms–1
340
n 34 Hz
10
20. (1)
Nearest harmonics of an organ pipe closed at one
11. (2)
end is differ by twice of its fundamental frequency.
The super position of two waves creates interference

220 11n
12. (1)
A standing wave, transport energy but does not move n = 20 Hz
NLI / 2
21. (1) 26. (1)
First harmonic is obtained at The relation between phase difference ('I) and path
O 2S
l 50 cm
4 difference ('x) is 'M 'x
O
Third harmonic is obtained for resonance,
3O 27. (4)
l' 3 u 50 150 cm
4 For resonance, nclosed pipe = 166
22. (2) v
166
For a string fixed at both ends, the resonant 4l
frequencies are
332
l 0.5 m
nv 4 u 166
Xn where n 1,2,3,................
2L
28. (3)
The difference between two consecutive resonant
Beat frequency = 260 – 256 = 4 Hz
frequencies is :
(n 1)v nv v
'Xn Xn 1 Xn 1
2L 2L 2L 'T
Which is also the lowest resonant frequency ( n=1) 4
Thus the lowest resonant frequency for the given 1 T
string t=
16 4
= 420 Hz – 315 Hz = 105 Hz
T
23. (2) Time differency = u Phase difference
2S
A wave is a disturbance which propagates energy
and momentum from one place to the other without T T S
uI I
the transport of matter. In propagation of longitudinal 4 2S 2
waves through a medium leads to transmission of 29. (4)
enrgy through the medium without matter being Error in watch = Time taken by sound to reach the
transmitted. There is no movment of matter (mass)
2000 200
and hence momentum man = 6.06 s
330 33
24. (1)
30. (4)
For closed organ pipe, fundamental frequency is
Imax D(a1 a2 )2 (2a)2
v
given by Xc So, v 4a2
4l
2nd overtone of open organ pipe 31. (1)
3v A2 A12 A 22 2A1A 2 cos I
X' = 3X0 ; X '
2l'
According to question, Xc = X' I 0
A = A1 + A2 = 3A
v 3v
4l 2l' 32. (2)
l' = 6l 2S
Time period, T ; from
Here, l = 20 cm l' = ? Z
? l' = 6 × 20 = 120 cm
2S
25. (4) given eqn. w = 3.0 s–1 or T = = 2.09 s
3
Fundamental frequency in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5
33. (2)
1 1 100 Z = 100, k = 20
1x x x 100 x
3 5 23
100
Wave speed = 5m / s
100 100 100 1500 500 300 20
So, : : : :
23 23 u 3 5 u 23 23 23 23
NLI / 3
34. (1) 39. (3)
4 Fundamental note
I | 8 u 10 6
4 S(200) 2
v
Closed pipe = 4
35. (2) 4l
JRT v ªvº
We know that v vv T Open pipe = 2 « » = 2f
M 2l ¬ 4l ¼
40. (3)
vT 3
But given, v 1 Watt
O
Unit of intensity =
m2
3 TT T Loudness unit 1. Bel
T 9
1 TO 273 2. Decibel
3. Phone
? TT 273 u 9 2457 K
41. (4)
= 2457 – 273 = 2184°C
36. (3) a
The equation of spherical wave is y = sin(Zt kx)
r
JP 42. (1)
vv , For air J and P are constant
U
The quality of sound depends upon the number of
1 harmonics presentl. Due to different number of
vv , where U is the density of air harmonics
U
43. (2)
v U2 Fifth over tone
2
v1 U1
6th harmonic
U1 density of dry air 6 Loop
U2 density of moist air 6 Antinode and 7 node

44. (3)
v2
As U1 < U2 = v ! 1 v 2 ! v1 Refer any text book
1
Hence, speed of sound wave in air increases with S

'I
increase in humidity 2
37. (3) 45. (1)
Audible to human being 20 Hz d n d 20,000 Hz I1 § A·

2
1
38. (3) I2 ¨© 2A ¸¹ 4
Let n1 > n2
Imax ( I1 I2 )2
Beat frequency fBeat = n1 – n2
Imin ( I1 I2 )2
1 1
? Time period of beats TBeat = f n1 n2 Now put the values
Beat
Imax - Imin 4
We get I + I 5
max min
NLI / 4
CHEMISTRY
60. (1) [NCERT 399]

46. (2) [NCERT 381]
For Morkonikoff's addition or anti morkonikoff's With the increase is vander waals (V.Watltraction
addition to observe substrate as well as the reagent v no. of electrons) attraction physical state
must be unsymmetric. changes from gas to liquid to solid.
47. (1) [NCERT 387] 61. (1) [NCERT 383]
Li or Na/Liq. NH3 coverts alk-2-ynes to trans alk-2- With the increase in stability of intermediate
enes whereas Lindlars catalyst converts alk-2-ynes carbonium reactivity increases.
to cis alk-2-enes.
62. (3) [NCERT 373]
48. (1)
Second group carbides produce C2H2OH hydrolysis
RMgX + (O, N, S) –H o R–H but berylium carbide produce CH 4. Aluminium
CH3MgBr + C2H5NH2 o CH4 n carbide also produce CH4 (diagonal relation) Mg2C3
produce propyne on hydrolysis.
49. (4) [NCERT 382]
Formation of 'A' follows Morkonikoves addition C2H5Li + HOH o C2H6 + LiOH
whereas formatino of 'B' follows anti mark addition. 63. (4) [NCERT 378]
50. (3) [NCERT 363]
Main constituent of LPG are isobutane, propane.
51. (2) [NCERT 367]
64. (3) [NCERT 387]
52. (1) [NCERT 371]

65. (4) [NCERT 386]
53. (3) [NCERT 383]

Both 1st and 2nd structures give all the gthree
structures on ozonolysis in the presence of H2O. 66. (3) [NCERT 387]
54. (1) [NCERT 383]
55. (4) [NCERT 382]
With branching reactivity decreases and heat of
hydrogenation also decreases.
56. (2) [NCERT 371]
Rx + 2Na + XR o R – R it is wurtz reaction and we get 67. (1) [NCERT 377]
alkanes with double the no. of 'C' atoms.
57. (2) [NCERT 380]
With Al2O3 alcohols produce ether at a lower
temperature, where as on raising the temp. we get
alkenes. 68. (1) [NCERT 378]
58. (3) [NCERT 373] due to formation of strong base pH increases.
By wurtz and kolbei electrolysis we won't get CH4 69. (3) [NCERT 370]
and alkenes on reduction give ethane of higher
alkanes. Where as CH4 can be obtained by Duma's ª 1 º
method. «B.P v Surface area v »
¬ No. of side chain) ¼
59. (3) [NCERT 380]
Bromine water test is to check the presence of 70. (1) [NCERT 381]
unsaturation, Ammonical AgNO3 is used to test 1-
Trans – alkene + Br2 o Meso form
Alkynes.
NLI / 5
71. (4) [NCERT 387] 81. (4) [NCERT 367]
Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol

to give a mixture of benzene and Mg(OMe)Br
72. (3) [NCERT 380]
82. (4) [NCERT 378]
CH3 CH CH CH 3 ( i ) O3
( ii ) Zn dust
o 2CH3 .CHO
conc. H SO But 2 ene H .OH
3 3 3 3 3
83. (4) [NCERT 366]

LiAlH4 converts 3 alkyl halides to alkenes.
0
84. (4) [NCERT 377]

73. (1) [NCERT 386, 387]
74. (3) [NCERT 381]

85. (2) [NCERT 383]
Isobutene + HBr o
HO
2 2
Isobutyl bromide
CH3 CH2 CHCH2 ¶¶¶¶ ¶
HotalkKMNO4
(o)
lCH3 CH2 COOH CO2 H2O
75. (2) [NCERT 390]
In nitration of benzene conc. HNO3 act as base.
86. (2) [NCERT 386]
76. (3) [NCERT 371]
HCOONa
o H2+Na2CO3
NaOH
77. (2) [NCERT 383]

87. (2) [NCERT 386]
CH2=CH2 + S2Cl2 + CH2 = CH2 o +S
78. (4) [NCERT 380]

' 88. (2) [NCERT 377]
(C 2H5 )4 NOH o(C2H5 )3 N CH2 CH2 H2O
It is formation of 20 or 30 alcohol based on the loca-
79. (2) [NCERT 382] tion of the C=C bond.
CH2 CH2
HBr
o CH2 CH2Br o
H.OH
CH3 CH2OH
(X) (Y) 89. (2) [NCERT 370]
80. (2) [NCERT 387]
90. (1)
Thermal decomposition is called cracking.
NLI / 6
PHYSICS
1. (3) 10. (4)

Because moving charge produces both electric and The negative charge distributed over the surface of
magnetic field earth is about 5 × 105 C. The surface charge density
2. (1) of earth is
& &
F qE , There is no role of speed or mass Q 5 u 105 C
V 109 C / m2
4SR2e 4S(6.37 u 106 m)2
3. (2)
11. (3)
Every system tends to decrease its potential
energy to attain more stability when we increase Effective air separation between them becomes
charge on soap bubble its radius increases infinite so force becomes zero
ª 1º 12. (1)
«U v r »
¬ ¼ Q2
F = 9 × 109 ×
4. (4) r2
Electric field lines do not form closed loop. This (1.6 u 10 19 )2
9 u 109 u 2.3 u 10 8 N
follows from the conservative nature of electric field (10 10 )2
5. (3) 13. (2)
1 e2 Here, q1 = 1 × 10–7C, q2 = 2 × 10–7 C

H0
4SF r 2 F = 9 × 109 × 1 × 10–7 × 2 × 10–7 /(0.2)2
6. (3) 14. (4)
Nucelar force will act when distance is about 10 –15
m.
7. (3)
Q2 qQ
D particle is Helium nucleus He2+ and charge = + 2e K 2
K 2 0
4L L
8. (1)
Q
q
Force on a charge q in a uniform electric field E is 4
F = qE 15. (1)
Work done = force × distance = qEY
9. (2)
q(4q) qQ
Due to induction net charges on outer surface of K 2
K 2 4 0
l l
spheres are as shown. Q = –q
Q1 Q1 Q2 Q1 Q2 Q3 16. (3)
V
4SR2 4S(2R)2 4S(3R)2
q2
F K
r2
Q1 Q2 Q1 Q2 Q3 Kq2
Q1 F' 2
4 9 §r r ·
¨© 2 2 K ¸¹
Q2 = 3Q1 and Q3 = 5Q1

F 4
F 2
F
§r r · 9
? Q1 : Q2 : Q 3 = 1 : 3 : 5 ¨© 4¸
2 2 ¹
NLI / 2
17. (4) 30. (1)
2
p = qd
§ 4.4 ·
Q = 4S ¨ u 60 u 106 = (1.6 × 10–19) ( 4.3 × 10–9 )
© 2 ¸¹
= 6.88 × 10–28 Cm
22 31. (1)
4u u 4.84 u 6 u 10 5
7
Apply gauss law
= 3.7 × 10–3 C
18. (1)
& & q
No electric field inside the conductor I ³ E.dA H0
19. (1)
qE = mg
q
mg IDue to one face = 6H
E 0
q
32. (4)
20. (1)
1
3 u 10 6 Ev
r
E = 2 × 9.0 × 109 ×
(0.1)2
33. (3)
= 5.4 × 106 N/C
F eE
21. (2) a
m m
q = ne 34. (1)
3 u 10 7
Gauss's Law is valid for any closed surface
n
1.6 u 1019 35. (4)
22. (2) q
Check the dimension ITotal
H0
23. (3)
The force of electric field will be opposite to the velocity
q H 0 ª¬ 8 u 10 3 4 u 10 3 º¼
hence speed will decrease
24. (3)
electric line of force is always perpendicular to q H 0 4 u 10 3 C
equipotential surface 36. (2)
25. (4)
5 u 106
Electric field can deflect only charged particles E = 9 × 109
(0.8)2
26. (3)
= 7 × 104 N/C
Force is constant and not parallel to velocity hence
37. (3)
path will be parabola
27. (4) F
a
m
It will depends upon position and orientation of dipole
F = 9.1 × 10–31 × 2.5 × 1022
28. (2)
For proton
Wmax PuE
F
= (2 × 10–6) (0.03) (2 × 105) ap = m
p
= 12 × 10–3 Nm
29. (2) 9.1 × 10 -31 × 2.5 × 10 22
ap = = 1.5 × 1019 m/s2
& & 1.67 u 10 27
W P uE
NLI / 3
38. (2) 40. (2)
3Q
E K
d2
Q E
E' K
d2 3
41. (2)
Dielectric constant is t 1
42. (3)
qE Fact given by maxwell
tan T
mg 43 (2)
Charge flows only in the case of potential difference
q § V ·
tan T
mg ¨© 2H0 ¸¹ 44 (3)
Due to negative point charge electric lines are radial
V v tan T
inword
39. (2) 45. (2)
Both will have same potential Net charge = 2q – q – q = 0
E1 b Hence potenital is zero
Hence E a
2 but field is not zero
NLI / 4
CHEMISTRY
46. (2) [NCERT 387] 59. (4)
Propyne in the presence of H2SO4 and HgSO4 follow 60. (3)
Markonikove's additionwhere as in the presence of 61. (3)
BH3/OH–/H2O2 follow anti markonikov's addition.
62. (2)
47. (2) [NCERT 377]
63. (1) [NC 385]
C2H5MgBr
CaC2
H2O
o CH { CH o C2H6
64. (2) [NC 347]

48. (3) [NCERT 387] Ring activating effect of group will decrease
electrophilicity of carbonyl group.
Zn/H

O3
o 65. (2) [NC 379]
2O
Chloroprene – Neoprene
49. (3) [NCERT 387] Vinyl cyanide – Acrilian
Terminal alkyne react with [Ag(NH3)2]OH. Vinyl benzene – Styrene
50. (1) [NCERT 387] Glycol+terphthalic acid– Terylene
66. (3) [NC 386]
A is : CH3–CH2–C { CH
B is :
51. (2) [NCERT 392]
67. (3) [NC 387]

Musturd gas – CH2=CH2+S2Cl2
Westron – CH { CH+Cl2
52. (2) [NCERT 390]
The product, here is sodium phenate. Vinyl acetylene – CH { CH+Cu2Cl2/NH4Cl
53. (3) [NCERT 395] Lewsite – CH { CH+AsCl3

68. (2) [NC 386]
Compound A is CH3–C { C–Na+
Compound B is CH3–C { C–CH3
Compound C is
54. (3) [NCERT 387]
69. (2)
R = Fuming sulphuric acid
70. (4)
55. (1) [NCERT 394] General formula of arene = CnH2n–6y

(y is no. of benzene ring)
71. (3)
benzene bond order between C–H = 1
56. (4)
57. (3) 72. (2)
58. (4) In Benzene ratio V and S bond = 4 : 1
NLI / 5
73. (1) 80. (2)

In nitration of benzene the electrophile is NO2
81. (4)
2 2
The least octane no. is for n-heptane
74. (2) 82. (2)
Chemical name of the insecticide gammexene is (BHC) 83. (4)
Benzene hexachloride
Vinyl chloride can undergo the following Polymerisation,
75. (3) Addition, Elimination
Friedal craft reaction can not be possible in presence 84. (2)
of any deactivating group and basic activating group
like NH2, NHR, NR2. CH { CH AsCl3 o
AlCl3
Lewisite
76. (3)
85. (1)
B = HCOCl, CO+HCl
A = Acetic acid
77. (4) B = Oxallic acid
86. (4)
Propane does not form an ozonide.
87. (4)
Wurtz fitting reaction The reagent used to convert an alkyne to alkene is
78. (1) Pd/H2
88. (4)
— NH3
Product A and B =
— CCI3
79. (2) — NHCOCH3

89. (3)
C6H6Cl6
A=
90. (2)
Cycloalkanes are isomeric with alkenes.
NLI / 6
PHYSICS
12. (3)
1. (1)
1
Potential inside the hollow sphere is constant C' = n 3 C
2. (2) 1
Potential inside the hollow sphere is same as that C' = (8)3 C

on the surface
C' = 2C
3. (3)
13. (2)
When a charge is moved from one point to the other
over an equipotential surface work done will be zero By the definition of the dielectric strength
4. (2) 14. (4)
q ε0 AK
V=k C=
10 d
kq = 10 V 15. (2)
q 10 2 ε0 A
V' k=
= V = V C=
15 15 3 d
5. (1) ε0 AK
C' = ⇒ C' = KC
q C –q d
A• • •B
16. (2)
2d
In charging half of energy supplied by the battery is
lost in the form of heat
Potential at C 17. (4)
kq −kq V = Constant
VC
= −
d/ 2 d/ 2 C' = kc
=0 q' = kq
6. (3) 18. (3)
K = eV ε0 A ε0 A
C= ⇒ 2C = K
= 1 eV d 2d
7. (2)
Potential at A C
2C = K ⇒K=4
2
kq kq 19. (1)
VA = − =0
2 2
a +b a + b2
2
If battery is not connected than charge will
8. (3) remain constant
When a charge is moved from one point to the other 20. (4)
over an equipotential surface work done will be zero
ε0 A
C
= = 10
d
9. (2)
Potential energy at a point in electric field is given by ε0 A
=C' = 10
U = qv, where V is the potential at that point t
d− t +
10. (3) K
Potential inside the hollow sphere is constant
ε0 A
11. (3) = = 10
d d
In uniform electric field, equipotential surface are normal d− +
2 2×2
to the field lines. Hence S, R will be at same potential
4
= × 10 = 13.33 µF
3
NLI / 2
21. (1) 27. (4)
q
C= W = ∆U
V
= Uf – U i
22. (1)
1 q2 1 q2
1 = −
Ustore = CV 2 2 c 2 c
2
3
1
= × 12 × 10−12 × (50)2 q2 c2V02
2 = =
c c
= 1.5 × 10–8 J
23. (3) ε 0 AV02
=
d
ε0 A
C
= = 15µF
6 28. (4)
ε0 A 6 4
C'
= = C C' = C
2 2 3
C' = 3 × 15
ε0 A 4
= 45 µF =
d d 3
d− +
24. (2) 2 2k
K=2
q' ∝ Radius
29. (3)
R1
q'smaller = Q The given arrangement becomes an arrangment of
R1 + R2
(n-1) capacitors connected in parallel
5
= × 30
15 30. (1)
= 10 µC C
25. (2)
A C B
When battery is in connection then V = constant
C' = KC,
Ceq = 2C
q' = kq
26. (1) 2ε 0 A
=
d
1
Ed= ε0E2 31. (4)
2
1 V2 1µF
= ε0
2 d2 1µF
1µF
1 q2 A B
= ε0 2 2
2 c d 1µF
1 ε 0 q2
=
2  ε0 A 2 2
 d  d 3 ×1 3
  Ceq
= = µF
3 +1 4
NLI / 3
32. (1) 38. (2) C
1 1 1 1 1
= + + =
Cser 3 9 18 2 C
Cser = 2µF 1 C
=
CP = 30µF 15
33. (2) Ceq = 3C
1 39. (2)
Ustored = Cnet V 2
2 Common potential
−6
1 8 × 10 q1 + q2 CV + O
= × × (15)2 =VC =
2 5 C1 + C2 C+C
= 180×10–6 J
= 1800 erg V
=
2
34. (3)
CV
Q1 = Q2 + Q3 , V2 = V3 q'1 CV
= = C
2
35. (1) 40. (1)
C1 Common potential
q1
q q1 + q2
C2 VC =
C1 + C2
q2
0.2 × 600 + 0
in parallel P.d. is same =
0.2 + 1
q1 = C1V
∴ 120
q2 = C2 V VC
= = 100 V
1.2
36. (1) 41. (1)
1 q2 q1 + q2
Ubefore = VC =
2 C1 C1 + C2
1 q2 10 × 100 + 0
Uafter = 40 =
2 C1 + C2 10 + C2
Ubefore C1 + C2 400 + 40C2 = 1000

=
Uafter C1 600
C2 = ⇒ C2 = 15 µF
40
37. (2)
42. (2)
ε A / 2k1
C1 = 0
t Equivalent circuit
ε0 A / 2k 2 2µF 2µF
C2 = 2µF
t
Ceq = C1 + C2
A 1µF B
ε A
= 0 [k1 + k 2 ]
2t
1µF
NLI / 4
43. (3) 44. (1)
2.5 1 1 1 1
=i = 1A = + +
1 + 1 + 0.5 C eq 3 3 3
V = iR
Ceq = 1 µF
=1×2
V = 2 Volt 45. (2)
q = CV
Ceq = 1 + 1
=5×2
q = 10 µC Ceq = 2 µF
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (4)
When electrons are trapped into the crystal in anion 55. (4) [NCERT 18]
vacancy, the defect is known as F-centres.
47. (1) [CBSE 2006] Body diagonal length = a 3
1/3 So, distance between body centre atom and any
Z×M  4 × 60.2 
=a3 =  
ρ × NA  6.25 × 6.02 × 1023  a 3
corner atom =
2
= 400 × 10–10 cm = 400 pm
48. (3) 56. (4) [NCERT 31]
49. (2) [NCERT-19] 100 mol NaCl dopped with 10–4 mole SrCl2
a
Using ratom = 10−4
2 2 1 mole NaCl dopped with = 10 −6 mole SrCl2
100
361 10–6 mole cation vacancies in 1 mole NaCl
=
2.8 So, number of cation vacancies per mole of NaCl
50. (4) [NCERT 16] is 10–6×6.022×1023
For octahedral arrangement (co-ordination no. =6), = 6.022×1017 mol–1
radius ratio is in the range 0.414 – 0.732
57. (2) [NCERT-20]
51. (3) [NCERT 16]
Frenkel and Schottky defects are crystal defects. Z×A
52. (3) [NCERT 11] Using d = N × V
A
1
ZA = 6 × 1 × putting the values Z = 2, A = 50, NA = 6.02×1023
8
58. (4) [NCERT-17]
1 It is on the basis of the characteristics of antiflurite
ZB = 6 × 1 ×
2 structure.
1 59. (3) [NCERT 19]
ZC = 2 × 1 ×
8 2
A → 2× B
Z A : Z B : ZC 3
3 : 12 : 1 = A B4/3
53. (3) [NCERT 12]
= A3B4
1 60. (3) [NCERT 12]
Ca atoms per unit cell = 8 × =1
8
Percentages of free space in cubic close packed
1 structure and in body centred packed structure are
O atoms per unit cell = 6 × 3
= respectively 26% and 32%.
2
Ti atoms per unit cell = 1 61. (3) [NCERT 8]
Hence, the formula of the mineral is CaTiO3 a≠b≠c
Suppose ox. no. of Ti = x α ≠ β ≠ γ =900
Then +2 +x +3 (–2) = 0 or x = +4 62. (3) [NCERT 7]
54. (1) [NCERT 10] In CsCl, Cl–
ion are bigger they form packing. Cs+
ion present at body centre. Coordination no. 8:8.
a 63. (2) [NCERT 19]
Simple cubic : r =
2 Alternate tetrahedral void in FCC are occupied in
ZnS.
a 64. (2) [NCERT 18]
fcc : r =
2 2 condition for hexagonal unit cell
a= b ≠ c
a 3 α=β=900 , γ=1200
bcc : r =
4
NLI / 6
65. (2) [NCERT 12] 73. (2) [Mod. CBSE]

