ગુજરાત ગૌણ સેવા પસંદગી મંડળ, ગાંધીનગર

પ્રોવવઝનલ આન્સર કી સંદર્ભે વાંધા સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા

અંગેની સૂચના
જાહે રાત ક્રમાાંક ૨૦૬/૨૦૨૨૨૩
સાંવર્ગનાં નામ મ્યુવનવસપલ ઇજનેર, વગગ-૩
પરીક્ષાની તારીખ ૨૭/૦૮/૨૦૨૩
પેપર કોડ CDE
પ્રશ્નો 01 to 150
પ્રોવવઝનલ આન્સર કી જાહે ર કર્ાગ તારીખ ૩૧/૦૮/૨૦૨૩
વાાંધા સૂચનો રજૂ કરવાની શરૂઆતની તારીખ ૩૧/૦૮/૨૦૨૩
વાાંધા સૂચનો રજૂ કરવાની આખરી તારીખ ૦૭/૦૯/૨૦૨૩

ઉમેદવારે વાાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરતી વખતે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનાં પાલન કરવાનાં રહે શે અન્ર્થા તેઓની વાાંધા-સચનો
અાંર્ેની કરે લ રજઆતો ધ્ર્ાને લેવામાાં આવશે નહીં.

(૧) ઉમેદવારે પ્રશ્ન પ્રમાણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર પ્રવસધ્ધ થયેલ વનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પત્રકના
નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(૨) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો વનયત કરવામાં આવેલ સૂચન પત્રકથી રજૂ કરવાના રહે શે. અલગ-અલગ પ્રશ્ન માટે
અલગ-અલગ પત્રકમાં વાંધા-સૂચન રજૂ કરવા. એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પત્રકમાં એકથી વધારે પ્રશ્નોની રજુ આત કરે લ
હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો ધ્યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(૩) પરીક્ષામાં હાજર રહે લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા- સૂચન રજુ કરી શકશે.
(૪) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરીક્ષામા મળેલ પ્રશ્નપવતતકામાાં છપાર્ેલ પ્રશ્નક્રમાાંક મજ વાાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાાંધા-સૂચનો વે સાઇટ પર પ્રવસધ્ધ થર્ેલ પ્રોવવઝનલ આન્સર કીના પ્રશ્ન ક્રમાાંક મજ અને તે સાંદર્ગમાાં રજૂ
કરવા.
(૫) પ્રશ્નપત્રમાં વનર્દગષ્ટ પ્રશ્ન અને વવકલ્પ વસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન ધ્યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહી.
(૬) ઉમેદવારે જે પ્રશ્નના વવકલ્પ પર વાંધા રજુ કરે લ છે અને વવકલ્પ રૂપે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે . એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે
પોતાની ઉત્તરવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઇએ ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉત્તરવહીનો જવાબ વર્ભન્ન હશે તો ઉમેદવારે
રજૂ કરે લ વાંધા-સુચન ધ્યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(૭) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહીની નકલ વબડાણ કરવાની રહે શે.
(૮) આખરી તારીખ બાદ મળેલ વાંધા-સૂચનો ધ્યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં.

(હસમુખ એચ. પટે લ)

સ્થળઃ ગાંધીનગર સવચવ
તારીખઃ ૩૧/૦૮/૨૦૨૩ ગુજરાત ગૌણ સેવા પસંદગી મંડળ,
ગાંધીનગર
 પ્રોવિઝનલ આન્સર કી અંગે ઉમેદિારના સ ૂચન/રજૂઆત

જાહેરાત ક્રમાાંકઃ કસોટીન ાં નામ: સાંિગગ ન ાં નામઃ-

કસોટીની તારીખઃ- પેપરન ાં નામ (કોડ સાથે) :

િેબ સાઇટ પર મકેલ પ્રોવિઝનલ આન્સર કી મજબ ઉમેદિારની રજઆત

પ્રશ્ન પ્રોવિઝનલ આન્સર ઉમેદિારનો સ ૂચચત

પ્રશ્નની વિગત રજઆતની વિગત સાંદર્ગ /મારહતી સ્ત્રોત િેબસાઇટની
ક્રમાાંક કી મજબ જિાબ જિાબ
(A/ B/ C/ D) (A/ B/ C/ D) (નકલ બીડિી) વિગત
અને
વસરરઝ
(૧) પસ્તકન ાં નામ: િેબસાઇટન ાં નામ

(૨) પ ૃષ્ઠ નાંબર:

(૩) લેખકન ાં નામ:

(૪) પ્રકાશકન ાં નામ / સરનામ:ાં

(૫) પ્રકાશનન ાં િર્ગ:

નોંધઃ એક પાના ઉપર એક જ પ્રશ્નની રજઆત લખિી તથા અન્ય પ્રશ્ન માટે અલગ પાન પર રજઆત કરિી. તમામ સ ૂચનો િેબસાઇટ પર મકેલ પ્રોવિઝનલ આન્સર કી સાંદર્ે
તેમાાં દશાગ િેલ સમય મયાગ દામાાં સ્િીકાયગ બનશે.

ઉમેદિારન ાં નામ :- ....................................................................................................................................... અરજીની તારીખ :- .........................................................................

બેઠક નાંબર :- ..................................................................... ઉમેદિારની સહી :- ....................................................................................................

âí“‘y[õsL$p L$p¡X$ This Question Booklet Contains 24 Printed Pages Ap âñ‘Ódp„ Ly$g 24 R>p‘¡gp ‘p“p„ R>¡.

M CDE - 2023

8 @

âñ‘y[õsL$p “„bf
  9  
‘¡‘f L$p¡X$

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kde : 120 rdr“V$ Time : 120 Minutes Dd¡v$hpf“p¡ b¡W$L$ “„bf

Ly$g âñp¡ : 150 Total Que. : 150
Ly$g NyZ : 150 Total Marks : 150

sd“¡ k|Q“p Ap‘hpdp„ “ Aph¡ Ðep„ ky^u âñ‘y[õsL$p Mp¡ghu “lu.

