OB-PEDIA PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. An adolescent seen in the health care clinic has been diagnosed with endometriosis. The client asks the clinic nurse to
describe this condition. Which response should the nurse provide?
A. “It always causes infertility
B. “It causes the cessation of menstruation.”
C. “It is the presence of tissue outside the uterus.”
D. “It is also known as primary dysmenorrhea.”

2. The patient asks Nurse Gina, when could you hear the fetal heart of my baby? Which of the following should be the
BEST answer for Nurse Gina?
A. Ninth month
B. Fifth month
C. Third month
D. First month

3. Patient Ashley who is ordered for diagnostic pelvic ultrasound asks what preparation she will take. Appropriate
preparations for this procedure include:
A. Explanation of the procedure
B. NPO 6 hours before
C. Informed consent
D. Voiding

4. The labor progressed and the physician performed amniotomy. Nurse Faith should FIRST assess for ________.
A. Bladder distention
B. Maternal blood pressure
C. Cervical dilatation
D. Fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern

5. A NEWLY hired nurse was asked by the nurse supervisor about her concern and what are the considered ideal fetal
positions for a healthy delivery.
A. Right occipitoposterior with no flexion
B. Right occipitoposterior with full flexion
C. Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion
D. Left Sacroanterior with full flexion

6. After the successful vaginal delivery, medication was ordered to be given immediately. The supervisor reassured the
newly hired nurse that everything will be fine because the medication will
A. Promote vasoconstriction of uterine muscles
B. Hasten uterine contractility and control bleeding
C. Facilitate the return of pre-pregnancy vital signs
D. Promote vasodilation

7. Using APGAR Score, Nurse Mica should bear in mind that this method of evaluating a newborn’s condition is used at
how many minutes after birth?
A. 1 to 10 C. 1 to 7
B. 1 to 3 D. 1 to 5

8. Which of the following statements is NOT an indication for any uterine stimulants (Oxytocin)?
A. Pre inducting cervical ripening
B. Controlling postpartum bleeding
C. Inducing or augmenting labor
D. Manages an incomplete abortion

9. Simultaneous with the oxytocin drip (left arm) is the prescribed intravenous (IV) lidocaine (Xylocaine). Nurse Lyca
should dilute the concentrated solution of lidocaine (right arm) with which solution?
A. 5 percent Dextrose in water
B. Normal saline 0.99 percent
C. Normal saline 0.45 percent
D. Lactated Ringer’s

10. Ofelia mentioned that she can experience uterine squeezing. Which of the following signs of normal pregnancy should
the nurse consider?
A. Braxton-Hick’s Contractions
B. Heagar’s Sign
C. Ballottement
D. Goodell’s Sign
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11. When planning care for a labouring woman whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse recognizes that the woman’s
RISK for which has increased?
A. Intrauterine infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Precipitous labour
D. Supine hypotension

12. After a client enters the second stage of labor, nurse Blessy notes that her amniotic fluid is port-wine colored. What
does this finding suggest?
A. Increased bloody show
B. Normal amniotic fluid
C. Abruption placentae
D. Meconium

13. Amelia, a 15-year-old, high school student visited the health center for her prenatal check-up. Her last menstrual
period (LMP) was October 10, 2023.
Based on the nurse’s computation utilizing Nagele’s rule, the patient’s expected date of birth (EDB) will be on _____.
A. September 17, 2024
B. June 17, 2024
C. July 17, 2024
D. August 17, 2024

14. The patient asks you, “Which hormone is essential for maintaining pregnancy?”
A. Estrogen
B. hCG
C. Oxytocin
D. Progesterone

15. What is the CORRECT term for a woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses) reaching the
stage of fetal viability?
A. Primipara
B. Primigravida
C. Multipara
D. Nulligravida

16. Which of the following medications may produce a false-negative pregnancy test?
A. Anti-hypertensive
B. Anticonvulsant
C. Diuretic
D. Tranquilizers

