CODE-A

08/04/2024

2024A Aakash
Medicall IT-JEE|Foundations 720
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AIM - 720
(Aduanced INTENSIVE Mastery for T20)
MM :720
cc-115 CST -4 TimeaHB 20 Mins.
CC-115 CC-115
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
There are two sections in each subject, ie. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(0) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any
on the Answer sheet.
other rubbing material

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4 When a charge of 10 coulomb is taken very slowly
1 A travelling wave is established on a string. If the from one point to another point separated by a
tension in the string is changed by 1%, then the distance of 0.4 m, work of 4 J is required to be
change in transverse wave velocity is done. What will be the potential difference
(1) 0.5% (2) 1% between two points?
(3) 2% (4) 1.5% (1) 0.8 volt (2) 0.2 volt
2 The displacement equation of a particle in SHM is (3) 0.4 volt (4) 1 volt
y= tosin
2it. The initial posihd
6 of the 5 A Feotángilar boat having a lehgth
6f 5 m and
width of 4 m is floating in water. The boat sinks by
particle from mean position is
3 mm when a man gets on it. The masSs of the man
(1) 5/3 m (2) 5 m
(1) 24 kg (2) 60 kg
(3) 10 m (4) 2.5/3 m
(3) 72 kg (4) 10 kg
3 The value of dielectric constant Kof a conductor is
(1) Zero
6 The percentage increase in length of a rectangular
thick sheet is 0.20% when it is heated from 0°C to
(2) 4 100°C. The percentage increase in its volume is
(3) 9
(1) 0.3% (2) 0.6%
(4) Infinite
(3) 0.7% (4) 0.9%
(1)
 AIM -720
CST-4_(Code-A)
in
7 The molecule of a N2 gas possess Wavelengtths of a given light wave in air and
12. 2000 respectively. The
Å

are 4000 and

A
(1) 3 translational is
degrees of freedom given pair of media
medium
(2) 5 degrees of freedom critical angle for the
ignoring vibration
(3) 9 degrees of freedom if it (2) 60
is free to vibrate (1) 45°
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) 37°
(3) 30° water in
8. For a given mass of an ideal gas, of raising 200 kg of
the correct curve 13. A motor is capable m
between density of gas and temperature at a
5 minutes from well
at 60 m deep. Ifg= 10 s2
Constant pressure is average power off the motor
PA then minimum value of

(2) 200 W
(1) (2) (1) 400 W
(4) 300 W
(3) 600 W
CC-115 T(K) CC-115TK) 14. A ob-of5ass 2 kg is tied witD tgitope whose
PA PA
a
other end is fixed at the roof of cart
as shown. If
with horizontal
the cart suddenly starts
(3) acceleration of 5 m s-2, then maximum angle
(4)
subtended with vertical is

T) T(K)
9. The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is
given by By = 3 x 10-5sin(10x + 6.29 x 101°0).
Here x is in (m) and t is in (s). The wavelength of
the electromagnetic wave nearly is
(1) 6.28 cm (2) 3.14 cm
(3) 0.63 cm
(1) 45°
(2) tan"
(4) 0.32 cm
10. The image I of real object O formed by a lens is
a
as shown in figure, this is possible if (3) 2tan (4) 90°

15. Two identical circular loops of copper wire are

lying close on a smooth horizontal table without
touching each other as shown. Loop A carries a
current which decreases with time. In response,
the loop B
(1) A convex lens is placed to the left of.O
(2) A concave lens is placed to the left of O
(3) A convex lens is placed between O
and /
(4) concave
A
lens is placed to the right of /
11. In Young's double slit experiment, the wavelength
of the light used is doubled and
ditanc between
two slits is halved, the resultànt ringe width
(1) remain stationary
15
(2) ls attracted by the loop A
CC-115
becomes
(1) 2 times (2) 3 times (3) Is repelled by the loop A
(3) 4 times (4) 1/2 times (4) Will start revolving
around A
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AIM -720 CST-4_(Code-A)
from
16. An AC voltage source is connected to a capacitor 20. The distance travelled by a particle starting
oT
Cand inductor Las shown. Test and moving with uniform acceleration
40 S2 ms in the fourth second is
(1) 3.2 m (2) 2.3 m
(3) 2.1 m (4) 1.2 m
00000 kinetic
21. pressure of a gas is tripled, then average
If
30 S2 energy per unit volume of gas will be
(1) Half of its initial value
V= V,sin100zt (2) Triple of its initial value
The phase difference between the current Ih
and (3) One third of its initial value
I2 is (4) One fourth of its initial value
(1) c-115 (2) 53° cC-115 22. Monachromatic light of
requee x 1015 Hzis
is produced by a laser. emitted
(3) 90° (4) 180° 5 x 10-3 W. The number of photons emitted
per
17. A ball of mass m is dropped from a height H, second is
1014
strikes the ground and rebounds to half the height (1) 3.5 x 1014 (2) 9.5 x
from which it was dropped. The magnitude of (3) 9.5 x 1018 x
(4) 6 1014
impulse imparted to the ball is a
23. The radius of spherical nucleus
as measured by
(1) (2) (v2+1)myg electron scattering is 4.8 fm. What the mass
(v2-t)m\gi number of the nucleus most likely x be? Given
to
m average radius (Ro) of nucleus is 1.2 10-15 m.
(3) m/2gH (4)
(1) (4)13 (2) 8
s- at an (3) 27 (4) 64
18. A ball is projected with velocity 30 m
24. Mobilites of electrons and holes in a sample of
angle of 60° with the horizontal direction. The intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature are
speed of the ball at highest point of its trajectory 0.72 m2 V-1 s- and 0.24 m² V-1 s-1l respectively. If
will be
the electron and hole densities are equal to
(1) 5 m s-1 (2) 10 m s-1 5.4 x 1019
m-3 the semiconductor conductivity is
(3) 18 ms-1 (4) 15 m s-1 (1) 8.3 S m-1 (2) 4.2 S m-!
(4) 2.24 S m-1
19. The acceleration 'a' of a particle moving along (3)1.32 S m-1
X-axis is given as a = 2x?, The acceleration versus 25. ChoOse the option among the following which
position (a -
x) graph for the particle is best represents forward biased diode.
represented by (1)
-5 VW-2V
(2)
-4 VW4V
(1) (2) (3) O
V2V
(4)
VKW
O
-2V
>X 26 The anglar velocity of a rod is 10 rad/s. It is
subjected to an angular acceleration of 2 rad/s²,
CC-/5 THeengtiâr velocity of the rod after4seconds will
(3) (4) be
(1) 18 rad/s (2) 26 rad/s
(3) 8 rad/s (4) Zero
>X