(01) Ap âñ‘Ódp„ Ly$g 150 âñp¡ R>¡. âÐe¡L$ âñ“p¡ DÑf A,
B, C A“¡ D ‘¥L$u L$p¡B A¡L$ R>¡. Dd¡v$hpf Å¡ S>hpb “
Ap‘hp dp„Nsp lp¡e sp¡ s¡“p dpV¡$ OMR DÑf‘Ódp„
rhL$ë‘ E Ap‘¡g R>¡¡. b^p S> âñp¡“p DÑf Ap‘hp
afÆeps R>¡. Ap kp’¡ AgN Ap‘¡g OMR DÑf‘Ódp„
S> DÑf Ap‘hp“p R>¡.
Dv$plfZ sfuL¡$ :
cpfs“p fpóV²$r‘sp sfuL¡$ L$p¡Z Ap¡mMpe R>¡?
A) kfv$pf ‘V¡$g B) kycpjQ„Ö bp¡T
C) dlpÐdp Np„^u D) rh“p¡bp cph¡
DÑf‘Ó (OMR SHEET) dp„.
A B C D E
D‘ey®¼s Dv$plfZ“p¡ S>hpb “C” R>¡. Ap’u “C” “y„
hsy®m OpVy„$ (encode) L$ f ¡ g R>¡ . kpQu A“¡ Mp¡ V $ u
‘Ùrs’u hsy®m OpVy$ L$fhp bpbs“u k|Q“p OMR “u
‘pR>m Ap‘¡g R>¡ S>¡“u “p¢^ g¡hu.
(02) 1 ’u 150 âñp¡ ‘yf¡‘|fp R>‘pe¡gp R>¡ L¡$ L¡$d s¡“u â’d
Mpsfu L$fu gp¡. Å¡ âñp¡ ‘|fp R>‘pep “ lp¡e A’hp
L$p¡B ‘©óW$ apV$¡gy„ lp¡e L¡$ L$p¡B ‘©óW$ kpd¡g “ lp¡e A’hp
sp¡ AÞe L$p¡C nrs S>Zpe sp¡ sfs S> r“funL$ ‘pk¡’u
âñ‘y[õsL$p AQ|L$ bv$gphu g¡hu.
Dd¡v$hpf“¡ OMR DÑf‘Ó dþep bpv$ Å¡ s¡Ap¡ Üpfp
s¡“p¡ “pi L$fhpdp„ Aphi¡ L¡$ Nyd L$fhpdp„ Aphi¡ sp¡ s¡
Dd¡v$hpf“¡ N¡fgpeL$ W$fphhpdp„ Aphi¡.
(03) ‘funp iê$ ’e¡’u Dd¡v$hpf A^hÃQ¡’u ‘funp M„X$ R>p¡X$u
iL$i¡ “lu. ‘funp ‘|Z® ’ep bpv$ Dd¡v$hpf ‘p¡sp“y„
âñ‘Ó gC S>B iL$i¡.
(04) Dd¡v$hpf¡ ‘p¡sp“p b¡W$L$ ¾$dp„L$“u âñ‘y[õsL$p A“¡ OMR
DÑf‘Ó dm¡g R>¡ s¡“u Mpsfu L$fu g¡hu AÞe’p M„X$
r“funL$“y„ sfs S> Ýep“ v$p¡fhy„. Dd¡v$hpf“¡ OMR
DÑf‘Ó dm¡ L¡$ sfs S> s¡dp„„ r“es L$f¡g S>ÁepA¡
‘p¡sp“p¡ b¡W$L$ ¾$dp„L$ õhÃR> Anf¡ gMhp“p¡ fl¡i¡ s¡dS>
b¡W$L$ ¾$dp„L$ “uQ¡ Ap‘¡g hsy®m ‘Z OpVy$ (encode)
L$fhp“y„ fl¡i¡. dm¡g âñ‘y[õsL$p“p¡ L$p¡X$ r“es S>ÁepA¡
gMu“¡ s¡“u kp’¡ Ap‘¡g hsy®m ‘Z OpVy$ (encode)
‘funp Ap‘“pf Dd¡v$hpf¡ DÑf‘Ó (OMR SHEET) hN®r“funL$“¡ ‘fs ¼ep® bpv$ S> hN®M„X$ R>p¡X$hp“p¡ fl¡i¡. s¡d
L$fhpdp„ L$kyf ’e¡’u riõsc„N“p ‘Ngp„ NZu ‘funp dpV¡$ Dd¡v$hpf“¡ N¡fgpeL$ W¡$fhhpdp„ Aphi¡.
L$fhp“y„ fl¡i¡. gM¡gu rhNsp¡ A“¡ OpVy$ (encode) L$f¡g
hsy®m“u rhNsp¡ ep¡Áe fus¡ cfpe¡g R>¡ s¡“u Mpsfu L$fu
g¡hu.
(05) âÐe¡L$ kpQp S>hpbv$uW$ 1 (A¡L$) NyZ dmhp‘pÓ ’i¡.
d„X$m Üpfp NyZp„L$“ ‘Ý^rsdp„ dpB“k ‘Ý^rs v$pMg
L$fhpdp„ Aphu R>¡. S>¡ dyS>b - âÐe¡L$ Mp¡V$p S>hpbv$uW$,
Mpgu R>p¡X¡$g S>hpbv$uW$ s’p R>¡L$R>pL L$f¡g lp¡e s¡hp
S>hpbv$uW$ OMR “u ‘pR>m S>Zpìep âdpZ¡“u Mp¡V$u
‘Ùrs’u L¡$ A¡L$ L$$fsp„ h^y rhL$ë‘ v$ip®hg¡ S>hpbv$uW$
0.25 NyZ L$p‘hpdp„ Aphi¡. Å¡ Dd¡v$hpf S>hpb Ap‘hp
dp„Nsp “ lp¡e A“¡ rhL$ë‘ (E) OpVy$ (encode) L$fi¡ sp¡
0.25 NyZ L$p‘hpdp„ Aphi¡ “tl.
(06) OMR DÑf‘Ódp„ r“ròs S>Áep rkhpe Dd¡ v $ h pf¡
‘p¡sp“p¡ b¡W$L$ ¾$dp„L$ gMhp¡ “l] s’p ‘p¡sp“u Ap¡mM
R>su ’pe s¡hu “pd L¡$ AÞe L$p¡B ‘Z âL$pf“u r“ip“u
v$ip®hhp“u kMs d“pB R>¡. s¡d R>sp„ ‘Z L$p¡B ‘Z
r“ip“u L¡ Ap¡mM ¼ep®“y„ dpg|d ‘X$i¡ sp¡ s¡“¡ k„‘|Z®
N¡friõs NZhpdp„ Aphi¡ A“¡ ‘funp dpV$¡ N¡fgpeL$
NZhpdp„ Aphi¡.
(07) DÑf‘Ó (OMR SHEET) dp„ Dd¡v$hpf s’p
r“funL$ b„“¡“u klu afrS>eps R>¡. b„“¡“u klu
rh“p“u OMR SHEET (DÑf‘Ó) hpmp Dd¡v$hpf
N¡fgpeL$ W$fi¡.
(08)
‘funp v$fçep“ Dd¡v$hpf ‘pk¡’u L$p¡B ‘Z kprlÐe,
dpN®v$ri®L$p, L$p‘gu, AÞe lõsrgrMs L¡$ râÞV$¡X$
kprlÐe, dp¡bpBg ap¡“, ‘¡S>f, L¡$gL$eyg¡V$f, ågyVy$’,
õdpV®$ hp¡Q L¡$ AÞe huÅÏ D‘L$fZp¡ lp¡hp“y„ S>Zpi¡
sp¡ Dd¡v$hpf“¡ N¡fgpeL$ NZhpdp„ Aphi¡.
(09) Qpgy ‘funp v$fçep“ A„v$fp¡A„v$f Nyk‘yk L$fhu, AhpS>
L$fhp¡ L¡$ r“funL$“u k|Q“pAp¡“y„ Dëg„O“ L$fhy„ L¡$ AÞe
L$p¡C N¡ffusu L$fhu s¡ N¡friõs NZpi¡.
(10) Dd¡v$hpf¡ c|fu/L$pmu bp¡g‘p¡BÞV ‘¡“’u DÑfp¡ gMhp“p
R>¡. AÞe iplu L¡$ ‘¡“ L¡$ ‘¡[Þkg s’p ka¡v$ iplu“p¡
D‘ep¡N L$fu iL$pi¡ “l] s’p ka¡v$ iplu (White Ink),
åg¡X L¡ fåbf’u L¡ AÞe L$p¡B ‘Z fus¡ âñ“p S>hpbdp„
L$f¡gp ky^pfp dpÞe NZpi¡ “l].
001. “uQ¡“pdp„’u ¼ep¡ rhL$ë‘ cpfs“p b„^pfZ“u bpbsdp„ kyk„Ns R>¡?
(A) k„kv$ khp£ÃQ R>¡
(B) k„kv$ A“¡ Þepe‘prgL$p b„“¡ ‘p¡s-‘p¡sp“p n¡Ódp„ khp£ÃQ R>¡
(C) Þepe‘prgL$p khp£ÃQ R>¡
(D) hluhV$us„Ó khp£ÃQ R>¡

002. “uQ¡“pdp„’u L$p¡“¡ cpfs“p â’d “pNqfL$ L$l¡hpe R>¡?

