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Jee Main Full Syllabus Test-7
Jee Main Full Syllabus Test-7
FULL TEST-7
CHEMISTRY , PHYSICS, MATHEMATICS
Time : - 3 Hours Max. Marks:- 300 Date : .................
INSTRUCTIONS :
Take risks: if you win, you will be happy; if you lose, you will be wise.
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Q.3 Match the following. Q.7 Zinc reacts with hot and concentrated NaOH
Column I Column II and forms –
(Molecules) (No. of lone pairs (1) H2 (2) Zn(OH)2 + Na2O
on central atom)
(3) ZnO (4) O2
a. NH3 1. Two
b. H2O 2. Three
Q.8 Sodium thiosuiphate reacts with dii. HCl to
c. XeF2 3. Zero form NaCl, H2O, X and Y. X reacts with Na2S
d. CH4 4. Four to form Na2S2O3 and Y. Which one of the
5. One following is Y?
(1) a-5, b-1, c-3, d-2 (2) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-5 (1) H2S (2) SO2
(3) a-5, b-1, c-2, d-3 (4) a-1, b-5, c-3, d-4
(3) H2SO4 (4) S
Q.4 X is a non-volatile solute and Y is a volatile
MnO/300°C
solvent. The following vapour pressures are Q.9 2H3CCO2H ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ A + B + C
observed by dissolving X in Y. What are A, B and C in the above reaction?
X / mol L−1 Y / mm of Hg (1) H3CCOCH3, CO2, H2O
0.10 p1 (2) H3CCOCH3, CO, H2O2
0.25 p2 (3) CH3CHO, H2O
0.01 p3 (4) CH3CH2CHO, H2O, CO2
The correct order of vapour pressures is
(1) p1 < p2 < p3 (2) p3 < p2 < p1 Q.10 H2S is more acidic than H2O. The reason is
(3) p3 < p1 < p2 (4) p2 < p1 < p3 (1) S – H bond is stronger than O – H bond.
(2) O is more electronegative than sulphur.
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(3) H – S bond is weaker than O – H bond . Q.16 The standard potentials, at 25°C, for the half-
(4) O – H bond is weaker than H – S bond. reactions are
Zn2+ + 2e– → Zn ; E°= –0.762 V
Q.11 On the basis of electrochemical theory of Mg2+ + 2e– → Mg ; E° = – 2.37 V
aqueous corrosion, the reaction occurring at the When Zn dust is added to a solution of MgCl2,
cathode is (1) magnesium is precipitated.
(1) O2(g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4e– → 2H2O () (2) zinc dissolves in the solution.
(2) H2(g) + 2OH–(aq) → 2H2O () + 2e– (3) zinc chloride is formed.
(4) no reaction takes place.
(3) Fe (s) → Fe2+(aq) + 2e–
(4) Fe2+(aq) → Fe3+(aq) + e– Q.17 Consider the following observations for
hydrated alkali ions X = [Li(H2O)n]+,
Q.12 Which one of the following compounds is
steam distillable? Y = [K (H2O)n]+, Z = [Cs(H2O)n]+
(1) p-nitrophenol (2) o-bromophenol Which is the correct order of size of these
(3) o-cresol (4) o-nitrophenol hydrated alkali ions?
(1) X > Y > Z (2) Z > Y > X
Q.13 What are A, B and C in the following (3) X = Y = Z (4) Z > X > Y
reactions?
Sodalime/ Q.18 Mark incorrect order for following solutions
1. CH3CO2Na ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→A
(a) 0.1 M(aq) K4[Fe(CN)6] = 0.2
LiAlH
2. CH3CO2H ⎯⎯⎯⎯
4→ B
(dissociation)
3. CH3CO2Na ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C
Kolbe's electrolysis (b) 0.2 M(aq) Al2(SO4)3 = 0.4
(1) A-C2H6, B-C2H5OH, C-CH4 (dissociation)
(c) 0.2 M (aq) Phenol (dimersation) = 0.8
(2) A-CH4, B-C2H5OH, C-C2H6
(d) 0.4 M (aq) glucose =0
(3) A-C2H6, B-CH3COCH3, C-C3H8 (1) boiling point (b > d > a > c)
(4) A-(CH3CO)2O, B-C2H6, C-C2H6 (2) Freezing point (b > d > a > c)
(3) Osmotic pressure (b > d > a > c)
Q.14 Which of the following do not obey Huckel’s (4) Vapour pressure (c > a > d > b)
rule for aromaticity?