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cST-4(Code-A) AIM -720
27. A body of mass m is to be projected vertically The unit Wb/m² is equal to
32.
upwards from the surface of earth such that it
never returns to the surface. The minimum (1) joule (2) henry
energy that should be imparted to kinetic (3) volt (4) tesla
the body for this 33. An infinite current carrying wire is bent as shown
will be (Radius of earth = R)
in figure. The magnetiC field due to the wire at
(1) 2mgR
1 point O is
(2)

mgR R
(3) (4) mgR
4
28. Metal wire of length 40 m and area of cross
section 2 cm² when subjected to longitudinal force
of 1000 N (acting opposite to each other (1)
4R
(2) Mo1.1)
ends) stretches by 10 cm. Young'Amodulys
along its 2R2
of the
metais-115 (4)
(1) 8 GPa (2) 4 GPa
(3) 2 GPa 34. A superconductor exhibits perfect
(4) 1 GPa
(1) Diamagnetism (2) Paramagnetism
29. Assertion (A): If a particle iS moving on a straight
line with constant speed, then angular momentum (3) Ferromagnetism (4) None of these
35. Which of the following data consists of highest
of this particle about any point remains constant.
number of significant figures?
Reason (R): Angular momentum of a particle is (1) 8.003 (2) 0.00456
independent of the point of observation.
(3) 0.02345 (4) 0.12400
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
SECTION-B
explanation of (A) 36. When an electron of hydrogen atom jumps from
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the its third orbit to the first orbit, one gets the
Correct explanation of (A) (1) First line of Lyman series
(3) (A) is true, (R)is false (2) First line of Paschen series
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (3) Second line of Balmer series
30. The relaxation time of electrons in conductors (4) Second line of Lyman series

Increases with increase in temperature

(1) 37. Dimensional formula of (H€, )2 is
(2) Decreases with increase in temperature
(1) [L-12TI2] (2) [L12T-12]
(3) Is independent of temperature (3) [L-T] (4) (LT']
(4) Changes suddenly at 100°C 38. A wooden plank of mass 4 kg and length 6 m is
31. The potential of the point C in the following circuit is supported on two knife edges fixed at the ends of
A
the plank. If the reaction at knife 1 is three times
that at knife 2 (as shown), then centre of mass of
14 V plank will be at

Ccs W

efi15 CC-115 6m
52 Knife 1 Knife 2
(1) 4 V (2) –4 V (1) 4.5 m from knife 1 (2) 2.5 m from knife 1
(3) -
14 V (4) 0V (3) 4.5 m from knife 2 (4) 1.5 m from knife 2

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AIM -720 CST-4_(Code-A)
39. Two particles of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are placed 42. Ihe magnetic field through a conducting circular
100 m apart and the particle of 6 kg is fixed. If ToO or area A varies with time as shown beloW.
4 kg starts approaching towards 6 g then its The field is perpendicular to the loop. Plot between
speed when the distance between them becomes the induced emf (E in the loop as the function ol
10 m, will be time () is best described by (Given Bo and Eo are
3/3G V24G constant)
(1) (2)
5 5 B
V48G 3/6G
(3) (4) B,
5 5

40. A block of mass m is kept on a wedge of mass M as

shown in fgure. The wedge is mpyed yggpplying CC-160° 30ts)5
force P such that mass m remains stationary w.r.t. t,
wedge. The magrnitude of force P is
E
[Assuming all surfaces to be frictionless]

t
p (1)
>M
-Eo

(1) ZerO (2) Mg tanß E

(3) mg tanß (4) (M + m)g tanß
41. In the context of alternating current, which of the
(2)
following is incorrectly matched?
A. In purely capacitive Current leads voltage by
circuit

B. In purely resistive Current and voltage are

circuit in phase (3)
-Eo
C. JIn series LCR circuit, Power factor of the
if Xc= XL then circuit is equal to1
E
D.In purely inductive Voltage lags current by
circuit E
CC-115 2 CC-115 (4pC-15 CC-115
t,
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

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 AIM -720
cST-4_(Code-A)
cire it
The objective lens of a compound microscope 48. The energy stored in 4 uF capacitor in the
43.
produces magnification of 20. In order to get an shown is
overall magnification of 120 when image is formed
at 25 cm from the eye-piece lens, the focal length 90 2 uF
of the eye lens should be
(1) 150 cm (2) 10 cm 4 uF 2 uF
(3) 6 cm (4) 5 cm
44. In a Fraunhoffer diffraction at single slit of width d
(1) 4050 uJ (2) 2000 uJ
with incident light of wavelength 5000 A, if the first
(3) 3030 LJ (4) 1050 J
minimum is observed at angle 30°, then value of d
is (Symbols have usual meaning) 49. In the given circuit, find the value of resistance R
so that the power dissipation in 4 S2 resistor is
(1) 5 um (2) 1 um
maximum
(3) 10 m (4) 1 mm
CC-115Y 4Q
45. An aeroplang of weight 8* 10 Úend total wing
area of 400 m² is in a level flight at some height.
e115
The difference in pressure between the upper and
lower surfaces of its wings are (g= 10 m/s2)
22
(1) 2 KPa (2) 30 kPa
(3) 20 kPa (4) 15 kPa
46 28 gm of N2 at 27°Cis mixed with 32 gm of O2 at 2 Q*
57°C. The temperature of the mixture in
equilibrium is equal to (1) 15, (2)
(1) 50°C (2) 42°C
(3) 61°C (4) 75°C 37 (4) Zero
(3)
47. Electric field in a region is uniform and is given by 2
E=(2i +3j +k ]NIC. The value of electric flux
50. Ifan electron approaches the p-njunction from the
n-side with a. speed of 8 x 105 m s-1, with what
associated with surface of area =(nR²i)m is speed willitenter the p-side? Assume the
potential barrier of the p-n junction to be 0.6 V
(1) zR? (2) 3nR2 (1) 6.2 *105 m/s (2) 3.4 x 10 m/s
(3) 2rR? (4) Zero (3) 6.5 x 105 m/s (4) 7.7 x 10® m/s