(A) fpô²‘rsîu (B) D‘fpô²‘rsîu
(C) hX$pâ^p“îu (D) kyâudL$p¡V$®“p dy¿e Þepep^ui

003. 
cpfsue b„^pfZ“p ¼ep A“yÃR>¡v$dp„ ^d®, Års, oprs, tgN A’hp S>Þdõ’p““¡ L$pfZ¡ L$fpsp
c¡v$cph ‘f ârsb„^ A¡ bpbs“u Å¡NhpC L$fhpdp„ Aph¡g R>¡?
(A) A“yÃR>¡v$ 12 (B) A“yÃR>¡v$ 13
(C) A“yÃR>¡v$ 14 (D) A“yÃR>¡v$ 15

004. 73dp„ A“¡ 74dp„ b„^pfZue ky^pfp“p¡ dy¿e DØ¡i “uQ¡“p rhL$ë‘dp„’u ‘k„v$ L$fp¡.
(A) dpN®v$i®“ (B) L¡$ÞÖuL$fZ
(C) rhL¡$ÞÖuL$fZ (D) S>hpbv$pfu

005. Ål¡f hluhV$“p r‘sp sfuL¡$ “uQ¡“pdp„’u L$p¡Z Ap¡mMpe R>¡?

(A) L$pg® dpL®$k (B) l¡“fu ap¡eg
(C) h©X²$p¡ rhëk“ (D) d¡¼k h¡bf

006. cpfsdp„ “uQ¡“pdp„’u L$ep âL$pf“p S>„Ngp¡“y„ âdpZ kp¥’u h^y Å¡hp dm¡ R>¡?
(A) DóZ L$qV$b„^ue hfkpv$u S>„Ngp¡ (B) DóZ L$qV$b„^ue MfpD S>„Ngp¡
(C) kdiusp¡óZ L$qV$b„^ue S>„Ngp¡ (D) DóZ L$qV$b„^ue L$p„V$pmp S>„Ngp¡

007. cpfs“u kh®â’d õhv$¡idp„ r“rd®s AÏ kbdfu“ L$B R>¡?

(A) INS L$p¡gL$psp (B) INS hufir¼s
(C) INS rh¾$p„s (D) INS Aqfl„s

008. 
fphscpV$p (fpS>õ’p“), L¥$Np (L$Zp®V$L$), L$둽$d (srdg“pXy$) A“¡ “fp¡fp (DÑf âv$¡i) “uQ¡“pdp„’u
L$C bpbs kp’¡ Å¡X$pe¡gp R>¡?
(A) ‘fdpÏ„ EÅ®“p L¡$ÞÖp¡ R>¡ (B) f¡ëh¡ D‘L$fZp¡“p DБpv$“ L¡$ÞÖp¡ R>¡
(C) kp¥f DÅ®“p L¡$ÞÖp¡ R>¡ (D) gíL$fu kp^“p¡“p DБpv$“ L¡$ÞÖp¡ R>¡

CDE : 2023 - M ] [2] [ Contd...

009. “uQ¡“pdp„’u PDF“p ‘|fp“pd (Full Name) dpV$¡ kpQp¡ rhL$ë‘ ‘k„v$ L$fp¡.
(A) Portable Document File (B) Portable Document Folder
(C) Portable Document Format (D) Portable Document Form

010. 
“uQ¡“pdp„’u ¼ep„ hj®“u Ap¡rg[瑼k (Olympics) fdsp¡“y„ Apep¡S>“ NyS>fpsdp„ ’pe s¡ dpV$¡“u s¥epfu
kfL$pf Üpfp L$fhpdp„ Aphu flu R>¡?
(A) 2036 (B) 2032
(C) 2028 (D) 2040

011. 
rNf“pf“u sm¡V$udp„ fpÅ Aip¡L$ rkhpe buÅ L$ep fpÅ Üpfp rigpg¡M L$p¡sfph¡g lp¡e s¡“p ‘yfphp
dm¡g R>¡?
(A) Ly$dpf‘pm (B) ê$Öv$pd“ A“¡ õL„$v$Nyá
(C) fpM¢Npf (D) rkÙfpS> S>etkl

012. 
Ap‘¡gu ‘„qL$s L$p¡“p Üpfp bp¡gpe¡g R>¡: ""Äep„ ky^u NyS>fpsu cpjp“¡ Np¥fh “l] dm¡ Ðep„ ky^u ‘pOX$u
“l] ‘l¡fy„''
(A) “d®v$ (B) AMp¡ cNs
(C) “„v$i„L$f dl¡sp (D) â¡dp“„v$

013. 
Brslpk A“¡ Mpk NyS>fps dpV$¡ 12du dpQ®“p¡ qv$hk “uQ¡“pdp„’u L$C bpbs dpV$¡ dlÐh“p¡ b“u fl¡
R>¡?
(A) bpfX$p¡gu kÐepN°l (B) rlÞv$ R>p¡X$p¡ Qmhm
(C) v$p„X$u epÓp (D) M¡X$p kÐepN°l

014. 
“uQ¡“pdp„’u ¼ep„ il¡fdp„ "L$s®ìe ‘’' Aph¡gp¡ R>¡?
(A) Adv$phpv$ (B) dy„bC
(C) L$p¡gL$psp (D) qv$ëlu

015. 
NyS>fpsdp„ 15du Ap¡NóV$ 2023“u fpÄe L$np“u DS>hZu ¼ep„ L$fhpdp„ Aphu lsu?
(A) Np„^u“Nf (B) hgkpX$
(C) fpS>L$p¡V$ (D) hX$p¡v$fp

016. 
A¡L$ ìer¼s“p¡ ‘funp“p ‘qfZpddp„ hN®M„X$dp„ ApNm’u 7dp¡ ¾$d Apìep¡ R>¡ Äepf¡ “uQ¡’u rh{Ù
qv$ipdp„ Å¡CA¡ sp¡ s¡ ìer¼s“p¡ ¾$d 41dp¡ ’pe R>¡ sp¡ s¡ hN®M„X$dp„ Ly$g L¡$V$gp rh^p’} li¡?
(A) 46 (B) 47
(C) 48 (D) 49

CDE : 2023 - M ] [3] [ P.T.O.