Q.19 Which of the following represents the correct
order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for
Na, K, F, Ne and O ?
(II) (III) (IV)
(I) (1) K< Na < O < F < Ne
(1) I, IV (2) I, II (2) Na < K < O < F < Ne
(3) III, IV (4) All of these (3) K < Na < F < O < Ne
(4) Na < O < K < F < Ne
Q.15 BaSO4 is insoluble in water due to its
(1) high hydration energy
(2) high lattice energy
(3) high ionisation energy
(4) high kinetic energy
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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Q.20 An organic compound ‘P on keeping in slightly Q.24 The formal charges of N(1), N(2) and O atoms
acidic aqueous solution gives yellow
precipitate with 2, 4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine. It in : N = N = O : are respectively –1, + 1, X.
also decolourises Br2 /CCl4 solution and gives (1) (2)
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PART B – PHYSICS Q.34 Four charges of magnitude –Q are placed the
four corners of a square and a charge q is its
SECTION - 1 (Q.31 - Q.50) centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value
Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) of q is
and (4). ONLY ONE of these four options is Q Q
(1) − (1 + 2 2) (2) (1 + 2 2)
correct. 4 4
Q.31 A wire loop PQRSP is constructed by joining Q Q
two semi-circular coils of radii r1 and r2 (3) − (1 + 2 2) (4) (1 + 2 2)
2 2
respectively as shown in the figure. If the
current flowing in the loop is i, then the Q.35 The length of a metal wire is L1 when the
magnetic induction at the point ‘O’ is tension is T1 and L2 when the tension is T2.
r2 The unstretched length of the wire is –
r1 L + L2
S R Q P
(1) 1 (2) L1L2
O 2
0i 1 1 0i 1 1 T L −TL T L +TL
(1) − (2) + (3) 2 1 1 2 (4) 2 1 1 2
4 r1 r2 4 r1 r2 T2 − T1 T2 + T1
0i 1 1 0i 1 1
(3) − (4) + Q.36 A metal wire of circular cross-section has a
2 r1 r2 2 r1 r2
resistance R1. The wire is now stretched
without breaking so that its length is doubled
Q.32 The kinetic energy K of a particle of mass m
and the density is assumed to remain the same.
moving along a circle of radius R depends on
If the resistance of the wire now becomes R2
distance covered s as K = as2. Then the
acceleration of particle is given by then R2 : R1 is
1/2 1/2 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
2as s2 2as s2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
+ −
m R 2 m R 2
(1) 1 (2) 1
Q.37 Assume that each diode shown in the figure has
2as 2 2as a forward bias resistance of 50 and an infinite
(3) (4)
mR m reverse bias resistance. The current through the
resistance 150 is
Q.33 A lead bullet of unknown mass is fired with a 50 50
speed of 180m/s into a tree in which it stops.