BOTANY
SECTION-A 52. Sequence annotation refers to
51. Select the correct statement w.r.t prokaryotic (1) Introduction of vector DNA into the host
DNA replication. genes expressed as RNA
in E.coli is (2) ldentifying
(1) The average rate of polymerization
1000 bp per second. (3) Finding chromosomes where disease
(2) The replication occurs withina small opening associated sequences are present
oftheDNA helix. CC-115. CC-115 C-115
(3) DNA polymerase on their own can initiate the (4) Blind approach of sequencing the whole set of
process of replication. genome and later assigning different regions
(4) Ribonucleoside triphosphates provide energy in the sequence with functions.
for polymerisation reaction.
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AIM -720 CST-4(Code-A)
53. Cistron is 60. Hydrilla and Zostera are pollinated by
(1) Sequence of bases that appears in mature (1) Wind (2) Insects
rRNA
(3) Water (4) Lemur
Composed of only promoter and regulatory
(2)
sequences 61. Match the column- with column-1.
(3) Single base DNAdifferences Column-l Column-ll
(4) A segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide Aleurone layer () Diploid
54. In the nucleus, repeating unit of 'beads-on-string' Nucellus (ii) Triploid
structure is composed of
C. Antipodal cells (i) Polyploid
(1) Histone octamer and DNA
d. Tapetal cells (iv) Haploid
(2) Only non-histone chromosomal proteins and
RNA Select the correct option
CC-115
(3) Oniyi fistone and DNA afn,. b), cy), d(i) (2) af
bo(i1), d(i)
(4) Only RNA and DNA (3) a(i), b(ii), c), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(i), d(i)
55. RuBisCO 62. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Is a bifunctional enzyme
(2) Requires NADPH to perform its function (1) Alexander von - Observed that species
Humboldt richness increased with
(3) Uses a 2C compound as its substrate
increasing explored area
(4) Is present in mesophyll cells of maize plant up to a limit
56. Which of the following cycle/pathway occurs in all
photosynthetic plants? (2) Edward Wilson-Popularised the term
(1) Hatch and Slack pathway Biodiversity
(2) Calvin pathway
(3) Robert May - Estimated the global
(3) C+ pathway
species diversity at about
(4) CAM pathway 1.5 million
57. In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells along.
(4) David Tilman Found that increased
the veins modify themselves into large, empty and
colourless cells. These cells are called diversity contributed to
(1) Subsidiary cells (2) Buliform cells higher productivity
(3) Lenticels (4) Companion cells 63. When red flower of Antirrhinum was crossed with
58. Select the incorrectly matched pair. its white flower, in Fi generation all
the progenies
(1) Secondary cortex -Phellogen obtained were pink flowered. What would
be the
(2) Interfascicular cambium -Lateral meristem probability of getting progenies with
atleast one
(3) Cork -Phellem recessive allele for flower colour in
the F,
(4) Secondary xylem Wood generation if the pink flowered plant
is selfed?
59. Whicu pjart;tyormone was first isolated frorg human (ipe-115 (2) CC-115
urine?
4
(1) Kinetin (2) Ethylene
(3) (4) Zero
(3) Auxin (4) Gibberellin 4

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 AIM
-720
CST-4_(Code-A)
Which among the following characters was not
68.
Which among the following genetic disorders is by Mendel in pea plant for
his
64. studied experiment?
the result of non-disjunction of pair of a particular Stem height (2) Flower shape
(1)
autosomes during gamete formation and its (4) Seed shape
(3) Pod shape
fusion? following structures plays arole in the
(1) Klinefelter's syndrome 69. Which of
the
origin of
plasmodesmata?
(2) Haemophilia
(1) Cell wall
(3) Turner's syndrome
(2) Cellmembrane
(4) Down's syndrome
(3) MesSosome
Given below are two statements.
65. (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
Assertion (A): Dominance is an autonomous 70. Lysosome maintains its acidic condition
by
it has
feature of a gene or the product that it
informa for. (bBumpgg protons out of CC-115
Reason (R): Dominant genes stop the Cvities of (2) Pumping protons into its interior
pump
mutant genes. (3) Operating Na/K* exchange
it
In the light of above statements choose the (4) Pumping CO2 inside
correct answer from the options given below. 71. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
narrow
(1) Columnar epithelial- Long and
explanation of (A) cells
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false (2) White blood cells Amoeboid structure
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false
(3) Nerve cell
- Branched and long
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) (4) Mesophyll cells Branched and
elongated
66. Which among the following is not an ex-situ
pg in G1
conservation strategy? 72. there are 40 chromosomes and 20 DNA
If

(1) Wildlife sanctuary (2) Botanical garden phase of a cell then what will be the chromosome
in Gz
(4) Wildlife safari park number and amount of DNA respectively
(3) Zoological park
phase of this cell?
67. In eukaryotes, the pyruvate undergoes oxidative (1) 40 and 20 pg (2) 80 and 40 pg
decarboxylation in and this complex set of (4) 80 and 20 pg
(3) 40 and 40 pg
B
reactions is catalysed by 73. Resting phase of cell cycle represents the phas
Choose the correct option for A and
B. between
(1) M phase and G1 phase
A B
(2) G1 phase and S phase
(1) Inner mitochondrial Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(3) G2 phase and M phase
membrane
(4) TwO successive M phases
(2) Cytosol Phosphofructokinase
CC-115 CC-115 14. Ina,typiça! human cell, cell djvision Roper lasb
(3) Mitochondrial Pyruvate for only'abOut
matrix dehydrogenase (1) 24 hours (2) 90 minutes
(4) Cytoplasm Alcoho! dehydrogenase (3) 1
hour (4) 23 hours

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AIM -720 cST-4_(Code-A)

75. Read the following statements and select the 79. Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct option. (1) Ten percent law of energy transter
Assertion (A):Cytotaxonomy is based on ecosystem was proposed by Lindeman n
cytological information like chromosome number, 1942.
structure, and behaviour. (2) Standing crop is the amount of all the

Reason (R): Cytotaxonomy uses the chemical Inorganic substances present in an ecosystem
per unit area at a given time.
constituents of the plant for classification.
(3) Standing state is amount of living material
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct a
present in different trophic levels at given
explanation of (A) time.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (4)Occurrence of food webs do not provide
correct explanation of (A) stability to ecosystem
trug and (R) is false CC-115
(3) (6ts 80. Réad the following statementsCC-115
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false on the
Statement-A: Families are characterised
76. Which of the following statements is incorrect? basis of both vegetative and reproductive features
(1) Algae are chlorophyll bearing, simple, thalloid
of plant species.
autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms. Statement-B: With increase in taxonomic
hierarchy there is decrease in number of
common
(2) Some of the algae also occur in association
characteristics.
with fungi and animals.
Select the correct option.
(3) Anisogamous sexual reproduction is present
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
in some species of Chlamydomonas.
(2) Only statement is incorrect
B

(4) Oogamous sexual reproduction is present in:

(3) Both statements A and B are correct
Volvox but not in Fucus.
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
77. Mark the incorrectly matched pair.
81. The two kingdom classification system did not
(1) Citric acid - Employed in dyeing, inks, consider which of the following characteristics?
medicines, flavouring and (1) Presence or absence of cell wall
preservation of food
(2) Response to external stimulus
(2) Acetic acid - Used in preparation of vinegar (3) Locomotion
(3) Butyric acid – Used for making rancid butter (4) Body organisation
(4) Lactic acid - Contains a number of vitamins 82. Mark the mis-matched pair.
especially vitamin A (1) Rhizobium Symbiotic N2 fixing
78. Organisms which are tolerant of a wide range of bacteria
salinities are called (2) Nitrosomonas Nitrifying bacteria
(1) Stenothermal
SC:115 CC-115 Ehgbium Perfom-oxygenic
(2) Eurythermal. photosýrthesis
(3) Euryhaline (4) Anabaena Associated with
(4) Stenohaline coralloid roots