017. 
b¡ A„L$“u k„¿ep A“¡ s¡d“p A„L$p¡“p õ’p““u Av$gpbv$gu L$fhp’u dmsu k„¿ep“p¡ kfhpmp¡ 66 R>¡.
sp¡ s¡ k„¿ep“p b¡ A„L$p¡“p¡ kfhpmp¡ L¡$V$gp¡ ’pe?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7

018. 
Ap‘¡gu k„¿epdp„’u kp¥’u “p“u A“¡ dp¡V$u k„¿ep“u Å¡X$u ‘k„v$ L$fp¡.
3 ÷ 5 , 21 % , 2 ÷ 7 , 33 % , 2 ÷ 3 , 50 %
(A) 21 % A“¡ 2 ÷ 3 (B) 21 % A“¡ 50 %
(C) 2÷7 A“¡ 50 % (D) 2÷7 A“¡ 3 ÷ 5

019. 
6, 11, 21, 26, 31, ....... Ap‘¡g kdp„sf î¡Zudp„ 35dp„ ‘v$ dpV$¡ kpQp¡ rhL$ë‘ ‘k„v$ L$fp¡.
(A) 161 (B) 166
(C) 176 (D) 181

020. 
A¡L$ ìer¼s ‘p¡sp“p Of¡’u ‘[íQd qv$ipdp„ 15 qL$.du. Qpg¡ R>¡ Ðepf ‘R>u s¡ DÑf qv$ipdp„ 10 qL$.du.
Qpg¡ R>¡ Ðepfbpv$ s¡ ‘|h® qv$ipdp„ 15 qL$.du. Qpg¡ R>¡ sp¡ lh¡ s¡ ‘p¡sp“p Of¡’u L¡$V$gp qL$.du v$|f li¡?
(A) 15 qL$.du. (B) 35 qL$.du.
(C) 10 qL$.du. (D) 25 qL$.du.

021. 
A¡L$ L„$‘“udp„ L$pd L$fsp„ 25 L$d®QpfuAp¡“p¡ kf¡fpi ‘Npf ê$. 15,000/- R>¡. L„$‘“udp„ A¡L$ “hp
L$d®Qpfu“p Å¡X$php’u kf¡fpi ‘Npfdp„ ê$. 400/- “p¡ h^pfp¡ ’pe R>¡ sp¡ “hp Å¡X$pe¡g L$d®Qpfu“p¡ ‘Npf
L¡$V$gp¡ li¡?
(A) 18,000 (B) 20,400
(C) 24,000 (D) 25,400

022. 
Å¡ A“p 16 % = B “p 72 % lp¡e sp¡ B : A = ?. kpQp¡ rhL$ë‘ ‘k„v$ L$fp¡.
(A) 2:9 (B) 9:2
(C) 7:3 (D) 3:7

023. 
60 rgV$f Ap¡Bg A“¡ ‘pZu“p rdîZdp„ 60% Ap¡Bg lp¡e sp¡ s¡dp„ L¡$V$gp rgV$f h^pf¡ Ap¡Bg Dd¡fhy„
‘X¡$ S>¡’u rdîZdp„ 75 % Ap¡Bg ’pe?
(A) 12 rgV$f (B) 36 rgV$f
(C) 24 rgV$f (D) 18 rgV$f

CDE : 2023 - M ] [4] [ Contd...

024. 
15 ìer¼sAp¡“u 5 hj® ‘l¡gp“u Jdf“p¡ kfhpmp¡ 15 lp¡e sp¡ 12 hj® ‘R>u s¡d“u Jdf“p¡ kfhpmp¡
L¡$V$gp¡ ’pe? kpQp¡ rhL$ë‘ ‘k„v$ L$fp¡.
(A) 225 (B) 235
(C) 255 (D) 270

025. 
A¡L$ õ‘^p®dp„ A A¡ B L$fsp„ 6 qL$.du. ApNm R>¡. Å¡ A “u TX$‘ 21 qL$.du./L$gpL$ lp¡e A“¡ B “u
TX$‘ 24 qL$.du./L$gpL$ lp¡e sp¡ L¡$V$gp L$gpL$ bpv$ B Üpfp A “¡ Ap¡hfV$¡L$ L$fu“¡ B ApNm r“L$mu S>i¡?
(A) 1 L$gpL$ (B) 2 L$gpL$
(C) 3 L$gpL$ (D) 4 L$gpL$

026. 
130“p hN®M„X$dp„ 55 rh^p’} v$|^ ‘uh¡ R>¡ ‘f„sy ApBõ¾$$ud Mpsp “’u. 25 rh^p’} ApBõ¾$$ud Mpe R>¡
‘f„sy v$|^ ‘usp “’u. 20 rh^p’} v$|^ L¡$ ApBõ¾$$uddp„’u A¡L$ ‘Z ‘usp L¡$ Mpsp “’u. sp¡ hN®M„X$dp„’u
v$|^ ‘u“pfp A“¡ ApBõ¾$$ud Mpsp lp¡e s¡hp L¡$V$gp rh^p’} lp¡e?
(A) 20 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 35

027. 
^p¡fZ 12“u ‘funpdp„ ÓZ rhjedp„ A¡L$ rh^p’} Üpfp 100 dp„’u rhjeâdpZ¡ d¡mh¡g dpL®$ Ap
dyS>b R>¡. NyS>fpsu : 75, NrZs : 81, rhop“ : 85. Ap‘¡g ‘qf[õ’sudp„ rh^p’} Üpfp afu ‘funp
Ap‘hpdp„ Aph¡ sp¡ ÓZ rhje“p kf¡fpi dpL®$ 102 Aph¡ s¡hu k„cph“p L¡$V$gu? kpQp¡ rhL$ë‘ ‘k„v$
L$fp¡.
(A) 0 (B) 0.25
(C) 0.5 (D) 1

028. 
A“ug A“¡ õ“¡lp hÃQ¡ ¼ep¡ k„b„^ li¡? Ap‘¡gp rh^p“dp„’u kpQp¡ rhL$ë‘ ‘k„v$ L$fp¡ S>¡’u âí““p¡
S>hpb dm¡.
rh^p“ 1 : A“ug“¡ A¡L$ dpÓ bl¡“ R>¡.
rh^p“ 2 : õ“¡lp“¡ A¡L$ dpÓ cpC R>¡.
(A) dpÓ rh^p“ 1 S> S>ê$fu R>¡ (B) dpÓ rh^p“ 2 S> S>ê$fu R>¡
(C) b„“¡ rh^p“ S>ê$fu R>¡ (D) b„“¡ rh^p“ ‘|fsp “’u

029. 
“pV$L$ : Arc“¡sp :: L$p¡ÞkV$® : ?. kpQp¡ rhL$ë‘ ‘k„v$ L$fp¡.
(A) rkça“u (B) k„NusL$pf
(C) r‘ep“p¡ (D) rQÓL$pf

CDE : 2023 - M ] [5] [ P.T.O.

