48 GS SCORE Prelims 2020 @UPSC - PrelimsTest

IAS 2020
Prelims
TEST SERIES
Test - 48
MOCK - 15 PAPER - I
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PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
GENERAL STUDIES Test No.
MOCK - 15
48
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
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alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
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responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet Provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
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answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
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1 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
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1. Which of the following statements is/are Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct regarding Treaty of Alinagar (1757)?
(a) 1 only
1. English were authorized to fortify
Calcutta agaiZnst possible French attack (b) 2 only
and issue their own coins. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. All the trade privileges held earlier by (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Company were revoked.
Select the correct answer using the code given 5. Consider the following statements regarding
below: ‘None of the Above (NOTA)’ in the Indian
(a) 1 only electoral system:
(b) 2 only 1. NOTA is available only for direct elections
in India and not in Legislative Council
(c) Both 1 and 2 voting.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Right to Reject provision is available in
India in an indirect election process.
2. Consider the following statements regarding 3. Chhattisgarh was the first state in the
EMISAT:
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country to give this right to the voters in
1. It is a spyware satellite launched by India the local government elections.
using PSLV-C45.
Which of the above statements are correct?
2. It has been developed indigenously under
DRDO’s Project Kautilya. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. It is modelled after NASA’s spy satellite (b) 2 and 3 only

SARAL. (c) 1 and 3 only
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Which of the above statements are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 6. Consider the following statements regarding
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Operation Shakti:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Under this Operation the first nuclear
(d) 1, 2 and 3 explosion test was conducted by India.
2. It consisted of five detonations with 1
3. Consider the following statements regarding fusion bomb and the remaining four
Shale Gas in India: as fission bombs.
1. Shale gas has high permeability than
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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conventional natural gas.

2. Jambusar in Gujarat is India’s first shale (a) 1 only
gas exploratory successfully drilled by (b) 2 only
ONGC in Cambay region.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 7. In which age did the Man moved from food-
(c) Both 1 and 2 gathering to food-producing stage?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Neolithic Age

(b) Mesolithic Age
4. Consider the following statements regarding (c) Chalcolithic Age
Tax liabilities on investments:
(d) Palaeolithic Age
1. Exempt-Exempt-Taxed (EET) involves
taxation of the investment at the
withdrawn stage. 8. Consider the following statements regarding
Anti-Maritime Piracy Bill 2019:
2. National Savings Certificate is an
example of Exempt-Exempt-Exempt 1. It is aimed at promoting the safety
(EEE) based investment. and security of India’s maritime trade
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 2
even beyond the limits of the Exclusive 2. Siraj-ud –Dhaula was captured and
Economic Zone of India. executed by Robert Clive.
2. The Designated Courts under the bill will Select the correct answer using the code given
have jurisdiction over the non-commercial below:
ships employed by the government.
(a) 1 only
3. Presently India does not have any
legislation dealing with maritime piracy. (b) 2 only
Which of the above statements are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only

12. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) 1 and 2 only bio vacuum toilets:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. They are based on the process of
composting waste in a biodegradable
tank system.
the Global Climate Risk Index 2020: 2. Kalka-Delhi Shatabdi is the 1st in-service
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train with bio vacuum toilets in India.
1. It is released by Germanwatch, a Bonn
based environment think tank. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. India’s rank has improved in 2018, moving (a) 1 only
up the global vulnerability ladder.
(b) 2 only
3. Japan is the worst-hit country in 2018
by extreme weather events linked with
O (c) Both 1 and 2
climate change. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
the National Mission on Interdisciplinary
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(b) 1 and 3 only Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS):
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. Cyber-Physical Systems are physical and
engineered systems whose operations
(d) 1, 2 and 3
are integrated by a computing and
communication core.
10. Consider the following statements about the
2. It has been launched by NITI Aayog in
administration under Harsha:
collaboration with CSIR.
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1. Under his period taxation policy was very

3. It aims to establish 15 Technology
aggressive.
Innovation Hubs (TIH) for promotion of
2. In his empire, the king’s share was one- R&D in this emerging field of research.
sixth of the agricultural produce.
3. One part of the revenue of the state
was spent as reward to persons of high (a) 1 and 2 only
intellectual eminence. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements are correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
RBI’s interim dividend:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The transfer of excess reserve funds to
the government was recommended by
11. Which of the following statements is/are Malegam committee.
correct regarding Battle of Plassey? 2. RBI had stopped transfers to internal
1. This battle saw the treachery of Mir Jafar reserves as per recommendations of
and Rai Durlabh. Bimal Jalan committee.
3 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Which of the above statements is/are (c) Both 1 and 2

incorrect?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 18. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 regarding Sannyasi and Fakir Uprisings in
Bengal?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The immediate cause of Sannyasi
upsurge was the restriction imposed by
15. Which of the following statements regarding
Inflation are correct? the British upon the pilgrims visiting
holy places and shrines.
1. Increase in indirect taxation accounts for
cost-push inflation. 2. A large number of Muslim mendicants
2. Fiscal drag is an effect of inflation on tax revolted against the British under the
revenues. leadership of Majnu Shah and Cheragh
Ali which is known as Fakir uprising
3. Excess of Aggregate demand over
aggregate supply at full employment Select the correct answer using the code given
level is called inflationary gap. below:
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Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1 only
below:
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Partition of Bengal:
16. Consider the following statements about
development of S&T in Ancient period: 1. Rationale given by British Government
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was that the existing province of Bengal
1. Varhaihira stated that the moon rotates
around the earth rotates around the was too big to be efficiently administered
sun. by a single provincial government
2. Romaka Sidhanta is a work on 2. Disregarding public opinion, the partition
astronomical system by Varahamihira. came into effect on October 16, 1906.
3. Charakasamhita is like encylopedia of Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Indian medicines.
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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
20. Which of the following statements regarding
Affirmative Action is correct?
17. In agreement of Treaty of Bassein (1802),
Peshwa agreed to- 1. It is a policy initiative in which a person’s
nationality, sex, religion, and caste are
1. Not to negotiate with any other state
without the Company’s prior permission. taken into account by the Government.
2. To relinquish for ever all his rights and 2. Companies’ action to extend employment
claims to the city of Bombay. or education opportunities can be
considered as Affirmative Action.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Commensalism

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Mutualism
21. Consider the following statements regarding 25. Consider the following statements about
Calcutta Session (1906) of INC: Revenue Budget:
1. Dadabhai Naoroji sponsored the new 1. The Revenue Budget shows the current
receipts of the government and the
programme of the Congress which had so
expenditure that can be made from these
far been advocated by the moderates.
receipts.
2. For the first time Boycott was authorised
2. Tax revenues, an important component
to be used as a political weapon. of revenue receipts comprise of direct
Which of the above statements is/are correct? taxes and indirect taxes both.
3. Revenue expenditure can be classified
(a) 1 only
into plan and non- plan expenditure.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Fissile Material Cut off Treaty (FMCT): (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is an international treaty to prohibit

the further production of fissile material
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Senior Advocates of Supreme Court:
for nuclear weapons.
1. An advocate can be designated as Senior
2. It entered into force in 1995 following
Advocate by the Supreme Court as well
the Conference on Disarmament (CD) in as any High Court.
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Geneva.
2. They are entitled to file any matter before
3. India is a signatory to it. the Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
Both 1 and 2
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(c) 1 and 3 only (c)
(d) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. A high Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) 27. Consider the following statements regarding
indicates that: Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
(EPFO):
(a) Water is pure 1. It is a statutory body.
(b) There is complete absence of microbial 2. It comes under the Ministry of Labour
pollution and Employment.
(c) There is low level of microbial pollution 3. It covers establishments in which 10 or
more persons are employed.
(d) There is high level of microbial pollution
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
24. The interaction between Flamingoes and
resident lake fishes for their common food (a) 1 only
zooplankton is an example of: (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Competition (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) Amensalism (d) 1, 2 and 3
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28. Match the following: 31. Consider the following statements regarding
Morley-Minto Reforms (1909):
Geographical Indication Concerned
(GI) Tag Products State 1. Western and eastern Bengal was to be
divided while a new province consisting
A. Tawlhlohpuan 1. Tamil Nadu of Bihar and Orissa was to be created.
B. Palani Panchamirtham 2. Kerala 2. The capital of British India was shifted
C. Tirur Betel 3. Mizoram to Delhi from Calcutta.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the above statements is/are correct?
below: (a) 1 only
A B C (b) 2 only
(a) 3 1 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 3 1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 2 3
(d) 3 2 1 32. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding Revolutionary Terrorism?
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29. Consider the following statements regarding 1. Sandhya in Bengal began to advocate
“Ansupa Lake” which has been recently in revolutionary terrorism after 1905 but Kal
in Maharashtra advocated Moderatism.
news.
2. Ghadar party was constituted by
1. Ansupa Lake is one of the largest fresh
revolutionaries while Anushilan Samiti
water lake of Odisha
was constituted by Moderates.
2. It was created by Mahanadi and got a
shape like the hoof of a horse.
O Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
3. The lake is surrounded with high hills.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
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correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 the Elephant Trade Information System
(ETIS)
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30. Consider the following statements: 1. ETIS is a comprehensive information

1. This animal has been accorded protection system to track the illegal killing of
from trade for the first time. elephants.
2. There is currently only one recognized 2. It is managed by TRAFFIC, the wildlife
species, with nine sub-species of this trade monitoring network for CITES.
particular animal. 3. MIKE is a similar initiative of CITES
3. They have been listed as ‘vulnerable’ on that track illegal trade in ivory and other
the International Union for Conservation elephant products.
of Species Red List, with some sub-species Which of the above statements is/are correct?
classified as ‘endangered’’ or ‘critically
endangered’. (a) 2 only
The above statements are related to which one (b) 1 and 3 only
of the following animal? (c) 1 only
(a) Giraffe (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Rhino
34. Which of the following pairs related to historic
(c) Monkey
period and occupations is/are correctly
(d) Tardigrade matched?
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 6
1. Copper age - Subsistence agriculture Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. Old Stone Age - Food gathering and (a) 1 only
hunting
(b) 1 and 2 only
3. New stone age - Rearing of animals
(c) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) 1, 2 and 3
below:
(a) 1 only 38. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 1 and 3 only compressed natural gas (CNG):
1. The primary component in CNG is
(c) 1 and 2 only methane.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. It contains no additives and burn cleanly
leaving no by-products of combustion.
35. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the above statements is/are correct?
the socio-economic conditions of Rig Vedic
(a) 1 only
people:
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1. The Rig Vedic society was tribal and (b) 2 only
egalitarian in nature. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The Rig Vedic people were mainly (d) Neither 1 nor 2
pastoral and thus fought wars for the
sake of cows. 39. The recently discovered BPaL drug regimen
O is aimed to cure which one of the following
disease?
(a) 1 only
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) 2 only
(b) HIV/AIDs
(c) Both 1 and 2
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(c) Dengue
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Zika Virus
36. Which of the following statements is/are 40. Consider the following statements regarding
correct regarding ecological succession? Cabinet Secretariat of India:
1. Primary succession is faster than 1. It functions directly under the Prime
secondary succession. Minister.
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2. For primary succession a small amount 2. It is responsible for the administration

of vegetation should present at site. of Government of India (Transaction of
Business) Rules, 1961 only.
below: 3. Under the Constitution of India, the
tenure of Cabinet Secretary is 2 years.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
37. With reference to humus, consider the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
following statements:
1. It is dark colored, amorphous organic 41. Consider the following statements :
matter in the soil.
1. Building and maintaining a credible
2. It acts as a reservoir of nutrients. minimum deterrent.
3. It offers a little resistance to microbial 2. Non-use of nuclear weapons against non-
action. nuclear weapon states.
7 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
3. Nuclear retaliatory attacks to be Select the correct answer using the code given
authorized only by civilian political below:
leadership through the Nuclear Command (a) 1 only
Authority.
(b) 2 only
Which of the above is/are the aspects of “India’s
Nuclear Doctrine”? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
46. Consider the following statements regarding a
(c) 2 and 3 only High Court Judge in India:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Constitution provides for the retirement
age of 62 years.
42. “siRNAs” term seen recently in news is related 2. He can be removed from his office by the
to which of the following? President on the recommendation of the
Parliament.
(a) It is a new technique found to develop 3. A retired judge is debarred from practising
pesticide alternative to protect plants in any court in India.
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form viral infection.
(b) It is a new missile system developed by
DRDO (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) It is a new asteroid recently discovered (b) 2 and 3 only

by NASA (c) 1 and 3 only
It is an invasive species recently found (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d)
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in India which is damaging the crops of
south India. 47. Which of the following statements regarding
Ashramas in Ancient India is/are correct?
43. Oxytocine harmone is secreted by which
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1. Institution of Gotra appeared in Later Vedic
gland? period for widening the socio-political ties.
(a) Pineal Gland 2. All the four institutions of Ashramas
were established in early vedic period.
(b) Sebaceous Gland
(c) Adrenal Gland below:
(d) None of these (a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
44. Which of the following pollutants are removed
by Electrostatic Precipitation? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Removal of Particulate Matter (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Removal of Aerosols

(c) Removal of Secondary Pollutants Quantum Dots:
(d) Removal of Primary Pollutants 1. Quantum dots are man-made, nano-scale
crystals that can transport electrons.
45. Which of the following statements is/are 2. These artificial semiconductor nano-
correct regarding Nationalists and the First particles are used in solar cells and
fluorescent biological labels.
World War?
1. In the beginning the Indian nationalist Which of the above statements is/are correct?
leaders decided to support the war effort (a) 1 only
of the government.
(b) 2 only
2. Unlike others, Lokmanya Tilak who had
(c) Both 1 and 2
been released in June 1914 decided to
oppose the war effort of the government. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 8
49. Consider the following statements: 4. Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign

1. Amino Acids are byproducts which are Income and Assets) and Imposition of
formed after digestions of protein in the Tax Act, 2015
body. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Vitamin is a macro-nutrient which helps below:
the body in metabolism. (a) 1 and 4 only
3. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener (b) 2 and 3 only
which is chemically similar to methyl
ester. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 2 only
53. Which one of the following international
(b) 2 and 3 only conventions is not ratified by India?
(c) 3 only (a) UN Convention on International
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Settlement Agreements
(b) UN Convention against Corruption
RE
50. Consider the following statements regarding (c) UN Convention against Transnational
Muslim League: Organised Crime
1. The lead in its formation was taken by (d) ILO convention on Abolition of Forced
the Agha Khan and Nawab Salimulla of Labour
Dacca.
2. In 1913 it adopted the attainment of self- 54. Consider the following statements regarding
government as its aim. O Anti-Defection Law in India
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. Both, the Speaker and the Chairman
(a) 1 only of the House have the power to decide
the disqualification of a member of the
(b) 2 only respective house.
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(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Resignation from the political party is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the only criteria to ascertain whether
the member has voluntarily given up the
membership of his party or not.
51. Which among the following pollutants belong
to the category of secondary pollutants? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Ground-Level Ozone (a) 1 only
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2. Acid Rain (b) 2 only

3. Nutrient Enrichment Compounds (c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) Neither 1 nor 2
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only 55. Consider the following statements regarding
Home Rule League:
(b) 1 and 3 only
1. Two Home Rule Leagues were started,
(c) 2 and 3 only one under the leadership of Tilak and
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the other under the leadership of Annie
Besant and S Subramaniyam Iyer.
52. The Directorate of Enforcement is responsible 2. Motilal Nehru and C.R Das also joined
for the enforcement of which of the following the agitation for Home Rule.
acts? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (a) 1 only
2. Prevention of Money Laundering Act, (b) 2 only
2002
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Foreign Exchange Management Act,
1999 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
9 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
56. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Siraj-ud–Daula: (a) 1 only
1. Calcutta was renamed Alinagar after its
(b) 2 only
capture by Siraj-ud-Daula.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. In 1757, his men were attacked by
English army led by Lord Cornwallis. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Eastern Economic Forum was recently held in
(a) 1 only which city of Russia?
(b) 2 only (a) St. Petersburg
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Moscow
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Yekaterinburg
(d) Vladivostok
57. Organisms try to maintain the constancy of its
internal environment despite varying external 61. Consider the following statements regarding
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environmental conditions. Which of the Project Miniature Sun:
following statements is/are correct regarding 1. It is India’s indigenously designed and
it? developed plasma based fusion reactor.
1. In bacteria, fungi and lower plants, 2. It aims to harness fusion energy by
various kinds of thick-walled spores mimicking the sun and other stars.
are formed which help them to survive
unfavorable conditions.
O (a) 1 only
2. During winters, bears and fishes go into
hibernation and aestivation respectively (b) 2 only
to avoid unfavorable conditions. (c) Both 1 and 2
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Select the correct answer using the code given (d) Neither 1 nor 2
below:
(a) 1 only 62. Which of the following statements is/are
incorrect?
(b) 2 only
(a) Article 226 confers the right to
(c) Both 1 and 2 Constitutional remedies to the aggrieved
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 citizens of India.
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(b) High Court can issue writ for the

