REE OBJECTIVES #18 10.

A generating plant that is connected to a distribution

(GRID CODE - EPIRA LAW RA 9136) system or the system of any user and has no direct
connection to the grid.
A. Thermal Generating plant
1. The process of automatically and deliberately removing B. Hydroelectric Plant
pre-selected loads from a power system in response to an C. Interconnected power plant
abnormal condition in order to maintain the integrity of D. Embedded generating plant
the system.
A. Auxiliary Load Dropping 11. Any person or entity requiring the supply and delivery
B. Apparent Load Dropping of electricity for its own use.
C. Active Load Dropping A. End user C. Energy receiver
D. Automatic Load Dropping B. Energy user D. Any of these

2. A form of protection that operates independently of the 12. An unscheduled or unplanned occurrence of an abrupt
specified components in the primary protection system. It change or disturbance in a power system due to fault,
may duplicate the primary protection or may be intended equipment outage or adverse weather condition.
to operate only if the primary protection fails or is A. Fault C. Event
temporarily out of service. B. Emergency D. Outage
A. support protection
B. Backup support 13. The capability of a generating unit or generating plant
C. Backup protection to start and synchronize with the grid within 15 minutes.
D. Independent protection A. Medium start C. Black start
B. Slow start D. Fast start
3. Refers to a generating unit that has fast start capability
and can synchronize with the grid to provide its declared 14. The time interval from fault inception until the end of
capacity for a minimum period of 8 hours. Also called Cold the arc extinction by the circuit breaker.
standby Reserved. A. Fault clearance time C. Fault dispensing time
A. Support reserve C. Component reserve B. Fault removal time D. Fault clearing time
B. Backup reserve D. Auxiliary reserve
15. The expected current, expressed in kA or in MVA that
4. The process of recovery from total system Blackout will flow into a short circuit at a specified point on the
using a generating unit with the capability to start and grid, distribution system or any user system.
synchronize with the system without an external power A. Max fault C. Fault level
supply. B. Average fault D. Interrupting fault
A. Fast start C. Immediate start
B. Instant start D. Black start 16. The high voltage backbone system of interconnected
transmission lines, substations and related facilities for the
5. A notice issued by the system operator when a tropical conveyance of bulk power. Also known as the
disturbance is expected to make a landfall within 24 transmission system.
hours. A. Power system C. Grid
A. red alert C. yellow alert B. Generators D. Power network
B. blue alert D. green alert
17. A generating plant or a group of generating plants and
6. The process of issuing direct instructions to the electric its associated load, which is isolated from the rest of the
power industry participants by the system operator to grid but is capable of generating and maintaining a stable
achieve an economic operation while maintaining power supply of electricity to the customers within the isolated
quality, stability and the reliability and security of the grid. area.
A. Central dispatch C. Momentary dispatch A. Island Grid C. Power Grid
B. Control dispatch D. Automatic dispatch B. Generating system D. Generating Grid

7. A schematic representation, using standard electrical 18. A Large Customer is a customer with a demand of at
symbols, which shows the connection of equipment or least ________ MW or the threshold value specified by
power system components to each other or to external the ERC.
circuits. A. 1 C. 3
A. one-line diagram C. electrical diagram B. 2 D. 5
B. riser diagram D. none of these
19. A large generator is a generation company whose
8. The data which replaces the estimated values that were generating facility at the connection point has an
assumed for planning purposes with validated actual aggregate capacity in excess of _________ MW.
values and updated estimates for the future and by A. 5 C. 15
updated forecast, in the case of the forecast data. B. 10 D. 20
A. connected project data
B. connected planning data 20. The abbreviation MLD means
C. committed project planning data A. Medium Load Dropping
D. connected project planning data B. Manual Load Dropping
C. Momentary Load Dropping
9. Generating capacity that is intended to take care of the D. Minimum Load Dropping
loss of the largest synchronized generating unit or the
power import from a single grid interconnection whichever 21. An independent group, with equitable representation
is larger. from electric power industry participants, whose task
A. Backup reserve C. Spinning reserve includes the operation and administration of the whole
B. Contingency reserve D. Emergency reserve sale electricity spot market in accordance with the market
rules.
A. Market distributor C. Market operator
B. Grid operator D. Grid coordinator
22. Overvoltage is a long duration voltage variation where 34. A linear, two-terminal network with dependent and
the RMS value of the voltage is greater than or equal to independent sources can be represented by a voltage
________ percent of the nominal voltage. source in series with a resistor according to ________.
A. 105 C. 115 A. the superposition theorem
B. 110 D. 125 B. Norton’s theorem
C. the reciprocity theorem
23. The abbreviation PEP means D. Thevenin’s theorem
A. Philippine Energy Program
B. Philippine Energy Production 35. A parallel AC circuit consisting of inductances,
C. Philippine Energy Plan capacitances and/or resistances, the total circuit
D. Power Development Process impedance may be found as the
A. reciprocal of the sum of individual admittances
24. The abbreviation PDP means B. sum of the reciprocals of the individual impedances
A. Philippine Developing Power C. arithmetic sum of the individual admittances
B. Power Development Program D. sum of individual impedances
C. Power Distribution Program
D. Power Development Process 36. The component of system loss that refers to the
energy used in the proper operation of the distribution
25. A chronological record of messages relating to safety system (e.g. substation service) and any unbilled energy
coordination sent and received by each safety coordinator. that is used for community-related activities.
A. safety rules C. safety log A. Maintenance loss C. Managerial loss
B. safety precautions D. safety tag B. Administrative loss D. Executive loss