100
Assuming that in this process two-third of heat
produced goes into the bullet and one-third into
10V 150
wood. The temperature of the bullet rises by
(Specific heat of lead = 0.120 Jg–1° C–1) (1) 0.66 A (2) 0.05 A
(1) 140°C (2) 106°C (3) Zero (4) 0.04 A
(3) 90°C (4) 100°C
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Q.38 Two particles A and B are moving as shown in Q.41 A source of frequency ‘f’ is stationary and an
the figure. Their total angular momentum about observer starts moving towards it at t = 0 with
the point O is constant small acceleration. Then the variation
6.5kg 2.2m/s of observed frequency f registered by the
A
3.6m/s observer with time is best represented as
1.5m
f' f'
O 2.8m B
3.1kg
(1) 9.8 kg m2/s (2) Zero t t
(3) 52.7 kg m2/s (4) 37.9 kg m2/s (1) (2)
Q.39 Block B lying on a table weighs W. The
coefficient of static friction between the block f' f'
and the table is µ. Assume that the cord
between B and the knot is horizontal. The t
t
maximum weight of the block A for which the
system will be stationary is (3) (4)
Knot T
Q.42 Kinetic energy versus time graph of a particle
B
of mass m executing SHM under the effect of a
net force F is shown. Then maximum value of
A
F2/2m (in SI unit) is :
W tan KE (J)
(1) (2) µW tan
100
(3) W 1 + tan 2
(4) µW sin
0 1 2 3 t(s)
Q.40 Two cells A and B of e.m.f 2V and 1.5V 2
(1) 50 (2) 1002
respectively, are connected as shown in figure
(3) 2002 (4) 4002
through an external resistance 10. The
internal resistance of each cell is 5. The Q.43 A uniform solid sphere of radius r is placed on
potential difference EA and EB across the a horizontal surface. A horizontal impulse I is
terminals of the cells A and B respectively are applied on it at a height h above the center as
A 2V,5 shown in the figure. If soon after the impact
sphere starts rolling (without slipping) the ratio
10 of h/r is:
B I
1.5V,5 h
(1) EA = 2.0V, EB = 1.5V r
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y
Q.44 One mole of an ideal gas at pressure P0 ,
volume V0 and temperature T0 is expanded
isothermally to twice its volume and then 6°
O x
compressed at constant pressure to (V0/2) and
the gas is brought back to original state by a
process in which P V (Pressure is directly (1) – 4 cm (2) zero
proportional to volume). The correct (3) 720 cm (4) – (4/3) cm
representation of process is
P
P0 Q.47 A vernier calipers has 1 mm marks on the main
P
scale. It has 20 equal division on the Vernier
P0 scale which match with 16 main scale
divisions. For this Vernier calipers, the least
V0/2 V0 2V0 V V0/2 V0 2V0 V count is
(1) (2) (1) 0.02mm (2) 0.05 mm
P0 V0 (3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.2 mm
P V
P0/2 Q.48 Maximum amplitude of amplitude modulated
V0/2
wave is 12volt and minimum amplitude is 4
T0/4 T0 T T0 T volt. If frequency of carrier wave is 1000 KHz
(3) (4) and frequencies of side-bands are 998KHz and
1002KHz then
Q.45 Which of the following statements is/are (1) Modulation index is 60%
correct for decay processes – (2) Modulation index is 33%
(1) In k-capture process a proton in nucleus (3) Frequency of the modulated signal is 4 KHz
combines with an electron and converts (4) Frequency of the modulated signal is 2 KHz
itself into a neutron. Antineutrino is also
emitted in the process. Q.49 A circular coil of radius 8.0 cm and 20 turns is
(2) Production of antineutrino along with rotated about its vertical diameter with an
electron in -decay helps to explain the line angular speed of 50 rad s–1 in a uniform
spectrum. horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 3.0 ×
(3) Production of neutrino along with the 10–2 T. If the coil forms a closed loop of
positron in +-decay helps to explain the resistance 10, calculate the maximum value
continuous spectrum. of current in the coil.
(4) None of these (1) 0.0603A (2) 0.603A
(3) 1.0603A (4) 0.0303A
Q.46 Two parallel rays are incident on a thin lens of
refractive index 1 .5 and radius of curvature of
its surfaces are 30 cm & 60 cm as shown in
figure. Origin of coordinate axes is at the
optical centre of the lens. Then y-coordinate of
the point of focus for the two incident rays is
approximately:
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238
Q.50 Consider the fission of 92 U by fast neutrons. Q.54 A thin prism of angle 6° made up of glass of
refractive index 1.5 is combined with another
In one fission event, no neutrons are emitted
prism made up of glass of refractive index 1.75
and the final end products, after the beta decay
to produce dispersion without deviation. The
of the primary fragments, are 140 58 Ce and angle of second prism is
99
44 Ru .Calculate Q for this fission process. The
Q.55 A plane is in level flight at constant speed and
relevant atomic and particle masses are
238
each of its two wings has an area of 25 m2. If
m ( 92 U ) =238.05079 u ; the speed of the air is 180km/h over the lower
m ( 140 wing and 234km/h over the upper wing surface,
58 Ce ) =139.90543 u
determine the plane’s mass (in kg).