In bcc Z = 2
The number of Bravis lattices are 14 for 7 standard
No. of atom = 12.08 × 1023 × 2
cristal system.
74. (2) [Mod. CBSE 2004]
66. (3) [NCERT-23] for cubic a=b=c, α=β=γ=90o
Wustite is Fe0.93O which has approx 15% of iron in
+3 form. Schottky defect is a stoichiometric defect. for triclinic a ≠ b ≠ c, α ≠ β ≠ γ
F-centres are negatively charged holes.
67. (1) [NCERT-19] 75 (4) [NCERT-XII-12]
The shortest inter-ionic distance between Cs + and In P.U.C., co-ordinate no. is 6
a 3 In F.C.C., co-ordinate no. is 12
Br– in bcc type structure =
2 In B.C.C., co-ordinate no. is 8.
Where a is edge length.
76 (2) [NCERT-XII-12]
68. (2) [NCERT-15] No. of atom of B = Co-ordinate of A = x
In sodium chloride unit cell anion (rA) occupies No. of atom of a = Co-ordinate of B = y
corners and face centers while cation (rc) occupies
octahedral voids. y
So, ratio of atom will be =
x
69. (2) [NCERT-11]
77. (4) [NCERT-XII-13,14]
Z×M
Using d = N × a3 I – Trigonal void
A
II – Cubical
Putting the values we get
Z=2 III–C.S. of tetrahdral void
Hence body centred. IV – C.S of O.V.
70. (3) [Mod. CBSE] 78. (3) [NCERT-XII-24,25]
40 g = NA atoms This is non stoichionetric defect.
4 g = 0.1 × NA atoms
79. (4) [NCERT 10]
2 atoms form 1 unit cell in bcc crystal By geometry the relationship can be verify.
0.1NA 80. (1) [NCERT 11]
0.1×NA atoms = unit cells
2 It is a fact for AB2 type lattice.
71. (1) [Mod. CBSE] 81. (3) [CBSE 2005]
An isolated fcc cell each face of the cfell is common
1 to two adjacent cells. Therefore, each face centre
× 6.023 × 10 23 = 1.029 × 1022
58.5 atom contributes only half of its volume and mass
to one cell. Arranging six cells each sharing the
A unit cell contains 4Na+ ion and 4 Cl– ions
remaining half of the face centred atoms,
1.029 × 10 22 constitutes fcc cubic lattice. e.g., Cu and Al.
Unit cell = = 2.57×1021 unit cells 82. (4) [CBSE 2007]
4
Number of atoms per unit cell = 1
72. (3) [Mod. CBSE 2009]
Atoms touch each other along edges.
Z Y X a
Hence r =
Corner In ½ Td voids In ½ Oh voids 2
8×1/8 8×1/2×1 4×1/2×1 (r = radius of atom and a = edge lenght)
1 4 2
4 3
πr π
So formula is X2Y4Z. therefore % fraction = 3 = = 0.52
(2r )3 6
NLI / 7
83. (3) [NCERT-XII- 2, 3] 88. (2) [NCERT-XII-16]

Rubber is the only solid which is amorphous.
nc nf 6 6 3 15
84. (3) [NCERT-XII-4,5,6] No. of ‘x’ atom = + ⇒ + = +3 =
8 2 8 2 4 4
Malleablity is the property of only metallic solid.
85. (1) [NCERT-XII-10,11] ne 12
=
No. of ‘y’ atom = = 3
4 4
nc
No. of atom in P.U.C. = =1
8 So, formula will be x15 y3 ⇒ x15 y12 =
x 5 y4
4
nc nf 8 6
No. of atom in F.C.C. = + = + = 4 89. (3) [NCERT-XII-16]
8 2 2 2
nc 8
nc nb No. of ‘A’ atom = ⇒ =1
No. of atom in B.C.C. = + = 1 +1= 2 8 8
8 1
So 1, 4, 2 I is correct option. nf 5
No. of ‘B’ atom= =
86. (1) [NCERT-XII-15] 2 2
ABAB..... packing occurs in hCP.
So, formula is AB 5 or A2B5
2
87. (4) [NCERT-XII-15]
90. (1) [NCERT-XII-16]
This is similar to CsCl structure.
One body diagonal will contain two corner, two T.V.
and one O.V.
NLI / 8
PHYSICS
1. (3) 9. (1)
Specific resistance of metals is depends on temp
l
R U 10. (3)
A
v is (+) for metal
2l 11. (3)
R' U
2A
i
R' = R Vd
neA
2. (4)
When wire is stretched then 20
1029 u 1.6 u 10 19 u 10 6
l2
Rv = 1.25 × 10–3 m/sec
A2
12. (2)
(3l)2 Current density
R' v 2 R' 9 u 20 = 180 :
A J=VE
3. (2)
1
J E
U
E = UJ
13. (4)
R'= 1 : q = it
4. (4) q = 5 × 60 min
When wire is streched then = 300
14. (3)
l2 l2
Rv v 4 v is (–) for semiconductor
A 2
Sr
1
l2 hence for semiconeductor R v
R' v 4
R' 16R T
§r·
S¨ ¸ 15. (2)
© 2¹
Relaxation time (W)
5. (2)
O
W
q Vrms
I qf
t
= 1.6 × 10–19 × 6.6 × 1015 Vrms v Temp
= 10.5 × 10–4 1
= 1 mA Hence W v
T
6. (4)
16. (2)
Resistivity of a wire depends on material & temp
7. (2) V
R
In semiconductor current is due to free e – & i
holes For metallic wire
8. (2) RvT
17. (1)
ne
I v is (–) for C
t
18. (4)
= 2 × 3.2 × 1018 × 1.6 × 10–19 + 3.6 × 1018 × 1.6 × 10–19
R = 91 × 102 ± 10%
= 16 × 10–1 Amp
NLI / 2
19. (1) 25. (1)
When wire is compressed then
l2 l2
Rv v 4
A 2
Sr
l2 R
R' v R'
S(nr)4 n4
20. (2)
l l Req between A & B is

Rv v
A Sr 2
20 u 20
Specific resistance depends on material R eq = 10 :
20 20
21. (3) 26. (1)
For maximum current
R = rnet
mr m
3 3 u 0.5
n n
m
6
n
m = 6n Req b/w A & B is
mn = 24 (Given)
4u2 8 4
6n2 = 24 Req = :
42 6 3
n = 2
27. (4)
m = 12
Rseries = R1 + R2 + R3 ...........
22. (1)
28. (4)
R If R is cut into ten equal parts then resistance of 1 part
Resistance of 1 part =
10 R
these parts are connected in parallel is
10
R R
hence R' = =
n 10 u 10
R' = 0.01 R
R
23. (2) R eq
5
4R
Req = 2R
2
24. (3)
R R
R 'eq
5u5 25
1 2
Req = 1:
3 3
NLI / 3
29. (3) 34. (4)
5X 2 u 10
VAB 4
x 10
x = 20 :
35. (1)
6u6
Rnet 3:
66
30. (3)
R
R ser nR Rpar
n
Rmax R ser nR
= n2 This is balance wheatstone bridge
Rmin Rpar R
n 20 u 20
R eq = 10 :
31. (3) 20 20
Current in the circuit 36. (2)
8 4 In balance wheatstone bridge BD arm is ineffective
i Amp hence no current in BD arm
6 3
37. (3)
4 For maximum power
VE 1 u VC
3 R = rnet
4 2=r
VE V
3 38. (2)
32. (1)
¦V 0
conservation of energy
39. (2)
E1 E2 8
E1 E2 2
E1 10 5
R2
V2 V E2 6 3
R1 R2
2 40. (1)
u3 V2 = 1 V
24
V
33. (3) K
L
Current in 3 : resistor 0.8 Amp
41. (1)
6
hence 0.8 = u i
9
total current in circuit
6
i
5
Pot drop through 4 :
V = iR
R 10
10 :
6 50 50
= u 4 4.8V
5
NLI / 4
42. (1) 44. (3)
R 80
20 80
R = 20 :
45. (1)
Potential gradient
Potential gradient V iR iU L
K
V iR 2 10 L L L A
K u
L L 10 4 iU
K
= 0.5 V/m A
43. (4)
R 1
20 80
1
R= :
4
= 0.25 :
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (1) [NCERT 47] 55. (2) [NCERT 47]

0.2 u 0.082 u 300 Colligative prop. depend upon no. of particles in
S = 4.92 atm solution i.e., no. of solute particles. It also depends
1.0
on the nature of solvent.
47. (1) [NCERT 48]
56. (4) [NCERT 59]
5 0.877 0.877 u 342 Greater the no. of ions greater will be elevation in
or X
342 X 5 b.p.
X = 59.98 57. (1) [Mod. AMU 2004]
48. (4) [NCERT 49] Mass of H2SO4 in 100 ml of 93%
'Tf is more in KCl for same molar concentration H2SO4 solution = 93 g
because it ionises in aqueous solutions. mass of H2SO4 in 1000 ml of the H2SO4 solution
930 g mass of 1000 ml H2SO4 solution = 1000×1.84
49. (2) [NCERT 34]
= 1840 g
H2C2O4 . 2H2O is a dibasic acid
Mass of water in 1000 ml solution
126 1840 – 930 = 910 g = 0.910 kg
Eq. mass = = 63
2 wt. of H2SO4 930
Mole of H2SO4 =
50. (2) [NCERT 35] Mol. wt. of H2SO4 = 98
2NaOH + H2SO4 o Na2SO4 + H2O
Moles of H2SO4 in 1 Kg of water
M1V1 M2 V2 930 1
n1 n2 = u = 10.43 M.
(NaOH) (H2 SO4 ) 98 0.910
58. (1) [NCERT-XII (57)]
0.2 u 40 0.1 u V Kl reacts with Hgl2 to form a complex as
= V = 40 mL
2 1 2 KI + HgI2 o K2[HgI4]
Ionizes
o
51. (4) [NCERT 51]
(2K 2I ) 2K HgI24
'Tf = Kf ×m
4 ions 3 ions
0.186 Thus, number of ions decreases in the solution

or m = = 0.1
1.86 Hence, depression in freezing point is less, i.e.,
'Tb = Kb × m actual freezing point is raised .
59. (1) [NCERT-XII (46)]
'Tb = 0.0512×0.1
HNO3 + H2Osolution shows negative deviation from
'Tb = 0.05120
ideal behaviour. Hence, it forms azeotrope with
52. (3) [NCERT 50] maximum boiling point .
According to diff. of Raoult's law 60. (2) [NCERT-XII (35)]
53. (3) [NCERT 55] 1 kg of water = 1000 g = 10 g 3
6 mg of O2 = 6× 10–3 g
Na2SO4(aq) 2Na+(aq) + SO42– (aq)
Thus, 103 g of water contain O2 = 6×10–3 g
initial conc. C 0 0
6 u 103
at eq. conc. C(1-D) 2CD CD ? 106 g will contain O2 = u 106
103
C(1 D ) 2(D CD ) 61. (2) [NCERT-XII (54)]
O' = 1+2D
C
Conc. of ions in 0.1 M NaCl solution = 0.2 M conc.
54. (3) [NCERT 52] of ions in 0.05 M BaCl2 solution = 3 ×0.05=0.15 M
Ratio of depression in F.P is equal to no. of particles Net flow of solvent is from less concentrated
so 2 : 2 : 3 or 2 : 1 : 1.5 solution to more concentrated solution.
NLI / 6
72. (4) [NCERT 47]
62. (3) [XII-I, NCERT- 53]
1
6 18 34.2 C.P. v nB =
Total moles of solute = Molar mass
60 180 342
= 0.3 1 1 1 1
sucrose , Glucos, Glycerol, Urea,
Using, S× 0.5 = 0.3 ×0.82 ×300 342 180 92 60
S = 14.76 atm 73. (1) [NCERT 52]
63. (2) [XII-I, NCERT- 56] 1
Using, ('Tb)obs = i ×('Tb)nor C.P. v nB =
Molar mass
given that, D = 0.25 and by ionization i = 1+4 D
(For same concentrations in percentage or g L–1,
('Tb)obs = (1 + 4×0.25)×0.52 ×1 when soluties do not associate or disociates)
= 1.04 1 1
Hence, Tb = 374.04 K Sucrose, Glucos e, S1 ! S 2
342 180
64. (1) [XII-I, NCERT- 42] 74. (2) [NCERT 48]
Using Ps = XA P + XB P o o
A B
'Tb iK bm
= (1– XB )PAo + XB PBo
Putting the values of Ps, PAo and PBo 'Tb and hence Tb v i(for equal values of Kb and
XB = 0.24 m). Hence , T3 > T2 > T 1 .
hence, % mole fraction of B = 24 75. (3) [NCERT 52]
65. (1) [XII-I, NCERT- 54] w

P ST ; since w, V, T are constant.
For isotonic solution, molar concentration should m.V
be same
1
66. (2) [XII-I, NCERT- 50] Thus P v
m
Equilibrium exists in the different phases of volatile
76. (2) [Module]
component.
67. (1) [XII-I, NCERT- 56] Xsolute u 1000
m
For a salt (type AmBn), whose degree of ionisation (1 Xsolute ) u G.M.M of solvent
D and Van't Hoff factor (i), the relation is given by :
0.2 u 1000
i = 1– D + m D + nD m 3.2
(1 0.2) u 78
For K4 [Fe(CN)6], m = 4 , n = 1
77. (3) [CBSE 2001]
68. (2) [XII-I, NCERT- 56]
Ethyl alcohol and water are the example of +ve de-
i = 1– D + 2 D +D viation.
2.74 = 1 + 2D 78. (3) [XII-I, NCERT- 41]
D = 0.87 It is the property of the liquids
69. (4) [NCERT 41] 79. (2) [NCERT 35]
P = PA 0X + PB 0X
A B= 80 × 3/5 + 60 2/5 = 72 torr mass of solute
ppm u 106
70. (2) [NCERT 50] mass of solution
HX U H+ + X–
1.04
u 10 6 = 10.4 ppm
i 1 i 1 105
D 0.2 i 1.2
n 1 2 1 80. (3) [NCERT 48]
'Tb = Kb x i x M
'Tf = iKf m = 1.2 ×1.86 × 0.6 = 1.12 k
= .52 x 2 x 1= 1.04
71. (2) [NCERT 47]
Tb’ = Tb + 'Tb
AlCl3 gives 4 particles, BaCl2 gives three, NaCl gives
= 100 + 1.04
two and glucose only one Moreover, C.V. v number
of solute particles. = 101.04oC
NLI / 7
81. (2) [NCERT
All India Test and Discussion : Test-19 / [Paper]
Series 45] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 26-March-2021
When acetone and chloroform are mixed together,
20 g
a hydrogenbond is formed between them which Moles of C2H6O2 = 62 g mol1 =0.322 mol
increases intermolecular interactions. Hence, A–B
interactions are stronger than A–A and B–B
interactions. 80 g
Moles of water = 18 g mol1 =4.444 mol
moles of C2H6 O 2
Xglycol = moles of C H O moles of H O
2 6 2 2
82. (3) [CBSE 2003]

Density 1.17 g/cc means conc. = 1170 gL–1 0.322 mol
= 0.068
0.322 mol 4.444 mol
= 1170/36.5 M = 32.05 M
83. (2) [CBSE 2001] 87. (3) [NCERT 37]
Ba(NO3)2 Ba2+ + 2NO3– Molar mass of C2H4O2 : 12×2+1×4+16×2
1 0 0 =60g mol–1
(1 D ) D 2D 2.5 g
Moles of C2H4O2 = 60 g mol1 = 0.0417 mol
i = 1 D D 2D (1 2D )
i = (1 2D ) Mass of benzene in kg = 75 g/1000 g kg–1

=75 ×10–3 kg
i 1 2.74 1
?D = = 0.87 Molality of C2H4O2 =
2 2
= 87% Moles of C2H4 O2 0.0417 mol u 1000 g kg1
84. (2) [NCERT 47, 48] kg of benzene 75 g
P0 Ps w 1 x m2
Ps m1 x w 2 = 0.556 mol kg–1
88. (2) [NCERT 52]
P0 Ps m2 m2
= (w1 x 1000) x =mx Substituting the values of various terms involved in
Ps (m1 x w 2 ) 1000 1000
equation (2.36) we get,
(m 1 = mol. wt. of solute)
5.12 K kg mol1 u 1.00 g u 1000 g kg1
M2 =
760 750 18 0.40 u 50 g
=mx
750 1000
= 256 g mol–1
10 x 1000
? m = 750 x 18 = 0.741 mol/kg of solvent Thus, molar mass of the solute = 256 g mol-1
85. (4) [NCERT 52] 89. (1) [NCERT 33]
For high O.P., i x c should be high
0.1 M NaCl = 2 x .1 = .2 wt. of solute in gm
% wt./ vol u 100
0.1 M Urea = 1 x .1 = .1 volume of solution in ml
0.1 M CaCl2 = 3 x .1 = .3
90. (1) [NCERT 34]
0.1 M AlCl3 = 4 x .1 = .4
86. (1) [NCERT 36] Mili-moles of H2SO4 in residual solution = 5
Assume that we have 100 g of solution (one can Volume of residual solution = 500 ml
start with any amount of solution because the
results obtained will be the same). Solution will Therefore molarity of H2SO4 in resulting solution
contain 20 g of ethylene glycol and 80 g of water. = 0.01 M
Molar mass of C2H6O2 = 12×2+1×6+16×2

=62 g mol–1.
NLI / 8
All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-20 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 02-April-2021
PHYSICS
1. (3) 7. (2)
B =nB
' 2
B = µ0 ni
=2B 2
hence B ∝ i
= 4B 8. (4)
2. (4) The magnetic induction at 0 due to the current in
portion AB will be zero because 0 lies on AB
Vector form of Biot-savart's law
9. (3)
 
 µ id l × r
dB = 0
4π r 3
3. (3) i
q
r Magnetic lines
of
force
Magnetic field at centre
µ0 2πi
B=
4π r
µ0 qn 10. (1)
=
2 r Magnetic field due to long straight wire
4π × 10−7 qn µ0 2i
= B=
2 r 4π d
2πnq B1 d2 40
= × 10 −7 = ⇒
r B2 d1 10
4. (4)
B1 0.04
Magnetic induction at 0 B=
2 =
4 4
µ0 3π i = 0.01 T
B=
4π 2 R 11. (1)
3µ0 i Two field induction's are equal but of opposite
=
8 R direction so resultant magnetic induction at the
5. (2) centre is zero & is independent of θ
Magentic field at the centre 12. (3)

Magnetic field at centre due to circular coil
µ 2π q
B= 0
4π R t µ0 2πNi
B=
4π r
µ0 × 2π × 2 × 1.6 × 10 −19
4π × 0.8 × 2 = 10 −7 × 2 × 3.14 × 0.1 × 1000
6. (1) 0.1
13. (4)
µ0N
B= i
l µ0 2πi
B=
4π R
10
= 4π × 10−7 × ×5
10 −2 BA iA RB I 2R
= × ⇒ ×
BB iB R A 2I R
= 2π × 10−3 Tesla
NLI / 2
14. (3) 19. (3)
1 Tesla = 104 gauss
mv 2mqV
15. (1) =r =
qB qB
2l
R1 mx
= (q, V,B ⇒ Same)
R2 my
i 2l mx  R1 
2
0 =
my  R 2 
20. (4)
Magnetic field due to one side of the square at
centre O If θ is neither 0°, 180°, 90° then path is helical
21. (4)
µ0 i
=B1 2 sin 45° F = q V B sin θ
4π l
Hence, magnetic field at centre due to all side if θ = 0°
F=0
µ 2in
B 4B1 ⇒ 0
= 22. (2)
πl
  
16. (1) F q(V × B)
=
BA iA rB 23. (3)
= ×
BB iB rA F = q VB sin θ
24. (1)
1 i1 2
= × mv
3 i2 1 r=
eB
i1 1
= e v
i2 6 =
m Br
17. (4) 25. (3)
At mid point, magnetic field due to both the wires Force acts perpendicular to the velocity in a
are equal & opposite So Bnet = 0 magentic field so speed of electron will remain
18. (3) same
a 26. (3)
qBr0
v=
i
45°
a m
45° 0
2
1  qBr0 
K max = m
2  m 
Magnetic field due to one side of square
27. (1)
µ0 i Magnetic force on charge will be zero hence path
=B (sin 45° + sin 45°)
4π a / 2 will be straight line
Magnetic field at centre due to all sides 28. (3)
Bnet = 4B w = Fd cos 90°
µ0 2 2i =0
=4
4π a 29. (4)
By the fleming's left hand rule
NLI / 3
30. (2) 39. (2)
M=iA   
τ= M × B
= ef π r2 = 50 i × (0.5i + 3j)
2
e × v × πr = 150 K̂ N.m
=
2πr 40. (3)
31. (3) Angle of dip (φ)
 