58. National Commission for Backward Classes enforcement of fundamental rights as
was created through which Constitutional well as ordinary legal rights.
Amendment? (c) The high court can issue writs to any
(a) 100 Amendment Act 2015
th person, authority and government not
only within its territorial jurisdiction but
(b) 101st Amendment Act 2016 also outside its territorial jurisdiction
if the cause of action arises within its
(c) 102nd Amendment Act 2018
territorial jurisdiction.
(d) 103rd Amendment Act 2018
(d) Both (b) and (c).
59. Consider the following statements about 63. The Constitution of India mentions which
Civilian Awards in India: of the following eligibility criteria for the
1. Bharat Ratna can be given posthumously appointment of the Governor in a particular
but Padma Awards are normally not state?
conferred posthumously. 1. He or she must be a citizen of India.
2. Government servants are not eligible for 2. He or she must have completed 35 years
Padma Awards. of age.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 10
3. He should not belong to the state where Select the correct answer using the code given
he is appointed, so that he is free from below:
the local politics.
(a) 1 only
below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
formalisation of workforce
1. All the public sector establishments
64. Which one of the following states does not
require a Citizen of India to produce an Inner and those private sector establishments
Line Permit to enter into its protected Area? which employ 10 hired workers or more
are called formal sector establishments.
(a) Manipur
2. In India, woman constitutes larger part
(b) Mizoram of informal workforce.
RE
(c) Tripura
(d) Nagaland correct?
(a) 1 only
65. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the Geography of Maldives? (b) 2 only
1. It lies just north of the Equator.
2. The Maldivian islands are volcanic in
origin.
O (c)
(d)
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
3. The weather in Maldives is affected by 69. A pure market economy intends to meet the
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the large landmass of the South Asia. foremost interest of
(a) The government
below:
(b) Workers
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Companies
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Consumers

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(d) 1, 2 and 3
70. Which of the following statements are correct
with reference to meandering of rivers?
66. The report “Working on a warmer planet: The
impact of heat stress on labour productivity 1. It is a channeled pattern formed over
and decent work” was released by which floodplains and delta plains.
international organization? 2. Its formations depends upon the propensity
(a) World Wide Fund for Nature of water flowing, unconsolidated nature
(b) International Labour Organization of alluvial deposits and coriolis force
3. In meanders of large rivers, there is both
(c) Green Peace
deposition and erosion along the banks.
(d) World Meteorological Organization
below:
correct about poverty line? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Transit poor are those who have (b) 1 and 3 only
permanently come out of poverty.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. Churning poor are those who regularly
remain in poverty. (d) 1, 2 and 3
11 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
71. Which one of the following sentences best 1. Playas are shallow lakes formed at the
defines the term ‘Uvalas’? centre of basin surrounded from all sides
by uplands.
(a) A landform whose opening is more or
less circular at the top and funnel shaped 2. Deflation hollows are shallow depressions
towards bottom formed due to persistent movement of
wind currents in a particular direction.
(b) An irregular surface with sharp pinnacles,
grooves and ridges Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) An elongated trench formed when sink (a) 1 only

holes and dolines join together (b) 2 only
(d) A small to medium sized shallow (c) Both 1 and 2
depression on the surface of limestones
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

75. Recently, India became the first country that
Tides:
launched a program to replace LPG as cooking
1. The periodical rise and fall of the sea fuel. Which of the following statements is/are
level, once or twice a day, mainly due to
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correct in this regard?
the attraction of the sun and the moon, is
1. The LPG will be replaced by Methanol as
called a tide. the fuel.
2. The difference between the gravitational 2. Sikkim became the first state to launch a
attraction of the moon and the sun is program to replace LPG as cooking fuel.
called ‘tide-generating’ force.
3. When the tide is channeled between
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islands or into bays and estuaries they
below:
are called tidal surges. (a) 1 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) 2 only
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(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only

76. Consider the following statements:
(d) 2 and 3 only
1. The Himalayas have been formed due
to compression of a geo-syncline, Tethys
73. Arrange the following elements in the Sea.
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ascending order on the basis of their proportion

2. Chos are the longitudinal valleys in the
in the composition of earth’s crust:
Shivalik range.
1. Iron
2. Silicon
(a) 1 only
3. Oxygen
(b) 2 only
4. Nitrogen
(c) Both 1 and 2
Selec the correct answer using the code given
below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 3>2>1>4
77. Match the following lists of the riverine islands
(b) 1>2>3>4 to their locations:
(c) 4>3>2>1 River islands Location
(d) 3>1>2>4 A. Bhavani Island 1. Assam
B. Sagar Island 2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Umananda Island 3. Kerala
erosional desert landforms such as Playas and
Deflation Hollows D. Munroe Island 4. West Bengal
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 12
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. Igneous rocks under high pressure and
below the lists: heat transformed into metamorphic
rocks.
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3 below:
(b) 4 1 3 2 (a) 1 only
(c) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
geomagnetism:
1. Geomagnetic dipole does not coincide the Alluvial soil in India:
with the Earth’s axis of rotation rather it
1. Khadar is the new alluvium and is
is parallel to it.
deposited by floods annually.
2. The Earth has more than two magnetic 2. Bhangar represents a system of older
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poles. alluvium, deposited near from the flood
3. Currently, the magnetic north pole is in plains.
Siberia. 3. Both the Khadar and Bhangar
4. The north and the south poles swap soils contain calcareous concretions
places on a geological time scale. (Kankars).

O Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
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(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1 only

82. With reference to SERB, which of the following
correct?
statements is/are correct?
1. ‘Lithification’ is a process of porosity
1. It is a scientific body to conduct research
destruction. work in Environment studies.
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2. Both weathering and erosion are covered 2. SERB is a statutory body established in
under ‘Denudation’. 2008.
Select the correct answer using the code given Select the correct code from the options given
below: below:
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. Which of the following is/are correct in the 83. In the context of Securities Appellate Tribunal
context of the ‘rock cycle’? (SAT), consider the following statements:
1. Metamorphic rocks through continuous 1. It is bound by procedures established by
denudation change into igneous rocks. the Code of Civil Procedures, 1908.
2. Sedimentary rocks upon melting in 2. It hears appeals against orders passed by
the interior changes into metamorphic the SEBI.
rocks. 3. It is has all the powers of a Civil Court.
13 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Which of the above statements is/are (c) 1 and 3 only

incorrect?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only 87. Which of the given statements are correct
regarding CONCOR?
(c) 1 and 2 only
1. It’s a Navratna company, under the the
(d) 2 and 3 only Ministry of Shipping.
2. It is aimed towards the promotion of
84. Which of the given information is incorrect international trade and commerce.
regarding the global stocktake process?
(a) It is a process to periodically access the below:
implementation of the Basal Norms. (a) 1 only
(b) This has Separation of technical (b) 2 only
assessment process from political decision
making process. (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) It has phases of compilation of information, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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inputs analysis and preparation of
outcomes. 88. Which of the following statements is correct
about Make in India Mittleland?
(d) The first globalstock process will take
place in 2023. (a) It is a market entry support progamme
for facilitating French companies in
India.
85. Which of the given information is incorrect
regarding e-BCAS?
O (b) Mittelstand are small scale and family
owned companies.
1. It is an e-Governance initiative of
Ministry of Electronics and Information (c) Mittelstand companies are risk prone
Technology. companies.
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2. It will make all the activities in the BCAS (d) The programme support will be for
transparent, user-friendly and efficient. a selected 30 high-risk Mittelstand
companies.
3. It will enhance security system and ease
of doing business at airports.
Select the correct option using the code given Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY):
below:
1. It aims at supporting and promoting
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(a) 1 only organic farming resulting in improvement

(b) 3 only of soil health.
2. The scheme promotes the Participatory
(c) 1 and 3 only
Guarantee System (PGS) for India form
(d) 2 and 3 only of organic certification.
3. It is a central sector scheme that provides
86. Which of the given statements is/are correct for 30% of the budget allocation for women.
National Education Alliance for Technology? Which of the above statements are correct?
1. It is an initiative of MHRD. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. The initiative will work in public-private
(b) 2 and 3 only
partnership mode.
(c) 1 and 3 only
3. The AICTE will be the implementing
agency. (d) 1, 2 and 3
below. 90. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. A shoal is a detached elevation with
(b) 2 and 3 only shallow depths.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 14
2. A submarine canyon can extend up to the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
mouth of the rivers.
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) 2 only
below:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the International Labour Organization (ILO):
1. It is a United Nations agency dealing
91. Which of the following statements is/are with issues related to labour and social
correct? protection.
1. The Rajya Sabha reflects the federal 2. India is a founding member of it.
element of Indian polity whereas no
3. India is yet to ratify its core convention
such issues in the case of a Legislative
no 182, related to prohibition and
Council.
elimination of the worst forms of child
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2. The Rajya Sabha consists of mainly labour.
elected members whereas the Council, of
mainly nominated members. Which of the above statements are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1 and 2 only
below: (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only O (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 95. Consider the following statements
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regarding the Situation Assessment Survey
of Agricultural Households by NSSO:
the recently released Rule of Law Index 2019: 1. Uttar Pradesh accounted for a maximum
of all agricultural households in the
1. The index is released annually by the
country.
World Justice Project.
2. Madhya Pradesh had the highest
2. In the 2019 index, Denmark tops the list
percentage of agricultural households
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and Venezuela is the bottom.

among its rural households.
3. The rank of India improved to 68 in
3. The average gross cropped area per
2019.
agricultural household in India is 0.937
Which of the above statements are correct? hectare.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the Uri-II project:
96. Consider the following statements about the
1. It is a run-of-the-river power project
circle of illumination:
on the Chenab River in the Uri area of
Jammu and Kashmir. 1. The circle of illumination is the circle that
divides the day from night on the globe.
2. It is being implemented by state-owned
National Hydro Power Corporation 2. It takes 365¼ days (one year) for the
(NHPC). earth to revolve around the sun.
15 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Which of the above statement(s) is/are 99. Which of the following statement is incorrect
correct? regarding the soils in India?
(a) 1 only (a) The black soils are generally clayey, deep
and impermeable
(b) 2 only
(b) Red and Yellow soils are generally poor
(c) Both 1 and 2
in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) The sand content in Alluvial soil decreases
from the east to west.
97. What is JOIDES Resolution?
(d) Laterite Soil are the result of intense
(a) An environmental protection treaty leaching due to tropical rains.
(b) A commercial agreement between India
and Jordan 100. Consider the following statements regarding
different types of missiles developed by
(c) A research vessel that drills into the ocean
India:
floor to collect and study core samples
1. Nag missiles are anti-tank guided
(d) A UN nuclear cooperation treaty
missiles while Pinaka is a multi-barrel
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Rocket Launcher.
98. What is indelible ink that was in news
2. Nag missiles are man-portable missiles
recently?
while MPATGM missiles are launched
(a) Ink used in high end printers from a launch pad.
(b) Ink produced from the soot and smoke Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Ink used in elections to prevent double (a) 1 only
counting
O (b) 2 only
(d) Ink used in painting
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 16
Space for Rough Work
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O
SC
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17 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Test No.
IAS Prelims - 2020 48

PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
GENERAL STUDIES
MOCK - 15
Answer Key
Q. 1 (a) Q. 21 (b) Q. 41 (d) Q. 61 (b) Q. 81 (b)

Q. 2 (a) Q. 22 (a) Q. 42 (a) Q. 62 (a) Q. 82 (b)
Q. 3 (b) Q. 23 (d) Q. 43 (d) Q. 63 (b) Q. 83 (a)
Q. 4 (a) Q. 24 (a) Q. 44 (a) Q. 64 (c) Q. 84 (a)
Q. 5 (c) Q. 25 (d) Q. 45 (a) Q. 65 (c) Q. 85 (a)
Q. 6 (b) Q. 26 (a) Q. 46 (a) Q. 66 (b) Q. 86 (d)
Q. 7 (a) Q. 27 (b) Q. 47 (a) Q. 67 (d) Q. 87 (b)
Q. 8 (a) Q. 28 (a) Q. 48 (c) Q. 68 (a) Q. 88 (b)
Q. 9 (b) Q. 29 (d) Q. 49 (c) Q. 69 (d) Q. 89 (a)
Q. 10 (b) Q. 30 (a) Q. 50 (c) Q. 70 (d) Q. 90 (c)
Q. 11 (a) Q. 31 (b) Q. 51 (d) Q. 71 (c) Q. 91 (a)
Q. 12 (c) Q. 32 (d) Q. 52 (b) Q. 72 (a) Q. 92 (a)
Q. 13 (c) Q. 33 (a) Q. 53 (a) Q. 73 (a) Q. 93 (b)
Q. 14 (c) Q. 34 (d) Q. 54 (a) Q. 74 (c) Q. 94 (a)
Q. 15 (d) Q. 35 (c) Q. 55 (c) Q. 75 (a) Q. 95 (c)
Q. 16 (d) Q. 36 (d) Q. 56 (a) Q. 76 (a) Q. 96 (c)
Q. 17 (a) Q. 37 (b) Q. 57 (a) Q. 77 (d) Q. 97 (c)
Q. 18 (c) Q. 38 (c) Q. 58 (c) Q. 78 (c) Q. 98 (c)
Q. 19 (a) Q. 39 (a) Q. 59 (c) Q. 79 (c) Q. 99 (c)
Q. 20 (c) Q. 40 (a) Q. 60 (d) Q. 80 (c) Q. 100 (a)
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
1. Correct Option: (a) broadcast by communication systems,

radars, and other electronic systems on the
Explanation: ground from hundreds of kilometres away
Statement 2 is incorrect: All the trade in space.
privileges held earlier by the Company The Ka-band frequency that EMISAT is
stood confirmed. sensitive to allows it to scan through ice,
Supplementary notes: rain, coastal zones, landmasses, forests
and wave heights relatively easily, says the
Treaty of Alinagar (1757) report.
The Treaty of Alinagar was signed on 9
February 1757 between Robert Clive of
the British East India Company and the
3. Correct Option: (b)
Nawab of Bengal, Mirza Muhammad Siraj Explanation:
Ud Daula.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Shale gas has
The treaty comprised: low permeability than conventional natural
A list of demands made by the Company gas.
An agreement affirming to return to Supplementary notes:

status quo
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Shale Gas
A number of farmans and dastaks issued
by the nawab Shale gas refers to natural gas that is
trapped within shale formations due to their
As long as nawab shall observe his low permeability and cannot escape to
agreement, English will continue to the surface as easily as Conventional
support him. Natural Gas.
All the trade privileges held earlier Shales are fine-grained sedimentary rocks
by the Company stood confirmed.
O
that can be rich resources of petroleum and
Additionally the English were natural gas.
authorized to fortify Calcutta Due to low permeability, commercially
against possible French attack and viable production of shale gas needs
SC
issue their own coins.
fracturing of the rocks for, the fracturing
provides permeability.
2. Correct Option: (a) Shale Gas in India Various estimates,
Explanation: including those by leading firms, put
Indian reserves of shale oil and gas at large
Statement 3 is incorrect: SARAL is numbers describing Shale oil and gas are
Israel’s spy satellite. more widespread than natural oil and gas.
GS
Supplementary notes: Major regions of availability are Gujarat,

Rajasthan-Cambay, Central India-
EMISAT
Gondwana, Krishna and Godavari Basin
Electronic intelligence satellite and offshore areas in the Bay of Bengal,
EMISAT was placed in orbit by PSLV- Indo-Gangetic plains, Cauvery onshore and
C45 in April 2019. Assam-Arakan.
Developed by the Defence Research Jambusar located near Vadodara
Development Organisation (DRDP), in Gujarat is India’s first shale gas
EMISAT detects electronic signals on exploratory successfully drilled by
ground, especially hidden enemy radars. ONGC in Cambay region which is
EMISAT has been developed under estimated to have a shale gas potential
DRDO’s Project Kautilya which aims of 20 TCF.
to boost India’s space surveillance The gas produced from such reservoir rocks
capacity.
is known as ‘tight gas’ and it requires a
The project is named after the ancient Indian massive hydraulic fracturing technique.
economist who emphasised the importance
of spying for a king to protect his kingdom.
4. Correct Option: (a)
EMISAT is modelled after an Israeli
spy satellite called SARAL (Satellite Explanation:
with ARgos and ALtika).
Statement 2 is incorrect: National
The main capability of EMISAT is in Savings Certificate is an example of Exempt-
signal intelligence — intercepting signals Exempt-Taxed (EET) type of investment.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 2
Supplementary notes: A vote polled for NOTA in a constituency

does not affect the results of the election.
Tax Liability on Investment
Right to Reject on the other hand is a
Tax liability on investments is categorised condition where if rejection or negative
into 3 types – Exempt-Exempt-Exempt votes win a majority, it results in re-
(EEE), Exempt-Taxed-Exempt (ETE) and election. However, this provision is
Exempt- Exempt-Taxed (EET). not available in the Indian electoral
In Exempt-Exempt-Exempt (EEE), system.
investments are exempt at all the stages of
investment, i.e the investment stage, the
accumulation stage and the withdrawal
stage. Explanation:
It is usually applied on long-term investment Statement 1 is incorrect: It was the
instruments, such as Employee Provident second nuclear test conducted by India.
Fund and Public Provident Fund. First was code-named Operation Smiling
EET-Exempt Exempt Taxable denotes Buddha.
that invested money is exempted at Supplementary notes:
the stages of contribution as well as
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accumulation however the lump sum Operation Shakti
amount withdrawn is taxable.
The Pokhran-II tests were a series of
The investment made under the National five nuclear bomb test explosions conducted
Pension Scheme comes under this category. by India at the Indian Army’s Pokhran Test
Range in May 1998.
In ETE-Exempt Taxable Exempt,
investments are taxed at the It was the second instance of nuclear testing
conducted by India; the first test, code-
accumulation phase, but investment
and withdrawals are not taxed.
Examples of these investments are
National Savings Certificate and Tax
O
named Smiling Buddha, was conducted in
May 1974.
The tests were initiated on 11 May 1998,
Saver Fixed Deposits.
under the assigned code name Operation
SC
Shakti.
5. Correct Option: (c) The tests achieved their main
objective of giving India the capability
Explanation:
to build fission and thermonuclear
Statement 2 is incorrect: Right to Reject weapons with yields up to 200 Kilotons
is not available in the Indian electoral
Pokhran-II consisted of five
system.
detonations, the first of which was
GS
Supplementary notes: a fusion bomb while the remaining

four were fission bombs.
None of the Above (NOTA)
The five nuclear bombs were
NOTA was first used in India in 2009. designated Shakti-I through to Shakti-V.
Chhattisgarh was the first state in the More recently, the operation as a whole has
country to give this right to the voters come to be known as Pokhran II, and the
in the local government elections. 1974 explosion as Pokhran-I.
Earlier a voter could record his vote under
Section 49-O (None of the Above) but had to
inform the presiding officer at the election
booth. Explanation:
This compromised the secrecy of his ballot. Option (a) is correct: The Neolithic Age
Supreme Court in 2013 directed the saw the man turning into food producer
Election Commission to make the necessary from food gatherer.
provisions in ballot papers and EVMs to Supplementary notes:
provide a ‘None of the Above’ option, thus
protecting the secrecy of the ballot. Characteristics of Neolithic Age
NOTA is available only for direct The Neolithic Age saw the man turning
elections such as the Lok Sabha and into food producer from food gatherer.
State assemblies, not for Rajya Sabha It also witnessed the use of pottery for the
and the Legislative Council. first time. People used microlithic blades
3 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
in addition to tools made of polished stone. Supplementary notes:

The use of metal was unknown.
Anti-Maritime Piracy Bill 2019
Agriculture: The people of Neolithic Age
cultivated ragi, horse gram, cotton, rice, Presently India does not have any
wheat, and barley and hence were termed legislation dealing with maritime
as food producers. They domesticated cattle, piracy.
sheep, and goats. Agriculture and animal The Anti-Maritime Piracy Bill 2019
domestication were the main economic
is aimed at promoting the safety and
activity of early Neolithic cultures.
security of India’s maritime trade, and
Tools: The people used microlithic the safety of its crew members.
blades in addition to tools made of
polished stones. They used stone hoes and The aim of the proposed legislation is to keep
digging sticks for digging the ground. The up with India’s commitment to the United
ring stones of 1-1/2 kg of weight were fixed Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea
at the ends of these digging sticks. They (UNCLOS), which concluded in 1982.
also used tools and weapons made of bone; India had ratified the UNCLOS in 1995.
found in Burzahom (Kashmir) and Chirand
(Bihar). The bill provides for imprisonment for
life or with the death penalty for anyone
Weapons: The people primarily used
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committing the act of piracy causes death or
axes as weapons. The North-western part
of Neolithic settlement used rectangular an attempt thereof.
axes having curved cutting edge. The The Bill will apply to all parts of the sea
Southern part used axes with oval sides and adjacent to and beyond the limits of the
pointed butt while polished stone axes with Exclusive Economic Zone of India.
rectangular butt and shouldered hoes were
use in the north-eastern part. Exclusive Economic Zone refers to the

O
Housing: The people of Neolithic Age lived
area of sea to which India has exclusive
rights for economic activities.
in rectangular or circular houses which
were made of mud and reed. The people of The central government, in consultation
Mehrgarh lived in mud-brick houses while with the Chief Justice of the concerned High
pit-dwelling is reported from Burzahom, the
SC
Court, may notify the Sessions Courts to be
Neolithic site found in Kashmir. the Designated Courts under this Bill.
Pottery: With the advent of Agriculture, It may also notify the territorial
people were required to store their food jurisdiction of each Designated Court.
grains as well as to do cooking, arrange
for drinking water, and eating the finished The Court will not have jurisdiction over
product. That’s why pottery first appeared offences committed on a foreign ship unless
in the Neolithic Age. The pottery of the an intervention is requested by the country
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period was classified under grey ware, of origin of the ship or the ship owner or any
black-burnished ware, and mat-impressed other person on the ship.
ware.
Warships and government ships
Architecture: The Neolithic Age employed for non-commercial purposes
is significant for its Megalithic will not be under the jurisdiction of the
Architecture. Court.
Technology: In the initial stage of the
Neolithic Age, hand-made pottery was
made but later on the foot-wheels were used 9. Correct Option: (b)
to make pots. Explanation:
Community Life: Neolithic people had Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s rank has
common right over property. They led a
worsened from the 14th spot in 2017 to 5th
settled life.
in 2018 in the global vulnerability ladder.
Supplementary notes:
Global Climate Risk Index 2020
Explanation:
It is an index released by the Environment
Statement 2 is incorrect: Warships
think tank, Germanwatch based in Bonn
and government ships employed for non-
commercial purposes will not be under the and Berlin.
jurisdiction of the designated courts under According to the report, India is the fifth
the bill. most vulnerable country to climate change.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 4
In the Climate Risk Index 2020, India’s One was the Tulya-meya or the taxes
rank has worsened from the 14th spot depending on the weight and measures of the
in 2017 to 5th in 2018 in the global things sold. The other was the Bhagablioga
vulnerability ladder. kara-hiranyadi or the share of the produce,
taxes, and payments in cash from other
India has also recorded the highest number sources of income.
of fatalities due to climate change and the
Revenues were also earned from trade and
second-highest monetary losses from its
commerce. But duties on goods were light.
impact in 2018.
The revenue of the state, according to
India’s increasing vulnerability is due Hiuen Tsang, was spent for four main
to severe rainfall, heavy flooding and purposes as public expenditure.
landslide.
They were one part for the expenses
The state of Kerala’s floods was described of the Government, and state-worship;
as the worst of the last 100 years. one part as the endowment of great
public servants; one part as reward to
India was struck by two cyclones in October persons of high intellectual eminence;
and November 2018 that also nearly killed and one part for gifts to various
1,000 people. religious sects.
India also suffered from extreme heat. While The governments maintained records of
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the human death toll was kept considerably good times and bad times like the times of
low due to public measures, the economic natural or public calamities. The soldiers
damages were quite severe. and smaller officers of the state were paid
their salary in cash.
The report shows that extreme weather,
linked with climate change, is not only
affecting poorer countries like Myanmar and 11. Correct Option: (a)
Haiti, but also some of the world’s richest

countries.
O
Japan is the worst-hit country in 2018,
while Germany and Canada were both
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Siraj-ud
–Dhaula was captured and executed by son
of Mir Jafar.
also in the ‘bottom 10’.
SC
The results reflect the increasing damage
caused by heat waves, which scientists have Battle of Plassey (23 June 1757)
found is being worsened by climate change. The treaty of Alinagar was violated by
conquest of Chandannagore by the British
in 1757.
Siraj ud –Dhaula protested by offering
Explanation: protection to the French.
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Statement 1 is incorrect: In general, The British decided to remove him through

the taxation policy was liberal. The people conspiracy.
were not subjected to oppressive economic
The battle of Plassey took place on June 23,
measures. 1757.
Supplementary notes: This battle saw the treachery of Mir
Jafar and Rai Durlabh, bravery of small
Administration under Harsha force and desertation of Nawab’s army.
Much light is thrown by the Chinese pilgrim Siraj-ud –Dhaula was captured and
on the revenue system of Harsha. As executed by son of Mir Jafar.
Hiuen Tsang says: “Official requirements
are few … families are not registered and
individuals were not subject to forced 12. Correct Option: (c)
labour contributions. Taxation being
Explanation:
very light and forced service being
sparingly used, everyone keeps to his Both statements are correct
hereditary occupation and attends to Supplementary notes:
his patrimony”.
Bio Vacuum Toilets
In Harsha’s Empire, the king’s share
was one-sixth of the agricultural Indian Railways Kalka-Delhi Shatabdi
produce. It is known from the Madhuvana becomes 1st in-service train with
Copper Plate that the king’s dues from a aircraft-style bio vacuum toilets in
village were of two kinds. India.
5 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Bio-vacuum toilets are based on sustainable (quantum key distribution), Data Science
cleanliness as the vacuum evacuation and Predictive Analytics.
system helps in the elimination of the foul
smell.
14. Correct Option: (c)
They also save a considerable amount of
water in regular consumption. Explanation:
Scientifically, in the bio-vacuum Statement 1 is incorrect: The transfer of
toilet, human waste is discharged excess reserve funds to the government was
into a biodegradable tank system and recommended by Bimal Jalan committee.
converted into organic matter through Statement 2 is incorrect: RBI had
composting, which reduces the bad odour stopped transfers to internal reserves as per
as well as the consumption of water. recommendations of Malegam committee.
This step enhances the passenger experience
during long hours of travel.
RBI’s Interim Dividend
13. Correct Option: (c) The Reserve Bank of India has recently
decided to transfer 1.76 Lakh crore
Explanation: rupees in dividend and surplus reserve
RE
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has been to the govt.
launched by the Department of Science and This came after the RBI board accepted
Technology, Union Ministry of Science. the recommendations of Bimal Jalan
committee on transfer of excess reserve
funds to the govt.
National Mission on Interdisciplinary RBI is not a commercial organisation like
Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) banks and other companies owned or
Department of Science and
O controlled by the government to pay a
Technology, Union Science Ministry dividend to the owner out of the profit
has launched the National Mission generated.
on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical What the RBI does is transfer the surplus
SC
Systems (NM-ICPS) in 2018. excess of income over expenditure to the
Cyber-Physical Systems are physical government.
and engineered systems whose Under Section 47 of the RBI Act, “after
operations are monitored, coordinated, making provision for bad and doubtful
controlled and integrated by a debts, depreciation in assets, contributions
computing and communication core. to staff and superannuation funds and for
The Mission aims to address technology all other matters for which provision is to
be made by or under this Act or which are
GS
development, human resource development

& skill enhancement in Cyber-Physical usually provided for by bankers, the balance
System (CPS) and associated technologies. of the profits shall be paid to the Central
government”.
It would be implemented at a total outlay of
Rs. 3660 crore for a period of five years. Some economists welcomed the move as
it will help the government counter the
The mission aims to establish 15 shortfall in revenue and tax collection.
Technology Innovation Hubs (TIH), six
Application Innovation Hubs (AIH), Since inflationary pressure is low,
four Technology Translation Research economists believe that the move will not
Parks (TTRP). have a negative impact in the long run.
The hubs and TTRPs would connect to Another group of economists which include
academics, industry, Central Ministries and the likes of Raghuram Rajan and former RBI
State government in developing solutions governor Urjit Patel said earlier that the
at reputed academic, R&D and other move could put RBI in a vulnerable position
apart from diminishing its autonomy.
organisations across the country in a hub
and spoke model. Malegam committee
CPS and its associated technologies, The Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank
include Artificial Intelligence (Al), Internet of India, formed a Sub-Committee of the
of Things (loT), Machine Learning (ML), Board to study matters and concerns in
Deep Learning (DP), Big Data Analytics, the microfinance sector in so far as they
robotics, quantum computing, quantum are related to the entities regulated by the
communication, quantum encryption Bank.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 6
The Sub-Committee was under Y.H. 16. Correct Option: (d)

Malegam being the Chairman.
Explanation:
The terms of mention of the Sub-Committee
included framing the description of All statements are correct
‘microfinance’ and ‘Micro Finance
Institutions (MFIs)’ for the point of
regulation of non-banking finance companies Development in Science and Technology
(NBFCs) undertaking microfinance by during Ancient Period
the Reserve Bank of India and do proper
recommendations. Charaka wrote the Charakasamhita
in the second century A.D. It is like
Also, the committee had to look at the encylopedia of Indian medicines. It
widespread activities of MFIs in relation describes various types of fever.
to interest rates, lending and recovery
measures to identify trends that impose on Leprosy, hysteria and tuberculosis. His
borrowers’ interests. book contains the names of a large number
of plants and herbs which were to be used
as medicine.
15. Correct Option: (d)
The book is thus useful not only for study of
ancient Indian medicine but also for ancient
RE
Explanation:
Indian flora and chemistry. The sixth
All statements are correct century astronomer Varahamihira
Supplementary notes: called one of his five astronomical
systems as Romaka Sidhanta.
Cost-Push Inflation
It is only western astronomy that introduced
It occurs when overall prices increase in Indian the sign of the Zodaic. The seven-
(inflation) due to increases in the cost of day week, the hour, and several other ideas.
wages and raw materials. Higher costs
O
of production can decrease the aggregate
supply (the amount of total production) in
Later, Indian astronomers made some
advances on the knowledge of the Greeks
and passed on their knowledge with that of
the economy. mathematics via the Arabs to Europe.
SC
Since the demand for goods hasn’t changed, Varhimihira’s well-known work is called
the price increases from production are Brihatsamhita which belongs to the sixth
passed onto consumers creating cost-push century A.D. Varhaihira stated that
inflation. Increase in indirect taxation the moon rotates around the earth
accounts for cost-push inflation. and earth rotates around the sun. He
Fiscal Drag utilized several Greek works to explain the
movement of the plantes and some other
It is an economic term whereby inflation or astronomical problems.
GS
income growth moves taxpayers into higher

tax brackets. This in effect increases Although Greek knowledge influenced
government tax revenue without Indian astronomy, there is no doubt that
actually increasing tax rates. Indian pursued the subject further and
made use of it in their observations of the
The increase in taxes reduces aggregate planets.
demand and consumer spending from
taxpayers as a larger share of their income
now goes to taxes, which leads to deflationary 17. Correct Option: (a)
policies, or drag, on the economy.
Explanation:
Inflationary Gap
Statement 2 is incorrect: To relinquish
It is a macroeconomic concept that describes for ever all his rights and claims to the city
the difference between the current level of of Surat.
real gross domestic product (GDP) and the
anticipated GDP that would be experienced Supplementary notes:
if an economy is at full employment. This is
Treaty of Bassein (1802)
also referred to as the potential GDP.
In agreement of this treaty, Peshwa
For the gap to be considered inflationary,
agreed to:
the current real GDP must be the higher
of the two metrics. Excess of Aggregate To maintain a subsidiary force of 6000
demand over aggregate supply at full infantry with a proportionate artillery,
employment level is called inflationary the annual expense of which was
gap. estimated to be Rs 25 lakh.
7 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Agreed not to entertain any foreign Thus the conditions for the development of
national hostile to the British in his militant nationalism had developed when in
service. 1905 the partition of Bengal into two parts-
eastern Bengal and Assam and the rest of
To accept British intercession to settle
Bengal were announced.
his differences with the Nizam and the
Gaekwad and not to negotiate with any It was said that the existing province
other state his differences with the two of Bengal was too big to be efficiently
of them. administered by a single provincial
govt.
Not to negotiate with any other
state without the Company’s prior The British authorities thought that by
permission. partitioning the province they would
succeed in dividing the Hindu politicians
To relinquish for ever all his rights of West and East Bengal and increasing
and claims to the city of Surat Hindu-Muslim tensions.
The people and the national leaders realized
18. Correct Option: (c) the real intentions of the government.
Explanation: Hunderds of meetings were held over Bengal
to protest against these schemes.
Both statements are correct
RE

Opinion in Bengal against the partition was
Supplementary notes: united. Disregarding public opinion the
Sannyasi and Fakir Uprisings in Bengal partition came into effect on October
16, 1905.
A sect of Sannyasis rose in rebellion against
the British during and after the great The partition of Bengal was regarded
Bengal famine of 1770. as an insult and a challenge to Indian
nationalism. A movement was launched to
The immediate cause of this upsurge
was the restriction imposed by the
O end the partition.
British upon the pilgrims visiting holy It was the work of the entire national
places and shrines. leadership of Bengal. Initially the leadership
was in the hands of moderates.
These sannyasis aided by common
SC

people raided the English factories and Militant and revolutionary leadership
took over in the later stages. Some of the
settlements.
prominent leaders of the movement were
They also collected huge contributions. Surendranath Banerjee, Bipin Chandra Pal,
Aurobindo Ghosh, Tilak and Abdul Rasul.
All these led to a number of conflicts between
the rebels and the company’s forces. New methods of protest were adopted.
At the same time a large number of Fakirs These soon became important features of
GS
or Muslim mendicants revolted against the struggle for freedom.

the British under the leadership of
These were Swadeshi and Boycott.
Majnu Shah and Cheragh Ali.
A large number of people were drawn into
They attacked English factories and looted
the movement. The aims of the national
their goods, arms and money.
movement become more radical
There were number of battles fought
between the Fakirs and the British troops
in which the latter suffered heavy losses. 20. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
19. Correct Option: (a) Both statements are correct
Explanation: Supplementary notes:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Disregarding Affirmative Action
public opinion, the partition came into effect
on October 16, 1905. Affirmative action is a policy initiative
in which a person’s nationality, sex,
Supplementary notes: religion, and caste are taken into
account by a company or a government
Partition of Bengal (1905-1914) organisation to extend employment or
By 1905 there were a large number of education opportunities. By initiatives
leaders who had acquired during the like these, the government plans to increase
pervious period valuable experience in opportunities provided to underprivileged
guiding political agitation. citizens
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 8
Affirmative action is directed at Here he sponsored the new programme

increasing the number of people, from of the Congress which had so far been
certain parts of the society, within advocated by the extremists. For the first
business or educational institutions time Calcutta Session (1906) was declared
or in areas where their presence is as the aim of the Congress.
low. It can also be looked at as eliminating
or bringing down decimations against a In his own words, “We want self-government
particular set or group of people. like that of the United Kingdom or
dominions.
Affirmative action policies are aimed at
increasing opportunities for those groups The Swadeshi and the Boycott were accorded
of people which have been neglected by full support by the Congress.
the society. They are mainly focused on For the first time Boycott was
providing employment and education authorised to be used as a political
opportunities. weapon.
Affirmative action policies are also aimed at The Congress condemned the Partition of
reducing gender diversity in big corporate Bengal. In the words of DadaBhai Naoroji it
houses. In February 2015, the Securities &
is a bad blunder of England.
Exchange Board of India (SEBI) initiated
rules to mandatorily have at least one Promotion of education was declared as the
RE

woman director. aim of the Congress.
Reservation in India is a form of
affirmative action designed to improve 22. Correct Option: (a)
the well-being of backward marginalized
un-represented indigenous communities Explanation:
as defined primarily by their caste i.e.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a proposed
Ethnicity.