030. 
Ap‘¡g hp¼e ‘f’u “uQ¡“p rh^p“p¡“¡ A“yê$‘ kpQp¡ rhL$ë‘ ‘k„v$ L$fp¡.
A>B<C<D<E=F
rh^p“ 1. F > B
rh^p“ 2. D < A
rhL$ë‘ :
(A) rh^p“ 1 kpQy„ R>¡ (B) rh^p“ 2 kpQy„ R>¡
(C) b„“¡ rh^p“ kpQp R>¡ (D) b„“¡ rh^p“ Mp¡V$p„ R>¡

031. 
“uQ¡“p hp¼edp„ r“‘ps ip¡^u“¡ gMp¡.
""sd¡ Ðep„ Apìep lp¡s sp¡ kp{ gpN¡ “¡?''
(A) sd¡ (B) Ðep„
(C) gpN¡ (D) “¡

032. 
“uQ¡“p kpv$p„ hp¼e“¡ k„ey¼s L¡$ k„Ly$g hp¼edp„ a¡fhu“¡ gMp¡.
""sd¡ ‘¥kp“y„ Å¡Md DW$php¡ R>p¡. lº„ dpfu õhs„Ósp“y„ Å¡Md DW$phy„ Ry>„.''
(A) sd¡ ‘¥kp“y„ Å¡Md DW$php¡ Ðepf¡ õhs„Ósp“y„ Å¡Md lº„ DW$phy„.
(B) ‘¥kp“y„ Å¡Md sdp{„ A“¡ õhs„Ósp“y„ Å¡Md lº„ DW$phy„ Ry>„.
(C) Å¡ sd¡ ‘¥kp“y„ Å¡Md DW$php¡ R>p¡ sp¡ lº„ õhs„Ósp“y„ Å¡Md DW$phy„ Ry>„.
(D) A¡L$ ‘Z “l].

033. 
“uQ¡“p hp¼edp„ f¡Mp„qL$s iåv$“u S>ÁepA¡ s¡“p¡ rh{Ùp’} iåv$ dyL$u“¡ hp¼e“p¡ A’® S>mhpC fl¡ s¡ fus¡
gMp¡.
fuhpA¡ A¡L$ cìe rdS>bp“u Np¡W$hu lsu.
(A) fuhpA¡ A¡L$ kpdpÞe rdS>bp“u Np¡W$hu “ lsu.
(B) fuhpA¡ A¡L$ kpdpÞe rdS>bp“u Np¡W$hu lsu.
(C) fuhpA¡ A¡L$ TpL$dTp¡m rdS>bp“u Np¡W$hu “ lsu.
(D) fuhpA¡ A¡L$ Akp^pfZ rdS>bp“u Np¡W$hu lsu.

034. 
“uQ¡“p hp¼edp„ L$ep L©$v$„s“p¡ D‘ep¡N ’e¡g R>¡?
""A¡ ‘p¡s¡ S>¡ L„$B Mphp‘uhp BÃR>¡ s¡ d¡mhu iL$i¡.''
(A) l¡Ðh’®L©$v$„s (B) c|sL©$v$„s
(C) hs®dp“L©$v$„s (D) kpdpÞeL©$v$„s

CDE : 2023 - M ] [6] [ Contd...

035. 
“uQ¡“pdp„’u L$ep iåv$“u Å¡X$Zu kpQu “’u?
(A) v$uhpmu (B) Qu’fy„
(C) âsu›$p (D) rsrdf

036. 
“uQ¡“pdp„’u L$ep¡ iåv$ kdp“p’} “’u?
(A) Arg (B) Ac®L$
(C) c©„N (D) rÜf¡a

037. 
“uQ¡“p iåv$kd|l dpV$¡ A¡L$ iåv$ ip¡^u“¡ gMp¡.
""OZp¡ ‘p¡L$pf L$fhp R>sp„ L$p¡C “ kp„cm¡ s¡hy„''
(A) Agp¥qL$L$ (B) A“pqv$
(C) AfÎe{v$“ (D) Ap¾„$v$

038. 
“uQ¡“p ê$qY$âep¡N“p¡ A’® ip¡^u“¡ gMp¡.
""Qufu“¡ duWy$„ cfhy„''
(A) OZu L$X$L$ A“¡ OpsL$u kÅ L$fhu. (B) dfQpdp„ duWy$„ cfhy„.
(C) A’pZp„ b“phhp dpV$¡ duWy$„ cfhy„. (D) ‘p’uA¡ ‘p’uA¡ s¡g “p„Mhy„.

039. 
“uQ¡ v$ip®h¡g L$l¡hs“p¡ A’® ip¡^u“¡ gMp¡.
""v$¡Mhy„ “rl “¡ v$pThy„ “rl''
(A) ÅZubyTu“¡ “yL$kp“ hlp¡fhy„. (B) S>¡ S>¡“¡ ep¡Áe s¡ s¡“¡ Ap‘hy„.
(C) AZNdsp âk„N’u v$|f S> fl¡hy„. (D) “L$pdu h^pf¡ L$fhpdp„ Aphsu dl¡“s.

040. 
“uQ¡ v$ip®h¡g sm‘v$p iåv$p¡ A“¡ s¡“p riô ê$‘p¡“u ep¡Áe Å¡X$u Np¡W$hp¡.
(A) X$p„a (s) “pi ‘pdhy„
(b) auV$hy„ (’) sL$gua
(L$) v$pMX$p¡ (v$) AphX$s
(X$) aphV$ (^) ‘Ngy„
(A) A-^, b-’, L$-s, X$-v$ (B) A-v$, b-s, L$-^, X$-’
(C) A-^, b-s, L$-’, X$-v$ (D) A-’, b-v$, L$-s, X$-^

CDE : 2023 - M ] [7] [ P.T.O.

041. "Åhg' “pd“p hpsp®k„N°l“p fQresp L$p¡Z R>¡?
(A) rh“¡i A„spZu (B) Ly„$v$r“L$p L$p‘X$uep
(C) Chp X¡$h (D) ^u{bl¡“ ‘V$¡g

042. 
“uQ¡“pdp„’u L$B L©$rs“y„ kS>®“ Ddpi„L$f Å¡iu Üpfp L$fhpdp„ Aph¡g “’u?
(A) r“iu’ (B) v$u‘dpgp
(C) kdk„h¡v$“ (D) DOpX$ubpfu

043. 
“uQ¡“pdp„’u L$B L©$rs“p kS>®L$ d^y fpe R>¡?
(A) Ly$dpf“u ANpiu (B) Ly$dpf“u T|„‘X$u
(C) Ly$dpf“u huZp (D) Ly$dpf“u fds

044. 
L$p¡Qd¡“ Agu X$p¡kp¡ ‘pÓ“p kS>®L$“y„ “pd iy„ R>¡?
(A) rQ“y dp¡v$u (B) S>e„s L$p¡W$pfu
(C) Np¥fui„L$f Np¡h^®“fpd Å¡ju (D) dp¡lçdv$ dp„L$X$

045. 
L$p¡“y„ D‘“pd ky„v$fd R>¡?
(A) h¡ZucpB ‘yfp¡rls (B) rÓcyh“v$pk ‘fkp¡Ñdv$pk gylpf
(C) fpd“pfpeZ ‘pW$L$ (D) TuZpcpB v$¡kpB

046. "Ap Ad¡ Ecp R>uA¡ skhufdp„, iy„ bp¡guA¡?' L$pìe ‘„r¼s“p fQresp L$p¡Z R>¡?
(A) L$rh bp¡V$pv$L$f (B) fpS>¡ÞÖ ipl
(C) bpgdyLy$Þv$ v$h¡ (D) fd¡i ‘pf¡M

047. 
“uQ¡ v$ip®h¡g kprlÐeL$pfp¡ A“¡ L©$rs dpV$¡ L$B hps kpQu “’u?
(A) L$rh îu rksp„iy„ eiQ„Ö dl¡sp“¡ s¡d“p L$pìek„N°l "S>V$pey' dpV$¡ NyS>fpsu cpjp“p¡ kprlÐe
AL$pv$du ‘yfõL$pf âpá ’e¡g R>¡.
(B) "kp¡Nps', "k|e®dyMu', "kp¡‘p“' L$rh îu Mgug ^“s¡S>hu“p NTgk„N°lp¡ R>¡.
(C) "AîyOf' “hgL$’p“p kS>®L$ ‘Þ“pgpg ‘V$¡g R>¡.
(D) frsgpg bp¡fukpNf Üpfp "dfL$ dfL$' A“¡ "Ap“„v$gp¡L$'“y„ kS>®“ L$fhpdp„ Apìey„ R>¡.