In equilibrium angle between M & B is zero. It is Bv Bv
tan φ = = =∞
happened when plane of the coil is perpendicular BH 0

to B φ = 90°
32. (2) 41. (4)
Same polarity charges repel to each other
Bv Bv
33. (1) tan=
φ =
BH 3B v
For no force on wire C
φ = 30°
FCD = FCB
42. (1)
µ0 2 × 15 × 5 µ 2 × 5 × 10
×l = 0 l 43. (2)
4π x 4π (15 − x)
In sum position
1
T∝
34. (3) M1 + M2
τ = MB sin 90°
in difference position
= iπr2 B
35. (1) 1
T∝
 M1 − M2
Since L = 0
   3 2 2M − M
F i(L × B)
= =
T 2 2M + M

F =0
T = 3 3 second
36. (3)
44. (4)
µ 2M
Baxis = 0 3 i1 tan φ1
4π d =
i2 tan φ2
µ0 M
Bbroad =
4π d3 2 tan30°
= ⇒
= i2 6 Amp
i2 tan 60°
37. (4)
38. (2) 45. (1)
W1 = n W2 Soft iron is highly ferromagnetic
MB( 1 – cos 90°) = n MB(1 – cos 60°)
n=2
NLI / 4
CHEMISTRY
46. (2) [Mod. CBSE 2014-15] 54. (2) [NCERT 84]

Charge on one ion of N 3–
We know that 224 ml at STP is equal to 0.01 mole
= 3×1.6×10–19 coulomb
Q = l × t = 10 × 10–3 × t
one g-ion = 6.02×1023 ions
Thus, charge on one g-ion of N3– In the reaction 2H2O + 2e– → H2 + 2OH– to liberate
0.01 mol of H2. 0.02 F charge is required. The charge
= 3×1.6×10–19 ×6.02×1023
Q = 0.02×96500 C. Substituting in Eq. (1), we get
= 2.89×105 coulomb.
47. (1) [CBSE 2009] 0.02×96500 C = 10–2×t =19.3×104s
0.0591 55. (2) [NCERT 84]

E=
red E 0red + log10 [ion]
n 1 F of charge is required to deposit 108 g of silver.
48. (2) [Mod. CBSE] 96500 C of charge is required to deposit 108 g of
0 0.0591 [Pr oducts] silver.
E=
cell E cell − log
n [Re ac tan ts]
108
49. (1) [CBSE 2003] 9650 C will deposit × 9650 = 10.8 g silver..
96500
0.0591 p
E cell = log 1 56. (4) [NCERT 71]
2 p2
o 0.0591
We know that Ecell = log K C . Given that
n
50. (3) [CBSE 1998]
n=2,
51. (1) [CBSE 1993] so we have
w Q  2 × 0.295 
= KC = antilog  = 1×1010
E F 0.0591 
52. (2) [NCERT 84]
57. (2) [NCERT 69]
Using Faraday's first law of electrolysis.
Zn + Cu → Zn + Cu
2+ 2+
53. (1) [NCERT 71]

0.0591  Zn2 + 
E=
cell Eocell − log  2 + 
For the reaction Fe3(aq)
+
+ 3 e → Fe(s) Eo = –0.036 V 2 Cu 
Gibbs energy ∆G1o = –nFEo = –3×F×(–0.036)
Lesser the [Zn2+] / [Cu2+] value more will be Ecell.
and for Fe2+ aq. + 2e– → Fe(s); Eo = –0.439 V 58. (1) [NCERT 84]
∆Go2 = –2 F (–0.439) WH2 Q

=
EH2 F
3+ 2+
and for reaction Fe(aq) + e → Fe(aq)
WO2 Q
Gibbs energy ∆G0 = –nFEo = –1 F Eo =
E O2 F
and ∆Go = ∆G1o – ∆Go2 59. (3) [NCERT 84]
–FEo = 3F (0.036) – 2F(0.439) W Q

= ×η
Eo = 0.77 E F
NLI / 5
60. (2) [NCERT 85] 66. (3) [Mod. CBSE]
Here preferential discharge theory are applied. λ CH COO− + λ Na+ + λ H+ + λ Cl− − λ Na + − λ Cl−
3
Reduction electrode potential of H is greater than

+
67. (1) [CBSE 2011]
Na+.
61. (2) [NCERT 68]  ∆G0 =
−nFE0
Lower the value of reduction potential, higher will and ∆G0 = –RT logeKeq.
be reducing power.
68. (3) [NCERT-91]
62. (4) [NCERT 65] 1000 1000
Λm = κ × = 0.0248 ×
According to cell notation above cell show Cu will M 0.2
acts as cathode and cell reaction will be = 124 S cm2 mol–1
Mg+Cu2+ → Mg2++Cu 69. (2) [NCERT-82,CBSE-1997]
By kohlrausch’s law
63. (3) [NCERT-91]
λ∞ for NaCl = λ + + λ −
Na Cl
1000 1000
Λm = κ × = 0.0248 × = 124 S cm2 mol–1
M 0.2 λ ∞ for C2H5COONa = λ + + λ
Na C2H5COO−
64. (3) [NCERT 83-84,CBSE-1996]
So, λ ∞ for C2H5COOH
Current, I = 5A
= λ ∞ of C2H5COONa + λ ∞ of HCl – λ ∞ for NaCl
time, t = 40 min = 40 × 60 = 2400 s
= (91 + 426.16 – 126.45) ohm–1 cm2
Amount of electricity passed
= 390.71 ohm–1 cm2
Q = It 70. (4) [CBSE 2002]
Q = 5 × 2400
1000 × K ohm−1 cm−1
Q = 12000 C Molar conduc tance = =
M mole / cm3
Zn2 + 2e– → Zn 71. (3) [CBSE 2002]
2 × 96500 C charge deposite = 65.39 g of zinc
1000κ 1000 × .26
Λeq = ⇒ Λeq = = 130
65.39 N 2
1 C charge deposite = gof zinc
2 × 96500 72. (3) [NCERT 73]
therefore, 12000 C charge will deposite Λ m 1000k 1

=
α = × ∞
Λ m∞ C Λm
65.39 × 12000
= = 4.065 g of zinc 1000 × 0.0125
2 × 96500 = = 0.1
0.25 × 500
65. (1) [CBSE 2009] Cα 2
k= = 0.25×0.1×0.1 = 2.5×10–3
M 1 1− α
Given, concentration C = = M
32 32 73. (2) [NCERT 73]
H2SO4 is strong electrolyte.
λmc = 8.0 mho cm2
74. (1) [NCERT 74]
o
Λ =400 mho cm 2 The molar conductivity of an electrolyte increases
m
as dilution increases.
Λo 8 75. (2) [Mod. CBSE 2010]
Degree of dissociation (1) = =
m
o
= 0.02
Λm 400 In strong electrolyte, number of ions remains
constant so equivalent conductance increases due
Cα 2 to increase in ionic mobility.
and dissociation constant, Kc =
1 −α 76. (1) [Mod. AFMC 2010]
1
∞
Λ CH3COOH
λH∞+ + λCH
= o
= × 0.02 × 0.02 (1 − α � 1) COO−

3
32 = (315 + 35) moh cm2 equ–1

= 1.25×10–5 = 350 moh cm2 equ–1
NLI / 6
77. (2) [Mod. NCERT] 83. (2) [NCERT 66]
Molar conductance increases with dilution linearly. It is on the basis of electrochemical series.
78. (1) [NCERT 63-64]
84. (1) [NCERT 72]
The aim of two cells is opposite. In electrolytic cell,
cation (+vely charged) moves towards cathode (– E for equation (1) is negative.
o
vely charged) while in galvanic cell electron goes 85 (3)

away from anode and are attracted towards Atomic Mass
cathode. Ag + + e − → Ag ; E Ag = = 108
1
Ag W 108
It is due to positive reduction potantial of silver, it Number of faraday = E = 108 = 1 .
Ag
will be reduced hence copper will be oxidised to 86 (2)
colour blue. During charging of a lead storage battery, the re-
action at the anode and cathode are
80. (3) [NCERT 69]
Anode: PbSO 4 + 2 e − → Pb + SO 42 −
According to Nernst equation, at STP we have
C a t h o d e :
 Zn2 +  PbSO 4 + 2 H 2 O → PbO 2 + 4 H + +

SO 42 − + 2e −
0.0591
E=
cell Eocell − log  2 +  In both the reactions H 2 SO 4 is regenerated.
n Cu 
87 (2)
88 (1)
0.0591 1 Anode has negative polarity.
= 1.1 − log = 1.07 V
2 0.1
89 (3)
81. (1) [NCERT 77] In daniel cell copper rod acts as cathode so there
It is due to positive electrode potential of Cu. cations move towards copper electrode and reduc-
tion take place on copper rod.
82. (3) [NCERT 78] 90 (1)
Since, Ag + ions are reduced to Ag and
1000 × κ
Using molar conductance = ΛM = E oAg + / Ag > E Cu
o
/ Cu Cu is oxidized to Cu
M ++ ++ .
Upon doubling the volume concentration become

half.
NLI / 7
PHYSICS
1. (2) 13. (3)

Induced charge Magnetic flux
 
∆φ φ =B.A
q=
R φ = BA cos θ
2. (2) 14. (2)
The direction of induced emf or current in a circuit is
such as to oppose the cause that produces it e −N (φ2 − φ1 )
=i =
3. (2) R R ∆t
Induced emf −n(w 2 − w 1 )
=
N(B2 − B1 )A cos θ 5RT
e= −
∆t 15. (2)
This is the case of periodic EMI
500(0 − 0.1) × 100 × 10 −4 16. (2)
=
0.1 e = Bv.v l
4. (2)
5
Induced emf =2 × 10−4 × 360 × × 50
18
−NB A(cos θ2 − cos θ1 ) =1V
e=
t 17. (3)
e=
−2000 × 0.3 × 70 × 10 −4 [–1 –1] VA – 1 × 5 + 15 + 5 × 10–3(103) = VB
= 84 V VA – VB = 15 Volt
5. (2) 18. (2)
−Ndφ Dynamic EMI due to translatry motion
e= e = BVl
dt
6. (2) 19. (4)
e 5
φ = B. A L= = = 5 × 10 −3
dI 3−2
Weber dt 1 × 10 −3
= × m2 20. (1)
m2
7. (2) 1
∆φ= × 4 × 0.1 × 10
The direction of induced emf or current in a circuit is 2
such as to oppose the cause that produces it 21. (4)
8. (1)
di
Magnetic flux e=M
dt
φ = NBA cos θ = 1.25 × 80
= 100 × 5 × 10–4 × 0.2 × cos 60° = 100 V
9. (1) 22. (3)
By the law
N2 A
10. (1) L = µ0
l
11. (2)
23. (2)
According to Lenz's law
12. (4) µ0N1N2 A
M=
−d 2 l
e
= (3t + 4t + 9)
dt 24. (3)
= – (6t + 4)
µ0N1N2 A
|e| = 16 V M=
l
NLI / 2
25. (1) 38. (2)
L 50 e
L eq = = S
3 500 100
26. (1) es = 10 V
L[10 − ( −10)]
| e |= ⇒ L = 25 mH 39. (1)
0.5
It is a device which raises or lowers the voltage in AC
27. (1)
circuit through mutual induction
∆I L[2 − ( −2)]
e ==
L ⇒ 8 = 0.1 H
∆t 0.05 40. (2)
28. (2)
eS NS
=
L eP NP
τ=
R
eS 25
29. (4) =
230 1
t = 0.7 τ
eS = 230 × 25
L ePiP = eSIs
= 0.7
R
230 × 25 × 2
−3 =Ip = 50A
0.7 × 300 × 10 230
=
2
30. (1) 41. (1)
It is a device which raises or lowers the voltage in AC
circuit through mutual induction eS
K=
31. (1) eP
When a changing magnetic flux is applied to a bulk
3 eS
piece of conducting material then eddy currents induced =
2 30
32. (4)
eS = 45 V
Convert electrical energy into mechanical energy
33. (2)
42. (4)
For step down transformer
If no losses
VP > VS
Pinput = Pout
iS > iP
34. (2)
VS iP 43. (1)
=K =
VP is 1 2
35. (3) U= LI
2
If there are no losses then Pin = Pout
36. (2) 1
= × 100 × 10 −3 × 10 2 = 5 J
VP NP 2
=
VS NS 44. (2)
VP = 40 V ⇒ iP VP = iSVS ⇒ iP = 40 A
 dφ  st
37. (3)  dt  1 case = e
NP > N S
NS eS 500 eS  dφ 
= =  dt  relative vel.2V = 2e
NP eP ⇒ 5000 2200  
eS = 220 V 45. (2)
The direction of induced current as observed by the
eP 2200 observer will be clockwise
iS= iP × 4×
eS ⇒ 220
NLI / 3
CHEMISTRY
46. (3) [NCERT 98, 492] 53. (3) [NCERT 109]
− d[A] 1 d[B] Number of half lives n = 15/5 = 3
= −
dt 3 dt Amount left = 100/23 = 12.5 g
−d[A] d[B] 54. (1) [NCERT 104]
3 =
dt dt Change of conc. from 0.8 M to 0.4 M reveals t1/2 to
be 15 min.
d[B] Change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M requires two half
3 × 3 × 10–3 mol lit–1 min–1 =
dt lives. So, the time required = 2×15 = 30 min.
47. (3) [NCERT 97] 55. (2) [NCERT 110]
2N2O → 4NO2 + O2 Rate constant k has fixed value for any reaction of
1 d(N2O5 ) 1 d[NO2 ] d[O2 ] any order.
− =
+ = Rate
=
2 dt 4 dt dt 56. (2) [NCERT 108]
48. (4) [NCERT 115]
2.303 N0
When K1 = K2 t= log
k N
1015 e–2000/T = 1014e–1000/T
10 = e1000/T 2.303 N
= × t1 / 2 × log 0
0.693 N
1000
2.303 log 10 =
T 2.303 100
= × 6.93 × log
T = 434.2 K 0.693 100 − 99
49. (2) [NCERT 101] = 2.303×10×2 = 46.06 min.
H + 57. (3) [NCERT 102]
C12H22O11 + H2O  → C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
−1
Rate = K [C12H22O11] [H2O] 1  mol  −1
=  time
 lt 
n −1
When H2O is in excess its conc. is constant time(conc.)
Rate = K1[C12H22O11] 58. (4) [NCERT 99]

Rate is pseudo 1st order unimolecular. From slow step, r = k 1[O3][O] ........... (i)
50. (3) [NCERT 100] [O2 ][O]
From fast step,
Rate = K[A]2[B]3 [O3 ] = K
K[O3 ]
when volume become half conc. become double [O] = ............. (ii)
[O2 ]
Rate = K[2A] [2B]
2 3
from equations (i) and (ii)
= 32 K [A]2[B]3
[O3 ][O3 ] [O3 ]2
= 32×original rate form. =r k=
2 K k
[O2 ] [O2 ]
51. (3) [NCERT 106]
Rate = K[H2O2] 59. (1) [NCERT 100]
r=k[A]x[B]y
3 × 10 −3
2×10–4 ms–1 = ×[H2O] × s–1 2.1×10–3 = (0.1)x(1.0)yk ........... (i)
60
8.4×10–3 = (0.2)x(1.0)y k ........... (ii)
[H2O2] = 4M
8.4×10–3 = (0.2)x(2.0)y k ........... (iii)
52. (2) [NCERT 104]
(iii) / (ii),
kt = loge C0–loge Ct 1 = 2y = y = 0
= loge Ct = (–k)t+loge C0 (ii) / (i) ,
Which is similar to y = mx+c, equation of straight 4 = 2x ⇒ x=2
line. So, rate equation is r = k[A]2
NLI / 4
60. (2) [NCERT 111] 67. (1) [NCERT 103, 104, 110]
According to /Arrhenius equation, k=Ae –Ea/RT
, lower
the value of Ea higher is the value of k. [A]0
Zero order reaction – t100% =
So, for k1 > k2 it is E1 < E2. k
61. (4) [NCERT 104] First order reaction – [A] = [A]0e–kt
t1 for 50% consumption, t2 for 90% consumption.
1
0.693 2.303 × 0.301 Second order reaction – t 50% ∝ [A]
= t2 (half −=life) 0
k k
Pseudo unimolecular reaction – involves atleast two
2.303 100 2.303 reactants
=t2 = log
k 10 k
68. (2) [NCERT 113]
2.303 × 0.301 2.303
t1 : t2 = : 1 Ea
k k The slope of lnk Vs is –
T R
= 0.301 : 1 = 301 : 1000  3 :10
62. (4) [NCERT 103-104] hence Ea  166 kJ/mole
For the reaction 69. (3) [NCERT 100]
H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g) From the slowest step r = k[X] [Y2]
Rate of reaction k[H2][Br2]1/2
Molecularity of reaction = 1+1 = 2 and from step (i) [X] = K '[X2 ]
1 3 therefore r = K[X2]1/2 [Y2]1

Order of reaction = 1 + =
2 2
63. (1) [NCERT 113]
71. (3) [NCERT 95]
The minimum energy required for a molecule
to take part in a reaction is called threshold en- (PA )t = 0
ergy. Using k×t = 2.303 log (P )
A t = 20
64. (2) [NCERT 98]
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) 72. (1) [NCERT 103]
1 d[H2 ] For zero order reaction CA = (–k)t + (CA)0
Rate of reaction w.r.t. H2 = −
3 dt 73. (4) [NCERT 95]
1 d[NH3 ]
Rate of reaction w.r.t. NH3 = + −d [H 2O2 ] +d [H 2O ]
2 dt using =
2dt 2dt
1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
hence − =
+ 74. (2) [NCERT 111]
3 dt 2 dt
For a reaction Ea for forward = Ea for backward
2 d[H2 ] d[NH3 ]
or − = reaction + ∆H,
3 dt dt
65. (1) [NCERT 105] 85 = A – 20
A = 105 kJ mol–1.
Graph between concentration and time(t) for a
first order reaction is exponential and not a 75. (2) [Mod. NCERT]
straight line.
The maximum value of K will be A
66. (2) [NCERT 108]
and by using Aorhenius equation
From given data PA O = 0.5
K = A.e–Ea/RT
at t = 69.32, PA = 0.25
Putting the values
0.6932
hence k =
69.32 A = 115 min–1
= 10–2
NLI / 5
76. (3) [Mod. NCERT] 85. (1) [Mod. NCERT]
From the given data t1/2 ∝ conc. for zero order reaction.
CAO = 4x, CA = x 86. (1) [Mod. NCERT]
Rate constant and t1/2 is related as –
t1/2 = 4.5×109 0.693
K=
t1/2
CAO 87. (3) [Mod. NCERT]
using k×t = 2.3 log C
A Let Rate = k[A]n
r1 = kan r2 = k(4a)n
0.6932 But r2/r1 = 2
and K = t1/ 2 ∴ n= 1/2
∴ Order of reaction = 1/2
putting the values 88. (1) [NEET 2013]
t = 9×109 yrs. k Ea  1 1 
log 2
= −
k1 2.303R  T1 T2 
77. (2) [NCERT 112]
k2 = 2k1
K1[NO2]2–K2[N2O4] T1 = 20+273 = 293 K or T2 = 35+273 = 308 K
R=8.314 J mol–1 K–1
Rate constant is independent of temperature for a Ea  1 1 
log 2= −
zero activation energy reaction. 2.303 × 8.314  293 308 
79. (3) Ea 15
0.3010 = ×
x = kt 19.147 293 × 308
Ea = 34673 J mol–1 or 34.7 kJ mol–1
= 0.025 x 15
= 0.375 M
Since K1 is least, the stop involve in rate
Remaining conc. = 0.5 – 0.375 = 0.125 M K1
determination will be x  →y
+ d[P]
1 Applying laws of mass action = K1[X]
t1/2 ∝ dt
[a0 ]n−1 where n = order of reaction.,
90. (4) [AIPMT 2010]
1 1 Let the rate of reaction be given by :
if n = 2 then t1/2 ∝ 2 −1
or ∝ rate = k[A]a[B]b
[a0 ] [a0 ]
Now consider II and III where [A] is constant.
For a zero order reaction 7.2 × 10 −2 [0.3]a [0.2]b
−1
=
Rate = K (rate constant) 2.88 × 10 [0.3a ][0.4]b
82. (4) [Mod. NCERT] b
1  1
Molecularity of a reaction is a theoratical concept. =  =b=2
4  2
Now consider I and IV
Order of reaction is determined experimentally. It can
have fractional value. 6.0 × 10 −3 [0.1]a [0.1]b
=
2.4 × 10 −2 [0.4]a [0.1]b
b
It is independent of the initial concentration of the 1  1
=  =a=1
reactants. It has a constant value at fixed tem- 4  4
perature. Rate = k[A][B]2
NLI / 6
PHYSICS
1. (3) 8. (1)
at resonance
Pavg = Vrms Irms cos T
current will be maximum
100 100 S
u u 10 –3 u cos 1 1
2 2 3 w0
LC 0.5 u 8 u 10 –6
2. (4)
9. (3)
2S 2S
T 1
w 200S w0
LC
T 1 1
t sec
4 4 u 100
8 u 0.5 u 10 –6
3. (3)
10. (3)
w 120 u 7
f 19Hz 1
2S 2 u 22 w0
LC
v0 240
Vrms 11. (3)
2 2
1
4. (4) w0
LC
1 1
T = Resonance frequency does not depends on R
f 50
12. (2)
T 1 13. (1)
t
4 4 u 50
XL wL
= 5 × 10–3 sec tan I
R R
I0 Irms 2 1
2S u 200 u
10 2 S
300
5. (2)
4
1 I tan –1
E 10 cos 2S u 50 u 3
600
14. (3)
S
10 cos R
6 cos I
z
3
10 u 10
2
20
5 3
S
6. (3) I
3
§ i1 ·
2
§ i2 ·
2
15. (1)
Irms ¨© ¸¹ ¨© ¸
2 2¹ X
tan I
R
7. (2) 3
if R = 0
S
Pave = 0 I
3
NLI / 2
16. (2) 23. (4)
Z R2 (XL – XC )2 XL XC
tan 60q , tan 60q
R R
17. (2)
XL = XC
V Z=R
Z
i
V2 200 u 200
100 Pave
R 100
0.5
24. (2)
= 200 :
P 240
R 2
15:
irms 16
18. (3)
Potential difference at capacitor and inductor have V 100
phase difference of S Z 25:
i 4
19. (1) XL Z2 R2 20:
R 1
cos 45q 2SfL = 20, L Hz
R (XC XL )2
2
5S
25. (2)
1 R 26. (3)
2 1
R2 ( wL)2 1
wc XC
2SfC
1 X L= 2SfL
C
2Sf(2SfL R) 27. (2)
20. (2) At resonance i is maximum
28. (2)
1
W0
LC 1
XC
2SfC
1
29. (3)
8 u 10 u 20 u 10 –6
–3
E - rays are (–) charged