26. A label conveying warning against possible 37. Support service such as frequency regulating and
interference or intervention as defined in the safety contingency reserves, reactive power support, and black
clearance and tagging procedures. start capability, which are necessary to quality, and the
A. safety rules C. safety log reliability and security of the grid and/or the distribution
B. safety precautions D. safety tag system.
A. Ancillary service C. Automatic service
27. The abbreviation of SPUG means B. Auxiliary service D. Apparent service
A. Small Power Utilities Group
B. Small Plant Utilities Group 38. The component of system loss that is inherent in the
C. Small Power User Group physical delivery of electrical energy. It includes conductor
D. Standard Power Utilities Group loss, transformer core loss and technical error in meters.
A. Technical loss C. Non-technical loss
28. The process of bringing a generating unit from B. Administrative loss D. Maintenance loss
shutdown to synchronous speed.
A. Fast Start C. Start up 39. The component of system loss that is not related to
B. black start D. start on the physical characteristics and functions of the electrical
system, and is caused primarily by human error, whether
29. The state when connected generating units and/or intentional or not. This also includes the energy lost due
interconnected AC systems operate at the same frequency to the tampering of meters and erroneous meter reading.
and where the phase angle displacements between their A. Technical loss C. Non-technical loss
voltages vary about a stable operating point. B. Administrative loss D. Maintenance loss
A. Resonant C. Balanced
B. Synchronized D. Coincident 40. The projected demand and active energy related to
each connection point in the distribution system.
30. A reduction in demand for the control of the frequency A. Demand control C. Demand forecast
when the grid is in the emergency state. This includes B. Demand projection D. Forecast center
automatic load dropping, manual load dropping, demand
disconnection initiated by end-users, customer demand 41. Additional data, which the distributor requires, for the
management and voluntary load curtailment. conduct of a more accurate distribution system planning
A. Automatic control C. Demand control study.
B. Load control D. Emergency control A. Complete planning data
B. Adjusted planning data
31. In a resonant series-RLC circuit all of the following are C. Distribution planning data
true except D. Detailed Planning data
A. impedance equals resistance
B. current and voltage are in phase 42. The process of apportioning of the total demand of the
C. current is a minimum grid through the issuance of dispatch instructions to the
D. power dissipation is a maximum scheduled generating units providing ancillary services in
order to achieve the operational requirements of balancing
32. The amount of voltage induced when some of the demand with generation that will ensure the security of
magnetic flux produced in one coil passes through a the grid.
second coil is given by ________. A. Distribution C. Dispatch
A. Kirchhoff’s current law C. Ohm’s Law B. Regulation D. Forecast
B. Kirchhoff’s voltage law D. Faraday’s Law
43. An electric cooperative, private corporation,
33. The current present in any branch of a linear single- government-owned utility, or existing local government
voltage source network is interchangeable in location with unit that has an exclusive franchise to operate a
the voltage source without affecting the current according distribution system.
to ________. A. Distribution company C. Distributor company
A. the supposition theorem B. Distribution utility D. Any of these
B. Norton’s theorem
C. the reciprocity theorem
D. Thevenin’s theorem
44. A generating unit proving Back-up Reserve shall have 55. A long duration voltage variation is an over-voltage if
Fast Start capability and its capacity shall be sustainable the RMS value of the voltage is greater than or equal to
for a minimum period of________ hours. ________ percent of the nominal value.
A. 5 C. 10 A. 105 C. 110
B. 8 D. 12 B. 115 D. 120