048. 
"dlpL$rh'“y„ rb{v$ L$ep L$rh“¡ Ap‘hpdp„ Ah¡g R>¡?
(A) ipdm (B) â¡dp“„v$
(C) v$epfpd (D) “d®v$

CDE : 2023 - M ] [8] [ Contd...

049. 
“uQ¡ v$ip®h¡g rhNsp¡“p¡ Aæepk L$fu“¡ s¡“u “uQ¡ Ap‘¡g rhL$ë‘p¡dp„’u ep¡Áe rhL$ë‘ ‘k„v$ L$fp¡.
(1) Äep¡rsÞÖ v$h¡ NyS>fpsu kprlÐedp„ lpõekd°pV$ sfuL¡$ â¿eps R>¡.
(2) "lº„ dp“hu dp“h ’pJ sp¡ OÏ„' ‘„[¼s“u fQ“p L$rh îu “ftklfph qv$h¡qV$ep Üpfp ’e¡g R>¡.
(3) “ftkl dl¡sp“p âcprsep NyS>fpsu kprlÐedp„ âQrgs R>¡.
(4) "kpky hlº“u gX$pB' NyS>fpsu cpjp“u â’d S>“‘v$u “hgL$’p R>¡.
(A) (1) A“¡ (2) kpQp R>¡. (B) (3) A“¡ (4) kpQp R>¡.
(C) (1) A“¡ (4) kpQp R>¡. (D) (1) A“¡ (3) kpQp R>¡.

050. 
NyS>fpsu qaëd "f¡hp' rhi¡ “uQ¡“pdp„’u L$C bpbs kpQu R>¡?
(A) "f¡hp' qaëd g¡ML$ îu ^°yh cË“u L©$rs "AL|$‘pf' D‘f Ap^pqfs R>¡.
(B) "f¡hp' qaëd g¡ML$ îu ^°yh cË“u L©$rs "sÐhdrk' D‘f Ap^pqfs R>¡.
(C) "f¡hp' qaëd g¡ML$ îu fOyhuf Qp¥^fu“u L©$rs "Ad©sp' D‘f Ap^pqfs R>¡.
(D) "f¡hp' qaëd g¡ML$ îu Bíhf ‘¡V$guL$f“u L©$rs "S>“dV$u‘' D‘f Ap^pqfs R>¡.

051. 
Arrange the jumbled words to form a meaningful sentence.
Enrich / grammar book / must / such/want / my knowledge / as / I / a
(A) I enrich my knowledge such as must a grammar book want.
(B) I want a grammar book such as enrich must my knowledge.
(C) I want a grammar book as such must enrich my knowledge.
(D) I want such a grammar book as must enrich my knowledge.

052. 
Identify correct spelling from the words given below.
(1) Infiltratre
(2) Secondary
(3) Astronout
(4) Exquisite
(A) (1) and (2) are correct. (B) (2) and (4) are correct
(C) (3) and (4) are correct (D) All are correct.

053. 
Choose the correct scheme to match the words with their meanings.
(1) Approach (i) False impression
(2) Delusion (j) Unfriendly person
(3) Eloquent (k) Move towards
(4) Hostile (l) One who expresses oneself effectively
(A) 1 - i , 2 - k , 3 - l ,4 - j (B) 1-k,2-l,3-i,4-j
(C) 1-k,2-i,3-l,4-j (D) 1-j,2-k,3-i,4-l

CDE : 2023 - M ] [9] [ P.T.O.

054. 
How will you join the following sentences meaningfully.
The trunk was very strong. It could not be broken easily.
(A) The trunk was too strong to be broken easily
(B) The trunk was too strong to be not broken easily.
(C) The trunk was so strong that it could be broken easily.
(D) The trunk was strong enough to be broken easily.

055. 
The new episode _______ on TV by now.
(A) must be telecasted (B) must have been telecasted
(C) must have been telecast (D) must be telecast

056. 
What is true about the sentence given below?
“The higher you climb, the thinner the air will be.”
(A) It is superlative degree. (B) It is double comparison.
(C) It is indirect speech. (D) It is passive voice.

057. 
May I pay _______ cheque?
(A) At (B) With
(C) In (D) By

058. 
Sheep eat grass, _______?
(A) Do they (B) Don’t they
(C) Does it (D) Doesn’t it

059. 
It was very cold yesterday. It’s _______ today.
(A) Warmed (B) Bit a warm
(C) A bit warmer (D) A bit more warmer

060. 
‘It’s going to be late by the time he finish.’
Which part in the above sentence needs correction?
(A) It’s (B) Going to
(C) By the time (D) Finish

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 10 ] [ Contd...

061. Resistance of a material against reversal of stress is known as

(A) Tensile strength (B) Compressive strength

(C) Shear strength (D) Fatigue strength

062. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain is known as

(A) Modulus of Elasticity (B) Modulus of Rigidity

(C) Bulk Modulus (D) Poisson’s ratio

063. The maximum bending moment in the cantilever beam subjected to UDL is M. The
bending moment at a section 1/5th of the span from the free end is _______ % of M

(A) 4 (B) 5

(C) 10 (D) 20

064. The ratio of modulus of elasticity to modulus of rigidity for a material having poisson’s
ratio 0.25 is

(A) 0.4 (B) 1.6

(C) 5/14 (D) None of the above

065. Two prismatic beams A and B are having same length. The one having larger _______
will be stronger in flexure.

(A) Section modulus (B) Moment of inertia

(C) Area of cross-section (D) None of these

066. For no tensile stress occurred in a circular column of diameter ‘d’, resultant force must
fall within _______ from the centre of column

(A) d/4 (B) d/3

(C) d/8 (D) d/6

067.  beam of span ‘L’ is fixed at both ends and carries a point load ‘W’ at its mid point. At
A
what distance from each support will be the point of contraflexure?

(A) L/4 (B) L/3

(C) 3L/8 (D) 5L/8

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 11 ] [ P.T.O.