W 0= 2500 rad/sec
30. (4)
220 J - rays > VR > IR > MW
i
44 31. (3)
= 5 amp D - rays are (+) charged
21. (3) 32. (1)
VL = VC = 100 V Maximum rate of energy flow
This is the condition of resonance = E0 × B0
? VR 200V = 100 × 0.265
22. (2) = 26.5
P = i2 R 33. (1)
V2 C
R O
Z2 v
V 2R 3 u 108
(R 2 w 2L2 ) 8.2 u 106
NLI / 3
34. (4) 39. (3)
35. (2) 40. (4)
36. (1) G G
Direction of propagation is given by = E u B
E0
C
B0 41. (3)
2S C
K V
O µr Hr
w = 2S v 42. (4)
37. (3) 43. (4)
I = 90°
µH H
Refractive index = 2 Pave = VrmsIrmscos 90°
µ0 H 0 H0
=0
38. (4) 44. (2)
C V0 120
V Vrms
µr Hr 2 2
45. (1)
3 u 108
1.3 u 2.14
NLI / 4
CHEMISTRY
46. (2) [NCERT 217] 61. (4) [CBSE-1994]

Iron is themost abundant d-block element it belongs Ionic radii of trivalent lanthandies steadily
to 3d-series. decreases with increase in the atomic number.
47. (4) [NCERT 231] 62. (3) [CBSE-1996]
Lanthamide contraction decreases ionic sizes from Its electronic configuration will be [Ar]3d5 4s2 , it is
La3+ to Lu3+. Hence the correct order will be Yb3+ < Mn and show its atomic number will be 25.
Pm 3+ < Ce3+ < La3+.
63. (1) [CBSE-1997]
48. (3) [NCERT-XII-216]
Due to lanthanide contraction atomic radii of 4d
Inert pair effect is not shown by transition element.
and 5d transition element becomes allmost equal.
49. (3) [NCERT-XII-210]
64. (4) [NCERT 320]
In transition metals two outer most orbits are
incomplete and hence answer is 3. CO is used in Mond's process and can not show
back bonding and act as electron doner.
50. (2) [NCERT 310]
65. (2) [CBSE-1999]
Stability of dihalides of 14th groups elements is
increases downward in the group due to inert pair In Fe+2 there are four unpaired electron.
effect. 66. (4) [CBSE-1999]
51. (2) [NCERT-XII-215] In metal carbonyl the oxidation number of metal
will be zero.
E.C. of 25 Cr Ar 3d5 4s1
67. (3) [CBSE-2002]
52. (1) [NCERT-XII-231] Mn shows +2 to +7 oxidation state.
'La' has bigger size than Lu and hence (1) is correct. 68. (4) [CBSE-2003]
53. (2) [NCERT-XII-225]
As the ionisation energy increases basic nature
The dicromate ion consist of two tetra hedral units decreases.
in which 6 Cr–0 bonds are equvalent in nature.
69. (2) [CBSE-2003]
54. (2) [NCERT-XII-219]
Radii of M+3 ion decreases as one move from Ce to
That metal of high O.S are acidic in nature so CrO3
Lu.
is acidic.
70. (4) [CBSE-2004]
55. (1) [NCERT-XII-222]
d-d-transition is main cause for showing colour Ti2+, V3+, Cr4+, Mn5+ after de electronation from
nature. ground state the remaining electronic configuration
will be 3d2.
56. (2) [NCERT-XII-228]
71. (2) [CBSE-2005]
It is due to Lanthanoid contraction.
Two moles of KI required.
57. (3) [NCERT-XII-219]
Amphoteric oxide are Cr2O3,CrO2 72. (3) [CBSE-2005]
58. (1) [NCERT-XII-218] Correct order of 3rd ionisation energy

A–Cr max. no. of unpaired electrons V < Cr < Fe < Mn
B–TC half filled orbital stability 73. (2) [CBSE-2006]
C– max. no. of unpaired electron In Ni+2 and Ti+3 there are two and one unpaired
electron respectively so species will be coloured.
59. (1) [NCERT 316]
74. (3) [CBSE-2005, 2006]
CCl4 is not hydrolysed easily due to absence of
It is due to lesser energy difference between 5f
vaccent d-orbital. and 6 d orbitals than that of between 4f and 5d
60. (3) [CBSE-1989] orbitals
[Ne]3s 3p it is member of p-block.
2 5
NLI / 5
75. (4) [CBSE-2007] 82. (2) [AMU 2001]
Due to more negative E0 for Cr3+. 83. (2) [NCERT (XI) 109]
76. (4) According to the hybridization present and applying
Zn, Cd and Hg are not transition elements. VSEPR theory.
The compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are colourless. 84. (3) [AMU 2010]
Zn, Cd and Hg are diamagnetic in nature.
After hydrolysis of NCl3 we get NH3 and HOCl.
Zn, Cd and Hg have low melting points.
77. (3) 85. (4) [PMT (Kerala) 2006]
It is due to initially number of unpaired electron in- Correct order of second ionisation energy
creases then decreases. V < Mn < Cr < Cu
78. (1) 86. (2) [PMT (Kerala) 2007]
It is fact. because HCI is oxidised by KMnO4 to CI2
79. (4) 87. (1) [AIPMT 2011]
For charge transfer central transition metal atom 88. (4) [AIIMS 2008]
must be in its highest oxidation states.
Due to presence of unpaired electron.
80. (2) [NCERT 168]
89. (4) [NC-XII 223]
In the hydrides of group number five, the boiling
Interstitial compounds are those which are formed
points changes as : when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside
the crystal lattices. e.g., - TiC, Mn4N, Fe3H etc.
NH3 > PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
90. (3) [NC-XII 216]
The higher boiling point of NH3 is due to excessive
Mn shows +2, +3, +4, +5 and +7 oxidation state
hydrogen boinding, so PH3 have lowest boiling point in its compound.
among hydrides of group number 15, ie., nitrogen
family.
81. (2) [AMU 2001]
Molecular mass
Equivalent weight =
Change in oxidation number
NLI / 6
PHYSICS
1. (1) [NCERT-275] 7. (2) [NCERT-266]
§1 1· For crown glass P 1.5

1
P 1 ¨ ¸
f © R1 R 2 ¹ 1 §1 1·
P 1 ¨ ¸
F © R1 R2 ¹
1.5 1 ¨§ ·¸
1 1 1
f © 20 20 ¹
? f = 20 cm
1 §1 1·
2. (3) [NCERT-275] 1.5 1 ¨ ¸
F ©R R ¹
In both convex & concave mirror
3. (2) [NCERT-262] F R F 10 cm
For equiconvex lens Focal length of concave mirror
1 §1 1· R
P 1 ¨ ¸ (1) F R 2F R 2 x10 20 cm .
F © R1 R2 ¹ 2
Let, R1 = R then R2 = 2R, P 1.5 8. (1) [NCERT-273]
Since lens is made of two refractive index, so there
1 1§ 3 · will be two image made by the lens.
¨ ¸ {using eq. 1}
F 2 © 2R ¹ 9. (3) [NCERT-277]
4R 3F 3x6 O I1I2
F R R 4.5cm.
3 4 4
O 8 x2 O 16 O 4 cm .
4. (3) [NCERT-265]
10. (4) [NCERT-278]
Focal length does not change, but intensity will
changes .
F dI 2
Since lens is cut along principal axis so focal length
remains uncharged as well as power remains un- I v open area of aperture
I'
=
d2
H 2K
changed. I d2
5. (4) [NCERT-270] 3I
I' = 4
1 §1 1·
P 1 ¨ ¸
F © R1 R2 ¹ 3I
Hence intensity becomes =
4
1 §1 1· 11. (1) [NCERT-280]
given R1 = R2 = F P 1 ¨ ¸
©F F¹
F
1 1 1 FG IJ
= (P–1) R R
1
F
P 1 §¨ ·¸
2
©F ¹
By lens makers equation
f 1 2 H K
1 3 fL (Pg 1)
P 1 P P 1.5. =
2 2 fa § Pg ·
¨© P 1¸¹
6. (1) [NCERT-264] L
We know that
Fw (P g 1) fL . 1)
(15
Fair § Pg ·
(given µw = µg) 40
=
15
. FG
1
IJ
¨© P 1¸¹
w
2 H K
Fw Pg 1 f
Fw f .P=0 –
40
=–2, f = + 80 cm (converging)
Fair 11
NLI / 2
12. (3) [NCERT-277]
Power of combination (concave
All India Test mirror) isSeries
and Discussion given:by 19.
Test- 23 /(2)
[Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD[NCERT-322]
/ 30-April-2021
P = – (2 PL + Pm) Due to high refractive index and total internal
reflection
100
PL = =10 20. (1) [NCERT-322]
10
Apparent shift = d 1
1 FG IJ
since lens is equiconvex lens so
f= R (use lens maker’s formula)
P H K
Since µ for red colour is minimum therefore red colour
R = 10 cm will shift minimum.
10 21. (3) [NCERT-321]
So focal length of spherical mirror f m= = 5 cm
2 Given G = A m
So power of spherical mirror Pm =

100
= 20 D FG A G IJm
5
using n
sin
H 2 K
P = – (2×10 + 20) D A
sin
P = – 40 D 2
3 sin A
100
f=– f = – 2.5 cm 2 Sin A / 2
40
(So combination will behaves as a concave mirror 3 2 sin A / 2 cos A / 2
of focal length 2.5 cm) = 2 cos A/2
2 Sin A / 2
13. (3) [NCERT-344]
Min length of mirror = 1/2 height of boy FG 3 IJ
= 1/2 ×1.8 = 0.9 m A = 2 cos–1 H 4K
14. (4) [NCERT-345]
Reflected ray is normal to the incident ray.
22. (2) [NCERT-321]
? i + r = 90o
As r = i ? 2i = 90o sin i c
Using
o sin r v
90
i 45o
2
15. (2) [NCERT-346]
Speed of image relative to man
= 2 ×speed of man = 2×15 = 30 ms–1 C sin r sin 30º 3 u 10 8
v= = u 3 u 10 8
16. (3) [NCERT-367] sin i sin 45 º 2
Interference in thin films causes colouring of soap v = 2.12 × 108 m/s
bubble.
23. (1) [NCERT-323]
17. (4) [NCERT-380]
dis tan ce
Both the focal lenght and aperture of the objective Time =
speed
has to be increased.
We know that Pt 3 u 4 u 10 3
T=
c 3 u 108
f0 T = 4×10–11 sec
M
fe 24. (3) [NCERT-329]
So from above equation it is clear that focal lenght If the refractive index of the material of the object is
of the objective lens should be large. Aperture of exactly matching with that of the surrounding, then no
objective should be large for brighter image. refraction takes place in this situation, the object
becomes invisible.
18. (1) [NCERT-317]
Vdenser 1 P object
V > Vdenser
Vrarer P rarer i.e. µr =
P medium
=1
NLI / 3
25. (2) [NCERT-329]
29. (4) [NCERT-329]
Rainbow is formed on account of both dispersion
and T.I.R.
There are two type of rainbows
r1 = A = 30º (i) Primary rainbow

(ii) Secondary rainbow
r2 = 0º
30. (2) [NCERT-330]
i1= 60º The principal behind optical fibre is total internal
reflection. Multiple T.I.R. takes place inside optical fibre.
sin i1 sin 60º
? µ = 3 31. (3) [NCERT-320]
sin r1 sin 30º
The transverse nature of light is shown by polarisation
of light.
26. (4) [NCERT-329]
32. (3) [NCERT-321]
F A G IJ
sin G m For dispersion without deviation
n
H 2 K
F AI
sin G J
(µ1 – 1) A1 = (µ2 – 1) A2
H 2K (1.54 – 1)4º = (1.72 – 1) A2
0.54 u 4º
F A G IJ
sin G m
A2
0.72
3º
A H 2 K A2 = 3º
cot
2
=
F AI
sin G J
H 2K 33. (2) [NCERT-328]
1
A F A G IJ
sin G m Sin c =
P
cos
2 H 2 K
sin
A F AI
sin G J C
2 H 2K refractive index of rarer medium
2.5 u 108
A A Gm
cos = sin C
2 2 refractive index of denser medium
2 u 10 8
FG
sin 900
A IJ FG A Gm IJ refractive index of denser medium with respect to rarer
H 2 K sin
H 2 K 2.5 u 108 5
medium (µ) =
2 u 108 4
A A Gm
90º – =
2 2 1 4
?sin c =
5
c = sin–1 (4/5)
Gm = 180º – 2 A P
27. (4) [NCERT-328] 34. (3) [NCERT-329]
T.I.R. takes place when a light ray is incidence from Blue colour suffers more deviation than red colour
denser medium to rarer medium at more than the critical because µR < µV .
angle for mediums. 35. (4) [NCERT-333]
28. (4) [NCERT-328]
Z1 Z2
Splitting of white light into several colours is due to 0
f1 f2
refraction because refractive indices for different colours
of light are different. 36. (2) [NCERT-329]
Students should not be confused with it as dispersion P = P1+ P2 – d P1P2
because dispersion is a phenomenon of splitting of light
into seven colours by a prism which is a result of 1 1 d
refraction. O= f f f f d= f1 + f2
1 2 1 2
NLI / 4
37. (1) [NCERT-337] 43. (3) [NCERT-276]
1 1 1

f v u
1 1 1 1
=
f 50 25 50
f = + 50 cm
38. (4) [NCERT-312]
A plane mirror form real image of virtual object. v

magnification m
u
39. (4) [NCERT-324]
2 v
Magnitude of focal length of each lens is = 40 m=– 2= –
1 u
1 1 L v = –2u

f 40 40 From figure v + u = 90
f = 20 cm. 90 = –2u – u
40. (2) [NCERT-265] –3u = 90 u = – 30 cm
So distance of lens from the origin = – 10 cm.
1 1 1 x
44. (4) [NCERT-339]
F F1 F2 F1F2 {Where x = distance between
LD 10 u 25
both lenses} m m 500
as for condition Parallel emergent rays. f0fe 0.5 u 1
F f 45. (3) [NCERT-287]
For an astronomical telescope, magnification
1 1 1 x
f0
f 20 10 200 M
fe
x 30 Length of telescope tube L = f0 + fe
(x = 30 cm)
200 200 Given : M =6 , L = 42 cm
41. (4) [NCERT-333] f0
? fe = 6 and f0 + fe = 42
The two lenses choosen should have product of
their powers and dispersive powers equal in f0
magnitude. fe
6
42. (4) [NCERT-312]
f0
So, f0 + = 42
1 mm 6
Oair =
2000 7 f0
= 5×10–4 mm = 5×10–7 m = 5000 Å or 42
6
Oair 5000Å or f0 = 36 cm
Omedium = 4000Å
P 1.25
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (3) [NCERT 240] 60. (1) [NCERT 246]
[Fe(CN)6] 4– [Ni(CN) 4 ] CN is a strong ligand, pairing of
2– –
x(O.N.) – 6 = –4 x = +2 electrons occurs in Ni2+ (3d8).

C.N. = 6 from 6 CN
–
EAN = 26 –2 + 6 × 2 = 36
47. (4) [NCERT 256]
[Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 gives four ions in water.
Square planar structure.
48. (1) [NCERT 244]
61. (4) [NCERT 248]
[Cr(H 2 O) 6 ]Cl 3 , [CrCl(H 2 O) 5 ]Cl 2 .H 2 O and
[CrCl2(H2O)4]Cl.2H2O related to one another are as [Fe(CN) 6 ] and [Fe(CN) 6] are inner orbital
2– 3–
hydrate isomers. complexes having 0 and 1 unpaired electron

respectively. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ are out
49. (4) [NCERT 255]
orbital complexes having 5 and 4 unpaired
[Cu(en)2] formed chelate ring. So more stable.
2+
electrons.
50. (2) [NCERT 240] 62. (3) [NCERT 242]
[Ni(CO)4] – sp 3
Coordination num ber of Co in [Co(PPh 3 ) 2
[Ni(CN)4]2– – dsp2 (NH3)2Cl2]Cl is 6.
[NiCl4]2–
– sp3 63. (1) [NCERT 255]
51. (2) [NCERT 240] Correct order of spectrochemical series of ligands
In [Fe(CN)6] , Fe ; [Ar]3d will gain 12 electrons
4– II 6
Cl– < F– < [C2O4]2– < NO2 – < CN–
from 6 –CN. EAN of Fe = 24 + 12 = 36,
64. (3) [NCERT 256]
At. No. = Kr
Higher the oxidation state of the metal, greater is
52. (1) [NCERT 241] the crystsl field splitting. The species (3) is in +3
Only one molecule of EDTA is required as it is oxidation state while others are in +2 state.
hexadentate ligand. 65. (4) [NCERT 245]
53. (3) [NCERT 240] Both represent the same molecule.
A complex compound in which oxidation number 66. (3) [NCERT 245]
of the metal is zero Fe(CO)5
The comploex exhibits two geometrical isomers
x 0 (i) facial and (ii) meridional.
Fe(CO)5 x+0=0
54. (4) [NCERT 241]
[Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2
pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(III) chloride
55. (1) [NCERT 241]
Ni(CO)4
tetracarbonylnickel (0)
56. (3) [NCERT 241]
The formula of the complex, tris- (ethylenediamine)
67. (4) [NCERT 249]
cobalt (iii) sulphate is [Co (en)3]2(SO4)3
d system has five unpaired electrons or maximum
5
57. (1) [NCERT 244]
paramagnetism.
[Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br are related
68. (2) [NCERT 250]
to each other as ionisation isomers due to different
ionisation part. –1 = x + 0 + 3 × (–1)
58. (2) [NCERT 245] or x = –1 + 3 = +2
[Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2 are related 69. (4) [NCERT 251]
to each other as linkage isomers due to presence Chromium in the complex is in +3 oxidation state.
of ambident group. Thus, E.C. of Cr3+ ion is [Ar 3d3.
59. (3) [NCERT 245] 70. (2) [NCERT 244]
Optical isomerism is not shown by [Co (en)2 Cl2]+ On ionisation they give different ions. So they
(trans-form). exhibit ionisation isomerism.
NLI / 6
71. (3) [NCERT 241] 76. (1) [NCERT 174]
The IUPAC name of the complex Nitroniumnitrate is NO2 NO3 and so hybridisationof
+ –
[Pt(NH3) 3 Br(NO 2 )Cl]Cl is triamminebromo- nitrogen will be sp and sp2.

chloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride. The names of the 77. (4) [NCERT 117]
different ligands are arranged alphabetically. There must be three lone pair of electron occupies
72. (2) [NCERT 249] equitorial positon and remaining two axial bond will
In tetrahedral complexes, the number of ligands is be identical.
less than the octahedral complexes. Hence, the 78. (3)
value of crystal field splitting energy of tetrahedral
complexes ('t) is nearly half the value for octahedral 79. (2)
complexes ('0). 't and '0 are relatd as 80. (4)
4 81. (3)
't '0
9 82. (3)
73. (1) [NCERT 247]
83. (1)
Only XeF 4 and [PtCl 4] 2– have square planar
geometry. 84. (3)
74. (3) [NCERT 110] 85. (2)
NF3 and H3O+ are pyramidal where as NO3– and
BF3 are trigonal planer. 86. (1)
75. (3) [NCERT 117] 87. (1)
88. (4)
89. (1)
Double bonded 'C' atoms are sp2 hybridised and 90. (3)
triply bonded 'C' atoms are sp hybridised.
NLI / 7
All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-24 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 07-May-2021
PHYSICS
1. (1) [NCERT-388] 7. (2) [NCERT-310]
a sin T nO § 1·
Y ¨B v d ¸
sin T | T © ¹
D
8. (4) [NCERT-285]
Y
a nO 'x d sin T nO
D
1 u 600 u 10 9 u 2 = 10×6.2×10–6 = 6.2×10–5 m
Y=
1 u 10 3 9. (3) [NCERT-290]
Y = 1.2 mm
2Y = 2.4 mm C 3 u 108
O'
2. (3) [NCERT-391] f uP 5 u 1014 u 1.5
m = 4000 Å
10. (2) [NCERT-275]
Effective path length in air (n 1L 1 – n 2L 2) and
Io 2S
transmitted intensity from A I 'x
2 O
transmited intensity from
2S
I
B o cos 2 60
FG IJ
Io 1
2 = (n L – n2L2)
O 1 1
2 H K
2 2
11. (4) [NCERT-372]
= Io/8
3. (1) [NCERT-260] A1 E lmax (A1 A 2 )2
,
A2 1 lmin (A1 A 2 )2
DO D
(P 1)t u
d d lmax lmin (A1 A 2 )2 (A1 A 2 )2
lmax lmin (A1 A 2 )2 (A1 A 2 )2
O O
(P 1) P 1
t t A12 A 22 2A1A 2 A12 A 22 2A 1A 2
=
A A 22 2A1A 2 A 12 A12 A 22 2A 1A 2
2
1
600 u 10 9
P 1 1.5
12 u 10 7 4A 1A 2 2A1A 2
= 2(A 2 A 2 ) A12 A 22
4. (2) [NCERT-272] 1 2
2K E K 2 EK 2 2 E
5. (1) [NCERT-372] = 2 2 2 = 2 =
K E K K (1 E ) 1 E
2
12. (1) [NCERT-380]