O
Reservation in India favors the marginalized
sections of the population with almost 25%
of Indian Citizens eligible for reservation

treaty and has not been negotiated yet.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is a proposed
treaty and has not been negotiated yet.
benefits. Supplementary notes:
SC
Fissile Material Cut off Treaty (FMCT)
It is a proposed international treaty to
Explanation: prohibit the further production
Statement 1 is incorrect: Dadabhai of fissile material for nuclear weapons
Naoroji sponsored the new programme of the or other explosive devices.
Congress which had so far been advocated The treaty has not been negotiated and its
GS
by the extremists.
terms remain to be defined.
Supplementary notes: According to a proposal by the United States,
Calcutta Session (1906) fissile material includes high-enriched
uranium and plutonium (except plutonium
From 1885 to 1947 the sessions of the that is over 80% Pu-238).
Congress were held every year at different
stations. One of its important sessions was According to a proposal by Russia, fissile
the Calcutta Session which was held in material would be limited to weapons-grade
1906. uranium (with more than 90% U-235) and
When the movement against the partition of plutonium (with more than 90% Pu-239).
Bengal was at its height the annual session Neither proposal would prohibit the
of the Congress was held at Calcutta in production of fissile material for non-
1906 under the president ship of Dadabhai weapons purposes, including use in civil or
Naoroji. naval nuclear reactors.
This session is very important because of The Geneva-based Conference on
the following things. Disarmament (CD) on 23 March 1995
It tried to effect conciliation between the agreed to establish a committee to negotiate
Moderates and Extremists. “a non-discriminatory, multilateral and
internationally and effectively verifiable
Dadabhai Naoroji’s address formed
a remarkable departure from the treaty banning the production of fissile
conventional type of Congress material for nuclear weapons or other
addresses. nuclear explosive devices.”
9 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
However, substantive negotiations have not When resources are limited the competitively
taken place. superior species will eventually eliminate
While India has not signed the global the other species.
non-proliferation treaties – NPT (Nuclear The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands
Non-Proliferation Treaty) and CTBT became extinct within a decade after goats
(Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty) – it has were introduced on the island, apparently
favoured signing the FMCT (Fissile Material due to the greater browsing efficiency of the
Cut off Treaty). goats.
23. Correct Option: (d) 25. Correct Option: (d)

Explanation: Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: A high BOD
All statements are correct
indicates that there is a high level of
microbial pollution. Supplementary notes:
Supplementary notes: Revenue Budget
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) Revenue Account: The revenue account
shows the current receipts of the government
RE
The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is
the amount of oxygen that is required for the and the expenditure that can be met from
performance of the activities of a biological these receipts.
organism (one example is a bacterium) or a Revenue Receipts: These are receipts
portion of the organism (one example is the of the government incomes which cannot
digestion of food by the human body). be reclaimed back by the citizens from the
BOD indicates the amount of putrescible government. They can be divided into tax
and non-tax revenues.
organic matter present in water.
O
Therefore, a low BOD is an indicator of Revenue Expenditure: The expenditure
good quality water, while a high BOD incurred by the government that neither
indicates polluted water. creates any physical/financial asset nor
reduces the liability of the government.
SC
Dissolved oxygen (DO) is consumed
by bacteria when large amounts of organic It is expenditure for normal running of
matter from sewage or other discharges are the government department and various
present in the water. services, interest charges on debt incurred
by government, subsidies and so on.
24. Correct Option: (a) Example: Salaries of employees, Interest
payments on past debts, grants given to
Explanation: state governments etc.
GS
Option (a) is correct

Supplementary notes: 26. Correct Option: (a)
Competition Explanation:
It is defined as a process in which the fitness Statement 2 is incorrect: Only Advocate-
of one species is significantly lower in the on-Record is entitled to file any matter or
presence of another species. document before the Supreme Court.
In these two species either closely related Supplementary notes:
or totally different compete for the same
resources. Supreme Court Advocates
Examples include shallow South Three categories of Advocates are entitled
American lakes visiting flamingoes to practice law before the Supreme Court.
and resident fishes competing for their They are:
common food, the zooplankton in the Senior Advocates
lake.
These are Advocates who are designated
The resources need not be limiting for
as Senior Advocates by the Supreme
the competition to occur; in interference
Court of India or by any High
competition, the feeding efficiency of
one species might be reduced due to the Court.
interfering and inhibitory presence of the The Court can designate any Advocate,
other species, even if resources (food and with his consent, as Senior Advocate
space) are abundant. if in its opinion by virtue of his ability,
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 10
standing at the Bar or special knowledge EPFO comes under the purview of Ministry
or experience in law the said Advocate is of Labour and Employment and came
deserving of such distinction. into being in 1951.
A Senior Advocate is not entitled to It covers every establishment in which 20
appear without an Advocate-on- or more persons are employed and certain
Record in the Supreme Court or without organisations are covered, subject to certain
a junior in any other court or tribunal in conditions and exemptions even if they
India. employ less than 20 persons each.
He is also not entitled to accept Structure

instructions to draw pleadings The Act and all its Schemes are administered
or affidavits, advise on evidence or by a tri-partite Board called Central Board
do any drafting work of an analogous of Trustees (EPF). It has representatives
kind in any court or tribunal in India of Government (both Central and State),
or undertake conveyancing work of any Employers and Employees.
kind whatsoever but this prohibition
shall not extend to settling any such The Central Board of Trustees (EPF)
matter as aforesaid in consultation with operates 3 schemes:
a junior. The Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme
RE
Advocates-on-Record: 1952 (EPF)
Only these advocates are entitled to The Employees’ Pension Scheme 1995
file any matter or document before (EPS)
the Supreme Court. The Employees’ Deposit Linked
They can also file an appearance or act Insurance Scheme 1976 (EDLI)
for a party in the Supreme Court. The EPF Organisation (EPFO), is an
Organization that is established to assist
Other Advocates

O
These are advocates whose names are
entered on the roll of any State Bar

the Central Board of Trustees (EPF)
The Central Board of Trustees (CBT) of the
Employee Provident Fund has approved a
Council maintained under the Advocates
proposal for the restoration of commuted
SC
Act, 1961 and they can appear and argue value of the pension to the Pensioners after
any matter on behalf of a party in the 15 years of drawing commutation under the
Supreme Court EPS 1995 scheme.
They are not entitled to file any
document or matter before the Court.
The Delhi High Court has done away with
the previous practice of designating a senior Explanation:
GS
advocate wherein a joint proposal from Option (a) is correct:

three senior advocates was required for an
advocate to be considered for the post of a Geographical Indication Concerned
(GI) Tag Products State
senior advocate
A. Tawlhlohpuan 3. Mizoram
27. Correct Option: (b) B. Palani Panchamirtham 1. Tamil Nadu
Explanation: C. Tirur Betel 2. Kerala
Statement 3 is incorrect: It covers every Supplementary notes:

establishment in which 20 or more persons Geographical Indication (GI) Tag
are employed and certain organisations are
covered. It is an indication used on products that
have a specific geographical origin and
Supplementary notes: possess the qualities or reputation that are
due to that origin.
Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
(EPFO) In India, GI tag is given by the Controller
General of Patents, Designs and Trade
EPFO (Employees’ Provident Fund Marks, who is Registrar of Geographical
Organization) is a statutory body incepted Indications (under Union ministry of
by the government of India. commerce & industry) under statutory
Being the country’s largest social security provisions of Geographical Indications of
organization, it mainly encourages people Goods (Registration and Protection Act),
to save for retirement, among others. 1999.
11 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Palani Panchamirtham 29. Correct Option: (d)

The famous Palani panchamirtham, given Explanation:
as ‘prasadam’ at the Murugan temple
there, has been granted the Geographical All statements are correct
Indication (GI) tag. Supplementary notes:
This is the first time a temple ‘prasadam’ Ansupa Lake
from Tamil Nadu has been bestowed with
the GI tag. The Odisha Wetland Authority has
approved implementation of an integrated
The panchamirtham is a combination of management plan for Chilika, country’s
five natural substances — banana, jaggery, largest brackish water lagoon, and Ansupa,
cow ghee, honey, and cardamom. Dates State’s largest freshwater lake.
and diamond sugar candies are added for The five-year management of lakes is
flavour. intended at strengthening livelihood of
The panchamirtham is an ‘abhishega thousands of fishermen relying on the two
prasadam’ (food that is a religious water-bodies. Besides, tourism promotion
offering), which is served in a semi-solid and conservation of ecology will be taken
state. It is sweet in taste and one of the up.
RE
main offerings for Lord Dhandayuthapani Ansupa Lake is one of the largest fresh
Swamy, the presiding deity of Arulmigu water lake of Odisha situated in Banki,
Dhandayuthapani Swamy Temple, situated Cuttack.
on Palani Hills. It was created by Mahanadi and got a
Tawlhlohpuan shape like the hoof of a horse.
It is a medium to heavy, compactly woven, It spreads over a vast area of 141 hectare,
and surrounded by Saranda Hills in its
O
good quality fabric from Mizoram is known
length.
for warp yarns, warping, weaving and
intricate designs that are made by hand. The lake is surrounded with high
Tawlhloh, in Mizo language, means ‘to hills. One can have a view of high hills
stand firm or not to move backward’. around the lake.
SC
It holds high significance in the Mizo
society, is produced throughout the state of 30. Correct Option: (a)
Mizoram. Aizawl and Thenzawl town are
Explanation:
the main centre of production.
Option (a) is correct
Mizo Puanchei
It is a colourful Mizo shawl/textile is
GS
considered as the most colourful among the Giraffe

Mizo textiles. It is an essential possession for The giraffe has been placed in Appendix
every Mizo lady and an important marriage II of CITES, which places prohibitions
outfit in the state. on uncontrolled trade in a species.
It is also the most commonly used costume in The Conference of Parties (CoP) to the
Mizo festive dances and official ceremonies. Convention on International Trade in
The weavers insert the designs and motifs by Endangered Species or CITES in Geneva
passed a resolution to place the giraffe in
using supplementary yarns while weaving
Appendix II of CITES.
to create this beautiful and alluring textile.
Giraffes, those tall, stately and graceful
Tirur Betel Vine animals of Africa’s savannahs, have been
It is mainly cultivated in Tirur, Tanur, accorded protection from unregulated trade
Tirurangadi, Kuttippuram, Malappuram as the world finally woke up to their ‘silent
and Vengara block panchayaths of extinction’.
Malappuram district (Kerala), is valued The Appendix II listing was proposed by
both for its mild stimulant action and Central African Republic, Chad, Kenya,
medicinal properties. Mali, Niger and Senegal.
Even though it is commonly used for “Appendix II includes species not
making pan masala for chewing, it has necessarily threatened with extinction, but
many medicinal, industrial and cultural in which trade must be controlled in order
usages and is considered as a remedy for to avoid utilization incompatible with their
bad breath and digestive disorders. survival,”
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 12
Giraffes once ranged over much of the semi- But most of the members were indirectly
arid savannah and savannah woodlands of elected by landlords, organizations of
Africa. But their numbers have plummeted industrialists and traders and by the
dramatically — by up to 40 per cent over provincial legislative councils. Separate
the last 30 years — due to threats including representation was given to Muslims.
international trade in their parts, as well The number of members in the provincial
as habitat loss, civil unrest and illegal councils was increased to 50.
hunting.
Less than half of them were to be elected
While giraffes fall prey to poaching for bush by landlords, organization of traders,
meat, bones, skin and tail hair, there is also universities and local bodies.
a significant amount of international trade
in their bone carvings and trophies.
There is currently only one recognized
species of giraffe, with nine sub-species. Explanation:
They have been listed as ‘vulnerable’ on
the International Union for Conservation Statement 1 is incorrect: Sandhya in
of Species Red List since 2016, with some Bengal and Kal in Maharashtra began to
sub-species classified as ‘endangered’’ or advocate revolutionary terrorism after
‘critically endangered’. 1905.
RE
Five of the nine sub-species have only a Statement 2 is incorrect: Both Ghadar
small wild population, while four have a party and Anushilan Samiti were
Revolutionary Terrorist Parties.
decreasing population trend. All are affected
by trade. Supplementary notes:
While the Appendix II listing will not stop Revolutionary Terrorism
all trade in giraffe parts, it will ensure this
Some nationalists frustrated by the failure
O
is not contributing to further population
declines and provide global scale data that
could not otherwise be obtained.

of political struggle turned to revolutionary
terrorism.
They felt that the British must be physically
expelled from India.
SC
They resorted to use violence against
Explanation: unpopular British officials, governors and
Statement 1 is incorrect: Western and viceroys.
eastern Bengal was to be united while a Certain newspapers like Sandhya and
new province consisting of Bihar and Orissa the Yugantar in Bengal and Kal in
was to be created. Maharashtra began to advocate
revolutionary terrorism after 1905.
GS
Soon many secret societies of terrorist youth

Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) came into existence.
The British govt played the game of The most famous of these was Anushilan
Divide and Rule and tried to win over Samiti whose Dacca section alone had 500
moderate nationalist opinion so that the branches. The terrorists also established
militant nationalist could be isolated and centres of activity abroad.
suppressed.
The Ghadar party was constituted in 1913
To placate the moderate nationalists it by revolutionaries in USA and Canada.
announced constitutional concessions
through the Indian Council Act of 1909 They aimed at the overthrow of the British
known as Morley-Minto Reforms. through an armed revolt.
In 1911 it also announced the cancellation Prominent revolutionaries were Prafulla

of the partition of Bengal. Chaki, Khudiram Bose. V Savarkar, Har
Dayal and Ajit Singh.
Western and eastern Bengal was to be
united while a new province consisting
of Bihar and Orissa was to be created. 33. Correct Option: (a)
The capital of British India was shifted Explanation:
to Delhi from Calcutta.
Statement 1 is incorrect: ETIS is a
The reforms increased the number of elected comprehensive information system to track
members in the Imperial Legislative Council illegal trade in ivory and other elephant
from 16 to 60 of these 27 were to be elected. products.
13 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Statement 3 is incorrect: MIKE is an 35. Correct Option: (c)

information system to track the illegal
killing of elephants. Explanation:
Supplementary notes: Both statements are correct
Elephant Trade Information System Supplementary notes:

(ETIS) Early Vedic Period
ETIS is a comprehensive information Cattle Rearing and Agriculture:
system to track illegal trade in ivory
and other elephant products. Agriculture was well known to pre
Aryans & ploughshare is 1st mentioned
It shares the same objectives as those set in early part of Rig Veda but agriculture
out for Monitoring the Illegal Killing of was perhaps used to produce fodder
Elephant (MIKE), with the difference only.
that its aim is to record and analyse
levels and trends in illegal trade, rather However, there are so many references to
the cow and the bull in the Rig Veda that
than the illegal killing of elephants.
the Rig Vedic people can be called a
The central component of ETIS is a database predominantly pastoral people.
on seizures of elephant specimens that have
RE
Most of the wars were fought for
occurred anywhere in the world since 1989.
the sake of cows as the term for war
The seizure database is supported by a series in Rig Veda is Gavishthi i.e. search
of subsidiary database components that for cows (Hence cows seems to have
assess law enforcement effort and efficiency, been most important wealth).
rates of reporting, domestic ivory markets
The Rig Vedic people may have
and background economic variables.
occasionally occupied pieces of land for
These database components are time- grazing, cultivation, and settlement, but

O
based and country-specific and are used to land did not form a well-established type
mitigate factors that cause bias in the data of private property.
and might otherwise distort the analytical Social Differentiation:
results.
SC
The factor that contributed most to
ETIS is managed by TRAFFIC, the wildlife the creation of social divisions was the
trade monitoring network for CITES, the conquest of the indigenous inhabitants
Convention on International Trade in by the Indo-Aryans.
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora. The dasas and the dasyus, who were
conquered by the Aryans, were treated
as slaves and shudras. The Rig Veda
34. Correct Option: (d) mentions the arya Varna and dasa Varna
GS
(Varna was the term used for colour).