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cST-4_(Code-A) AIM-7 20

92 Which of the following features is/are common to d

both stilt roots and prop roots? (1) T T F
a. Assimilatory in function F T
(2) T
h Modified adventitious roots
(3) F F F T
C. Provide mechanical support
The correct one(s) is/are (4) F F T

(1) a and b (2) Only b 89. A shows apical dominance which is inhibited
(3) b and c (4) Onlyc C
by B showing effects.
R4 Inmaize seed, the outer covering of endosperm
separates the embryo by a proteinaceous layer, the blanks with correct option.
Fillin

called (1) B- Cytokinin, C Synergistic -

(1) Radicle (2) Plumule (2) A-Auxin, C- Antagonistic
(4) Aleurone layer
(3) Scutellum
CC-115 115 of (BAgin, C - Synergistic cc-115
Ga
85. The floral formula > Ky Cs A, is (4) A-Cytokinin, C
-Antagonistic
(1) Aloe and tulip 90. Given below are twO statements
(2) Tomato and brinjal Statement-A: Double fertilisation includes
(3) Sesbania and Trifolium syngamy and triple fusion.
(4) Mustard and cabbage Statement-B: After triple fusion, central cell
SECTION-B
becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC).
A6. Wnich of the following enzymes joins the In the light of above statements, choose the
discontinuously synthesized fragments during Correct option.
DNA replication?
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) DNA polymerase (2) Only statement A is correct
(2) DNA igase
(3) Only statémernt B is correct
(3) Polynuleotide phosphorylase
(4) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
87. Which of the following features is not exhibited by 91. If a female, who is a carrier of colourblindness
most genetic codes? marriesa colourblind male.
(1) Ambiguous (2) Degenerate onsidering this which of the following statements
(3) (4) Nearly universal is said to be false?
Non-overlapping
88. State true(T) or false(F) to the given statements (1) It is a sex-linked recessive disorder and it is
and mark the correct option. transmitted from carrier female to male
a. Epidermal hairs on the stem are always progeny
multicellular. (2) Probability of their children to be affected with
b. In roots, cuticle is absent. this disorder is 25%
C. Subsidiary cells regulate the opening and (3) 50% of male progenies will be affected
closing of stomata. (4) Half of the female progenies will be carrier of
d. Walls of guard cells towards the stomatal pore this trait
are thin and the walls away from the stomatal occur
pofeare highly thickened. CC-115 92. Hoggnanz decarboxylation reaction(s, will
in one Krebs cycle?
e. Irichomes are soft or stiff, help in preventing
(1) Four (2) One
Water loss due to transpíration and may be
(3) Three (4) Two
branched or unbranched.

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AIM -720 cST-4_(Code-A)
93 Single membrane bound structures involved in 98. Which of the following statements is true
photorespiration in plant cells are regarding secondary treatment of sewage?
(1) Glyoxysomes (2) Peroxisomes (1) removes grit and large amount of organiG
t
(3)
matter
Spherosomes (4) Mitochondria
(2) involves shredding, churning, filtration arnd
94. Ifa cell has twice as much DNA as in a normal
sedimentation
functional cells, it means the cell (3) It does not require aeration
(1) Has completed division (4) It involves microbial digestion of organiG
(2) Has ceased to function matter.
99. Match the column- vith column-ll and choose the
(3) Is preparing to divide correct option.
(4) Has entered in quiescent phase Column-1 Column-I|
95. In whid-oft5e following algae fl6rideáí Starch is
a.ClagelEted (i) Plasmbdiù áînalarial
present as stored food? protozoans parasite humans
(1) Volvox (2) Ectocarpus b. Ciliated (ii) Silica shells in some
(3)Sargassum (4) Porphyra protozoans forms
96. Which of the following statements is incorrect C. SporOzoans (i) Fresh water or marine,
w.r.t. to exponential growth? few parasite
d. Amoeboid (iv) The parasitic forms
(1) The intrinsic rate of natural increase is called
protozoans cause diseases, such as
biotic potential ()
sleeping sickness
(2) The integral form of exponential growth
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(i), ci), d(i)
equation will be N= Noet (3) a(ü), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(i)
dN 100. ldentify the folloving statements as true(T) or
(3) =rN describes geometric growth false(F) and choose the correct option.
dt
A. In vexillary aestivation, the large posterior
(4) This type of population grovth does not result petal is called-standard, tvio lateral ones are
in J shaped curve wings and two small anterior petals are termed
keel.
97. Read the follovwing statements and select the
B. Leaves originate from shoot apical
correct option. meristems
and are arranged in an acropetal order.
Statement-A: The entire series of communities C. In some plants such as bean, gram
and pea,
that successively change in a given area is called the endosperm is present in mature seeds and
Sere. such seeds are called endospermic seed.
D. The opposite type of phyllotaxy
Statement-B: Xerarch succession takes place in is seen in
Calotropis and guava plants.
dry areas like rock, sand and saline conditions.
A D
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Öas statement B is correct CC-115
(1b&-115 F
Co-115
(2) F T T
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (3) T F

(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) T F F

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 CST-4_(Code-A) AIM -720

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
.i 105. Which the following statements is not true wrt
of

101, Crocodilus and Omithorhynchus are similar to cancer?

each other in all of the following features, except (1) Computed tomography uses X-rays to
generate a 3-D image of the internals of an
(1) Presence of four chambered heart object and is very useful to detect cancers of
(2) Internal fertilisation the internal organs.
(3) Oviparity (2) Neoplastic cells compete with normal cells for
nutrients.
(4) Homeothermy
(3) The physical carcinogens present in tobacco
102. In humans, the type of specialised connective smoke have been identified as a major cause
x
tissuehanhed is present in thetip of hose. The Celyngcancer. CC-115
intercellular material of 'X is (4) C-onc have been identified in normal cells
which, when activated under certain
(1) Hard and non-pliable conditions, could lead to oncogenic
(2) Solid and non-pliable transformation of the cell
106. Match the following columns and select the
(3) Solid and pliable
correct option.
(4) Calcified and pliable Column | Column I|
103. of the following are probable reasons for
All
a. Arachidonic acid () Homopolymer of
increased growth rate of human population, glucose
except b. RuBisCO (iü) Amino sugar

(1) Decline in maternal mortality rate C. N-acetyl (ii) 20 carbon fatty acid
(2) Decline in infant mortality
rate
galactoamine
d.
Cellúlose (iv) Most abundant
(3) Rapid decline in death rate
protein in of the
(4) Decline in number of people in reproducible biosphere
age (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d() (2) a(), b(iv), c(ii), d()
104. Assertion (A): DNA ligase acts on cut. DNA (3) a(i), b(i), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d)
molecules and joins their ends. 107. Choose the incorrect match.