45. The grid owner shall conduct ________ studies to 56. Which of the following is NOT a Reliability Index.
assess the effect of any proposed Grid expansion project A. SAIFI C. SAIDI
on the grid and the system of other users. B. MAIDI D. MAIFI
A. Grid impact C. Load flow
B. Grid planning D. Stability 57. Is a type of Reliability Index where the total duration
sustained customer power interruption within a given
46. Shall be defined as the ratio of the RMS value of the period divided by the total number of customers served
harmonic content to the RMS value of the rated or within the same period?
maximum demand fundamental quantity, expressed in A. SAIFI C. SAIDI
percent. B. MAIDI D. MAIFI
A. Total Harmonic Distortion (THD)
B. Total Harmonic Demand 58. Is a type of Reliability Index where the total number
C. Total Demand Factor of sustained customer power interruptions within a given
D. Total Demand Distortion (TDD) period divided by the total number of customers served
within the same period?
47. At any user’s system, the THD of the voltage shall not A. SAIFI C. SAIDI
exceed ________ percent during normal operating B. MAIDI D. MAIFI
conditions.
A. 5 C. 4 59. Is a type of Reliability Index where the total number
B. 6 D. 3 of momentary customer power interruptions within a
given period divided by the total number of customers
48. In the distribution Code, the distribution shall design served within the same period?
and operate its systems to assist the system operator in A. SAIFI C. SAIDI
maintaining its fundamental frequency within the limits of B. MAIDI D. MAIFI
________ Hz during normal conditions
A. 59.7 to 60.3 Hz C. 59.8 to 60.1 Hz 60. MAIFI means ________
B. 58.9 to 60.3 Hz D. 58.8 to 60 Hz A. Minimum Actual Interruption Frequency Index
B. Maximum Actual Interruption Frequency Index
49. The facility used for monitoring and controlling the C. Momentary Action Interruption Frequency Index
operation of the grid, distribution system, or a user D. Momentary Average Interruption Frequency
system. Index
A. Controlling center
B. User control center 61. SAIDI means ________
C. Control center A. System Average Interruption Duration Index
D. Distribution control center B. Systematic Action Interruption Dual Information
C. Synchronized Action Interruption Diversity Isolation
50. In the assessment of the disturbance caused by a D. System Attention Information Demand Index
flicker severity shall be computed over a period
_________. 62. SAIFI means ________
A. 30 seconds C. 10 seconds A. System Average Interruption Frequency Index
B. 2 minutes D. 10 minutes B. Systematic Action Interruption Forced Information
C. Synchronized Action Interruption Frequency Isolation
51. A long duration voltage variation shall be defined as a D. System Attention Information Franchise Index
variation of the RMS value of the voltage from the nominal
or normal voltage for a long time greater than ________ 63. The non-technical loss shall be the aggregate of the
in minute(s). energy load due to the following, except
A. one C. three A. Pilferage
B. two D. four B. meter reading errors
C. administrative loss
52. A short duration voltage is a voltage swell if the RMS D. meter tampering
value of the voltage increases to between ________
percent and ________ percent of the nominal value. 64. Embedded generating unit proving ancillary services
A. 105; 175 C. 110; 180 for frequency regulation reserve shall be fitted with
B. 110; 150 D. 115; 180 _________ speed governing system.
A. fast regulation C. fast running
53. A short duration voltage variation is a variation of the B. fast acting D. fast start
RMS value of the voltage from the nominal voltage for a
time greater than ________ cycle of the power frequency 65. The flicker severity for a voltage level below 115 kV at
but not exceeding ________ minute(s)’ the connection point of any user shall not exceed
A. one; three C. three-fourth; two ________ unit for a short and ________ unit(s) for long
B. one-third; four D. one-half; one term.
A. 0.90; 0.80 C. 1.0; 0.80
54. A long duration voltage variation is considered as B. 0.95; 0.80 D. 1.0; 0.90
under-voltage if the RMS value of the voltage is less than
or equal to ________ percent of the nominal voltage. 66. When there is a generation deficiency, the grid is to
A. 95 C. 92.5 be considered in the ________ state.
B. 90 D. 97.5 A. Alert C. Extreme
B. Emergency D. Restorative
 C. cause the switch to wear out
D. result in damage to the ballast
67. PSALM means ________.
A. Power Sector Assets and Liabilities Management 80. Electrical appliances are connected in parallel because
B. Private Sector Assets and Liabilities Management it ________ .
C. Power Section Assets and Liabilities Management A. makes the operation of appliances independent of
D. Power Sector Assets and Liabilities Maintenance each other
B. results in reduced power loss
68. The flicker severity for a voltage level above 115 kV at C. is a simple circuit
the connection point of any user shall not exceed _______ D. draws less current
unit for a short and _______ unit(s) for long term.
A. 0.90; 0.80 C. 0.80; 0.60 81. Electrical appliances are connected in series because
B. 0.95; 0.80 D. 1.0; 0.90 ________.
A. series circuits are complicate
69. RA 9136 (EPIRA) has four sectors, which of the B. the power loss is too great
following is not included? C. appliances have different current ratings
A. System Operation C. Distribution D. the voltage is the same
B. Supply D. Generation
82. The AC system is preferred to the DC system because
70. The maximum zero sequence unbalanced factor at the ________
connection point of any user shall NOT exceed _________ A. DC voltage cannot be used for domestic appliances
percent during normal condition. B. DC motors do not have spped control
A. one C. two C. AC voltages can be easily changed in magnitude
B. five D. three D. high-voltage AC transmission is less efficient

71. For a voltage level of 500 kV, the maximum harmonic 83. What is the reason the PEC requires each separate
voltage distortion factor is ________ percent for the odd phase conductor to be located in the same raceway?
harmonic and ________ percent for even harmonics. A. to reduce inductive heat
A. 1%; 0.50% C. 1%; 2% B. to improve workmanship
B. 0.50%; 1% D. 2%; 1% C. to provide identification of a circuit
D. to assure balance resistance
72. For a voltage level of 500 kV, the Total Harmonic
Distortion (THD) is _________. 84. The difference between neutral and a grounded circuit
A. 1.5% C. 2.5% conductor is ________.
B. 3% D. 5% A. only a neutral will have equal potential to the
ungrounded conductor
73. For a voltage level of 115 kV – 230 kV, the maximum B. only neutrals outer covering is white or natural gray
harmonic voltage distortion factor is _________ percent C. only a neutral carry unbalanced current
for the odd harmonic and _________ percent for even D. there is no difference
harmonics.
A. 1.5%; 1% C. 1%; 2% 85. All conductors of the same circuit and, where used,
B. 0.50%; 1% D. 2%; 1% the grounded conductor and all equipment grounding
conductors shall be contained within the same ________.
74. For a voltage level of 69 kV, the maximum harmonic I. cable II. raceway III. Trench
voltage distortion factor is _________ percent for the odd
A. I only C. I and II only
harmonic and _________ percent for even harmonics.
B. II only D. I, II and III
A. 3%; 2% C. 1%; 2%
B. 0.50%; 1% D. 2%; 1%
86. When a circuit breaker is in the OPEN position
_______.
75. For a voltage level of 115 kV – 230 kV, the Total
I. you have a short circuit in the ungrounded conductor
Harmonic Distortion (THD) is _________.
II. you have a short circuit in the grounded conductor
A. 2.5% C. 2%
A. I only C. either I or II
B. 3% D. 5%
B. II only D. both I and II

76. For a voltage level of 69 kV, the Total Harmonic

87. Operation of equipment in excess of normal, full-load
Distortion (THD) is _________.
rating, or of conductor in excess of rated ampacity which,
A. 1.5% C. 2.5%
when persists for a sufficient length of time, would cause
B. 3% D. 5%
damage or dangerous overheating is called _______ .
A. a short circuit C. a ground fault
77. In the preparation of electrical diagram, the current
B. an overload D. induction
status of the equipment shall be indicated in the diagram,
For example, a decommissioned switch bay shall be
88. A qualifying term indicating that the circuit breaker
labelled “__________”.
can be set to trip at various values of current and/or time
A. in active bay C. hot bay
within a predetermined range is called ________.
B. cold bay D. spare bay
A. adjustable C. setting
B. instantaneous trip D. inverse time
78. The speed-governing systems of the Generating unit
providing primary response for frequency regulation shall
89. Metal cabinets used for lighting circuits are grounded
have a maximum response time of ________ seconds.
in order to ________ .
A. 5 C. 3
I. eliminate electrolysis
B. 8 D. 10
II. limit the voltage to ground
III. simplify wiring
79. A fluorescent light that blinks “on” and “off”
IV. facilitate over-current device operation
repeatedly may in time ________.
A. cause the fuse to blow A. I only C. III only
B. cause the wire to melt B. I and II only D. II and IV only
 101.What is PEMC in EPIRA stands for?
Ans. Philippine Electricity Market Corporation

90. Grounding conductor shall not be connected by 102. What is TSC in EPIRA stands for?
______. Ans. Transition Supply Contract
A. exothermic welding 103. What is JCPC in EPIRA stands for?
Ans. Joint congressional Power Commission
B. soldered fittings
C. listed pressure connectors
104. A single grounding electrode is permitted when the
D. listed clamp resistance to ground as stated in the PEC is ________.
Ans. 25 ohms or less
91. The neutral conductor ________
A. is always the “white” grounded conductor 105. The minimum size of copper equipment grounding
B. carries the balance current conductor required for equipment connected to a 40 A
C. carries the unbalanced current branch circuit is ________.
D. All of the above Ans. 5.5 sq.mm

92. ________ is a protective device for assembly as an 106. In EPIRA, what does OARC stands for?
integral part of a motor or motor-compressor which, when Ans. Open Access and Retail Competition
properly applied, protects the motor against dangerous
107. Common cause of failure of termination of cable.
overheating due to overload and failure to start.
Ans. Penciling of insulation
A. thermal protector C. thermal cut-out
B. thermal overcurrent D. thermal heat anticipator 108. The minimum size of conductors to be used for
lighting purpose is ________.
93. Compliance with the provisions of the PEC will result in Ans. 2.0 sq.mm
________.
A. freedom from hazard C. an efficient system 110. Which of the following sizes of fuse is NOT standard?
B. good electrical service D. convenient operation A. 80 A C. 125 A
B. 45 A D. 75 A
94. What are Optical Fiber Cables used for?
I. transmit light for control 111. What is the temperature rating of THHN insulation?
II. signaling Ans. 900C
III. communications
112. What is the temperature rating of THW insulation?
A. I only C. III only Ans. 750C
B. II only D. I, II and III
113. What is the temperature rating of TW insulation?
95. In PEC, ________ are used to provide explanatory Ans. 600C
material, references to other sections, precautions to be
observed, and further mandatory requirements. 114. What is RES stands for in EPIRA?
A. Mandatory rules C. Exceptions Ans. Retail Electricity Suppliers
B. Listings D. Fine print notes
115. Minimum size of service drop copper conductors
allowed by the PEC?
96. Without live parts exposed to a person on the Ans. 8.0 sq.mm
operating side of the equipment is called ________
A. dead front C. externally operable 116. In RA 9136, what do you call a market that there is
B. isolated D. interrupted no choice to select a supplier of electrical energy?
Ans. Captive Market
97. The main reason that water should not be used to
extinguish fires involving electrical equipment is that 118. The electric power industry is divided into how many
water ________. sectors? Ans. 4
A. may transmit shock to the user
B. is ineffective in extinguishing electrical fires 119. The engines on a commercial jet aircraft operates on
C. may short out the equipment which of the basic cycles? Ans. Brayton Cycle
D. will ruin the electrical equipment
120. What is produced when calcium carbide is mixed with
water? Ans. Acetylene
98. Conductor overheating can be caused by
I. overload 121. The maximum voltage allowed in dwelling units.
II. high ambient temperature Ans. 230 V
III. grouping of more than 3 current carrying conductors
without derating 122. The minimum diameter of a steel ground electrode.
A. I only C. II and III only Ans. 16 mm
B. II only D. I, II or III
123. The materials with the highest heat conductivities
99. The life of insulation used in electrical installation is are the ________. Ans. Metals
directly affected by the heat. Of the following, the
electrical insulation which can least withstand heat is 124. The maximum distance between two outlets in a
________ dwelling unit. Ans. 1800 mm
A. mica C. fiberglass
B. rubber D. enamel 125. In a single phase, 3-wire electrical system, the
middle conductor must be _________. Ans. Grounded
100. The primary purpose for grounding a raceway is to
prevent the raceway from becoming ________. 127. A substance which changes the speed of a chemical
A. accidentally energized at a higher potential than action without itself being changed is called _________ .
ground Ans. Catalyst
B. a source of induction
C. Magnetized 129. An instrument used for measuring high temperature
D. a path for eddy currents gases? Ans. Pyrometer
130. The unit lighting for a dwelling unit expressed in
watts per sq.m shall be ________ . Ans. 24 watts

131. The part of specification which describes the work as

a whole. Ans. General Clause