6. (3) [NCERT-311]
E 0.4
For using wavelength E' u3 0.3 mm
P 4
(2n 1)OD d (2n 1)DO 13. (1) [NCERT-285]
y
2d 2 2d
sini sin 37 3
2 2 2 2
n = sinr sin r 2
d d d d
O , ,
(2n 1) 3D 5D 7D 3 sin37
2 sinr
NLI / 2
2 §2·
sin1 ¨ ¸ 200 u 5000 u 10 8
sin r = r =3× = 1.5 cm
5 ©5¹ .2 u 10 1
14. (1) [NCERT-280] 24. (1) [Concept NCERT-370]
2O 2 u 6328 u 10 10 180o 420 nm

w = u = 0.36 degree
d 0.2 u 10 3 S 3rd bright fringe x 700 nm = 5th Bright fringe x O
15. (1) [NCERT-272]
3 u 700
O 420 nm
§D· § S· 5
Iresultant = 4I0 cos2 ¨ ¸ 4l0 cos2 ¨ ¸
©2¹ ©3¹
25. (2) [Concept NCERT-362]
16. (4) [NCERT-295]
Momentum of the electron will increase. So the
5893 u 62 wavelength (O= h/p)of electrons will decrease and
N1O1 N2 O 2 N2 84
4358 fringe width decreases as E v O .
17. (1) [NCERT-280]
26. (4)
DO 6000 u 10 10 u .25
E E = 0.15 mm 27. (3)
d 1u 103
28. (1)
18. (2) [NCERT-311]
I v a2
3.75 u 10 6
7.5
5000 u 10 10 a1 I1 4
=2:1
So path difference is half integral multiple of O. a2 I2 1
19. (3) [NCERT-262] 29. (3)
E O O
T d 30. (4)
D d T
Let n1 bright fringe of O1 be coincide with n2 bright
6000 u 10 10
d fringe of O2 then
1u S m= 0.03 mm
180 n1O1D n 2 O 2D
20. (2) [NCERT-265] d d
d l1 l2 9 u 16 144 12mm n1O1 = n2O2
21. (2) [NCERT-370] n1 O2 10000 5
O n2 O1 12000 6
Angular portion of first minima is =v
d
n1O1D
x=
30 u S 5000 u 10
o 10 d
or =
180o d
5 u 12000 u 10 10 u 2
d = 9.55 ×10–5 cm = = 6 mm
2 u 10 3
22. (1) [NCERT-372]
31. (1)
Dt
3d 32. (4)
D
S= P 1 t 33. (1)
d
Dt § 5 · Dt 34. (4)
= ¨ 1¸ =
2d © 3 ¹ 3d For dark fringe
23. (1) [NCERT-372] DO
x = (2n – 1)
DO 2d
X (Bright) = 3
d
NLI / 3
2 u 10 3 u 0.9 u 10 3 K
O= = 6 × 10–5 cm I' =
3 u1 2
35. (3) 40. (1)
Distance of nth maxima For central maxima
OD O
x= n sinT =
d a
x vO but T is very very small
Oblue vOgreen Y
sin T | tan T
36. (3) D
For 1st minima
Y O OD
asinT = O y
D a a
O 5000 u 10 10 1 Hence width of central maxima = 2Y
sinT = 3 =
a 0.001 u 10 2
OD
T = 30o = 2
a
37. (4)
38. (4) 41. (4)
I = Imax + Imin According to Bragg's law
= I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I2 I1 I2 2 I1 I2 a sinT = nO
a sin30o = 1 × O
I = 2(I1 + I2)
a = 2O.
39. (3)
for 1st secondary maxima
For O, path difference
3O
2S a sinT1 =
I= × O = 2S 2
O
3O
O sinT1 =
and for 2a
4
3O
2S O S =
I= u 2 u 2O
O 4 2
Intensity I = 4I0 cos2(I/2) § 3·
T1 = sin–1 ¨© ¸¹
4
§ 2S ·
K = 4I0 cos2 ¨© ¸¹
2
42. (1)
K = 4Io
43. (2)
§ S · 44. (1)
I' = 4I0cos2 ¨©
2 u 2 ¸¹ 3O1 = 4O2
n1O1 = n2O2
3O1 = 4O2
45. (3)
NLI / 4
CHEMISTRY
58. (2) [NCERT-307]
46. (1) [Mod. CBSE]
The reaction conditions leading to the best yield of
C2H5Cl are C2H6 (excess) Cl2
UV light
o
47. (4) [CBSE-2001]
Cl
48. (4) [CBSE-1980]

2 5
C2H5OH + 4I2 + 6NaOH o CHI3 + 5NaI + 5H2O
(yellow cry solid)
+ HCOONa
59. (2) [NCERT-312]
49. (3) [CBSE-1993]
In presence of light and air CHCl3 get oxidised to When chlorine gas is reacted with propene at high
Phosgene gas. temperature (4000C), then substitution takes place
50. (1) [CBSE-1971,86] of addition reaction. Hence, allyl chloride is formed.
C6H5NH2 + CHCl3 + alcKOH o C6H5NC + 3KCl
+ 3H2O
51. (2) [CBSE-1971]
60. (3) [NCERT-301]
52. (2) [CBSE-1997] CH3–CH2–CH = CH – CH3
2R X Ag2O
dry
oR O R 2AgX . (Trans-2-pentene)
53. (3) [CBSE-1986] Since trans is more stable than cis.

It is application of freon. 61. (2) [CBSE-2003]
54. (2) [CBSE-1991]
CCl3CHO + NaOH o CHCl3 + HCOONa.
55. (1) [CBSE-1991]
R–X + NaOH o ROH + NaX is a nucleophilic
substitution.
56. (1) [mod.CBSE-1986]
The equimolar mixture of concentrated hydrochloric
acid and anhydrous ZnCl2 is called Lucas reagent.
Lucas reagent is used to distinguish between 10,
20 and 30 alcohols.
57. (1) [mod.CBSE-1976]
2 2
has three-NO2 (nitro groups) which activate the

compound, for nucleophilic sub Rn thus it undergoes
hydrolysis easily to form corresponding hydroxy
derivative.
NLI / 5
62. (4) [CBSE-1998] 70. (2) [NCERT 310]
Chloroform on reaction with nitric acid gives AlCl3 + Cl2 o AlCl4– + Cl+
chloropicrin (nitro chloroform) according to following
reaction. 71. (3) [NCERT 286]
CHCl3 HNO3 o C(NO2 )Cl3 H2O CH3CH 2CH 2I

KOH ( alc .)
HI
o CH3CH CH 2
Br2
o
nitro chloroform
(chloropicrin)
CH3CHBrCH 2Br
NaNH 2
2HBr
o CH 3C { CH
63. (4) [NCERT-309]
72. (2) [NCERT 315]
A is
B is
73. (3) [NCERT 314]
74. (3) [NCERT 319]

64. (1) [NCERT 285] EW G increases reactivity of chlorine in
chlorobenzene, when placed at ortho and para
position mainly.
75. (4) [NCERT 323]
P=q×l
76. (1) [NCERT 300]
A is CH3–CH2–Cl
65. (3) [NCERT 284] B is CH3–CH2–MgCl
It is a fact. C is CH3–CH3
66. (1) [NCERT 291] 77. (2) [NCERT 326]
Since B.P. depends upon surface area and no. of

halogen atoms. So order is
iii < i < iv < ii.
67. (1) [NCERT 295]
CH3––CH2–CH2–CH2 –– Br will under go more easily
SN2 Rn due to least stable combocation and least
steric hindrence.
78. (2) [NCERT 323]
AgNO2
R X o RNO2
Nitroalkane
69. (2) [Exemplar]

p-isomer fits in the crystal lattice better than the o
isomer.
NLI / 6
79. (1) [Exemplar] 86. (2) [NCERT 321]
Y will be Friedel crafts reaction of aryl halide is an example
of electrophilic substituation reaction
80. (1) [Exemplar]
87. (4) [NCERT 317]
Halogen atom is replaced by another halogen.
It is fact.
81. (1) [Exemplar]
88. (2) [NCERT 300]
SN1 reaction of optically active alkyl halide gives
resmic mixture as product. Dargen process is best as side product are
gaseous and escapes.
82. (2) [NCERT 322]
89. (1) [NCERT 314]
It is fact.
83. (3) [NCERT 324]
have two chiral carbon with
DDT is not metabolised very rapidely by animals.
point of symmetry.
84. (2) [NCERT 323]
90. (3) [NCERT 316]
CHCl3 + O2 o COCl2 + HCl
Grignard reagent is prepared by the actio of
85. (3) [NCERT 321]
magnesium in dry ether on alkyl halide.
Although chlorine is an electron with drawing group
yet it is ortho, para, directing in electrophilic
aromatic substitution reactions becouse reactivity
is controlled by inductive effect and orientation is
controlled by resonance.
NLI / 7
PHYSICS
1. (1) [NCERT-31] 7. (2) [NCERT-390]

K.E. of alpha particle = qV = 3.2×10–19 ×104
hc 1
= 3.2×10–15J As I0 hv 0 , O0 v
O0 I0
3.2 u 10 15
= eV = 2×104 eV Thus, metal A (with lower I 0 4 e V ) has higher
1.6 u 10 19
threshold wavelength (O0).
2. (1) [NCERT-392]
8. (2) [NCERT-394]
12.27 12.27
Oe = 1.75 Å hc
49 7 K max I
O
3. (2) [NCERT-397]
12375
2.5 1.9 eV
h § h · 1 2800
As O , O ¨¨ ¸¸
2mqV © 2mq ¹ V Stopping potential eV = Kmax
1.9eV
Slope of O 1/ V graph h / 2mq V 1.9V i.e., 1.9V
e
or slope v 1/ m (as q is same for both the 9. (1)
particles) As the slope of line B is smaller than 1 2hf 2hf0
As mv 2 hf hf0 , v2
that of line A, line B represents the heavier particle. 2 m m
4. (3) [NCERT-398]
2hf1 2hf0 2hf2 2hf0
h p2
2
Thus, v1 , v 22
As O and K , m m m m
p 2m
2h
or v1 v 2 (f1 f2 )
2 2
h 1 m
O or O v
2mK m 10. (3) [NCERT-394]
Since mass of an D-particle is more than that of a hX = W + Ek
proton and an electron, it has the shortest hX0 = W + 2eV
wavelength. 8eV = W + 2eV
5. (4) [NCERT-392] W = 6eV
For incoming radiation, energy is
v 2gH
h × 1.25 X0 = W + Ek
hX0 × 1.25 = 6 + Ek
h h hH1/ 2
O O v H1/ 2 8 × 1.25 = 6 + Ek
mv m 2gH m 2g
Ek = 10 – 6 = 4eV.
6. (2) [NCERT-395] 11. (1) [NCERT-393]
Give that, only 80% of 200 W converter electrical
1 2eV
energy into light of yellow colour mv 2 eV or v
2 m
§ hc · 80
¨ O ¸uN 200 u
100 p mv 2mqV
© ¹
Where N is the No. of photons emitted per second, Now pe = (2m e × e × 100)1/2
h = plank's constant, c = speed of light.
200 u 80 O Now pD = (2mD × 2e × 100)1/2
N u
100 hc 1/ 2
pe me me
200 u 80 u 0.6 u 10 6 pD 2mD 2mD
1/ 2
4.84 u 1020
100 u 6.62 u 10 34 u 3 u 10 8
NLI / 2
12. (3) [NCERT-388] 20. (3) [NCERT-389]
C = 3 × 108 m/s hv = W + KEmax
e = 1.6 × 10–19 C KEmax = hv – W
O in Pm KEmax = 2hv – W > 2 (hv–W)
E = W + eV more than doubled
hc 21. (4) [NCERT 334]
W eV1
O1 Dim of planck constant [ML2t-1]
Force x dis. x time=[MLT-2] [L] [T]
hc =[ML2T-1]
W eV2
O2 22. (1) [NCERT-397]
h
O
ª1 1º 3mk B T
hc « » eV1 eV2
¬ O1 O 2 ¼
6.6 u 10 34
ª 1 1 º
h u 3 u 10 « 6
6 »
1.6 u 10 19 [2 1] 3 u 1.67 u 10 27 u 1.38 u 10 23 u 400
¬ 0.3 u 10 0.4 u 10 ¼
= 1.254 × 10–10 m
= 6.4 × 10–34.
= 1.254 Å.
13. (1)
23. (2) [NCERT-391]
The number of photons emitted by the source in
unit time increases hc
eV0 hv I0 I0
14. (4) O
15. (1)
It occurs by the incidence of X-rays hc
or eV0 I0 0.6eV 2.14eV 2.74eV
16. (3) O
For a photon but not for an electron
17. (1) [NCERT-309] 12375
O 4516Å = 452 nm.
2.74
h hv 24. (1) [NCERT-398]
Momentum =
v c
h
Oe
6.6 u 10 34 u 1.5 u 1013 2mE
=
3 u 10 8 hc
OP
= 3.3×10–29 kg–m/s E
18. (1) [NCERT-389]
KEmax = (4 – 2) eV hence cut off potential
eV0 = 2 ×e joule Oe h 2mE 1 E2 1§ E ·
1/ 2
uE c
V0 = 2 volt Op hc / E c 2mE 2mE c ©¨ 2m ¸¹
19. (3) [NCERT-391]
v m 1/ 2 .
h h h 25. (2) [NCERT-396]
O
P 2mE 2mqV For perfectly reflecting surface
2E
1 Momentum transferred = .
O v mq
C
26. (2) [NCERT-392]
From photoelectric equation,
Op : OD = mDqD : mpqp hQ ' hQ K max ......(i)
= 4mp 2qp : mpqp = 2 2 :1
NLI / 3
h
1 Momentum of photon P =
h.2Q hQ mv max [? Q ' 2Q ] O
2
2
hc
2hQ Energy of photon E =
hQ
1 2
mv max v max O
2 m
If wave length is decreased
27. (3) [NCERT-388] then momentum and energy will increase
h 32. (3) [NCERT-393]
As slope of (V0 – Q ) line = 4.12 u 10 15 Vs,
e T .E .
h = (4.12 × 10 Vs) (1.6 × 10
–15 –19
C) No of photons =
Energy of one photon
= 6.59 × 10–34 Js.
28. (1) [NCERT-395]
E
For red color nr =
The de-Broglie's wavelength associated with the
hc / Or
h E
moving electron O Or
P nr =
hc
Now, according to problem
dO dP 0.4 P E Ov
P' 250P For voilet color nv =
O P 100 P' hc
29. (2) [NCERT-389]
nr Or
1 > 1
mv12 2W0 W0 W0 and ..................(1) nv Ov
2
Now nr > nv
1 33. (3) [NCERT-387]
mv 22 10W0 W0 9W0 ...................(2)
2 For photo electric emission incident light energy
Dividing equation (1) and (2)
hc hc
E= !
v
? 1
W0 1 O Oo
v2 9W0 3
30. (4) [NCERT-388] 1 1

! now O < O0
When two photons having equal momentum then O Oo
P1 = P2
where O0 = threshold wavelength
h h 34. (2) [NCERT-403]
O1 O2 The formula given
O1 = O2 1
n v
wavelengths must be equal d2
when two photons having equal wavelength
2
O1 = O2 n1 § d2 ·
h h n2 = ¨© d1 ¸¹
P1 P2
2
P1 = P2 n1 § 0.5 ·
¨ ¸
it is vector quantity so momentum may or may not n2 © 1.0 ¹
be equal.
31. (1) [NCERT-389]
n2 = 4 n1 n2= 4 n
35. (1) [NCERT-386]
Huygen gave wave nature of light .The rest mass of
NLI / 4
photon is zero. 40. (3) [NCERT-396]
36. (4) [NCERT-389] Violtet light photon has maximum energy.
Wave nature of light was given by Huygen and its 41. (3) [NCERT-387]
particle nature was given by Planck . Energy of photon
37. (4) [NCERT-403]
Huygen’s wave theory could not explain photo
hc
E
electric emission. O
38. (2) [NCERT-393]
We know that 19.8u1026
E 3.1 eV
E = hQ –W------------(1) 4000u1010 u1.6u1019
E’ = 2hQ – W --------(2)
42. (4) [NCERT-394]
Putting value of W from eq (1) and (2)
No. photon electron is emitted
E’ = 2hQ – (hQ–E)
43. (1)
E’ = E + hQ
44. (3) [NCERT-393]
39. (3) [NCERT-392]
Photo cells are used for conversion of light energy
into electric eneirgy .
45. (1)
E = hQ – w0 compairing from y = mx + C
slope = h. (Planck constant)
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (2) 56. (3) [Mod. CBSE 2010]

Sec. alcohol does not react with sodium. Phenoxide ions is more resonance stabilised,
47. (4) therefore phenol is more acidic.
57. (3) [Mod. RPMT 2005]

maltose
2.(C6H10O5 )n nH2O
o n[C12H22O11 ]
Diastase
p Maltase
2.C2H5OH CO2 n m
C6H12O6
Z
Zymase
48. (3)
49. (3)
50. (4)
51. (2) 58. (4) [Mod. KCET 2007]
52. (3) [NCERT 323] This reaction is called Williamson reaction.
59. (3) [NCERT 327]
60 (3)
53. (2) [NCERT 336]

A= B=
Rectified spirite contain 95.5% alcohol
54. (4) [Mod. KCET 2011]
By oxidation, alcohols are converted intyo

aldehydes. Hence, mild oxidising agent like PCC
is used to convert alcohols into aldehydes.
C= D=
RCH2OH o RCHO
PCC
Strong oxidising agents like acidified KMnO 4,

acidified K2Cr2O7 if used, convert alcohols directly 61. (1) [Mod. NCERT]
into acids, thus they are not used for oxidation of
alcohols to aldehydes. Vinyl carbinol is CH2 CH CH2 OH
3 2 1
55. (4) [CBSE 2009]

IUPAC name is pro-2-enol-1.
CH3CH2OH
PBr3
o CH3CH2Br
Alc.KOH
o CH2 CH2
ethanol X Y
62. (2) [NCERT 325]

(i)H2 SO4 ,room temperature
(ii)H2O, heat
o CH3CH2OH
ethanol
Z
NLI / 6
63. (3) [NCERT 326] 71. (3) [NCERT 324]
HI
CH3 O C2H5 o CH3I C2H5 OH Rate of reactivity of alcohol with HCl depend on the
( X) ( Y) (Z)
stability of carbocation.
AgNO3 72. (3) [NCERT 318]

CH3I o AgI p
(Y)
C2H5OH
NaOI
o CHI3 p
(Z)
5-Chlorohexan-2-ol
73. (3) [NCERT 323]
64. (2) Reactivity v Stability of carbocation
74. (1) [NCERT 323]
The boiling points increase as the molecular mass
of the alcohol increases. Among isomeric alcohols,
10 alcohols have higher boiling points than 20
alcohols.
75. (3) [NCERT 327]
65. (2) [NCERT 342]

76. (3) [NCERT 322]
C6H5ONa + RX o C6H5OR (Anisole)
Most acidic alcohal easily react with Na metal.
66. (3) [NCERT 322] 77. (2) [NCERT 323]
R-
OH+CH3MgBroCH4+Mg(Br)OR 1
Acidic Nature v
11.2 mL CH4 at STP is I effect
formed from 0.037 g ROH.
22400 mL CH4 at STP will be formed from 78. (4) [NCERT 325]
Compound X is CH3–CH=CH2
0.037 Compound Y is CH2–CH2–CH2–Br
u 22400 g ROH 74 g ROH
11.2
Compound Z is CH3–CH2–CH2–O–CH3
67. (1) [NCERT 323]
79. (2) [NCERT 332]
Compound A, B and C are respectively-
Phenol is soluble in aq. NaOH forming sodium
phenoxide. (C6H5ONa). But phenol does not evolve
CO2 with aq. NaHCO3 and aq. Na2CO3 because
phenol is weaker acid than carbonic acid.
68. (1) [NCERT 324]
80. (3) [NCERT 337]
Strong nucleophiles give above reaction very fast.
CH3O– > HO– > PhO– > CH3COO–, C2H5 OH
HI
o C2H5 I H2O
69. (4) [NCERT 325]
Compound A is HCHO CH3 O CH3
HI
o CH3 I CH3 OH
Compound B is CH3–OH 81. (3) [NCERT 321]
70. (2) [NCERT 323] Alcohol will be tertiary and mechanism will be SN1.
CH3–OH is highly soluble due to H-bonding. Tertiary alcohol react fastest with Lucas reagent.
NLI / 7
82. (2) [NCERT 320] 86. (3) [NCERT 333]
is a resonating structure for the phenoxide
ion.
87. (4) [NCERT 334]
83. (4) [NCERT 330]
Propane-1,2,3-triol – Dynamite
Ethane-1,2-diol – Terylene
Tetrahydrofuran – Cyclic ether
Power alcohol – Absolute ethanol
+ Petrol 88. (2) [NCERT 337]
Methylated spirit – Denatured alcohol Compound A is C2H5ONa
84. (2) [NCERT 322] Compound B is C2H5OC2H5
All the given alcohols (20) will give Lucas test within 89. (3) [NCERT 337]
5 minutes. Let the molecular mass of alcohol is M. Metamers will be -

CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3,CH3–CH2–CH2–O–CH3,
56 0.22 22400 u 0.22
or M 88
22400 M 56
Now the general formula of alcohol is CnH2n+1OH 90. (1) [NCERT 336]
which corresponds to molecular mass 88 only when In phenol, the presence of electron withdrawing
value of n=5. Thus 2 alcohol having five carbon
0
groups (–NO 2) increase the acidity, whereas
atoms will be (2) only. electron releasing groups (CH3–) decreases the
85. (1) [NCERT 334] acidity. Among the m- and p-nitrophenols, the p-
isomer is more acidic as it stabilises the phenoxide
ion to a greater extent than when it is present at
Compound B is
meta position. Hence iv > iii > i > ii.
Compound C is
NLI / 8
PHYSICS
1. (2) [NCERT-446] 6. (2) [NCERT-395]