Reason (R): DNA ligase is called molecular glue.

(1) Allergy -lgE antibodies
In the light of above statements, select the correct
(2) MALT - Constitute 20 per cent of total
lymphoid tissue in humans
option. (3) HIV RNA acts as genetic material
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (4) Bone marroW- Primary lymphoid organ
explanation of (A) 108. In humans, when the muscle fibres are in
maximally contracted state
(2) Eoth. (Aand (R) are true, but (R) is,not the
(1CThe lppgth of A' bands getreduced
correct explanation of (A) (2) 'H' zone disappears
(3) (A)is true, (R) is false (3) The size of' bands increases
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true (4) 'Z' line attached to actins are pulled outwards

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 AIM -720
CST-4_(Code-A)
109. Neurons are excitable cells because their
115. Darwin was influenced by the work of Malthus.
membranes are in a According to Thomas Malthus,
(1) Polarised state (2) Depolarised state (1) The populations remain
nearly stable In Siz
(3) Hyperpolarised state (4) Repolarised state except for seasonal fluctuations.
110. What is the pitch of B-DNA? (2) Theoretically not all population have an
Inherent capacity to increase its number
(1) 34 Å (2) 3.4 A exponentially when everybody in the
(3) 34 nm (4) 0.34 Å population reproduces maximally.
111. The cutting of DNA at specific locations
became (3) Natural resources are unlimited in the nature.
possible with the discovery of so called (4) Nature does not keep a control over the size
(1) DNA polymerases (2) Restriction enzymes of population.
116. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. functions of
(3) DNA ligases (4) Taq polymerases androgens in humans.
112. Matcir the coiumn Iwith column s2Rlect the
añd (1Ç&eulte development, Coatuation and
correct option W.r.t. pBR322. functions of the male accessory sex organs.
(2) They play a major regulatory role in the
Column | Column l| process of spermatogenesis.
a. ori () Codes for the proteins (3) They act on the central neural system and
involved in replication of the influence the male sexual behaviour.
plasmid (4) They have catabolic effects on proteins.
117. Read the following features.
b. rop (ii) Acts as selectable marker a. Alveolar walls are damaged
C. BamHI (ii) Controls copy number of b. Allergic inflammation of bronchi and
the linked DNA bronchioles
C. Respiratory surface area
(iv) Present at the site of is decreased
Which of the above given features islare related to
tetracycline resistance gene disorder whose one of the major cause is cigarette
(1) a(i), bii), c(iv) (2)
a(i), b{iv), c(i) smoking?
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(i), c(iv)
(1) a'and b (2) only a
113. Complete the analogy and select the correct
(3) a and c (4) only c
118. The penis is the male external genitalia, made up
option. of special tissue that helps in erection of penis to
Ketonuria :
Ketone bodies in urine :: GIlycosuria (1) Facilitate spermiation
(2) Prevent fertilization
(1) Glycogen in urine (2) Glucose in urine (3) Facilitate insemination
(3) Glucose in blood (4) Glycogen in blood (4) Decrease libido
114. All of the following hormones are steroidal in 119. Consider the following features.
nature, except a. Sexes are not separate
(1) Cortisol b. ShoWs endoparasitism
CC-115 c.CAbsençe of coelomic cavityCC-115
(2) EoInebhiine All of the above mentioned
features belong to
(3) Testosterone (1) Planaria (2) Taenia
(4) Progesterone (3) Ascaris (4) Hirudinaria

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 CST-4_(Code-A) AIM
-720
120. Which of the following structures leave the testis 127. What is the prosthetic group oT an enzyme that
and open into epididymis located along the catalyses the breakdown of H202?
Dosterior surface of each testis? (2) Haem
(1) Zinc
(1) Vas deferens (2) Seminiferous tubule
(3) Niacin (4) Magnesium
(3) Vasa efferentia (4) Ejaculatory duct
128. Consider the given diagram and select the correct
121. Choose the odd one w.r.t. parts of Cannabis option w.r.t. it.
sativa used in preparation of various types of
drugs.
(1) Flower tops (2) Leaves
(3) Resins (4) Roots
122. In the blood vascular system of frog, the ventricle Man Cheetah Whale Bat
opens into which of the following structures?
(1) Sinus veposus (2) Conus arteriosus
(3) Right atrium (4) Left' cC5
123. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
diaphragms used for contraception?
(1) They are used only by females
(2) They are reusable
(3) They are barriers made of rubber
(4) They protect the user from STIs (1) Represents example of analogous structure
124. In which year, an American company got patent (2) Structures given perform similar function i.e.,
rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent and locomotion but have anatomical dissimilarities
Trademark Office? (3) Given structures- are result of convergent
(1) 1997 (2) 1951 evolution
(3) 1947 (4) 1999 (4) Given
forelimbs indicate common ancestory
125. Choose the correct pathway of gases during the 129. Which of the following the Common
expiration in humans. characteristic of all vertebrates without any
(1) Pharynx Larynx exception?
Bronchi Bronchiole
(1): Presence of paired appendages
Alveoli
(2) Presence of external fertilization
(2) Alveoli Larynx > Bronchi Pharýnx
(3) Pelvic fins bear claspers
Nasal chamber
(3) Alveoli Bronchioles Bronchi >Larynx (4) Presence of ventral heart
Pharynx 130. The cranial capacity of A was more
than that
(4) Pharynx Larynx Bronchi Secondary of B
bronchioles Terminal bronchioles Alveoli
126. Which of the following structures have ploidy
2n' Select the option that correctly identifies 'A' and
and 'n' respectively? 'B'.
(1) Spermatids, spermatozoa A B
(2) Spâriatds, secondary spermatòcytEs (1btomggabilis Neandertha gan
(3) Spermatogonium, primary spermatocytes (2) Homo erectus Homo habilis
(4) Primary spermatocytes, secondary (3) Homo habilis Homo erectus
spermatocytes (4) Homo erectus Neanderthal man
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 AIM -720 CST-4_(Code-A)
431, What is the number of documented varieties of 137. Which of the following hormones acts mainly on
Basamati rice that are grown in India? hepatocytes and adipocytes and enhances
(1) 200,000 (2) 27 cellular glucose uptake?
(3) 270 (4) 200 (1) Insulin (2) Glucagon
132. Which of the following organisms belongs to the (3) Epinephrine (4) GluCOcorticoids
largest phylum of kingdom Animalia and is not 138. Arrange the following blood cells in increasing
economically beneficial?
order of their percentage count in blood of an adult
(1) Laccifer (2) Chaetopleura healthy man.
(3) Locusta (4) Cucumaria Neutrophils b. Monocytes
133. A 24 kb circular plasmid has two restriction sites
C. Basophils d. Erythrocytes
for EcoRIand one restriction site for Hindll. The
plasmid is digested using the EcoRI. The number Select the correct option.
of fragment(s) obtained will be equal to (1)c<b<d<a (2) a <c<b< d