Explanation:
Unequal distribution of the spoils of
All pairs are correctly matched war created social inequalities, and this
Supplementary notes: aided the rise of princes and priests at
the cost of the common tribal people.
Pre-Historic India
However as the economy was mainly
In the Old Stone Age, food was obtained pastoral and not food producing, the
by hunting animals and gathering edible scope for collecting regular tributes
plants and tubers. Therefore, these people from the people was very limited.
are called as hunter-gatherers.
The tribal elements in society were
The chief characteristic features of the stronger and social divisions based on
Neolithic culture are the practice of the collection of taxes or accumulation
agriculture, domestication of animals and of landed property did not exist, and
animal rearing, polishing of stone tools thus the society was still tribal and
and the manufacture of pottery. egalitarian.
The Neolithic period is followed by
Chalcolithic (copper-stone) period when 36. Correct Option: (d)
copper and bronze came to be used. The
new technology of smelting metal ore and Explanation:
crafting metal artifacts is an important Statement 1 is incorrect: Primary
development in human civilization and they succession is slower than secondary
practised subsistence agriculture. succession.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 14
Statement 2 is incorrect: For primary Supplementary notes:

succession a bare rock or complete absence
of any vegetation or organism is required. CNG
Supplementary notes: Compressed natural gas, or CNG, is natural

gas under pressure which remains clear,
Ecological Succession odourless, and non-corrosive – and can
be used as a cheaper, greener, and more
Ecological Succession is a process of
efficient alternative to the traditional petrol
gradual establishment of some species
in an ecosystem. During this process and diesel fuels for vehicles.
compatible species get established and the CNG is comprised mostly of methane
non-compatible organisms or species are gas which, like gasoline, produces engine
disappeared. power when mixed with air and fed into
Succession which occurs on the bare your engine’s combustion chamber. CNG is
rock or where no life existed before is compressed so that enough fuel can be stored
known as primary succession. Where in your vehicle to extend driving range,
any community comes and settles down much like the gasoline tank in vehicles.
on an area which was earlier occupied CNG reduces maintenance cost - CNG
but had been cleared by some natural or contains no additives and burns cleanly
manmade factors is known as Secondary leaving no by-products of combustion
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Succession. to contaminate your spark plugs and
Ecological Succession of both the types engine oil. The combustion chamber parts
whether on land or water results into function at peak output for longer periods
the mesic or moderate type of species. before requiring service. The engine oil also
remains clean which minimises engine wear
During the process of evolution the
and requires less frequent changes.
species which come at different stages
are known as seral communities. TheO CNG is more environment friendly - CNG
entire sequence of species during evolution engines run more quietly due to the higher
in an ecosystem is known as sere. octane rating of CNG over gasoline and they
The community which comes first is produce less exhaust emissions. Harmful
least adapted to the ecosystem and the last emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO),
community is at the best equilibrium carbon dioxide (CO2 and nitrous oxide (N2O)
SC
with the ecosystem. can be reduced by as much as 95% when
compared to gasoline powered vehicles.

Explanation:
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: Humus is
highly resistant to microbial action Option (a) is correct: BPal is a three-
drug regimen consists of bedaquiline,
GS
and thus decomposes a t an extremely slow

rate. pretomanid and linezolid which can cure
the Deadliest Strain of Tuberculosis.
Humus
Tuberculosis (TB)
Humus is a dark colored, amorphous
organic substance that is accumulated It is caused by bacteria (Mycobacterium
by the process of Humification. tuberculosis) that most often affect
the lungs. Tuberculosis is curable and
It is highly resistant to microbial action
preventable.
and undergoes decomposition at an
extremely slow rate. It spreads from person to person through
the air. When people with lung TB cough,
Being colloidal in nature it acts as a
reservoir of nutrients. sneeze or spit, they propel the TB germs
into the air.
The humus is further degraded by
some microbes and release of inorganic Anti-TB medicines have been used for
nutrients occurs by the process known as decades and strains that are resistant
mineralization. to 1 or more of the medicines have been
documented in every country surveyed. Drug
resistance emerges when anti-TB medicines
38. Correct Option: (c) are used inappropriately, through incorrect
prescription by health care providers,
Explanation: poor quality drugs, and patients stopping
Both statements are correct treatment prematurely.
15 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis The administrative head of the Secretariat

(MDR-TB) is a form of TB caused by is the Cabinet Secretary who is also
bacteria that do not respond to isoniazid the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil
and rifampicin, the 2 most powerful, first- Services Board.
line anti-TB drugs. MDR-TB is treatable
and curable by using second-line drugs. The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for
However, second-line treatment options are the administration of:
limited and require extensive chemotherapy The Government of India
(up to 2 years of treatment) with medicines (Transaction of Business) Rules,
that are expensive and toxic. 1961
In some cases, more severe drug resistance Government of India (Allocation of
can develop. Extensively drug-resistant Business) Rules, 1961
TB (XDR-TB) is a more serious form of MDR-
TB caused by bacteria that do not respond The Secretariat assists in decision-
to the most effective second-line anti-TB making in Government by ensuring
drugs, often leaving patients without any Inter-Ministerial coordination, ironing
further treatment options. out differences amongst Ministries/
Departments and evolving consensus
New Treatment through the instrumentality of the standing/
It is a three-drug regimen consists of adhoc Committees of Secretaries.
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bedaquiline, pretomanid and linezolid The secretarial assistance, provided by
— collectively known as the BPaL Cabinet Secretariat to the Cabinet and
regimen.
Cabinet committees, includes:
Pretomanid is the novel compound
Convening of the meetings of the Cabinet
developed by the New York-based non-profit
& its Committees on the orders of the
organisation TB Alliance and which received
Prime Minister.
the FDA greenlight on Wednesday.

O
This treatment involves only five pills of
Preparation and circulation of the
the three drugs daily taken over just agenda.
six months. Circulation of papers related to the cases
Scientists have discovered this Cure for the on the agenda.
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Deadliest Strain of Tuberculosis. Preparation of record of discussions.
Circulation of the record of discussions
40. Correct Option: (a) after obtaining the approval of the Prime
Minister.
Explanation:
Monitoring implementation of
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Cabinet decisions taken by the Cabinet and its
Secretariat is responsible for the Committees.
administration of:
GS
Office of Principal Scientific Adviser has

The Government of India (Transaction
been placed administratively under the
of Business) Rules, 1961
Cabinet Secretariat in August, 2018.
Government of India (Allocation of
Appointment – All senior level appointments
Business) Rules, 1961
(including Cabinet Secretary) are done
Statement 3 is incorrect: The office with the approval of the Appointments
of Cabinet Secretary is not defined the Committee of the Cabinet.
Constitution of India. Under the Rules of
Service, the tenure of Cabinet Secretary In News - The government had appointed
is of 2 years, extendable upto 4 years. outgoing Home Secretary Rajiv Gauba as
Cabinet Secretary for tenure of two years.
Cabinet Secretariat 41. Correct Option: (d)
Article 352 defines the term “cabinet” as Explanation:
the Council consisting of the Prime Minister
and other Ministers of Cabinet rank under All above statements are correct
Article 75.
Cabinet Secretariat is the office which
provides secretarial assistance to the Main Features of India’s Nuclear
Cabinet. Doctrine
It functions directly under the Prime Building and maintaining a credible
Minister. minimum deterrent.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 16
A “No First Use” posture; nuclear weapons After six weeks, 90 per cent of the vaccinated
to be used only “in retaliation against a plants did not show any signs of infection,
nuclear attack on Indian territory or on but all the untreated plants were killed by
Indian forces anywhere”. the virus.
Nuclear retaliation to a first strike will
be “massive” and designed to inflict
“unacceptable damage”.
Nuclear retaliatory attacks to be authorized Explanation:
only by civilian political leadership through Option (d) is correct: It is secreted by
the Nuclear Command Authority. Pituitary Gland.
Non use of nuclear weapons against non
nuclear weapon states. Supplementary notes:
Continuance of strict controls on export Oxytocine Hormone

of nuclear and missile related materials It has also been dubbed the hug hormone,
and technologies, participation in FMCT
cuddle chemical, moral molecule, and
negotiations, continued moratorium on
the bliss hormone due to its effects on
testing.
behavior, including its role in love and in
India to retain option of retaliating with female reproductive biological functions in
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nuclear weapons in the event of a major reproduction.
attack against it with biological or chemical
weapons. It is a hormone that is made in the brain,
in the hypothalamus. It is transported
Continued commitment to goal of nuclear to, and secreted by, the pituitary gland,
weapon free world, through global, verifiable
which is located at the base of the brain.
and non discriminatory disarmament.
It acts both as a hormone and as a brain
Explanation:
O
neurotransmitter.
The release of oxytocin by the pituitary gland
acts to regulate two female reproductive
Option (a) is correct: Researchers develop functions: Childbirth and Breast-feeding.
SC
pesticide alternative to protect plants form
It induces contractions of the uterine
viral infection. The programme first triggers
plants’ cells to multiply the virus, which muscles and initiates labour for the child
creates viral ribonucleic acid molecules birth.
(RNAs). Using special enzyme scissors, the In News - The question of banning oxytocin
plants then detect these molecules and cut has been referred to a three judge bench of
them — a process which produces ‘small the Supreme Court
interfering RNAs’ (siRNAs).
GS
Small interfering RNAs’ (siRNAs)
Explanation:
A novel approach to vaccinate plants against
viruses can be used as an alternative to toxic Option (a) is correct: Electrostatic
pesticides that is harmful both to insects precipitation is used for the removal of the
and the environment. particulate matter.
During a virus attack, plants initiate a Supplementary notes:
two-stage molecular defense programme
which protects them “both at the site of the Electrostatic Precipitator
infection and throughout its structure. Electrostatic precipitator can remove
The programme first triggers plants’ cells over 99 per cent particulate matter
to multiply the virus, which creates viral present in the exhaust from a thermal
ribonucleic acid molecules (RNAs). Using power plant.
special enzyme scissors, the plants then
detect these molecules and cut them — a It has electrode wires that are maintained
process which produces ‘small interfering at several thousand volts, which produce
RNAs’ (siRNAs). a corona that releases electrons. These
electrons attach to dust particles giving
The siRNAs spreads throughout the them a net negative charge.
plant and attach them to a protein called
Argonaute. The siRNAs then leads the The collecting plates are grounded and
protein to RNAs viruses to kill them. attract the charged dust particles.
17 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
The emanating dust is charged with ions, He can resign his office by writing to the
and the ionised particulate matter is president.
collected on an oppositely charged surface.
He can be removed from his
Scrubbers are used to remove aerosols. office by the President on the
recommendation of the Parliament.
45. Correct Option: (a) A Judge of high court vacates his office when
he is appointed as a judge of the Supreme
Explanation: Court or when he is transferred to another
high court.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In the beginning
the Indian nationalist leaders including Article 220 of the Constitution of India
Lokmanya Tilak who had been released restricts a retired judge from practising
in June 1914 decided to support the war in the court in which he was a judge.
effort of the government
However, he is entitled to practice in
Supplementary notes: any other High Court and the Supreme
Court.
Nationalists and the First World War
In June 1914 the First World War broke out
between Great Britain, France, Russia and
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Japan on one side joined later by Italy and Explanation:
USA and Germany, Austria-Hungary and
Turkey on the other. Statement 2 is incorrect: There are
four ashramas in all: Brahmacharya
In India the years of the war marked the (student life), Garhasthya (family life),
maturing of nationalism. Vanaprastha (retired life), and Sannyasa
In the beginning the Indian nationalist (life of renunciation). But only three are
leaders including Lokmanya Tilak mentioned in the later Vedic texts. The
who had been released in June 1914
O last or the fourth stage had not been
well-established in Later Vedic times.
decided to support the war effort of
the government in the mistaken belief The 4th Ashrama is only mentioned in
that great Britain would repay India’s Jabala Upanishad.
loyalty with gratitude and enable India
SC
to take a long step forward on the road
to self-govt. The Gotra System
They did not realise fully that the different It is part of a system of classification or
powers were fighting the First World identification of various Brahmin families in
War precisely to safe-guard their existing ancient times. The gotra classification took
colonies form probably sometime during the Yajur
Veda period, after the Rig Veda period.
GS
46. Correct Option: (a) It is believed that the gotras (now account
to a total of 49) started to consolidate some
Explanation: around 10-8 Century B.C.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 220 of There are 49 established Hindu Gotras
the constitution debar a retired judge from today. All members of a particular Gotra
practising in the court in which he was a are believed to possess certain common
judge, however, he can practice in other characteristics by way of nature or
high courts. profession.
Supplementary notes: The institution of gotra (literally
meaning-cow pen) appeared during later
High Court Judge vedic period. As against tribal endogamy
The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of (marriage within tribe) people practised
a judge of a high court. gotra exogamy (marrying outside the
gotra).
However, it makes the following four
provisions in this regard: Ashrams:
He holds office until he attains the These are an outstanding feature of the
age of 62 years. social organization in ancient India. This
system particularly developed during the
Any questions regarding his age are later Vedic period.
to be decided by the president after
consultation with the chief justice of Ashramas are the stages of life which provide
India and the decision of the president training and environment for realising the
is final. ideal of our life.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 18
There are four ashramas in all: Statement 2 is incorrect: Vitamin is a

Brahmacharya (student life), Garhasthya micro nutrient rather than a macro-nutrient
(family life), Vanaprastha (retired life), which helps the body in metabolism.
and Sannyasa (life of renunciation). But
only three are mentioned in the later Vedic
texts. The last or the fourth stage had not Amino Acids
been well-established in Later Vedic times.
Amino acids are organic compounds that
The 4th Ashrama is only mentioned in
contain amine and carboxyl functional
Jabala Upanishad. groups, along with a side chain specific to
each amino acid.
48. Correct Option: (c) Amino acids are organic compounds
that combine to form proteins. Amino
Explanation: acids and proteins are the building blocks
Both statements are correct of life.
Supplementary notes: When proteins are digested or broken down,

amino acids are left. The human body uses
Quantum Dots amino acids to make proteins to help the
body to Break down food.
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Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made
nanoscale crystals that can transport Vitamins
electrons. When UV light hits these
A vitamin is an organic molecule that
semiconducting nanoparticles, they can
is an essential micronutrient that an
emit light of various colors. These artificial
organism needs in small quantities
semiconductor nanoparticles that have
for the proper functioning of its
found applications in composites, solar metabolism.
cells and fluorescent biological labels.

O
Quantum dots are artificial nanostructures
that can possess many varied properties,
depending on their material and shape. For
Essential nutrients cannot be synthesized
in the organism, either at all or not in
sufficient quantities, and therefore must be
obtained through the diet.
instance, due to their particular electronic
SC
properties they can be used as active There are 13 types of vitamins in human
materials in single-electron transistors. body.
The properties of a quantum dot are not only Macro and Micronutrients
determined by its size but also by its shape, Nutrients can be divided into 2 categories:
composition, and structure, for instance if macronutrients, and micronutrients.
it’s solid or hollow. Macronutrients are those nutrients that the
body needs in large amounts. These provide
A reliable manufacturing technology that
GS

the body with energy (calories).
makes use of quantum dots’ properties – for a
wide-ranging number of applications in such Micronutrients are those nutrients that the
areas as catalysis, electronics, photonics, body needs in smaller amounts.
information storage, imaging, medicine, or Proteins, fats and carbohydrates are
sensing – needs to be capable of churning macronutrients while Calcium, Potassium,
out large quantities of nanocrystals where Sodium, Iron and Zinc are macro-nutrients.
each batch is produced according to the
exactly same parameters. Artificial Sweeteners: Aspartame
Because certain biological molecules are Aspartame is an artificial non-

capable of molecular recognition and self- saccharide sweetener 200 times sweeter
assembly, nano-crystals could also become than sucrose, and is commonly used as a
an important building block for self- sugar substitute in foods and beverages.
assembled functional nano devices. It is a methyl ester of the aspartic
acid/phenylalanine dipeptide with the
trade names, NutraSweet, Equal, and
49. Correct Option: (c) Canderel.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Amino Acids 50. Correct Option: (c)
are not byproducts of proteins but are Explanation:
the building blocks by which proteins are
formed. Both statements are correct
19 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Supplementary notes: Ozone forms when hydrocarbons and

nitrogen oxides combine in the presence of
Muslim League
sunlight and stagnant air. It is a colourless,
In 1906 the Muslim League was formed. highly irritating gas with a sweet smell that
forms just above the Earth’s surface.
The lead in its formation was taken by
the Agha Khan and Nawab Salimulla of
Dacca. 52. Correct Option: (b)
They were encouraged by Viceroy Minto.
Explanation:
The Muslim League declared that its aims
were to promote loyalty to the government Statement 1 and 4 are incorrect:
,to protect and advance the interests of Enforcement Directorate is responsible
Muslims and to ensure that Muslims did for the administration of Prevention
not develop feelings of hostility towards of Money Laundering Act, 2002 and
other communities in India. Foreign Exchange Management Act,
1999 only.
However in spite of the efforts of the British
govt the Muslim masses were drawn into Supplementary notes:
the nationalist movement.
Enforcement Directorate
The reason was the contempt that the
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Muslim felt for the British govt for waging It is economic intelligence and law
war against the Sultan of Turkey who enforcement agency responsible for enforcing
was regarded as the Caliph of the Muslim economic laws and fighting economic crime
world. in India.
Two prominent Muslim leaders Maulana It functions under aegis of Department of
Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad Revenue, Union Ministry of Finance.
carried on nationalist propaganda among
the people and brought them into the
O Its prime objective is enforcement of two
struggle for freedom. key Acts of Government of India namely:
The Muslim League itself was influenced by Foreign Exchange Management Act
the spread of anti-imperialist ideas. 1999 (FEMA) and
SC
In 1913 it adopted the attainment of self- Prevention of Money Laundering Act
govt as its aim. 2002 (PMLA)
To check money laundering by curb black
51. Correct Option: (d) money and hawala trade cases.
Explanation: It is composed of officers from the Indian
All statements are correct Revenue Service, Indian Police Service and
the Indian Administrative Service.
GS
It was established in 1956 as ‘Enforcement
Secondary Pollutants Unit’ in Department of Economic Affairs.
The secondary pollutants are not emitted It is headquartered in New Delhi.
directly. The secondary pollutants are
formed when the primary pollutants react In News - The Enforcement Directorate is
with themselves or other components of the investigating the money laundering angle
atmosphere. in the INX MEDIA case.
Most important secondary level Air
Pollutants are Ground Level Ozone, 53. Correct Option: (a)
Smog and POPs (Persistent Organic
Pollutants. Explanation:
Nutrient enrichment compounds Option (a) is correct: The Union Cabinet
contain nitrogen and phosphorus. While had recently approved the signing
these nutrients often come from natural (not ratified) of the UN Convention on
sources, human activities such as International Settlement Agreements
agriculture, urbanization and industry
create excessive nitrogen and phosphorus Supplementary Notes:
in the environment.
UN Convention on International
Acid rain, which is made up of several acidic Settlement Agreements
compounds, forms when sulfur dioxide and
nitrogen dioxide react in the air with water, It is also known as the “Singapore
oxygen and other chemicals. Convention on Mediation”.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 20
It provides an efficient and harmonized If a nominated member joins a party six

framework for cross-border enforcement of months after he becomes a member of
settlement agreements the legislature.
It ensures that a settlement reached by Power to Disqualify
parties becomes binding and enforceable The Chairman or the Speaker of
in accordance with a simplified and the House takes the decision to
streamlined procedure. disqualify a member.
It is an essential instrument in the If a complaint is received with respect
facilitation of international trade and in the to the defection of the Chairman or
promotion of mediation as an alternative Speaker, a member of the House elected
and effective method of resolving trade by that House shall take the decision.
disputes Exception - Merger
India’s Other Initiatives to promote A person shall not be disqualified if
Mediation his original political party merges with
another, and:
The Government is in the process of
establishing the New Delhi International He and other members of the old
Arbitration Centre (NDIAC) as a political party become members of
RE
statutory body the new political party, or
Commercial Courts Act, 2015 has been He and other members do not accept
amended and amendment to the Arbitration the merger and opt to function as a
and Conciliation Act, 1996, is currently separate group.
underway. This exception shall operate only
if not less than two-thirds of the
The Union Cabinet had approved the signing
members of party in the House have
of the UN Convention on International
Settlement Agreements resulting from
mediation by India
O agreed to the merger.