Momentum of incident light per second
A nucleus is denoted by ZXA
An isotope should have same Z.
E 60
D-particle = 2He4; E-particle = –1E0 P1 2 u 10 7
c 3 u 108
The emission of one D particle and the emission of
two E particles maintain the Z same. Momentum of reflected light per sec
Hence, for isotope formation 2E particles and one
D-particle are emitted. 60 E 60 60
P2 u u 1.2 u 10 7
2. (4) [NCERT-422] 100 c 100 3 u 108
§ h · 1 Force on the surface = change in momentum per

rn v n2 , L n ¨ ¸, X v
© 2S ¹ n sec
1 = P2 – (–P1) = P2 + P1 = (2 + 1.2) × 10–7

and p v X v = 3.2 × 10–7 N.
n
3. (1) [NCERT-428] 7. (1) [NCERT-389]
Series limit of Lyman series is f o 1Q1 x1 x0 e 10 Ot
First line of Lyman series is 2 o 1Q 2

x2 x 0 e Ot
Series limit for Balmer series f o 2
hQ 3 hQ 2 hQ1 x1 1
x2 e 9 Ot 9 O t 1
? Q1 Q 2 Q3 1
t
4. (3) [NCERT-427] 9O
1 ª1 1º 8. (4) [NCERT-422]
R« 2 2 »
O ¬ n1 n2 ¼ (nr )H 0.53Å
(rn )HLA
Z 2
1 ª1 1º (' Z 2 for He )
1.097 u 10 7 « 2 2 »
970.6 u 10 10 ¬ 1 n2 ¼ = 0.265 Å
Also, (En)HLA = Z2 (En)H.
n2 4 9. (3) [NCERT-445]
? Number of emission line a photon of energy 12.09 × 9 = 108.81 eV will emit
when electron jump from n = 3 to n = 1.
n(n 1) 4u3
N 6 10. (2) [NCERT-430]
2 2
K.E. of electron = |E| = 3.4 eV
5. (2) [NCERT-428]
= 3.4 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
1 § 1 1·
R¨ 2 2 ¸ = 5.44 × 10–19 J
O n
© 1 n 2 ¹
h
1 § 1 1· § 1 1· 5R ? de-Broglie wavelength, O
R¨ 2 2 ¸ R¨ ¸ 2mE
O0 ©2 3 ¹ ©4 9¹ 36
1 § 1 1· §1 1 · 3R 6.63 u 10 34
R¨ 2 2 ¸ R¨ ¸
O ©2 4 ¹ © 4 16 ¹ 16 2 u 9.1u 10 31 u 5.44 u 10 19
O 5 16 20 20 = 6.658 × 10–10 m
u O
O0 36 3 27 O = 27 0 = 6.658 Å.
NLI / 2
11. (3) [NCERT-422] 13. (1) [NCERT-446]
The energy of an electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen Xb + 0n1 o 3Li7 + 2He4 (D)
a
atom is
Using conservation of atomic number,
m
En v 2 a=3+2=5
n
Using conservation of mass number,
For the hypothetical particle whose mass is double
than the electron, energy is b + 1 = 7 + 4 or b = 10
2m ? aX b = 10
B
En v 5
n2
14. (1) [NCERT-420]
The wavelength emitted by the transition of electron
from ni to nf state is 1 ke2
K.E. of electron in Bohr orbit, K
2 r
1 ª1 1º
R« 2 2 »
O ¬ n f ni ¼ ke 2
P.E. of electron in Bohr orbit, P.E. =
? W avelength emitted by the transition of r
hypothetical particle from ni to nf state is ? Total energy, E = K.E. + P.E.
1 ª1 1º 1 ke 2 ke 2
2R « 2 2 »
O' ¬ nf ni ¼ 2 r r
Here nf = 2 [First excited state]
1 ke 2
Therefore, longest wavelength will be emitted if the
2 r
transition of hypothetical particle takes place from
ni = 3 to nf = 2.
1 2
ke
K.E. 2 1
1 ª1 1º ª 1 1º ?
? 2R « 2 2 » 2R « » E 1 1
O' ¬2 3 ¼ ¬4 9¼ ke 2
2
2R u 5 5R ? K.E. : E 1: 1 .
4u9 18
15. (1) [NCERT-422]
? O' 18 / 5R Here, r0 = 4 × 10–14 m
12. (3) [NCERT-428] E = 10 MeV = 10 × 1.6 × 10–13 J
e = 1.6 × 10–19 C
§ 1 1·
Ev¨ 2 ¸ Let Z = atomic no. of the nucleus.
© n1 n22 ¹
? Using the relation,
1 2Ze 2
§ 1 1 · §1 1 · 3 r0 . , we get
? E4 o2 v¨ 2 2¸v ¨ ¸v 4SH0 E
©2 4 ¹ © 4 16 ¹ 16
4SH0 u r0E
§1 1· 3 Z
E2o1 v¨ ¸v 2e2
©1 4 ¹ 4
4 u 10 14 u 1.6 u 10 12
§1 1 · 3 9 u 10 9 u 2 u (1.6 u 10 19 )2
E 4 o3 v¨ ¸v
© 9 16 ¹ 144
So, E2o1 is highest. = 139.
NLI / 3
16. (2) All India Test and Discussion Series : Test-26 / [Paper]
[NCERT-438] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD / 21-May-2021
21. (3) [NCERT-445]
Let A be the atomic weight of Lithium.
? A is given by the formula, The attractive nuclear force is the same for any
pair of nucleons.
6xy
A Thus, F1 = F3 when there are no electrostaic forces.
6x But
7.5 u 6.01512 92.5 u 7.01600 F2 = attractive nuclear force – repulsive electrostatic

force
100
Hence, F1 = F3 > F2.
45.1134 648.98 694.0934 u 22. (3) [NCERT-428]
or A
100 100
'E
= 6.941 u. P
C
17. (1) [NCERT-442]
(13.6 0.54)
Q = (6B.E.)reactants – (6B.E.)products Mu v u 1.6 u 1019
or E = 3 Eb – Ea 3 u 108
or Ea + E = 3Eb. (13.6 0.54)

1.67 u 10 27 u v u 1.6 u 10 19
18. (2) [NCERT-451] 3 u 108
The nuclear reaction is : v = 4.35 m/s

23. (2) [NCERT-422]
236
92 Xo 141
a Y b
36 Z 3 10n Q
Emission of a photon of 12.1 eV requires a transition
As in a nuclear reaction both Z and A no. remain from n = 3 to n = 1.
conserved.
Change in orbital angular momentum
? 92 = a + 36 or a = 92 – 36 = 56
h h
and 236 = 141 + b + 3 × 1 (3 1)
2S S
or b = 236 – 141 – 3 = 92.
The Q-value of the reaction is given by 6.6 u 10 34 J s
2.11u 10 34 J s
3.14
Q = (mx – m y – m z – 3mn) a.m.u.
24. (2) [NCERT-429]
= (235.891 – 140.673 – 91.791 – 3 × 1.009) a.m.u.
Excitation energy e from I orbit
– st
= (235.891 – 235.491) a.m.u. to 2nd orbit is 10.2 eV for hydrogen

= 0.4 a.m.u.
Excitation energy e– from Ist orbit
= 0.4 × 931.5 MeV. to 2nd orbit is 10.2×4 eV for He+ .
19. (1) [NCERT-450] 25. (2) [NCERT-431]

Molecular state will give band spectrum
20. (3) [NCERT-426] 26. (4) [NCERT-420]

1
vn v
n n2
v2 1 v1 rn v by following bohr’s theory
So, v i.e., v 2 Z
1 2 2
v1
'v v1 v 2 27. (4) [NCERT-427]
2
In l excited state n = 2
st
V
V
V2 V1 2
u 100 u 100
V2 V = 100% 1§ C ·
Velocity of electron ¨ ¸
2 2 © 137 ¹
NLI / 4
28. (3) [NCERT-429] 40. (3) [NCERT-436]
Frequency of emitted radiation Shortest wavelength of paschen series
§ 1 1 · 1 § 1 1 ·
Q = RC ¨ 2 2 ¸ 1.09 u 107 ¨ 2 2 ¸
©2 3 ¹ O ©3 f ¹
5 1 1
Q = RC 1.09 u 107
36 O 9
29. (3) [NCERT-433]
9
nh O O = 8200 Å
Angular momentum mvr = 1.09 u 107
2S
41. (1) [NCERT-436]
mQr v n .....(i)
E2 – E1 = hQ
Radius of orbit r v n2
r vn ......(ii) 2.3 u 1.6 u 10 19

=Q Q = 5.6×1014 Hz
Now from (i) & (ii) 6.6 u 10 34
mQr v r
42. (4) [NCERT-436]
30. (3) [NCERT-433]
rn = n2 × 0.53
Wavelength of series limit of lyman
1 § 1 1 · 1 r2 22 4
R¨ 2 2 ¸ O
O ©1 f ¹ R r3 3 2 9
31. (4) [NCERT- 433] 43. (4) [NCERT-462]
Transition n = 3 to n = 2 emit min. energy line and
maximum wavelength Mass defect 'm = {7m P + 7m n} – MN
32. (3) [NCERT- 452]
= (7×1.007825+7×1.008665)–14.00307
In nuclear fission reaction B.E per nucleon always
increase and heavy nucleus breaks in to two = (7.054775 + 7.060655)–14.00307
fragments .
= 0.11236 amu
33. (3) [NCERT-441]
Density is idependent of mass no. of nucleus . B.E = 'm × 931.5
34. (2) [NCERT- 444] = 0.11236 × 931.5
For heavy size nucleus B.E per nucleon decrease = 104.7 MeV
to increase mass no. A
35. (1) [NCERT- 449] binding energy per nucleon =104.7 /14 =7.5
In v decay atomic no decrease by 2 and mass 44. (1) [NCERT-437]

no. decrease by 4 . 45. (2) [NCERT-435]
XA o Z–2Y A – 4 + 2He4 + Energy
Z
36. (3) [NCERT- 444] 1 O2

v Z2
O O1
Means B.E. per nculeon is 8 MeV
37. (3) [NCERT- 444] Z 12
O2
Z 22
Highest B.E. per nucleon nucleous is most stable.
38. (2) [NCERT- 444] 12
uO
32
More the B.E. per nucleon, more is the stability.
O
39. (1) [NCERT-435] O2
9
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (2) [NCERT 359] 56. (1) [AMU(Med.) 2010]

In Cannizzaro's reaction, there is H– shift in the rate Reactivity of carbonyl group decreases as the size
determining step. and number of alkyl groups around C=O bond increases
(+I effect). Thus the decreasing order of reactivity is:
47. (3) [Mod. CBSE]
It is pinacol pinacolone rearrengement reaction
Compound A is
57. (1) [NCERT 358]
CH3–CH2–CHO is not give idoform test but react
with fehling solution.
Compound B is 58. (3) [NCERT 357]
Aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic
addition and not electrophilic substitution.
48. (3) [NCERT 353]
59. (4) [NCERT 361]
CH3 CH2 OH
pcc
o CH3 CHO
o Al(OC2H5 )3
'
Reagent is NH2NH2 and C2H5ONa it is wolf kishner
reduction.
60. (2) [AIPMT 2012]

49. (2) [NCERT 358] Only CH3CHO gives iodoform test.
In carbonyl group neucleophile reactivity depend
on alkyl group and –I effect. 61. (1) [NCERT 354]
50. (1) [NCERT 359]
C6H5CHO + HCHO
aq. NaOH
o C6H5CH2OH+HCOONa
It is cannizaro reaction.
Compound A is
62. (1) [NCERT 364]
Compound B is LiAlH4
CH3 COOH o CH3 CH2 OH o
Cu
3000 C
CH3 CHO
( X) (Y )
51. (1) [Mod. CBSE]
Compound A is CH3–CH2–CH2–Br
dil. NaOH
'
o
Compound B is CH3–CH2–CHO O3 / Zn / H2 O
o CH3 CHO CHO CHO
Aldehyde give red ppt with fehling solution.
63. (4) [NCERT 364]
52. (2) [NCERT 357]
Aldol condensation does not occur between an
Ketone will not react with schiff reagent. aldehyde and an ester. The D-hydrogens of aldehyde
53. (2) [NCERT 354] are more acidic than those of an ester. Therefore,
aldehydes form carbanions more readily than esters.
'
(CH3COO)2Ca + (HCOO)2Ca o Further C=O of an aldehyde undergoes nucleophilic
attack by the carbanions more readily than C=O of an
CH3CHO+CaCO3 ester.
54. (4) [AFMC 2010] 64. (1) [NCERT 359]
Cl2
CH3 CHO o CCl3 CHO o
con. NaOH
CCl3 CH2OH CCl3COONa
CH3 CHO 2Cu(OH)2 NaOH
Heat
o Cu2O
Acetaldehyde Fehling' s reagent (red ppt.) 65. (4) [NCERT 358]
Greater the number of alkyl group attached to the
55. (3) [NCERT 360]
carbonyl group and hence lower will be its reactivity,
Compound A is CH3–CH2–CO–CH2–CH3 i.e., I > II > III.
Which is not react with Tollen's reagent and idoform 66. (2) [NCERT 359]
test. C6H5COCH3 show iodoform reaction.
NLI / 6
67. (2) [Mod. CBSE] 77. (4) [NCERT 358]
o
L iA lH 4
HCHO > > >
CH3CH2CHO
LiAlH4 is specific reducing agent it reduce only 78. (3) [NCERT 359]
carbonyl groups.
CH3CHO + PCl5 o CH3CHCl2 + POCl3
68. (4) [NCERT 360] 79. (1) [NCERT 362]
Pd / BaSO 4
!C O
Zn / Hg / HCl or
o ! CH 2 RCOCl H 2 o RCHO HCl
NH2 NH2 / C2 H5ONa acid chloride alkanal
69. (2) [NCERT 359] is called Rosenmund's reduction.
80. (1) [NCERT-364]

Formaldhyde undergoes polymerisation forms
trioxane.
81. (1) [NCERT361]
70. (3) [NCERT 355]
The reaction is simplified by addition of water to

alkyne following Anti Markonikoff rule.
71. (1) [NCERT 363]
The compound methyl vinyl ketone can be obtained

by making aldol from Formaldehyde and acetone
and followed by dehydration of the compound. 82. (2) [CBSE]
72. (2) [NCERT 364] This reaction is known as stephens reaction
Both do not contain D-hydrogen. 83. (3) [NCERT 358]

73. (4) [NCERT 362] Compound acid sencitive group so NH2–NH2/alc.
KOH is suitable reagent.
The molecular weight of compound X = 2×v.d
84. (2) [NCERT 359]
= 2×29
2nd no. carbonyl group is most active toward Nu–
= 58 add. reaction due to presence same of EWG.
The conditions are of iodoform test and the group.
compound will be CH3COCH3. 85. (2) [NCERT 358]
74. (2) [NCERT 360]
75. (4) [NCERT 361] 86. (3) [NCERT 351]
Benzaldehyde + NH3 o Hydrobenzamide i. C–C–C–C–CHO ii.

76. (1) [NCERT 363]

i . CH3 MgBr
ii . H O, H
o iii. iv.
2
iii . '
NLI / 7
87. (2) [NCERT 361] 89. (2) [NCERT 368]
'
Fehling’s solution reacts with propionaldehyde to CH3 CH CH2CHO(A) o CH3 CH CH CHO
give red brown ppt while benzaldehyde does not.

Tollen's
reagent
o CH3CH CH COOH
88. (1) [NCERT 356]
90. (2) [NCERT 358]
Alcohol (B) reacts fastest with Lucas reagent,
hence it is a tertiary alcohol (t-butyl alcohol) which
can be obtained by reaction of ester (methyl) with
excess of Grignard reagent.
NLI / 8
PHYSICS
1. (4) [NCERT-446] 5. (3) [NCERT-446]
Base is least doped region in transitor which can
c
Initial count rate (CR) for 1 cm3 of liquid = control current. Base emitter-base junction is
100 forward biased and base-collector junction is
After three half-lives, CR for 1 cm3 of liquid reverse biased.
1 c 6. (3) [NCERT-490]
= 
8 100 Given that; the density of electron hole pair in an
Let the volume of the remaining liquid = V cm3 intrinsic semiconductor,
 CR of this liquid of volume V is
1019
C C (ni ) 
V  or V  80 cm3 m3
800 10
2. (1) [NCERT-422] 1021
density of holes, (nh ) 
m3
nh
angular momentum is mvr = (independent We know that, nh. ne = ni2
2
of z).  1021 × ne = (1019)2
3. (4) [NCERT-474]
1019  1019
I(A) or ne   1017 m3
10 21
a 7. (2) [NCERT-475]
Vz
d c b V = ICRC + VCE
V(V)
e 15 = IC × 2 × 10+3 + 7
I(A) IC = 4 × 10–3 = 4mA
If the reverse bias is greater than the Vz, there is IC

breakdown condition. IB = = 0.04 mA.

4. (4) [NCERT-483]
8. (2) [NCERT-501]
1
Ih  I
5 Voltage gain after feedback is
Ie = I – Ih
A0
A
1 1  A0
I I
5
A0
4 10 
Ie  I 9
5 1 A0
100
Ie  ne AeVe
A 0  100 .
Ih  nh AeVh
9. (3) [NCERT-508]
Ie ne v e
  Vnet = 5.5 – 0.4
Ih nh v h
= 5.1 V
4 Rnet = 5.1 × 103
I
5  ne  2v
1 nh v 5.1
I i
5 5.1 103
ne 2 i = 1 mA.

nh 1
NLI / 2
10. (3) [NCERT-504] 16. (2) [NCERT-479]
Rnet = 15k Avg. of voltage or mean voltage
Vnet = 30V
V0 10
30 = = .
i  2mA  
15  103
17. (2) [NCERT-476]
VAB = i/2 × 10k
= 1 mA × 10 × 103 1
R
= 10–3 × 10 × 103 slope
= 10 volt. 1 2
R 
11. (1) [NCERT-505] 10mA /(2.3  0.3) 10  103
VEB + IBR1 = 5
0.7 + IB × 8.6 × 103 = 5 R  0.2  103 
R = 0.2k
4.3
IB 
8.6  103 18. (3) [NCERT-502]
–3
IB = 0.5 × 10 (10111)2 = 1 × 2o + 1 × 21 + 1 × 22 + 0 × 23 + 1 × 24
IB = 0.5 mA.
= 1 + 2 + 4 + 0 + 16
12. (4) [NCERT-508]
= 23.
108 electrons enter the emitter in 10–8s
19. (2) [NCERT-501]
108  1.6  1019
i.e., IE  A  172.8  1011 A
108
A B Y
0 0 1
IE
 1% of IE is lost in base i.e., IB  1 0 0
100 0 1 0
1 1 0
99
99% IE i.e., IE enters the collector
100
20. (4) [NCERT-508]
IC = 0.99 IE
Current amplification factor Ic  RL
Voltage gain, A v  l  R
b i
IC 0.99IE
   99
IB 0.01IE 1  10 3  5  103
 1001
13. (2) [NCERT-492] 15  106  333
Reverse biased potential for the Zener breakdown. 21. (2) [NCERT-484]
6 –6
Vr = Ed = 10 × 2.5 × 10
PNJ dioide conducts only is forward bias.
= 2.5 V.
14. (4) [NCERT-490]
The reverse saturation of p-n diode depends on the
doping concentrations, and device temperature. .
15. (3) [NCERT-504]
VL 12 22. (4) [NCERT-418]

iL  
RL 2  103
= 6 × 10–3 ic (10  5)  103

   50
i = 6 mA. ib (200  100)  10 6
NLI / 3
23. (2) [NCERT-505] 30. (4) [NCERT-416]
In N-type crystal donor level is found below the
Vout
 conduction band of host crystal
Vinp
31. (2) [NCERT-417]
Vout = 150 × Vinp e+ concentration is more hence this is p-type.
32. (3) [NCERT-417]
[phase difference between input or output is = ]
Pentavalent gives n-type.