17. In Leopold’s FIRST maneuver the nurse palpates the upper abdomen with both hands to determine the __________ of
the form that is found. (Select all that apply)
1. Size 3. Mobility
2. Shape 4. Consistency
A. 1 and 2 C. 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4

18. During the vaginal examination, the nurse palpates the fetal head and a small triangular-shaped fontanelle. The fetal
presentation is _________
A. Face C. Vertex
B. Transverse D. Brow

19. When questioned, Olivia admitted that she sometimes has several glasses of wine with dinner. Her alcohol
consumption puts her fetus at RISK for which condition?
A. Alcohol addiction
B. Anencephaly
C. Learning disability
D. Down Syndrome

20. A 15-year-old, high school student visited the health center for her prenatal check-up. Per the nurse’s initial
assessment, the patient drinks alcohol and smokes cigarettes about 5 sticks. A day for 2 years now. Nurse Elena advised
the patient to quit smoking because nicotine will contribute to _______.
A. Low birth weight infant
B. Ectopic tubal pregnancy
C. Congenital anomalies
D. Large for gestation age infants.
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21. When performing breast self-examination, palpation usually starts at the _________
A. Upper outer
B. Lower outer
C. Inner outer
D. Anywhere

22. When is the BEST time for examination of the breast?

A. 3 to 5 days after the onset of menstruation
B. 3 to 5 days before the onset of menstruation
C. 5 to 7 days after the onset of menstruation
D. 5 to 7 days before the onset of menstruation

23. After assessing the breasts of a female client, the nurse should explain to the client that MOST breast tumors occur in
the
A. Upper inner quadrant
B. Lower inner quadrant
C. Upper inner quadrant
D. Lower outer quadrant

24. The nurse is caring for a client who has had a right-modified radical mastectomy this morning. Which exercise should
the nurse encourage the client to perform this evening?
A. Hair combing exercise with the right arm
B. Wall climbing exercise with the right arm
C. Movement of the fingers and wrists of the right arm
D. Exercise of the left arm only

25. Which item would the nurse keep at the bedside in case of magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Oxygen
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Naloxone
D. Suction equipment

26. The nurse must be alert to MgSO4 toxicity. Which is not included?
A. Fetal bradycardia
B. Urine output of <30 ml per hour
C. Respiration of <12 per min
D. Increase in maternal pulse rate

27. After instructing a primigravida client about how pre-eclampsia can affect the client and the growing fetus, the nurse
realizes that the client needs additional instruction when she says that preeclampsia can lead to which of the following?
A. Hydrocephalic infant
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Intrauterine growth retardation.
D. Poor placental perfusion

28. A woman, 33 weeks pregnant, with preterm rupture of membranes had blood work ordered daily. Which laboratory
report would be MOST important to read daily?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Red Blood Cell Count
C. Sodium and potassium levels
D. White Blood Cell Count

29. Upon ultrasound prior to labor, Nurse Mila discovered that Tricia was told about her expected date of confinement and
the fetus had a breech presentation. The denominator of breech presentation is the:________
A. Head C. Feet
B. Sacrum D. Shoulders

30. Coupled with a history of oligohydramnios, Tricia’s monitor shows variable decelerations indicative of cord
compression. The obstetrician has decided to perform amnion infusion via an intrauterine pressure catheter. Nurse Mila
needs to prepare which solution for this procedure?
A. Lactated Ringer’s
B. Dextrose in water
C. Albumin
D. Fresh frozen plasma

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31. Prior to amnioinfusion, why is it important for the solution to be kept warm to body temperature?
A. To prevent chilling of the woman and the fetus
B. To prevent supine hypotension
C. To prevent cold stress
D. All of the above

32. Parly enters the labor and delivery unit in probable preterm labor at 36 weeks’ gestation. Betamethasone (Celestone) is
prescribed to be administered and the patient asks Nurse Love about the purpose of this medication?
A. Promote fetal lung maturity
B. Prevent the premature closure of the ductus arteriosus.
C. Delay delivery for at least 48 hours
D. Stop the premature uterine contractions.

