Practice Questions CH 4

Questions ch 4
4.1
1. Developmental psychologists study:
A) Only cognitive development
B) Only social development
C) Both cognitive and social development
D) Neither cognitive nor social development
2. Patrice's realization about her grandmother shows:
A) She understands the concept of aging
B) She lacks understanding of her grandmother's history
C) She believes her grandmother hasn't changed at all
D) She doesn't comprehend the complexity of development
3. Exposure to teratogens during pregnancy can lead to:
A) Improved physical development
B) Enhanced cognitive functioning
C) Negative impacts on physical and cognitive development
D) No impact on development
4. Which of the following is NOT considered a teratogen?
A) Alcohol
B) Smoking
C) Healthy diet
D) Certain medications
5. Cognitive development after birth involves understanding:
A) Prenatal environments
B) Language acquisition only
C) How infants perceive and learn about the world
D) Social interactions with peers
6. What do developmental scientists study regarding cognitive development?
A) Attention, language, and memory
B) Parent–child interactions
C) Sibling relationships
D) Peer interactions
7. When do infants typically begin to form bonds with their primary caregivers?
A) At birth
B) Around 6 months
C) After 2 years
D) At preschool age
8. How might children react to the birth of a new sibling?
A) With indifference
B) With jealousy
C) With excitement
D) Both B and C
9. Is being bullied as a child associated with:
A) Positive outcomes in adulthood
B) No outcomes in adolescence
C) Negative outcomes in adolescence or adulthood
D) Improved social skills
10. What is the purpose of studying developmental psychology?

A) To understand how humans grow and change over the lifespan
B) To learn about animal behavior
C) To focus only on prenatal development
D) To understand historical events
11. Who is mentioned in the article as looking through a family photo album?
A) Pat
B) Patricia
C) Patrice
D) Patrick
12. Who narrates the family photo album in the article?
A) Pat
B) Patrice's mother
C) Patrice's grandmother
D) Patrice's father
13. What are the long-term outcomes of exposure to teratogens?
B) No impact on cognitive functioning
D) Enhanced cognitive functioning
14. At what age do children typically produce their first words?
A) Around 6 months
B) Around 12 months
C) Around 24 months
D) Around 36 months
15. What aspect of cognitive development involves understanding how infants come to think and learn
about the world?
A) Language acquisition
B) Attention, language, and memory
C) Prenatal environments
16. What do developmental scientists study regarding social development?
B) Parent–child interactions, sibling relationships, and peer interactions
D) Cognitive functioning
17. How do children typically react to the birth of a new sibling?
B) With excitement
C) With jealousy
D) With boredom
18. What is the purpose of studying cognitive development?
19. Who is mentioned in the article as having a family photo album?
A) Pat
B) Patricia
C) Patrice
D) Patrick
A) Pat
B) Patrice's mother
D) Patrice's father
A) Around 6 months
B) Around 12 months
C) Around 24 months
D) Around 36 months
about the world?

B) With excitement
C) With jealousy
D) With boredom
A) Pat
B) Patricia
C) Patrice
D) Patrick
A) Pat
B) Patrice's mother
D) Patrice's father

A) Around 6 months
B) Around 12 months
C) Around 24 months
D) Around 36 months
about the world?
B) With excitement
C) With jealousy
D) With boredom
A) Pat
B) Patricia
C) Patrice
D) Patrick
A) Pat
B) Patrice's mother
D) Patrice's father
A) Around 6 months
B) Around 12 months
C) Around 24 months
D) Around 36 months
about the world?
B) With excitement
C) With jealousy
D) With boredom

A) Pat
B) Patricia
C) Patrice
D) Patrick
A) Pat
B) Patrice's mother
D) Patrice's father
A) Around 6 months
B) Around 12 months
C) Around 24 months
D) Around 36 months
about the world?
B) With excitement
C) With jealousy
D) With boredom
4.2
1. Which analogy does the article use to explain prenatal development?
A) Planting seeds in a garden
B) Building furniture from a kit
C) Cooking a complex recipe
D) Painting a masterpiece
2. What occurs during the period of the zygote?
A) Major organ development
B) Rapid cell division

C) Fetal movement
D) Brain development
3. When does the period of the embryo typically start?
A) First week of gestation
B) Second week of gestation
C) Third week of gestation
D) Fourth week of gestation
4. Which principle of development is mentioned regarding the period of the embryo?
A) Lateral development
B) Proximodistal development
C) Longitudinal development
D) Radial development
5. What is the primary characteristic of the period of the fetus?
A) Rapid cell division
B) Organ formation
C) Refinements and finishing touches
D) Implantation into the uterine wall
6. What do fetuses learn from the world outside the uterine environment during the period of the fetus?
A) Reading
B) Music
C) Familiar voices
D) Mathematical concepts
7. Which term describes environmental agents that negatively affect prenatal development?
A) Proximogens
B) Teratogens
C) Antioxidants
D) Cytogens
8. What is one of the identified teratogens mentioned in the article?
A) Vitamin C
B) Zinc
C) Tobacco
D) Calcium
9. How is the Zika virus primarily transmitted to humans?
A) Through airborne particles
B) Through contaminated water
C) By mosquitoes or sexual contact
D) By physical contact with infected individuals
10. When is alcohol recognized as exerting its most negative effects on prenatal development?
A) During the period of the zygote
B) During the period of the embryo
C) During the period of the fetus
D) Throughout all stages of prenatal development
11. What percentage of women globally is estimated to use alcohol during pregnancy?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
12. What is the primary characteristic of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD)?
A) Abnormally large head size
B) Increased height
C) Vision improvement
D) Cognitive impairments
13. Which medication was commonly prescribed during the 1960s for morning sickness but resulted in
significant birth defects?
A) Aspirin
B) Ibuprofen
C) Thalidomide
D) Paracetamol
14. What was a surprising effect of thalidomide on infants exposed prenatally to the drug?
A) Increased limb length
B) Enhanced brain development
C) Malformed or shortened limbs
D) Improved sensory perception
15. What was the primary impact of the Zika virus on prenatal development?
A) Increased head size
B) Reduced limb length
C) Microcephaly
D) Cognitive enhancements
16. How did researchers test for the presence of COVID-19 in infants born to mothers with the virus?
A) Through blood tests
B) Through amniocentesis
C) Through testing bodily fluids
D) Through ultrasound scans

17. What delivery method was used for all infants in the study regarding COVID-19 and pregnancy?
A) Vaginal delivery
B) Home birth
C) Cesarean section
D) Water birth
18. What did the study regarding COVID-19 and pregnancy conclude about the possibility of the virus
being contracted in the womb?
A) It confirmed it definitively
B) It disproved it
C) It raised concerns about it
D) It found no evidence of it
19. What recommendation is given to individuals who are pregnant or planning to become pregnant
regarding alcohol use?
A) Moderate consumption is acceptable
B) Complete abstinence is recommended
C) Heavy drinking is encouraged
D) Occasional drinking is acceptable
20. Which developmental period is most susceptible to the negative effects of teratogens?
A) Period of the zygote
B) Period of the embryo
C) Period of the fetus
D) Postnatal period
21. What is the primary characteristic of the period of the zygote?

B) Major organ development
C) Fetal movement
B) Organ formation
A) Proximogens
B) Teratogens
C) Antioxidants
D) Cytogens
A) Vitamin C
B) Zinc
C) Tobacco
D) Calcium

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
B) Increased height
A) Aspirin
B) Ibuprofen
C) Thalidomide
D) Paracetamol
C) Microcephaly
33. How did researchers test for the presence of COVID-19 in infants
born to mothers with the virus?
34. What delivery method was used for all infants in the study regarding COVID-19 and pregnancy?
A) Vaginal delivery
B) Home birth
C) Cesarean section
D) Water birth
35. What did the study regarding COVID-19 and pregnancy conclude about the possibility of the virus
being contracted in the womb?
A) It confirmed it definitively
B) It disproved it
C) It raised concerns about it
D) It found no evidence of it
36. What recommendation is given to individuals who are pregnant or planning to become pregnant
regarding alcohol use?
A) Moderate consumption is acceptable
B) Complete abstinence is recommended
C) Heavy drinking is encouraged
D) Occasional drinking is acceptable
37. Which developmental period is most susceptible to the negative effects of teratogens?
A) Period of the zygote
B) Period of the embryo
C) Period of the fetus
D) Postnatal period
38. What is the primary characteristic of the period of the zygote?
B) Major organ development
C) Fetal movement
B) Organ formation
A) Proximogens
B) Teratogens
C) Antioxidants
D) Cytogens
A) Vitamin C
B) Zinc
C) Tobacco
D) Calcium

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
B) Increased height
A) Aspirin
B) Ibuprofen
C) Thalidomide
D) Paracetamol

C) Microcephaly
50. How did researchers test for the presence of COVID-19 in infants born to mothers with the virus?
4.3
1. Who developed a broad account of various stages of cognitive development from birth to
adolescence?
a) Lev Vygotsky
b) Jean Piaget
c) Erik Erikson
d) Sigmund Freud
2. Piaget believed that children are active contributors to their own learning, which is described as:
a) Constructivist
b) Behaviorist
c) Psychodynamic
d) Humanist
3. What does Piaget's theory suggest occurs when individuals encounter conflicting information that
alters their existing perspectives on the world?
a) Assimilation
b) Accommodation
c) Equilibration
d) Disequilibration
4. What process occurs when individuals encounter information that is similar to what they have in their
existing cognitive structures?
a) Assimilation
b) Accommodation
c) Equilibration
d) Disequilibration
5. Which of the following is NOT one of Piaget's stages of cognitive development?
a) Sensorimotor
b) Preoperational
c) Abstract operational
d) Concrete operational
6. At what age range do children engage in tertiary circular reactions, acting as "little scientists"?
a) Birth to 1 month
b) 1 to 4 months
c) 12 to 18 months
d) 18 to 24 months
7. Which period of cognitive development is characterized by significant advances in symbolic thinking

but also challenges with animism and egocentrism?
a) Sensorimotor period
b) Preoperational period
c) Concrete operational period
d) Formal operational period
8. What is animism in the context of Piaget's theory?
a) Difficulty in taking the perspective of another individual

b) Ascribing life-like properties to non-living things
c) Representing past events mentally
d) Engaging in repeated actions on objects outside of one's body
9. Egocentrism occurs when children:
a) Have trouble taking the perspective of another individual
b) Ascribe life-like properties to non-living things
c) Engage in repeated actions on objects outside of their own bodies
d) Combine secondary circular reactions to make a sequence of events come to pass
10. Which stage of cognitive development occurs from ages 7 to 12 and involves reasoning well about
concrete events?
a) Sensorimotor
b) Preoperational
c) Concrete operational
d) Formal operational
11. What is achieved during the concrete operational period regarding conservation tasks?
a) Children understand that certain physical qualities of an object remain unchanged despite changes
to its physical appearance.
b) Children understand that the transformations they observe do not alter the medium in any
meaningful way.
c) Children understand that they can evaluate and make sense of what they can physically see in the
world around them.
d) Children understand that they can think and reason about hypothetical situations and/or abstract
problems.
12. Which of the following is NOT one of Piaget's transformative principles regarding conservation tasks?
a) Identity
b) Assimilation
c) Compensation
d) Inversion
13. What has Piaget's theory contributed to current conceptualizations of cognitive functioning and
change over time?
a) It has provided a complete understanding of cognitive development.
b) It has been universally accepted without any criticisms.
c) It has helped in understanding the importance of social factors in cognitive development.
d) It has contributed to current conceptualizations despite some contested findings.
14. Who proposed the concept of equilibration in cognitive development?
a) Jean Piaget
b) Lev Vygotsky
c) Erik Erikson
d) Sigmund Freud
15. Which theory emphasizes the role of social interaction in cognitive development?
a) Piaget's theory
b) Vygotsky's theory
c) Freud's theory
d) Erikson's theory
16. Piaget believed that cognitive development occurs through:
a) Social interaction
b) Genetic predisposition
c) Environmental stimuli
d) The interaction between biological maturation and experiences
17. Piaget's theory of cognitive development is described as:

a) Constructivist
b) Behaviorist
c) Psychoanalytic
d) Humanistic
18. What is the term for Piaget's stages where children are believed to think about problems in
qualitatively different ways than they do at earlier or later stages?
a) Continuous development
b) Discontinuous development
c) Linear development
d) Rapid development
19. According to Piaget, what occurs when cognitive structures agree with external realities?
a) Assimilation
b) Accommodation
c) Equilibration
d) Disequilibration
20. What is the term for states in which cognitive structures do not agree with external realities,
according to Piaget?
a) Assimilation
b) Accommodation
c) Equilibration
d) Disequilibration
21. Which perspective on cognitive development proposed by Piaget emphasizes the active role of
children in constructing their understanding of the world?
a) Biological perspective
b) Sociocultural perspective
c) Constructivist perspective
d) Behavioral perspective
22. At what age do children typically produce their first words, according to the article?
a) 6 months
b) 12 months
c) 18 months
d) 24 months
23. What term refers to Piaget's concept of modifying cognitive structures through processes such as
assimilation and accommodation?
a) Equilibration
b) Disequilibration
c) Schema
d) Dialectical thinking
24. Piaget's concept of disequilibration occurs when:
a) Cognitive structures agree with external realities.
b) Cognitive structures do not agree with external realities.
c) Children experience significant cognitive growth.
d) Children construct their own knowledge.
25. Which of the following is NOT one of Piaget's substages of the sensorimotor period?
a) Object permanence
b) Primary circular reactions
c) Tertiary circular reactions
d) Mental representation
26. According to Piaget, what occurs during the sensorimotor period?
a) Children engage in symbolic thinking.

b) Children learn about the world through their actions.
c) Children reason well about abstract concepts.
d) Children engage in pretend play.
27. What is achieved during the fourth substage of the sensorimotor period?
a) Object permanence is achieved.
b) Children engage in primary circular reactions.
c) Children engage in mental representation.
d) Children learn about the world using reflexes.
28. Which substage of the sensorimotor period involves repeated actions on objects outside of the
child's body?
a) Primary circular reactions
b) Secondary circular reactions
29. At what age do children typically achieve object permanence, according to Piaget?
a) 1 month
b) 4 months
c) 8 months
d) 12 months
30. According to Piaget, children engage in tertiary circular reactions during which substage of the
sensorimotor period?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fifth
31. Piaget's concept of assimilation occurs when:
a) Children encounter information that is similar to what they have in their existing cognitive
structures.
b) Children create a new cognitive structure to account for information that does not fit elsewhere.
c) Children modify their existing cognitive structures through encounters with conflicting information.
d) Children sort learned information in ways that make sense.
32. During which period of cognitive development do children experience challenges associated with
animism and egocentrism?
33. At what age range does the concrete operational period of development typically occur?
a) Birth to 2 years
b) 2 to 7 years
c) 7 to 11 years
d) 12 years and up
34. Which transformative principle occurs when children realize that the imposed changes cancel each
other out?
a) Identity
b) Compensation
c) Inversion
d) Equilibration
35. What type of thinking is characteristic of the formal operational period of cognitive development?
a) Thinking limited to the here and now
b) Thinking about hypothetical situations and/or abstract problems
c) Symbolic thinking
d) Thinking that involves difficulty with conservation tasks
36. Which stage of cognitive development involves significant cognitive growth after the first birthday?
37. Piaget's theory of cognitive development is based partly on observations of:
a) His own children
b) Adolescents
c) Adults
d) Animals
38. Piaget's theory suggests that children progress through stages of cognitive development in what kind
of manner?
a) Continuous
b) Discontinuous
c) Linear
d) Static
39. What is Piaget's term for the process by which children combine secondary circular reactions to
make a sequence of events come to pass?
a) Assimilation
b) Accommodation
c) Equilibration
d) Disequilibration
40. Which of the following is NOT one of Piaget's major stages of cognitive development?
a) Sensorimotor
b) Preoperational
c) Formal operational
d) Postoperational
41. What occurs during the sensorimotor period of cognitive development?
a) Children engage in symbolic thinking.
b) Children learn about the world through their actions.
c) Children reason well about abstract concepts.
d) Children engage in hypothetical thinking.
42. Which substage of the sensorimotor period involves infants relating to the world using reflexes?
43. Piaget's concept of accommodation occurs when:
a) Children encounter information that is similar to what they have in their existing cognitive
structures.
b) Children create a new cognitive structure to account for information that does not fit elsewhere.
c) Children modify their existing cognitive structures through encounters with conflicting information.
d) Children sort learned information in ways that make sense.

44. At what age do children typically begin to engage in tertiary circular reactions, acting as "little
scientists"?
a) 1 month
b) 4 months
c) 12 months
d) 18 months
45. According to Piaget, what occurs during the formal operational period of cognitive development?
a) Children reason well about concrete events.
b) Children engage in symbolic thinking.
c) Children can think and reason about hypothetical situations and/or abstract problems.
d) Children learn about the world through their actions.
46. Piaget's theory of cognitive development is described as:
a) Constructivist
b) Behaviorist
c) Psychoanalytic
d) Humanistic
47. What is Piaget's term for states in which cognitive structures agree with external realities?
a) Assimilation
b) Accommodation
c) Equilibration
d) Disequilibration
48. During which substage of the sensorimotor period do infants engage in repeated actions on objects
outside of their own bodies?

49. What occurs during the fourth substage of the sensorimotor period?
a) Object permanence is achieved.
b) Children engage in primary circular reactions.
c) Children engage in mental representation.
d) Children learn about the world using reflexes.
50. Which period of cognitive development involves significant advances in symbolic thinking but also
challenges with animism and egocentrism?
**Note: For each question, there may be multiple correct answers.**
1. According to Vygotsky's sociocultural theory, cognitive development is:
a) Dependent solely on genetic factors
b) A continuous process influenced by societal context
c) Driven by innate instincts
d) Unrelated to environmental factors
2. Vygotsky believed that adults play a crucial role in promoting cognitive development by:
a) Directing children's every action
b) Providing cognitive support and scaffolding
c) Letting children figure everything out on their own
d) Ignoring children's cognitive struggles

3. What does Vygotsky's concept of "zone of proximal development" refer to?
a) The distance between two different cognitive stages
b) The level of intelligence a child is born with
c) The range of tasks a child can do without assistance
d) The gap between what a child can do alone and what they can do with assistance
4. Vygotsky suggested that language is the most important:
a) Cognitive tool
b) Genetic factor
c) Environmental influence
d) Societal constraint
5. The mother in the puzzle example uses scaffolding by:
a) Doing the puzzle herself
b) Completing the puzzle for the child
c) Providing cognitive support and guidance
d) Ignoring the child's struggles
6. Educators who adopt a Vygotskiian perspective focus on:
a) Teaching in isolation from societal influences
b) Understanding children's abilities without considering assistance
c) Recognizing the importance of the zone of proximal development
d) Ignoring the role of adults in children's cognitive development
7. Who is primarily associated with the sociocultural theory of cognitive development?
a) Lawrence Kohlberg
b) Lev Vygotsky
c) Jean Piaget
d) Mary Ainsworth
8. According to Vygotsky, cognitive scaffolding provided by adults:
a) Hampers children's learning
b) Helps children achieve more than they could alone
c) Is unnecessary for cognitive development
d) Should be avoided in educational settings
9. What does Vygotsky suggest about the role of parents in cognitive development?
a) Parents should let children figure everything out on their own
b) Parents should not involve themselves in their children's learning
c) Parents should provide cognitive support and guidance
d) Parents should only intervene when children ask for help
10. Vygotsky emphasized the importance of considering:
a) Genetic factors in isolation
b) Societal influences on cognitive development
c) Environmental factors unrelated to cognitive growth
d) Stages of cognitive development without regard to societal influences
11. Infants show preferences for their mother's voice shortly after birth, which suggests:
a) Infants have a genetic predisposition to prefer their mother's voice
b) Infants do not recognize their mother's voice
c) Infants do not prefer their mother's voice over that of strangers
d) Infants have no preference for any particular voice
12. The still face paradigm is used to evaluate:
a) Infants' responses to unfamiliar faces
b) Infants' responses to mothers displaying neutral emotion
c) Infants' reactions to familiar faces

d) Infants' reactions to toys
13. Who developed the still face paradigm?
b) John Bowlby
c) Mary Ainsworth
d) Tronick et al.
14. The attachment classifications identified by Ainsworth primarily include:
a) Securely attached, insecure-resistant, and insecure-avoidant
b) Securely attached, insecure-avoidant, and disorganized
c) Securely attached, insecure-resistant, and disorganized
d) Securely attached, insecure-avoidant, and indifferent
15. Which theorist developed the Strange Situation paradigm?
a) John Bowlby
b) Mary Ainsworth
c) Lawrence Kohlberg
d) Konrad Lorenz
16. According to Bowlby, attachment bonds serve to:
a) Promote social conformity
b) Enhance cognitive development
c) Promote survival
d) Impede emotional development
17. The Strange Situation paradigm assesses:
a) Children's reactions to unfamiliar situations
b) Children's attachment relationships with primary caregivers

c) Children's cognitive abilities
d) Children's social skills
18. Ainsworth's original samples primarily consisted of infants classified as:
a) Securely attached
b) Insecure-resistant
c) Insecure-avoidant
d) Disorganized
19. Kohlberg's primary interest in the Heinz dilemma was to assess:
a) Whether participants agreed or disagreed with Heinz's actions
b) Participants' reasoning behind their moral decisions
c) Participants' emotional reactions to the dilemma
d) Participants' prior knowledge of ethical principles
20. In Kohlberg's theory of moral development, children in the pre-conventional morality stage:
a) Base their moral decisions on internal principles
b) Conform to societal pressures
c) Develop their own ethical principles
d) Consider the consequences of their actions on others
21. According to Kohlberg, individuals in the conventional morality stage:
a) Develop their own ethical principles
b) Base their moral decisions on internal principles
c) Conform to societal pressures
d) Consider the consequences of their actions on others
22. Individuals at the post-conventional morality stage of Kohlberg's theory:
a) Base their moral decisions on internal principles

b) Conform to societal pressures
c) Consider the consequences of their actions on others
d) Have not yet developed moral reasoning capabilities
23. Lawrence Kohlberg's research primarily focused on:
a) Cognitive development in infants
b) Social skills development in adolescents
c) Moral development in children and adults
d) Attachment styles in infants
24. What did Kohlberg use vignettes for?
a) To assess cognitive abilities
b) To evaluate attachment relationships
c) To understand moral reasoning
d) To measure emotional intelligence
25. Who conducted experiments with non-human primates to examine attachment?
a) John Bowlby
b) Mary Ainsworth
c) Harry Harlow
d) Konrad Lorenz
26. Harry Harlow's experiments indicated that infant monkeys:
a) Preferred the wire mother over the cloth mother
b) Spent most of their time on the wire mother
c) Sought comfort from the cloth mother
d) Avoided both the wire and cloth mothers
27. Which attachment style is characterized by extreme fear and dissociation?

a) Secure attachment
b) Insecure-resistant attachment
c) Insecure-avoidant attachment
d) Disorganized attachment
28. According to Bowlby, attachment bonds are important for:
a) Conforming to societal expectations
b) Enhancing cognitive abilities
c) Survival
d) Impeding emotional development
29
. Bowlby believed that without attachment bonds, infants would:
a) Perish due to a lack of food or protection
b) Develop stronger independence
c) Show better emotional regulation
d) Be less influenced by their environment
30. The Heinz dilemma is primarily used to assess:
a) Cognitive development
b) Emotional intelligence
c) Moral reasoning
d) Social skills
31. Which stage of moral development involves conforming to societal pressures?
a) Pre-conventional morality
b) Conventional morality
c) Post-conventional morality
d) Unconventional morality
32. Individuals in the post-conventional morality stage base their moral decisions on:
a) Societal pressures
b) Internal principles
c) Reciprocity
d) Fear of punishment
33. What was the primary focus of Lawrence Kohlberg's research?
b) Attachment styles
c) Social skills
d) Moral development
34. What is the primary purpose of the Heinz dilemma?
a) To assess emotional reactions
b) To measure cognitive abilities
c) To evaluate moral reasoning
d) To understand social relationships
35. What was Harry Harlow's main finding in his experiments with infant monkeys?
a) Infants preferred the wire mother over the cloth mother
b) Infants spent most of their time on the wire mother
c) Infants sought comfort from the cloth mother
d) Infants avoided both the wire and cloth mothers
36. Which attachment style involves seeking comfort from the primary caregiver when distressed?
37. According to Bowlby, attachment bonds serve to promote:
b) Social conformity
c) Survival
d) Emotional detachment
38. Bowlby believed that without attachment bonds, infants would:
c) Reciprocity
41. What is the primary focus of Lawrence Kohlberg's research?
c) Social skills
43. What was Harry Harlow's main finding in his experiments with infant monkeys?
a) Infants preferred the wire mother over the cloth mother
b) Infants spent most of their time on the wire mother
c) Infants sought comfort from the cloth mother
d) Infants avoided both the wire and cloth mothers
44. Which attachment style involves seeking comfort from the primary caregiver when distressed?
45. According to Bowlby, attachment bonds serve to promote:
b) Social conformity
c) Survival
d) Emotional detachment
46. Bowlby believed that without attachment bonds, infants would:

c) Reciprocity
49. What is the primary focus of Lawrence Kohlberg's research?
c) Social skills
4.4
1. According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, which period is characterized by much more
complex reasoning?
2. What age group typically engages in the formal operational period of cognitive development according
to Piaget?
a) 6-11 years old
b) 12 and up
c) 3-5 years old
d) 0-2 years old
3. What is a characteristic of the formal operational period of cognitive development?
a) Concrete thinking
b) Limited abstract thought
c) Inability to reason hypothetically
d) Complex reasoning abilities
4. Which part of the brain undergoes immense development during adolescence?
a) Occipital lobe
b) Parietal lobe
c) Frontal lobes
d) Temporal lobes
5. What are executive functions associated with?
a) Frontal lobes
b) Temporal lobes
c) Parietal lobes
d) Occipital lobes
6. What neurotransmitter is involved in reward processing and is highest in the prefrontal cortex during
adolescence?
a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Acetylcholine
d) GABA
7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adolescent egocentrism?
a) Imaginary audience
b) Personal fable
c) Lack of self-awareness
d) Focus on self
8. Who elaborated upon Piaget's concept of adolescent egocentrism?
a) Jean Piaget
b) Lawrence Kohlberg
c) David Elkind
d) James Marcia
9. According to James Marcia, what identity status is characterized by exploring various options?
a) Foreclosed identity
b) Identity diffusion
c) Psychosocial moratorium
d) Identity achievement
10. Which theory proposes four different identity statuses based on exploration and commitment?
a) Erikson's theory of psychosocial development
b) Freud's psychosexual theory
c) Marcia's identity status theory
d) Bandura's social learning theory
11. How many identity statuses did James Marcia propose?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
12. What do individuals with a foreclosed identity typically do?
a) Explore various options
b) Have not made any decisions or commitments
c) Have prematurely decided who they are
d) Completed their identity crisis
13. According to the text, who suggested the concept of adolescent egocentrism?
a) Jean Piaget
c) David Elkind
d) James Marcia
14. What is NOT a factor associated with adolescent egocentrism?
b) Personal fable
c) Increased empathy
d) Focus on self
15. Who proposed four different identity types varying based on exploration and commitment?
b) Erik Erikson
c) David Elkind
d) James Marcia
16. What is NOT one of the identity types proposed by James Marcia?
a) Identity diffusion
b) Identity foreclosure
c) Identity synthesis
d) Psychosocial moratorium
a) Jean Piaget
c) David Elkind
d) James Marcia
18. What concept is characterized by thinking that everyone is focused on the adolescent?
a) Personal fable
b) Imaginary audience
c) Foreclosed identity
d) Identity diffusion
19. Who proposed the concept of identity diffusion?
b) Erik Erikson
c) David Elkind
d) James Marcia
20. Which model suggests that emerging peer relationships compensate for changes in parent-
adolescent relationships?
a) Psychoanalytic approach
b) Socialization models
c) Cognitive models
d) Parental influence model
21. According to research, which relationships exert greater influence on adolescent well-being?
a) Peer relationships
b) Teacher relationships
c) Parenting relationships
d) Sibling relationships
22. What did Elkind suggest are associated with adolescent egocentrism?
a) Puberty
b) Cognitive development and puberty
c) Socioeconomic status
d) Parental influence
23. According to the text, what influences adolescent identity formation?
a) Parental relationships only
b) Peer relationships only
c) Both parental and peer relationships
d) Sibling relationships only
24. Who suggested that peers provide novel input and complement parent-adolescent relationships?
a) Erik Erikson
b) David Elkind
d) Cooper & Cooper
25. What is NOT a characteristic of adolescent egocentrism?
b) Personal fable
d) Focus on others' perspectives
26. Who proposed a theory of moral development that doesn't include specific ages for each level?
a) Jean Piaget
b) Erik Erikson
d) David Elkind
adolescence?
a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Acetylcholine
d) GABA
29. What do executive functions relate to?

a) Planning, controlling impulses, decision-making
b) Memory formation
c) Motor coordination
d) Visual perception
a) Jean Piaget
c) David Elkind
d) James Marcia
a) Personal fable
b) Erik Erikson
c) David Elkind
d) James Marcia
c) Cognitive models
a) Puberty
37. According to the text, what influences adolescent identity formation?
a) Parental relationships only
b) Peer relationships only
c) Both parental and peer relationships
d) Sibling relationships only
38. Who suggested that peers provide novel input and complement parent-adolescent relationships?
a) Erik Erikson
b) David Elkind
d) Cooper & Cooper
39. What is NOT a characteristic of adolescent egocentrism?
b) Personal fable
d) Focus on others' perspectives
40. Who proposed a theory of moral development that doesn't include specific ages for each level?
a) Jean Piaget
b) Erik Erikson
d) David Elkind
adolescence?
a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Acetylcholine
d) GABA
43. What do executive functions relate to?
a) Planning, controlling impulses, decision-making

b) Memory formation
c) Motor coordination
d) Visual perception
a) Jean Piaget
c) David Elkind
d) James Marcia
a) Personal fable
b) Erik Erikson
c) David Elkind
d) James Marcia
c) Cognitive models
a) Puberty
4.5
1. What is the main factor contributing to changes in cognitive abilities from adolescence to old age?
a) Genetic factors
b) Environmental factors
c) Brain size
d) Socioeconomic status
2. At what age do adolescents achieve adult levels of performance on response inhibition, according to
Luna et al. (2004)?
a) 12
b) 14
c) 16
d) 18
3. Which type of intelligence tends to remain stable with age?
a) Fluid intelligence
b) Crystallized intelligence
c) Emotional intelligence
d) Spatial intelligence
4. Engaging in stimulating cognitive activities over 10–12 weeks resulted in improved fluid intelligence in
which group of individuals?
a) Children
b) Adolescents
c) Older adults
d) Young adults
5. According to Hartley et al. (2017), what may be overestimated in relation to cognitive changes in old
age?
a) Positive aspects
b) Negative aspects
c) Impact of genetics
d) Impact of environment
6. Who proposed the Socioemotional Selectivity Theory?
a) Erik Erikson
b) Sigmund Freud
c) Carstensen et al.
d) Lawrence Kohlberg
7. Which attachment style is characterized by feeling uncomfortable with independence and striving for
constant intimacy and closeness?
a) Secure
b) Anxious-preoccupied
c) Avoidant-dismissive
d) Autonomous
8. What did Hazan and Shaver (1987) focus on exploring?
a) Infant-caregiver attachment
b) Adult romantic relationships
c) Parenting styles
d) Social cognition
9. According to Main's Adult Attachment Interview, how many attachment styles did she identify in
adults?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
10. Which attachment style parallels the insecure-resistant attachment classification in infants?
a) Secure
c) Dismissive-avoidant
d) Ambivalent
11. What are the implications for self-reported happiness in poor-quality marriages?
a) Increased happiness
b) Decreased happiness
c) No significant change
d) Varies depending on age
12. Who found that heterosexual married couples show decreased mortality relative to unmarried
individuals?
a) Kobak & Hazan
b) Chapman & Guven
c) Frisch & Simonsen
d) Robles & Kiecolt-Glaser
13. Which factor predicts successful retirement adjustment according to Wong & Earl (2009)?
a) Being single
b) Low income
c) Poor psychological health
d) Being married
14. What theory predicts that older adults value emotion-related goals more than younger adults?
a) Cognitive Dissonance Theory
b) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
c) Socioemotional Selectivity Theory
d) Attachment Theory
15. What physiological changes may make older adults more vulnerable to emotional stress?
a) Decreased cortisol levels
b) Increased blood pressure
c) Enhanced immune response
d) Improved cardiovascular health
16. Which life event is particularly associated with increased depression among older adults?
a) Retirement
b) Marriage
c) Birth of a grandchild
d) Loss of a spouse
17. According to Stroebe et al. (2007), what impact does bereavement have on physical health?
a) Decreases hospitalization rates
b) Increases medication use
c) Has no effect on disability rates
d) Improves overall health
18. How do bereaved individuals typically fare compared to non-bereaved individuals?
a) Lower rates of disability
b) Lower rates of medication use
c) Higher rates of hospitalization
d) Higher rates of depression
19. Which factor can help buffer the pain of loss after bereavement?
a) Isolation
b) Lack of social support
c) Developing new interests
d) Avoiding reflection
20. Who proposed the concept of emerging adulthood?
a) Erik Erikson
b) Sigmund Freud
c) Jeffrey Arnett
d) Jean Piaget
21. What is the term used to describe the deterioration of brain function negatively impacting cognitive
processes?
a) Dementia
b) Alzheimer's disease
c) Cognitive decline
d) Neurodegeneration
22. What is one of the protective factors against cognitive decline mentioned in the article?
a) Sedentary lifestyle
b) Social isolation
c) Intellectual engagement
d) Passive entertainment
23. What does SST predict regarding the emphasis on goals in different stages of life?
a) Older adults value information-related goals
b) Younger adults value emotion-related goals
c) Both younger and older adults prioritize information-related goals
d) Both younger and older adults prioritize emotion-related goals
24. Which attachment style in adults parallels the avoidant attachment classification in infants?
a) Secure
d) Ambivalent
25. Who identified the three attachment styles in adults that parallel those observed in infants?
a) Cindy Hazan and Phil Shaver
b) Mary Main
c) Erik Erikson
d) John Bowlby
individuals?
a) Kobak & Hazan
b) Chapman & Guven
28. What factor predicts successful retirement adjustment according to Wong & Earl (2009)?
a) Being single
b) Low income
d) Being married

a) Retirement
b) Marriage
d) Loss of a spouse
a) Isolation
a) Erik Erikson
b) Sigmund Freud
c) Jeffrey Arnett
d) Jean Piaget
36. What is the term used to describe the deterioration of brain function negatively impacting cognitive
processes?
a) Dementia
b) Alzheimer's disease
c) Cognitive decline
d) Neurodegeneration
37. What is one of the protective factors against cognitive decline mentioned in the article?
a) Sedentary lifestyle
b) Social isolation
c) Intellectual engagement
d) Passive entertainment
38. What does SST predict regarding the emphasis on goals in different stages of life?
a) Older adults value information-related goals
b) Younger adults value emotion-related goals
c) Both younger and older adults prioritize information-related goals
d) Both younger and older adults prioritize emotion-related goals
39. Which attachment style in adults parallels the avoidant attachment classification in infants?
a) Secure
d) Ambivalent
40. Who identified the three attachment styles in adults that parallel those observed in infants?
a) Cindy Hazan and Phil Shaver
b) Mary Main
c) Erik Erikson
d) John Bowlby
individuals?
a) Kobak & Hazan
b) Chapman & Guven
43. What factor predicts successful retirement adjustment according to Wong & Earl (2009)?
a) Being single
b) Low income
d) Being married
a) Retirement
b) Marriage
d) Loss of a spouse

a) Isolation
a) Erik Erikson
b) Sigmund Freud
c) Jeffrey Arnett
d) Jean Piaget
4.6
1. Who is known for proposing a theory that tracks development from birth to death?
a) Jean Piaget
b) Erik Erikson
c) Sigmund Freud
d) B.F. Skinner
2. Erik Erikson's theory focuses on how many stages of development?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
3. According to Erikson, what is the first stage of development?
a) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
b) Trust vs. Mistrust
c) Initiative vs. Guilt
d) Industry vs. Inferiority

4. Which developmental stage occurs during infancy?
a) Initiative vs. Guilt
b) Industry vs. Inferiority
c) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
d) Trust vs. Mistrust
5. At what age range does the stage of Initiative vs. Guilt typically occur?
a) Birth to 2 years
b) 2 to 4 years
c) 4 to 5 years
d) 5 to 12 years
6. What is the developmental milestone associated with the stage of Initiative vs. Guilt?
a) Trusting others
b) Developing autonomy
c) Establishing a sense of purpose
d) Developing a true sense of self
7. Who proposed the concept of Industry vs. Inferiority?
a) Sigmund Freud
b) Erik Erikson
c) Jean Piaget
d) Albert Bandura
8. Which stage of development occurs during early adulthood?
a) Identity vs. Role Confusion
b) Intimacy vs. Isolation
c) Generativity vs. Stagnation

d) Ego Integrity vs. Despair
9. What is the age range for the stage of Generativity vs. Stagnation?
a) 13 to 19 years
b) 20 to 39 years
c) 40 to 64 years
d) 65+ years
10. According to Erikson, what is the main task during the stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion?
a) Establishing intimacy
b) Achieving generativity
c) Developing a sense of self
d) Maintaining ego integrity
11. Who might feel isolated and lonely if they fail to resolve the stage of Intimacy vs. Isolation?
a) Adolescents
b) Early adults
c) Middle-aged adults
d) Older adults
12. Which stage involves the crisis of Industry vs. Inferiority?
a) Adolescence
b) School age
c) Early adulthood
d) Infancy
13. At what age range do individuals typically experience the stage of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt?
a) Birth to 2 years
b) 2 to 4 years
c) 5 to 12 years
d) 40 to 64 years
14. What happens if individuals successfully resolve the crisis of Identity vs. Role Confusion?
a) They develop a sense of purpose.
b) They establish intimacy with others.
c) They feel confident in their abilities.
d) They experience role confusion.
15. Who might feel unfulfilled and unproductive if they fail to resolve the stage of Generativity vs.
Stagnation?
a) Adolescents
b) Early adults
d) Older adults
16. According to Erikson, what is the final stage of psychosocial development?
a) Identity vs. Role Confusion
b) Generativity vs. Stagnation
c) Ego Integrity vs. Despair
d) Trust vs. Mistrust
17. What is the main developmental crisis during the stage of Initiative vs. Guilt?
a) Establishing a sense of trust
c) Developing a sense of purpose
d) Achieving industry
18. Who is likely to experience a sense of guilt if they fail to resolve the crisis of Initiative vs. Guilt?
a) Adolescents
b) Early adults
c) Preschoolers
d) Middle-aged adults
19. What is the expected outcome if individuals successfully resolve the stage of Trust vs. Mistrust?
a) They develop autonomy.
b) They establish intimacy.
c) They feel confident in their abilities.
d) They learn to trust others.
20. During which stage do individuals typically develop a true sense of self, identity, and purpose?
a) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
b) Initiative vs. Guilt
c) Identity vs. Role Confusion
d) Intimacy vs. Isolation
21. Who proposed the theory of psychosocial development that includes the stage of Intimacy vs.
Isolation?
a) Jean Piaget
b) Erik Erikson
d) Lev Vygotsky
22. Which stage of development focuses on establishing a legacy and feeling a sense of belonging to the
"big picture"?
a) Industry vs. Inferiority
b) Generativity vs. Stagnation
c) Identity vs. Role Confusion

d) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
23. At what age range do individuals typically experience the stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion?
a) Birth to 2 years
b) 2 to 4 years
c) 13 to 19 years
d) 40 to 64 years
24. What happens if individuals fail to resolve the crisis of Industry vs. Inferiority?
a) They develop a sense of mistrust.
b) They feel isolated and lonely.
c) They experience role confusion.
d) They feel inferior and lack confidence.
25. Who might develop a sense of mistrust if they fail to resolve the crisis of Trust vs. Mistrust?
a) Infants
b) Preschoolers
c) Adolescents
26. According to Erikson, what is the main task during the stage of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt?
c) Achieving generativity
d) Maintaining ego integrity
27. Who might experience a sense of shame and doubt if they fail to resolve the crisis of Autonomy vs.
Shame and Doubt?
a) Infants
b) Preschoolers
c) Adolescents
28. Which stage of development involves the crisis of Ego Integrity vs. Despair?
a) Adolescence
b) Early adulthood
c) Middle adulthood
d) Maturity
29. What is the main task during the stage of Ego Integrity vs. Despair?
) Developing autonomy
d) Reflecting on one's life and accepting it
30. Who might experience feelings of despair and hopelessness if they fail to resolve the crisis of Ego
Integrity vs. Despair?
a) Adolescents
b) Early adults
d) Older adults
31. During which stage do individuals typically feel confident in their abilities to achieve goals?
a) Infancy
b) Early childhood
c) School age
d) Adolescence
32. Who might feel unproductive and stuck if they fail to resolve the crisis of Generativity vs. Stagnation?
a) Adolescents
b) Early adults
d) Older adults
33. According to Erikson, what is the expected outcome if individuals successfully resolve the crisis of
Initiative vs. Guilt?
c) They develop a sense of purpose.
d) They feel confident in their abilities.
34. What is the main task during the stage of Industry vs. Inferiority?
d) Mastering skills and competence
35. Who might experience feelings of inferiority if they fail to resolve the crisis of Industry vs. Inferiority?
a) Infants
b) Preschoolers
c) Adolescents
d) School-age children
36. According to Erikson, what is the main task during the stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion?
d) Forming a coherent sense of self
37. Who might experience role confusion if they fail to resolve the crisis of Identity vs. Role Confusion?
a) Preschoolers
b) Adolescents
c) Early adults
38. Which stage involves the crisis of Trust vs. Mistrust?
a) Infancy
b) Early childhood
c) School age
d) Adolescence
39. What is the main task during the stage of Intimacy vs. Isolation?
40. Who might feel isolated and lonely if they fail to resolve the crisis of Intimacy vs. Isolation?
a) Adolescents
b) Early adults
d) Older adults
41. What is the main task during the stage of Generativity vs. Stagnation?
42. Who might feel unfulfilled and unproductive if they fail to resolve the crisis of Generativity vs.
Stagnation?
a) Adolescents
b) Early adults
d) Older adults
43. Which stage involves the crisis of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt?
a) Adolescence
b) Early adulthood
c) Middle adulthood
d) Infancy
44. What is the main task during the stage of Ego Integrity vs. Despair?
45. Who might experience feelings of despair and hopelessness if they fail to resolve the crisis of Ego
Integrity vs. Despair?
a) Adolescents
b) Early adults
d) Older adults
46. According to Erikson, what is the expected outcome if individuals successfully resolve the crisis of
Trust vs. Mistrust?
c) They develop a sense of purpose.
d) They learn to trust others.
47. What is the main task during the stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion?
d) Forming a coherent sense of self
48. Who might experience role confusion if they fail to resolve the crisis of Identity vs. Role Confusion?
a) Preschoolers
b) Adolescents
c) Early adults
49. Which stage involves the crisis of Trust vs. Mistrust?
a) Infancy
b) Early childhood
c) School age
d) Adolescence
50. What is the main task during the stage of Intimacy vs. Isolation?
4.7
1. What type of research design involves studying development in the same individuals over time?
a) Cross-sectional research
b) Longitudinal research
c) Experimental research
d) Observational research
2. What is a limitation of cross-sectional research in studying development?
a) It is time-consuming.
b) It requires a large sample size.
c) It cannot capture development within the same person over time.
d) It is costly to conduct.
3. Which research method examines infant behavior based on reflexive actions?
a) Longitudinal studies
b) Cross-sectional studies
c) High amplitude sucking paradigm
d) Habituation paradigms
4. In the high amplitude sucking paradigm, what did researchers find about infants' preference?
a) They prefer non-speech sounds.
b) They prefer silence over speech.
c) They prefer speech sounds.
d) They have no preference between speech and non-speech sounds.
5. What is a common finding in infant looking behavior studies?

a) Infants tend to look longer at familiar stimuli.
b) Infants tend to look longer at old information.
c) Infants tend to look longer at new information.
d) Infants tend to avoid looking at stimuli altogether.
6. In violation of expectation paradigms, what do infants typically show a preference for?
a) Unexpected outcomes
b) Expected outcomes
c) No preference
d) Familiar outcomes
7. What is a characteristic of voluntary behaviors in toddlers?
a) They are reflexive and involuntary.
b) They are limited to motor activities.
c) They involve more control over behavior.
d) They are solely determined by genetic factors.
8. How is theory of mind commonly assessed in young children?
a) Through parent-report questionnaires
b) Through voluntary behaviors
c) Through false belief paradigms
d) Through habituation paradigms
9. What is elicited imitation used to assess in infants and young children?
a) Language comprehension
b) Theory of mind
c) Social development
d) Motor skills
10. What age range is typically associated with the emergence of theory of mind in children?
a) 2-3 years old
b) 4-5 years old
c) 6-7 years old
d) 8-9 years old
11. Which questionnaire is widely used to assess language development in children?
a) Rothbart Temperament Questionnaire
b) MacArthur-Bates Communicative Development Inventories (CDIs)
c) Infant Behavior Questionnaire-Revised
d) Early Childhood Behavior Questionnaire
12. What aspect of development does the Rothbart Temperament Questionnaire measure?
a) Language development
b) Motor skills
c) Emotional and behavioral traits
d) Cognitive abilities
13. What is a practical challenge in developmental research mentioned in the article?
a) Lack of ethical guidelines
b) Difficulty finding willing participants
c) Limited funding opportunities
d) Access to advanced technology
14. What is the primary purpose of institutional review boards (IRBs) in developmental research?
a) To ensure researchers receive proper training
b) To secure funding for research projects
c) To review and approve research to protect participants
d) To publish research findings in academic journals

15. At what age can children typically assent to participate in research?
a) 3 years old
b) 5 years old
c) 7 years old
d) 10 years old
16. What is a characteristic of longitudinal research designs?
a) They involve studying different individuals at one point in time.
b) They are more cost-effective than cross-sectional designs.
c) They track the same individuals over an extended period.
d) They focus primarily on age-related changes.
17. What type of behaviors do researchers focus on when studying infants?
a) Voluntary behaviors
b) Complex cognitive behaviors
c) Reflexive and involuntary behaviors
d) Abstract social behaviors
18. What method is used to assess recall memory in infants and young children?
a) High amplitude sucking paradigm
b) False belief paradigms
c) Elicited imitation
19. Which statement accurately describes the role of parent-report data in developmental research?
a) It provides the most objective assessment of child behavior.
b) It is used exclusively for assessing motor development.
c) It is interpreted cautiously due to potential biases.

d) It is irrelevant in understanding developmental processes.
20. What is the purpose of the MacArthur-Bates Communicative Development Inventories (CDIs)?
a) To assess motor development in infants
b) To measure emotional temperament in children
c) To evaluate language comprehension and production
d) To identify cognitive deficits in adolescents
21. In which developmental stage does theory of mind typically emerge?
a) Infancy
b) Early childhood
c) Adolescence
d) Adulthood
22. What is the primary limitation of cross-sectional research in developmental psychology?
a) It cannot capture individual developmental trajectories.
b) It is more time-consuming than longitudinal research.
c) It relies heavily on self-report data.
d) It is less generalizable to different populations.
23. What is the purpose of the high amplitude sucking paradigm in developmental research?
a) To assess motor development in infants
b) To measure attention and preference in infants
c) To study social behaviors in toddlers
d) To evaluate language comprehension in adolescents
24. Which research method is most effective in examining development within the same individual over
time?
c) Correlational research
d) Experimental research
25. What is the primary advantage of using longitudinal research designs in developmental psychology?
a) They require smaller sample sizes.
b) They allow for the study of individual developmental trajectories.
c) They are less time-consuming than cross-sectional designs.
d) They provide more generalizable results.
26. Which type of behaviors do researchers focus on when studying toddlers?
a) Involuntary behaviors
b) Reflexive behaviors
c) Voluntary behaviors
d) Unconscious behaviors
27. What is the primary purpose of habituation paradigms in developmental research?
a) To assess language development
b) To measure memory retention
c) To study infant temperament
d) To evaluate motor skills
28. Which assessment tool is commonly used to measure language development in infants and toddlers?
a) IQ tests
b) Language inventories
c) Temperament questionnaires
d) Observation scales
29. In developmental research, what is the primary role of institutional review boards (IRBs)?
a) To analyze research findings
b) To ensure ethical standards are met
c) To secure funding for research projects
d) To recruit participants for studies
30. At what age
can children typically provide assent to participate in research?
a) 2 years old
b) 5 years old
c) 7 years old
d) 10 years old
31. Which research method is best suited for examining age-related changes in behavior?
c) Case study research
d) Correlational research
32. What is the purpose of elicited imitation in developmental research?
a) To assess motor development
b) To measure language comprehension
c) To evaluate social behaviors
d) To study cognitive development
33. Which method is commonly used to assess recall memory in infants and young children?
b) Habituation paradigms
d) False belief paradigms
34. What is a primary consideration in developmental research concerning ethical standards?
a) Participant anonymity
b) Rapid data collection
c) Minimal parental involvement
d) Exclusion of vulnerable populations
35. What is a key challenge in conducting developmental research with infants and young children?
a) Limited funding opportunities
b) Difficulty recruiting participants
c) Lack of appropriate assessment tools
d) Ethical concerns regarding participant consent
a) To measure motor skills in children
b) To assess social development in adolescents
c) To evaluate language development in infants and toddlers
d) To study cognitive abilities in adults
37. Which method is commonly used to assess temperament in infants and young children?
a) Elicited imitation
b) False belief paradigms
c) Parent-report questionnaires
38. What is the primary role of parent-report questionnaires in developmental research?
a) To provide objective data on child behavior
b) To measure motor development in infants

c) To assess language comprehension in adolescents
d) To gather information on child behavior from caregivers
39. At what age can children typically provide informed consent to participate in research?
a) 3 years old
b) 7 years old
c) 12 years old
d) 18 years old
40. What is a practical challenge in conducting longitudinal research studies?
a) Small sample sizes
b) Limited generalizability
c) Participant attrition
d) Inability to track individual development
41. What is the purpose of habituation paradigms in developmental research?
a) To assess memory retention
b) To measure language development
c) To study social behaviors
d) To evaluate motor skills
42. Which assessment tool is commonly used to measure language development in infants and toddlers?
a) IQ tests
b) Language inventories
c) Temperament questionnaires
d) Observation scales
43. In developmental research, what is the primary role of institutional review boards (IRBs)?
a) To analyze research findings

b) To ensure ethical standards are met
c) To secure funding for research projects
d) To recruit participants for studies
44. At what age can children typically provide assent to participate in research?
a) 2 years old
b) 5 years old
c) 7 years old
d) 10 years old
45. Which research method is best suited for examining age-related changes in behavior?
c) Case study research
d) Correlational research
46. What is the purpose of elicited imitation in developmental research?
a) To assess motor development
b) To measure language comprehension
c) To evaluate social behaviors
d) To study cognitive development
47. Which method is commonly used to assess recall memory in infants and young children?
b) Habituation paradigms
d) False belief paradigms
48. What is a primary consideration in developmental research concerning ethical standards?

a) Participant anonymity
b) Rapid data collection
c) Minimal parental involvement
d) Exclusion of vulnerable populations
49. What is a key challenge in conducting developmental research with infants and young children?
a) Limited funding opportunities
b) Difficulty recruiting participants
c) Lack of appropriate assessment tools
d) Ethical concerns regarding participant consent
a) To measure motor skills in children
b) To assess social development in adolescents
c) To evaluate language development in infants and toddlers
d) To study cognitive abilities in adults

Answers
4.1
1. C) Both cognitive and social development
2. D) She doesn't comprehend the complexity of development
3. C) Negative impacts on physical and cognitive development
4. C) Healthy diet
5. C) How infants perceive and learn about the world
6. A) Attention, language, and memory
7. B) Around 6 months
8. D) Both B and C
9. C) Negative outcomes in adolescence or adulthood
10. A) To understand how humans grow and change over the lifespan
11. C) Patrice
12. B) Patrice's mother
15. B) Attention, language, and memory
16. B) Parent–child interactions, sibling relationships, and peer interactions
17. D) With indifference
19. C) Patrice
25. C) With jealousy
27. C) Patrice
35. C) Patrice
43. C) Patrice
4.2
1. B) Building furniture from a kit
2. B) Rapid cell division
3. B) Second week of gestation
4. B) Proximodistal development
5. C) Refinements and finishing touches
6. C) Familiar voices
7. B) Teratogens
8. C) Tobacco
9. C) By mosquitoes or sexual contact
10. B) During the period of the embryo
11. B) 10%
12. D) Cognitive impairments
13. C) Thalidomide
14. C) Malformed or shortened limbs
15. C) Microcephaly
16. C) Through testing bodily fluids
17. C) Cesarean section
18. C) It raised concerns about it
19. B) Complete abstinence is recommended
20. B) Period of the embryo
24. B) Teratogens
25. C) Tobacco
28. B) 10%
30. C) Thalidomide
32. C) Microcephaly

34. C) Cesarean section
35. C) It raised concerns about it
36. B) Complete abstinence is recommended
37. B) Period of the embryo
41. B) Teratogens
42. C) Tobacco
45. B) 10%
47. C) Thalidomide
49. C) Microcephaly
4.3
1. b) Jean Piaget
2. a) Constructivist
3. d) Disequilibration
4. a) Assimilation
5. c) Abstract operational
6. c) 12 to 18 months
7. b) Preoperational period
8. b) Ascribing life-like properties to things that are not alive
9. a) Have trouble taking the perspective of another individual
10. c) Concrete operational

11. a) Children understand that certain physical qualities of an object remain unchanged despite changes
to its physical appearance.
12. d) Inversion
13. d) It has contributed to current conceptualizations despite some contested findings.
14. a) Jean Piaget
15. b) Vygotsky's theory
16. a) Social interaction
18. b) Discontinuous development
19. c) Equilibration
21. c) Constructivist perspective
22. b) 12 months
23. a) Equilibration
25. a) Object permanence
26. b) Children learn about the world through their actions.
27. a) Object permanence is achieved.
28. b) Secondary circular reactions
29. c) 8 months
30. c) Third
31. a) Children encounter information that is similar to what they have in their existing cognitive
structures.
33. c) 7 to 11 years
34. b) Compensation
35. b) Thinking about hypothetical situations and/or abstract problems
36. a) Sensorimotor period
37. a) His own children

38. b) Discontinuous
39. b) Accommodation
40. d) Postoperational
41. b) Children learn about the world through their actions.
42. a) Primary circular reactions
43. b) Children create a new cognitive structure to account for information that does not fit elsewhere.
44. c) 12 months
45. c) Children can think and reason about hypothetical situations and/or abstract problems.
47. c) Equilibration
48. b) Secondary circular reactions
49. a) Object permanence is achieved.
Maybe multiple correct answers
1. b) A continuous process influenced by societal context
2. b) Providing cognitive support and scaffolding
3. d) The gap between what a child can do alone and what they can do with assistance
4. a) Cognitive tool
5. c) Providing cognitive support and guidance
6. c) Recognizing the importance of the zone of proximal development
7. b) Lev Vygotsky
8. b) Helps children achieve more than they could alone
9. c) Parents should provide cognitive support and guidance
10. b) Societal influences on cognitive development
11. a) Infants have a genetic predisposition to prefer their mother's voice
12. b) Infants' responses to mothers displaying neutral emotion
13. d) Tronick et al.
14. a) Securely attached, insecure-resistant, and insecure-avoidant
15. b) Mary Ainsworth

16. c) Survival
17. b) Children's attachment relationships with primary caregivers
18. a) Securely attached
19. b) Participants' reasoning behind their moral decisions
20. a) Base their moral decisions on internal principles
21. b) Conform to societal pressures
22. a) Base their moral decisions on internal principles
23. d) Moral development in children and adults
24. c) To understand moral reasoning
25. c) Harry Harlow
26. c) Sought comfort from the cloth mother
27. d) Disorganized attachment
28. c) Survival
29. a) Perish due to a lack of food or protection
30. c) Moral reasoning
31. b) Conventional morality
32. a) Internal principles
33. d) Moral development
34. c) To evaluate moral reasoning
35. c) Infants sought comfort from the cloth mother
36. a) Secure attachment
37. c) Survival
40. b) Internal principles
43. c) Infants sought comfort from the cloth mother
44. a) Secure attachment