= 300  cos(15t   ) 33. (2) [NCERT-417]
3
Energy bond gap is more in insulators as compared
4 
= 300 cos  15t  
to semiconductors. EG3 > EG2 > EG1.
 3 
34. (1) [NCERT–417]
24. (3) [NCERT-505]
Temperature resistance coefficient is negative
A Y'
B hence resistance decreases.
Y
C 35. (2) [NCERT–414]
When A=0
In n-type semiconductor electrons are majority
B=0 charge carrier.
C=1 36. (2) [NCERT–416]

When an electron jums then hole created. Hence
will give output Y' = 1
missing electron is hole.
Then Y = 1.
37. (3) [NCERT-414]
25. (3) [NCERT-505]
ic
According to given dig.   0.96 and ie  7.2mA
ie
A B C
ic = 0.96 × ie = 0.96 × 7.2 = 6.91 mA
0 0 0 \ ie = ic + ib Þ 7.2 = 6.91 + ib
1 0 1 Þ ib = 0.29 mA.
0 1 1 38. (4) [NCERT-414]
1 1 1 In common emitter configuration current gain
correct gate is OR gate. hfc 50

Ai    48.78
1  hoc RL 1  25  10 6  103
26. (1) [NCERT-413]
39. (1)
Since at absolute temperature there is no free
electrons in conduction band. The drift current in a P-N junction is N-side to the
P-side.
27. (2) [NCERT-418]
40. (2)
Since equal no of charge carriers cross junction
hence net current is zero P region is positive and the curent is due to holes
28. (3) [NCERT-414] 41. (4)
Hole is a vaccancy in valence band when electrons 42. (3)

jumps in to conduction band. 43. (2)
29. (2) [NCERT-419] 44. (2)
Due to diffusion of charges. Although few current 45. (1)
flow due to drift. Hence mainly due to diffusion of
charges current flow .
NLI / 4
CHEMISRY
46. (4) [NC 386] 55. (3) [NC 392]
Nitrene as an intermediate formed in the following
reaction Curtius reactionm Hoffmann bromamide NH2 NH2 NHCOCH3
process and Schmidt reaction. NO2
, ,
47. (3) [NC 386]
NO2
Br2
R  C  NH2   RCONHBr   RCON   RNCO   RNH2
(Acylnitrene) (Alkyl isocyanate)
O 56. (2) [NC 385]
48. (2) [NC 393] A = RCH2NH2
SO2Cl SO2 NHR SO2 N–RK+ B = RNHCH3
RNH2 + 57. (3) [NC 385]

(A) (Water soluble)
(HR) (B) A = RCONH2
49. (4) [Mod. NC] 58. (3) [Mod. NC]

59. (4) [Mod. NC]
SO2Cl
Hinsberg Reagent 60. (2) [NC 399]
61. (2) [NC 398]
CO OC 2H 5
Hoffman reagent N2Cl H OH
CO OC 2H 5 N=N–
–
OH (Orange)
+
H
50. (3) [Mod. NC] H NH 2
+ N=N– NH 2 (Yellow)
HgCl2 H
R  NH2  S  C  S 
R  N  C  S
62. (2) [NC 407]
51. (1) [Mod. NC]
Glucose does not form the hydrogen sulphite
additon product
Ar  CHO  H2N  Ar 
 Ar  CH  N  Ar(Anils)
(Schiff base)
63. (3) [NC 407]
52. (1) [Mod. NC] In six memberd ring formation of glucose –OH
involved at C5
KMnO4
2R2NH  [O]   R2N  N  R2
64. (4) [NC 410]
53. (4) [NC 386] In milk sugar linkage between C1 of galactose and
C4 of glucose
COOH NH2
conc. H SO
+ N2H   24  +CO2 + N2 65. (3) [Mod. NC]
66. (2) [NC 413]
CONH2 NH2
Asparagine, Arginine are basic in nature.
+ Br2 + 4KOH +K2CO3 + KBr + H2 O
67. (4) [Mod. NC]
COCl NH2 In acidic and basic medium amino acid moves

+
+ Na N3 –
+K2CO3 + N2 towards cathode and anode respectively.
68. (2) [Mod. NC]
54. (3) [Mod. NC] It is isoelectric point.
NO2
69. (3) [Mod. NC]
X= It is xanthoproteic test.
NLI / 5
70. (1) [Mod. NC] 80. (1) [Guj. CET 2011]
Intermolecular associatio is more in primary amines
1 & 5 moles formaldehyde and formic acid than in secondary amines as there are two H-atoms
respectively. available for hydrogen bond formation in it. Tertiary
71. (4) [Mod. NC] amines do not have intermolecular associationdue to
the absence of H-atom available for hydrogen bond
72. (4) [NC 420] formation. Hence, the order of boiling point of isomeric
alkyl amines is as 10 > 20 > 30
It is thymine. 81. (2) [CBSE 2010]
73. (2) [Mod. AIPMT] The reaction is an example of Hofmann-bromamide
reaction.
Biuret test is given by compounds having –CONH2 NaOHBr2
CH3CONH2   CH3NH2
gp. acetamide methyl amine
74. (2) [Mod. AIPMT] 82. (3) [Mod. Guj. CET, MCET 2010]
HNO2 PCl3 NH3
Aromatic amines are less basic than aliphatic C2H5NH2 
 C2H5OH 
 N2
 C2H5Cl   C2H5NH2
ethanol ethylchloride ethylamine
amines. Also presence of electron attracting group (A) (B) (C)
decreases the basic character of aromatic amines. 83. (2) [AMU 2010]
84. (4) [Mod. CBSE]
It is Reimer Tiemann reaction.
75. (1) [Mod. AIPMT]
85. (4) [NCERT 359]
Orange-red dye is formed with aniline. 86. (4) [NCERT 352]
IUPAC name of CH3CN is ethanenitrile
76. (1) [Mod. AIIMS 2008] The bond between C and N is a triple bond
It is Stephen's reaction. The C–C–N bond angle is 1800.
HCl The carbon-carbon bond is longer than the carbon-
CH3 CH2 C  N  [CH3CH2 C  NH] Cl
nitrogen bond.
SnCl2 /HCl
 [CH3  CH2 CH  NH2 ] SnCl62  87. (3) [NCERT 352]
H2O / boil (CH3 )2 CO  (CH3 )2 CH2NH2  (CH3 )2 CHOH  CHI3  CH3COONa
 CH3 CH2 CHO  NH4 Cl 88. (2) [NC-XII-392]
77. (1) [Mod. BHU 2006]
1
Cyanogen gives oxalic acid and NH3. Basic strength  P
kb
CN H COOH Order of basic strength : (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 >
 4H2 O    2NH3
CN COOH NH3 > C6H5NH2
cyanogen oxalic acid
78. (1) [NCERT 356] 89. (1) [NCERT 388]

Br MgBr COCH3
90. (1) [NCERT 397]
NBS Mg / ether (i) CH3CN
    
   
(ii) H3O
(x) (Y) (Z)
79. (4) [Mod. MCET 2006]

Proceeding backward from the known compound
ethyl alcohol.

CHCl3 HONO
CH3 CH2N  C 
KOH
 CH3CH2 OH  
(C)
Reduction
CH3 CH2NH2   CH3C  N
(B) (A)
NLI / 6
All India Test and Discussion Series : MD-1 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD-MODEL / 15-Jan-2021
PHYSICS
1. (B) 8. (A)
Heat produced H = i2RT
log H = 2logi + logR + logT 1
c
0 0
H 2i R T
   1
H i R R c2  (the dim ension of c is[LT 1 ]
0 0
Error in H = 2 × 3 + 4 + 6 = 16%
1
2. (C) Hence dim ension of is
 0 0
acceleration if a = 0, b = 1, c = – 2
3. (A)  L2 T 2 
9. (B)
R  5t 2
Angular velocity of P about A
u2 sin2 4u2 sin2 
 5
g g2 v
A 
cos   sin  2d
tan   1
Angular velocity of P about C
  45
v
C 
4. (C) d
Let the particle describes an angle  radian in time t
second. A 1
 
 C 2
 Angular velocity  rad / s
t
10. (A)
r Component of weight responsible for downward
Thus its linear velocity v  r   cons tan t
t movement of the blocks is mgsin 
Hence the magnitude of velocity is constant. But the Now mgsin 60o is greater than mgsin30°
velocity vector is tangential to the circular motion, thus
it changes its direction at every instant. The block A will move's down the plane
5. (D) Electrostatic constant 11. (A)
6. (C) Distance coverd by person
g v0
In CGS, d  7.5  T  R............(i)
cm3 2
 g 
7.5 
 100 
density   75 unit
 1 
3 2v 0 sin 
Flight time 
 cm g
10
Putting the value in the equation 1
7. (C) 2
V0 2V0 sin  2V0 sin 
At the highest point, there is only a horizontal R   ......(ii)
2 g 2g
component of velocity, means Vx ,
as Vx is same for both body
V02 sin2
Range of projectile  ...... (iii)
u1 cos30  u2 cos 45 g
u1 1 2 2 From eq. (ii) and (iii)

 . 
u2 2 3 3  = 60°.
NLI / 2
12. (D) 21. (A)
From the triangle law of vector addition the resultant Given,
must be zero if sum of two forces  remaining force. If Two masses 10kg,5kg,
you check for all option only option D not valid for it Force = 150N
because 10 + 20 = 30 < 40. So the acceleration of the system is
13. (C) Fnet F  (m1  m 2 )g
a 
Due to constant velocity along horizontal and vertical m1  m2 m1  m 2
downward force of gravity stone will hit the ground 150  (10  5)  10 300
following parabolic path.    20m / s2
10  5 15
14. (C) 22. (A)
If the resultant of n forces of different magnitudes acting Work done against frictional force equals the kinetic
at a point is zero, then the minimum value of n is 3 energy of the body. when a body of mass m, moves
15. (C)
N = m(a + g) 1
with velocity v, it has kinetic energy k  mv 2
(acceleration is negative) 2
N = 5 (–3 + 9.8) = 34 N this energy is utilized in doing work against the frictional
16. (D) force between the tyres of the car and road.
F=m×a  kinetic energy = work done against friction force
F=4×2=8N 1
The heavier body, since the force is same mv 2   mgs
2
8=5×a
where s is the distance in which the car is stopped and
a = 1.6 m/sec2.
µ is coefficient of kinetic friction.
17. (D)
Given v = v0
Here cage is air-tight, that means air cannot escape.
When a parrot is sitting in a cage, reading of balance v 20
s
will be an addition of weights of parrot and cage. When 2g
parrot starts flying, to be in the air, it must push air in 23. (A)
cage downwards with fore equal to it's weight. So, base Body tends to move upward
i.e., in the direction of f 1 F1
of cage now have air pushing it downwards with force N
hence frictional for f r is in the
equal to mass of parrot. So, reading now is weight of
opposible direction of f 2
cage and force of air (which is same as weight of parrot) mgsin
FBD of block mgcos
So, reading remains same. mg
as for equillibrium fr = µN
18. (B)
Draw the separate free body diagram of both the block N2 mg cos = f r = µ mg cos .
so for 8kg block T2 – mg =ma Minimum force f 1 such that block
starts moving upward
hence T2 = m × (g + a) = 8 × (9.8 + 2.2) = 96 N
for 12kg block T1 – (m1 + m2) (g) + (m1 + m2) (a) F1 = mg sin  + f r
T1 = (8 + 12)(9.8 + 2.2) = 240 N F1 = mg sin  + µmg cos.
19. (B) 24. (A)
f = P + Q sin ,
v µN = P + Q sin
The horizontal velocity of the block is
sin µ(mg + Q cos) = P +Q sin
20. (A) P  Q sin 
F  
a (mg  Q cos )
m1  m 2  m3 25. (D)
for equlibrium 25  25  25
Total time =  5s
m2 15
m1a  m2 g or a  g
m1 Total displacement = 25 m
m2 25
 F  (m1  m2  m3 ) g  5m/s
m1 Average velocity 
5
NLI / 3
26. (A) 30. (D)
The velocity of first stone on reaching ground in the According to the law of conservation of momentum, we
know that Momentum after impact = Momentum before
5 5
m/s is  3   m/s impact Note that hereafter one impact ball looses 40%
18 6
energy and is left with 60% energy. Thus by conservation
2 of energy,
 5
v 2  2gh     2gh .....equation 1
 6 60
mgh2  mgh1 
for second stone the upward downward initial speed 100
60
h2  h1  m  6m (h1  10m)
5 10 100
 4  m/s
18 9
v 2  u2  2gh 31. (A)
Put the values
2 2
 5  10 
v 2        .691  11.11
 6  9
2
 18 
v 2  1.929     25  5km / h
 5
27. (B)
g
Distance covered in first second =
2
Let it fall for n sec
g
7h  0 (2n  1)
2
g g
7   (2n  1)  n  4 sec
2 2
32. (D)
28. (C)
We know that area under velocity-time graph gives us
total displacement. given m  1kg

Here the displacement is the vertical height, that he lift  F
a  2tiˆ  3t 2 ˆj
caries the passengers. m

So area of the graph Now int egrate a with respect to t
v  t 2 î  t 3 ˆj
1  1  
=   2  3.6  (8  3.6)    3.6  2  36m Power P  F.v  (2tiˆ  3t 2 ˆj).(t 2 î  t 3 ˆj)
2 2
P  (2t 3  3t 5 )W
29. (A)
Projection of vetor 33. (B)
 = 30 rev/s,  = 60 rev/s
  1 
2 2
 f  1  2
a on b   (a.b)
|b| 0  900  2    60    7.5

a  2iˆ  3ˆj  2kˆ t i
  f

30
 4 sec
  7.5
b  1iˆ  2ˆj  1kˆ
 34. (C)
 (a.b)  (2  1)  (3  2)  (2  1)  10
  . In the given condition, the particle undergoes uniform
projectionof a on b circular motion and for uniform circular motion the
10 velocity and acceleration vector changes continuously

6 but kinetic energy is constant for every point.
NLI / 4
35. (C) 42. (D)
Let  is the angle made by the wire with the vertical
The relative velocity of police with respect to the theif
v 2 10  10 = 10 – 9 = 1 m/s
tan    1
rg 10  10
  45  Time taken by police to catches the theif
36. (A) dis tance 100

   100 sec
velocity 1
p2
E (p  cons tan t)
2m
1 43. (C)
E  if m1  m2  E2  E1
m
We know that
37. (A)
v rb  v r2  v b2
1
The K.E is being imparted to the liquid is A v 3
2
velocity of river is
38. (A) 2 2 2
vr  v rb  vb  102  82  62  v r  6 km / h
pressure  change in volume
P
time 44. (A)
20000  106
  2  102  0.02 W Let the velocity are v and v'
1
39. (C) when particles decreasing distance
As a bullet gets embelded in a solid block its whole
v + v' = 6 .........(i)
K.E. gets lost so only momentum is conserved
40. (C) when particle increasing distance
Relative velocity with respect to water is v – v' = 4 .........(ii)
Vboat  Vwater  3iˆ  4ˆj  (3iˆ  4ˆj)  6iˆ  8ˆj from (i) and (ii)
41. (B) v ' =1 m/s
A man is sitting in a bus and travelling from west to
now put this value in (ii)
east, and the rain drops are appears falling vertically
down. v = 5 m/s
Vm =velocity of man 45. (B)
Vr=Actual velocity of rain which is falling at an angle ?
with vertical mv 2
F
r
Vm= velocity of rain w.r.t moving man
 F v2
If the another man observe the rain then he will find that
actually rain falling with velocity Vr If v becomes double then F (tendency of overturn) will
become four times
at an angle going from west to east.
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (C) [NCERT 13] 58. (A) [NCERT 85]

M.M = 2×70 Numerical value of ionization enthalpy of an atom
(12+16)x = 140 is equal to electron gain enthalpy of its cation.
x=5 59. (C) [NCERT 86]
47. (A) [NCERT 15] There will be a sudden jump between ionisation
energy when electron comes out from noble gas
1 mole H3PO4  4 mole O electronic configuration.
48. (D) [NCERT 34] 60. (D) [NCERT 75]
M=6 Elements of group IIB (Zn, Cd, Hg) are not consider
49. (D) [Mod. CBSE] as transition element, while the elements in which
The reactivity of alkali metals is inversaly only outer most shell is incomplete known as rep-
proportional to ionisation energy but in case of resentative element.
halogens it is directily proportional to standared 61. (D) [CBSE 1996]
electrode potential. M2O3 + 3H2  2M + 3H2O
Reactivity order : Li < Na < K < Pb < Cs
62. (D) [NCERT 103]
F > Cl > Br > I.
63. (A) [NCERT 116]
50. (C) [Mod. CBSE]
3
The second ionisation energy of lithium will be In P4 molecule phosphorous is sp hybridised so
greater due to acchieving noble gas electronic percentage p-charactor will be 75% and s will be
configuration. 25%.
51. (A) [Mod. CBSE] 64. (B) [NCERT 172]
Oxidising nature (I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2)
NO2 is mixed anhydride and so get disproportinate
52. (A) [NCERT 84]
in aqueous as well as basic medium.
The size of isoelectronic species is affected by ef-
fective nuclear charge. 65. (A) [NCERT 173]
53. (D) [Mod. CBSE] It is a fact.
In Born haber cycle five energy are envolve these
66. (C) [NCERT 174]
are – Heat of atomisation, Ionisation energy, Bond
dissociation energy, Electron gain enthalpty and Nitroniumnitrate is NO2+ NO3– and so hybridisationof
Lattice nitrogen will be sp and sp2.
54. (D) [Mod. CBSE]
67. (D) [NCERT 165]
In sigma () no nodel plane is present.
The element will be phosphorous.
55. (A) [NCERT 60]
The maximum covalency of nitrogen is 4 and maxi-
Fe+3 = 3d5 mum oxidation state will be +5.
56. (D) [NCERT 382]
Increasing order of – O < N < F < Ne 68. (D) [NCERT 167]
I.E. N–N single bond will be weaker due to greator re-

Increasing order of – 2–
O <O <O<O– + pulsion of non bonded electron.
electron affinity 69. (D) [NCERT 122]

Increasing order of – F < O < S < Se In CO total electrons present = 14
atomic size 1s2*1s2 2s2 *2s2 *2px2 *2py2 2pZ2
57. (A) [NCERT 85]
70. (B) [NCERT 123]
Successive inisation energy of an atom is greater
than previous one it is due to increase in effective There will be two nodal plane, one is along the axis
nuclear charge or decrease in size. while other is perpendicular internuclear axis.
NLI / 6
71. (B) [NCERT 117] 83. (D) [Mod. CBSE 2011]
There must be one lone pair of electron occupies rH2 MO2

equitorial positon. 
rO2 MH2
72. (A) [NCERT 56]
84. (B) [NCERT 144]
It is a fact.
If Z = 1 gas will be ideal
73. (D) [NCERT 53]
If Z > 1 gas will be real, Vm > 22.4 liter
It is from fundamental definition.
less arractction between gas molecule.
74. (B) [NCERT 51]
If Z < 1 gas will be real, Vm < 22.4 liter
An orbital can have maximum two electron.
More arraction between gas molecule.
75. (A) [NC-I 44]
85. (C) [NCERT 147]
Ionisation energy = E   E ground and Higher the intermolecular forces of attraction, i.e.,
‘a’ and lower the co volume ‘b’ easier is the
z2 liquefaction of gas.
En  13.6 eV
n2
86. (D) [NCERT 147]
76. (A) [NC-I 53] Z > 1 means less compressible gas while Z < 1 means
Fe++ = 4s0 3d6 more compressible gas.
Fe+++ = 4s0 3d5 87. (A) [Mod. CBSE 2004]
77. (D) [NC-I 56] 1 1 1

rN2 : rH2 : rHe :: : :
Degenerated orbitals means orbital having same 28 2 4
energy and in unielectrons system energy of orbital 88. (A) [Mod. NCERT]
depends on principle quantum number.
V2
78. (D) [NC-I 61] s  2.303 nR log
V1
It is fact.
89. (B) [NCERT-XI-I 179]
79. (A) [NC-I 44]
H  U  ngRT
80. (D) [NC-I 44]
81. (C) [NCERT 145] H  3300 cal
For an open container Hence, G  H  TS
n1T1 = n2T2
G  (3300)  (300  20)
n
n×(27+273) =  T2 = –2700 cal
2
G  2.7 Kcal
T2 = 600 K = 3270C
82. (D) [Mod. CBSE 2004] 90. (D) [NCERT-174]
Partial pressure of CH4 = The change in entropy for a reaction is given by :
Mole fraction of CH4 × Total Pressure. V  V  P 

2.303 n R log  2  or nR ln  2  or nR ln  1  .
 V1   V1   P2 
NLI / 7
All India Test and Discussion Series : MD-2 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / TD-MODEL / 12-Feb-2021
PHYSICS
1. (4) 6. (2)
Mercury is liquid can not be linear expanded it's Gravitational constant G = 6.67 × 10–11
linear coefficient does not exist.
2. (1) 2GMe
7. (2) Ve = Re
∆θ
Average angular velocity =
∆t
2GM
v R
3. (3) Total angular momentum = ⇒ 2V
ve 2G × 6Me
1 3Re
= MR2ω2 + MωR2 8. (3)
2
5 a/2 3
= MR2ω2 = cos
= 30o
2 R 2
4. (2) ∴ a= 3R
Let v be the velocity when the disc starts pure
Let each A and B attract C with force f.
rolling
Then resultant force F on C will be towards O, where
By conservation of angular momentum initial
angular momentum = Final angular momentum
F= f 2 + f 2 + 2 f ⋅ f ⋅ cos 60o= 3f
1 v mm
mvo r = mvr + I ω = mvr + mr 2 × or F= 3 ⋅G ⋅
2 r a2
3
mvo r = mvr and centrifugal force on C acting along the radius and
2 away fromt he centre
2
v = vo mv 2 mv 2
3 = = ⋅ 3
R a
5. (2)
For equilibrium, equating (1) and (2), we get
Acceleration of falling mass,
g mv 2 Gm.m
a= 3 = 3 2
I a a
1+
mr 2 GM
or or v=
mr 2 g a
a=
mr 2 + I
velocity of mass m after falling through a distance h, viscosity
9. (3) Kinematics viscosity = density
using v2 − u 2 =
2as, we have
10. (1)
2.mr 2 g I1ω1 = I 2ω2

v2 − 0 = 2 h
mr + I 2 2π 2  R  2π
2
MR 2 . = M  .
2mgh 5 T1 5  2  T2
v=r
I + mr 2 T 1
1 ∴ T2 = 1 = × 24 =6 hour
v  2mgh  2 4 4
∴ Angular velocity ==
r  I + mr 2  So lenght of the day decrease by 24 - 6 = 18 h
NLI / 2
11. (1) 19. (1)
A B A B
L2 ρ g u1 = u u2 = 0 v1 = v v2 = 3v
∆l =
2Y Before collision After collision
8 × 8 × 1.5 × 103 ×10
= 6
= 9.6 ×10−2 m v −v 3v − v
2 × 5 ×10 e=
− 2 1 = −
u2 − u1 0−u
12. (3)
By conservation of momentum ,
Acceleration, a is given by
mu =mv1 + m ( v2 ) =mv + 3mv =4mv
4g
=4
∴ 4mv
u=
a=
4+4+2
From eqns. (1) and (2)
Tension in string B = 4(10 – 4) = 24 3v − v

e=
− 0.5
=
0 − 4v
∆L 24
= = 1.5 × 102 20. (4)
L 4 × 10 × 10−4 × 4 × 105
−3
Let the height of liquid of density ρ be h.