33. The postpartum nurse is providing instructions to a client after delivery of a healthy newborn. Which time frame
should the nurse relay to the client regarding the RETURN of bowel function?
A. 3 days postpartum
B. 7 days postpartum
C. On the day of delivery
D. Within 2 weeks postpartum

34. The nurse is monitoring a client in the immediate postpartum period for signs of hemorrhage. Which sign, if noted,
would be an EARLY sign of excessive blood loss?
A. A temperature of 100.4°F
B. An increase in the pulse rate from 88 to 102 beats/minute
C. A blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124/80 mmHg
D. An increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 breath/minute

35. The nurse is providing instructions about measures to prevent postpartum mastitis to a client who is breastfeeding her
newborn. Which client statement would indicate a need for further instruction?
A. “I should breastfeed every 2 to 3 hours.”
B. “I should change the breast pads frequently.”
C. “I should wash my hands well before breastfeeding.”
D. “I should wash my nipples daily with soap and water.”

36. A client in a postpartum unit complains of sudden sharp chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client is
tachycardic and the respiratory rate is elevated. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. Which should be the INITIAL
nursing action?
A. Initiate an intravenous line.
B. Assess the client’s blood pressure
C. Prepare to administer morphine sulfate.
D. Administer oxygen, 8 to 10 L/minute, by face mask

37. The nurse is providing instructions to a client who has been diagnosed with mastitis. Which statement, if made by the
client indicates a need for further instructions?
A. “I need to wear a supportive bra to relieve the discomfort.”
B. “I need to stop breastfeeding until this condition resolves.”
C. “I can use analgesics to assist in alleviating some of the discomfort.”
D. “I need to take antibiotics, and I should begin to feel better in 24 to 48 hours.”

38. The rubella vaccine has been prescribed for a new mother. Which statement should the nurse make when providing
information about the vaccine to the client?
A. “You should avoid sexual intercourse for 2 weeks after administration of the vaccine.”
B. “You should not become pregnant for 2 to 3 months after administration of the vaccine.”
C. “You should avoid heat and extreme temperature changes for 1 week after administration of the vaccine.”
D. “You must sign an informed consent because anaphylactic reactions can occur with the administration of this
vaccine.”

39. The nurse prepares a plan of care for the client with preeclampsia and documents that if the client progresses from
preeclampsia to eclampsia, the nurse should take which FIRST action?
A. Administer oxygen by face mask.
B. Clear and maintain an open airway.
C. Administer magnesium sulfate intravenously
D. Assess the blood pressure and fetal heart rate.

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40. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) for induction of labor and notes a nonreassuring
fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern on the fetal monitor. On the basis of this finding, the nurse should take which action FIRST?
A. Stop the oxytocin infusion.
B. Check the client’s blood pressure.
C. Check the client for bladder distention.
D. Place the client in a side-lying position

41. The nurse receives an order to start an infusion for a client whose hemorrhaging due to a placenta previa. What
supplies will be needed?
A. Y tubing, normal saline solution, and 20G catheter
B. Y tubing, lactated Ringers solution, and 18G catheter
C. Y tubing, normal saline, 18G catheter
D. Y tubing, lactated Ringers, 20G catheter

42. A woman in labor is at risk for abruption placenta. Which of the following assessments would MOST convince you
and the pregnant woman to believe that this has happened?
A. Painless vaginal bleeding and downward trend of BP.
B. An increased blood pressure and scanty urination.
C. Pain at the lower quadrant and increased pulse rate.
D. Sharp fundal pain and discomfort between contractions.