m ( 99
44 Ru ) = 98.90594 u (Take air density to be 1 kg/m3).
(1) 931.1 MeV (2) 51.1 MeV
(3) 231.1 MeV (4) 131.1 MeV Q.56 Angular magnification produced by
astronomical telescope for normal adjustment
SECTION - 2 (Q.51 - Q.60) is 10 and length of telescope is 1.1m. The
This section contains TEN (10) questions. angular magnification when the image is
ATTEMPT ANY FIVE (05) QUESTIONS. formed at least distance of distinct vision
The answer to each question is (D = 25 cm) is –
NUMERICAL VALUE.If the numerical
value has more than two decimal places Q.57 Altitude at which acceleration (in km) due to
truncate/round-off the value upto TWO gravity decreases by 0.1% approximately:
decimal places. (Radius of earth = 6400 km)
Q.51 Two particles A and B initially at rest move Q.58 The wave-function for a certain standing wave
towards each other under a mutual force of on a string fixed at both ends is
attraction. At the instant when the velocity of A
y (x, t) = 0.5 sin (0.025x) cos 500t where x
is v and that of B is 2v, The velocity of centre and y are in centimeters and t is in seconds.
of mass of the system is The shortest possible length (in cm) of the
string is
Q.52 If the ratio of maximum and minimum
intensities of an interference pattern is 36 : 1, Q.59 An electron, accelerated by a potential
then the ratio of amplitudes of the two
difference V, has de Broglie wavelength . If
interfering waves will be
the electrons is accelerated by a potential
X : 5. Find the value of X.
difference 4V, its de Broglie wavelength will
Q.53 A short magnet oscillating in vibration become (/n) where n =
magnetometer with a frequency 10 Hz. A
Q.60 Highly energetic electrons are bombarded on a
downward current of 15A is established in a
target of an element containing 30 Neutrons.
long vertical wire placed 20cm to the West of
The ratio of radii of nucleus to that of Helium
the magnet. The new frequency (in Hz) of the
short magnet is (the horizontal component of nucelus is 141/3. The atomic number of nucleus
earth’s magnetic field is 12µT) will be
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PART C – MATHEMATICS (3) (8/3, 8/3) (4) (–8/3, –8/3)
SECTION - 1 (Q.61 - Q.80) Q.66 Truth value of the statement “if p then q” is
Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) false when
and (4). ONLY ONE of these four options is (1) p is true, q is true (2) p is true, q is false
correct. (3) p is false, q is true (4) p is false, q is false
y2
Q.61 Consider the two curves C1 : x2 – = a2 and Q.67 The acute angle between the lines represented
3 by x2 + 2xy sec + y2 = 0 is-
C2 : xy3 = c. where a,c 0. (1) 4 (2) 2
(1) Angle between C1 and C2 is /3. (3) (4) None of these
(2) C1 and C2 cannot intersect.
(3) C1 and C2 are orthogonal curves if they Q.68 The length of the chord of contact of the
tangents drawn from the point (–2,3) to the
intersect.