068. A simply supported beam of span L carries two point loads P at a distance 1/3 from either
support. The value of maximum bending moment anywhere in the section will be
(A) PL/2 (B) PL/3
(C) PL/4 (D) PL/6

069.  prismatic beam fixed at both ends carries a uniformly distributed load. The ratio of
A
bending moment at mid span to bending moment at support is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(C) 1.5 (D) 2.0

070. Which of the following is/are example of kinematically determinate structure?

1. Simply supported beam
2. Cantilever beam
3. Fixed beam
4. Continuous beam
(A) 1 (B) 1&2
(C) 3 (D) 1, 2 & 4

071. Strength of wood in transverse direction as compared to that in longitudinal direction is

(A) More (B) Equal
(C) Less (D) Uniform

072. Crushing value of good quality aggregate should be

(A) <30% (B) 40% to 60%
(C) 60% to 70% (D) >70%

073. First class brick when immersed in water for 24 hours should not absorb water (by weight)
more than
(A) 5% (B) 10%
(C) 15% (D) 20%

074. The grade of Bitumen indicates its

(A) Softening point (B) Penetration value
(C) Flash point (D) Ductility

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 12 ] [ Contd...

075.  n aggregate is said to be flaky, if its least dimension is less than _______ of its mean
A
dimension
(A) 2/3 (B) 3/4
(C) 3/5 (D) 5/8

076. The impact strength of the material is an index of its

(A) Toughness (B) Tensile strength
(C) Hardness (D) Fatigue strength

077. Batch No. on cement bags indicates _______ of production

(A) Day (B) Fortnight
(C) Week (D) Month

078. Which of the following is not an ingredient of the Epoxy Mortar

(A) Resin (B) Hardener
(C) Silica sand (D) Cement

079. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a

(A) Thermosetting material (B) Thermoplastic material
(C) Elasto-plastic material (D) Rigid plastic material

080. The portion of the brick obtained by cutting a brick length wise in to two portion is called
(A) Bat (B) King closure
(C) Queen closure (D) Bevelled closure

081. Which strength of concrete is maximum?

(A) Compressive (B) Flexural
(C) Tensile (D) Fatigue

082. Which of the following test is used for measuring workability of self compacted concrete?
(A) Slump test (B) Compaction factor test
(C) V Bee test (D) J Ring test

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 13 ] [ P.T.O.

083. Which of the following code used to design concrete mix

(A) IS:10262 (B) IS:456

(C) IS:800 (D) IS:10265

084. Dosage of superplaticizer in concrete shall be restricted to _______ % by weight of

cementitious material as per IS:456-2000

(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0

(C) 1.5 (D) 2.0

085. The most suitable type of vibrator to be used for column member is

(A) Needle (B) Surface vibrator

(C) Platform vibrator (D) Formwork vibrator

086. If a slump value of a concrete mix is 80 mm, workability of the mix is said to be

(A) Very low (B) Low

(C) Medium (D) High

087. Which one of the following is not required in the concrete mix design?

(A) Degree of quality control

(B) Workability

(C) Initial setting time of cement

(D) Characteristic strength of concrete at 28 days

088. How can you make concrete set faster?

(A) Adding alcohol (B) Adding calcium chloride

(C) Adding gypsum (D) Adding sugar

089. Wide and deep cracks in concrete members may be repaired by

(A) Grouting (B) Shotcrete or guniting

(C) Epoxy injection (D) All of the above

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 14 ] [ Contd...

090. Consider the following strengths of concrete :
1. Cube strength
2. Cylinder strength
3. Split-tensile strength
4. Modulus of rupture
The correct sequence in increasing order of these strengths is
(A) 3, 4, 2, 1 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1 (D) 4, 3, 1, 2

091. The purpose of lateral ties in the short R. C. column is to

(A) Increase the load carrying capacity of column
(B) Facilitate compaction in column
(C) Facilitate construction
(D) Prevent buckling of longitudinal steel

092. Minimum grade of concrete recommended by IS:456-2000 for RC work in severe

exposure condition is
(A) M30 (B) M25
(C) M20 (D) M15

093. In two way slab, generally which one of following reinforcement is not provided?
(A) Main reinforcement (B) Distribution reinforcement
(C) Shear Reinforcement (D) Torsion Reinforcement

094. In a RCC beam, side face reinforcement is provided when the depth of the beam exceeds
(A) 300 mm (B) 450 mm
(C) 700 mm (D) 750 mm

095. What imposed load (udl kN/m2) should be considered for a corridors, passages, lobbies
& staircases in a Institutional building as per IS 875 (part 2)-1987?
(A) 2.0 (B) 3.0
(C) 4.0 (D) 5.0

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 15 ] [ P.T.O.

096. Spacing of distribution bars in an RCC slab (of effective depth as ‘d’) shall not exceed
(A) 2d or 200 mm, whichever is lesser (B) 3d or 300 mm, whichever is lesser
(C) 5d or 450 mm, whichever is lesser (D) 600 mm

097. Which of the following steel section is most suitable for a member subjected to torsional
moment?
(A) Tubular section (B) Channel section
(C) Angle section (D) I section

098. Intermediate vertical stiffeners are provided in the plate girders to

(A) Transfer concentrated loads (B) Eliminate local buckling
(C) Eliminate web buckling (D) Transfer UDL

099. Bracings are provided in a pitched roof industrial steel building to primarily resist which
types of force?
(A) Dead load (B) Live load
(C) Wind load (D) Earthquake load

100. In the case of structural steel sections, the minimum ratio of outstand to the thickness of
element in compression is specified to prevent
(A) Tension failure (B) Shear failure
(C) Bending failure (D) Local bucking

101. In the retaining wall structure, in case of passive earth pressure, the movement of wall is
(A) Away from the soil (B) Towards the soil
(C) Not taken place (D) Both (A) or (B)

102. Sand drains are used to

(A) Reduce settlement (B) Accelerate consolidation process
(C) Increase permeability (D) Transfer load

103. Grain size of a soil indicated that D10 = 0.0005mm, D30 = 0.003mm and D60 = 0.006mm.
The uniformity coefficient of the soil is
(A) 0.5 (B) 2.0
(C) 6.0 (D) 12.0

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 16 ] [ Contd...

104. The correct sequence of the given parameters in descending order of earth pressure
intensity is
(A) Active, passive, at rest (B) Passive, at rest, active
(C) Passive, active, at rest (D) At rest, passive, active

105. The notation "SC" as per Indian Standard Soil Classification System refers to
(A) Clayey silt (B) Sandy clay
(C) Clayey sand (D) Silty clay

106. If the difference in elevation of an edge of the pavement 9 m wide and its crown is 15 cm,
the camber of the pavement is
(A) 1 in 60 (B) 1 in 30
(C) 1 in 45 (D) 1 in 15

107. Desire lines are plotted in

(A) Traffic volume studies (B) Speed studies
(C) Accident studies (D) Origin and destination studies

108. The minimum length of overtaking zone should be _______ times the safe overtaking
distance
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

109. Slab bridge is generally preferred structural system for maximum span of
(A) 2m (B) 6m
(C) 9m (D) 15 m

110. The most common counter measure use to prevent scour at bridge abutments is
(A) Sand bags (B) Cut water
(C) Turf (D) Rip rap

111. What is the maximum limit of super elevation for highway as per the guidelines of IRC?
(A) 5% (B) 6%
(C) 7% (D) 8%

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 17 ] [ P.T.O.