43. When Sandy was helped for ambulation for the first time, she mentioned that she had heavy lochial discharge. Which
of the following assessment findings would BEST help the nurse decide that the flow is within normal limit?
A. Her flow is over 500mL
B. The color of the flow is red
C. Her uterus is soft to your touch
D. The flow contains large clots

44. Nurse Adel completed the vaginal examination on the patient. She recorded: 75%, 7cm, 0. Which of the following is a
CORRECT interpretation of the data?
A. Effacement is 5cm completed
B. Fetal presenting part is engage
C. Dilation 75% is completed
D. Acceleration phase off the first stage is about to begin

45. A woman has been rushed to the hospital with ruptured membrane. Which of the following should the nurse check
FIRST?
A. Check for the presence of infection.
B. Assess for Prolapse of the umbilical cord
C. Check the maternal heart rate
D. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid

46. The painful phenomenon known as “back labor” occurs in a client whos fetus in what position?
A. Brow position
B. Righ Occipito-Anterior Position
C. Breech Position
D. Left Occipito-Posterior Position

47. The Ligtas Bunti Campaign of the DOH aims to achieve the following goals EXCEPT:
A. Universal Access to Family Planning
B. Maternal Care Formation
C. Service of Men
D. Service of Aging Couples

48. How can nurse contribute to the improvement of Maternal and Child Health (MCH) in the Philippines? One way is by
knowing the 8 Millennium Development Goals. Which of the TWO of the 8 goals is VERY specific to MCH?
A. Reduce child mortality and improve maternal health
B. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger and achieve universal primary education
C. Promote gender equality and empower women and global partnership for health
D. Combat HIV/AIDS and ensure environmental sustainability

49. Andrea, 29 years old, has just given birth 3 hours ago. The nurse assessed Andrea’s perineum and noticed that the
Lochia discharge was moderate in amount and red in color. What type of Lochia is this? Lochia _____
A. Fireum C. Rubra
B. Serosa D. Alba

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50. An 18-year-old delivers to an 8 pound-baby after 10 hours of labor. In the post-partal period, which of the following
would be a PRIORITY concern to assess for by the nurse?
A. Endometritis
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Bleeding
D. Amniotic embolus

51. The NICU nurse prepares for the arrival of the newborn with myelomeningocele. Which of the following PRIORITY
items should be placed at the newborn’s bedside? A __________
A. Special gravity urinometer
B. Rectal thermometer
C. Blood pressure cuff
D. Bottle of sterile normal saline

52. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele? To ___________.
A. Decrease the risk of infection
B. Correct the neurologic defect
C. Prevent seizure disorders
D. Prevent hydrocephalus

53. A mother of a 3-year-old asks a clinic nurse about appropriate and safe toys for th child. The nurse tells the mother
that the MOST appropriate toy for a 3-year-old is which of the following?
A. Wagon Cart C. A farm set
B. Large block D. Colored mobile

54. The Head nurse of Pediatric Ward asked a staff nurse who is assigned to a 3-month-old infant. At what age will her
patient start to drink from a cup? The staff nurse’s answer should be _______.
A. 12 C. 9
B. 24 D. 5

55. The toddler years are a time of great cognitive, emotional, and social development. The toddler is a child ________
months old.
A. 6 to 12 C. 36 to 48
B. 9 to 36 D. 12 to 36

56. Nurse Linda is attending to a two-year-old Neneng who was admitted due to chronic bronchitis. Lenlen sports a long
hair that extends up to her shoulder. As part of the morning care, Lenlen’s hair into a ponytail. However, Lenlen
vehemently resisted her hair being tied by a rubber band. The BEST thing that Nurse Linda should do is, which of the
following?
A. Nursing Linda decided to style
B. Assert her authority.
C. Deny Lenlen’s preference that a ponytail would make Lenlen’s more beautiful
D. Allow Lenlen’s preference

57. A child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. The nurse should monitor the child CLOSELY for which
problem?
A. Diarrhea
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

58. The goal of a neutral thermal environment is to assist the newborns to stabilize its temperature that DOES NOT drop
below which of the following?
A. 98.6 degrees F
B. 99.5 degrees F
C. 97.7 degrees F
D. 96.7 degrees F

59. A hospitalized child, TJ, 4 years old, being away from his home and normal environment goes through separation
anxiety. Which of the following behaviors might indicate that TJ is in the “denial” stage of separation? He: ___________
A. Searches for the caregiver and waits for her to arrive
B. Quietly lies in the crib when no one is in the room
C. Ignores caregivers when they visit
D. Cries loudly even when being helped by the nurse

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60. After TJ (4-year-old) discharged from the hospital, which behavior might indicate, that he is afraid of another
separation? He: ____________
A. Plays with siblings for long period of time
B. Wakes up very early in the morning
C. Request to visit the nurse at the hospital
D. Carries favorite blanket around the house

61. For an infant born with a unilateral cleft lip and palate, which of the following type of feeding will be BEST to use?
A. Rubber-tipped syringe or medicine dropper.
B. IV fluid on a limited number of ounces.
C. Full breastfeeding
D. Cross-cut rubber nipple.

62. Ringworm, frequently found in school children, is caused by which of the following?
A. Virus
B. Fungus
C. Parasite
D. Bacterial infection

63. Which of the following is usually the ONLY symptom of pediculosis capitis (Head lice)?
A. Itching
B. Vesicles
C. Scalp rash
D. Localized inflammatory response

64. The MOST common symptom of Scabies that the family of a child with scabies would report to the Nurse?
A. Rashes C. Scaling
B. Swelling D. Itchiness

65. In providing health teaching to the family, the Nurse would include in her teaching the etiology of Sacbies which is
___________.
A. Virus C. Bacteria
B. Fungi D. Parasite
66. The mother of an infant asks you when to begin brushing her son’s teeth. Your BEST response would be:
A. As soon as he begins to eat fruit.
B. As soon as the first tooth erupts.
C. When weaning is complete
D. By 12 months of age.

67. When talking with a parent about tooth eruption, the nurse explains that the FIRST deciduous teeth to erupt are the
______ incisors.
A. Lower central
B. Upper central
C. Lower central
D. Upper central

68. The nurse observes a 10-month-old infant using her index finger and thumb to pick up pieces of cereal. This behavior
is evidence that the infant has developed:
A. The pincer grasp
B. A grasp reflex.
C. Prehension ability
D. The parachute reflex

69. Another new mother is concerned about the developmental milestone of her son who is 7 months old. Which of the
following statements by the new mother indicates that your health teaching was effective?
A. “He can crawl”
B. “My son can sit without support”
C. “He can stand up from a sitting position”
D. “He can drink from his training cup with minimal spilling”

70. You encourage a first-timer mother to talk to her child, a 9-month-old girl, who at this age should be ____________
A. Saying “dada”
B. Cooing when talked to
C. Obeying simple commands
D. Vocalizing single syllables

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71. In further applying Essential Newborn Care (ENC), Nurse Nilda keeps in mind that care of the umbilicus should
include _____________
A. Cleansing with cooled, boiled water
B. Covering with a sterile compress
C. Applying antibiotic cream
D. Cleansing with alcohol

72. Administration of vitamin K to the newborn is necessary since _______

A. Newborns have no intestinal bacteria
B. Newborn’s liver is incapable of producing Vit.
C. Hemolysis of fetal RBCs destroys vitamin K
D. Newborns are susceptible to avitaminosis

73. The BEST reason why Nurse Faith opted to review Erickson’s psychosocial theory, which of the following statements?
A. Failure to master these tasks lead to feeling of inadequacy
B. Helps children grow into successful and contributing members society
C. Completion of task results in a sense of competence and healthy personality.
D. We are motivated by the need to achieve competence in certain areas of our lives

74. Dodi, 17 years old, is admitted in a private room due to influenza. In one of Nurse Dina’s conversations with Dodi, the
patient expressed is unhappiness with the program he is taking up in college. This is not his choice but rather the choice of
his parents. In which of Erickson’s stage of development does this care fall?
A. Autonomy versus shame/doubt
B. Integrity versus despair
C. Identity versus role confusion
D. Trust versus distrust

75. A young female patient, believes that doorknobs contaminated with Covid 19 and refuses to touch them except with
the aid of tissue paper. Her diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder constantly does repititive cleaning. The nurse
knows that this behavior is probably MOST basically, an attempt to _________.
A. Decrease the anxiety to a tolerable level
B. Focus attention on non-threatening tasks
C. Control others
D. Decrease time available from interaction with people

76. A 3-year-old child has all of the following abilities. Which did he acquire MOST recently?
A. Walking
B. Throwing a large ball
C. Riding a tricycle
D. Stating his name

77. A mother of a 3-year-old tells a clinic nurse that the child is rebelling constantly and having temper tantrums. The
nurse MOST appropriately tells the mother to:
A. Punish the child every time the child says “no”, to change the behavior
B. Allow the behavior because this is normal at this age period
C. Set limits on the child’s behavior
D. Ignore the child when this behavior occurs

78. The nurse would expect a 4-month-old to be able to:

A. Hold a cup
B. Stand with assistance
C. Lift head and shoulders
D. Sit with back straight

79. The nurse explains that by the age of 6 months an iron-rich formula should be offered because the infant has:
A. Limited ability to produce red blood cells
B. Ineffective digestive enzymes
C. Exhausted maternal iron stores
D. Need of the iron to support dentition

80. The nurse is planning a meal that would provide IRON for a child with bleeding disorders. Which dinner menu would
be the BEST?
A. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, peas, cantaloupe, milk
B. Fish sticks, French fries, banana, cookies, milk
C. Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk
D. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple slices, milk

NCLEX-Based
81. Nico a child diagnosed with hemophilia has slipped on the ice and bumped his knee. Which among the following
should Nurse Apple prepare to administer, as per doctor’s order? Intravenous infusion of _______.
A. Cryoprecipitate
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor X
D. Desmopressin (DDAVP)

82. When counseling parents of a child who has recently been diagnosed with hemophilia, what must Nurse Apple
KNOW about Nico’s condition whose father is normal and the mother is the carrier?
A. It is likely that all sons are affected
B. There is a 50% probability that sons will have the disease
C. Every daughter is likely to be a carrier
D. There is a 25% chance a daughter will be a carrier

83. A nasogastric tube is prescribed to be inserted for a child with severe head trauma. Diagnostic testing reveals that the
child has a basilar skull fracture. What should the nurse do NEXT?
A. Test the gastric content for blood
B. Check patency of airway before nasogastric tube
C. Attempt to place the tube into duodenum
D. Use extra lubrication when inserting the nasogastric tube

84. Physiologic jaundice among newborn babies usually occurs on which of the following? It occurs __________.
A. Within 24 hours from birth
B. 7 days after birth
C. Upon birth
D. Between the 2nd and the 3rd day after birth

85. The parent of a 2-year-old tells the nurse that they are concerned because the toddler has started to use “baby talk”
since the arrival of their new baby. The nurse should recommend that the parents:
A. Ignore the “baby talk”
B. Explain to the toddler that “baby talk is for babies.
C. Tell the toddler frequently, “You are a big kid now.”
D. Encourage the toddler to practice more advanced patterns of speech.

86. Healthy physical development is dependent upon nutrition, brain development, muscle, and bone. Which of the
following is NOT APPROPRIATE for physical development of a preschooler?
A. Sleeps 6 to 8 hours of sleep each day
B. Assist in brushing and flossing teeth
C. Gain 5 pounds per year
D. Eruption of the primary teeth

87. The clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant and notes that the healthcare provider has documented a diagnosis of
suspected Hirschsprung’s disease. The nurse reviews the assessment findings documented in the record, knowing that
which symptom MOST LIKELY led the mother to seek health care for the infant?
A. Diarrhea
B. Projectile vomiting
C. Regurgitation of feeding
D. Foul-smelling ribbon-like stools