54. Correct Option: (a) Explanation:
SC
Explanation: Both statements are correct
Statement 2 is incorrect: Voluntarily Supplementary notes:

giving up the membership is not the same Home Rule League
as resigning from a party. An inference
can also be drawn from the conduct of the Many Indian leaders felt that popular
member that he has voluntarily given up pressure should be brought to bear upon
the govt if any real concessions were to be
GS
the membership of his party.

extracted.
Supplementary notes: Hence real mass political movement was
Anti-Defection provisions under the necessary.
Tenth Schedule War had meant heavy taxation and roaring
prices of the daily necessities of life.
Disqualification
The people as a result were getting ready
If a member of a house belonging to a to join any militant movement of protest.
political party: Consequently the war years were years of
Voluntarily gives up the membership intense nationalist political agitation.
of his political party, or But this mass agitation had to be carried
Votes, or does not vote in the on outside the Congress for the party was
dominated by the moderates.
legislature, contrary to the directions
of his political party. Therefore two Home Rule Leagues
were started in 1915-1916 one under
However, if the member has taken the leadership of Tilak and the other
prior permission, or is condoned by under the leadership of Annie Besant
the party within 15 days from such and S Subramaniyam Iyer.
voting or abstention, the member
shall not be disqualified. The two Home Rule Leagues carried out
intense propaganda all over the country in
If an independent candidate joins a favour of the demand for the grant of Home
political party after the election. Rule or self govt to India after the war.
21 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
The other prominent leaders who 57. Correct Option: (a)

joined the agitation for Home Rule
were Motilal Nehru and C.R Das. Explanation:
The Govt resorted to repression. Mrs Annie Statement 2 is incorrect: Some snails and
Besant was arrested and many newspapers fish go into aestivation to avoid summer–
were banned. The war period also saw the related problems-heat and desiccation.
growth of revolutionary movement. Supplementary notes:
The growing nationalist feeling in the Homeostasis
country and the urge for national unity
produced two historic developments at the Homeostasis is the maintenance of stable
Lucknow Session of the INC in 1916. equilibrium, especially through physiological
(through bodily part) functions. E.g. cooling
Firstly the two wings of the Congress were your body through sweating processes.
reunited. The old controversies had lost
their meaning and the split in the congress Organisms try to maintain the constancy
of its internal environment despite varying
had not benefited either group. At Lucknow
external environmental conditions that tend
the Congress and the All India Muslim
to upset their homeostasis.
League sank their old differences and put up
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common political demands before the govt. Regulate:
Congress accepted the principle of separate
Some organisms are able to maintain
electorates. This unity is popularly known
homeostasis by physiological (sometimes
in history as the Lucknow Pact.
behavioral – migrating to tree shade) means
Unfortunately this unity was based on the which ensures constant body temperature,
notion of bringing together Hindus and constant osmotic concentration, etc.
Muslims as separate entities. All birds and mammals, and a very few
This left the way open to the future
O
lower vertebrate and invertebrate species
resurgence of communalism in Indian are indeed capable of such regulation
politics. (thermoregulation and osmoregulation).
Conform:
SC
56. Correct Option: (a) An overwhelming majority (99 per cent)
of animals and nearly all plants cannot
Explanation:
maintain a constant internal environment.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In 1757, his Their body temperature changes with the
men were attacked by English army led by ambient temperature.
Robert Clive. In aquatic animals, the osmotic concentration
of the body fluids change with that of the
GS
ambient water osmotic concentration
Siraj-ud–Daula
Migrate:
Siraj-ud Daula came to power in 1756.
The organism can move away temporarily
Calcutta was renamed Alinagar after from the stressful habitat to a more
its capture by Siraj-ud-Daula. hospitable area and return when stressful
period is over.
He tried to control the activities of East
India Company. Suspend:
He wrote letters to the British governor of In bacteria, fungi and lower plants,
Calcutta to demolish additional fortifications various kinds of thick-walled spores
and also to stop unlawful activities against are formed which help them to survive
him. unfavorable conditions – these germinate
on availability of suitable environment.
The British refused to comply with his
orders and he seized the English factory at In higher plants, seeds and some other
Kasimbazar and then Calcutta. vegetative reproductive structures serve as
means to tide over periods of stress besides
In 1757,his men were attacked by helping in dispersal – they germinate to
English army led by Robert Clive. form new plants under favorable moisture
This forced the nawab to come to an and temperature conditions. They do so by
understanding and establish peace with the reducing their metabolic activity and going
English. into a state of ‘dormancy’.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 22
In animals, the organism, if unable Supplementary notes:

to migrate, might avoid the stress by
Bharat Ratna Awards
escaping in time. The familiar case of
bears going into hibernation during Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award
winter is an example of escape in time. of the country.
Some snails and fish go into aestivation It is awarded in recognition of exceptional
to avoid summer–related problems- service/performance of the highest order in
heat and desiccation. Under unfavorable any field of human endeavour.
conditions many zooplankton species in lakes
It is treated on a different footing from
and ponds are known to enter diapause, a
Padma Award.
stage of suspended development.
The recommendations for Bharat Ratna
are made by the Prime Minister to the
58. Correct Option: (c) President of India
Explanation: The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is
restricted to a maximum of three in a
Option (c) is correct: It is a particular year.
Constitutional body set up through the
123rd constitutional amendment bill It can be given posthumously.
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2018 and 102nd amendment act 2018 PADMA AWARDS
under the provisions of Article 338B of
Indian Constitution The Padma Awards are one of the highest
civilian honours of India announced
Supplementary notes: annually on the eve of Republic Day.
National Commission for Backward The Awards are given in three categories:
Classes Padma Vibhushan – for exceptional
It comes under the Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment.
O

and distinguished service
Padma Bhushan – for distinguished
service of higher order
The commission consists of one chairman
SC
and five Members with the term of Padma Shri – for distinguished
three years. service.
The National Commission for Backward Government servants including those

Classes is vested with the responsibility working with PSUs, except doctors and
of considering inclusions in and scientists, are not eligible for these
Awards.
exclusions from the lists of communities
notified as backward for the purpose of job The award is normally not conferred
reservations. posthumously. However, in highly
GS
deserving cases, the Government could

The commission tenders the needful advice consider giving an award posthumously.
to the Central Government on the issues
related to the backward classes and the The total number of awards to be given in a
commission has the powers of a civil court. year (excluding posthumous awards and to
NRI/foreigners/OCIs) should not be more
As on July 2019, the Commission is not than 120.
empowered to look into the grievances
The award does not amount to a title and
of persons of Other Backward Classes
cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to
as this responsibility continues to be vested the awardees’ name.
with the National Commission for Scheduled
Castes (NCSC) All nominations received for Padma Awards
are placed before the Padma Awards
The Union Cabinet has further extended the Committee, which is constituted by the
deadline for the National Commission for Prime Minister every year.
Backward Classes (NCBC) to complete the
The Padma Awards Committee is headed
task of examining the sub-categorisation of
by the Cabinet Secretary and includes
Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
Home Secretary, Secretary to the President
and four to six eminent persons as
59. Correct Option: (c) members.
The recommendations of the committee are
Explanation: submitted to the Prime Minister and
Both statements are correct the President of India for approval.
23 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
In News - Former President Pranab Experimental Reactor (ITER) is the

Mukherjee, late Nanaji Deshmukh and late largest plasma based fusion reactor ever
Bhupen Hazarika were conferred with the built.
Bharat Ratna Award.
It is the costliest technological project of the
21st century with an estimated construction
60. Correct Option: (d) cost of $25 Billion.
Explanation: The project site is located in Cadarache,

Southern France.
Option (d) is correct: It is being held in
Vladivostok, Russia. The term ‘Thermonuclear’ indicates the
nuclear fusion reaction.
ITER will be two times the size of the largest
Eastern Economic Forum fusion reactor present and the chamber
It was established by decree of the President volume will be 10 times the present one.
of the Russian Federation Vladimir Putin in It is worth mentioning here that the mega
2015 to support the economic development project is undertaken by USA, Russia, South
of Russia’s Far East and to expand Korea, China, Japan, European Union and
international cooperation in the Asia- India.
RE
Pacific region.
India’s Contribution
In accordance with the Decree, the Eastern
Economic Forum takes place each year in India has also provided a Cryostat, the
Vladivostok. world’s largest refrigerator, weighing
Every year, the Eastern Economic Forum around 3800 tons and made with stainless
serves as a platform for the discussion of steel. It is built by Larsen & Toubro
key issues in the world economy, regional
O
integration, and the development of new
It will cover the entire structure and
keep the magnetic components at a very
industrial and technological sectors, as low temperature (less than -200OC) for
well as of the global challenges facing maintaining the superconductivity of
Russia and other nations. magnets.
SC
Events at the Forum traditionally take In News – Scientists in France are trying to
place in the form of panel sessions, create a ‘miniature Sun’ on Earth and India
roundtables, televised debates, business
is a partner in this mega project. Prime
breakfasts, and business dialogues
Minister Narendra Modi recently visited
devoted to Russia’s relationships with
the project site and also held discussions
various countries.
with French President Emmanuel Macron.
The Forum business programme includes
GS
a number of business dialogues with

leading partner countries in the Asia- 62. Correct Option: (a)
Pacific region, and with ASEAN, a key
Explanation:
integration organization of dynamically
developing nations in Southeast Asia Option (a) is incorrect: Only Article
32 confers the Right to Constitutional
Prime Minister of India and leaders of a
Remedies. Article 226 empowers the High
number of other countries attended the 5th
Eastern Economic Forum (EEF) held from Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of
September 4 to 6 in Russia. rights.
61. Correct Option: (b) Jurisdiction of High Court
Explanation: The High Court is the highest court of
Statement 1 is incorrect: India is a appeal in the state. It is the protector of
major part of this project but it is not the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
indigenously designed and developed It is vested with the power to interpret the
in India. Constitution. Besides, it has supervisory
and consultative roles.
However, the Constitution does not
Project Miniature Sun contain detailed provisions with regard
Nick named as ‘miniature sun’, to the jurisdiction and powers of a high
International Thermonuclear court.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 24
At present, a high court enjoys the following Additionally, two conventions have also
jurisdiction and powers: developed in this regard over the years.
Original jurisdiction. He should be an outsider, that is, he
should not belong to the state where he
Writ jurisdiction. is appointed, so that he is free from the
Appellate jurisdiction. local politics.
Supervisory jurisdiction. While appointing the governor, the

president is required to consult the
Control over subordinate courts. chief minister of the state concerned,
so that the smooth functioning of the
A court of record.
constitutional machinery in the state is
Power of judicial review ensured. However, both the conventions
have been violated in some of the cases.
Writ Jurisdiction of High Court
CONDITIONS OF GOVERNOR’S OFFICE
Article 226 of the Constitution empowers
a high court to issue writs including The Constitution lays down the following
habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, conditions for the governor’s office:
prohibition and quo warrento for the He should not be a member of either
enforcement of the fundamental rights of
RE
House of Parliament or a House of the
the citizens and for any other purpose. state legislature. If any such person is
appointed as governor, he is deemed to
The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers
have vacated his seat in that House on
to the enforcement of an ordinary legal
the date on which he enters upon his
right. office as the governor.
The high court can issue writs to any He should not hold any other office of
person, authority and government not only profit.
within its territorial jurisdiction but
O
also outside its territorial jurisdiction
if the cause of action arises within
He is entitled without payment of rent to
the use of his official residence (the Raj
Bhavan).
its territorial jurisdiction (15th
SC
Constitutional Amendment Act of He is entitled to such emoluments,
1963). allowances and privileges as may be
determined by Parliament.
In the Chandra Kumar case (1997),
the Supreme Court ruled that the writ When the same person is appointed as
jurisdiction of both the high court and the governor of two or more states, the
the Supreme Court constitute a part of emoluments and allowances payable
the basic structure of the Constitution. to him are shared by the states in
such proportion as determined by the
Hence, it cannot be ousted or excluded
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president.
even by way of an amendment to the
Constitution. His emoluments and allowances cannot
be diminished during his term of office

Explanation:
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is a
convention and not mentioned in the Option (c) is correct
constitution. Supplementary notes:
Supplementary notes: Inner Line Permit
Eligibility Criteria for appointment of It is a British-era system, travel document
Governor that “British subjects” or Indians need to
possess to enter the frontier States of north-
As per the Constitution of India, the eastern India.
following are the eligibility criteria for the
appointment of the Governor in a particular It is issued under the Bengal Eastern
state: Frontier Regulation, 1873.
He or she must be a citizen of India. After independence, Government of India

issues ILP as an official travel document to
He or she must have completed 35 years allow inward travel of a ‘Citizens of India’
of age. into a protected area for a limited period.
25 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
States in which ILP is required are India’s assistance to Maldives

Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland
Operation Cactus – It took place in 1988.
and Manipur. It is the code name of intervention of Indian
armed forces to trounce the attempted coup
of Maldivian group led by Abdullah Luthufi
to overthrow the Maumoon Abdul Gayoom
Explanation: government in Maldives.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Maldivian Drinking Water Crisis in Male - In the

islands are Coral in origin. The Maldives wake of a drinking water crisis in Male
on 4 December 2014, following collapse of
is a tropical nation in the Indian Ocean
the island’s only water treatment plant,
composed of 26 ring-shaped atolls, which are
Maldives urged India for immediate help.
made up of more than 1,000 coral islands. India came to rescue by sending its heavy
lift transporters like C-17 Globemaster III,
Il-76 carrying bottled water.