112. The centrifugal force acting on vehicle will be more when
(A) Radius of curvature is less (B) Velocity is less
(C) Weight of the train is less (D) None of the above

113. The rate of usage of the available parking space is called

(A) Parking index (B) Parking load
(C) Parking turn-over (D) Parking duration

114. Which one of the following rollers is suitable for soil cement stabilized road construction?
(A) Vibratory roller (B) Sheep foot roller
(C) Pneumatic roller (D) Smooth wheel roller

115. Resonators are used in tunnels for the purpose of

(A) Dust control (B) Drainage control
(C) Noise control (D) Ventilation control

116. The power transmitted through the pipe is maximum when head lost due to friction in the
pipe is equal to
(A) 1/3rd of the total supply head (B) 1/4th of the total supply head
(C) 1/5th of the total supply head (D) 1/8th of the total supply head

117. The corrosion is observed in sewer line due to

(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen sulphide
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Carbon monoxide

118. The minimum pipe size as per the recommendation of Ministry of Urban Development
for the town having population above 50000 is _______.
(A) 100 mm dia (B) 150 mm dia
(C) 200 mm dia (D) 250 mm dia

119. Two samples of water X and Y have pH values of 5 and 7 respectively. How many times
more acidic sample X is than sample Y?
(A) 50 (B) 100
(C) 150 (D) 200

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 18 ] [ Contd...

120. The population of small town is 10,000. The water supply to the population is 150 litres
per capita per day. Assuming that 80% of water supplied to the town is converted into
sewage. Hence, total sewage flow will be _______ litres/day.

(A) 1000 × 103 (B) 1100 × 103

(C) 1200 × 103 (D) 1300 × 103

121. Reinforced concrete pressure pipe of class ______ is to be tested at hydrostatic pressure
of 4 Kg/cm2 for conveyance of water.

(A) P1 (B) P2

(C) P3 (D) P4

122. As per IS-1742:1960, the recommended spacing of manholes on straight reaches for
sewer line of diameter greater than 1.5 meter is

(A) 250 meter (B) 300 meter

(C) 350 meter (D) 400 meter

123. Which of the following is used to measure discharge?

(A) Anemometer (B) Current meter

(C) Venturimeter (D) All of these

124. What is bottom width of canal, which has side slope of 0.5 H : 1 V and cross section area
of 42 square meter with depth of canal as 2 m?

(A) 20 m (B) 21 m

(C) 22 m (D) 40 m

125. Hydraulic mean depth of sewer having diameter of 0.80 m is

(A) 200 mm (B) 400 mm

(C) 800 mm (D) 1000 mm

126. The amount which the selected contractor has to deposit before the start of work is called

(A) Earnest money (B) Security Deposit

(C) Mobilization fund (D) Capital fund

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 19 ] [ P.T.O.

127. The type of estimate required when a sanctioned estimate is likely to exceed more than
5% due to any cause except important structural alterations is called
(A) Supplementary estimate (B) Revised estimate
(C) Quantity estimate (D) Complete estimate

128. To construct brick masonry of one cubic meter, number of bricks required are
(A) 300 (B) 500
(C) 800 (D) 1000

129. Which type of crane is usually used in construction of residential high rise buildings?
(A) Mobile cranes (B) Gantry cranes
(C) Tower cranes (D) Derrick cranes

130. _______ is provided at the junction of house drain with the public sewer or septic tank.
(A) Nanhi trap (B) Floor trap
(C) Gully trap (D) Intercepting trap

131.  hat number of treads will be there in a single flight of stair provided for floor height of
W
3.0 m with 15 cm height of each riser are
(A) 20 (B) 19
(C) 21 (D) 15

132. A masonry building can be made earthquake resistant by

1. Providing corner steel
2. Providing lintel band
3. Providing plinth band
(A) 2 only (B) 2 & 3 only
(C) 1 & 2 only (D) 1, 2 & 3 all

133. Which of the following equipment is not used for hauling?

(A) Tractors (B) Bulldozers
(C) Draglines (D) Scrapers

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 20 ] [ Contd...

134. Given that the scope of the construction work is with the contractor with design,
procurement, construction, commissioning & handover the project. Which one of the
following type of the contract would be most preferred?

(A) EPC contract (B) Percentage rate contract

(C) Item rate contract (D) Lump sum rate contract

135. Sinking fund is

(A) The fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over

(B) Raised to meet maintenance costs

(C) A part of the money kept in for structural modifications

(D) Amount to be paid by the tenants to authorities

136. Chlorine demand of water is equal to

(A) Applied chlorine

(B) Residual chlorine

(C) Applied chlorine + Residual chlorine

(D) Applied chlorine – Residual chlorine

137. The relation between Theoretical Oxygen Demand (TOD), Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(BOD) and Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is given by

(A) TOD > BOD > COD (B) TOD > COD > BOD

(C) BOD > TOD > COD (D) BOD > COD > TOD

138. If DO (Dissolved Oxygen) concentration falls down to zero in any natural drainage, it
indicates,

(A) Zone of degradation (B) Zone of recovery

(C) Zone of active decomposition (D) Zone of cleaner water

139.  he tolerance limit of BOD for discharging industrial effluent into inland surface water
T
as per IS 2490-1974 is

(A) 20 mg/L (B) 30 mg/L

(C) 100 mg/L (D) 250 mg/L

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 21 ] [ P.T.O.

140. The maximum safe permissible limit of sulphates in domestic water supply is

(A) 200 mg/L (B) 300 mg/L

(C) 400 mg/L (D) 50 mg/L

141. Which of the following equipment provides three dimensional positioning?

(A) Total station (B) Digital theodolite

(C) Vernier theodolite (D) GPS

142. If a line AB has FB of 40° and line BC has FB of 10°, then what is included angle
between these lines

(A) 50° (B) 100°

(C) 150° (D) 210°

143. _______ is the process of establishing intermediate points with a theodolite on a given
straight line whose ends are intervisible.

(A) Swinging (B) Transit

(C) Lining in (D) Balancing in

144.  hat is tangent length of a simple circular curve whose radius is 200 m and deflection
W
angle is 90° ?

(A) 100 m (B) 200 m

(C) 400 m (D) 800 m

145. A scale of 1 inch = 100 ft is mentioned on an old map. What is the corresponding
equivalent scale?

(A) 1 cm = 3 m (B) 1 cm = 6 m

(C) 1 cm = 9 m (D) 1 cm = 12 m

146. The total height of the Statue of Unity (including structure) is _______ metre, located
near kevadia colony of Gujarat state.

(A) 210 (B) 220

(C) 230 (D) 240

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 22 ] [ Contd...

147. The track gauge of Ahmedabad Metro Rail is _______.
(A) 762 mm (B) 1000 mm
(C) 1435 mm (D) 1676 mm

148. The length of Atal Pedestrian Bridge in Ahmedabad is _______ metres

(A) 200 (B) 250
(C) 300 (D) 350

149. GIFT - city project is a joint venture between Infrastructure Leasing & Financial Services
Ltd (IL & FS) and
(A) GUDC (B) GSFC
(C) GCSC (D) GUDM

150. The piers in water at Okha - Bet Dwarka Signature bridge is _______.
(A) 14 (B) 17
(C) 20 (D) 23

CDE : 2023 - M ] [ 23 ] [ P.T.O.

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