(1) Thte1 15
(3) Two
(2)
(4)
FouCC-115 (3b0sisa<d (4)
ac495d
139. What is the duration of each cardiac cycle in an
One
134. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct adult human under normal conditions?
.option. (1)0.1 second (2) 0.8 seconds
Low temperature: Preserves the enzyme :: High (3) 0.3 seconds (4) 0.2 seconds
temperature: 140. Which of the following structures in human
(1) Temporarily inactivates the enzyme
respiratory system is the common passage for
(2) Optimum activity shown by the enzyme both food and air?
(3) Denatures the enzyme (1) Nasal chamber (2) Trachea
(4) Enzymes become hyperactive (3) Pharynx (4) Larynx
135. Assertion (A): The total number of tarsals in one X*
limb of an adult human is equal to the total nunmber 141. CO, +H,0 H,CO,
of carpals in one limb. Carbon dioxide Water Carbonic acid

Reason (R): The total number of both tarsals and In the above given reaction, enzyme X
carpals in one limb of an adult human is eight. dramatically increases the speed of reaction with
In the light of above statements, select the correct about 600,000 molecules being formed evey
option. second. ldentify 'X and select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct (1) Peroxidase (2) Catalase
explanation of (A) (3) Carbonic anhydrase (4) Carboxypeptidase
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the 142: Read the given statements and choose the
correct explanation of (A) correct option.
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false Statement A: The number of cervical vertebrae
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false are seven in all mammals including humans.
SECTION-B Statemnent B: The sacral vertebrae are fused in
136. How many of the Contraceptive devices mentioned adult humans.
in the box below are not copper releasing IUDs? Statement C: The vertebral column protects
CuT, LNG-20, Lippes loop, Multiload 375, spinal cord and supports the head.
VaS,-Progestasert CC-115 (1LAl $taements A, B and C arirícOfrect
(2) Both statements B and C are
Select the correct option. incorrect
(1) Four (2) Two (3) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) Five (4) Three (4) Both statements A and C are correct

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 AIM
CST-4_(Code-A) -720
a characteristic of an 147. If guanine makes 32%
the of double
143 Which of the folloWing is stranded
DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of
ideal contraceptive?
(1) It should not be
user friendly thymine and adenine in it?
(2) t should interfere with the seXual drive of the Thymine Adenine
User (1) 42% 64%
(3) lt should be effective and reversible
(2) 18% 42%
(4) It should have side effects
(3) 42% 42%
144 Match column and Column
I ll w.r.t. neural system
(4) 18% 18%
in humans.
148. Read the following statements carefully.
Columnl Column I|
a. The replication of the plasmid is dependent
a. Afferent nerve () Transmit regulatory upon the coding strand of genomic DNA,
fbges 15 impulsefrm_CNS to
peripheral drgans b.CÊachl Festriction endonuceaset functions by
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
b. Synaptic vesicles (i) Present in myelinated
neurons of PNS
C. The disarmed Ti plasmid used as vector is
pathogenic to plants.
C. Efferent nerve (ii) Transmit impulses from
organs to CNS Select the correct option.
fibres
(1) a, b and c are correct
d. Nodes of Ranvier (iv) Contain neurotransmitters
(2) a and b are incorrect
(1) a(), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(i) (3) b and c are incorrect
a,

(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c); d(iv)
145. The RBC of a frog is similar to the RBC of a human
(4) a and c are.incorrect
in which of the following aspects?
149. InHardy-Weinberg.equation, the frequency of
homozygous dominant individual is represented
(1) Both are nucleated and contain haemoglobin ,
by.
(2) Both are enucleated and contain haemoglobin
(1) 2pq. (2) pq
(3) Both contain haemoglobin (3), q?
(4) p?
(4) Both are enucleated and do not contain I

haemoglobin 150. Match the column with column Il and select the
correct option.
146. Read the following statements and select the
II
incorrect one. Column | Column
(1) Collecting duct extends from the cortexof a
Tetanus (i) Hallucinogen
kidney to the inner parts of the medulla.
(iüi) Viral
b. Morphine disease
(2) The Henle's loop and vasa recta mainly. play a
Significant role in counter current mechanism. C. Amanita muscaria (ii) Antitoxin that
(3) Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by provides passive
changes blood volume, body fluid volume immunity
egdjoigponcentration.
CC-115 dCeomhon cold (iv) sedas'sedative
(4) The tubular epithelial cells in different
Segments of nephron perform reabsorption by (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(i) (2) a(i), b(), c(iv), d(ii)
active mechanism only. (3) aiv), b(ii), c(ü), d() (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(ü)

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 AIM -720
CST-4_(Code-A)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION A 156. Match list-l with list-||
151. Hybridisation and shape of BrFs is
(1) sp°d and trigonal bipyramidal List-i List-Il (shape)
(Molecules)
(2) sp°d and square pyramidal
(3) spd and square pyramidal a.SO2 (0 Square planar
(4) sp°d and octahedral b.XeF4 ()T-shape
152. The correct order of stability for N2 and its ions is
c.CIF3 (i)Trigonal
(1) N
>N; =N, > N
(2) N > N; =N >N, bipyramidal

(3 NNN;> N (4)
NR; >N, deEt 15 (iv) Berit-115
153. Given below are two statements: one is labelled Choose the correct answer from the options given
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as below.
Reason (R). (1) a(iv), b(), c(üi), d(ii) (2) a(), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
Assertion (A): Boiling point of molal NaCl 1
(3) a(), b(iv), c(iü), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(), c(ii), d(ii)
solutions is same as 1 molal urea solution.
157. At 25°C, molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous
Reason (R): Elevation in boiling point is directly solution of acetic acid is 8.54 ohm-1 cm² mol and
proportional to number of solute particles. at infinite dilution the molar ionic conductance of
Inthe light of the above statements, choose the acetate íon and H ion are 349.6 ohm-' cm² mol-1
most appropriate answer from the options given and 40.9 ohm-! cm² mol-1 respectively. The
below. percentage degree of ionisation of acetic acid is
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (2) 1.093%
(1) 2.186%
correct explanation of (A)
(3) 0.021% (4) 0.109%
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) 158. Nitrobenzene on reaction with lithium aluminium
hydride majorly gives
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
NH,
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
154. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B are
(1)
400 mm Hg and 600 mm Hg respectively at
350 K, then the composition of the liquid mixture
NHOH
will be (Total vapour pressure= 450 mm Hg and
XA and Xe are the mole fraction of component A
(2
and B respectively in liquid mixture)
=
(1) XA= 0.5, Xe = 0.5 (2) XA = 0.75, Xe 0.25
(3)
155. An
Aa9, Xo = 0.75 (4) XA =0,8. 0.2