88. After a thorough physical examination to a child, laboratory, and diagnostic tests the physician ordered an emergency
open appendectomy due to a suspected ruptured appendicitis. This is done to prevent which of the following MAJOR
complications?
A. Thrombosis C. Perforation
B. Sepsis D. Bleeding

89. The Nurse admitted a child and started to do her assessment. What sign is elicited by the nurse when a deep palpation
of the left iliac fossa is done and causes pain on the right iliac fossa of the patient?
A. Obturator sign C. Psoas sign
B. Blumberg sign D. Rovsing sign

90. As a safety alert, which of the following nursing measures should be AVOIDED by the nurse prior to appendectomy?
A. Observe nothing by mouth
B. Administration of enema
C. Removal of nail polish
D. Instruct to urinate

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91. Which of the following is NOT INCLUDED among the effects of cold stress?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Increase intracranial pressure
D. Cerebral palsy

92. Hypothermia is common in preterm newborns because of their inability to control heat. Which of the following is an
EXCEPTION to the APPROPRIATE nursing intervention to prevent heat loss?
A. Using mechanical pressure
B. Drying and wrapping the baby
C. Placing the crib bedside the wall
D. Doing kangaroo care.

93. A nurse is discussing childhood cancer with the parents of a child in an oncology unit. Which statement by the nurse
would be the MOST accurate?
A. “The most common site for children’s cancer is the bone marrow.”
B. “All childhood cancers have a high mortality rate.”
C. “Children with leukemia have a higher survival rate if they are older than 11 when diagnosed.”
D. “The prognosis for children with cancer isn’t affected by treatment strategies.”

94. A nurse was giving a workshop on the proper implementation of the Unang Yakap Campaign in a certain barangay
when one of the participants asked why this protocol is so important. The nurse CORRECTLY tells the participant that
_________
A. Unang Yakap emphasizes a core sequence of action, performed methodically
B. Unang Yakap is organized so that essential time-bound interventions are not interrupted
C. Fills a gap for a package of bundled interventions in a guideline format
D. All of the above

95. Nurse Andrea observed other details as essential part of the immediate care of a normal newborn which included
_________
A. Skin-to-skin contact followed by incubation
B. Stimulating by slapping the baby’s buttocks
C. Removing used cloth & replacing with dry cloth
D. Deep suctioning of the airway to remove mucus

96. The patient has been seen crying and irritable. As her nurse, you know that patient is experiencing “baby blues”.
Which is the BEST description of her condition? It is a condition in which the patients experiences some feeling of
________.
A. Excitement C. Sadness
B. Euphoria D. Anxiety

97. A client’s vital signs following delivery are: (Day 1) BP - 116/72, T - 98.6, P - 76; (Day 2) BP - 114/80, T - 100.6, P -
76; (Day 3) BP - 114/80, T - 101.6, P - 80. The nurse should suspect which of the following about the client’s status?
A. Is hydrated
B. May have an infection
C. Has normal vital signs
D. Is going into shock

98. What is the condition of Ivana if pinkish-red or reddish-brown-colored vaginal discharge continues to occur after 3 to
4 weeks after birth with fever, pain, and abdominal tenderness?
A. Vaginitis C. Mastitis
B. Cervicitis D. Endometritis

99. The space of the menstrual cycle that promotes the uterine lining to grow and thicken to an 8-10 fold rate is, which of
the following?
A. Menstruation C. Ischemic
B. Proliferative D. Secretory

100. The newly hired nurse asks for advice from the supervisor. Supervisor noticed that the newly hired nurse felt uneasy
upon learning that the fetus was on breech presentation. Which of the following is the BEST RESPONSE by the
supervisor?
A. “I understand how you feel. Tell me more”
B. Is this your first time to witness a breech presentation
C. Are you afraid to assist the case”
D. “Don’t worry. There’s always a first time”

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