Explanation:
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Option (b) is correct
Working on a Warmer Planet Report
The report “Working on a warmer planet:
The impact of heat stress on labour
O productivity and decent work” was released
by International Labour Organisation
(ILO).
Key Findings:
SC
In 2030, 2.2% of total working hours
worldwide will be lost because of higher
temperatures.
The global productivity losses would
be around 80 million full-time jobs
Geography of Maldives (equivalent to economic loss of US$ 2,400
billion).
Location
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The projection of 34 million jobs losses in

The Maldives, a group of about 1,200 India would make it the worst affected.
islands, separated into a series of coral
atolls, is just north of the Equator in the A third of the southern Asian countries
Indian Ocean. have already incurred losses greater
than 4%
Geographic coordinates: 3°15 N 73°00 E
This is a conservative estimate, assuming
Climate that the global mean temperature does
not rise more than 1.5°C
The temperature of Maldives ranges
between 24 and 33°C throughout the year. Projections for India
Although the humidity is relatively high, India to lose the most working hours is
the constant sea breezes help to keep the southern Asia in 2030.
air moving.
It lost 4.3% of working hours in 1995 because
The weather in Maldives is affected by of heat stress.
the large landmass of the South Asia to It is projected to lose 5.8% of its working
the north. The presence of this landmass hours in 2030, which corresponds to 34
causes differential heating of land and million jobs.
water.
The report projects losses in working hours
The hot air that rises over the South Asia as
during April and May creates low-pressure
9.04% in agriculture (in shade),
areas into which the cooler, moisture-
bearing winds from the Indian Ocean floor. 5.29% in manufacturing,
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 26
9.04% in construction, and formal sector workers. Those who are

working in the formal sector enjoy social
1.48% in services.
security benefits.
Most of the impact will be felt in the
About only six per cent of workers are in
agricultural sector.
formal sector in India. Thus, the rest 94
More working hours are expected to be lost percent are in the informal sector. Out of
in the construction sector (where heat stress 30 million formal sector workers, only
affects both male and female workers). 6 million, that is, only about 21 per
cent are women. In the informal sector,
Most areas have drought like conditions so
male workers account for 69 percent of
there will be more migration of agricultural
the workforce.
workers to urban areas – usually to work in
the construction sector.
There has been no direct job loss at present, 69. Correct Option: (d)
with distressed workers switching from one
Explanation:
vulnerable sector to another.
Option (d) is correct
67. Correct Option: (d) Supplementary notes:
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Explanation: Market Economy
Both the Statements are incorrect: In contrast to a centrally planned economy,
Transit poor are those who are rich most in a market economy, all economic activities
of the time but can go in poverty. Churning are organised through the market.
poor are those who regularly move in and
out of poverty. A market, as studied in economics, is
O an institution which organises the free
Supplementary notes: interaction of individuals pursuing their
respective economic activities.
Poverty Line
A market is a set of arrangements where
In India Dada Bahi Naoroji was the first economic agents can freely exchange their
to discuss the poverty line.
SC
endowments or products with each other.
Category of poverty:
Since market allows unhampered and
Chronic poor: who are always poor and fair competition, a pure market economy
those who are usually poor but who may intends to meet the foremost interest of the
sometimes have a little more money. consumers.
Churning poor: who regularly moves in
and out of poverty. 70. Correct Option: (d)
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Occasionally poor (Transit poor): Explanation:

who are rich most of the time but may
sometimes get poor. All statements are correct
68. Correct Option: (a) Meanders
Explanation: In large flood and delta plains, rivers rarely
Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, flow in straight courses. Loop-like channel
men constitute larger part of informal patterns called meanders develop over
workforce. flood and delta plains.
Supplementary notes: Meander is not a landform but is only a type

of channel pattern. This is because of:
Formalisation of Workforce
propensity of water flowing over very
We classify workforce into two categories: gentle gradients to work laterally on the
workers in formal and informal sectors, banks;
which are also referred to as organised and
unconsolidated nature of alluvial
unorganised sectors. All the public sector
deposits making up the banks with
establishments and those private
many irregularities which can be used
sector establishments which employ
by water exerting pressure laterally;
10 hired workers or more are called
formal sector establishments and those coriolis force acting on the fluid water
who work in such establishments are deflecting it like it deflects the wind.
27 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
When the gradient of the channel becomes Caves

extremely low, water flows leisurely and
In areas where there are alternating beds
starts working laterally. Slight irregularities of rocks (shales, sandstones, quartzites)
along the banks slowly get transformed with limestones or dolomites in between
into a small curvature in the banks; the or in areas where limestones are dense,
curvature deepens due to deposition on the massive and occurring as thick beds,
inside of the curve and erosion along the cave formation is prominent.
bank on the outside.
Water percolates down either through
If there is no deposition and no erosion or the materials or through cracks and
undercutting, the tendency to meander is joints and moves horizontally along
reduced. Normally, in meanders of large bedding planes. It is along these bedding
rivers, there is active deposition along planes that the limestone dissolves and
the convex bank and undercutting long and narrow to wide gaps called
along the concave bank. caves result.
71. Correct Option: (c) 72. Correct Option: (a)

Explanation: Explanation:
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Option (c) is correct: When sink holes and Statement 2 is incorrect: The ‘tide-
dolines join together because of slumping generating’ force is the difference between
two forces; the gravitational attraction of
of materials along their margins or due to
the moon and the centrifugal force.
roof collapse of caves, long, narrow to wide
trenches called valley sinks or Uvalas Statement 3 is incorrect : When the tide is
form. channeled between islands or into bays and
estuaries they are called tidal currents.
O Supplementary notes:
Erosional Landforms of Groundwater
Tides
Pools, Sinkholes, Lapies and Limestone
Pavements The periodical rise and fall of the sea
SC
level, once or twice a day, mainly due to
Small to medium sized round to sub- the attraction of the sun and the moon, is
rounded shallow depressions called called a tide. Movement of water caused
swallow holes form on the surface of by meteorological effects (winds and
limestones through solution. atmospheric pressure changes) is called
surges.
Sinkholes are very common in limestone/
karst areas. A sinkhole is an opening The moon’s gravitational pull to a great
more or less circular at the top extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s
GS
and funnel-shapped towards the gravitational pull, are the major causes for
bottom. the occurrence of tides. Another factor is
centrifugal force, which is the force that acts
Quite often, sinkholes are covered up to counter the balance the gravity. Together,
with soil mantle and appear as shallow the gravitational pull and the centrifugal
water pools. Anybody stepping over such force are responsible for creating the two
pools would go down like it happens in major tidal bulges on the earth.
quicksands in deserts. The term doline
On the side of the earth facing the moon,
is sometimes used to refer the collapse
a tidal bulge occurs while on the opposite
sinks. side though the gravitational attraction of
When sink holes and dolines join the moon is less as it is farther away, the
together because of slumping of centrifugal force causes tidal bulge on the
materials along their margins or other side.
due to roof collapse of caves, long, The ‘tide-generating’ force is the
narrow to wide trenches called valley difference between two forces; the
sinks or Uvalas form. Gradually, most gravitational attraction of the moon
of the surface of the limestone is eaten and the centrifugal force.
away by these pits and trenches, leaving
The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves
it extremely irregular with a maze of
have greater height. When tidal bulges hit
points, grooves and ridges or lapies. the mid-oceanic islands they become low.
The lapie field may eventually turn into The shape of bays and estuaries along a
somewhat smooth limestone pavements. coastline can also magnify the intensity
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 28
of tides. Funnel-shaped bays greatly Deflation Hallows

change tidal magnitudes. When the tide
Weathered mantle from over the rocks
is channeled between islands or into
or bare soil, gets blown out by persistent
bays and estuaries they are called tidal
movement of wind currents in one direction.
currents.
This process may create shallow depressions
called deflation hollows. Deflation also
73. Correct Option (a) creates numerous small pits or cavities over
rock surfaces.
Explanation:
The rock faces suffer impact and abrasion
Option (a) is correct of wind-borne sand and first shallow
Supplementary notes: depressions called blow outs are created,
and some of the blow outs become deeper
The earth is composed of various kinds of and wider fit to be called caves.
elements. These elements are in solid form
in the outer layer of the earth and in hot
and molten form in the interior. 75. Correct Option: (a)
About 98 per cent of the total crust of the Explanation:
earth is composed of eight elements like
oxygen, silicon, aluminium, iron, calcium, Statement 2 is incorrect
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sodium, potassium and magnesium and the
rest is constituted by titanium, hydrogen,
phosphorous, manganese, sulphur, carbon, “Methanol Cooking Fuel Program” of
nickel and other elements. India
The Major Elements of the Earth’s Crust NITI Ayog on October 5, 2018, launched this
Elements By Weight (%) program in Assam. Thus, Assam became
the first state in India to do this.
1. Oxygen
2. Silicon
3. Aluminium
46.60
27.72
8.13
O Although China and African nations use
methanol as a cooking fuel, India is the
first country where the focus is on replacing
LPG.
SC
4. Iron 5.00
The target is to feed methanol to the
5. Calcium 3.63 Northeast first, and then to the rest of
6. Sodium 2.83 India.
7. Potassium 2.59 It will save money for households and reduce
oil imports.
8. Magnesium 2.09
9. Others 1.41
GS
74. Correct Option: (c) Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation:
Both statements are correct Supplementary notes
Supplementary notes: Himalayas
Playas Regarding the evolution of Himalayas,

the Geosynclinal Theory of Kober and
Plains are by far the most prominent the Plate-Tectonics Theory of Harry
landforms in the deserts. In basins with Hess are considered most acceptable.
mountains and hills around and along, the
drainage is towards the centre of the basin According to Kober, about 70 million years
and due to gradual deposition of sediment ago there was a geo-syncline, called Tethys
from basin margins, a nearly level plain Sea, in the place of the Himalayas and it
forms at the centre of the basin. separated the Angaraland in the north and
Gondwanaland in the south. The sediments
In times of sufficient water, this plain is
covered up by a shallow water body. Such from these two headlands were deposited
types of shallow lakes are called as playas into the Tethys Sea. These sediments
where water is retained only for short gradually got raised due to the compression
duration due to evaporation and quite often forces of the two landmasses. This
the playas contain good deposition of salts. compression of the sediments formed the
The playa plain covered up by salts is called fold mountain ranges of Kunlun, Himalaya,
alkali flats. and Karakoram. The median mass(middle
29 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
portion of geo syncline), less affected by the ‘quadrupolar’ poles of which there
folding is known as the Tibetan Plateau. are, at least mathematically, about 8
in number. These poles are far weaker
According to the Plate-Tectonic theory,
than the dipole field and measure only
about 70 million years ago the Indian plate
weak departures of the local geographic
in the south moved in the northeastern
direction towards the Eurasian plate. About field strength from the basic dipolar North-
20-30 million years ago, these two land- South field.
masses got very close, due to which the Approximately, geomagnetic dipole is
sediments in the Tethys Sea got folded and currently tilted at an angle of about
Himalayas were evolved. Approx 10 million 11 degrees to Earth’s rotational axis.
years ago, all the ranges of Himalayas got At the moment it’s located in northern
fully developed. Canada.
Earth’s polarity is not a constant and it
77. Correct Option: (d) keeps changing. Compass needles in Africa,
for instance, are drifting about 1 degree per
Explanation: decade. And globally the magnetic field has
River Islands of India weakened 10% since the 19th century.
All the above islands are formed by rivers Sometimes the field completely
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hence called as riverine islands. flips. The north and the south poles
swap places. Such reversals, recorded
Bhavani Island situated in the midst in the magnetism of ancient rocks, are
of the Krishna River, at Vijayawada, unpredictable. They come at irregular
Andhra Pradesh. intervals averaging about 300,000 years.
Munroe Island is an inland island group A new study examines the periodicity
located at the confluence of Ashtamudi of geomagnetic field reversals on Earth
Lake and the Kallada River, in Kollam
district, Kerala.
O back to 375 million years ago.
Umananda Island is the smallest river

island in the world. It is in the midst
of river Brahmaputra near Guwahati,
SC
Assam.
Sagar Island is an island in the Ganges
delta, lying on the Continental Shelf of
Bay of Bengal in West Bengal.
Some other islands are Majuli (World’s
largest river island) in Assam, Abdul
Kalam Island (or, Wheeler Island) in
GS
Odisha, Dibru-Saikhowa in Assam, Quibble

Island in the Adyar river in Tamil Nadu,
Mandhata island, also known as Shivapuri
or Omkareshwar in the Narmada river in
Madhya Pradesh.

Explanation:
Geomagnetism
Earth’s magnetic field comes from this ocean
of iron, which is an electrically conducting
fluid in constant motion. Sitting atop the hot
inner core, the liquid outer core seethes and
roils like water in a pan on a hot stove. The
outer core also has “hurricanes”-whirlpools PC: NASA
powered by the Coriolis forces of Earth’s
rotation. These complex motions generate
our planet’s magnetism through a process 79. Correct Option: (c)
called the dynamo effect.
Explanation:
The Earth has two dominant magnetic
poles, and several very weak Both statements are correct
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 30
Supplementary notes: These soils cover about 40 per cent of the

total area of the country.
Exogenetic Geomorphic Process
They are depositional soils, transported and
Denudation is a broad term that
deposited by rivers and streams.
includes both weathering and erosion.
Sediments are a result of denudation as Through a narrow corridor in Rajasthan,
well as lithification. they extend into the plains of Gujarat.
Lithification is the process that turns In the Peninsular region, they are found
loose, unconsolidated sediment into solid in deltas of the east coast and in the river
sedimentary rock through compaction, valleys. The alluvial soils vary in nature
cementation, and recrystallization. from sandy loam to clay.
Essentially, lithification is a process They are generally rich in potash but poor
of porosity destruction through in phosphorous.
compaction and cementation.
In the Upper and Middle Ganga plain,
two different types of alluvial soils have
80. Correct Option: (c) developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar.
Explanation: Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited
RE
by floods annually, which enriches the soil
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
by depositing tine silts.
Bhangar represents a system of older
Rock Cycle alluvium, deposited away from the flood
plains.
Rocks do not remain in their original form
for long but may undergo a transformation. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain
The rock cycle is a continuous process calcareous concretions (Kankars).

into new ones.
O
through which old rocks are transformed
Igneous rocks are primary rocks and other

These soils are more loamy and clayey in
the lower and middle Ganga plain and the
Brahamaputra valley.
rocks (sedimentary and metamorphic) form
SC
from these primary rocks. Igneous rocks can The sand content decreases from the west
be changed into metamorphic rocks. to east.
The fragments derived out of igneous and The colour of the alluvial soils varies from
metamorphic rocks form into sedimentary the light grey to ash grey.
rocks.
Its shades depend on the depth of the
Sedimentary rocks themselves can deposition, the texture of the materials,
turn into fragments and the fragments and the time taken for attaining maturity.
can be a source for the formation of
GS
Alluvial soils arc intensively cultivated.

sedimentary rocks.
The crustal rocks (igneous,
metamorphic and sedimentary) once 82. Correct Option: (b)
formed may be carried down into
the mantle (interior of the earth) Explanation:
through subduction process (parts or Statement 1 is incorrect: The Science
whole of crustal plates going down and Engineering Research Board (SERB) is
under another plate in zones of plate a statutory body tasked with supporting the
convergence) and the same meltdown basic research in emerging areas of science
due to increase in temperature in the
and engineering.
interior and turn into molten magma,
the original source for igneous rocks. Supplementary notes:
Science and Engineering Research Board
81. Correct Option: (b) (SERB)
Explanation: The Science and Engineering Research
Statement 2 is incorrect Board (SERB) is a statutory body
established by an act of Parliament in
Supplementary notes: 2008. It is tasked with supporting the
Alluvial Soils basic research in emerging areas of
science and engineering. Its board has both
Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern the financial and administrative powers to
plains and the river valleys. take quick decisions.
31 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
It supports the research work in high requires the conference of parties to

priority areas through ‘Intensification periodically access the implementation of
of Research in High Priority Area the Paris Agreement.
(IRHPA)’ program and gives special
attention to young scientist below 35 years It is a collective progress towards
age for doing independent and institutional achieving the purpose of the
research. Agreement and its long-term goals
in different phases of compilation of
The Board gives J C Bose fellowship to information, consideration of inputs
scientists and engineers across the and preparation and consideration of
country and RAMANUJAN fellowship outcomes.
to people across the world.
The conference of parties on Paris
Agreement will undertake the first
83. Correct Option: (a) global stocktake in 2023 and every five
years thereafter.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not bound Some of the features associated with
by procedures established by the Code of global stocktake process are: i)
Civil Procedures, 1908 and works on the Separation of technical assessment process
principal of natural justice. from political decision making process ii)
RE
Involvement of wide range of stakeholders
Supplementary notes: iii) face-to-face dialogue iv) Flexible and
practical operational modalities.
Securities Appellate Tribunal
Securities Appellate Tribunal is a
statutory body established under the 85. Correct Option: (a)
provisions of Section 15K of the Securities
and Exchange Board of India Act,
Explanation:
1992.
O Statement 1 is incorrect: e-BCAS
It hears and disposes the appeals Project is an e-Governance initiative of
against orders passed by the Securities the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
and Exchange Board of India or by an Supplementary notes:
SC
adjudicating officer under the Act.
e-BCAS Project
SAT also hears and disposes of appeals
against orders passed by the Pension e-BCAS Project is an e-Governance
Fund Regulatory and Development initiative of the Ministry of Civil
Authority (PFRDA), Insurance Aviation in the direction of enhancing
Regulatory Development Authority of security system and ease of doing
India (IRDAI) the General Insurance business at airports. It is aimed at helping
Business (Nationalization) Act, 1972 and employees of various stakeholders by
GS
the Insurance Regulatory and Development migrating from manual process of training
Authority Act, 1999. to digital platform.
SAT is a three member body and acts as The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
accountability checker for SEBI. The first (BCAS) comes under the Ministry of
SAT was established in 1995. The appeal Civil Aviation. It is the regulatory
against its orders lies to Supreme Court. authority for civil aviation security in
It has single seat at Mumbai with jurisdiction India.
across the whole country. It is guided by the
The objective of the e-BCAS project is
principals of natural justice and has all the
to make all the activities in the BCAS
powers of a Civil Court.
transparent, user-friendly and efficient.
The project intends to provide an ease of
84. Correct Option: (a) doing business with the stakeholders.
Explanation: The e-BCAS project included Training

module, Quality Control and
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a Operational module and Administration
phased process to periodically access the etc.
implementation of the Paris Agreement.
BCAS conducts training, testing and
Supplementary notes: certification courses through its
Global Stocktake Process International Civil Aviation Organization
(ICAO), Certified ASTC (Aviation Security
It is a phased process under the Article Training Centre) and through approved
14 of the Paris Agreement which Aviation Security Training Institutes.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 32
86. Correct Option: (d) The Company also organizes rail/road

transport for domestic containers and
Explanation: provides consultancy in the field of
All statements are correct: The Ministry multi-modal transport.
of Human Resource Development
(MHRD) has announced a new National 88. Correct Option: (b)
Educational Alliance for Technology
(NEAT). The initiative will work in public- Explanation:
private partnership mode.
Statement 2 is correct: It is a market
Supplementary notes: entry support progamme for facilitating
German companies in India. Mittelstand
National Education Alliance for companies are risk averse companies. The
Technology (NEAT) programme support will be for a selected 30
The Ministry of Human Resource high-potential Mittelstand companies.
Development (MHRD) has announced a Supplementary notes:
new National Educational Alliance for
Technology (NEAT) to use technology Make in India Mittelstand (MIIM)
for better learning outcomes in Higher Make in India Mittelstand (MIIM) is a
Education. market entry Support programme for
RE
The scheme aims to use Artificial facilitating investments by German
Intelligence to make learning more Mittelstand and family owned companies
personalized and customized as per the in India.
requirements of the learner. Mittelstand companies are the backbone of
It aims the development of technologies the German industry and its economy.
in Adaptive Learning. Most of them are family owned and are
small yet they are world market leaders