element with atomic number 37 belongs to

Xp o1t-NH-c.115
(1) s-block (2) p-block (4 -N=N
(3) d-block (4) Fblock

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 AIM -720
is
correct but statement
CST-4_(Code-A) !
Statement I is
(1)
AB2 and AzB3 type of salts
159. Solubility product of AB, x incorrect
at same temperature are 1 x 10-12, 4 10-9 and (2) Statement I is incorrect but
statement I| is
1.08 10-23respectively. The salt having
x maximum
correct
solubility in water is correct
statement Iand statement Il are
(3) Both
(1) AB statement Ilare incorrect
(4) Both statement and
I
(2) AB2 reaction is
163. Major product of the given
(3) AzB3 B,H,THE
(4) All are of same solubility
160. Consider the followingreaction OH
CONH, conc.
(B)
HNO, (C) (1)
.conc. H,SO,
CC-Major CC-11oH CC-115
(A) CC-115
(2)
The product (C) is
ÇOOH COOH (3

(1) (2) oH
OH
(4)
NO,
COOH CN 164. An organic compound (A) on reaction with
Hinsberg's reagent forms compound (B).
Compound (B) dissolves in aqueous alkali.
(3) (4
Compound (A) could be
NO, H
161. 2,2-Dichloropropane on reaction with aqueous' NH,
alkali forms compound X which gives positive (1) (2
iodoform test.
The compound X is
CI (3) (4)

(1) (2) OH H

165. Consider the following statements

(3) (4 a. 1,2-Dichloroethene shows geometrical
isomerism
162. Given below are the two statements
b. trans-But-2-ene is a polar molecule.
Statement-1: Amylose is water soluble
C. Boiling point of cis-But-2-ene is higher than
Component of starch.
trans-But-2-ene
Statceyent- Chemically amylosç is ganched
chain polymer of a-D-glucose units. orret statement(s) are CC-115
In light of the above statements, choose the
(1) a and b only (2) b andc only

correct option. (3) a and c only (4) a, b and c

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 AlM-720
What mass 40% pure CaCO3 will
of CST-4_(Code-A)
166 be required to OH
neutralise 50 of 0.5 N HCI
mL
solution according OH
to the following reaction? COOH OH
(1)
(2
CacOs(s) + 2HCI(aq) CaCl2(aq) + COz(g)
OH OH
+ H20(C)
(2) 3.125 g
CHO CH,OH
(1) 6.25g (3) (4)
(3) 25.0 g (4) 15g
487 The number of moles of oxygen molecule required 172. Consider the following reaction
Zn dust y CH,CI Alk. KMnO,
to produce 32 moles of nitric oxide during
Ostwald Phenol Anhy. AICi
H,oH'
process is The product Z is
(1) 30 (2) 40 (1) Benzene (2) Toluene
(3) 50C-115 (4) 20 CC-115 (3Benzaldehyde (4) Bergoicaçid
173. The correct order of melting point of the following
168. Appearance of violet colour on addition of sodium is
nitroprusside in the Sodium fusion extract (1) HF < HCl< HBr < HI
indicates the presence of (2) HI< HBr < HCI < HF
(1) Chlorine (2) Bromine (3) HCI< HBr <HF < HI
(3) Carbon (4) Sulphur (4) HBr < HCI < HI < HF
174. Oxidation states of P in HaP20s, H4P206 and
169. Alcoholic compounds on reaction with ceric
HaP207 respectively are
ammonium nitrate gives (1) +3, t4 and +5 (2) +3, +5 and +4
(1) Yellow colour (2) Red colour; (3) +4, +5 and +3 (4) +5, +4 and +3
(3) Pink colour (4) Blue colour 175. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.56 g
170. Choose the incorrect match. of an organic compound gave 0.4 g of AgBr. The
percentage of bromine in the compound is
List-l List-l| (Atomic mass of Ag = 108u and Br = 80u)
(Reactions) (Overall (1) 28.8% (2) 32.4%
order of the (3) 31.4% (4) 30.4%
reaction) 176. Consider the following statements
K Statement-I: Thin layer chromatography is
|()2NH,(9:Pt1130
catalyst
>N,(g) + 3H,(9) another type of partition chromatography.
(2 226
88 Ra - He+ 222Rn
1 Statement-Il: In thin layer chromatography,
amino acids may be detected by spraying the
+ H2(g)
plate with ninhydrin solution.
(3)CaHa(g) CzHs(g)
In the light of above statements, choose the
4NO2(g) + Oz(g) Correct option.
|(4)|2N20s(g)
(1) Statement | is correct but statement I| is
171. The major product in the following reaction is incorrect
CC-19 CC-115 (2CStaterjent I is incorrect LuCstatEment Il is
correct
CHCI, + aq. NaOH
(3) Both statement Iand statement Ilare correct
(i)
1
(i) NaOH
H
(4) Both statement I and statement Il are incorrect
(iü)

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 AIM -720
CST-4_(Code-A)
statements.
177. The product (C) formed from the following reaction 181. Consider the following
sequence is Statement-1: In case haloarenes, the
as a result of self-ionisation
NH, phenylcation formed
() (CH,C0),0, resonance.
will not be stabilised by
pyridine () LIAIH,4>(0) an electron
() Br,,
CH,coOH (8) (u) H,o
Major Statement-Il: The presence of
para-positions
withdrawing group at otho and
(A towards
NH-CH,-CH, increases the reactivity of haloarenes
NH,
nucleophilic substitution reaction.
Br choose the
(1) (2) In the light of above statements,
correct option.
Br statement I and statement ll are correct
(1) Both
is
NH-CH,-CH, NH,
dc-115 (2C&alefent I is correct biCstafenent ||
C-B? incorrect
(4)
Statement is incorrect but statement
(3) I
Il is
(3)

Br correct
Il are incorrect
(4) Both statement and statement
l

178. Which of the following reactions is not

disproportionation redox reaction? 182. Which of the following is an outer orbital complex
(1) P, +30H +3H,O PH, +3H,PO; and exhibits paramagnetic behaviou?
(1) [Co(CN)6| (2) [Co(Cz04)3]
(2) S, +120H 4S +
25,0 +6H,0
(3) [CoFe] (4) (Co(NH3)6|*
(3) F2 + 20H- 2F- + OF2
183. Ifone of the hydrogen atom is replaced by chlorine
(4) Cl2 + OH- CIO-+ Ci-+ H20
atom in diphenylmethane then total number of
179. The correct order of atomic radius of group-13
elements is structurál isomers will be
(1) B< Al< Ga < In
<
TI (2) B<
T< Ga < ln <Al )4 (2) 5
Al < Ga< TI (4) B< Ga Al < In
< < TI <
(3) B<In (3) 6 (4) 8
180. The correct order of reactivity towards SN2 more than 2 and less than
184. If the value of (n + ) is
reaction is
5. The maximum number of orbitals possible will
(1) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane> 1-Bromo-3
methylbutane > 1-Bromobutane > 1-Bromo be
2,2-dimethylpropane (1) 13 (2) 5
(2) 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane > 1-Bromo-3 (3) 4 (4) 8
methylbutane > 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane> 1
185. The correct order of increasing acidic character of
Bromobutane
oxides of manganese is
(3) 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane> 1-Bromobutane >
1-Bromo-2-methylbutane > 1-Bromo-2,2 (1) Mn20; < Mns04 < MnOz < MnO
ciniethylpropane CC-115 (2inol5MnsO4 < Mno, < Mrfo,1 15
(4) 1-Bromobutane> 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane >
(3) Mn20;< MnOz <
MnsO4 < MnO
1-Bromo-2-methylbutane> 1-Bromo-2,2
< <
dimethylpropane (4) MnO MnOz< Mn304 Mn207

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 AIM -720
SECTION-B CST-4(Code-A)
186. Consider the following statements K3 K,K?
about (1) (2
resonance. KK? K3
a. Resonance stabilizes the molecule as
energy of the resonance the (3) Kik, K,K?
hybrid is less than the (4)
energy of any single K, K

canonical structure.
b. Resonance averages 189. Which among the following reactions will not give
the bond characteristic
as a whole. chiral product?
C.

d.
There is equilibrium between the canonical
forms.
The canonical forms have real existence.
a. CH, -- Ph0
(i) H,0
LiAR

The Gorettlslatements are

CC-115 b.CeHTÇH,–-H0G) GHMger,
H,o Te-115
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(3) c and ) CHMgBr
d only (4) a, b, c and d C.
CH,--CH. () H,0
187. TwO columns I and I| has been given
below. (1) a and b only
Column | has cell notation and column (2) a and c only
I| has
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and
c
number of electrons involved in cell reaction.
Match column l with column I| and choose the 190. Consider the followingreaction sequence
correct option. Cr,0, CI,(3 eq.)
773KAu 509KB(Major)
Column| 10-20 atm

a.|Zn(s)|Zn2*(aq)||Cu²(aq)|Cu(s)l()
Column
6
II
udatins
Major product B

C
|b.Cr(s)|Crr(aq)|Fe? (aq)|Fe(s) ) 2 CI
c.|Al(s)|AP"(aq)||Ag* (aq)|Ag(s)
(7) (2)
(
CI
CI
|d. Li(s)|Li(aq)||K'(aq)|K(s) (iv) MediczT-JEE CI
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(ii), d() CI
(3) a(i), b(Ö), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(v), c0, d()
(3) (4)
188. Consider the following reactions
CI
H,(g)+0, (g) H,o(9): K,
191. The pH of 0.5 M aqueous
N,(g) + sodium hydroxide
O,(g) 2NO(g); K, solution is (log5 = 0.69)
N,(g)
+3H(g)2NH, (9); K, (1) 9.8
Equilb15 CC-115,
Constant for the following reaction is
(2Co:s115
CC-115
(3) 13.7
5
2NH, (9)+0,(g) 2NO(g) + 3H,0(g)
(4) 5.1

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CST-4_(Code-A)
Krsñà AIM -720

192. Match column-l with column-ll 195. The product Z' in the following reaction is
alc.
Column| Column Il HI/A KoHIAY Clyhv
ExcesS (Major) (Major)
a.Basic amino acid (0 Cysteine
b.|Sulphur containingl() Proline (1) Vinyl chloride
amino acid (2) Vinyl iodide
c.Cyclic amino acid (i) |Glutamine (3) Allyl iodide

d.lAmino acid having|(iv)|Lysine (4) Allyl chloride

C-NH, group 196. Given below are two statements:
one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Chogsegthecprrect t answer from theeptipgs given Regsan {B). CC-115
is
below. Assertion (A): Boiling points of propan-1-ol
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(ii), d() higher than the acetone.
(3)a(i), b(ii), c(), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b), c(i), d(ii) Reason (R): propan-1-ol,
In intermolecular
193. Consider the following statements about catalyst hydrogen bonding is present.
a. catalyst does not alter Gibbs energy, AG of
A
Inthe light of the above statements, choose the
a reaction.
most appropriate answer from the options given
b. catalyst catalyses both spontaneous as well
A
as non-spontaneous reaction. below.
C.
Catalyst helps in attaining the equilibrium,
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
faster. Correct explaniation of (A)
d. A small amount of catalyst can catalyse a (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the
large amount of reactants. cofrect explanation of (A)
The correct statement are (3). (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(1) a, band d only (2) a, b and c only
A(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(3) a, b, cand d (4) a, c and d only
194. Which of the following statement is not correct for 197. Choose the incorrect statement among the
Oxoacids of phosphorous? following
(1) Oxoacids which contain P-H bond (1) [Co(en)2(NHs)2]t is a more stable complex
strong reducing properties. than [Co(NH3)6]3+
(2) Pyrophosphoric acid contains four OH, (2) [Co(en)]3 does not show geometrical
two P =0 and one P-O -Pbonds.
isomerism
(3) Orthophosphous acid on heating
to (3) Cis-PClz(NH3)2] is used as an _anticancer
dispropostionates give hypgphosphoric acid
and phosphine
Cge 5 CC-115
(4) oxidation state of phosphorous in (4) [Ni(H20)6]2* is colourless whereas [Ni(CN)4
orthophosphours acid is +3 is green in colour
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AJM720
CST-4(Code-A)
198- The standard molar enthalpy of
formation of
ethane,
earbon dioxide and water are -20 kcal mo! (1) Statement I
is correct but statement Il is
incorrect
a0 kcal mo and-60 kcal mol- respectively. The
standard molar enthalpy of combustion of ethane is
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement Il is
correct
(1) 320 kcal mo-1 (2) -372 kcal mo-1
Both statement and statement ll are correct
I
(3)
(3) 372 kcal mo-1 (4) -320 kcal mol-1 (4) Both statement Iand statement Il are incorrect
40g. Given beloW are tWo statements with respect to 200. For the redox reaction
photoelectric effect. +
BrO, + OHO
MnO; +Br +H,0 MnO,
Statement-I: The number of electrons ejected is
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the
proportional to the intensity of light. balanced equation are
Statement-ll: The kinetic energies of ejected
electfofs inceases with increase Gr Intensity of Mno Br H,0
C CO-115
light used (1) 2 1 1

In (2) 2 3 2
the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given (3) 1 1
2
below. (4) 1 2 4

ash T-1EEIFoundations

Medical
IT
al

CC-115 CC-115 CC-115 CC-115

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