Then pressure of liquid at A = 0 and pressure of
13. (1) liquid at B = ρgh.
One revolution = 2π radians Average pressure ont he walls of the vessel
14. (2) 0 + ρ gh ρ gh
= =
2 2
30 m/s
2m B ρ gh
∴ Force on the walls = . ( 2π R.h )
20 ms -1 A v xms -1 2
m m
30
Pressure at the base = ρgh
Before explosion After explosion = ρ gh × π R 2

∴ Force on teh base
For conservation of momentum in y-direction, part B ρ gh
must have a vertical downward component of velocity Thus .2π Rh = ρ ghπ R 2
2
(v ) y equal to 30 ms −1 in addition to horizontal
component vx ∴ h=R
15. (2)
21. (2)
1 m1m2
∆K = 2 m + m (u1 – u2)2 (1 – e2)
1 2 vs ρ 2
= =
v σw 3
16. (3)
200 × 0.3 + 400 × v2 = 0
v2 = –0.15 m/s vs 2 4
=
= =
17. (1) v 3 × 1.5 9
Internal forces can change in kinetic energy
18. (3) 4 5
In collision kinetic energy may or may not be conserved Fraction above the = 1 – =
9 9
NLI / 3
22. (2) 26. (4)
Volume of the body,
2T
hρ g = .A
d
mass 120 1 3
V
= = = m 2 × 72 ×10−3
density 600 5 h × 103 × 9.8 =
0.4 × 10 −3
∴ h= 3.674 × 10 −2 m= 3.674 cm
When the body just sinks, let m be additional mass
added.
27. (3)
Net mass of body = Mass of water displaced
volume entering per second = volume leaving per second
= Volume of water displaced x Density of water
v=
1 A1 v2 A2 + v3 A3
1
m + 120 = ×103 =200 4 4 8
5 8× =4 × + v3 ×
10 10 10
∴ m= 80 kg −1
∴ v3 =2ms
23. (4)
SI unit of viscosity is poiseiulle. 28. (3) vT ∝ r2
24. (2) 29. (3)

The surface tension of water at 25oC is 72.14 dynes/
Volume of=
block 10
= 3
cm3 1000cm3 ; cm. It is standard value.
base area = 10 × 10 = 10 2 cm 2 30. (4)
Total mass of block = Mass of oil displaced Water having heighest viscosity.
+ Mass of water displaced 31. (3)
ρ vc .D
R=
= 8 ×102 × ( 0.6 ) + 2 × 102 × 1 Reynolds number,
η
6 1× 6 × 2
=8 ×100 × + 200 unit, R
Using CGS = = 1200
10 0.01
= 680 g 32. (1)
25. (1) This can be explained by viscosity.
33. (2)
Let the densities of the two substance be d1
Reynolds number = internal force/viscous force
and d 2 , then in first case, 34. (1)
Rotational inertia regist the rotational motion. Which
Total mass Vd1 + Vd 2 d1 + d 2 is the function of mass in translation motion hence
=2 = = motion of inertia is rotational analuge of mass.
Total volume V +V 2
35. (1)
∴ 4
d1 + d 2 =
Moment of inertia is the interestic property of the body
In second case, depends upon of its geometery shape and mass
disributaion around the rotational axis. It does not
depend upon angular velocity.
3 m+m dd
= = 2. 1 2 36. (3)
2 m m d1 + d 2
+
d1 d 2 2GMe
Ve =
2.d1d 2 Re
=
4 Substituting the value of mass of earth 5.9×1024 kg and
∴ d1.d 2 = 3 radius of earth Re = 6.4×106 m. We get escape speed
as 11.2 km/sec.
NLI / 4
37. (4) 41. (4)
Watting occurs if contact angle is less than 900.
GMm
F1 = (2R)2 42. (1)
Angle of contact of mercury is about 1350 and mercury
 M has strong cohesive force. Hence its menicus is
G  m convex.
GMm  8
F2 = −
(2R)2
(3R / 2)2 43. (1)
Due to the surface tension drop let has tendency to
F2 7 keep it surface area minimum for a given volume sphere
= has mimimum surface area. Hence drop is spherical.
F1 9
44. (1)
38. (1)
Liquid layers move one over each other and they
Accroding to definition young modulus is equal to force opposes relative motion among them. This property is
required to double the length of unit area wire. known as viscosity.
39. (2) 45. (3)
Due to increase in temperature strain is increases. Viscus force is directly proportional to the velocity
Hence young modulus decreases. hence at a perticular velocity it balances the weight
40. (2) and upthrust and acceleration become zero and body
move with constant velocity after that. It is terminal
With the increase in temperature the angle of contact
velocity.
decreases.
NLI / 5
CHEMISTRY
46. (2) [NCERT 196] 55. (4) [Mod. CBSE]

The equilibrium concentration of Br– will be 0.25 The reaction is HF+NaOH→NaF+H2O, and the
hence equilibrium concentration of Br2 will be 0.75 resulting solution is a buffer solution whose pH is
and Br– will be 0.25 and Br3– will be 0.25
[NaF]
given by pH = pKa + log
[Br3− ] [HF]
Putting the values in KC =
[Br2 ][Br − ]
56. (2) [Mod. CBSE]
47. (4) [NCERT 202]
The expression relating the unknown for this given W
× 1000 = n × M × V
2
4α × P E
reversible change is Kp =
1− α2 57. (1) [NCERT 258]
1/ 2
 KP / P  W1 W2
Rearranging it we get α = =
 4 + K P / P  E1 E2
48. (1) [NCERT 196]
Since heat of reaction for the given reversible 58. (1) [NCERT 257]
reaction does not exist, equilibrium constant will
be independent of temperature. % of O EO 1
= % Hydrogen
= × 100
49. (4) [NCERT 199] % of M EM & 13
Using
59. (4) [NCERT 260]
(Moles of NO2 / V)2
KC = (Moles of N O / V) N1V1 = N2V2
2 4
n1M1V1 = N2V2
50. (2) [NCERT 210]
60. (3) [NCERT 268]
Since K w is temperature dependent, pH will
decrease for neutral sample. W 1000
Na2CO3 H2SO4 N= E × V
51. (4) [NCERT 220] ml
Using N1V1 = N2V2 N=1

for AB, Ksp = S 2
61. (3) [NCERT 256]
for AB2, Ksp = 4S 3
In a species oxidation number of central atom are
for A3B, Ksp = 27S4 inbetween act as both.
52. (4) [NCERT 221] 62. (4) [NCERT 259]
Using Ksp = [Ag+] [Br–] 63. (1) [NCERT 283]

Calgon process is used for the removal of hard-
K sp ness of water.
[Br–] = = [NaBr] = 10–9
[Ag+ ] 64. (3) [NCERT 282]
Hence mass of NaBr = 103×10–9 = 1.03×10–7 g Mg3N2 + 6H2O → 2NH3 + 3Mg(OH)2

65. (3) [NCERT 285]
Hence in 200 ml of solution.
4H2O2 + Cr2O72– + 2H+ → CrO5 + 2H2O
53. (4)
66. (4) [NCERT 285]
B2H 6, (MgH 2) n and (BeH 2) n banana bond are
H2O2 is acting as oxidising agent
present.
SO2 + H2O2 → H2SO4
54. (1) [NCERT 206]
2KI + H2O2 → 2KOH + I2
it is a case of anionic hydrolysis and % hydrolysis
PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O
Kw 67. (3) [NCERT 284]
will be given by
C.Ka
Blackened oil painting can be restored with
original form by the action of H2O2
NLI / 6
68. (2) [NCERT 284] 77. (4) [NCERT 198]
Compounds BaO2 is a peroxide. Clorine containing poisonous gases are Mustard
69. (4) [NCERT 285]
gas, Tear gas, Phosgene.
MnO2, PbO2 and BaO will not give H2O with HCl.
MnO2, and BaO2 will give Cl2 and BaO will react 78. (4) [NCERT 197]
with HCl to give BaCl2 and water.
79. (2) [NCERT-317]
70. (1) [NCERT 112]
Except CCl 4 other tetrachlorides are easily
using van't hoff isochore.
hydrolysed by water.
 ∆H  1 80. (1) [NCERT 173]
ln Kp =
 − R  T + cons tan t
∆
Ba(N3)2 → Ba+N2
since for endothermic reaction ∆H will be positive,
81. (3) [NCERT 175]
slope will be negative.
∆
71. (3) [NCERT 221] NH4NO3 → N2O + H2O
for precipitation Kip > Ksp 82. (2) [NCERT 176]
and Kip = [Ag+]2[SO42–] NO and N2O are neutral oxide.
83. (1) [NCERT 182]
72. (1) [NCERT 210] PCl5 exist is solid state as [PCl4]+[PCl6]–
[CH3 COOH] 84. (2) [NCERT 180]
using [H+] = Ka
[CH3 COONa]
Ca3 P2 + HCl PH3 + CaCl2
73. (2) [Mod. NCERT] CuSO4
Cu3P2+H2SO4
Solubility of alkaline earth metal carbonates and 85. (2) [NCERT 184]
sulphates in water decrease down the group due On heating H3PO3 , compound H3PO4 is form.
to decrease in hydration energy rapidely as com- 4H3PO3 → 3H3PO4 + PH3
pare to lattice energy 86. (3) [NCERT 171]
Acidic oxide : P2O3, As2O3 and B2O3
74. (2) [NCERT 295]
Alkaline : Bi2O3
2Na+O2 → Na2O2
87. (4) [NCERT 169]
Stability of +5 oxidationstate decreases on account
Gypsim CaSO 4 .2H 2 O. Plaster of paris of decreasing electronegativity and
1 ionisationenergy. Reducing character of hydrides
CaSO4. HO increases down the group because bond
2 2 dissociation energy decreases down the group.
76. (4) [CBSE 2006] 88. (1) [NCERT 173]
The correct order of mobility of the alkali metal
It is a fact.
ions in aqueous solutions. Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
due to following order of hydration energy of 89. (3) [NCERT 186]
these ions Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ and due to hydration CO and CN– are isoelectronic
of ion mobility decreases.
90. (4) [NCERT 207]
NLI / 7
All India Chapter Wise Revision Test : MD - 3 / [Paper] CRACK NEET 2021 / CRT / 16-April-2021
PHYSICS
1. (3) 11. (3)
By faraday law § a1 ·
2
I max ¨ a 1 ¸
dI ¨ 2 ¸
e=–
dt I min ¨ a1 1 ¸
ä ¸
© 2 ¹
2. (4)
No flux change is taking place because magnetic 12. (2)
field exist every where & is constant in time & space
3. (4)
fB = fA + 4 or fA – 4
By Fleming's rule
13. (3)
4. (3)
es
K=
ep
After filling frequency increases
5 e fA = f B ± 5
= s
3 60
14. (1)
es = 100 V
w 100
V
K 0.01
5. (3)
= 104 m/s
Pole strength of each part = m
magnetic movement of each part
15. (3)
L M
M' = m'L' = = m = 1 T
2 2 n=
2l S r 2 U
6. (1)
7. (1) 2
n1 T1 § r2 · U2
Maximum particle velocity = Aw ¨ ¸
n2 T2 © r1 ¹ U1
= 0.1 × 2S × 300
8. (1) n1 = n2
Phase difference
'I = K'x 16. (2)
2S V
'I = 'x fO
O 2L
9. (1)
VO dH 1 V V
fC
4L 2l
VH dO 16
2
1 fO = fC
=
4
17. (2)
10. (2)
w
Aw = 4
k
4 S y0
y0 O O
2S 2
NLI / 2
18. (3) 28. (4)
Frequency of reflected sound Speed of sound in gas
§ V VS ·
f' f0 ¨ ¸ J RT
V=
© V Vs ¹ M
Velocity of gas molecule
§ 330 20 ·
124 ¨ ¸
© 330 20 ¹ 3RT
C
19. (3) M
Internal energy depends on temprature 29. (1)
20. (4)
CP
'Q = 'w+'U J
CV
35 = –15 + 'U
'U = 50 Joules 2
21. (2) 1
f
Heat supplied to the system
30. (4)
'Q = (+)
work done on the system 3
KE = PV
'w = (–) 2
'Q = 'U – 'w
KE 3
22. (4) E= P
V 2
PVJ = const. 31. (1)
γ
§ RT · 32. (2)
P¨ ¸ = const.
© P ¹ µ0 II
B=
P1-J TJ const. 4S R
23. (2)
µ0 S i
PVJ = const. B=
4S 2 R
J
P2 § V1 · 33. (4)
¨ ¸
P1 © V2 ¹ µ 0 2i
B=
4S d
J
§V ·
P2 P1 ¨ 1 ¸ P0 (8) 4 / 3 B is independent of the radius of the wire
© V2 ¹
34. (1)
=16P0
µ0 2πi
24. (3) B=
4π r
Internal energy is state function
µ0 ne
25. (1) =
2 r
26. (4)
35. (3)
PV 2P V/4
= n1 n2 mv
r=
qB r v v
T 2T
27. (2)
36. (3)
m
PV = RT M = iA
M
= ef Sr2
8 RT = 1.6 × 10–19 × 6.6 × 1015 × 3.14 × (.528)2 × 10–20
PV = RT =
32 4
= 1 × 10–23
NLI / 3
37. (3) 41. (2)
w = q (Vf – Vi) = q'V Common potential
for equipotential surface
q 2 – q1 c V –cV
'V = 0 VC = = 2 2 1 1
c1 +c 2 c1 +c 2
38. (3)
6×12 – 3×12
V = u + at =
3 6
qE
V=0+ t 42. (1)
m
For I max
1 rnet = R
K = mv2
2
1 q2E2 t2 43. (2)

= m
2 m2
G Ig = (I – Ig) S
2 2 2
1q E t 8 Ig = (1 – Ig) × 2
2 m Ig = 0.2
39. (2) I – Ig = 0.8 Amp
V =n' 2/3
V 44. (4)
V ' 4 S = G (N – 1)
V 1 = 2000 (5 – 1)
40. (1) S = 8000 :
Equivalent capacitance between A & B 45. (1)
CAB = 1+ 3 = 4µF IgG = (I – Ig)S
3 3 Ig 1
CAC = = 3µF
2 2 I 10
CAB 4
=
CAC 3
NLI / 4
CHEMISTRY
46. (4) [NCERT 376] 54. (3) [NCERT 380]
CH3COCH3oCH3CH2CH3 – HI/red P
Compound A is CH3CH2Br o CH2=CH2 – KOH (alc.)

C6H5COOH o C6H6 – Sodalime
C2H5Br o C4H10 – Na / dry ether
55. (2) [CBSE 2010]
Compound B is In strong electrolyte, number of ions remains constant
so equivalent conductance increases due to increase in ionic
mobility.
Compound C is 56. (2) [NCERT-XII (50)]
1000Kf w2
'Tf = w u M
1 2
47. (1) [NCERT 342]
Stability of carbocation 30>20>10 1000 u 1.86 u 68.5
= = 0.372o
1000 u 342
48. (1) [NCERT 341]
? Freezing point of the solution
Free radical is paramagnetic due to presence of
unpaired electron and also electrophile due to = 0 – 0.372oC = – 0.372oC
defficiency of electron. 57. (1) [CBSE 2007]
49. (2) [NCERT 385]
By def. of Raoult's law.
58. (1) [NCERT 80]
CaC2
H2O
o CH { CH
Re d. Hot
o
tube 1000 u N
Using /Mf
solubility
59. (3) [NCERT 379]
CHCl3
Butene 1 o CH3 CH2 CH(CCl3 ) CH3
NaOH
(aq.)
o
CH3 CH2 CH(CH3 )COONa

Dil. HCl
o CH3 CH2 CH(CH3 )COOH
60. (1) [NCERT 303]

Finkelstein reaction – Alkyl iodide
Bergius process – Synthetic petrol
50. (2) [NCERT 55] Sandmeyer's reaction – Bromobenzene
It is due to increase and decrease in number of Ulmann's reaction – Biphenyl
units. 61. (1) [NCERT 89]
51. (2) [CBSE 94]
Fractional distillation is used for mixture of such 'Go
Using K u 100
two liquids in which difference of boiling point is 'Ho
very less in between of 10 to 150C or less than
100C. nFEo
K u 100
52. (1) [Modi CBSE 1993] 'Ho
Thiourea contains both nitrogen and sulphur. Putting the given values in the above equation
53. (4) [NCERT XI 335] Eo = 0.121 Volt
CH3 – CH = CH – CH2– 62. (2) [NCERT 382]
It is due to active (acidic) hydrogen atom, butyne-
1 will give ppt with amonical AgNO3.
N-ethyl-N-methyl but-2-en-1-amine
NLI / 5
63. (2) [NCERT 323] 73. (2) [NCERT 354]
It is according to mechanism of the above said re- Reaction involved is
action.
Na2S + Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] o Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
64. (2) [NCERT 340] 74. (1) [NCERT 15]
Normality = molarity×basicity
= 3×3=9 N
75. (2) [NCERT 340]
No. of optical isomers = 2 n–1
+2n/2–1
CH 3–NH–C 2H5 and (CH 3) 3N show Functional
= 22–1 + 22/2–1 isomerism
= 21 + 20 76. (1)
= 2+1=3 77. (4)

65. (1) [NCERT 335] for face centred unit cell
As per IUPAC rule.
a 2 4r
66. (1) [Mod. CBSE 2008]
Lone pair of electron are largely localized and hence a 2 2r
available to accept the proton.
Volume of unit cell = a3
67. (2) [NCERT 341]
3
= 2 2r (Z = 4 for fcc)
(Mesoform) due to plane of symmetry. 4 3

total occupied volume = 4 u Sr
68. (3) [NCERT 341] 3
16 3
= Sr
3
78. (4)
79. (2)
In simple unit cell a = 2r
Z=1
69. (2) [NCERT-XI-84, 85, 86, 88]
Occupied volume
Ionisation Enthalpy is always endothermic, Packing fraction=
Total volume
Electron affinity may be endothermic or exothermic,
the electronegativity of any given element is not
constant and An anion of an element is always 4 3 4 3
Sr Sr
larger in size, than its neutral atom. 3 3 S
70. (3) [NCERT 347] a3 (2r)3 6
It will lead to the formation of more stable 80. (2) [NCERT 23]
intermediate.
Na+ Cl– Na+ Cl– Na+ Cl–
71. (2) [NCERT 343]
According to hyperconjugation effect. Cl Cl Na Na
72. (1) [NCERT 344] Na Cl Cl Na Cl

Acidic strength v –I effect
Cl Na Cl Na Na
v Ka
Schottky defect is indicated in the diagram.
NLI / 6
81. (2) [Mod. NCERT] 87. (3) [NCERT 101]
Molar conductance increases with dilution linearly. Unit of rate constant (k) for zero order reaction
82. (1) [NCERT 63-64] is mol L–1s–1.
The aim of two cells is opposite. In electrolytic cell, For nth opder = k = (mol L–1)1–ns–1
cation (+vely charged) moves towards cathode (–
88. (3) [NCERT 109]
vely charged) while in galvanic cell electron goes
away from anode and are attracted towards 0.693
cathode. k
t1/ 2
83. (2) [NCERT 84]
89. (4) [NCERT 100]
Using Faraday's first law of electrolysis.
Rate constant of a reaction depends only on
84. (4) [NCERT 79] temperature.
This is because the electrical conductivity depends 90. (3) [NCERT 114]
on the strength of the acid, and difluoroacetic acid Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be
is the strongest among these.
different temperatures.
85. (1) [NCERT 77]
log k 2 E0 § 1 1 ·
It is due to positive electrode potential of Cu.
log k1 2.303 R ¨© T1 T2 ¸¹
86. (4) [NCERT 100]

For a reaction,
rate = k[reactants]
rate
[Reactants] =
k
240 u 10 5
= = 0.8
3.0 u 10 5
NLI / 7

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All India Chapter Wise Revision Test-1 / [Solution] CRACK NEET 2021 / CRT / 01-Jan.

'd 'x 'a 1 'b 1 'c

11. (D) [NCERT- 32]

30. (D) [NCERT-33] 1.9 u 1011 u 105

There is one significant figure .

42. (C) [NCERT-31]

44. (B) [NCERT-31]

wt. of solute 20 C2H4 + 3O2 o 2CO2 + 2H2O

vol. of solute 10 2.8 gm ethylene require 9.6 gm O2

52. (A) [NCERT 15]

No. of atoms per molecule u at. wt. u 100 25×1.2

1. (B) [NCERT -72] 5. (C) [NCERT-45]

let in time (t) body covers 7. (A) [NCERT -73]

4. (D) [NCERT -72]

1 2 10. (D) [NCERT -73]

? s v u2 Since acceleration depends on time, t it is non-

24 24 OA 102  202

G G G 2 3 7 by putting the value of cosT in equation (A)

1240 u 1.6 u 1019 n = 3 , l= 1, m=1, s = +1/2

13.6 4 'x × m × 'v = h/4S

80. (C) [AIPMT Mains 2011] 4

1. (D) [NCERT-77] 5. (C) [NCERT-77]

Taking vertical motion

2uy If t is the time taken to reach the ground,

taking motion along y-direction 3 2

Velocity at the starting point

10. (A) [NCERT-77] or tan  = 4 or  = tan–1 (4).

The desired equation is,

So, time flight and maximum height remains same.

2 24. (A) [NCERT-78]

related to velocity but not speed.

33. (C) [NCERT-76]

29. (D) [NCERT-76]

34. (D) [NCERT-76]

35. (D) [NCERT-76]

36. (D) [NCERT-51]

Distance travelled in downstream

Time taken for going down stream

46. (C) [NCERT 85] 58. (C) [NC- 86]

49. (D) [NCERT 76]

50. (D) [NC- 81] Repulsion of already negative charge present on O

Metallic character and reactivity increases as we 63. (D) [NCERT-86]

go down to group due to mainly in decrease in It is defination of electron gain enthalpy.

73. (B) [NCERT 79] More negative numeral is less

1. (D) 10. (D) [NCERT-81]

using cosine law, v = v 2  v 2  2v 2 cos 40 o

5. (B) [NCERT-80] mv2

since it increases from 90° to 0°. aT = 0.5 m/s2

0.5v 2 Since the angle between ac and aT is 90°,

Net acceleration 22  (1.8)2  2.7 m / s2 km m

v2 37. (B) [NCERT-104]

39. (B) [NCERT-104]

46. (A) [NCERT 102] 58. (B) [NCERT 104]

1. (A) [NCERT-99] 5. (A) [NCERT-95]

from conservation of momentum M

m2a m2 a From the figure, l2  b2  y 2

46. (4) [NCERT 142] 57. (D) [NCERT 141]

49. (C) [NCERT 147] 58. (B) [NCERT 143]

PV V12  V22  V32  V42

mass were concentrated at the centre of mass. The = 11 : 10

W =  F.ds   ma.dS  W = 7.46 J

2 12. (A) y = 10 – 10 2  4 2  0.84m

W  Fs  200  10  2000 J Thus U(x) = K[1 – (1 – x2)] = Kx2

24 24 OA 102 202

G G G 2 3 7 by putting the value of cosT in equation (A)

1240 u 1.6 u 1019 n = 3 , l= 1, m=1, s = +1/2

13.6 4 'x × m × 'v = h/4S

m1u1 m2u2 m1v1 m2 v 2

2m mv 1 2mv 2 Mx 5M(9R x) x 7.5R

5 u 10 20 u 0 5 u 0 20 u v v 2.5m / s Applying conservation of momentum

Kp K c (RT)'n H Ka.C 4.9 u 10 8 u 0.1 7 u 10 5

10 2 MmixVmix = M1V1 + M2V2 + M3V3