(4) C1 and C2 intersect at origin. circle, x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y+ 12=0 is:
(1) 2 (2) 15/16
Q.62 The value of ‘a’ for which the sum of the (3) 15 / 4 (4) 15 / 2
squares of the roots of
x2 – (4a – 6) x – (4a + 4) = 0 is least, is Q.69 A tower subtends an angle of 30° at a point on
(1) 5/2 (2) 5/4 the same level as its foot. At a second point h
(3) 5/8 (4) 5/16 metres above the first, the depression of the
foot of the tower is 60°. The height of the tower
d in metres is-
Q.63 If [(x + 1) (x2 + 1) (x4 + 1) (x8 + 1)] D
dx A
60°
equal to – B
60° 30°
C
(1) (12, 11) (2) (15, 14) (1) h/2 (2) 3h
(3) (16, 14) (4) (16, 15)
(3) h/3 (4) h / 3
Q.64 The general solution of differential equation
x (1 + y2) dx + y (1 + x2) dy = 0 is Q.70 If d = p (a b) + q (b c) + r (c a) and
1
(1) ln (1 + x2) (1 + y2) = k [a b c] = 1 then (p + q + r) =
2 (1) d (a + b + c) (2) d (a + b + c)
(2) (1 + x2) (1 + y2) = c
(3) d (a + b + c) (4) d − (a + b + c)
(3) (1 + y4) = c (1 + x2)
(4) ln [(1 + x2) / (1 + y2)] = k
/2
Q.71 If a n = {(sin
2
Q.65 The coordinates of the centriod of the triangle nx) / sin x} dx , then
whose sides are 12x2 – 20xy + 7y2 = 0 and 2x – 0
3y + 40 are – a2 – a1, a3 – a2, a4 – a3 ...... are in
(1) (8/3, –8/3) (2) (–8/3, 8/3) (1) A.P. (2) G.P.
(3) H.P. (4) none of these
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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x2 − x df −1 (x) (1) /6 (2) /4
Q.72 If f (x) = 2 then is equal to (3) /3 (4) /2
x + 2x dx
3 3
(1) − (2) Q.79 The ratio in which the line joining (2, – 4, 3)
(1 − x) 2
(1 − x) 2 and
1 (– 4, 5, –6) is divided by the plane
(3) (4) None of these 3x + 2y + z – 4 = 0 is
(1 − x) 2
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 3
(3) –1 : 4 (4) 2 : 3
Q.73 If f (x) = {x2} – ({x})2 , where {x} denotes the
fractional part of x, then Q.80 Let f : R → R be defined as f (x) = x4.
(1) f (x) is continuous at x = 2 but not at x = –2 Choose the correct answer.
(2) f (x) is continuous at x = –2 but not at x = 2 (1) f is one–one onto
(3) f (x) is continuous at x = –2 and x = 2 (2) f is many–one onto
(4) f (x) is discontinuous at x = 2 but not at (3) f is one–one but not onto
x = –2 (4) f is neither one–one nor onto.
Q.74 Coefficient of variation of two distributions are SECTION - 2 (Q.81 - Q.90)
60% and 70% and their standard deviations are This section contains TEN (10) questions.
21 and 16 respectively. What are their ATTEMPT ANY FIVE (05) QUESTIONS.
arithmetic means? The answer to each question is
(1) 35, 22.85 (2) 35, 22 NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical
(3) 35.85, 22 (4) 35, 24 value has more than two decimal places
truncate/round-off the value upto TWO
i −i 1 −1 decimal places.
Q.75 A = ,B= ; A =?
8
−i i −1 1 /2
1 + 2cos x
(1) 4B (2) 8B Q.81 (2 + cos x)2
dx is equal to –
(3) 64B (4) 128 B 0
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Q.85 Rolles Theorem holds for the function Q.87 A student has to answer 10 out of 13 questions
f (x) = x3 + bx2 + cx, 1 x 2 at x = 4/3, then in an examination choosing atleast 5 questions
the value of b + c is from the first 6 questions. The no. of choice
available to the student is
9x
Q.86 Given f (x) = x , then the value of the sum Q.88 The area (in square units) of the region
9 +3 bounded by the curves x = y2 and x = 3 – 2y2 is
f (1/1996) + f (2/1996) + f (3/1996) + .....
+ f (1995/1996) is Q.89 If the straight line y = mx + c is parallel to the
axis of the parabola y2 = x and intersects the
parabola at (c2/8, c), then the length of the latus
rectum is
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