45. c) Survival
48. b) Internal principles
4.4
1. d) Formal operational period
2. b) 12 and up
3. d) Complex reasoning abilities
4. c) Frontal lobes
5. a) Frontal lobes
6. b) Dopamine
7. c) Lack of self-awareness
8. c) David Elkind
9. c) Psychosocial moratorium
10. c) Marcia's identity status theory
11. c) Four
12. c) Have prematurely decided who they are
13. c) David Elkind
14. c) Increased empathy
15. d) James Marcia
16. c) Identity synthesis
17. c) David Elkind
18. b) Imaginary audience
19. d) James Marcia
20. a) Psychoanalytic approach
21. c) Parenting relationships
22. b) Cognitive development and puberty

23. c) Both parental and peer relationships
24. d) Cooper & Cooper
25. d) Focus on others' perspectives
26. c) Lawrence Kohlberg
28. b) Dopamine
29. a) Planning, controlling impulses, decision-making
30. c) David Elkind
33. d) James Marcia
37. c) Both parental and peer relationships
38. d) Cooper & Cooper
39. c) Lack of self-awareness
40. c) Lawrence Kohlberg
42. b) Dopamine
43. a) Planning, controlling impulses, decision-making
44. c) David Elkind
47. d) James Marcia
4.5
1. b) Environmental factors
2. b) 14
3. b) Crystallized intelligence
4. c) Older adults
5. a) Positive aspects
6. c) Carstensen et al.
7. c) Avoidant-dismissive
8. a) Infant-caregiver attachment
9. b) Three
10. c) Dismissive-avoidant
11. b) Decreased happiness
12. c) Frisch & Simonsen
13. d) Being married
14. c) Socioemotional Selectivity Theory
15. b) Increased blood pressure
16. d) Loss of a spouse
17. b) Increases medication use
18. d) Higher rates of depression
19. c) Developing new interests
20. c) Jeffrey Arnett
21. a) Dementia
22. c) Intellectual engagement
23. d) Both younger and older adults prioritize emotion-related goals
25. b) Mary Main

32. a) Decreases hospitalization rates
33. c) Higher rates of hospitalization
34. b) Lack of social support
36. a) Dementia
37. c) Intellectual engagement
38. d) Both younger and older adults prioritize emotion-related goals
40. b) Mary Main
47. b) Increases medication use
48. d) Higher rates of depression
49. b) Lack of social support
4.6
1. b) Erik Erikson
2. c) 8
3. b) Trust vs. Mistrust
4. d) Trust vs. Mistrust
5. c) 4 to 5 years
6. c) Developing a sense of purpose
7. b) Erik Erikson
8. b) Intimacy vs. Isolation
9. b) 20 to 39 years
10. c) Developing a sense of self
11. b) Early adults
12. b) School age
13. b) 2 to 4 years
14. c) They develop a sense of purpose.
15. c) Middle-aged adults
16. c) Ego Integrity vs. Despair
17. c) Developing a sense of purpose
18. c) Preschoolers
19. d) They learn to trust others.
20. c) Identity vs. Role Confusion
21. b) Erik Erikson
22. b) Generativity vs. Stagnation
23. c) 13 to 19 years
24. d) They feel inferior and lack confidence.
25. a) Infants
26. b) Developing autonomy
27. b) Preschoolers
28. d) Maturity
29. d) Reflecting on one's life and accepting it
30. d) Older adults
31. c) School age
33. c) They develop a sense of purpose.
34. d) Mastering skills and competence
35. d) School-age children
36. d) Forming a coherent sense of self

37. b) Adolescents
38. a) Infancy
39. a) Establishing intimacy
40. b) Early adults
41. c) Achieving generativity
43. d) Infancy
44. d) Reflecting on one's life and accepting it
45. d) Older adults
46. d) They learn to trust others.
47. d) Forming a coherent sense of self
48. b) Adolescents
49. a) Infancy
50. a) Establishing intimacy
4.7
1. b) Longitudinal research
2. c) It cannot capture development within the same person over time.
3. c) High amplitude sucking paradigm
4. c) They prefer speech sounds.
5. c) Infants tend to look longer at new information.
6. a) Unexpected outcomes
7. c) They involve more control over behavior.
8. c) Through false belief paradigms
9. c) Language comprehension
10. b) 4-5 years old
11. b) MacArthur-Bates Communicative Development Inventories (CDIs)
12. c) Emotional and behavioral traits
13. b) Difficulty finding willing participants
14. b) To ensure ethical standards are met

15. c) 7 years old
16. b) They allow for the study of individual developmental trajectories.
17. c) Voluntary behaviors
18. c) Elicited imitation
19. c) It is interpreted cautiously due to potential biases.
20. c) To evaluate language development in infants and toddlers
21. b) Early childhood
22. a) It cannot capture individual developmental trajectories.
23. b) To measure attention and preference in infants
25. b) They allow for the study of individual developmental trajectories.
26. c) Voluntary behaviors
27. b) To measure memory retention
28. b) Language inventories
30. c) 7 years old
32. c) To evaluate social behaviors
34. a) Participant anonymity
35. b) Difficulty recruiting participants
37. c) Parent-report questionnaires
38. d) To gather information on child behavior from caregivers
39. c) 12 years old
40. c) Participant attrition
41. a) To assess memory retention
42. b) Language inventories

44. c) 7 years old
46. c) To evaluate social behaviors
48. d) Exclusion of vulnerable populations
49. b) Difficulty recruiting participants

Practice Questions CH 4

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Practice Questions CH 4

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Questions ch 4

1. Developmental psychologists study:

A) Only cognitive development

B) Only social development

C) Both cognitive and social development

D) Neither cognitive nor social development

2. Patrice's realization about her grandmother shows:

A) She understands the concept of aging

B) She lacks understanding of her grandmother's history

C) She believes her grandmother hasn't changed at all

D) She doesn't comprehend the complexity of development

3. Exposure to teratogens during pregnancy can lead to:

A) Improved physical development

B) Enhanced cognitive functioning

C) Negative impacts on physical and cognitive development

4. Which of the following is NOT considered a teratogen?

5. Cognitive development after birth involves understanding:

C) How infants perceive and learn about the world

D) Social interactions with peers

6. What do developmental scientists study regarding cognitive development?

A) Attention, language, and memory

8. How might children react to the birth of a new sibling?

9. Is being bullied as a child associated with:

A) Positive outcomes in adulthood

C) Negative outcomes in adolescence or adulthood

D) Improved social skills

10. What is the purpose of studying developmental psychology?

B) To learn about animal behavior

C) To focus only on prenatal development

D) To understand historical events

12. Who narrates the family photo album in the article?

13. What are the long-term outcomes of exposure to teratogens?

A) Improved physical development

B) No impact on cognitive functioning

C) Negative impacts on physical and cognitive development

D) Enhanced cognitive functioning

14. At what age do children typically produce their first words?

B) Attention, language, and memory

16. What do developmental scientists study regarding social development?

A) Attention, language, and memory

B) Parent–child interactions, sibling relationships, and peer interactions

17. How do children typically react to the birth of a new sibling?

18. What is the purpose of studying cognitive development?

A) To understand how humans grow and change over the lifespan

B) To learn about animal behavior

C) To focus only on prenatal development

D) To understand historical events

19. Who is mentioned in the article as having a family photo album?

20. Who narrates the family photo album in the article?

21. What are the long-term outcomes of exposure to teratogens?

A) Improved physical development

B) No impact on cognitive functioning

C) Negative impacts on physical and cognitive development

D) Enhanced cognitive functioning

22. At what age do children typically produce their first words?

B) Attention, language, and memory

24. What do developmental scientists study regarding social development?

A) Attention, language, and memory

25. How do children typically react to the birth of a new sibling?

26. What is the purpose of studying cognitive development?

A) To understand how humans grow and change over the lifespan

B) To learn about animal behavior

C) To focus only on prenatal development