EdTech Companies through a Public-
Private Partnership (PPP) model.
O
It sets to create a National Alliance with

in their domain and possess cutting-edge
technologies.
Mittelstand companies are highly risk
MHRD will work as a facilitator to ensure averse and therefore reluctant to enter
SC
that the Adaptive Learning Solutions into challenging markets. Though they
are freely available to the economically possess high-end technology, they are not
backward students. big investors. These companies not only
All India Council for Technical require the necessary market information,
Education (AICTE) would be but also information on the business
the implementing agency for the NEAT processes involved in market entry.
programme. The programme support will be for a
selected 30 high-potential Mittelstand
GS
companies that are at an advanced stage

87. Correct Option: (b) of Market Entry with a clear intent for
Explanation: localisation.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It’s a Navratna MIIM is another milestone in Ease of

company, under the Ministry of Railways, Doing Business in India. MIIM will make
established in 1988 the market entry of Mittelstand companies
a smooth process. MIIM programme offers
Supplementary notes: a wide range of business support services
under a single platform.
Container Corporation of India
(CONCOR)
It’s a Navratna company, under the 89. Correct Option: (a)
Ministry of Railways, established in Explanation:
1988. It has the objective to provide
responsive, cost effective, efficient Statement 3 is incorrect: It is a centrally
and reliable logistics solutions for the sponsored scheme and not a central sector
promotion of trade and commerce. scheme.
It operates Inland Container Deports Supplementary notes:
(ICDs) which provide single window
facility in co-ordination with Railways, Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
Customs, Sea Ports, Shipping Lines, (PKVY)
Road hauliers, Banks, etc. to deal with Launched in 2015, is an extended component
transport logistics of imports and exports. of Soil Health Management (SHM) under
33 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
the Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS),

National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture
(NMSA).
PKVY aims at supporting and promoting
organic farming, in turn resulting in
the improvement of soil health.
The scheme promotes Participatory
Guarantee System (PGS) for India form
of organic certification that is built on
mutual trust, locally relevant and mandates
the involvement of producers and consumers
in the process of certification.
PGS – India operates outside the framework 91. Correct Option: (a)
of “Third Party Certification ”.
Explanation:
Funding pattern under the scheme is in
the ratio of 60:40 by the Central and State Statement 2 is incorrect
Governments respectively.
In the case of North Eastern and the
RE

Himalayan States, Central Assistance is Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Council
provided in the ratio of 90:10 (Centre: State)
Even though both the council and the
and for Union Territories, the assistance is
100%. Rajya Sabha are second chambers, the
Constitution has given the council much
The objective is to produce agricultural lesser importance than the Rajya Sabha
products free from chemicals and pesticides
due to the following reasons:
residues by adopting eco- friendly, low- cost
technologies.
O The Rajya Sabha consists of the
At least 30% of the budget allocations representatives of the states and
need to be earmarked for women thus reflect the federal element of
beneficiaries/ farmers. the polity. Therefore, it has to be an
SC
effective revising body and not just an
advisory body or dilatory body like that
90. Correct Option: (c) of the council. On the other hand, the
Explanation: issue of federal significance does
not arise in the case of a council.
Both statements are correct
The council is heterogeneously
constituted. It represents different
GS
Minor Oceanic Reliefs interests and some nominated members

Some of the minor oceanic reliefs are: (1/6 of the total). Its very composition
makes its position weak and reduces
Ridges, Hills, Seamounts, Guyots, its utility as an effective revising body.
Trenches, Canyons, Sleeps, Fracture On the other hand, the Rajya Sabha
zones, Island arcs, Atolls, Coral reefs,
is homogeneously constituted.
Submerged volcanoes, and Sea-scarps,
etc. It represents only the states and
consists of mainly elected members
A shoal is a detached elevation with (only 12 out of 250 are nominated).
shallow depths. Shoal is a natural
submerged ridge, bank or bar that The council should yield to the assembly,
consists of, or is covered by sand or other which is a popular house.
unconsolidated material and rises from
the bed of a body to near the surface. Thus, the Rajya Sabha is a second
Since they project out of water with chamber while the Council is a secondary
moderate heights, they are dangerous chamber.
for navigation.
A submarine canyon is a steep-sided 92. Correct Option: (a)
valley of the oceans.
Explanation:
They cut into the seabed of the
continental slope, sometimes Statement 3 is incorrect: India’s ranking
extending well onto the continental was downgraded in 2019 to 68 from 65 in
shelf, up to the mouth of the rivers. the previous index.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 34
Supplementary notes: The hydroelectric project is located near the

border of India and Pakistan.
Rule of Law Index
Pakistan had objected the construction of
Rule of Law Index is released by
the World Justice Project (WJP), an the controversial Indian power plant alleging
international civil society organization. the violation of the Indus Water Treaty
signed between the two countries in 1960.
It measures how the rule of law is
experienced and perceived by the general The treaty allows the three rivers Indus,
public in 126 countries and jurisdictions Jhelum and Chenab to flow into Pakistan.
worldwide based on more than 120,000
The power output of the plant will be
household and 3,800 expert surveys.
supplied to the states of Jammu & Kashmir,
WJP Rule of Law Index measures countries’ Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana,
rule of law performance across eight Delhi, Punjab, Rajasthan and Chandigarh.
factors:
Constraints on Government Powers,
Absence of Corruption,
Explanation:
Open Government,
RE
Statement 3 is incorrect: India in 2017
Fundamental Rights,
ratified the convention no. 182 which deals
Order and Security, with prohibition and elimination of the
Regulatory Enforcement, worst forms of child labour.
Civil Justice, and Supplementary notes:

Criminal Justice. O International Labour Organization (ILO)
The top three overall performers in the 2019 Established in 1919, the International
WJP Rule of Law Index were Denmark (1), Labour Organization (ILO) is a United
Norway (2), and Finland (3). Nations agency dealing with issues related
The bottoms three were the Democratic to labour, social protection, and work
SC
Republic of the Congo (124), Cambodia opportunities for all.
(125), and Venezuela (126).
India is a founder member of the ILO.
On this Index, India ranks 68 out of 126
countries, down 3 places from last year. Convention No.138 of the ILO requires state
parties to set a minimum age under which
no one shall be admitted to employment
93. Correct Option: (b) or work in any occupation, except for light
work and artistic performances.
GS
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is being Convention No. 182. calls for the
implemented on Jhelum River prohibition and elimination of the
worst forms of child labour, including
Supplementary notes: slavery, forced labour and trafficking and
Uri-II Project in illicit activities (such as drug trafficking);
and hazardous work.
The 240MW Uri-II hydroelectric plant is the
second run-of-the-river power project India ratified these conventions in
on the Jhelum River in the Uri area 2017.
of Baramullah District, Jammu and
Kashmir, India. Along with these conventions, India
has ratified six out of eight core ILO
State-owned National Hydro Power conventions.
Corporation (NHPC) is developing the
project downstream of the existing Four other conventions were related
480MW Uri-I power plant which was to the abolition of forced labour, equal
commissioned in 1997. remuneration and no discrimination
The power plant consists of four 60MW between men and women in employment
generating units. and occupation.
Three of the four units were commissioned Countries which ratify any of the ILO
by the end of 2013 and the fourth unit was conventions have to go through a periodical
inaugurated in July 2014. reporting system every four years.
35 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
95. Correct Option: (c) Supplementary notes:
Explanation: Circle of Illumination

Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajasthan The circle of illumination is the circle that
had the highest percentage of agricultural divides the day from night on the globe.
households among its rural households. It takes 365¼ days (one year) for the earth
Supplementary notes: to revolve around the sun.
Six hours saved every year are added to
Situation Assessment Survey
make one day (24 hours) over a span of
of Agricultural Households
four years. This surplus day is added to the
It was released by the National Sample month of February. Thus every fourth year
Survey Office (NSSO) Ministry of Statistics we have leap year with 366 days.
and Programme Implementation in 2014
Earth goes around the sun in an elliptical
for the Crop Year 2012-13.
orbit. Note that throughout its orbit, the
An agricultural household for this survey earth is inclined in the same direction.
was defined as a household receiving value
of produce, more than Rs.3000/- from
agricultural and having at least one member 97. Correct Option: (c)
RE
self-employed in agriculture either in the Explanation:
principal status or in subsidiary status
during last 365 days. Option (c) is correct
Rural India had an estimated total of 90.2 Supplementary notes:

million agricultural households, which
The JOIDES Resolution
constituted about 57.8 per cent of the total
estimated rural households of the country The JOIDES Resolution (Joint
during the same period.
O Oceanographic Institutions for Deep Earth
Sampling), oten known as JR is a research
Uttar Pradesh accounted for about 20
vessel that drills into the ocean floor to
per cent of all agricultural households
collect and study core samples. Scientists
in the country.
use data from the JR to better understand
SC
Rajasthan had the highest percentage climate change, geology and Earth’s history.
of agricultural households (78.4 per It is a part of the International Ocean
cent) among its rural households and Discovery Program and is funded by the
Kerala had the least percentage share of National Science Foundation.
agricultural households (27.3 per cent) in The JR is currently transiting to port for
its rural households. maintenance. The next expedition will start
Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock on April 26, 2020.
and other agricultural activities) was
GS
The JR is used by the International Ocean

reported to be the principal source of Discovery Program (IODP), an international,
income for the majority of the agricultural multi-drilling platform research program
households in all the major States, except
Kerala where about 61 per cent of the Gurumurthy G.P., a Post-doctoral Research
agricultural households reported to have Fellow at the Manipal Centre for Natural
received maximum income from sources Sciences (MCNS), Manipal University,
other than agricultural activities. has become the first participant from the
university and the first from any private
The average gross cropped area per university in the country to participate
agricultural household during this in the prestigious deep sea International
period was 0.937 hectare. Ocean Discovery Programme (IODP).
The survey results indicated that a very Gurumurthy was among the 30 scientists
small segment of agricultural households from 26 countries to sail in Joides Resolution,
utilized crop insurance. a deep sea drilling research vessel.
Out of total agri-households, 23 per cent of About the deep sea International Ocean
agricultural households depend on livestock Discovery Programme (IODP):
as a prime source of income.
The International Ocean Discovery
Program (IODP) is an international
96. Correct Option: (c) research collaboration that coordinates
seagoing expeditions to study the history
Explanation: of the Earth recorded in sediments and
Both statements are correct rocks beneath the ocean floor.
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 36
IODP is dedicated to advance scientific Electoral stain typically contains

understanding of Earth by sampling, a pigment for instant recognition;
instrumenting and monitoring sub- a silver nitrate which stains the skin on
seafloor environments. exposure to ultraviolet light, leaving a
The Earth deep below the seafloor mark that is impossible to wash off and
contains a unique record of our planet’s is only removed as external skin cells are
history and structure. Scientists study replaced.
the subseafloor to better understand Industry standard electoral inks contain
Earth’s components, processes, and 10%, 14% or 18% silver nitrate solution,
phenomena. This research helps answer depending on the length of time the
questions about fundamental aspects mark is required to be visible. Although
of our planet such as the past global
normally water-based, electoral stains
environment, the deep biosphere, plate
occasionally contain a solvent such
tectonics, and deep fluid flow.
as alcohol to allow for faster drying,
especially when used with dipping
98. Correct Option: (c) bottles, which may also contain a biocide
to ensure bacteria aren’t transferred
Explanation: from voter to voter.
RE
Electoral Ink or Indelible Ink
Electoral ink, indelible ink, electoral 99. Correct Option: (c)
stain or phosphoric ink is a semi-
permanent ink or dye that is Explanation:
applied to the forefinger (usually) Soils in India
of voters during elections in order to
prevent electoral fraud such as double
O Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau
voting. which includes parts of Maharashtra,
Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh
It is an effective method for countries where
and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
identification documents for citizens are not
always standardised or institutionalized. The black soils are generally clayey, deep
SC
The most common election ink used and impermeable. They swell and become
worldwide was invented by Filiberto sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So,
Vázquez Davila, a Mexican biochemical during the dry season, these soil develop
engineer. wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of
‘self ploughing’.
Application:
The sand content in Alluvial soil decreases
Indelible ink is used as an effective from the west to east.
security feature to prevent double voting
GS
in elections or the case may be (like Red soil develops on crystalline igneous
Indian government has structure to use rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern
this ink for curbing the corruption and and southern part of the Deccan Plateau.
double entry in demonetization).
They are generally poor in nitrogen,
Ink is normally applied to the left phosphorous and humus.
hand index finger, especially to
the cuticle where it is almost impossible Laterite has been derived from the Latin
to remove quickly. Ink may be applied word ‘Later’ which means brick.
in a variety of ways, depending on These are the result of intense leaching due
circumstance and preference. to tropical rains.
Composition: With rain, lime and silica arc leached away,
His ink typically stays on skin for and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium
72–96 hours, lasting 2 to 4 weeks on compound are left behind.
the fingernail and cuticle area.
The election ink used in India puts a 100. Correct Option: (a)
permanent mark on the cuticle area
which disappears only with the growth Explanation:
of new nail. Statement 2 is incorrect: Nag missiles
It can take up to 4 months for the stain are anti-tank guided missiles which are
to be replaced completely by new nail launched from a launch pad while MPATGM
growth. is Man-Portable Anti-tank Guided Missile.
37 PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26
Supplementary notes: generation all weather fire-and-forget, lock-

on after launch anti-tank guided missile
MPATGM with an operational range of 500m-20km,
Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile single-shot hit probability of 0.9 and 10
is an Indian third-generation fire- years of maintenance free shelf-life.
and-forget anti-tank guided missile.
Pinaka
It has been developed by DRDO and was
incorporated with state-of-the-art Infrared Pinaka is an indigenous multi-barrel
Imaging Seeker along with advanced rocket launch (MBRL) system, which
avionics. has been developed by the Defence Research
and Development Organisation (DRDO) for
Other anti-tank guided missile OF India
the Indian Army.
are DRDO developed are Anti Tank Missile,
Amogha missile, Nag missile, Man-Portable Its weapon system has a state-of-the-art
Anti-tank Guided Missile (MPATGM). guidance kit bolstered by an advanced
navigation and control system.
Nag Missiles
The Nag missile also called Prospina for
the land attack version is an Indian third

RE
O
SC
GS
PTS2020/PPP-48/042020/26 38

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IAS 2020

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

GENERAL STUDIES Test No.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

3. It is modelled after NASA’s spy satellite (b) 2 and 3 only

conventional natural gas.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Neolithic Age

Which of the above statements are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2

(a) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) 2 and 3 only

1. Under his period taxation policy was very

Which of the above statements is/are (c) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Commensalism

1. It is an international treaty to prohibit

(c) 1 and 3 only (c)

(d) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) 2 and 3 only

30. Consider the following statements: 1. ETIS is a comprehensive information

2. For primary succession a small amount 2. It is responsible for the administration

(a) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) It is a new asteroid recently discovered (b) 2 and 3 only

(a) Removal of Particulate Matter (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Removal of Aerosols

49. Consider the following statements: 4. Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign

2. Acid Rain (b) 2 only

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(b) High Court can issue writ for the

(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Consumers

(c) An elongated trench formed when sink (a) 1 only

72. Consider the following statements regarding

(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) 1 and 3 only

ascending order on the basis of their proportion

Which of the above statements are correct?

79. Which of the following statements is/are

Which of the above statements is/are (c) 1 and 3 only

(c) It has phases of compilation of information, (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) 1 only organic farming resulting in improvement

and Venezuela is the bottom.

Space for Rough Work

IAS Prelims - 2020 48

Q. 1 (a) Q. 21 (b) Q. 41 (d) Q. 61 (b) Q. 81 (b)

1. Correct Option: (a) broadcast by communication systems,

 An agreement affirming to return to Supplementary notes:

Supplementary notes: Major regions of availability are Gujarat,

Supplementary notes: A vote polled for NOTA in a constituency

Supplementary notes: a fusion bomb while the remaining

in addition to tools made of polished stone. Supplementary notes:

Statement 1 is incorrect: In general, The British decided to remove him through

development, human resource development

The Sub-Committee was under Y.H. 16. Correct Option: (d)

income growth moves taxpayers into higher

or Muslim mendicants revolted against the struggle for freedom.

Affirmative action is directed at Here he sponsored the new programme

23. Correct Option: (d) 25. Correct Option: (d)

An agreement affirming to return to Supplementary notes:

He is also not entitled to accept Structure

It provides an efficient and harmonized If a nominated member joins a party six

Supervisory jurisdiction. While appointing the governor, the

He or she must be a citizen of India. After independence, Government of India

The projection of 34 million jobs losses in

9.04% in construction, and formal sector workers. Those who are

Civil Justice, and Supplementary notes: