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very short answer type, short answer type
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Topics deleted for session 2022-23 due
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 LATEST SYLLABUS
Note : Topics under Screen area have been deleted due to Covid-19 for 2022-23 Board Examinations.
Unit-1: Reproduction (14 M)
Reproduction in Organisms
Reproduction; a characteristic feature of all organisms for continuation of species; modes of reproduction — asexual and
sexual reproduction; asexual reproduction — binary fission, sporulation, gemmule formation, fragmentation; regeneration.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Flower structure; development of male and female gametophytes; pollination — types, agencies and examples; outbreeding
devices; pollen-pistil interaction; double fertilization; post fertilization events — development of endosperm and embryo,
development of seed and formation of fruit; special modes— apomixis, parthenocarpy, polyembryony; Significance of seed
dispersal and fruit formation.

Human Reproduction
Male and female reproductive systems; microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary; gametogenesis— spermatogenesis and
oogenesis; menstrual cycle; fertilisation, embryo development upto blastocyst formation, implantation; pregnancy and
placenta formation (elementary idea); parturition (elementary idea); lactation (elementary idea).

Reproductive Health
Need for reproductive health and prevention of Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs); birth control — need and methods,
contraception and medical termination of pregnancy (MTP); amniocentesis; infertility and assisted reproductive
technologies- IVF, ZIFT, GIFT (elementary idea for general awareness).

Unit-2: Genetics and Evolution (18 M)

Principles of Inheritance and Variations
Mendelian inheritance; deviation from Mendelism—Incomplete dominance, co-dominance, multiple alleles and inheritance
of blood groups; pleiotropy; elementary idea of polygenic inheritance; chromosome theory of inheritance; chromosomes and
genes; Sex determination — in humans, birds and honey bee; linkage and crossing over; sex linked inheritance —
haemophilia, colour blindness; Mendelian disorders in humans — thalassemia; chromosomal disorders in humans; Down's
syndrome, Turner's and Klinefelter's syndromes.
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material; Structure of DNA and RNA; DNA packaging; DNA replication;
Central dogma; transcription; genetic code; translation; gene expression and regulation; lac operon; genome and human and
rice genome projects; DNA fingerprinting.

Evolution
Origin of life; biological evolution and evidences for biological evolution—paleontology, comparative anatomy, embryology
and molecular evidences; Darwin's contribution, modern synthetic theory of evolution; mechanism of evolution — variation
(mutation and recombination) and natural selection with examples, types of natural selection; Gene flow and genetic drift;
Hardy-Weinberg's principle; adaptive radiation; human evolution.

Unit-3: Biology in Human Welfare (14 M)

Human Health and Disease
Pathogens; parasites causing human diseases (malaria, dengue, chickengunia, filariasis, ascariasis, typhoid, pneumonia,
common cold, amoebiasis, ring worm) and their control; Basic concepts of immunology — vaccines, cancer, HIV and AIDS;
Adolescence — drug and alcohol abuse.

Strategy for Enhancement in Food Production

Improvement in food production: Plant breeding, tissue culture, single cell protein, Biofortification, Apiculture and Animal
husbandry.
Microbes in Human Welfare
In household food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment, energy generation and microbes as biocontrol
agents and biofertilizers.

Unit-4: Biotechnology (10 M)

Biotechnology : Principles and Processes

Genetic Engineering (Recombinant DNA Technology).

Biotechnology and its Applications

Application of biotechnology in health and agriculture: Human insulin and vaccine production, stem cell technology,
gene therapy; genetically modified organisms — Bt crops; transgenic animals; biosafety issues, biopiracy and patents.
Unit-5: Ecology (14 M)
Organisms and Populations
Organisms and environment: Habitat and niche, population and ecological adaptations; population interactions —
mutualism, competition, predation, parasitism; population attributes — growth, birth rate and death rate, age
distribution.
Ecosystem
Ecosystems: Patterns, components; productivity and decomposition; energy flow; pyramids of number, biomass,
energy; nutrient cycles (carbon and phosphorous); ecological succession; ecological services — carbon fixation,
pollination, oxygen release (in brief).
Biodiversity and Conservation
Concept of biodiversity; patterns of biodiversity; importance of biodiversity; loss of biodiversity; biodiversity
conservation; hotspots, endangered organisms, extinction, Red Data Book, biosphere reserves, national parks,
sanctuaries.
Environmental Issues
Air pollution and its control; water pollution and its control; agrochemicals and their effects; solid waste management;
radioactive waste management; greenhouse effect and global warming; ozone layer depletion; deforestation; any one
case study as success story addressing environmental issue(s).

EXAM PATTERN
Total Marks Total
S.No. Type of questions
questions obtained marks
1. Multiple choice 04 01 04
2. Very short answer type 05 01 05
3. Short answer type 05 02 10
(25 words)
4. Short answer type 12 03 36
(30 words)
5. Long answer type 03 05 15
Total questions 29 70

1. Reproduction in Organisms (Deleted for 2020-21 Examinations) —

2. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 5-19
3. Human Reproduction 20-32
4. Reproductive Health 33-40
5. Principles of Inheritance and Variations 41-55
6. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 56-69
7. Evolution (Deleted for 2020-21 Examinations) —
8. Human Health and Diseases 70-84
9. Strategy for Enhancement in Food Production —
(Deleted for 2020-21 Examinations)
10. Microbes in Human Welfare 85-93
11. Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 94-103
12. Biotechnology and Its Applications 104-113
13. Organisms and Populations 114-125
14. Ecosystem (Deleted for 2020-21 Examinations) —
15. Biodiversity and Its Conservation 126-134
16. Environmental Issues (Deleted for 2020-21 Examinations) —
Unsolved Papers (5) 136-140
Some Important Diagrams 141-143

Unit-1 : Reproduction
Chapter 1 : REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
(This Chapter has been Deleted From Syllabus For Session
2020-21 Due To COVID-19 Epidemic)
Chapter
2
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
IN FLOWERING PLANTS
² Vegetative reproduction : It is a kind of reproduction, in
which the plant does not produce gametes or some specialised
structure for reproduction. Simply, a vegetative part of the plant
body (such as root, stem, leaves, twig etc.), gets detached from
the main body and develops into a new plant.
² Sexual reproduction : Sexual reproduction is a kind of
reproduction, in which two parents (one male and other
female) are involved in the formation of new individuals. These
parents produce gametes (specialised haploid cells), which on
fertilisation, give rise to new individual. The individual is called
hybrid.
² Androecium : The male reproductive whorl of the flower is
called androecium. Its units are called stamen. Each stamen
consists of a filament and anther. Anther contains
microsporangia, which produce microspores of pollen grains.
² Gynoecium : The female reproductive whorl of the flower is
called gynoecium. Its units are called carpels (or pistils). Each
carpel consists of a stigma, style and ovary. Ovary contains
ovules or megasporangia, which produce megaspores.
² Apomixis : The substitution of normal sexual reproduction by
another form of reproduction that does not involve meiosis
(R.D.) and syngamy (fertilisation) is called apomixis. In other
words, the reproduction without fertilisation is called apomixis.
Plants showing this phenomenon are called apomict.
² Parthenogenesis : It is a type of apomixis, in which an
embryo develops from an unfertilised egg cell. This egg cell is
derived from a sporogenous tissue.
² Micropropagation : It is an advance method in tissue culture
technology, in which many small seedlings are produced
5
(usually in a test tube) from a tissue callus. These seedlings on
germination may give rise to a large population.
² Polyembryony : The occurrence of more than one embryo in
a seed is called polyembryony. [Students should note that in
polyembryony, normal gamete formation and fertilisation are
involved, but the unusual feature is only the presence of more
than one embryo, per ovule (seed)].
² Sexual incompatibility : Stigma receives a variety of pollen
grain but not all pollen grains succeed to germinate and bring
about fertilisation. Stigma is so equipped as to allow only right
kind of mating types (pollen grains) to germinate over it. The
other pollen grains, which fail to germinate on a stigma, are
said to be incompatible to it (stigma). This phenomenon is
known as ‘sexual incompatibility’.
² Microsporogenesis : The formation of microspores or pollen
grains is called microsporogenesis. In this process, the
microspore mother cells (which are diploid) divide by meiosis
to give rise to haploid microspores. This process takes place in
microsporangia (within the anther).
² Embryo sac : The mature female gametophyte in
angiosperms is known as embryo sac. In a typical plant, it
contains 7 cells and 8 nuclei. These include 3 antipodal cells, 2
synergid cells, 1 egg cell and 2 polar nuclei in the centre of the
main cell.
² Pollen grain : The microspores are also called pollen grains. A
pollen grain represents the first cell of the male gametophyte.
On maturation, it gives rise to mature male gametophyte.
² Pollination : The transfer of pollen grains from anthers to the
stigma of a carpel is called pollination. It is carried out by many
types of agencies, such as wind, water, insects etc.
 6

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. The entry of pollen tube through integument is called : Q.14. Pollination in Salvia is performed by : (2019)
(2017) (a) Water (b) Air
(a) Chalazogamy (b) Porogamy (c) Insects (d) None of these
(c) Both of these (d) Mesogamy Q.15. In an angiospermic plant stamens are : (2019)
Q.2. Polyembryony was discovered by : (2017) (a) Female reproductive organ
(a) Leeuwenhoek (b) Maheshwari (b) Male reproductive organ
(c) Winkler (d) Noll (c) Both (a) and (b)
Q.3. The process of double fertilization was discovered by (d) None of these
(a) Strasburger (b) Robert Koach Q.16. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma
(c) Nawaschin (d) Drouchet of another flower of the same plant is called : (2019)
Q.4. Rafflesia is pollinated by: (a) Autogamy (b) Geitonogamy
(a) Elephant (b) Butterfly (c) Xenogamy (d) Cleistogamy
(c) Tsetse fly (d) Carrion Fly Q.17. A typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, is :
Q.5. Pollination by bats is called : (2019)
(a) Chiropterophily (b) Entomophily (a) 7-nucleated, 8-celled (b) 7-nucleated, 7-celled
(c) Ornithophily (d) Malcophily (c) 8-nucleated, 7-celled (d) 8-nucleated, 8-celled
Q.6. The development of seedless fruit is known as: Q.18. In a typical angiospermic pollen sac the number of
(a) Herkogamy (b) Parthenocarpy microsporangia is : (2019)
(c) Morphogenesis (d) Parthenogenesis (a) 1 (b) 2
Q.7. Double fertilization means : (2017) (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) The fusion of two male gametes with egg Q.19. Father of Indian Embryology is called : (2019)
(b) One male gametes fuses with the egg and the other (a) Sir Jagdish Chandra Bose
with secondary nucleus. (b) Prof. Panchanan Maheshwari
(c) One male gametes fuses with the egg and other (c) Dr. Hargovind Khurana
with synergid (d) Dr. Birbal Sahni
(d) All of these Q.20. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce
Q.8. The point where the funicle is attached to the body of 200 microspores from functional microspore mother
the ovule is called: cells? (2019)
(a) Chalaza (b) Hilum (a) 400 (b) 50
(c) Nucleus (d) Micropyle (c) 200 (d) 100
Q.9. When the anthers mature before the stigma, it is known Q.21. Which one is helpful in the formation of egg-
as : apparatus? (2019)
(a) Dicliny (b) Heterostyly (a) Egg
(c) Protandry (d) Protogyny (b) Egg and synergids
Q.10. Process of double fertilization occurs in : (2008, 14, 16) (c) Egg and antipodals
(a) Algae (b) Angiospermic plants (d) Synergids and antipodals
(c) Gymnospermic plants (d) Fungi Q.22. In which of the following insects pollination takes
Q.11. Antipodal cells are located at : (2018) place? (2020)
(a) Chalazal end (b) Micropyler end (a) Gurhal (b) Fig
(c) Centre (middle) (d) None of these (c) Wheat (d) Hydrilla
Q.12. The antipodal cells are those which are present : (2018) Q.23. Chalaza is found in : (2020)
(a) At chalazal end (b) At micropylar end (a) Pollen grain (b) Ovule
(c) In the center (d) None of these (c) Embryo sac (d) All of these
Q.13. Embryo culture was I st proposed by : (2018) Q.24. If the cells of any plant’s leaf have 24 chromosomes
(a) Hanning (1904) then what will be the number of chromosomes in its
(b) Heberland (1902) endosperm? (2020)
(c) Maheshwari and Guha (1964) (a) 12 (b) 24
(d) Scoog and Millar (1957) (c) 36 (d) 48
 7

Q.25. Which of the following part of angiospermic plant is (a) Root (b) Leaf
haploid? (2020) (c) Male gamete (d) Zygote

Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b)

11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which Q.9. Give two examples of water pollinated plant.
development of male and female gametophyte take Ans. Vallisnaria and Hydrilla.
place? Q.10. What are fruits?
Ans. Development of male gametophyte takes place in Ans. Fruits is ripened ovary enclosing the seeds. The ovary
anther before pollination and on stigma after wall develops into pericarp. In some fruits the calyx,
pollination. Development of female gametophyte takes corolla and thalamus also take part in the development
place in ovule. fruit. Such fruits are called as false or spurius fruits.
Q.2. What is the meaning of cleistogamy? (2014) Q.11. What is syngenesious condition? (2018)
Ans. Flowers which always remain closed and do not Ans. Syngenesious or synantherous is a type of arrangement
blossom are called cleistogamous flower. These are of stamen on flower. In it, all anthers are limited, but
self pollinating flowers, e.g., Commelina, groundnut their filaments remain free. It is a characteristic feature
etc. of family—compositae (sunflower).
Q.3. How many nuclei are found in polygonum type embryo Q.12. What is called gynandrous condition? (2017)
sac? (2006, 17) Ans. In gynandrous condition, the stamen and pistils fused
Ans. Polygonum type of embryo sac is 8-nucleate. together to form a column, e. g., Orchid.
Q.4. What is pollination? Q.13. How many meiotic division need to form 100 grains of
Or Define the pollination? (2020) wheat or barley?
Ans. The process of transfer of pollen grains, from an anther Ans. 125 meiotic division.
to the stigma of the same flower or of different flower is Q.14. Draw a labelled diagram of a germinating pollen grain.
called pollination. (2019)
Q.5. What is Geitonogamy? Ans. See Long answer type question-2.
Ans. The transfer of pollen grains from an anther to the Q.15. Write the names of two seeds in which endosperm is
stigma of different flower of the same plant is called consumed by the developing embryo before seed
Geitonogamy. (self pollination). It occurs in maturation. (2019)
monoecious plants. Ans. Gram and Pea.
Q.6. What is polyembroyony? (2011, 14) Q.16. Name the cells inside a mature pollen grain. (2019)
Ans. Polyembryony is the phenomenon of development of Ans. Microspore mother cells.
more than one embryos in a seed. It was discovered by Q.17. Draw a labelled diagram of a longitudinal section of a
Leeuwenhoek in 1719 in citrus. Mango fruit. (2019)
Epicarp
Q.7. Define the term xenia and metaxinea?
Ans. Xenia: It is the direct effect of pollen on the endosperm Mesocarp
Ans.
character of a plant. Foeke describe this phenomenon
Endocarp
for the first time.
Metaxenia : The direct effect of pollen on structure Seed
Q.18. Draw the diagram of a normal embryo-sac. (2019)
outside the embryo sac is called as metaxenia. Swingle
Ans. Please see the Fig. of Short answer type question-7.
reported the effect of pollen on the character of seed
Q.19. Give the name of any two plants in which aquatic
coat pericarp.
pollination take place? (2020)
Q.8. What is seed?
Ans. As a result of double fertilization many changes are Ans. Lotus and lily.
brought about in the ovule due to which ovule is Q.20. Give any two examples of false fruit? (2020)
converted to seed. Ans. Mango and Apple.
 8

Short Answer Type Questions 2 & 3 Marks

Q.1. Mention the advantages of cross pollination? Ans. (i) Unisexuality or Dicliny: In unisexual flowers
Ans. (i) It helps to eliminate bad characters from the race. stamens and carpals are found in different
(ii) It helps in the development of new characters due flowers. It is called unisexuality or decliny. It can
to recombination of genes. be of two types:
(iii) Vigour and Vitality of the race increases. (a) Monoecious plants: When male and female
(iv) Immunity to diseases increases. flowers are born on the same plant, e.g.,
(v) Ability to adopt according to changing Maize, cucurbits, castor.
environment increases. (b) Dioecious plants: When male and female
Q.2. Give characteristics of insect pollination flowers? flowers are born on the different plants, e.g.,
Ans. Pollination by insects is called Entomophily. Insects Carica papaya, Canabis savita.
which help in pollination are bees, flies, wasps, moths (ii) Pollination in Maize: In maize, pollens are large
and beetles. Insect pollination flowers show following and heavy. When mild wind shakes the male
characters. inflorescence to release the pollen, they fall down
(i) Flowers are brightly coloured. vertically. The cluster of male flowers are born
(ii) Pollen grains are sticky or with spinous exine. terminally and the female inflorescence are born
(iii) Stigma is also sticky. laterally at lower levels. The silk of cobs (style,
(iv) A sugar fluid called nectar is secreted in many stigma) projects beyond protective leaves. Pollen
plants. grains fall upon the stigma and pollination takes
(v) Flies are mainly attracted by the unpleasant smell place.
of flowers such as Rafflesia and Staplia ( Rooting Q.6. Differentiate the following: (2014)
meat) and Aristolochia (Decaying tobacco) etc. (i) Embryo sac and endosperm
Q.3. Explain briefly the process of double fertilization in (ii) Self and cross pollination.
angiospermic plants. (2009, 10, 12, 13, 14) Ans. (i)
Ans. After discharge from pollen tube one of the male Embryo sac Endosperm
gamete fuses with the egg and forms the oospore 1. Embryo sac is haploid It is triploid (3n).
(zygote). This is called true fertilization (syngamy). (n).
The second male gamete fuses with the secondary 2. It develops from It develops from
nucleus (2n) and forms a triploid (3n) nucleus called as functional megaspore. endosperm nucleus.
Primary Endosperm Nucleus (P.E.N). This is called 3. It nourishes the It nourishes the
triple fusion. Thus there are two acts of fusion. This is endosperm and embryo. developing seeds and
called double fertilization. embryo.
Zygote produced, as a result of syngamy develops into 4. Food is not stored in it. Food is stored in it.
embryo and the triploid nucleus develops into the (ii)
endosperm which is used for nutrition of embryo.
Self pollination Cross pollination
Q.4. Write the significance of double fertilization.
Ans. Double fertilization was discovered by Nawaschin in 1. Transfer of pollen grains Transfer of pollen
from anther to the grains from anther to
1898. stigma of same flower is the stigma of flower of
The significance of double fertilization are as follows: called self pollination. different plant.
(i) The endosperm produced supplies food material 2. Flowers are bisexual. Flowers are often
to the developing embryo. unisexual.
(ii) The endosperm in angiosperms develops after 3. Plants do not have to Plants have to depend
fertilization. depend on pollinating on pollinating
(iii) Embryo is differentiated properly leading to the agencies. agencies.
formation of healthy seeds. 4. Only a small number of Large number of
pollen grains are pollen grains are
(iv) This saves the energy which might go waste with required. required.
unfertilized ovule as in gymnosperms.
5. Flowers are devoid of Flowers are colourful
Q.5. Write short note on the followings: colour and fragrance. and fragrant.
(i) unisexuality or dicliny.
6. Immunity to diseases Immunity to diseases
(ii) pollination in maize decreases. increases.

Q.7. Briefly comment on longitudinal section of mature
ovule. (2015)
Or Write a short note on anatropous ovule. (2017)
Ans. Anatropous (inverted) ovule: The body of the ovule
is completely inverted so that micropyle and hilum
come to lie very close to each other. e.g., all plants, of
gamopetalae and majority of angiosperms.
Structure: The mature ovule is differentiated into a
large centrally located embryo sac which is usually
8-nucleated and 7-celled surrounding the embryo sac is
a multicellular nucleus (2n). Enclosing the nucellus are
1 or 2 integuments (2n). The integuments surround the
nucellus from all the sides except at the apex of ovule,
forming a pore called micropyle. The base of the ovule
from which integuments arise is called chalaza. The
ovule is attached to the placenta by a slender stalk
known as funicle. The point of attachment of the body
of the ovule to its stalk is known as hilum.
3 Antipodals
Chalazal end
Nucellus
2 polar nuclei
Synergids
Egg cell
Micropylar end (female gamete)
(a) (b)
Fig. (a) L.S. of mature ovule (b) Mature embryo sac
Q.8. Give the contrivances (adaptation) for self pollination?
(2017)
Ans. For self pollination following adaptation are found in
plants.
1. Bisexuality (hermaphroditism): It is only in
bisexual flowers that self pollination can take
place.
2. Homogamy: Both sex organs of a flower should
mature at a time.
3. Cleistogamy: In some plants like Commelina,
Arachis; Oxalis the anthers mature and burst
liberating their pollen grains in a closed flower.
This is called cleistogamy. In such plants self
pollination is the only method of pollination.
Q.9. Write short note on anemophily.
Or Give the characteristics of anemophilous flowers.
(2019)
9
Ans. Pollination by wind is called anemophily.
Anemophilous flower produces enormous amount of
pollen grains. The pollen grains are small, light,
smooth and dry. In some plants as in Pinus pollen
grains are winged. The flowers may be born on long
axis. The anthers are versatile so as to oscillate in all
direction. Such flowers have adequate devices to catch
the air borne pollen grains. For this the stigma is
usually large and feathery.
Q.10. Mention the significance of dispersal of fruits and
seeds?
Ans. Dispersal of seeds and fruits is found in all the fruit and
seed bearing plants. There is a great importance of
dispersal of seed and fruits. If we imagine the
conditions when there would not be any dispersal, then
there would have been following odd situations.
(a) All the fruits and seeds might have fallen and
heaped on the parental bed and germinate to
develop into plants of the same type.
(b) Similar plants have similar requirements, so there
might be a strong intra specific competition.
(c) Due to struggle for existence no plant would have
developed properly.
(d) Crowed seedlings might not get sufficient
minerals, space for root and shoot development.
(e) A plant species may be extinct due to any natural
hazards.
Q.11. Make diagram of transverse section of mature anther.
(2010, 15, 17, 19)
Ans.
Vascular supply
Epidermis Endothecium
Stomium
Pollen-
Pollen-
grains
grains
Degenerating middle layers
Fig. T.S. of mature anther
Q.12. Draw labelled diagrams of nuclear and cellular
endosperm. (2018)
Ans. Please see the Short answer question-27.
Q.13. Draw a labelled diagram of chalazal fertilisation.
(2018)
 10
Ans.
Chalaza
Pollen
tube
Q.17.
Stalk
Ans.
Fig. Chalazal fertilisation Q.18.
Q.14. What is vivipary germination? (2019)
Ans. Vivipary germination : In viviparous germination the Ans.
seeds get germinated being attached to the parent plant.
The embryo grows out of the seed and then out of the
fruit and projects out as a seedling with roots and
hypocotyl. Viviparous plants produce seeds that
germinate before they get detach from the parent plant.
This phenomenon is commonly observed in mangrove
( e. g., Rhizophora species). The seedling germinates
and grows under its own energy while still attached to
its parent.
Q.15. What do you mean by fleshy or succulent fruits.
Describe their importance. (2019)
Ans. Fleshy or succulent are simple fruits in which the
pericarp usually forms the pulp. The tissue of the
pericarp is parenchyma as it is soft. In fleshy fruits the
pericarp and accessory parts develop into succulent
tissues, as in orange and strawberries.
Importance
(i) These fruits protect seeds during development.
(ii) These fruits attracts birds and other animals to eat
seeds, which is useful for seed dispersal.
Q.16. What is cross-pollination? Describe its merits and
demerits. (2019)
Ans. Cross-pollination (Allogamy) : In cross- pollination,
pollen grains of a flower reach to the stigma of another
plant of the same species. It involves use of plants of
the same species to produce seeds. Pollen grains Q.19.
require some agencies to reach the stigma. Ans.
Merits of Cross-Pollination :
(i) Harmful characters can be isolated. Q.20.
(ii) It yields healthy and good offsprings and they Ans.
have increased hybrid vigour.
(iii) It can produce disease-resistant plants.
(iv) Offsprings produced through this are more
adaptive to the diverse environment.
(v) Since two genetically different parents are
involved new varieties or species are formed.
Demerits of Cross-Pollination:
(i) Cross-pollinated plants are always hybrid.
(ii) Cross-pollination requires a medium, external
agencies or factors without which the process
cannot occurs.
(iii) Expression of harmful characters is possible in the
offspring.
Draw a labelled diagram of an ovule of an
angiospermic plant. (2019)
Please see the ans of NCERT exercise question-4.
Describe in brief the structure of microsporangium
with the help of labelled diagram. (2019)
Structure of a Microsporangium (mature anther):
A typical microsporangium is surrounded by four wall
layers, i. e., the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers
and the tapetum.
The outer three wall layers are protective in function
and help in dehiscence of anther to release pollen
grains. Middle layer also store food during early stages
of microspore development.
Epidermis Vascular strand
Endothecium Tapetum
Middle
layer
Pollen
mother cells
Fig. Structure of microsporangium (a mature anther)
Tapetum is the innermost layer which nourishes the
developing microspores or pollen grains. The cells of
tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have
more than one nucleus.
When the anther is young, a group of compactly
arranged homogenous cells called the sporogenous
tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium.
Explain double fertilisation. (2019)
Double fertilization: Please see Short answer type
question-3.
Development of female gametophyte. (2019)
Development of female gametophyte : Please see
Long answer type question-3.
 11

Q.21. Explain with the help of diagrams, how pollen grains Ans.
develop from a functional microspore mother cell? Endospermic Non-endospermic
(2019) Endosperm is not Endosperm is completely
Ans. Please see Long answer type question-1. completely used by the used by the developing
Q.22. Write only two characteristics features of a fleshy fruit developing embryo, so a embryo before the maturation
portion of it remains in the of seed, so there is no
and draw the labelled diagram of a vertical section of a seed. endosperm left in the seed.
mango fruit. (2020)
Examples coconut castor Examples pea, bean and
Ans. (i) Fleshy fruits produce plentiful flesh. and maize. mustard.
(ii) Fleshy fruits are considered to be ready for
consumption. Q.25. Explain the development of male gametophyte. (2020)
For figure see Very short answer question-17. Ans. Please see the answer of Long answer question-1.
Q.26. Draw only a line diagram of development of a female
Q.23. Write a shert note on pollen culture. (2020)
gametophyte. (2020)
Ans. Pollen culture (microspore culture) is a technique in
Ans. Please see the diagram given in Long answer
which haploid plants are obtained from isolated pollen
question-3.
grains while in anther culture those are obtained from
Q.27. Describe the diffevent types of endosperms. (2020)
pollens, by placing anthers on a suitable, synthetic
Ans. On the basis of development in angiospermic plants,
culture medium. endosperms are of following types—
The technique was discovered by Guha and (i) Nuclear Endosperm
Maheshwari (1964). It is one of the various tissue (a) In such type of endosperm, nucleus divides
culture techniques or methods used. Progeny but cell wall does not form. Many nuclei are
developed by this technique contains a single set of formed from primary endosperm nucleus
chromosomes. through repeated divisions.
Procedure for In-vitro Pollen culture : (b) A vacuole is formed inside the endosperm,
Collection of anthers—Preferably should be taken which later degenerates and many nuclei and
from plants grown under controlled conditions or may cytoplasm fill inside it. After that many cells
be taken from plants grown in the field. are formed in this. This type of endosperm is
Transfer of anthers to the culture medium—Flower present in the member of Polypetalae class.
buds of the appropriate developmental stage are Embryo
collected and surface sterilized. Anthers from the buds Central vacuole
are excised and placed horizontally on surface (or
partially embedded) on culture medium. It is important
to note that injury to anthers may induce callus (a) Nuclear endosperm
formation from anther walls. To avoid this, small
Free nuclei
anthers are cultured as such and sometimes entire Embryo

inflorescence is cultured. Nucellus

Pollens are isolated either by squeezing or float
culturing of anthers :
Chalazal
Culture Medium for Pollen culture : chamber
Pollen can be cultured on a suitable medium containing
(b) Cellular endosperm (c) Helobial endosperm
sucrose (usually 2-3%), iron, vitamins, hormones etc.
Fig. Types of endosperm
The hormonal component of the medium is important
for initiation of growth. Usually to the culture medium (ii) Cellular Endosperm : In this type of endosperm,
auxin, cytokinin etc. are added either singly or in each nuclear division of endosperm nucleus
follows cell wall formation. This type of
various combinations.
endosperm is present in Gamopetalae class.
Low concentration of auxin stimulates callus
(iii) Helobial Endosperm
formation. In a medium supplemented with auxin,
(a) This is middle stage between nuclear and
formation usually occurs at a faster rate.
cellular endosperm. In this, cell wall is
Q.24. Difference between endospermic and non-endospermic formed after each division of endosperm
seeds with suitable examples. (2020) nucleus, but after that there is free nuclear
division, e. g., Arimura.
 12

(b) Cells of endosperm are generally
isodiametric and they store food in large
quantity. Endosperm has thin wall but
sometimes it becomes thick due to deposition
of hemicellulose.
Q.28. Explain the development of embryo of angiospermic
plant. (2020)
Ans. Please see the Answer of LA Question-2.
Q.29. What is apomixis and what is its significance? (2020)
Ans. Sometimes embryo and sporophyte develop without
fusion of male and female gametes or without gamete
formation. This process is called apomixis, e. g.,
lemon, Opuntia etc.
Significance—
(i) It is a cheaper and cost effective method of
producing hybrid seeds.
(ii) It is easy to maintain hybrid characters intect as
characters segregate during meiosis.
(iii) It is a type of asexual reproduction.

Long Answer Type Questions 5 Marks

Q.1. Describe main events during development of male Microsporangial initial/

gametophyte from microspore? (2009, 10, 11) archesporial cell
Or Explain the process of microsporogenesis in
angiosperms? (2009, 10, 11, 14, 16)
Ans. Microsporogenesis : Development of microspores (a)
from microspore mother cells or the sporogenous tissue Primary sporogenous cell
is called microsporogenesis. Microspores are Primary parietal cell
(b)
filled/developed within the microsporangium. A
typical microsporangium is surrounded by four wall Parietal tissue
layers, i.e., the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers
and the tapetum. The outer three wall layers are
protective in function while tapetum nourishes the
Vascular
developing microspores or pollen grains. (c) supply
Epidermis
Microspore mother cells divide by reduction division Endothecium (d) Tapetum
to form microspores. The division may be of :
(i) Successive type: Each of the two nuclear divisions
are followed by the formation of wall. The pollen
tetrad thus produced is called isobilateral tetrad. It
generally occurs in monocots. Middle
layer
(ii) Simultaneous type : Division occurs
simultaneously and centripetally dividing the
cells into four parts with the formation of furrows. Pollen
mother cells
The pollen tetrad thus produced is called (e)
tetrahedral tetrad. It generally occurs in dicots. Fig. Developmental stages of Anther
Development of Male Gametophyte: Development (A) Development before pollination or In-situ
of male gametophyte starts when the pollens are within development: The microspore represent first cell
the anther lobes. But when half of the germination gets of male gametophyte. It consists of a centrally
completed, the anther dehisces and the germinating situated nucleus, dense cytoplasm and two
pollens get pollinated. Further development of male distinct walls, the outer exine and the inner intine.
gametophyte takes place on the stigma. At certain points the exine is absent, these points
In this way the development of the male gametophyte are called germ pores.
involves following steps: Before discharge from the microsporangium, the
(a) Development of male gametophyte before nucleus divides forming a small cell called
pollination generative cell which is adjacent to spore wall.
(b) Dehiscence of anther and liberation of developing The remaining part of microspore is fitted with a
pollens. cell called vegetative cell. In this two celled stage,
(c) Pollination containing vegetative cell and a germinative cell.
(d) Development after pollination.
 13

Generative cell divides mitotically, to form two mitotically to form two haploid male
elongated, haploid male gametes. Pollen grains gametes.
are usually released from the anther and reaches (ii) Formation and growth of pollen tube. The
the stigma of the carpel. exine of the pollen now ruptures and the
Cytoplasm Tube nucleus cytoplasm of the vegetative cell bulges out
Nucleus through germ pore in the form of a tube,
Exine called pollen tube. Pollen tube at the apex
Intine contains tube nucleus and 2 male gametes.
Tube cell
Generative Usually, a single pollen tube arises from one
(B)
cell pollen grain are called monosiphonous, but some
(A) Germ pore
(A microspore) (C)
plants are polysiphonous, e.g., develop more than
one pollen tubes such as 10 pollen tubes in Althea
rosea and 14 in Matira neglecta.
Generative cell
Pollen tube
Germ pore
Generative Tube
nucleus Male cells nucleus
Pollen
tube Tube Two male
nucleus (A) gametes
(E)
(D) Generative
Fig. Different stages of development of male gametophyte cell (C)
(B)
before pollination
(B) Dehiscence of Anther: When pollens get Pollen
tube Tube
matured they exert some pressure on anther wall. Tube nucleus
nucleus Germinating
Consequently, the wall of the anther gets burst pollen grain
and sets free the germinating pollen grains. It
Fig. Different stages of development of male gametophyte
takes place in four different ways, in different after pollination
plants. Q.2. What is double fertilization and triple fusion? Explain
(i) Transverse: Occurs by the formation of the structure formed after syngamy.
transverse slits, e.g., Labiatae family. Or Describe with the help of labeled diagram the post
(ii) Porous: Occurs by the formation of a small
fertilization changes occurs in angiospermic plants?
opening at the apex of anther, e.g.,
Ans. Double fertilization: (see short answer type
Solanaceae family.
(iii) Valvular: Valves or window like openings question-3.)
develop for dehiscence, e.g., Lauraceae Stigma
family. Male gametes
(iv) Longitudinal: It is the most common method
of dehiscence, where longitudinal slits are
formed, e.g., Gossipium, Hibiscus etc.

Transverse Porous Valvular Longitudinal

Fig. Types of dehiscence of anther
(C) Development after pollination: It involves
following steps.
(i) Formation of male gametes. After pollination
the male gametophyte is usually at two cell
stage. It contains a vegetative and a
generative cell. The generative cell contains
a large amount of protoplasm. It now divides
Fig. Showing process of fertilization
Post Fertilization changes :
1. Embryo and its development(Embryogeny):
After some rest period zygote develops into
embryo. A zygote divide transversely to form two
cells, the one which lies towards the interior of
embryo sac is called terminal cell (embryonal
14

cell) and the other basal cell (suspensor cell) Structure of a typical monocotyledons embryo:
which is towards micropyle. The terminal or o Embryos of monocotyledon passess only one
apical cell divide vertically. The suspensor cell cotyledon. It is generally called scutellum.
divides by several transverse divisions forming a o The cotyledon is situated towards one side of
5-10 celled suspensor. The uppermost cell of this the embryonal axis.
suspensor swells up to form a haustorial cell. The o At its lower end, the embrynal axis has the
lowermost cell of suspensor is called hypophysis. radicle and root cap.
This cell gives rise to the apex of radicle. The
o The radicle and root cap remain packed in a
suspensor is destroyed after the formation of
protective undifferentiated sheath called
radicle.
coleorhiza.
Suspensor
cells o The portion of the embryonal axis above the
level of attachement of cotyledon is called
epicotyl.
(A)
Zygote o Epicotyl has a shoot apex called plumule.
Suspensor o The plumule bears a few leaf primordia
cells
Basal enclosed in a hollow foliar structure called
cell
Hypophysis coleoptile.
Terminal Q.3. What is megasporogenesis? Describe development of
cell
(B) (C)
Octant female gametophyte in angiospermic plants. (2010, 11)
(D) Dermogen
(Embryonal cell) (E) Or Describe the development of a general 8-nucleate
embryo sac with the help of diagram.
Haustorial Or Describe process of megasporogenesis
cell
angiospermic plants.
Ans. Megasporogenesis: Formation of megaspores from
Suspensor (H) megaspore mother cell as a result of reduction division
Suspensor is called megasporogenesis. Either hypodermal cell at
Hypohysis Cotyledons Cotyledons the apex of nucellus functions directly as megaspore
cells
mother cell or this cell first divides into the outer
parietal cell and an inner megaspore mother cell.
Structure and development of female gametophyte
(F) (G) (I) (embryo sac)
Fig. Stages of embryonic development in dicot plant The first meiotic division of megaspore mother cell is
In the mean time two cells formed from terminal always transverse. Second meiotic division is also
cell divide by a transverse division forming four transverse resulting in a linear tetrad of megaspore.
embryonal cell. These 4 cells divide by another Generally the lowermost megaspore is functional. The
vertical division forming 8-cells. 4-cells at the upper three megaspore degenerate. The first division of
apex give rise to plumule and cotyledons. Four functional megaspore gives rise to two nuclei, the
cells in between epibasal cells and suspensor give second division results in one pair of nuclei at each
rise to hypocotyl and most of the radicle. end, and the third division produces 4 nuclei at one end
The entire structure is called pro-embryo. Now and four on the other end.
this structure grows further and becomes heart Three of the nuclei at the micropylar end become
shaped. organized to form egg apparatus. At the chalazal end of
In dicots, two cotyledons are formed, but in the developing embryo sac three nuclei differentiate as
monocots only one cotyledon develops. By the antipodal cells. The two polar nuclei from opposite
time, the integuments of the ovule become hard ends migrate into the centre and remains unfused till
and are called seed coat and the entire ovule is triple fusion but may fuse prior to that giving rise to
now called seed. secondary nucleus.
This type of development is normal type or polygonum
type.
 15

Primary parietal Parietal cells

Archesporial cell cells 1898 in Lilium and Fritillaria. The most important and
Primary unique characteristic feature of angiosperms is the
sporogenous participation of both male gametes in the act of
cell
fertilisation.
The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the
(A)
cytoplasm of one of the synergids, then the penetrated
(B) (C)
Parietal cells
synergid starts degenerating. One male gamete fuses
Parietal cells
with the egg cell to form a diploid (2n) zygote. This
process is called syngamy or generative fertilisation.
The diploid zygote finally develops into the embryo.
The second male gamete fuses with the two polar
nuclei or secondary nucleus in the central cell to form
Megaspore
Dyad cells Megaspore the triploid Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN).
mother cell(D) (F)
(E) tetrad This process is called triple fusion as three haploid
Fig. Development of female gametophyte nuclei are involved in the fusion.
After triple fusion, the central cell becomes the
Q.4. Describe the process of fertilization in Angiosperms Primary Endosperm Cell (PEC) which gives rise to
with the help of suitable diagram. (2019) the endosperm, while the zygote develops into the
Or Define the dauble fertilization and explain it with embryo. As both the fusions, syngamy and triple
suitable diagram. (2020) fusion, occur in an embryo sac, the phenomenon is
Ans. Process of fertilization in Angiosperms: The process termed as double fertilisation.
was demonstrated for the first time by Nawaschin in
Mature pollen grain
Sperm cells

Tube cell nucleus

Empty pollen grain

Pollen grain Tube cell
Stigma Sperm cells (male gametes)
Generative Tube cell nucleus
Tube cell cell Style Carpel
Antipodal cells Pollen tube
Embryo sac
Ovary
Ovule
Growth of
Embryo sac
pollen tube
Secondary nucleus
containing two nuclei
Pollination
Antipodals

Primary endosperm

Mother cell after

triple fusion

1st male gamete Secondary

1st male gamete nucleus

2nd male gamete Egg cell

Syngamy + triple fusion Pollen tube
Synergids
Release of sperm cells or male
gametes within the embryo sac
Double fertilisation

Fig. The process of fertilisation and double fertilisation

Q.5. Describe a typical angiospermic ovule with diagram. (i) Each ovule is attached to the inner wall of the
(2019) ovary (placenta), by a slender stalk, called
Ans. For Structure of Ovule : See NCERT question-4. funicle.
 16
(ii) The point of attachment of ovule to its funicle is
called hilum.
(iii) Main body of the ovule is formed by inner central
mass, i. e., nucellus. Nucellus consists of living
parenchymatous cells.
(iv) In mature ovules, the nucellus serves to cover and
provide nutrition to the embryo sac (female
gametophyte).
(v) Each ovule has two distinct ends—(a) micropyle
end (it is also called opening of ovule. It is the end
wherefrom the pollen tube usually enters the
ovule during fertilisation) and (b) Chalazal end
(the posterior end, opposite to micropylar end).
(vi) Externally the nucellus is covered by one or two
protective covers, called integuments. These
integuments arise from the chalazal end.
(vii) When only one integument is present, the ovule is
called unitegmic, and if the ovule consists of two
integuments, it is called bitegmic. Very rarely
tritegmic (with three integuments) is present in
plants like Asphodelus. In some plants such as
Santalum, Olax etc, ategmic (no integument)
condition may be present.
(viii) In mature ovules, the female gametophyte or
embryo sac is present in the centre. The embryo
sac consists of egg cell (female gamete), synergid
cells, antipodal cells and polar nuclei.
Please see for figure NCERT question-4.
Q.6. Describe the germination of pollen grains on stigma
with the help of labelled diagram and also mention the
fusion of male and female gametes. (2019)
Ans. Germination of Pollen Grains on Stigma :
Please see Long answer type Ques. 1(c) and 2
Q.7. What is pollination? Describe various kinds of
pollination that occur in flowering plants. Mention
about the biotic pollinating agents. (2019)
Ans. Pollination : Transfer of pollen grains from the anther
of the stamen to a receptive stigma of the pistil is called
pollination.
Types of pollination : Pollination is following two
type—
(a) Cross-pollination or Allogamy— In cross-
pollination, pollen grains of a flower reach to the
stigma of another plant of the same species. It
involves use of plants of the same species to
produce seeds. Pollen grains require some
agencies to reach to the stigma.
Biotic Agents for Cross-pollination: These
include living agents for pollination. These are of
following types:
(i) Entomophily : The pollination facilitated by
insects like ants, wasps, bees, butterflies etc.
Such plants produce nectars, fragnant and
brightly coloured flowers etc. to attract
pollinators.
(ii) Cheiropterophily : The pollination that is
facilitated by bats.
(iii) Malacophily : The pollination performed by
snails and slugs, seen in some water plants.
(iv) Ornithophily : The pollination performed by
birds. The flowers of such plants are large,
bright coloured, odourless.
(v) Anemophily : The pollination performed by
wind (air).
The flowers are inconspicuous and not
showy. They are devoid of fragrance and
nactar. Wind pollinated flowers often have a
single ovule in each of their ovaries. It is
found in commonly in grasses, most cereals
and plam etc.
Fig. Various types of pollination
Advantages of Cross-pollination :
(i) Harmful characters can be isolated.
(ii) It can produce disease-resistant plants.
(iii) It yields healthy and good offsprings and
they have increased hybrid vigour.
Disadvantages of Cross-pollination:
(i) Cross-pollinated plants are always hybrid.
(ii) Expression of harmful characters is possible
in the offspring.
(iii) Cross-pollination requires a medium,
external agencies.
(b) Self-pollination or Autogamy— The pollination
achieved when pollen from the anthers of a flower
is transferred to stigma of the same flower.
Self pollination can be of two types; autogamy
and geitonogamy.
1. Autogamy : This pollination found in bixual
flower. The stigma of a flower is pollinated by its
own pollen.
Autogamy is further classified into :
(i) Homogamy: The anthers and stigma matures
at same time to facilitate autogamy.

(ii) Cleistogamy: The flowers never open up and
anthers dehisce inside to ensure self
pollination.
2. Geitonogamy: The pollination where the
pollen grains from the anther of a flower are
transferred to the stigma of another flower borne
on the same plant.
Q.8. Describe the methods of seed dispersal. (2019)
Ans. Methods of Seed Dispersal : Such seeds and fruits
have to germinate and develop under limited food
supply. But to solve this problem, there are many
devices to disperse fruits and seeds to distant areas.
Some important devices are wind, water and animals
(insects and birds etc.).
(i) Wind :
o It is the most important and effective agency for
fruit and seed dispersal.
o The dispersal by seed is very effective in those
species where fruits and seeds are light in weight.
o Sometimes, fruits and seeds have some accessory
parts, which also help in dissemination. For
example—the seeds of Drumstick and Cinchona,
and fruits of Yam, Maple and Sal have thin, flat
and membranous wings, which help them to float
in air.
o In members of family Asteraceae, the calyx is
modified into thin hairy structures called pappus.
These pappus persist in fruits and become umbrella
like. They also help the fruits to float in air.
o In some plants such as Poppy and Prickly Poppy
(Argemone), at the time of dehiscence of the fruits
the seeds are naturally thrown away. Seeds of some
plants like Alstonia, Calotropis and Gossipium
have hairy covering which also help in the
effective dispersal of seeds.
NCERT Fully Solved Exercise
Q.1 Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which
development of male and female gametophyte take
place.
Ans. (a) Development of male gametophyte takes place in
anther (before pollination) and on stigma (after
pollination).
(b) Development of female gametophyte takes place
in ovule (inside ovary).
Q.2 Differentiate between microsporogenesis and
megasporogenesis. Which type of cell division occurs
during these events? Name the structures formed at the
end of these two events.
Ans. Formation of microspores (pollen grains) is called
microsporogenesis. It takes place within anthers. It
17
o In grasses and orchids, seeds are very small and
light in weight and can be easily dispersed by
wind.
(ii) Water :
o Water is an effective method of seed and fruit
dispersal in plants, which are found in water or
grow near the banks of water bodies.
o Coconut (Cocos) and Double coconut (Lodoicea
maldivica) have spongy and fibrous outer walls for
easy floating. Double coconut is a native of
Seychelles islands but due to dispersal, its fruits
may reach even the coastal regions of India. Lotus
has spongy thalamus, which help in effective
floating.
o Water lily has small seeds with airy aril, which
help in floating.
(iii) Animals :
o Animals mainly the insects and birds are also very
effective means of dispersal of fruits and seeds.
o Fruits and seeds which have appendages like
bristles, hooks, spines and stiff hair etc., get
attached to the body of insects, hairy and wooly
animals and are carried away by them to long
distances.
o Fruits of Xanthium and Urena have curved hooks
for dispersal.
o Spear grass has a bunch of stiff hair which are
helpful in dispersal. Tribulus has sharp and rigid
spines that help in dispersal. Sticky hairs are found
in Boerhavia which assist in dispersal.
o Many edible fruits such as grapes, guava, fig, plum
etc., are dispersed by birds and even by human.
involves meiotic cell division. The cells formed as a
result of this process are called pollen grains.
Formation of megaspore is called megasporogenesis. It
takes place within ovule. It also involves meiotic cell
division. The cell formed as a result of this process is
called megaspore.
Q.3 Arrange the following terms in the correct
developmental sequence :
Pollen grain, sporogenous tissue, microspore tetrad,
pollen mother cell, male gametes.
Ans. The correct developmental sequence is :
Sporogenous tissue, pollen mother cell, microspore
tetrad, pollen grain and male gametes.
 18

Q.4 With a neat, labelled diagram, describe the parts of a chasmogamous. Since they are fully exposed, there are
typical angiosperm ovule. greater chances of cross pollination.
Micropylar But in cleistogamous flower, the flower remains closed
end
and do not open at all. So, always self fertilisation
Integuments
occurs. Cross pollination can not occur in such cases.
Ans.
Funiculus Q.8 Mention two strategies evolved to prevent
self-pollination in flowers.
Embryo sac Ans. Plants have developed many out-breeding devices to
(female
gametophyte) check self pollination and ensure cross pollination.
Nucellus Two such devices are—dichogamy and herkogamy.
Dichogamy involves the maturation of male and
Chalazal
end female organs at different time. In these cases, pollen
release and stigma receptivity do not occur at the same
Fig. Different part of angiospermic ovule time. Either the pollen is released before the stigma
Q.5 What is meant by monosporic development of female becomes receptive or stigma becomes receptive much
gametophyte? (2020) before the pollen release.
Ans. Four megaspores are formed in an ovule as a result of In some other species, the anther and stigma are placed
meiosis in megaspore mother cells. In many cases, out at different positions so that the pollen cannot come in
of these four megaspores, 3 undergo degeneration. So, contact with the stigma of the same flower.
entire female gametophyte is developed from only one Herkogamy : In this case stigma is longer than
(remaining) megaspore. Such a development of female stamens, so that pollens do not fall on stigma of its own
gametophyte is called monosporic development. flower, e. g ., Gloriosa.
Q.6 With a neat diagram, explain the 7-celled, 8-nucleate Q.9 What is self-incompatibility? Why does self-
nature of the female gametophyte. pollination not lead to seed formation in
Ans. In angiosperms, a typical female gametophyte (or self-incompatible species ?
embryo sac) consists of 7 cells. These include, an egg Ans. Self-incompatibility is a genetically governed
cell (female gamete), 2 synergids, 3 antipodal cells and mechanism to prevent self-pollination. In these cases,
a central cell. All cells bear a single nucleus except the the pollens of a flower are unable to germinate over the
central cell which bears two nuclei (called polar stigma of the same flower. This is because of some lock
nuclei). In this way, the female gametophyte consists and key type chemical relationship between pollen and
of 7 cells and 8 nuclei. the stigma. Genetically, pollens of the same flower are
Chalazal end
3 Antipodal unable to germinate on the stigma of the same flower.
cells
So, self-pollination does not lead to seed formation in
self-incompatible species.
Q.10 What is bagging technique? How is it useful in a plant
2 polar
nuclei breeding programme ?
Ans. In case of artificial fertilisation, or in case of cross
Central
cell
fertilisation in a bisexual plant, the stigma is covered
with a small cap of suitable size to prevent any
1 Egg cell
unwanted reaching of undesired pollens. This covering
2 Synergids
of stigma to check contamination is called bagging.
Q.11 What is triple fusion? Where and how does it take
place? Name the nuclei involved in triple fusion.
Filiform
apparatus
(2019, 20)
Micropylar end
Ans. The fusion of a sperm with two polar nuclei (secondary
Fig. Female gametophyte
nucleus) is called triple fusion. It is called so as it
Q.7 What are chasmogamous flowers? Can cross- involves the fusion of three nuclei. It takes place inside
pollination occur in cleistogamous flowers? Give the ovule in female gametophyte (embryo sac).
reasons for your answer. Q.12 Why do you think the zygote is dormant for sometime
Ans. Chasmogamous flowers are those flowers, in which, in a fertilised ovule ?
the anther and stigma are fully exposed to the external Ans. In most of the plants, zygote remains dominant for
pollinating agencies. Most of the flowers are sometimes i.e., it does not start divisions in a fertilised

ovule. This is because, initially there is no endosperm
which can provide nourishment to the developing
embryo. So, only after the formation of endosperm,
zygote starts division and forms an embryo.
Q.13 Differentiate between :
(a) hypocotyl and epicotyl
(b) coleoptile and coleorrhiza
(c) integument and testa
(d) perisperm and pericarp
Ans. (a) Hypocotyl and epicotyl : Hypocotyl is the
cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons,
while epicotyl is the portion of embryonic axis
above the level of cotyledons.
(b) Coleoptile and coleorrhiza : Coleoptile is a
hollow foliar structure which encloses shoot apex
and leaf primordial. On the other hand,
coleorrhiza is the undifferentiated sheath that
encloses radicle and root cap, at the lower end of
embryonic axis.
(c) Integument and testa : The enclosing covers of
the unfertilized ovule are called integuments.
After fertilisation, the integuments become hard
and are called testa.
(d) Perisperm and pericarp : Remnant of nucellus
in a seed is called perisperm. On the other hand,
the outer layer of the fruit (ovary) wall is called
pericarp.
Q.14 Why is apple called a false fruit? Which part(s) of the
flower forms the fruit ?
19
Ans. A true fruit is one which is developed from fertilised
ovary. In case of apple, the fruit is formed by fleshy
thalamus. Due to this reason, fruit of apple is called a
false fruit.
Q.15 What is meant by emasculation? When and why does a
plant breeder employ this technique ? (2020)
Ans. To carry out cross-pollination artificially, in a bisexual
plant (which does not show above adaptation), its
stamens are removed (cut off) before flowering. This is
called emasculation.
Q.16 If one can induce parthenocarpy through the
application of growth substances, which fruits would
you select to induce parthenocarpy and why ?
Ans. For inducing parthenocarpy we can select banana
because naturally it contains very small seeds. So,
inducing seedlessness may be an easier task in such
fruits.
Q.17 Explain the role of tapetum in the formation of
pollen-grain wall.
Ans. Tapetum is the innermost layer of the
microsporangium, situated in the anther. The cells of
the tapetum are usually binucleate. Tapetum nourishes
the developing pollen grains and helps in the formation
of pollen wall.
Q.18 What is apomixis and what is its importance ?
Ans. Please see the Answer of SA Question-29.
ccc
 20
Chapter
3 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
² Fertilisation: The fusion of male and female gametes and
mixing of their nuclei is called fertilisation or syngamy (syn =
fuse). This process results in the formation of zygote.
² Self-fertilisation: In this type of fertilisation, the male and
female gametes of the same individual fuse to form zygote. This
is a very primitive type fertilisation. It is found rarely in some
hermaphrodite animals. It is evolutionary not suitable.
² Cross Fertilisation: It is an advance type of fertilisation,
where the gametes of two different individuals (one is female
and other is male), are fused to form zygote. It is found in
majority of the animals.
² Isogamy: When the male and female gametes are identical in
shape and size, they are called isogametes. These are rarely
found in some animals, such as Monocystis (a protozoan).
² Anisogamy (Heterogamy): When male and female gametes
are different in shape and size, these are called heterogametes
(anisogametes). These are found in almost all animals.
² Bisexual (Monoecious or Hermaphrodite): When both
type of (male and female) sex organs are present in same
individual, the animal is called bisexual or hermaphrodite or
monoecious, e. g . , Earthworm, Leech.
² Unisexual (Dioecious): In majority of the animals, male and
female reproductive organs are present in different individuals
(of the same species). Such individuals are called unisexual or
dioecious.
² Conjugation: It is a temporary union of two individuals of
same species for the purpose of transfer of genetic material. It is
not a true sexual reproduction as there is no gamete formation.
It is found in small protozoan animals like Paramecium.
² Spermatogenesis: Formation of sperms is called
spermatogenesis. It occurs in testes of male individual, under
the effect of pituitary hormones, mainly the FSH and LH. It
involves a meiotic division and therefore the sperms are haploid
structures.
² Oogenesis: Formation of female gametes (or ovum) is called
oogenesis. It occurs in the ovary of the female individual. It is a
very long and discontinuous process. It starts in the embryonic
stage, but gets completed in adult stage (after puberty).
² Primary Sex Organs: The sex organs which produce
gametes and sex hormones, are called primary sex organs. In
male, these are testes, while in female these are ovaries.
² Secondary Sex Organs: These are the sex organs, which
play important role in reproductive process but do not produce
gametes and sex hormones. The secondary sex organs of human
male are — Seminal vesicle, prostate gland, epididymis, vas
deferens and penis etc. The secondary sex organs of human
female are fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, and vulva.
² Graafian Follicle: In the first 14 day of each menstrual cycle
in female, a primary oocyte starts its development, under the
effect of FSH. The surrounding granulosa (follicular) cells also
develop simultaneously. The entire structure becomes a large
follicle. This follicle is known as Graafian follicle. Its outer
layers form estrogen hormone. Interiorly, the follicle contains
maturing ovum (female gamete). There is also a large fluid
filled cavity, in the centre of Graafian follicle. This cavity is
called antrum.
² Corpus Luteum: After ovulation, the remaining portion of
Graafian follicle develops into an important endocrine gland,
called corpus luteum. The growth of corpus luteum is controlled
by LH hormone (of pituitary). Corpus luteum secretes
progesterone hormone. If fertilisation fails to occur, the corpus
luteum degenerates by the end of the menstrual cycle, leaving a
small scar, called corpus albicans. But if fertilisation occurs, the
corpus luteum continues to grow through out the pregnancy,
under the effect of hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin).
² Ovulation: The release of ovum, from Graafian follicle is
called ovulation. It usually occurs on the 14th day of menstrual
cycle. At the time of release, the ovum is in secondary oocyte
condition.
² Leydig Cells: These are specialised interstitial cells, which are
present in the germinal epithelium, scattered between the
follicular cells of testes. The growth of these cells is under the
effect of LH (ICSH) hormone of pituitary glands. These glands
secrete male sex hormone or testosterone.
² Sertoli Cells: These are large sized cells present in the
germinal epithelium of testes. These cells are also called nurse
 21

cells. These cells serve to provide nutrition to the developing
sperms. These cells also release in important hormone, called
inhibin, which by feedback mechanism, controls the secretion of
testosterone.
² Cumulus Oophorus: Inside Graafian follicle, the maturing
ovum is surrounded by zona pellucida (mucopolysaccharide
layer) and two to three layers of granulosa cells, which form
corona radiata. The ovum, together with its surrounding
membranes is known as cumulus oophorus.
² Decidua: When implantation of embryo in the uterine wall
occurs, the endometrium of uterus undergoes tremendous
changes. It is now known as decidua. It is divisible into three
parts — (i) Decidua basalis (the part between embryo and outer
wall of uterus), (ii) Decidua capsularis (the part between the
embryo and uterine cavity) and (iii) Decidua parietalis
(remaining part of endometrium).
² Cervix: The neck of the uterus that opens into vagina is called
cervix. Its outer margin is called external os, while the inner
margin is called internal os.
² Sperm Capacitation: When sperms enter the uterus, they
face the resistance offered by the endometrium and cilia of the
fallopian tube. To face this resistance and reach the ovum some
of the sperms undergo certain changes. These changes are
collectively referred to as sperm capacitation. These involve the
increase in metabolic rate, vigorous movement of sperm tail and
exposure of hyaluronidase (sperm lysine).
² Cortical Reaction: As soon as the first sperm enters the
ooplasm, the zona pellucida changes chemically and becomes
impermeable for other sperms. This is called cortical reaction
(zona reaction). Thus only one sperm enters the ovum
(Monospermy).
² Extra-embryonic Membranes: Foetal membranes are 4
specialised membranes, which are derived from the
extra-embryonic portion of blastocyst (trophoderm). Therefore,
these are also called extra-embryonic membrane. These
membranes, in general, protect the embryo, form placenta and
provide nutrition. But these do not form any part of the body of
the proper embryo. After the birth of the baby, these membranes
are discarded off. Four types of foetal membranes are—Yolk sac,
amnion, chorion and allantois. These are found in reptiles, birds
and mammals only. Hence these animals are collectively known
as amniotes.
² Placenta: It is a physiological connection between mother and
developing embryo. It serves to provide nutrition to developing
embryo. Besides it also maintains gaseous exchange between
maternal and foetal blood. It also drains the excretory wastes of
embryo. Placenta is found in higher mammals only
(Subclass—metatheria and eutheria).
² Parturition: The birth of baby, i.e., its expulsion from mother’s
body is called parturition. At the time of parturition, uterus
contracts rhythmically and propels the baby outwardly. Cervix
and vagina dilate to maximum making the birth passage easier.

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of : Q. 7. Acrosome of sperm is formed from:

(a) Progesterone (b) FSH (a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria
(c) Oxytocin (d) Vasopressin (c) Mitochondria (d) Golgi complex
Q.2. The hormones testosterone, estrogen, and corticle are Q. 8. Glands secreting male sex hormone are:
example of : (2014, 18) (a) Leydig cells (b) Somniferous tubules
(a) Lipid (b) Steroid (c) Vasa differentia (d) Testes
(c) Lecithin (d) Wax Q. 9. Estrogen is secreted by:
Q. 3. The embryo at 16-celled stage is known as: (a) Corpus luteum (b) Membrana granulosa
(a) Morula (b) Gastrula (c) Pituitary (d) Germinal epithelium
(c) Blastula (d) Blastomere Q.10. Eggs of placental mammals are of which of the
Q. 4. Fertilization of egg by sperm in the female genital tract following type:
takes place in: (a) Mesolecithal (b) Alecithal
(a) Uterus (b) Ovary (c) Telolecithal (d) Polylecithal
(c) Vagina (d) Oviduct Q.11. In a woman during implantation embryo is in : (2019)
Q. 5. The process by which ova are formed is known as: (a) Morula stage (b) Blastula stage
(a) Oviparity (b) Ovulation (c) Gastrula stage (d) Neurula stage
(c) Oviposition (d) Oogenesis Q.12. Chromosomes are formed by : (2019)
Q. 6. First or tree milk is called : (a) Euchromatin (b) Heterochromatin
(a) Rostrum (b) Colostrum (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) Cholesterol (d) Baby's milk
 22

Q.13. Androgens secreted from : (2020) (c) Spermatids (d) None of these
(a) Leydig cells (b) Sertoli cells

Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. What is sexual dimorphism? Ans. Von Baer.
Ans. When male and female individuals of a species can be Q. 10. How do leydig cells help in spermatogenesis? (2011)
distinguished on the basis of their distinct Ans. Leydig cells produce male sex hormone, called
morphological features, the phenomenon is called testosterone, which is essential for the execution of
sexual dimorphism. spermatogenesis.
Q. 2. What is clone? Q. 11. Where does fertilization normally take place in human
Ans. Genetically similar copy of organism is called clone. female? (2016)
Q. 3. What is conjugation? Ans. Fallopian tubes
Ans. It is a temporary union of acellular protist for the Q. 12. What is corpus luteum?
exchange of genetic material conjugation is not a true Ans. It is the remaining part of Graafian follicle in luteal
sexual reproduction because it does not involve any phase which acts as an endocrine gland.
gamete formation e. g., Paramecium. Q. 13. Name two sex hormones secreted by human females?
Q. 4. Name the accessory genital glands in human male? Ans. Oestrogens and Progesterone.
Ans. Accessory genital glands in human male are prostate, Q. 14. What is menstrual cycle? (2019)
seminal vesicle and cowper's glands. Ans. It is a reproductive cycle in female primates, e. g.,
Q. 5. What is capaciation? monkeys, apes and human beings. In females the
Ans. In the female genital tract spermatozoa undergoes a menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about
process of changes which make them more vigorous 28/29 days.
and motile. It is called capaciation. Q. 15. Name the testicular hormone synthesized and secreted
Q. 6. Name extra embryonic membrane? by Leydig cells. (2019)
Ans. There are four types of extra embryonic membrane Ans. Testosterone.
yolk sac, amnion, chorion, and allantois. Q. 16. Write down the name of the process by which Graafian
Q. 7. What is placenta? follicle bursts and release secondary oocyte from the
Ans. Placenta is a physiological connection between ovary. (2019)
maternal and foetal tissues. It provides nutrition, Ans. Ovulation.
respiratory gases to the embryo. It also drains the waste Q. 17. Write two main functions of testis. (2020)
material from embryo. Ans. (i) Sperms formation.
Q. 8. What are primary sex organs? (ii) Secretion of testosterone hormone.
Ans. The organs which are involved in gamete formation Q. 18. Define the spermetogenesis. (2020)
and sex hormones production are called primary sex Ans. The formation of sperms (male gametes) is called
organs. spermetogenesis. This procers take place inside the
Q. 9. Who is called father of modern embryology? testis.

Short Answer T
ype Questions 2 & 3 arks
M
Q. 1. What is polyspermy? reaction or zona reaction. Thus only one sperm enters
Ans. As soon as the first sperm enters the Ooplasm, the zona the ovum ( monospermy ). When more than one sperm
pellucida changes chemically and becomes reaches in the ooplasm phenomenon is given
impermeable for other sperms. This is called cortical polyspermy.
 23

Q.2. Draw a labeled diagram of section through mammalian Q.5. What are the similarities in spermatogenesis and
ovary. (2008) oogenesis? (2010, 11, 14, 16)
Ans. Ans. 1. Both process comprise there, almost similar main
phases, viz, multiplication growth and maturation
phase.
2. In the multiplication phase in both process, the
primordial germinal cells of testes and ovaries,
proliferate mitotically.
3. In the growth phase the gonial cells accumulate
food reserves and grow to primary gametocytes.
4. Maturation phase in both comprises two
successive divisions first meiotic and second
Fig. A section of mammalian ovary
meiotic divisions.
Q. 3. Draw a labeled diagram of human sperm: (2011, 19 ) Q. 6. What is oestrous cycle?
Ans. Ans. It is homologous to menstrual cycle in non- primates
Acrosome mammals. It occurs only during breeding season. On
the basis of occurrence oestrous cycle may be of two
Head Haploid nucleus
types.
Proximal centriole 1. Monoestrous: Only one cycle in whole breeding
season, e.g., dog.
Distal centriole
2. Polyestrous: Many cycles in one mating season
Middle Spiral mitochondrial having short intervals, e.g., rats, mice, guinea pigs
piece sheath
etc.
Ring centriole In oestrous cycle, the follicles develop but ova are not
(annulus) released from follicles until the copulation takes place.
Tail Oestrous cycle consists of four phages :
1. Proestrous: It is a preparatory stage. The follicles
are maturing and secrete oestrogens. Uterus and
Tail
vagina become congested and secrete a clear
sanguinous fluid.
2. Oestrous: This is called period of heat. At this
time, there is a strong urge in the female animals
Fig. Human sperm due to the rising level of estrogen. If fertilization
Q.4. Give the differences between spermatogenesis and takes place, placenta forms and pregnancy begins.
oogenesis? 3. Mesoestrous: It is called as luteal phase. The
Ans. newly formed corpus luteum secretes
progesterone.
Spermatogenesis Oogenesis
4. Anoestrous: It is a passive asexual phase. The
1. Occurs in testes Occurs in ovaries female becomes passive and does not receive the
2. Spermatogonia are Oogonia are formed in male. It lasts upto the next mating season.
formed in multiplication phase.
multiplication phase.
Q.7. What is oogenesis? Given a brief account of
oogenesis? (2010, 19)
3. Spermatogonia store The food reserve
some food during accumulated in oogonia is Or What is oogenesis? Explain with diagram. (2020)
growth phase but this mostly yolk. Ans. Please see the Q.12 of NCERT exereise for diagram see
is never yolk. long answer question-3.
4. Both maturation First maturation division Q. 8. What is ovulation?
divisions are may be completed in the Ans. Discharge of ovum from the ovary into the oviduct is
completed in testes. ovaries, but 2nd one is
completed outside ovaries called ovulation. It occurs on the 14th day of the cycle
after fertilization bigins. by the luteinizing hormone.
5. Daughter cells formed Daughter cells formed in The ripening of the egg and its release from the ovary is
in each maturation each maturation division controlled by two important hormones secreted by the
division are similar. are dissimilar. pituitary gland, FSH and LH. In the initial stage of
 24

menstrual cycle , the secretion of FSH is very high. Q. 11. Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive system
This hormone help in the growth and ripening of in human.
Graafion follicle and maturation of ovum. During Ans. See the Long answer type question-5.
secretory phase, the secretion of LH becomes very Q.12. Draw a labelled diagram of male reproductive system
high. This hormone promotes the ovulation and also in human.
promotes the growth of corpus luteum. Ans. Please see the answer of long question no.4.
Q. 9. What do you mean by puberty? Q.13. Difference between male and female secondary sexual
Ans. The onset of sexual functionality in organism is called charaeters. (2019)
puberty. The age of puberty in human males ranges Ans. Main differences between male and female secondary
between 11 to 14 year. But in women ranges between sexual characters are given in following table.
10 to 12 years. S. Male secondary Female secondary
Puberty in male. In males, puberty is characterized by No. sexual characters sexual characters
following changes. 1. More pronounced body Less pronounced body
1. Rapid growth of secondary sex organs such as hair characteristics (in hair characteristics
penis, seminal vesicle, vas deferens, prostate etc. beard, chest hair, etc.). (mostly in pubic
region).
2. Appearance and growth of axillary and pubic hair.
3. Apperance of moustaches and beard. 2. Heavy musculature Lighter musculature
deepening of voice, high pitched voice
4. Cracking of voice. angular features rounded (i.e. soft facial
5. Testes become functional and start producing narrowing of hips. features, wider hips for
gametes. child bearing).
Puberty in female:
Q.14. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of L.S. of human
1. Appearance and growth of axillary and pubic hair.
seminiferous tubules which show the process of
2. Growth and enlargement of breasts.
spermetogenesis. (2020)
3. Depening of voice. Pitch become high.
Ans. Seminiferous tubules are found in testis.
4. Skin texture become soft. Seminiferous Leydig
5. Ovaries become functional and start producing Spermatocyte tubules cells
gametes.
Q. 10. Write short note on the followings:
(i) Parturition (2011) (ii) Lactation
Ans. (i) Parturition: The expelling of the fully formed
young from the mother's uterus after the gestation
period ( about 40 weeks) is called parturition. Sperms
Parturition is induced by a complex
neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals are
Sertoli
initiated from the fully developed foetus and the cell
placenta. These signals cause mild contraction in
the uterus and these contractions are called foetal Fig. Transverse section of Human testis
ejection reflex. These reflex then trigger the Q.15. Give a short note on placenta. (2020)
release of oxytocin from pituitary gland. Oxytocin Ans. After implantation, finger-like projections appear on
cause the uterus to contract and labour pain the trophoblast called chorionic villi which are
begins. This propels the baby towards vagina. surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood.
(ii) Lactation: 1-3 days after the baby is born, the The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become
breasts begin to secrets milk. Thus lactation interdigitated with each other and jointly form a
describes the secretion of milk from the mammary structural and functional unit between developing
glands and the period of time that a mother embryo (foetus) and maternal body called placenta.
lactates to feed her young. The placenta facilitate the supply of oxygen and
Milk synthesis is stimulated by the pituitary nutrients to the embryo and also removal of carbon
hormone prolactin (PRL) and its release from the dioxide and excretory/waste materials produced by the
breast is stimulated by oxytocin. Milk contains embryo. The placenta is connected to the embryo
valuable proteins and antibodies. The early milk is through an umbilical cord which helps in the transport
called colostrum which is very rich in calories, of substances to and from the embryo. Placenta also
proteins and antibodies. It provides natural acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several
immunity.
 25

hormones like human chorionic gonadotropin Q.16. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of male (human)
(hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL), estrogens, reproductive system. (2020)
progestogens, etc. In the later phase of pregnancy, a Ans. See the answer of L.A. question-4.
hormone called relaxin is also secreted by the ovary. Q.17. Draw a lebelled diagram of internal structure of female
We remember that hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced reproductive system. (2020)
in women only during pregnancy. Ans. See the answer of L.A. question-5.

Long Answer Type Questions 5 Marks

Q.1. Write short notes on the following :

(i) Cleavage (ii) Implantation
(iii) Blastulation (2011) (iv) Gastrulation
Ans. (i) Cleavage: Cleavage was first observed by
Swammerdam in 1738 in the egg of frog. It can be
defined as 'the process of progressive subdivision
of the zygote by mitotic cell divisions into an
increasing number of cells of progressively
decreasing size. It results in the formation of a
Fig. Implantation 6 days after fertilization
solid ball like mass of cells, called morula.
Type of cleavage: On the basis of amount and
distribution of yolk, cleavage can be of following
types.
1. Holoblastic equal cleavage: The cleavage
furrow passes completely through entire
length of the egg and bisects it into two equal
parts.
2. Holoblastic unequal cleavage: The cleavage
furrow passes completely through the egg Fig. Implantation 7 days after fertilization
but not through the centre.
3. Meroblastic or Discoidal cleavage: This type (iii) Blastulation: Formation of blastula from morula
of cleavage takes place in the macrolecithal is called blastulation. It is a hollow structure and
eggs. In such eggs the active cytoplasm is its cavity is called blastocoel. The blastula of man
confined to a small portion of egg. The and most of the mammals, is called blastocyst.
cleavage furrow therefore restricted only to Blastocoel is a fluid filled cavity.
this disc.
4. Superficial cleavage: This cleavage occurs
centrolecithal eggs. Here early division
occur in the surface layer of the egg. Zygote
Blastomeres
8 cell stage
2 cell stage 4 cell stage
(ii) Implantation: By the end of the morula stage. Zona pellucida Inner cell mass
Zona pellucida
The embryo reaches into cavity of uterus. By this starts
time, endometrium of uterus, becomes fully degenerating

prepare to receive the morula. On about 7th day of

fertilization it gets attached to the wall of uterus. Blastocoel
Morula Trophoderm
The blastocyst becomes embedded in the (16 celled) Blastulation Blastocyst (blastula)
endometrium of the uterus. This is called
implantation. During implantic embryo produces Fig. Cleavage, formation of morula and blastocyst
hCG, which plays an important role in Type of blastula: The type of blastula vary
implantation. After implantation, the uterine according to the egg type:
endometrium undergoes profound change. It is 1. Stereo blastula: The blastula is soild without
now called as decidua. blastocoel. e. g., sponges
2. Coeloblastula: The blastula with prominent
blastocoelic cavity.
 26

e. g., In all isolecithal and mesolecithal eggs. Events of fertilization: Fertilization is a physico -
3. Discoblastula: The blastula is formed as a chemical process. When sperms reach the uterus and
result of discoidal cleavage and has many fallopian tube, following important events take place.
layered disc of blastomeres over the 1. Arrival of sperms to ovum: For fertilization sperm
underlying yolk. e.g., Birds (Polylecithal and ova come to each other. Sperms are motile
egg). and reach the ovum with the help of tail
4. Superficial: The blastula is develops as a movement.
result of ruperficial cleavage. e. g., eggs of 2. Capacitation and contact: The changes in
insects. mammalian spermatozoon which make it capable
(iv) Gastrulation: The process of the formation of of fertilizing the egg have been called
gastrula from the blastula is called as gastrulation. capacitation. The secretion of female genital tract
It involves differentiation are movement of cells remove coating substance deposited on the
of blastocyst from their original place to the site surface of sperms particularly on acrosome. Thus
where they finally settle. During the formation of receptor sites on acrosome are exposed and
gastrula, the cells of inner cell mass get arranged sperms becomes active to penetrate the egg. It
in two layers. The upper layer forms ectoderm. takes about 5- 6 hours for capacitation.
Some cells also get separated and they form the
amnion.
Some cells on the surface of ectoderm accumulate Cells of corona
to form node like structure, called primitive Spermatozoa radiata
streak. The cells then moves downwards between
ectoderm and endoderm and form another layer,
called mesoderm. The embryo now has three Ovum
layers— ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
Differentiated endodermal cells
(start delamination)
Zona Peri-vitelline space
Pellucida
Trophoderm
Fig. Human ovum, at the time of fertilization
3. Fertilizin-antifertilizin interaction: Ovum secretes
Growing a chemical named fertilizin composed of
endoderm
glycoprotein present in the surferce layer of the
Remaining cells of Amniogenic cells
inner cell mass (formed by trophoderm egg. While antifertilizin is another substance
become flattened Amniotic cavity present in surface layer of the cytoplasm of
Amnion
with fluid
Ectoderm spermatozoa. Sperm has a protein substance on
Endoderm its surface named anti-fertilizin (protein). Both
Yolk sac
Allantois
react like antigen antibody, as a result the sperm
get attached to ovum surface. It is called sperm
Amnion Primitive agglutination. The reaction is known as fertilizin-
streak
Formation of
antifertilizin reaction.
mesoderm
Yolk sac

Allantois
Chorion
Fig. Stages of gastrulation (formation of 3 germ layers) and
formation of foetal membranes
Q. 2. What is fertilization? Explain the events happen during
the fertilization in human and draw a labeled diagram
of ovum penetrating by sperm? (2011)
Ans. Fertilization: The fusion of male (sperm) and female
(ovum) gametes is called fertilization. Fertilization
takes place in fallopian tube (ampulla). A diploid
zygote is formed due to fertilization.
Fig. Cleavage and implantation of embryo
 27

4. Acrosome reaction and penetration: After the 1. Testes: These are the primary sex organs of
attachment of the sperm to the egg surface males, located outside the abdominal cavity in a
acrosome releases sperm lysins, e.g., pouch called scrotum. Testes are oval in shape,
hyaluronidase enzyme in mammals. The sperm with a length of 4-5 cm and width 2-3 cm. They
lysin digest the egg membranes to create a contain about 250 compartments called testicular
passage for sperm entry. A fertilization membrane lobules, containing highly coiled seminiferous
is formed in egg just after the entry of sperm. This tubules. Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its
membrane prevents polyspermic fertilization. inside by two types of cells.
5. Activation of ovum: Entry of sperm into ovum (i) Nurse cells or Sertoli cells: These cells
increased the permeability of plasma membrane provide nutrition to spermatozoa. They
for water, ethylene glycol, Phosphate and synthesise and secrete testosterone that
potassium and synthesis of cAMP is started. It controls spermatogenesis.
stimulate the secondary oocyte to complete (ii) Male germ cells: These cells undergo
second meiotic division. This produces a haploid meiosis to form spermatozoa.
mature ovum and a second polar body. 2. Accessory Glands
Female pronucleus and male pronucleus move toward (i) Prostate gland: It is alkaline secretion (pH
each other. Mixing up of the chromosomes of a sperm 7.4) helps in activation of sperms.
and ovum is known as karyogamy. The fertilized ovum (ii) Bulbourethral glands: These are also known
is now called zygote. as Cowper’s glands. Its viscous mucus, acts
Q. 3. Draw the diagram of oogenesis in human and compare as a lubricant for penis. It also neutralises
it with spermatogenesis. (2019) aciding of urine residue in urethra.
(iii) Seminal vesicle: It secretes mucus and
Ans.
watery alkaline fluid containing nutrients
Germ cell 2x
such as fructose, citric acid, inositol and
prostaglandins. It provides energy to
phase (Mitosis)
Multiplication

spermatozoa.
2x 2x
3. Accessory Ducts:
Oogonium
(i) Vasa efferentia: Number of tubules arising
2x 2x 2x 2x
from rete testis to conduct sperms to
epididymis are collectively called vasa
Fetal life

efferentia.
Growth
phase

(ii) Vasa deferentia: These are ducts arising from

Primary 2x
oocyte epididymis, ascending to the abdomen and
loops over urinary bladder.
childhood
puberty

(iii) Ejaculatory duct: The vas deferens when

Birth

pass over urinary bladder, receive a duct

Maturation

Secondary First polar from seminal vesicle, thus forming the

phase

oocyte x body
(at this stage
2nd meiotic
division (it occurs (In man and ejaculatory duct. It opens into urethra.
reproductive

ovulation
occurs)
after the fertilisation) many species,
M II in first
(iv) Rete testis: It comprises of anastomosing
Adult

network of tubules carrying sperms from

life

polar body does

not occur)
Mature seminiferous tubules to efferent ducts.
x
ovum (v) Epididymis: It serves as site for sperm
Oogenesis in human maturation and storage till their ejaculation.
Comparison between oogenesis and spermatogenesis: (vi) Urethra: It is called as urogenital duct as it
Please see the answer of Short answer type question-4. provides exit for urine from bladder as well
Q. 4. Describe human’s male reproductive system with the as semen from vasa deferentia.
help of labelled diagram. (2019) 4. External genitalia penis: It is male external
Ans. Male reproductive system: Male reproductive system genitalia comprised of vascular, spongy tissue
of human have following parts— that help in its erection to facilitate insemination.
It serves as copulatory organ to transmit sperms
into vagina of female during coitus.
 28
Fig. Male reproductive system
Q. 5. Describe human female reproductive system with the
help of labelled diagram. (2019, 20)
Ans. Female reproductive system is located in pelvic
cavity. It consists of following organs.
A. Primary sex organs ovaries are primary sex
organs in women.
â Ovaries produce female gametes (ovum) and several
female hormones, i. e., ovarian hormones. The
broad ligament of uterus attaches ovaries by double-
layered fold of peritoneum called mesovarium.
â These are covered by cubical epithelium, i. e.,
germinal epithelium. These cubical epithelium
enclose ovarian stroma and it is divided into two
zones; peripheral cortex and inner medulla.
B. Secondary sex organs constitute following
organs.
(i) Fallopian tubes (oviducts) are 10-12 cm long and
consist of :
(a) Infundibulum is broad and funnel-shaped
with its motile and finger-like projections
called fimbriae.
(b) Isthmus is short, narrow and thick-walled
portion that follows ampulla.
(c) Ampulla is the widest and longest part of
Fallopian tube.
(d) Uterine part passes through uterine wall and
communicates with uterine cavity.
(ii) Uterus is 7.5 cm long and 5 cm wide like an
inverted pear in shape. It lies between urinary
bladder and rectum. It receives ovum from the
Fallopian tube and forms placenta for the
development of foetus, cervix is narrow opening
of uterus into vagina.
(iii) Vagina is about 10 cm long and acts as receptacle
for penis during copulation for allowing
menstrual flow and for serving as a birth canal
during parturition.
C. Accessory glands contain a pair of Bartholin’s
gland occurs on each side of vaginal orifice.
These correspond to Cowper’s gland of the male
and secrete a clear and viscous fluid under sexual
excitement which serves as a lubrication during
copulation.
D. Mammary glands are paired structures, i. e.,
breast in females. Breast are rounded paired
structures located over the pectoral muscles on the
front wall of thorax.
Fig. Female reproductive system
â The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into
15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters of
mammary alveoli, which open into mammary
tubules.
â Each breast contains a nipple in its middle, which is
surrounded by circular and pigmented area called
areola. Just under nipples, the lactiferous ducts
widen to form lactiferous sinuses to store milk
during lactation.
E. External genitalia are collectively known as
vulva that consists of following structures.
(i) Mons pubis is the anterior most portion of
external genitalia which is cushion of fatty
tissue covered by skin and pubic hair.
(ii) Clitoris is homologous to glans penis. It
contains erectile tissue and does not has any
passage.
(iii) Hymen it is a thin mucus membrane, which
covers the vaginal opening either partly or
completely. It is often torn during first coitus.
Q. 6. Describe spermatogenesis in man and make a well
labelled diagram of sperm. (2019)
Ans. Spermatogenesis : Please See NCERT Question-6.
Diagram of sperm : Short Answer Type Question-3.
Q. 7. What is gametogenesis? Explain the process of
spermatogenesis in human with the help of labelled
diagram. (2020)

Ans. Gametogenesis is the process of formation of haploid
gametes from the undifferentiated diploid germ cells in
the gonads for reproduction sexual. It is of two types,
NCERT Fully Solved Exercise
Q.1. Fill in the blanks :
(a) Humans reproduce …………………
(asexually/sexually)
(b) Humans are ………………… (oviparous,
viviparous, ovoviviparous)
(c) Fertilisation is ………………… in humans
(external/internal)
(d) Male and female gametes are …………………
(diploid/haploid)
(e) Zygote is ………………… (diploid/haploid)
(f) The process of release of ovum from a mature
follicle is called ………………… .
(g) Ovulation is induced by a hormone called
………………… .
(h) The fusion of male and female gametes is called
………………… .
(i) Fertilisation takes place in …………………
(j) Zygote divides to form ………………… which is
implanted in uterus.
(k) The structure which provides vascular connection
between foetus and uterus is called
………………… .
Ans. (a) sexually (b) viviparous (c) internal
(d) haploid (e) diploid (f) ovulation
(g) LH (Luteinising hormone)
(h) syngamy (fertilisation)
(i) fallopian duct (oviduct)
(j) blastocyst (k) placenta.
Q.2 Draw a labelled diagram of male reproductive system.
Ans. See Long answer type question-4.
Q.3 Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive
system.
Ans. See Long answer type question-5.
Q.4 Write two major functions each of testis and ovary.
Ans. Major functions of testis and ovary are :
Testis : (i) To form male gametes i.e., sperm.
(ii) To release male sex hormone testosterone.
Ovary : (i) To form female gamete i.e., ovum.
(ii) To release female sex hormones, estrogens and
progesterone.
Q.5 Describe the structure of a seminiferous tubule.
Ans. Seminiferous tubules are highly coiled about 70 cm
long (when uncoiled) tube like structures. These are
29
i. e., spermatogenesis in males and oogenesis in
females.
Spermatogenesis please see NCERT exercise
question-6.
richly supplied with blood capillaries and nerve
tissues.
The epithelium of these tubules is called germinal
epithelium, which consists of mainly 3 types of cells—
(a) Spermatogonia (follicular cells), (b) Interstitial
cells (Leydig cells), and (c) Sertoli cells.
(a) Spermatogonia (follicular cells) : These are
highly specialised cells, which undergo
spermatogenesis to produce sperms (male
gametes).
(b) Interstitial cells (Leydig cells) : These are small
rounded cells, placed in small groups, scattered
between seminiferous tubules. These cells
produce male hormones (androgens), such as
testosterone.
(c) Sertoli cells : These are large cells, present in the
seminiferous tubules. These are also called nurse
cells. These provide nutrition to the developing
spermatids and sperms.
Q.6 What is spermatogenesis? Briefly describe the process
of spermatogenesis. (2019)
Ans. The formation of sperms (male gametes) is called
spermatogenesis. This process takes place inside the
testis. It involves three phases :
(i) Multiplicative phase : In this phase the
primordial germ cells of germinal epithelium
multiply and grow rapidly. After many divisions,
these cells become sperm mother cells (or
spermatogonia).
(ii) Growth phase : Now each spermatogonium
absorbs a large amount of nutrition and become
larger in size. It is now referred to as primary
spermatocyte.
(iii) Maturation phase : In this phase, each primary
spermatocyte undergoes meiosis I division to
form two haploid cells, called secondary
spermatocytes. These cells now follow meiosis II
(M-II) division. These division results in the
formation of round, haploid cells, called
spermatids.
These spermatids are finally transformed to sperms by
a process, called spermiogenesis. During this process
the Golgi complex of the spermatid gives rise to the
acrosome that contains hyaluronidase. The
 30

mitochondria increase in number and form a

mitochondrial sheath in the middle piece. Sperm has a
motile tail.
Type of
division 2n Germinal epithelial cell
Daughter cells or
spermatogonium primordial germ cells
remains as a

Multiplication Phase
precursor Multiplication
stem cell 2 n Mitosis 2n (mitosis)

2n 2n 2n 2n (Spermatogonia)

2n 2n 2n 2n 2n 2n 2n 2n
Phases of Spermatogenesis

(Spermatogenesis)
Growth
Phase

(Growth)
2n Primary spermatocyte
(2n = 46 chromosomes) 46 (1st Maturation division) = Reduction
division (meiosis-II)
Each chromos- n n Secondary spermatocyte
Maturation

ome has two 23 23 (2nd Maturation division=

Phase

chromatids Equatorial
division (meiosis-II)
n n n n
23 23 23 23 Cytoplasmic bridge
Spermatozoa Spermatids
Spermatogenesis

n
n n n
Sperm

(n = 23 chro- (Spermatogenesis)
mosomes)

Fig. Different phases of spermatogenesis in human (male)

Q.7 Name the hormones involved in regulation of Ans. The liquid base of the semen is called seminal plasma.
spermatogenesis. It is 90 % of the total volume of the semen. (rest 10 %
Ans. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to are the sperms). Seminal plasma contains (i) citrate,
significant increase in the amount of hypothalamic ascorbic acid, calcium (ii) acid phosphatase, (iii) and
hormone, called GnRH. This hormone stimulates fructose. The concentration of seminal plasma citrate
pituitary gland to release FSH and LH hormones. Both depends on the testosterone concentration and activity.
these hormones, are called gonadotropins as they Fructose, is the chief constituent of seminal plasma. It
stimulate and prepare testes to carry out is the principal fuel of the spermatozoa while they are
spermatogenesis. FSH directly increases the growth of in the female genital tract. The seminal plasma is also
spermatogonia and stimulate their divisions. LH (also rich in prostaglandin (local hormones), various
called ICSH) stimulates interstitial cells to release proteins (such as fibrinogen).
testosterone. Testosterone finally stimulates and Q.11 What are the major functions of male accessory ducts
controls the spermatogenesis. and glands?
Q.8 Define spermiogenesis and spermiation. Ans. The major functions of male accessory ducts and
Ans. The transformation (metamorphosis) of spermatids glands :
into sperms (spermatozoa), is called spermiogenesis (a) Vasa efferentia : To convey sperms to epididymis.
(or spermateliosis). After spermiogenesis, the sperm (b) Epididymis: To mature the spermatozoa and make
heads become embedded in the sertoli cells (to obtain them motile. It also conveys sperms to vas
nutrition) and finally get released from the deferens.
seminiferous tubules. This release is called (c) Vas deferens : To convey sperms to urethra.
spermiation. (d) Prostate gland : To secrete a fluid, which mingles
Q.9 Draw a labelled diagram of sperm. with the secretion of the testes and accounts for
Ans. See short answer type Q.no. 3 about 20% of the volume of semen. This secretion
Q.10 What are the major components of seminal plasma? is acidic in nature.

(e) Seminal vesicle : Its secretion contains citrate,
fructose, inositol and hyaluronidase (an enzyme
that helps in fertilisation). Besides it also contains
prostaglandins (local hormones). Its secretion
forms about 70 % of the semen.
(f) Cowper’s glands (bulbo-urethral glands) : To
secrete mucus, which lubricates the passage of
urethra for the easy ejaculation of semen.
Q.12 What is oogenesis? Give a brief account of oogenesis.
(2019)
Ans. The formation of female gamete (ovum) is called
oogenesis. It is long and discontinuous process that
occurs in ovary. It also involved following three
phases:
(i) Multiplicative phase : In this phase the
primordial germ cells of germinal epithelium or
ovary multiply and grow rapidly. This occurs in
the intra-uterine life (before birth). After many
divisions, these cells become oogonia.
(ii) Growth phase : Now each oogonia absorbs a
large amount of nutrition and become larger in
size. It is now referred to as primary oocyte.
(iii) Maturation phase : It occurs after puberty. In the
beginning of each menstrual cycle, a primary
oocyte starts development. It undergoes meiotic-I
division, forming a secondary oocyte (haploid)
and a polar body.
Now ovulation takes place. The secondary oocyte
follows the second meiotic division (M II), only if it is
fertilised by a sperm. Finally, mature haploid ovum is
formed. Simultaneously second polar body is extruded.
Both primary and secondary polar bodies are
degenerated.
Q.13 Draw a labelled diagram of a section through ovary.
Ans. See short answer type Q.no. 2
Q.14 Draw a labelled diagram of a Graafian follicle?
Ans.
Fig. A mature Graafian follicle
Q.15 Name the functions of the following:
(a) Corpus luteum (b) Endometrium
(c) Acrosome (d) Sperm tail
(e) Fimbriae
31
Ans. (a) Corpus luteum : To secrete progesterone.
(b) Endometrium : It is the innermost layer of the
uterine wall. It helps in the implantation of
blastocyst and formation of placenta.
(c) Acrosome: It contains hyaluronidase enzyme,
which dissolves the wall of ovum and help in
fertilisation.
(d) Sperm tail : It is flagellum that helps the sperm to
move.
(e) Fimbriae : These are finger like ends of the
fallopian tubes, which serve to receive the ovum
after ovulation.
Q.16 Identify True/False statements. Correct each false
statement to make it true.
(a) Androgens are produced by Sertoli cells.
(True/False)
(b) Spermatozoa get nutrition from Sertoli cells.
(True/False)
(c) Leydig cells are found in ovary. (True/False)
(d) Leydig cells synthesise androgens. (True/False)
(e) Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum.
(True/False)
(f) Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy.
(True/False)
(g) Presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable
indicator of virginity or sexual experience.
(True/False)
Ans. (a) False (b) True (c) False
(d) True (e) False (f) True
(g) True
Q.17 What is menstrual cycle? Which hormones regulate
menstrual cycle? (2019, 20)
Ans. It is the characteristic 28 day cycle in fertile human
females. It involves bleeding phase, proliferative phase
and secretion phase.
(i) Bleeding phase — It occurs for first 4-5 days. It
involves the dischages of blood and debris
through vagina.
(ii) Proliferative phase — By 5th day, bleeding is
usually stopped and ovary starts forming a fresh
Graafian follicle. By 14th day, the growth of
Graafian follicle is completed and on 14th day,
ovulation occurs.
(iii) Secretory phase — The period between 14th day
to 28th day is called secretory period, as it
involves the profuse secretion of mucus from
uterine endometrium.
Hormonal regulation : The proliferative phase is
controlled and regulated by FSH of pituitary and the
estrogen secreted by the ovary. On the other hand, the
 32
secretory phase is maintained by the LH of pituitary
and progesterone, by ovary (Corpus luteum).
Q.18 What is parturition? Which hormones are involved in
induction of parturition?
Ans. The coming out of the baby from mother’s body after
completion of pregnancy period (i.e., birth) is called
parturition. Oxytocin is the principal hormone that
creates labour pains and help in the parturition process.
Q.19 In our society the women are often blamed for giving
birth to daughters. Can you explain why this is not
correct?
Ans. This is completely incorrect. This is because, the sex is
determined by the nature of the sperm, not of ovum.
Male produces two types of sperm — X type and Y
type. But female produces only X type of ovum.
If X sperm of male and ovum of female get fertilised, a
female baby would be born. But if Y type sperm of
male fertilises the ovum, a male baby would be born.
This clearly suggests that, there is no role of woman in
sex determination and therefore she should not be
blamed.
Q.20 How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a
month? How many eggs do you think would have been
released if the mother gave birth to identical twins?
Would your answer change if the twins born were
fraternal?
Ans. Only one egg (ovum) is released by a human ovary in a
month. In case of identical twins, female would have
been produced only one egg. After first division in the
zygote, the two cells behave as separate zygotes and
give rise two identical twins. But in case of fraternal
twins, two eggs are produced.
ccc

Chapter
4 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
² Contraceptive Devices : Contraceptive devices are the
means which aim to prevent sexual intercourse from causing
pregnancy, i.e., preventing the meeting of sperm and ovum. An
ideal contraceptive device should be user friendly, easily
available, effective and reversible with no or least side effects.
² Intra-Uterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCDs) : The
intra-uterine contraceptive devices are small plastic and copper
devices, which are fitted into the uterus. These are designed to
prevent the sperm meeting the egg, and may also make the egg
move down the fallopian tube more slowly and stop an egg
settling in the uterus (if fertilised).
² Emergency Contraceptive : This is used to prevent
pregnancy after unprotected sexual intercourse (sex without
any method of birth control or with a birth control method that
failed or was not used properly. It is a two tablet treatment,
taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex.
² Sterilisation (Sergical Method) : This is a surgical method
to permanently prevent fertilisation. It is therefore only
recommended for people who are sure they do not want to have
any more children.
² Vasectomy : It is a surgical contraceptive measure for men,
which involves cutting or tying the tubes (vas deferens) which
carry sperm from the testicles to the penis. As a result the
ejaculated semen does not contain sperms.
² Tubectomy : It is a surgical contraceptive measure for women,
in which, both fallopian tubes (oviducts) are cut, tied or
blocked, often through keyhole surgery. As a result the ovum
can not meet the sperms.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q.1. World health day is celebrated every year on:
(a) 7 th March (b) 7 th April
(c) 7 th July (d) 7 th May
Q.2. Gonorrhea is caused by:
(a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(b) Chlamydia trachomatis
(c) Mycoplasma hominis
33
² Medical Termination of Pregnancy : Medical Termination
of Pregnancy (MTP) is also called induced abortion. It is the
medical way of getting rid of unwanted pregnancy. It is a
banned process in India except for the cases of
abnormal/complicated pregnancies.
² Sexually Transmitted Diseases : Sexually transmitted
diseases (also called STDs) are the infections/diseases, which
can be transferred from one person to another through sexual
intercourse. Important sexually transmitted diseases are —
AIDS (HIV infection), Syphilis, Gonorrhea, Hepatitis-B,
trichomoniasis, genital warts, chlamydiasis, genital herpes,
urithritis etc.
² Infertility : Infertility is the inability to naturally conceive a
child in spite of long term unprotected sex or to carry a
pregnancy to full term.
² In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) : In infertile couples, where
women have blocked or absent fallopian tubes, or where men
have low sperm counts, in vitro fertilization (IVF) offers a
chance at parenthood to couples who until recently would have
had no hope of having a “biologically related” child.
² In IVF, eggs are surgically removed from the ovary and mixed
with sperm outside the body in a petri dish )(‘‘in vitro’’ is Latin
for ‘‘in glass’’). After about 40 hours, the eggs are examined to
see if they have become fertilized by the sperm and are dividing
into cells. These fertilized eggs (embryos) are then placed in the
women’s uterus.
1 Mark
(d) Treponema pollidum
Q.3. Emergency contraceptives contain:
(a) Progesterone only
(b) Progestogens and estrogen
(c) Progestogens and testosterone
(d) Estrogens and androgen
 34

Q.4. Hormone based IUDs make the: (c) Sex of the toetus (d) Down syndrome
(a) Sperm immovable Q.7. Syphilis is caused by:
(b) Ovum resistant to sperms (a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(c) Uterine wall unsuitable for implantation (b) Chlamydia trachomatis
(d) All of the above (c) Mycoplasma hominis
Q.5. Assisted reproductive technology. IVF involves (d) Treponema pallidum
transfer of: Q.8. Presence of which one of the following substances in
(a) Ovum into the fallopian tube amniotic fluid is responsible for determination of sex
(b) Zygote into the fallopian tube of embryo? (2015)
(c) Zygote into the uterus (a) Barr bodies (b) Sex chromosomes
(d) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian (c) Chiasmata (d) Antigen
tube Q.9. Which of the following is related to male? (2020)
Q.6. Which of the following can not be detected in (a) Vasectomy (b) Pills
developing foetus by amniocentesis? (c) Tubectomy (d) None of these
(a) Jaundice (b) Klinefelter syndrome

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Define a reproductive healthy society?
Ans. A society with people having physically and
functionally normal reproductive organs and normal
emotional and behavioral interactions among them in
all sex- related aspects might be called reproductively
healthy.
Q. 2. Name any two surgical method of contraception?
Or What are the permanent methods of family
planning? (2020)
Ans. Tubectomy (in females) and vasectomy (in males).
Q. 3. Name some barrier method of contraception designed
for females?
Ans. Diaphragms cervical caps and vaults are some of the
barrier methods used by females.
Q. 4. What is sterilization?
Ans. It is a surgical method to block gamete transport and
there by preventing conception.
Q. 5. What is meant by artificial insemination?
Ans. It is a method by which semen collected from the
husbands or a healthy donor is artificially introduced
either into the vagina or into the uterus of the female.
Q.6. Name two sexually transmitted diseases caused by
bacteria?
Ans. Syphilis and gonorrhoea.
Q.7. What do you mean by external fertilization? Give an
example. (2019)
Ans. External fertilization is a mode of reproduction in
which a male sperm fertilises with egg outside of the
female body.

Short Answer Type Questions 2 & 3 Marks

Q.1. Name any three incurable sexually transmitted diseases
and their causative organisms?
Ans. (i) AIDS—Human immunodeficiency virus
(ii) Genital warts—Human papilloma virus
(iii) Herpes—Herpes simplex virus
Q.2. What do you mean by STDs?
Ans. Sexually transmitted diseases or venereal diseases are
the infections/diseases, which can be transferred from
one person to another through sexual intercourse.
These infections may be bacterial, viral and protozoan
etc.
Bacterial: Gonorrhoea (Neisseria gonorrhoeae),
Syphilis (Treponema pallidum).
Viral: Herpes, AIDS, Hepatitis B, Genital warts.
Protozoan: Vaginal trichomoniasis:
Trichomonas vaginals
Q.3. What is infertility? Mention any there causes of
infertility in men and women?
Ans. Infertility: The incapability to produce children
inspite of unprotected sexual intercourse is called
infertility. A large number of couples all over the
world including India are infertile, i. e., they are unable

to produce children. Infertility is going at an alarming
pace, cause of infertility in men:
1. Physical retardation of sex organs.
2. Congenital diseases.
3. Dry use.
The most common male infertility factors include a
zoospermia and oligospermia.
Cause of infertility in women:
The most common female infertility factor is an
ovulation disorder. Other causes of female infertility
include, blocked fallopian tubes.
Q. 4. What do you mean by contraception? Name the natural
methods of contraception?
Ans. Contraception: Birth control, also known as
contraception is designed allow people to attain their
desired number of children and determine the spacing
of pregnancies.
Different contraceptive methods are broadly
categorized into two main types :
(i) Temporary or spacing method.
(ii) Terminal or permanent methods.
Temporary method are used to postpone or to space
births. These can be grouped into following sub
categories:
(a) Natural methods (b) Barrier methods
(c) Intra uterine contraceptive devices
(d) Chemical methods
(e) Oral contraceptive pills
(f) Morning after pills
Natural methods: This involves the strategies where
no external is used, i.e., chances of pregnancy are
avoided in natural way. It involves following methods.
1. Periodic abstinence: This is a modified from of
abstinence also called the fertility awareness' or
symptom-thermal method. The idea is to retrain
from intercourse during the woman's heat period,
starting a few days before ovulation and ending a
few days after, i.e., 10th to 17th of menstrual
cycle.
2. Withdrawal method: It involves the withdrawing
the penis before ejaculation. It is not a reliable
method before some sperms can leak out of the
penis before ejaculation.
3. Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM): There
is no menstrual cycle and therefore ovulation does
not occur during intense lactation following
parturition.
Q.5. Write short notes of Intra uterine contraceptive devices
(IUDs or IUCDs)?
Ans. IUDs or IUCDs: The intra-uterine contraceptive
device or coil commonly called copper-T or cut is
small plastic and copper device. Which is fitted into the
35
uterus by a doctor. It is designed to prevent the sperm
meeting the egg and may also make the egg move down
the fallopian tube more slowly and stop an egg setting
in the uterus.
These intra uterine devices are presently available as
the non- medicated IUDs (Lippes loop) Copper
releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, multi load 375, Para gard,
T-care) and the hormone releasing IUDs
(Progestosert, LNG-20, PVR).
IUCDs increase phagocytosis of sperms and the copper
reduces sperm motility. The hormone releasing IUDs,
make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
Q.6. Write short note on MTP?
Ans. MTP: Medical termination of pregnancy is also called
induced abortion. It is the medical way of getting rid of
unwanted pregnancy. Government of India legalized
MTP in 1971 through Medical Termination of
Pregnancy Act No. 34 of 1971 with some strict
conditions to avoid its misuse.
MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first
trimester, i.e., upto 12 weeks of pregnancy.
Complications of MTP: MTP is a procedure that is
carried and under anaesthesia and increases the risk for
the procedure. Patients can have lot of bleeding during
and after the procedure. There are high chances of
patient having recurrent abortions.
Q.7. What is amniocentesis? Why has the government
imposed a statutory ban in spite of its importance in the
medical field?
Ans. Amniocentesis: Amniotic fluid test (AFT) is a medical
procedure used in prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal
abnormalities and fetal infections, and also for sex
determination, in which a small amount of amniotic
fluid, which contains fetal tissues, is sampled from the
amniotic sac surrounding a developing foetus, and then
the fetal DNA is examined for genetic abnormalities.
Amniocentesis is performed when a woman is between
14 and 16 weeks gestation.
Government ban: Women who choose to have this
test are primarily those at increased risk for genetic and
chromosomal problems. This process can be used for
prenatal sex determination. So amniocentesis is
misused to determine the sex of the unborn child.
Frequently it the foetus is found to be female, it is
follow by MTP. So, to discourage such practice our
government has imposed a ban on this process.
Q.8. Describe sterilization (surgical method) in males and
females?
Or What is the permanent or terminal methods of
contraception?
Or Comment of vasectomy and tubectomy?
Ans. Sterilization: It is a surgical method to permanently
prevent fertilization. It is therefore only recommended
 36

for people who are sure they do not want to have any
more children. Sterilization can achieved either by
prohibiting the transport of sperm from passage an egg
from a woman’s ovaries to her oviduct
(1) Vasectomy: Men are sterilized in a procedure
called a vasectomy. This is a minor operation
usually performed under local anaesthetic. It
involves cutting or tying the vas deferens which
carry sperm.
Vas deferens
tied and cut
Ampulla of
vas deferens
Epididymis
Testis
Corona
Glans penis
Fig. Vasectomy (In human male)
Fallopian tubes
tied and cut
Ovary
Cervix
Vagina
Fig. Tubectomy (In human female)
(2) Tubectomy: Surgical sterilization procedure of
female is called tubectomy or tubal-ligation. In
this method, both fallopian tubes (oviducts) are
cut, tied or blocked, so the sperm cannot reach to
ovulated oocytes. Tubal-ligation is not associated
with any health risk outside of those associated
with surgery of the abdominal cavity.
Q.9. Write short note on test tube baby. (2009, 14)
Ans. See Long answer type question no.-1.
Q.10. Write a brief note on family planning. (2014)
Ans. See Long answer type question no.-2.
Q.11. What are the main causes of population explosion?
Describe birth control measures. (2019)
Ans. Causes of population explosion : NCERT ques. 5. and
Measure to control population : Please see Long
answer type question-2.
Q.12. What do you mean by sexually transmitted disease?
Mention suitable measures for their prevention. (2019)
Ans. See Long answer type question-3.
Q.13. Define assisted reproductive technique and give an
account of IVF. (2019)
Ans. See Long answer type question-1.
Q.14. Write short note on IVF technique. (2019)
Ans. IVF technique : Please see Long answer type
question-1.
Q.15. Explain the process of in vitro fertilization (IVF) in
brief. (2020)
Ans. Please see Long answer type question-1.
Q.16. Family planning is in favour of Nation, why? (2020)
Ans. Today the demographic dividend is in India’s favour
and family planning can and should be used to leverage
it. Longer lives and smaller families lead to more
working age people supporting fewer dependents. This
reduces cost and increases the country’s wealth,
economic growth and productivity of the people.
Investing in family planning is the most intelligent step
that a nation like India can take to improve the over all
socio-economic fabric of the society and reap high
returns on investments and drive the country’s growth.
Q.17. Describe in brief the ‘Barrier methods’ used by male to
enhance contraceptive capacity. (2020)
Ans. Barrier Methods : These methods are used to prevent
the sperms to reach in fallopian tubes. The short
description of these methods are as following—
(i) Condom : These are made of thin rubber or latex
sheath. These are used to cover the penis in males.
These are used just before the coitus so that
ejaculated semen would not enter into the female
reproductive tract.
(ii) Coitus Interruptus : In this method, male
withdraw his penis from female’s vagina just
before ejaculation.
(iii) Vasectomy : The procedure by which men are
sterilized is called vasectomy. This is a minor
operation usually performed under local
anaesthetic. It involves cutting or tying the vas
deferens which carry sperm.
Q.18. Describe different methods of Assisted Reproductive
Technologies (ART). (2020)
Ans. Please see Long answer type question-1.

Long Answer Type Questions
Q.1. What are the Assisted Reproductive Techniques
practiced to help infertile couples? Describe any three
techniques?
Or Explain IVF and FET. What are the conditions in
which these methods are advised?
Ans. Assisted Reproductive techniques: The term ART is
used in different contexts but should cover induction of
ovulation, sperm preparation, intrauterine
insemination, IVF,ICSI and genetic testing and
manipulation.
Thus ART is useful technique, meant for the treatment
of infertility. The Assisted Reproductive Technique
practiced to help infertile couples are as follows :
1. In vitro fertilization (IVF): IVF is the most common
ART technique. The object of IVF is to add sperm to
egg in the laboratory. Where the normal pathway via
the fallopian tubes is damaged or absent.
Hence this process is also called test tube baby
technique.
The first test tube baby Louise Joy Brown was born on
July 25, 1978 in England with the help of Dr. Robert
Edwards and Dr. Patrick Steptoe. IVF offers a
chance at parenthood to couples who until recently
would have no hope of having a “biologically related
child.”
In IVF, eggs are surgically removed from the ovary and
mixed with sperm outside the body in a Petridish or test
tube. After about 40 hours, the eggs are examined to
see it they have became fertilized by the sperm and are
dividing into cells. Ideally one embryo is transferred
into the mother’s uterus by means of a thin plastic tube.
2. Embryo Freezing and Replacement (Transfer) (EFT):
In this method embryos can be stored for years without
any apparent defeats occurring. These can be thawed
and replaced in normal cycles greatly simplifying the
patients treatment cycle and costs. At this time it would
appear that the pregnancy rate from frozen embryos is
lower than that from fresh embryos.
3. ICSI (Intracytoplasmic sperm injection): In this
technique, a single sperm is injected into an egg, the
fertilized egg is then placed in the woman’s uterus as in
IVF. Thus the couple requires very few sperm for this
type of therapy.
4 Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT): In this
technique, eggs are removed from the woman,
fertilized and then placed in the woman’s fallopian
tubes rather than the uterus.
5. Gamete Intrafallopian transfer (GIFT): In this
technique, egg are removed from the woman, and
37
5 Marks
placed in one of the fallopian tubes, along with the
man’s sperm. This allows fertilization to take place
inside the woman body.
Q.2. How can increase in population be controlled?
Describe in brief various scientific method of family
planning. (2011)
Or What is the need of family planning? Describe
various measures of birth control. (2016)
Or Explain the necessity of family planning in India,
and its methods. (2020)
Ans. Measure to control population :
Steps to control population growth are :
(i) Statutory raising of marriageable age of boys to
21 years and 18 years in case of girls.
(ii) By giving incentives to the couples with small
families.
(iii) Motivate smaller families by using various
contraceptive methods.
Need of family planning are as follows :
(i) Preventing pregnancy-related health risks in
women : Family planning allows spacing of
pregnancies and can delay pregnancies in young
women at increased risk of health problems and
death from early childbearing. It prevents
unintended pregnancies, including those of older
women who face increased risks related to
pregnancy.
(ii) Reducing infant mortality : Family planning can
prevent closely spaced and ill-timed pregnancies
and births, which contribute to some of the
world’s highest infant mortality rates.
(iii) Empowering people and enhancing education:
Having smaller families allows parents to invest
more in each child. Children with fewer siblings
tend to stay in school longer than those with many
siblings.
(iv) Helping to prevent HIV/AIDS : Family
planning reduces the risk of unintended
pregnancies among women living with HIV
resulting in fewer infected babies and orphans.
(v) Reducing adolescent higher pregnancies :
Babies born to adolescents have higher rates of
neo-natal mortality.
(vi) Slowing population growth : Family planning is
key to slowing unsustainable population growth
and the resulting negative impacts on the
economy, environment, and national and regional
development efforts.
38
Birth control or contraception : The population
growth can be controlled only by adopting suitable
contraceptive methods :
(i) Natural/traditional methods : These methods
are based on the principle of avoiding chances of
meeting sperms and eggs.
(a) Coitus interruptus or withdrawal : In this
method, the male partner withdraws his penis
from the vagina just before ejaculation so as
to avoid insemination.
(b) Periodic abstinence : It is a method in which
couples avoid coitus (intercourse) from day
10-17 of the menstrual cycle, because
ovulation can occur mostly during this time,
(it is caved the fertile period).
(c) Lactational amenorrhea : It refers to the
stoppage of menstruation during the period
of lactation following parturition.
Because ovulation does not occur in this
period, the chances of conception are
minimum or nil.
(ii) Barrier methods : These methods prevent
sperms and ovum, from physically meeting in
order to prevent fertilisation. These methods are
available for both males and females. These are as
follows :
(a) Cervical caps, diaphragms and vaults :
These are also made of rubber and are
inserted into the female reproductive tract to
cover the cervix during intercourse. These
are reusable.
(b) Condoms : These are made of thin rubber or
latex sheath. Used to cover the penis in males
and vagina and cervix in females. These are
used just before coitus so that ejaculated
semen would not enter female reproductive
tract.
(iii) Chemical methods : Spermicides come in the
form of creams, jellies and foams and are usually
used along with the above stated barriers to
increase their contraceptive efficiency.
These are inserted in the vagina before
intercourse. These contain spermicides (kill
spermatozoa) such as lactic acid, citric acid, boric
acid, zinc sulphate and potassium permanganate.
(iv) Oral contraceptives : These are the preparations
of hormones either progestogens or progesterone-
oestrogen combinations in the form of pills, used
by the females.
They alter or inhibit ovulation and fertilisation
and also modify the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent or retard the entry of sperms. Most
common examples are ‘Mala D’ and ‘Saheli’.
(v) Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) : These devices
contain either copper or progesterone, and are
inserted by doctors into the uterus through vagina.
They are a form of long reversible contraceptive
method. These may be categorised as :
(a) Copper releasing IUDs : Cu-T, Cu-7
Multiload-375 and Paragard are some of the
Cu-releasing IUDs.
(b) Hormones Releasing IUDs : Progestasert,
LNG-20, Mirena are the well known
hormone releasing IUDs.
(c) Non-medicated IUDs, e. g., Lippes loop.
(vi) Injectables and implants hormone injections :
These are progesterone-derivative injections,
given every three months, that releases a hormone
slowly and prevent ovulation. They are
convenient, highly effective with no side effects.
Implants are the new method of contraception,
which is subcutaneous implantation of synthetic
progesterone. Though, these act similarity to oral
contraceptives by blocking ovulation and
thickening the cervical mucus, to prevent sperm
transport, their effective periods are longer. One
implant is effective for about five years.
(vii) Emergency contraceptives (Morning after pills):
Administration of progestogens or progestogen-
oestrogen combinations or IUDs within 72 hours
of coitus have been very effective as emergency
contraceptives as they could be used to avoid
possible pregnancy due to rape or casual
unprotected intercourse. Their side effects are
menstrual irregulation, vomiting, etc., e. g., i-pill,
Pill-72, Unwanted-72.
(viii) Surgical methods : Such methods block the
transport of gametes thereby prevent conception,
i. e., vasectomy and tubectomy.
Q.3. STDs are a threat to reproductive health. Describe any
two such diseases and their preventive measures.
Ans. Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) : These are
diseases that are mainly passed from one person to
another during sexual intercourse. They are also
known as Venereal Diseases (VDs) or Reproductive
Tract Infections (RTIs). These can be prevented by
avoiding unprotected sexual intercourse. Genital
herpes, syphilis, gonorrhoea, chlamydiasis, genital
warts, hepatitis-B and infection of HIV leading to
AIDS are some common STDs. STDs are a major
threat to a healthy society. These diseases are reported
to be high among individuals in the age group of 15-24
years.
Except for heptatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV
infections, all other diseases are completely curable, if

detected early and treated properly. The early
symptoms of STDs are minor and include itching, fluid
discharge, slight pain, swellings, etc., in the genital
region. Infected females may often be asymptomatic
and hence, may remain undetected for long. STDs like
Hepatitis-B and HIV can also be transmitted by the
following :
(i) Sharing of contaminated injection needles,
surgical instruments, etc., with infected persons.
(ii) Transfusion of blood.
(iii) From infected mother to foetus.
Preventive measures for STDs : One should not panic
because prevention from STDs is possible and one
could be free of these infections, by following these
simple principles as given below :
(i) Always use condoms during coitus.
(ii) Avoid sex with unknown/multiple partners.
(iii) Awareness about STDs.
(iv) Use sterilised needles and syringes.
(v) In case of doubt, consult a doctor as early as
possible for early detection and get completely
treated if diagnosed with disease.
Q.4. Write an essay on population explosion and control.
(2019, 20)
Ans. Population Explosion : Population represents the total
number of individuals of a species living in an area.
Increased health facilities along with better living
conditions had an explosive impact on the growth of
population. A rapid increase in population over a
relatively short period is called population explosion.
The world population, which was around 2 billion in
1900 rocketed to about 6 billion in 2000.
In India too, we observed a similar growth pattern. Some
major reasons for population growth are as follows :
(i) Ignorance and complete lack of awareness about the
ill-effect of increasing especially in rural regions.
NCERT Fully Solved Exercise
Q.1 What do you think is the significance of reproductive
health in a society?
Ans. Reproduction is a process of bringing a new offspring
in this world. So, reproductive health is significant to
give birth to healthy and fit offspring. It is important for
all age groups especially young boys and girls of
reproductive age. Knowledge of reproductive health is
essential to boys and girls of pubertal age. So, that they
can understand the meanings of changes that take place
in their body during pubertal age.
Q.2 Suggest the aspects of reproductive health which need
to be given special attention in the present scenario.
39
(ii) Decline in death rate.
(iii) Increase in the young, reproductive age
population.
(iv) Continuous increase in the birth rate.
(v) Poverty and illiteracy.
(vi) Social stigmas about girl child and desire to have
boy child.
Steps to control population growth are :
(i) Statutory raising of marriageable age of girls to 18
years and 21 years in case of boys.
(ii) Motivate couples to have smaller families by
using various contraceptive methods.
(iii) By giving incentives to the couples with small families.
Consequences of Overpopulation :
Overpopulation has lead to various serious problems.
Some of these are given below as :
(i) Unemployment : Overgrowing population is a
main and the foremost reason for unemployment
as number of people will increase, the job need
will also increase.
Therefore, more number of people will remain
unemployed, if sufficient number of jobs are not
available.
(ii) Food Supply : If the population keeps on
increasing and the production of food will not
increase. This will lead to shortage of food.
(iii) Poverty : Family becomes naturally poor if there
are more persons in it and the income is less.
Therefore, poverty increases with the increase in
every child in the family.
(iv) Education : It is also one of the reasons as
government tend to face difficulties in providing
education to all.
Measure to control population : Please see the ans
of Long answer type question-2.
Ans. Two important aspects of reproductive health which
need to be given special attention in the present
scenario are:
(a) Knowledge to young boys and girls so as to
discourage them from believing in myths and
having misconception about sex related aspects.
(b) Knowledge of family planning to persons of
reproductive age groups, so that they keep family
size small and have sound reproductive health.
Q.3 Is sex education necessary in schools? Why?
Ans. Yes. Sex education is essential in school. This is
because, children attain their pubertal age during their
40
schooling. Puberty brings drastic changes in the
physical and mental design of the body. If children are
aware of such changes they can be prevented from
believing in myths and having misconception about
sex related aspects.
Q.4 Do you think that reproductive health in our country
has improved in the past 50 years? If yes, mention
some such areas of improvement.
Ans. Yes. The reproductive health in our country has
improved in the past 50 years. People are now well
aware about the benefits of keeping their family size
small. We now have widespread availability of means
of family planning. People are now more cautious
about sex related diseases. However, in many parts of
the country, female infanticide is still continued.
Diseases like AIDS are increasing.
Q.5 What are the suggested reasons for population
explosion?
Ans. Some important reasons for population explosion are :
(a) Illiteracy.
(b) More hand more income thinking.
(c) Lack of availability of contraceptives.
(d) Decrease in death rate, maternal mortality rate
(MMR) and Infant mortality rate (IMR).
Q.6 Is the use of contraceptives justified? Give reasons.
Ans. Yes. The use of contraceptives is fully justified as it
gives encouragement to safer sexual practices. It is also
helpful in checking sexually transmitted diseases and
also helps in keeping the family size small.
Q.7 Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a
contraceptive option. Why?
Ans. Gonads are important body organs, which not only
produce gametes but also produce sex hormones. Sex
hormones are very important and they are responsible
for onset of puberty and all secondary sexual features.
So, removal of gonads would make the individual
completely sterile and he/she would have poorly
developed sex organs. So, removal of gonads cannot be
considered as a contraceptive option.
Q.8 Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in our
country. Is this ban necessary? Comment.
Ans. Yes. A ban on amniocentesis is necessary because this
practice is being misused in the country. By this
process, the sex of the foetus can be identified. In the
want of male baby, many persons go for abortion of
female baby (female infanticide). So, to discourage
such practices, our Government has imposed a ban on
this process.
Q.9 Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to
have children. (2020)
Ans. Most infertility cases (85 to 90%) are treated with
conventional therapies, such as drug treatment or
surgical repair of reproductive organs. Common lines
of treatment are :
Fertility medication which stimulates the ovaries to
“ripen” and release eggs (e.g. clomifene citrate, which
stimulates ovulation). Assisted reproductive
techniques are suggested to assist infertile couples.
Please see the answer of long answer type question-1.
Q.10 What are the measures one has to take to prevent from
contracting STDs?
Ans. Two important measures, one has to take to prevent
from contracting STDs are :
(a) Be loyal to one partner and avoid multiple sexual
practices.
(b) Use barrier devices like condom.
Q.11 State True/False with explanation :
(a) Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
(b) Infertility is defined as the inability to produce a
viable offspring and is always due to
abnormalities/defects in the female partner.
(c) Complete lactation could help as a natural method
of contraception.
(d) Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an
effective method to improve reproductive health
of the people.
Ans. (a) True. Pregnancy is a hormonally controlled
process. So, any change in body’s hormonal
environment, especially low level of
progesterone, can lead to abortion.
(b) False. Infertility may also be due to
abnormalities/defects in the male partner.
(c) True. During lactation, menstruation does not
occur.
(d) True.
Q.12 Correct the following statements :
(a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent
gamete formation.
(b) All sexually transmitted diseases are completely
curable.
(c) Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among
the rural women.
(d) In E.T. techniques, embryos are always
transferred into the uterus.
Ans. (a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent
gamete fusion.
(b) Most of the sexually transmitted diseases are
curable but some like AIDS are not.
(c) Oral pills are not very popular contraceptives
among the rural women.
(d) In Embryo transfer techniques, embryos are
always implanted into the uterus.
ccc

Chapter
5
Unit-2 : Genetics and
Evolution
² Gene: These are the specific portions of DNA (Genetic
material), which contains information for the formation of a
protein / polypeptide chain or perform a particular work. Genes
are the units of heredity.
² Chromosomes: These are thread like structures, visible only
in division phase. These represent the condensed form of
chromatin (DNA + histone proteins). Chromosomes are the
vehicles of heredity.
² Homologous Chromosomes: In a diploid cell, all
chromosomes are present in the form of pairs. Each pair has two
morphologically similar kinds of chromosomes. These two
chromosomes of a pair are called homologous chromosomes.
² Alleles: The genes, which govern the allelomorphic characters,
are called alleles.
² Genotype and Phenotype: The genetic configuration of an
organism (in relation to the inheritance of characters) is called
genotype, whereas the outcome of the inheritance, which is
visible externally or morphologically, is called phenotype.
² Homozygous Condition: When (in genotype of a diploid
cell), both alleles of a character are exactly similar, then such a
condition is called homozygous condition.
² Heterozygous Condition: When two alleles of a character
are not similar (and represent different allelomorphic
character) then such a condition is called heterozygous
condition.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q. 1. Term gene was proposed by :
(a) W. Bateson (b) W. Johannsen
(c) G.J. Mendel (d) Punnett
Q. 2. How many sons of a colour blind woman will be colour
blind, if her husband is normal ?
(a) All (b) 50%
(c) 25% (d) None
Q. 3. Genetic configuration of a super-female is:
(a) 44A + XO (b) 44A + XXY
41
PRINCIPLES OF
INHERITANCE AND
VARIATIONS
² Test Cross: A test cross is a back cross, which involves the
cross between F1 offspring with homozygous recessive (double
recessive) parent. The test cross is used to determine the
homozygous or heterozygous nature of the F1 offspring.
² Linkage: The genes which are present on the same
chromosomes remain together as a block. When chromosome is
transfer to the next generation, they are also transferred
together. Therefore genes, which are found on the same
chromosome, have tendency to remain together during the
course of inheritance. This tendency of the genes to remain
together is called linkage.
² Crossing Over: Crossing over can be defined as the process,
which involves the exchange of chromosomal, parts between
non-sister chromatids of a homologous pair of chromosomes
(bivalent) during prophase I of meiotic cell division. Crossing
over results in the rearrangement and recombination of genes
and thus helps in the production of variations.
² Synapsis: During prophase I, the maternal and paternal
chromosomes come close to each other and together form pairs.
A pair contains two chromosomes (one maternal and one
paternal) and this pair is called homologous pair. This pairing of
two homologous chromosomes is called synapsis.
² Mutation: Any sudden heritable change in the genetic makeup
(genotype) of the organisms, (other than, which is caused by
simple recombination of genes), is called mutation.
1 Mark
(c) 44A + XXX (d) 44A + OO
Q. 4. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was suggested by:
(a) Darlington (b) Belling
(c) Sutton and Boveri (d) T.H. Morgan
Q.5. The work of Mendel was rediscovered and
re-established by:
(a) de Vries (b) Correns
(c) Tschermak (d) All of these
 42

Q. 6. Down’s syndrome is caused due to: (c) Heterologous portion of X and Y-chromosomes
(a) Monosomy of sex- chromosome (d) Compound chromosomes
(b) Monosomy of 21th chromosomes Q.15. The unit of genetics is : (2020)
(c) Trisomy of sex chromosome (a) Chromosome (b) Genotype
(d) Trisomy of 21th chromosomes (c) Golgi bodies (d) Gene
Q. 7. Mendel dihybrid phenotypic ratio was: Q.16. The ratio of dihybrid test cross is : (2020)
(a) 9:3:3:1 (b) 12:3:1 (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 9:3:4 (d) 9:7 (c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Q. 8. When F1 individual is crossed with its either of the two Q.17. The development of male take place in honeybee from.
parents, the cross is known as: (2017) (2020)
(a) Test cross (b) Back cross (a) Fertilized egg (b) Unfertilized egg
(c) Reciprocal cross (d) Monohybrid cross (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Q. 9. In Mendel’s monohybrid cross, which progeny is Q.18. Sickle cell anaemia is caused : (2020)
always heterozygous? (2016) (a) Due to the presence of recessive trait on
(a) F1 -progeny autosomal chromosomes.
(b) F2 -progeny (b) Due to the presence of Dominent trait on
(c) F3 -progeny autosomal chromosomes.
(d) Parent progeny/Generation (c) Due to the mutation and polyploidy.
Q.10. If a female with blood group O marries a male with (d) Due to the sex-linked uneffect.
blood group AB, blood group of their son can be : Q.19. Which of the following statement is correct for ‘‘Law
(2011, 16) of Dominance’’? (2020)
(a) Blood group ‘A’ (b) Blood group ‘B’ (a) Factors are in pairs.
(c) Blood group ‘AB’ (d) Blood group ‘A’ or ‘B’ (b) Determination of traits take place by factor
Q.11. Which of the following symbol is correct for Turner’s (cdiscrete unit).
syndrome? (2016) (c) If both individuals of factor pair are dissimilar,
(a) AAXO (b) AAXXY then one factor is dominant on other factor.
(c) AAXXY (d) AAXXX (d) All of these.
Q.12. Who is the founder of law of dominance and law of Q.20. Parthenogenesis is take place in : (2020)
segregation? (2019) (a) Rotifers (b) Honeybee
(a) Darwin (b) Lamarck (c) Turkis (d) All of these
(c) de Vries (d) Mendel Q.21. The development of males in honeybee take place
Q.13. How many genotypes are possible in human’s blood from: (2020)
groups? (2019) (a) Unfertilized egg (b) Fertilized egg
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) 6 (d) 8 Q.22. Which genetic disorder take place due to the trisomy of
Q.14. X-linked genes are found in : (2019) 21th chromosome? (2020)
(a) Heterologous portion of Y-chromosome (a) Klinefelter syndrome (b) Turner syndrome
(b) Heterologous portion of X-chromosome (c) Down syndrome (d) Thalassemia

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)

11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. ( d) 20. (b)

21. (a) 22. (c)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. Define the term genetics? Q.2. Define dominant allele?
Ans. The branch of biology which deals with the study of Ans. In heterozygous condition only one of the two alleles
heredity and variations is called genetics. The term expresses it self phonotypically. This allele is called
genetics was coined by W. Bateson. dominant allele.
 43

Q.3. Who is the father of Genetics? (2018) Q.14. Distinguish between back-cross and test cross.
Ans. Gregor Johann Mendel (2014, 15, 17, 18)
Q.4. Mention the type of allele that expresses itself only in Ans. Refer Q.No. 10 (SA)
homozygous state in an organism? Q.15. Why Down’s syndrome is called Mongolism? (2018)
Ans. Recessive allele. Ans. The individual suffering from Down’s syndrome look
Q.5. Who gave chromosomal theory of inheritance? like a Mongolian person, so, it is called Mongolism.
(2018, 20) Q.16. Give the ratio of genotype and phenotype in
Ans. Sutton and Boveri in 1972 gave the theory of incomplete dominance and codominance. (2018)
chromosomal inheritance. Ans. In incomplete dominance in Genotype = 1 : 2 : 1
Q.6. A male has karyotype XXY. Which type of syndrome In incomplete dominance in Phenotype = 1 : 2 : 1
is this? (2007) In co-dominance in Genotype = 1 : 2 : 1
Ans. A male with karyotype XXY has klinefelter’s In co-dominance in Phenotype = 1 : 2 : 1
syndrome. Q.17. Why a colourblind man is not selected as a driver in
Q.7. Give any two example of autosomal trisomy? railways? (2019)
Ans. 1. Edward’s syndrome — Trisomy of 18th Ans. A colourblind man is not selected as a driver in
chromosome railways because he can not differentiate between red
2. Down’s syndrome — Trisomy of 21th and green colour.
chromosome. Q.18. Which syndrome is produced due to trisomy of
Q.8. Explain the law of dominance using a monohybrid chromosome number 21 in human beings? (2019)
cross? Ans. Down’s syndrome.
Or Explain law of dominance of Mendel. (2018) Q.19. Who discovered Down syndrome? Which pair of its
Ans. Refer Q.No. 20 (SA) somatic chromosome has one more chromosome? (2019)
Q.9. Name any four characters on which Mendel studied Ans. Down’s syndrome was discovered by John Langdon
inheritance. (2017) Down. 21th pair has one more chromosome.
Or How many characters did Mendel select for his Q.20. Draw the diagram of chromosomes of Turner’s syndrome.
experiment? Write the names of any two characters.
(2012, 15)
1 2 3 4 5
Ans. Mendel selected seven contrasting characters of Pea
plant for his experiment like :
Ans. 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
(i) Stem height (ii) Flower colour
(iii) Seed coat colour (iv) Pod shape 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Q.10. Name two disorders in humans caused by sex-linked
21 22 X 23
inheritance. (2014, 17) Sex chromosomes
Ans. (i) Haemophilia (ii) Colour blindness
Q.21. What do you mean by sex linked traits? Write the name
Q.11. What is colourblindness? Give brief description of in-
of any two disorders caused by sex-linked inheritance
heritance of colourblindness in humans. (2015)
in humans. (2020)
Ans. A colourblind person is unable to distinguish red and
Ans. Inheritance of some of the traits in humans is
green colour. It is a sex-linked recessive disorder. It
sex-linked, i. e., they are regulated by sex-
mostly affect males because of presence of only one
chromosomes. Such traits are known as sex-linked
X-chromosome.
traits, e. g. colour blindness and haemophilia.
Q.12. What is crossing over? (2017)
Q.22. What is Turner’s syndrome? (2020)
Ans. It is the process of exchange of chromosome segments
Ans. It is caused by the absence of one X-chromosome in
between two homologous chromosomes. It result in the
female. The females has 45 ( 44 + X ) chromosomes.
formation of recombinant chromosome during sexual
Uterus is less developed, short height and webbed neck
reproduction.
are the symptoms.
Q.13. Down’s syndrome is caused by increment in which pair
Q.23. What is parthenogenesis? Give one example. (2020)
of autosome? (2016)
Ans. The process of development of unfertilized egg into the
Ans. Down’s syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra
embryo is called parthenogenesis, e. g., honey bee.
copy of chromosome number 21 (trisomy of 21
Q.24. What is Mongolism? Who discovered it? (2020)
chromosome). Individuals suffering from Down’s
Ans. Down’s syndrome is called Mongolism. It is caused by
syndrome have 47-chromosomes.
the presence of an extra copy of chromosome number
 44

on 21th autosome, i. e., trisomy. In 1866 British Q.25. What is the chromosomal formula of Turner
physician John Langdon Down discovered the syndrome? (2020)
Mongolism. Ans. AAXO.

Short Answer Type Questions 2 & 3 Marks

Q. 1. State the principle of independent assortment? coded by genes. These proteins are of two types. ‘A’
Or Write a short not on the principle of Independent and ‘B’ are called antigens. Two antibodies, which can
Assortment. (2020) react with these antigens, occur in the blood plasma.
Ans. See the answer of Long answer question-4. These are ‘a’ and ‘b’. Antibody ‘a’ reacts with antigen
Q. 2. What is co-dominance? State one example in human? ‘A’ and renders it highly sticky. Similarly, the antibody
(2011, 18) ‘b’ reacts with antigen ‘B’ and renders it highly sticky.
Or Explain co-dominance with suitable example. Depending upon the distribution of above antigens and
(2019) antibodies, four types of ABO blood groups are found
Or What is co-dominance? Explain it with suitable in human beings—
example. (2020) Blood group Antigen Antibody
Ans. Co-dominance: Co-dominance shows deviations from 1. A ‘A’ ‘b’
Mendelism, i.e., do not follow Mendelian inheritance, 2. B ‘B’ ‘a’
“The type of inheritance where the two alleles of a
3. AB A and B None
character are equally dominant and exist
4. O None a&b
simultaneously is called co-dominance.”
e. g., A and B blood group genes in human beings are Q. 5. Discuss the Inheritance of ABO blood grouping?
co-dominant. When present separately these form (2009, 15)
blood group A and blood group B. But when present in Ans. Bernstein discovered that the ABO blood grouping is
heterozygous condition, they result in the formation of an inherited characteristic which involves three allelic
blood group AB. genes, I A , I B and I O . Genes I A and I B are both
genes for genes for
antigen ‘A’ antigen ‘B’ dominant on I O and codominant for each other. Genes
IAIA IBIB I A codes for synthesis of antigen A and gene I B codes
for antigen B. Gene I O being recessive, codes for no
IA IB .... gametes antigen.
A person can naturally inherit any two of the three
IA IB allelic genes. Thus six kinds of genotypic combination
and four types of phenotypes are possible.
Blood group AB
(heterozygous) IAIA, IAIO ¾¾® Blood group A
B B B O
Q. 3. What is multiple allelism? I I ,I I ¾¾® Blood group B
A B
Ans. Mostly the inheritance of character is depend only on I I ¾¾® Blood group AB
two allelomorphic forms. But there are certain cases, O O
I I ¾¾® Blood group O
where a character has more sharp allelomorphic forms Q.6. What is incomplete dominance? Give an example.
instead of two. Such alleles are called multiple alleles. (2017)
The inheritance of these alleles is called multiple Or What is incomplete dominance? Explain with
allelism. example. (2016, 18, 19)
e. g., Inheritance of ABO blood groups in Man. Ans. Such inheritance in which the effect of dominant allele
Inheritance of ABO blood groups in man is governed is diluted or modified so that the phenotypic expression
by 3 multiple genes or alleles. These are present on the of the concerned trait in a hybrid is distinguishable
long arm of chromosome 9. These are I A , I B and I O . from both parental types is called incomplete
Q. 4. Write short note on ABO blood group? (2015) dominance.
Ans. ABO blood groups: Karl Landsteiner discovered that e. g., In Mirabilis jalapa (4’O clock Plant) or in
ABO blood group are based upon the presence of Antirrhinum majus (Snapdragon), when a cross made
certain proteins in the plasma lamina of RBC and
 45

between pure white and red flowered plants all F1 Acquired characters: These characters which acquired
individuals have pink flower. by the individual during his life time are called
On selfing, these pink flowered F1 individuals acquired characters. e. g., muscles of wrestlers, dancer
produced red, pink and white flowered plants in 1:2:1 and driver, etc.
phenotypic ratio. Q.9. Mention the difference in homozygous and
Red White heterozygous? (2015)
RR rr Parental
plant Or What is meaning of homozygous and
heterozygous? (2010, 11, 15)
R R r r gametes Ans. Homozygous: When both genes of a single trait are
same or identical, the condition is called homozygous.
Plants with this traits are also called genetically pure.
e. g., Tall ® TT,
Rr Rr Rr Rr F1 generation
(Pink) (Pink) (Pink) (Pink) Red ® RR.
Pink Pink Heterozygous: When both genes of a single trait are
Rr Rr P1 plant different or non-identical the condition is called
heterozygous or genetically hybrid individual.
R r R r e. g., Hybrid tall ® Tt
gametes
Hybrid red ® Rr
Q.10. Explain the back cross and test cross? (2014, 17)
Or Differenfiate between test cross and back cross with
RR Rr Rr rr F2 generation the help of checker board. (2020)
(Pink) (Pink) (Pink) (White)
Ans. Back cross: To confirm the purity of unit factors, when
Red Pink White F1 hybrids crossed with either one of the parental types
Phenotypic ratio : ® 1 : 2 : 1 of plants. Such a cross is called a back cross.
Genotypic ratio : ® 1 : 2 : 1 e. g . , 1:
F1 Hybrid Dominant P
Q.7. Explain the chromosomal theory of inheritance?
Dd DD
Ans. This theory was proposed by Walter Sutton and
Theodor Boveri in 1902. According to this Mendelian
D d D D
factors are located on the chromosomes which show
segregation and independent assortment at the time of
D D
transmission from one generation to the next.
This theory states that : D DD DD
1. The gametes are the bridges between one d Dd Dd
generation to next generation.
2. The two type of gametes constitute equally in the e. g . , 2:
F1 Hybrid Recessive P
heredity of the offsprings.
Dd dd
3. Nucleus contains chromosomes that carry
hereditary information.
4. There are two chromosomes of each type in an D d d d
individual as Mendelian factors.
5. Both chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs d d
in the somatic or diploid cells. D Dd Dd
6. The paired condition of both chromosomes as
d dd dd
well as Mendelian factors is restored during
fertilization. Test cross: An individual showing the dominant
Q.8. Describe in short heredity and acquired characters? expression of a trait may be genotypically homozygous
(2017) (DD) or heterozygous (Dd) for this trait to determine its
Ans. Hereditary characters: These are the characters genotype back crossed with the recessive parental
transmitted from one generation to another e.g., hair genotype. This is called a test cross.
colour, skin colour, blood group, etc.
 46

e. g . , 1: Q. 13. Comment on sex influenced and sex limited traits.

Unknown genotype Recessive P (2018)
DD dd Ans. Sex influenced trait: Genes of these traits are located
on normal somatic chromosomes but these characters
D D d d Gamets are expressed separately in males and females because
their inheritance is dependent in sex of the individual.
D D e. g., Baldness in human.
Sex limited trait: Genes of these traits are located on
d Dd Dd All hybrid tall. autosomes but these are developed only in members of
d Dd Dd one sex.
e. g., Milk production always occur in female and beard
e. g . , 2:
grows only in men, never in women.
Unknown genotype Recessive P
Dd dd
Q. 14. A man with blood group ‘O’ marries a woman with
blood group ‘AB’. What would be the blood group of
their children? (2017)
D d d d
Ans. Phenotype Blood group ‘O’ Blood group ‘AB’
Genotype ii × IAIB
D d
Gametes i
d Dd dd 50% hybrid tall. IA IB
A B
50% homozygous I I
d Dd dd dwarf. F1-generation
i IAi IBi
Q.11. Comment on genotype and phenotype. (2010, 11, 18) (A) (B)
Ans. Genotype: The genetic configuration of an organism
Hence, offsprings will have either ‘A’ or ‘B’ blood
(in relation to the inheritance of characters) is called
group.
genotype.
e. g., DD, Dd and dd. Q. 15. A female with blood group O marries a man with blood
group ‘AB’. What can be the blood group types of
Phenotype: The outcome of the inheritance, which is
visible externally or morphologically, is called offsprings produced? Explain by sketch. (2010)
phenotype. Ans. Offspring of parent with blood group ‘O’ and ‘AB’ can
e. g., Tallness, dwarfness of plants. have blood group type A and B.
Female Male
Q.12. Why Mendel choose Pea plant as an experimental
IO IO IAIB
material?
Or Give the reasons for Mendel's success?
Ans. Mendel selected garden pea (Pisum sativum) for his
experiments because of following reasons :
1. Pea plant is a annual herb. IAIO IBIO IAIO IBIO
2. It is life span is completed in about 2-3 months. Inheritance of blood group ‘O’ and ‘AB’
3. It have more number of contrasting character.
Q. 16. Describe erythroblastosis foetalis. (2015)
4. Its gardening is easy to handle. - +
5. Pea plants are monoecious with bisexual flowers. Ans. Offsprings of RH female and RH male are RH
6. Flower structure is such that normally only self positive. Antibodies are formed against RH - antigen
pollination can occur. in female and because of its effect foetus dies either at
Reasons for Mendel’s success: the time of pregnancy or at the time of birth because
Rh-antibody causes agglutination of RBCs of foetus.
1. He performed all experiments with abrust care.
This symptom is called erythroblastosis foetalis. First
2. He continued his experiment up to several
child of such parent remains alive because antibodies
generations.
are present in less concentration. However, the second
3. He started his experiments with plants, having pregnancy is unable to proceed because foetal cells are
pure-line characters. not able to remain alive.
4. He carefully noted the results and analyzed them Q.17. Mention TH Morgan’s contribution in heredity in
statistically. brief. (2013)
5. He also used bagging methods to prevent Ans. TH Morgan did various experiments on Drosophila
self-pollination and other contaminations. melanogaster and proposed chromosomal theory of
inheritance.

Morgan performed many dihybrid crosses to study sex-
linked gene in Drosophila melanogaster, e.g., The
hybridised yellow-bodied and white-eyed females with
brown-bodied and red-eyed males. Dihybrid crosses
carried out in Drosophila did not resulted in 9 : 3 : 3 :1
ratio in F2 -generation, which Mendel observed in his
experiments on pea. So, Morgan classified that, few
genes present on a single chromosome inherit together,
these are called linked genes and the phenomenon is
called linkage.
Q. 18. A haemophilic male marries with a normal female.
Explain transmission of this disease in their offsprings
by sketch. (2015, 16)
Ans. Inheritance of haemophilia in a haemophilic male and
normal female: Marriage of a haemophilic male to a
normal female, will result in all normal sons but
females will be carrier of this disease.
Normal Haemophilic
XX XhY
XhX XY X hX XY
Carrier Normal Carrier Normal
daughter son daughter son
All daughters — Carriers
All sons — Normal
Q. 19. What are sex chromosomes? Explain their role in sex-
determination of human beings. (2018)
Ans. Sex chromosomes are those chromosomes which
determine whether the individual is male or female.
They are named as XY (in males) and XX (in females)
chromosomes or allosome. The human males have two
types of gametes, i. e., X and Y, while females have
only one pair of gametes, i. e., XX. If an ovum gets
fertilised with a sperm carrying X-chromosome, the
zygote develops into female (XX) and if an ovum
fertilises with sperm carrying Y- chromosome, then
zygote develops into male (XY).
Thus, in this way sex chromosomes play a significant
role in determining sex in humans.
Q. 20. Explain law of dominance of Mendel. (2018)
Ans. The law of dominance states that when a cross is made
between homozygous (pureline) individuals
considering contrasting traits of a simple character then
the trait that appears in F1 is dominant while other one
which hides is recessive. This law explains the
expression of one of the parental characters in the
monohybrid cross in F1 -generation and expression of
both characters in F2 -generation. Therefore, the
phenotypic ratio in F2 -generation is 3 :1.
Q.21. Write a short note on variation. (2018)
47
Ans. Variations : Offspring are not the carbon copies of
their parents. In fact no two organisms are exactly
similar. They have certain remarkable differences.
These differences are known as variations. Variations
include all changes in morphological, physiological
and behavioural characteristics (shape, size, colour,
relative position of body organs and habits etc).
Variations are the most important basis of organic
evolution because without change there can be no
possibility of evolution.
Kinds of variations: Broadly variations are of two
types :
1. Somatic or Somatogenic variations
(i) These variations are caused by the effects of
environmental factors on the body of the
organism.
(ii) These are confined only up to a particular
organism and lost with the death of the organism.
(iii) These variations do not play any significant role
from genetical and evolutionary points of view.
2. Germinal or Blastogenic or Genetical variations
(i) Germinal variations are produced due to the
changes in the germplasm of the organisms.
(ii) Since germ cells participate in gamete production
and their fusion (i.e., sexual reproduction), these
variations are also called genetical variations
because these are inheritable.
Q.22. Explain law of dominance and law of segregation using
a monohybrid cross. (2019)
Or Explain the Mendel’s law of dominance with the
help of line expression. (2020)
Or Explain the Mendel’s law of segregation giving
suitable example. (2020)
Ans. Law of dominance : This law states that when a cross
is made between homozygous (pureline) individuals
with contrasting traits of a character then the trait that
appears in F1 is dominant while other one is recessive.
This law explains the expression of one of the parental
characters in the monohybrid cross in F1 -generation
and expression of both characters in F2 -generation.
Therefore, the phenotypic ratio in F2 -generation is 3:1.
TT tt
Parents (Tall) (Dwarf)
Gametes T t
F1 Tt Selfing
Tt × Tt
TT Tt Tt tt Phenotypic ratio : 3:1
(Tall) (Tall) (Tall) (Dwarf) Genotypic ratio : 1:2:1
Law of Segregation : Due to differentiation or
comparative forms of a genetic trait, they remain pure
even when they are together. Due to which factors in
 48

the gametes are all pure. So, this is called law of purity Q.26. How is sex determined in human being? In society only
of gametes. ladies are held responsible for giving birth to female
For example, when F1 -hybrids are allowed to self- child. Why is this statement not correct? Explain it.
pollinate, then parental traits segregate in 3:1 ratio in (2019)
F2 -generation. So, contrasting traits of each allele, Or How is sex determined in human being? (2020)
transmit into different gametes by segregating from Ans. Sex determined in human being : Please see answer
each other during gamete formation. of L.A. question-5.
(Tall plant) × (Dwarf plant) Parents Women are not responsible for determination of the
TT tt
sex of a child. It is not appropriate to ill-treat a woman
Tt for giving birth to a girl child, as both males and
(Hybrid Tall) F1-generation
females are equally important for the balance of nature
Tt × Tt
and continuity of our species.
T t T t Gametes All human-beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes. A
human sperm (haploid) has 22 autosomes and one of
two types of sex chromosomes, i. e., either X or Y. On
TT Tt Tt tt F2-generation the contrary, human females have 22 autosomes that
ìï
ï
í
ïï
î

Pure Tall
(Hybrid Tall)
Pure Dwarf are exactly same as males and contain two X
Phenotypic ratio = 3:1 chromosomes. The sex of an individual is determined
Genotypic ratio = 1:2:1 by the type of sex chromosome (X or Y) contained by
The result clarifies that dwarf character which did not the sperm that fuses with the ovum.
express in F1 did not blend with tall character, but was If the fertilising sperm has an X chromosome, then the
hidden in F1 because of its recessiveness. Because of baby would be a female and if a sperm with Y
random fusion of factors at the time of gamete chromosome fuses with the ovum, it will develop into a
formation, some plants of F2 express dwarf character male child. Thus, males are responsible for
because of its pure form. determination of the sex of a child.
Q.23. Explain the following with examples : (2019) Q.27. What are genetic disorders? Describe the colour
(i) Co-dominance (ii) Incomplete dominance blindness. (2019)
Ans. (i) Co-dominance : Please see ans of Short answer Ans. Genetic disorders are inherited medical abnormalities
type question-2. caused by alteration in DNA chromosome.
(ii) Incomplete dominance : Please see ans of Short Colour blindness : Please see Long answer type
answer type question-6. question-3.
Q.24. First filial generation and second filial generation. Q.28. Explain pleiotropy and multiple inheritance. (2019)
(2019) Ans. Pleiotropy : It is the phenomenon in which a single
Ans. First filial generation or F1 is the generation of hybrids, gene product may produce multiple or more than one
phenotypic effect.
which are obtained from a cross between two
A pleiotropic gene often has a more evident effect on
genetically different parents.
one trait called the major effect and less evident effects
Second filial generation or F2 are the individuals
on other traits called secondary effects.
normally obtained after self-crossing the progeny
When a number of related changes are caused by a
obtained in F1 -generation.
pleiotropic gene, they are called syndrome.
RR rr
Parents For example : Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a defect in
(Red) (White)
which an individual lacks enzyme needed to change
Gametes R r phenylalanine to tyrosine in liver. This results in
multiple phenotypes including mental retardation,
F1 Rr × Rr eczema and pigment defects.
(Pink) Multiple or Polygenic Inheritance : The condition
Selfing where traits are controlled by three or more genes and
F2 Rr rr RR Rr the graded phenotypes are due to the additive or
(Pink) (White) (Red) (Pink) cumulative effect of all the different genes of the trait
Q.25. Explain sex determination in honeybees. (2019) e. g. human skin colour, height and intelligence.
Ans. Please see Long answer type question-2. Q.29. Differentiate between phenotype and genotype.
(2019)
 49

Ans. Difference between phenotype and genotype are given affected foetuses are themselves at risk for serious
in below table : pregnancy and delivery complications. Another
S.N Phenotype Genotype type of Alpha Thalassemia is Haemoglobin H
o. disease. There are varying degrees of
1. Phenotype is the Genotype is the Haemoglobin H disease.
morphological properties genetic makeup of an Q.32. Explain the following words with suitable examples.
and behaviour of an organism. (2020)
organism.
(i) Hybrid Vigour (ii) Incomplete dominance
2. It is not inherited by the It inherited by the Ans. (i) Hybrid vigour : Hybrid vigour is the increase in
offspring. offspring.
certain characteristics like growth rate, size,
3. It can be determined by It can be determined
observing outward by observing DNA by fertility, yield etc. of a particular hybrid organism
characters. genotyping methods. over its parents. Hybrid vigour is also known by
4. It depends on the It completely depends some other names, including heterosis and
genotype and on the gene sequences. inbreeding enhancement. Hybrid vigour occurs
environmental factors. because the hybrid offspring’s traits are enhanced
Q.30. Describe bee linkage and gene exchange. (2019) due to the mixing of genetic contributions of its
Ans. Bee Linkage and Gene exchange : In bee linkage parents.
(Drosophila), the linkage of genes on a chromosome is Hybrid vigour was first examined in a systematic
not altered and is inherited as such from generation to manner by legendary biologist and geologist
generation without any cross overs. This type of Charles Darwin. For example, when a male lion
linkage is called complete. Here the genes are closely mates with a female tiger, the resulting offspring
associated and tend to remain together. is a hybrid – a liger.
Gene exchange or Crossing over is the process that All in all, hybrid vigour can play a crucial role in
produces new combination of genes by interchanging agricultural practices. Many crops are planted to
the segments between non-sister chromatids of enhance the produce over open-pollinated
homologous chromosomes. varieties. In addition to that, hybrid vigour plays a
Q.31. Write a short note on : (2020) crucial role in evolution as well.
(i) Sickle cell anaemia (ii) Thalassemia (ii) Incomplete dominance : Please see the answer of
Ans. (i) Sickle cell anaemia : See the answer of Long Short answer type question-6.
answer question-1. Q.33. What is polygenic Inheritance? Explain it with suitable
(ii) Thalassemia : Thalassemia is a genetic blood examples. (2020)
disorder. People with Thalassemia disease are not Ans. Polygenic Inheritance : Polygenic inheritance, also
able to make enough haemoglobin, which causes known as quantitative inheritance, refers to a single
severe anemia. Haemoglobin is found in red blood inherited phenotypic trait that is controlled by two or
cells and carries oxygen to all parts of the body. more different genes.
When there is not enough haemoglobin in the red The traits that are determined by polygenic inheritance
blood cells, oxygen cannot get to all parts of the are not simply an effect of dominance and recessivity,
body. Organs then become starved for oxygen and and do not exhibit complete dominance as in
are unable to function properly. Mendelian Genetics, where one allele dominates or
There are two primary types of Thalassemia masks another. Instead, polygenic traits exhibit
disease: Alpha Thalassemia disease and Beta incomplete dominance so the phenotype displayed in
Thalassemia disease. Beta Thalassemia Major offspring is a mixture of the phenotypes displayed in
(also called Cooley's Anemia) is a serious illness. the parents. Each of the genes that contributes to a
Symptoms appear in the first two years of life and polygenic trait, has an equal influence and each of the
include paleness of the skin, poor appetite, alleles has an additive effect on the phenotype
irritability, and failure to grow. Proper treatment outcome.
includes routine blood transfusions and other Because of the inheritance mode patterns, the physical
therapies. traits that are controlled by polygenic inheritance, such
There are two main types of Alpha Thalassemia as hair colour, height and skin colour, as well as the
disease. Alpha Thalassemia Major is a very non-visible traits such as blood pressure, intelligence,
serious disease in which severe anemia begins autism and longevity, occur on a continuous gradient,
even before birth. Pregnant women carrying with many variations of quantifiable increments.
 50
Examples of Polygenic Inheritance
(i) Skin colour : The pigment melanin is responsible
for dark colouration in the skin and there are at
least three genes, which control for human skin
colour. Using a hypothetical example where the
production of melanin is controlled by
contributing alleles (denoted here as A, B and C),
resulting in dark skin colour, and therefore light
skin colour is produced by non contributing
alleles (denoted here as a, b and c), it is possible to
see how the spectrum of different skin colors can
result in the offspring.
It is important to remember here that in polygenic
inheritance, alleles do not display dominance over
others, rather, each contributing allele gives an
additive effect rather than a masking effect, and so
the way that the alleles interact is different to
those in Mendelian genetics. The additive effect
means that each contributing allele produces one
unit of colour.
(ii) Human height :Human height is an extremely
complex inheritance pattern as there are over 400
genes controlling for it, it is therefore extremely
difficult to predict the height that an offspring will
be; two short parents may produce a tall child,
whereas two tall parents can produce a short child
and parents with completely different heights may
produce a tall, short or intermediary child.
In addition, height is known as a multifactorial
trait, which means that the trait is influenced by
Long Answer Type Questions
Q.1. Write short notes on the following.
(i) Down's Syndrome (2011, 15, 18)
(ii) Turner's syndrome (2011)
(iii) Klinefelter's syndrome (2007)
(iv) Phanylketonuria (v) Sickle cell anaemia.
Ans. (i) Down's Syndrome: 21st pair of autosomes in
this syndrome has an additional chromosomes.
i.e., there are three homologous chromosomes
instead of two at this number, and the karyotype is
indicated by 2x+1(21)+47.
The phenotype of this syndrome is a
short-statured and feeble minded. Its head is small
and spherical, skin warty, tongue massive, digits
stubby, mouth always opened and eyelids folded
as in the Mongols. This syndrome is therefore,
also called Mangoloid Idiocy.
(ii) Turner's Syndrome: These syndromes inherit a
single X-chromosomes instead of two sex
multiple genes as well as being affected by the
environment. For example factors relating to
general health of a growing child such as access to
food and exposure to disease, could significantly
affect the final height of a person. A large majority
of our traits are multifactorial so it is often
difficult to assess the effect that single genes have
on a resulting phenotype.
Q.34. What is colour blindness? If a colourblind man marrie
with a normal woman, what proportion of the sons of
this couple will have normal vision? (2020)
Ans. Please see the answer of L.A. question-3.
Q.35. What is sex-linked inheritance? (2020)
Ans. Inheritance of some genetic characters is linked with
their sexes means genes controlling that specific traits
are located on sex-chromosomes, these types of
characters are called sex-linked characters and their
inheritance is called sex-linked inheritance. Humans
also have such characters whose genes are transferred
from generation to generation through linking with
sex-chromosomes.
Colour blindness and haemophilia are examples of
sex-linked inheritance in humans.
(i) Colour blindness : Please see the answer of L.A.
question-5.
(ii) Haemophilia : Please see the answer of L.A.
question-5.
5 Marks
chromosomes, i.e., these are monosomic for
sex-chromosomes (2X–1 or 2A+XO).
Its body is short-statured, chest is flat and broad,
neck is short and webbed, gonads absent and
accessory genital organs and external genitalia are
also poorly developed. Hence these syndromes
are sterile females.
(iii) Klinefelter’s Syndrome: These syndromes are
trisomics for sex chromosomes (2X+1) = 47.
Commonly, they inherit 2A + XXY
chromosomes. Their bodies are quite like normal
males but due to an extra dose of X-chromosomes
these syndromes are also remain sterile. Often
breast develop (gynaecomastio).
Persons inheriting XYY sex chromosomes
(supermales) are also known. These are fall, less
intelligent, very aggressive. Superfemales with
three, four or five X-chromosomes are also
known.

(iv) Phenylketonuria (PKU): It is a diseased
condition caused by a metabolic disorder
inherited as a recessive trait. The dominant gene
'P' in this case codes for the enzyme,
phenylalanine hydroxilase, formed in the liver
cells. This enzyme catalyses conversion of
phenylalanine to tyrosine.
In homozygous recessive genotypes, absence of
this enzyme causes a high level of phenylalanine
in blood and tissue fluid. The phenotypic
expresion is deterioration of CNS, possibility of
skin eczema and anomilies of teeth enamal and
bones.
(v) Sickle cell anaemia: It is a genetic disorder. In
sickle cell anaemia a change in shape of red blood
cells occurs in the venous blood. The oxygen
attaining property of these sickle shaped RBCs is
lower than normal RBCs so as a result the cell
may rupture and chronic haemolytic anaemia is
caused.
The gene for sickle cell erythrocytes is
represented by Hb S while that of normal
erythrocytes is written as Hb A . When two sickle
cell carriers, marry, they produce three types of
children- homozygous normal, heterozygous
carrier and homozygous sickle celled in the ratio
of 1:2:1.
Carrier woman Carrier man
HbA HbS HbA HbS
HbA HbS HbA HbS
HbA HbS
HbA HbAHbA HbA HbS
HbS HbAHbS HbS HbS
1 Normal : 2 Carrier : 1 sickle celled
Q.2. Write short note on the following :
(i) Twins
(ii) Sex determination in Honey bees. (2018)
Ans. (i) Twins: When two or more offspring are produced
from a same mother at a same time are called
twins. Twins are of following three types.
1. Fraternal twins: Such twins are formed by
simultaneous fertilization of different ova by
sperms. Hence, these are like normal
brothers and sisters and called dizygotic,
fraternal or non-identical twins. These vary
genetically and may be same or different
sexes.
2. Identical Twins: Sometimes, the two
blastomeres resulting from the first cleavage
51
of zygote completely separate from each
other and develop into independent embryos.
The twins, thus formed, are obviously similar
in genotype and sex, and hence called
identical or monozygotic.
3. Siamese twins: These are identical twins
which have failed to separate completely
from each other.
Sperm
Ova
Zygote
Embryonic
developement
Fraternal Identical Siamese
(Dizygotic) twins (Monozygotic) twins (Monozygotic) twins
Both boys or girls or one boy Both boys or girls Boys or girls
and one girl
(ii) Sex determination in honey bees: The
determination of sex in honey bee is different
from other animals. In this case the sex is
determined by the number of genomes. The
genome in honey bee contains 16 chromosomes.
This type of sex determination is also found in
wasp, ants and termites. Here, the female is
diploid while male is produced without
fertilization. i.e., direct from egg so they are
haploid.
This phenomenon of development of male
offspring directly from the egg is called as
arrhenotoky or haploid parthenogenesis. Most of
the females remain infertile and functioned as
workers, while only few females reproduce and
termed as queen. They get developed due to
feeding on royal jelly.
Q. 3. What do you mean by sex-linked characters? Discuss
its types and explain the inheritance of colour
blindness with example. (2016, 18)
Or What is inheritance of sex linked traits? Explain any
one type of sex-linked inheritance in humans by
sketch. (2011, 13, 14)
Ans. Sex Linked Characters: The genes of some non-sex
characteristics are located on sex chromosomes. These
genes are called sex-linked genes and characteristics
that carried by such genes are called sex-linked traits or
characters.
The inheritance of these character is called sex-linked
inheritance.
52
Types of sex-linked characters: The non-sex,
sex-linked characteristics are divisible into three
categories.
(i) X-Linked: Those whose genes are located in the
differential segments of X-chromosomes are
known as X-linked characters. Alleles of these
genes never occur in Y-chromosomes. Sons can
receive these genes only from mothers, whereas
daughter can receive these both from parents.
e. g., Colourblindness and Haemophilia.
(ii) Y-Linked: Those whose genes are located on the
differential segments of Y chromosomes, are
called Y linked characters. These genes are
transmitted only by father to their sons.
e. g., Hypertrichosis (Presence of long and thick
hairs on ear pinnae).
(iii) XY- Linked: Those whose genes are located as
alleles in pairing segments of X and Y
chromosomes are called Y-linked characters.
e. g., Total colourblindness and Nephritis.
Colourblindness: Colourblind phenotypes fails to
distinguish red and green colours. Hence this effect is
also called red-green defect or proton defect. A colour
blind person cannot become a driver, decorator, painter
designer, etc.
Inheritance of colourblindness: The genes of
colourblindness are located only on X-sex
chromosomes. It never found on Y-chromosomes. The
genotype of female is XX, while males have XY. Its
inheritance takes place by a recessive genes ( X C ). The
normal X-chromosome acts as a dominant gene. So it is
clear that a female will be colourblind only when its
both genes are recessive, otherwise it acts as a carrier.
But males get colourblind only by one recessive ( X C )
gene.
e. g., (i) A cross between a colourblind man and
homozygous normal woman produces normal sons and
heterozygous ( carrier) normal daughters.
Colourblind man Homozygous
(normal) woman
X CY
XX
XC Y contrasting characters, the separation of one pair of
X X
X CX XCX XY XY
Normal
sons
(50%)
(ii) A cross between carrier mother and normal father:
About 50% sons will colourblind and 50% will
normal. 50% daughters will be carrier of such
genes and 50% will be normal.
Carrier woman
Normal man
XY XCX
X Y XC X
XCX XX XCY XY
X CX — Carrier daughter (25%)
XX — Normal daughter (25%)
X CY — Colourblind son (25%)
XY — Normal son (25%)
Q. 4. Describe Mendel’s principle of inheritance based on
dihybrid cross. (2013)
Or What is genetics? Explain Mendel’s law of segreg-
ation and law of independent assortment. (2017)
Or Describe Mendel’s law of independent assortment.
Give its confirmation by making sketch. (2011, 13)
Ans. Genetics is the study of hereditary traits in different
organisms.
When a cross is done between two pairs of characters it
is called a dihybrid cross. Mendel crossed round-
yellow seed variety of plants to wrinkled-green seed of
variety plants then all plants in F1 were of round and
yellow seed variety.
F1 plants resulted in round-yellow, round-green
wrinkled-yellow and wrinkled-green seeds in the
9 : 3 : 3 :1. In this way independent expression of traits
was described by Mendel’s law of independent
assortment.
Law of Independent assortment : According to this
law when a cross is made between two pairs of
charactes is independent of separation of other
contrasting pairs of characters.
The law of independent assortment is studied on the
basis of two gene inheritance, i. e., crossing pea plants
with two different factors.
 53

RRYY X rryy Parental generation Female Male

(Round yellow (Wrinkled green
XX XY
seeds) seeds)

RrYy
(Round yellow seeds)
F1-generation X egg X X sperm Y
Gamete

Self-pollination
Gamete XX XY XX XY
RY Ry rY ry
Daughter Son Daughter Son
RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy
RY (Round yellow) (Round yellow) (Round yellow) (Round yellow) Or
RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy Criss-Cross Inheritance: The type of inheritance of
Ry (Round yellow) (Round green) (Round yellow) (Round green)
recessive sex linked character from father to daughter
RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy
rY (Round yellow) (Round yellow) (Wrinkled yellow) (Wrinkled yellow) and then to her sons is called criss-cross inheritance.
RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy Inheritance of some genetic characters is linked with
ry
(Round yellow) (Round green) (Wrinkled yellow) (Wrinkled green) their sexes means genes controlling that specific traits
are located on sex-chromosomes, these types of
Phenotypic ratio: Round : Round : Wrinkled : Wrinkled characters are called sex-linked characters and their
Yellow Green Yellow Green inheritance is called sex-linked inheritance.
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 Humans also have such characters whose genes are
Genotypic ratio: 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 transferred from generation to generation through
Q. 5. What do you understand by sex determination? Explain linking with sex-chromosomes.
it with the help of diagram in man. (2019) Haemophilia and colourblindness are two examples of
Or What do you understand by criss-cross inheritance? sex-linked inheritance in humans.
Write two examples of recessive X-linked characters 1. Haemophilia : It is also known as bleeder’s
and explain inheritance of any one with the help of disease. Person suffering from this disorder is not
diagram. able to form clot when gets wounded. So,
Ans. Sex determination : Sex determination is a process of continuous bleeding causes death of the person.
development by which the sex of an individual is This disorder is because of X-linked recessive
settled. Sex is a method of reproduction which is gene. If a haemophilic male marries a normal
widespread among living things. It requires two female, all of the daughters in the progeny will be
individuals of the same species. carrier and all sons will be normal.
Method of sex determination in Human : Human (Haemophilic male) (Normal female)
females have two X-chromosomes and males have one XhY × XX
X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome.
All the eggs formed in females after oogenesis have Xh Y X X
one haploid set of autosomes and one set of
X-chromosomes (A+X). So, all the eggs are similar.
That is why females are called homogametic sex. XhX XhX XY XY
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î

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The sperm formed in males after spermatogenesis have
one haploid set of autosomes and one set of
X-chromosomes, while some other sperms have one
set of autosomes and other of Y-chromosomes (A+X or
A+Y). So, two types of sperms are formed.
50% sperms are (A+X) and remaining 50% sperms are
(A+Y) that is why males are called heterogametic sex.
At the time of fertilisation, if (A+Y) sperm
consolidates with the egg, it produces a male child. If
egg consolidates with (A+X) sperm, it produces female
child.
(Carrier daughters)
(Normal sons)
2. Colourblindness : Person suffering from this
disorder is not able to distinguish red and green
colours. Gene controlling colourblindness is
located on X-chromosome and is recessive.
For example, when a colourblind female marries a
normal male then progeny will have a colourblind
males and females will be carrier of disorder.
 54

(Colourblind female) (Normal male) Ans. Inheritance : The process by which character pass
XCXC × XY from one generation to the next is called inheritance.
The study of hereditary traits in different organisms is
XC XC X Y
called genetics.
Mendel’s law of independent assortment : Please see
XCX XCX
Long answer type question-4.
XCY XCY
ì
ï
ï
í
ï
ï
î
Q. 8. What do you mean by genetical disorder? Differentiate

ì
ï
ï
í
ï
ï
î
(Carrier daughters) (Colourblind sons)
between sex limited and sex influenced genes.
Q. 6. What is sex determination? Describe the mechanism of Comment upon haemophilia. (2019)
sex determination in humans and honey bees. Ans. Genetic disorders are the abnormalities caused due to
(2019, 20) the absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one
Ans. Sex determination and mechanism of sex or more chromosomes. These disorder are not inherited
determination in human being : See answer of Long like Mendelian traits.
answer question-5. Differentiate between sex limited and sex influenced
Sex determination in honey bees : See Answer of genes : Please see Short answer type Q. 13.
L.A. question-2. Haemophilia : Please see Long answer type
Q.7. Define inheritance. Describe Mendel’s law of question-5.
independent assortment. (2019)

NCERT Fully Solved Exercise

Q.1 Mention the advantages of selecting pea plant for
experiment by Mendel.
Ans. Mendel selected Garden pea (Pisum sativum) for his
experiments because of following advantages :
— Short life span.
— Bisexual nature of flower.
— Suitable structure and shape of flower for
cross-pollination.
— More number of contrasting characters.
— Self-fertilisation could easily be controlled.
Q.2 Differentiate between the following :
(a) Dominance and Recessive
(b) Homozygous and Heterozygous
(c) Monohybrid and Dihybrid.
Ans. (a) Dominance and Recessive : When two factors of
a pair are in heterozygous condition, then only
one factor is able to express itself, while other one
remains hidden. The factor, which is able to
express itself, is called dominant factor while the
other factor is called recessive factor.
(b) Homozygous and Heterozygous : When (in
genotype of a diploid cell), both alleles (factors)
of a character are exactly similar, then such a
condition is called homozygous condition. On the
other hand, if two alleles (factors) of a character
are not similar (and represent different
allelomorphic character) then such a condition is
called heterozygous condition.
(c) Monohybrid and Dihybrid : If in a cross, only
one character is considered at a time for analysis,
the cross is called a monohybrid cross. On the
other hand if two characters are considered
simultaneously, the cross is called as dihybrid
cross.
Q.3 A diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci, how
many types of gametes can be produced?
Ans. 16 types of gametes can be produced.
Q.4 Explain the Law of Dominance using a monohybrid
cross.
Ans. Please see the answer of S.A. type question-22.
Q.5 Define and design a test-cross.
Ans. A test cross is a back cross, which involves the cross
between F1 offspring with homozygous recessive
(double recessive) parent. The test cross is used to
determine the homozygous or heterozygous nature of
the F1 offspring. For figure refer Q.No. 10 (SA).
Q.6 Using a Punnett Square, workout the distribution of
phenotypic features in the first filial generation after a
cross between a homozygous female and a
heterozygous male for a single locus.
Ans. In this case, the female is AA while male is Aa. A cross
between them gives following genotypes in F1 (first
filial) generation :
AA, Aa, AA, Aa, i.e., phenotypically all are dominant.
A Punnett square distribution will be :

Q.7 When a cross is made between tall plant with yellow
seeds (TtYy) and tall plant with green seed (Ttyy),
what proportions of phenotype in the offspring could
be expected to be : (2020)
(a) tall and green
(b) dwarf and green
Ans. Tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) forms following
four types of gametes :
TY , T y , tY and ty
Tall plant with green seed (Ttyy) forms following two
types of gametes :
T y and ty
A cross between these plants gives following results :
In this way out of a total of 8 plants —
(a) Tall and green plants are 3, i.e., 3/8
(b) Dwarf and green 1, i.e., 1/8.
Q.8 Two heterozygous parents are crossed. If the two loci
are linked, what would be the distribution of
phenotypic features in F1 generation for a dihybrid
cross?
Ans. If the two loci are linked completely, the phenotypic
features in F1 generation for a dihybrid cross would be
the same as that of parents. But if the two loci are linked
partially, the phenotypic features in F1 generation for a
dihybrid cross would have parental types as well as
recombinant types. The ratio between parental types
and the recombinant types would depend upon the
strength of linkage, i.e., more the linkage, more would
be the parental types.
Q.9 Briefly mention the contribution of T.H. Morgan in
genetics.
Ans. T. H. Morgan was one of the supporters of Batson and
Punnett’s concept of linkage (Coupling and repulsion).
He provided experimental support to the theory of
linkage. He especially mentioned about the sex linkage
in fruit flies, Drosophila malanogaster.
55
Q.10 How is sex determined in human beings?
Ans. Please see answer of L.A. type question-5.
Q.11 A child has blood group O. If the father has blood
group A and mother blood group B, work out the
genotypes of the parents and the possible genotypes of
the other offsprings.
Ans. For blood group O, only one genotype is possible—
I O I O . So, both parents must contain one I O allele. So,
possible genotypes of the parents must be I O I A and I O
I B.
Parents with such genotypes can produce offsprings
with all types of blood groups.
Q.12 Explain the following terms with example :
(a) Co-dominance.
(b) Incomplete dominance.
Ans. (a) Co-dominance : The type of inheritance where
the two alleles of a character are equally dominant
and exist simultaneously is called co-dominance.
(b) Incomplete dominance : The type of inheritance
where the two alleles of a character interact in
such a way, so as to cause the blending of the
character is called incomplete dominance (or
blending inheritance).
Q.13 What is point mutation? Give one example.
Ans. Point mutations are the changes, which affect a very
specific portion of the DNA (gene) such as a
nucleotide. These mutations therefore directly
influence the nature and functioning of the genes.
Since genes carry genetic information in the form of
genetic codes, any change in the nucleotide sequence
and nature can affect the expression of gene adversely.
Q.14 What are mutations?
Ans. These are sudden and random changes in the genetic
material of an organism.
Q.15 Who had proposed the chromosomal theory of the
inheritance? What are the important features of this
theory? (2020)
Ans. Refer Q.No. 7 (SA).
Q.16 Mention any two autosomal genetic disorders with
their symptoms.
Ans. The two genetic disorders are :
(a) Down’s syndrome : This is due to trisomy of 21st
pair of chromosome. The affected person has
large, round face and is mentally retarded.
(b) Sickle cell anaemia : This is due to the formation
of abnormal haemoglobin. The RBCs of the
person becomes sickle shaped and have very
small amount of haemoglobin.
ccc
 56
Chapter
6 MOLECULAR BASIS
² Base pairs: A set of two bonded nucleotides on opposite
strands of DNA. There are two possible base pairs: C-G and A-T.
² DNA polymerase: An enzyme which repairs DNA by
facilitating the formation of hydrogen bond between a
nucleotide on a broken piece of DNA, such as a nicked or
single-stranded piece of DNA as created in the laboratory, and
the individual nucleotide it needs to form a complete and stable
base pair.
² Homology: The degree to which two pieces of DNA match, or
complement each other (two pieces of DNA are complementary
if their respective nucleotides, in their current order, match C to
G and A to T). If one piece of DNA is 100% complementary to
another piece of DNA, they demonstrate very high homology; if
the pieces are only able to form a handful of base pairs between
their corresponding nucleotides, they demonstrate very low
homology.
² Hybridization reaction: A process in which a probe binds to
a Southern blot if the probe’s DNA sequence and the DNA on the
Southern blot match.
² Probe: A radioactive strand of DNA often used to find
particular sequences in a Southern blot.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q. 1. The DNA, which was described by Watson, Crick and
Wilkins was:
(a) A-DNA (b) B-DNA
(c) Z-DNA (d) C-DNA
Q. 2. Jumping genes are also called:
(a) Oncogenes (b) Transpozons
(c) Pseudo genes (d) Chimera
Q. 3. Molecular scissors are:
(a) Restriction endonuclease
(b) Exonuclease
(c) Lipase
(d) RNA polymerase
Q. 4. Transformation was discovered by :
OF INHERITANCE
² Restriction enzyme: An enzyme normally found in bacteria
which cuts DNA at specific sites (i.e., each time a specific
nucleotide pattern occurs). Because a restriction enzyme always
acts upon DNA in the same manner, a map can be made of a
restriction enzymes actions on a known set of nucleotides.
² VNTR: The DNA of a person contains specific short sequences
of nucleotides, which are repeated throughout the length of the
DNA molecule. These nucleotide repeats are called VNTRs
(Variable Number of Tandem repeats).
² PCR: PCR (polymerase chain reaction) is a technique, with the
help of which a small amount of DNA can be amplified (i.e.,
multiple copies can be obtained).
² Transcription: The process of formation of RNA from a DNA
piece is called transcription. This process is the first step in the
synthesis of a protein.
² Translation: The process fo actual assembling of amino acids
on a ribosome, to synthesise a polypeptide chain is called
translation.
² Bioinformatics: It is a new area of study which involves the
use of living material such as DNA and proteins, for data
management.
1 Mark
(a) Meselson and Stahl
(b) Hershey and Chase
(c) Griffith
(d) Watson and Crick
Q. 5. Okazaki fragments are synthesized on :
(a) both leading and lagging strands of DNA
(b) leading strand of DNA only
(c) lagging strand of DNA only
(d) complementary DNA
Q. 6. Which one of the following has dual functions, it codes
for methionine and also act as initiator codon?
(a) AUG (b) AUC
(c) ACU (d) ACA
 57

Q. 7. Messenger RNA is produced in : (2017) (c) Discovery of DNA

(a) Nucleus (d) Discovery of DNA ligase enzyme
(b) Ribosome Q. 9. Which of the following is initiating codon? (2014)
(c) Golgi body (a) AUG (b) AUU
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) UAG (d) UUU
Q. 8. Har Gobind Khorana is known for : (2015, 17) Q.10. Displacement of thymine in RNA by : (2018)
(a) Protein synthesis (a) Guanine (b) Uracil
(b) Discovery of RNA (c) Cytosine (d) Adenine
Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. What are the Okazaki fragments?
Or What are Okazaki fragments? Which enzyme
participate in their joining? (2019)
Ans. In 1968 Reiji Okazaki discovered that the new DNA
strand is synthesized in small separate pieces or
fragments which are later joined with each other by
DNA ligase enzyme. The fragments which are joined
to form it were later name Okazaki fragments.
Q. 2. What are initiation codon and termination codon?
(2017)
Or Name of the initiation and termination codons in
protein synthesis. (2018)
Ans. Initiation codon – AUG
Termination codon – UGA, UAA and UAG
Q. 3. What are housekeeping genes?
Ans. Such genes of a gene pool which direct the synthesis of
proteins or RNA of similar characters in all cells of an
organism according to species are called housekeeping
genes.
Q. 4. What is translation?
Ans. The polymerization of amino acid to form polypeptide
with the help of mRNA, ribosome, and tRNA is called
translation.
Q. 5. Define an anti-codon?
Ans. The triplet base present on the tRNA which is
complementary to codon on mRNA is called
anti-codon.
Q. 6. What do you mean by non-sense codon?
Ans. The codon which do not code for any amino acid and
leads to termination of translation process is called
non-sense codon. These are UAA, UAG and UGA.
Q. 7. Who proposed the operon concept?
Ans. Jacob and Monod.
Q.8. What is monocistronic mRNA.
Ans. mRNA that contains information for the formation of
only one polypeptide chain is called monocistronic
mRNA.
Q. 9. What is genetic code? (2016)
Ans. It is the sequence of base triplet in a DNA molecule
which determines a polypeptide.
Q.10. Describe the difference between prokaryotic and
eukaryotic DNA. (2012, 17)
Ans. Histone proteins are not associated with prokaryotic
DNA, whereas histones proteins are associated with
eukaryotic DNA. Prokaryotic DNA is circular in shap,
whereas eukaryotic DNA is linear.
Q.11. Write the functional unit of gene. (2013)
Ans. The functional unit of the gene is called cistron.
Q.12. Write the definition of genome. (2017)
Or Define the genome. (2019)
Ans. A haploid set of chromosome found in the organisms,
which is inherited by the gametes, is called genome.
Q.13. Write difference between nucleoside and nucleotides.
(2010, 14)
Ans. Nucleotide is a complete unit of nucleic acid, whereas
nucleoside lack a phosphate molecule. Nucleotides are
acidic and nucleosides are basic.
Q.14. Who proposed the famous double stranded helical
structure of DNA. (2011)
Ans. James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953.
Q.15. Name the enzyme that Joins the fragments of DNA
during replication. (2018)
Ans. Ligase
Q.16. How many nucleotide units in DNA? (2018)
Ans. Four or Infinitine.
Q.17. Who identified first the DNA as an acidic substance
present in nucleus ? (2019)
Ans. Friedrich Meischer identified first that DNA is an
acidic substance present in the nucleus.
Q.18. Which enzyme participate in the formation of DNA
from DNA? (2019)
Ans. DNA polymerase enzyme.
 58

NH2
Q.19. Draw diagram of any two nucleotides of DNA. (2019)
O O N
O H— N
N (ii) O—P—O
H— NH – CH2 N N
Ans. (i) O—P—O O O H
– CH2 N N NH2
O O
H H H H
H H H
OH H
OH H Q.20. Which enzyme cut to DNA at specific site? (2020)
Ans. Restriction endonuclease enzyme.
Q.21. Give two chemical difference between DNA and RNA.
(2020)
Ans. Please see the answer Short Answer Type question-8.
Q.22. Define the term promoter. (2020)
Ans. Please see the answer of Q-11 of NCERT exercise.

Short Answer Type Questions 2 & 3 Marks

Q.1. Give the applications of DNA fingerprinting? after exposer to the DNA of another genotype is called
(2016, 17) Griffith's effect or transformation.
Or DNA is a genetic material. Discuss. (2019) Biochemical explanation of Griffith's experiment was
Ans. DNA fingerprinting is being used for a wide variety of given by three scientists Oswald Avery, Colin
purposes, the most common of which are convicting MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty in 1944. They purified
criminals and freeing the innocent. It is also used to proteins, DNA and RNA from the heat killed S cells to
solve the paternity disputes. This technique is also used see which ones could transform live R cells into
for determining population and genetic diversities. It is S-cells. They discovered that DNA alone from S
used to identify the social groups origin, historical bacterium caused R bacteria to become transformed.
migrations and invasions. Injected into
Q.2. Why is DNA regarded as the genetic material explain?
(2015) Mouse dies
Ans. Initially, most biologists through that protein was the S-strain Bacterial
genetic material. Over a period of roughly 25 years culture S-strain recovered
Mouse
(1928-1952) the geneticists become convinced that
DNA was the genetic material, not protein. The most
conclusive evidences in support of DNA as the genetic Mouse survives
material comes from the following experiments. R-strain
Bacterial
Transformation experiment of Griffith: 1928, a culture Mouse S-strain not found
British medical officer named Fredrick Griffith
published an important paper on Streptococcus
pneumonia a bacterium that causes pneumonia in Heat killed Mouse survives
S
humans and other mammals. He prepared the two
S-strain
strains of these bacterium ‘S’ strain (pathogenic) ‘R’
Mouse S-strain not found
strain (non- pathogenic).
In his experiment Griffith injects these strains of mice
as follows—
R-strain
1. 'S' strain ¾® Injects into mice ¾® mice die
Mouse dies
2. 'R' strain ¾® Injects into mice ¾® mice live Heat killed
S
3. 'S' strain (heat killed) ¾® Injects into mice
¾® mice live S-strain S-strain not
Mouse recovered
4. 'S' strain (heat killed) + R strain live
Fig. Griffith’s transformation experiment
¾® Injects into mice ¾® mice die
In Griffiths fourth experiment, he showed that the Q.3. Name the different types of RNA molecules, taking
strain R bacteria had absorbed DNA from the heat part in protein synthesis? (2017, 18)
killed strain 'S' bacteria, causing the genotype of the Or How many types of RNA are found on the basis of
bacteria to change. A change in the genotype of cell function?

Or Write the name of three type RNA found in cell and
give the function each of them. (2020)
Ans. For protein synthesis there are three types of RNA
molecules are found in a cell.
1. Ribosomal RNA (r-RNA): These are structural
components of ribosomes. These constitute about
80% of the total RNA pool of cells. Ribosomes are
super molecular complexes whose 65% mass
consists of RNAs and 35% of proteins.
Function: Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) molecules
form the core of a cell’s ribosomes (the structures
in which protein synthesis take place).
2. Messenger RNA (m-RNA) : These are the only
RNAs which actually translate genetic
informations into proteins. In 1961, Francis Jacob
& Monod named these molecules as messenger
RNA. In the cytoplasm mRNA molecules become
attached to ribosomes and serve as templates.
mRNA molecules are rapidly degraded after
protein synthesis. And constitute about 2% of the
total RNA pool of cells.
Function: Messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules
carry the coding sequence for protein synthesis
and are called transcripts.
3. Transfer RNA (t-RNA): t-RNA, often called
soluble RNA (sRNA), constitute about16 to 18%
of the total RNA pool of cells. These are relatively
small with 73-94 ribonucleotide residues. They
transfer the amino acids from cytosol to the
ribosomes.
Function: Transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules carry
amino acids to the ribosomes during protein
synthesis.
Q.4. What is genetic code? Write any four characteristics of
it. (2020)
Ans. Genetic code is that sequence of nitrogenous bases
present in mRNA, where information regarding protein
synthesis is stored. 1961 regarding protein synthesis is
stored. 1961 Francis Crick and Sydney Benner
provided the proof that genetic information of each
amino acid is encoded in a specific sequence of three
successive nucleotides, forming a triplet code, called
“codon”. Thus a codon is the smallest unit of genetic
information.
Features of Genetic codon:
1. Genetic codes are the nucleotide triplets. 2. Genetic
codes are universal. 3. Genetic codes are linearly
arranged and non-overlapping. 4. Genetic codes are
unambigous. 5. Genetic codes are degenerate. 6. Genetic
codes are comma-less.
Q.5. Explain the chargaff's rule in brief? (2009, 12)
59
Ans. Chargaff proposed following conclusions after
studying DNA of various organisms.
(i) Amount of purine and pyrimidine bases is equal in
all DNAs.
A + G = T + C.
(ii) Number of adenine remains equal to the number
of thymine and cytosine remains equal to guanine.
A = T and C = G
(iii) Adenine + Thymine and Guanine + Cytosine ratio
is different in different species but some in
common species.
Q. 6. Differentiate between leading and lagging strands of
parental DNA?
Ans.
Leading strand Lagging strand
1. This strands lies in the This strand lies in opposite
correct direction for directions.
replication.
2. Synthesis on this strand is The synthesis on this strand
continuous. is discontinuous.
3. Synthesis on this strand A large number of primers
needs a single primer. are required.
4. The direction of growth of Direction of growth of
daughter DNA is 5'–3'. daughter strand is from 3'
to 5'.
It was discovered by Alac Jeffrey's et al. in 1995. Prof.
Lalji Singh is considered as father of Indian DNA
fingerprinting. It is technique used for identification of
individual on the basis of their DNA profile. It is
popularly known as DNA profiling or DNA typing.
As we know that 99.9% of base sequence is the same.
Only 0.5% difference in sequence of DNA which make
every individual unique. It is a very quick way to
compare the DNA sequence of any two individuals.
This process involves identifying differences in some
specific regions in DNA sequence called repetitive
DNA or mini-satellite or Variable Number Tandon
Report (VNTR). These sequence show high degree of
polymorphism and form a basis of DNA finger
printing.
Technique of DNA profiling
(i) Source of DNA : WBCs, blood, saliva, semen,
vaginal swabs, skin cells, hair roots etc. are used
as source of DNA for DNA printing.
(ii) Isolation of DNA : DNA source is exposed to high
speed refrigerated ultracentrifugation. It separates
the nuclei and breaks the same to release DNA.
(iii) Amplification of Isolated DNA : The amount of
DNA is small so the extract is amplified through
polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
(iv) Digestion of DNA By R.E.: With the help of
restriction endonuclease enzyme DNA is cut to
separate VNTRs.
 60

(v) Separation of DNA Fragments by Electrophoresis : 1. It is dark in colour when It is light in colour when
The fragments DNA is exposed to electrophoresis stained with chromosomal stained with chromosomal
stains. stains. Thus, it is not
over agarose gel. It separates DNA fragments. visible under microscope.
The separated DNA segments (VNTRs) are also
2. This is condensed part of This is loose part of chro-
known as restriction fragment length chromosome which is mosome means less cond-
polymorphism (RELP). present all around nucleus. ensed in comparison to
(vi) Single stranded DNA : VNTRs are treated with chromosomes of the cell.
alkaline chemicals to split them into ss-DNA. 3. DNA replication occurs DNA replication occurs
(vii) Southern Blotting : VNTRs are now transferred to late in heterochromatin. soon. So, genes are very
So, its genes are always active.
synthetic membrane of nitrocellulose or nylon inactive.
placed over the gel.
4. This part is inactive for This part is active for
Q.7. What is deoxyribose sugar? Make molecular structure transcription. transcription.
of this sugar. (2012, 14)
Q.10. Write differences between prokaryotic DNA and
Ans. This sugar is found in DNA. It contains 5 carbons. It’s
eukaryotic DNA.
fifth carbon molecule is out of the ring. It’s first carbon
molecule is always attached with nitrogenous base by Ans. Prokaryotic DNA Eukaryotic DNA
glycosidic bond. Third and fifth carbon are attached 1. Amount of DNA is very Amount of DNA is very
with phosphate molecule. Two sugars are attached less (low C-value). high.
with each other with phosphodiester bond between 2. DNA is not present in DNA is enclosed within
third and fifth carbon with phosphate molecules. nucleus or any organelle. nucleus.
5 3. DNA lies in the DNA lies in nucleoplasm
HOCH2C O OH cytoplasm. (not in cytoplasm).
4 1 4. DNA is not associated DNA is associated firmly
HH H H with histone proteins. with histone proteins.
3 2 5. Single molecule of DNA Several molecules of
OH H is present. DNA are present.
Q.8. Write the difference between DNA and RNA. Q.11. Define following :
(2010, 11, 12, 13, 14, 17) (i) Jumping gene (2010)
Or Write any six difference between DNA and RNA. (ii) Operon (2009, 10)
(2019) (iii) Exon and intron (2009)
Ans. The differences between DNA and RNA are as follow: Ans. (i) Jumping gene : Some genes change their
DNA RNA location in the DNA of the eukaryotic cell. These
are called jumping genes. Dr. Barbara
1. It is mainly found in It is mainly found in
nucleus. cytoplasm. McClintock (1950) discovered jumping gene in
2. In this, polynucleotide It is usually linear.
maize plant.
chains are found in the (ii) Operon : A group of closely placed structural
coiling state. genes and related genes is called operon.
3. Pentose sugar is in Pentose sugar is in ribose Operon = Regulatory gene + Promoter gene
deoxyribose form. form. + Operator gene + Structural gene.
4. Thymine base is present Uracil base is present and (iii) Exon and Intron : Active regions of DNA in
and uracil is absent thymine is absent. eukaryotic cells that contain codes for protein, are
5. It is the universal genetic It is the genetic material in called exon whereas inactive regions of DNA
material. some viruses. which do not contain any codes are called introns.
6. In all organisms, DNA is In most organism, RNA is Q.12. Draw labelled diagram of a nucleosome and name the
identical and similar. found in three forms— protein associated with it. (2019)
mRNA, tRNA and rRNA. DNA H1 histone

Q.9. Differenciate between Euchromatin and

heterochromatin. (2010)
Histone octamer
Ans. Following are differences between euchromatin and Ans.
heterochromatin.
Heterochromatin Euchromatin Core of histone
molecules Nucleosome
 61

The nucleosome is made up of four types of proteins Ans. A nucleotide (DNA/RNA) is composed of a
H 2 A, H 2 B, H 3 and H 4 occurring in pairs. nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and a phosphate
Q.13. How did Hershey and Chase prove that DNA is the group.
genetic material? (2019) â There are two types of nitrogenous bases purines
Or DNA is a genetic material : Prove it with (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (cytosine,
experiment. (2020) uracil and thymine). Cytosine is common for both
Ans. Hershey and Chase experiment: DNA and RNA, while thymine is present in DNA
(i) They grew some bacteriophages on a medium that and uracil is present in RNA in place of thymine.
contained radioactive phosphorus and some in â Ribose sugar is present in RNA and Deoxyribose
another medium that contained radioactive sugar is present in DNA.
sulphur. â A nucleotide (deoxynucleotide) is formed,
(ii) Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive depending upon the type of sugar present when a
phosphorus contained radioactive DNA, but not phosphate is linked at 5¢OH of nucleoside through
radioactive protein as phosphorus is present only phosphodiester linkage. Nucleotides joining through
in DNA. a 3¢ - 5¢ phosphodiester linkage may join to from a
(iii) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained polynucleotide chain.
radioactive protein, but not radioactive DNA â In RNA, there is an additional —OH group at 2¢
because DNA does not contain sulphur. position in the ribose of every nucleotide residue.
(iv) It was found that bacteria which were infected Q.16. On which basis an RNA is called messenger RNA or
with bacteriophages that had radioactive DNA transfer RNA? Explain. (2019)
were radioactive, indicating that DNA was the Ans. The RNA molecule is mainly of three types, i. e.,
material that passed from the virus to the bacteria. mRNA, tRNA and rRNA. Out of these, mRNA or
(v) Bacteria that were infected with viruses that had messenger RNA brings instructions from the DNA for
radioactive proteins were not radioactive. This the formation of particular type of polynucleotide.
indicated that proteins did not enter the bacteria The mRNA molecule contains cap region (controls the
from the viruses. rate of protein synthesis), non-coding region-1, coding
(vi) This was a clear cut proof that DNA is the genetic region non-coding region-2 and Poly A sequence
material that is passed from virus to bacteria. (protects the mRNA from cellular enzymes and helps
Bacteriophage in detachment from ribosome. Only 0.025% part of
Radioactive (32P)
Radioactive (35S) labelled labelled DNA
protein capsule total DNA content codes for tRNA. The tRNAs carry
amino acids for initiation codes and called transfer
RNA or adaptor RNA. The tertiary structure of tRNA
Bacteriophage
Bacteriophage
contains five arms each with 100p and a stem. These
release DNA
Infection release DNA are as follows :
AA-binding site (amino acid binding site), anticodon
Bacteriophage arm (recognition site of tRNA), TyC arm (site for
separate from Bacteriophage attaching to ribosome, D-arm (binding site for
bacteria release DNA
Blending
Bacteriophage Bacteriophage aminoacyl synthetase enzyme) and variable arm.
DNA
DNA Q.17. Describe DNA fingerprinting. (2019)
Centri- Ans. Please see NCERT que. 13.
fugation
35
No radioactive { S} 35 Q.18. Comment upon human genome project. (2019)
No radioactive { S}
detected in cells detected in cells Ans. Human genome project : Please see NCERT ques. 12.
+ +
35
No radioactive { S} 35
No radioactive { S}
Q.19. Difference between purine and pyrimidine base. (2020)
detected in supernatant detected in supernatant Ans.
Fig. The Hershey and Chase experiment
Purine base Pyrimidine base
Q.14. Draw labelled diagram of double helix DNA model 1. These have two carbon- These have one carbon-
proposed by Watson and Crick. (2019) nitrogen ring and four nitrogen ring and two
nitrogen atoms. nitrogen atoms.
Ans. Please see the ans of Long answer type question-5.
2. These have comparatively These have comparativly
Q.15. Write in short the chemical composition of high melting point and low melting point and
polynucleotide chain of DNA and RNA. (2019) boiling point. boiling point.
 62

3. These are synthesised by These are synthesised by Q.21. Difference between codon and anti-codon. (2020)
Traube purine synthesis Biginelli reaction.
method.
Ans.
Codon Anti-codon
Q.20. Difference between B-DNA and Z-DNA. (2020) 1. Codon is located on the Aniti-codon is located on
Ans. mRNA molecule. the t-RNA molecule.
B-DNA Z-DNA 2. These present on the These present on tRNA
1. These forms under normal These forms under high mRNA sequentially. individually.
physiological conditions. salt concentrations. 3. These determines the These brings the specified
position of the amino acid. amino acid by the codon.
2. These are right-handed. These are left-handed.
4. These are complementary These are complementary
3. These contain a wide and These contain a narrow to the nucleotide triplet in to the codon.
deep major groove and a and deep major groove and the DNA.
narrow and deepminor a wide and shallow minor
groove. groove. Q.22. Draw a labelled diagram of double helical model of DNA
4. The orientation of sugar The orientation of sugar
presented by Watson and Crick. (2020)
residues are altering. residues are not altering. Ans. Please see the answer of L.A. question-5.
Q.23. What do you understand by DNA fingerprinting? (2020)
5. Their repeating unit is Their prepeating unit is
Ans. Please see the answer of question-13 of NCERT
mononucleotide. dinucleotide.
exercise.
6. The angle of twist per The angle of twist per Q.24. Write a note on semi-conservation replication of DNA.
repeating unit is 36°. repeating unit is 60°.
(2020)
7. These diameter is 20Å. These diameter is 18Å. Ans. Please see the answer of L.A. question-4.

Long Answer Type Questions 5 Marks

Q. 1. What do you mean by regulation of gene expression?
Describe the Operon Model in case of lactose
metabolism in E. coli ?
Ans. Gene expression: Obviously, various types of proteins
participates in the formation of each part of a cell, and
there is a need of functional proteins or enzymes for the
stimulation and conduction of metabolic reactions of a
cell. Hence the synthesis of structural and functional
proteins in the cell under control of DNA as need is
called gene expression.
Regulation of Gene expression: The induction of
proteins or enzymes synthesizing genes and repression
of unwanted genes is carry on in the cell. This process
is called regulation of gene expression, also known as
gene control of protein synthesis.
Lac Operon model in 1961 Jacob and Monod
discovered in E.coli that a group of three genes remain
associated with three enzymes that metabolize lactose.
The genes that code for these enzymes are transcribed
only when the enzymes are needed. For the regulation
of these genes Jacob and Monod produced on operon
concept and were awarded by Nobel prize 1965.
Structure of Operon Model: Prokaryotic gene (DNA)
is often organised in coherent packages called operons,
in which the genes for related functions lie close to one
another. An operon consists of following parts :
A. Structural genes: It actually encode the related
enzymes or other proteins. These are–
(i) Cistron Z – codes for b - galactosidase
enzymes
(ii) Cistron Y - codes for permease enzyme.
(iii) Cistron A - codes for transacetylase enzyme.
B. Controller genes: It regulates the activity of
structural genes by inducing or repressing
method. These are of three types.
(i) Regulator genes. It is called R-gene. It
synthesizes a special type of enzyme which
acts as a repressor. It binds to operator gene
and loose their activity.
(ii) Promoter gene: It is that part of DNA where
RNA polymerase binds and initiates the
transcription of structural gene.
(iii) Operator gene: It is that part of DNA that
regulates the transcription of m-RNA from
structural genes.
Working of Lac operon :
1. In the absence of lactose: The lactose operon is
shut off. The regulatory gene of the lactose operon
directs of a protein called a repressor protein,
which binds to the operator site. RNA polymerase
although still able to bind to the promotor, cannot
get past the repressor protein to transcribe the
 63

Operon 1. Binding of RNA polymerase: The first step of

Promoter
Promoter gene Operator RNA synthesis is binding of RNA-polymerase to
gene gene Structural genes
Regulatory gene specific DNA segment called promoter site. This
P LAC I P O LAC Z LAC Y LAC A binding is helped by certain proteins called
transcription factors.
No RNADNA E. or coli (a) The segment of 35 nucleotides which have
formation bacteria TTGACA base sequence the sigma factor of
Repressor mRNA Repressor bind with RNA polymerase enzyme joint to DNA of
operator region
this site.
(b) Pribnow box is made up of 6-10 nucleotides.
In absence of inducer
In prokaryotes the base sequence of its
Repressor
TATAAT and in eukaryotes it is TATAAAT.
Fig. Lac operon model
It is known as Hogness box or TATA box.
structural genes. Consequently the lactose 2. Initiation: In the second step the RNA polymer are
metabolizing enzymes are not synthesized. enzyme unwinds the DNA duplex and separates
2. In the presence of lactose: When lactose is present its two strands at the start point. The enzyme then
medium promoter enters into and form begins the synthesis of RNA chain at the start
repressor-inducer complex by binding repressor. point on the template strand of DNA.
Due to this complex repressor cannot bind to 3. Chain Elongation: After initiating the
operator site. Now it induces to RNA polymerase transcription the RNA polymerase enzyme moves
to bind with initiating site of promoter gene. Thus towards 5' end of the strand, catalyzing
polycistronic lac m-RNA transcribed. This polymerization of RNA by joining incoming
m-RNA encoded all the three enzymes which phosphorylated ribonucleotides one by one
essential for reduction of lactose. phosphodiester bonds.
P LAC I P O LAC Z LAC Y LAC A The elongating RNA transcript regularly keeps
DNA or E. coli
bacteria separating from template strand and certain
Transcription proteins reform DNA duplex and re-assembles
Repressor mRNA nucleosides behind the advancing RNA
Z LAC mRNA Y A
polymerase.
Translation 5¢
3¢
DNA helix
Repressor 3¢
protein b-Galactosidase Primerase Transacetylase 5¢
Promotor site Terminator site
Three enzymes required to break down lactose RNA
polymerase 3¢ 5¢
Lactose Inactive and sigma
as inducer repressor In presence of inducer factor 5¢ 3¢
Fig. Lac operon model attached at
promotor Sigma factor
Q.2. What is transcription? Explain the process of RNA
Unwinding DNA
polymerase
transcription.
5¢
Ans. Transcription: “The polymerization of RNA molecule 3¢
Initiation
on the DNA template with the help of enzymes and 5¢
Terminator 3¢
same protein factors is termed as transcription”. RNA
site
Synthesis of RNA occurs by polymerization
Sigma factor release
ribonucleotide monomers in 5¢ ® 3¢ direction upon one
3¢ 5¢
of the two DNA strands of a gene called template Elongation
strand. Other strand is called non-template strand. of RNA 5¢ 3¢
Since the base sequence of newly synthesizing RNA
molecule is complementary to that of the template RHO factor
strand. It naturally corresponds to the base sequence of RNA
5¢
3¢
the non template strand of DNA duplex. That is why Termination
of RNA 5¢ 3¢
the non-template strand is called the coding or sense
RNA
strand, whereas the template strand is called the
noncoding or nonsense strand.
RNA RHO factor
Process of Transcription: The whole process of polymerase
transcription is divided into four stages. Fig. DNA to RNA transcription
 64

4. Termination: RNA polymerase will keep
transcribing until it gets signals to stop. The
process of ending transcription is called
termination, and it happens once the polymerase
transcribes a sequence of DNA known as
terminators. In prokaryotes 'a' Rho factor binds to
this sequence and terminate the process and
releasing the RNA molecules.
Q.3. Give the detailed description of processing of m-RNA
molecules?
Ans. Processing of m-RNA molecule: In the nuclear DNA
of eukaryotic the protein coding genes, from which
m-RNA are transcribed are known as split genes.
Because these contain alternating protein-coding
segments called Exons and no protein coding segment
called introns.
The m-RNA thus transcribed initials known as
pre-mRNAs, which undergo substance m-RNAs to be
transported to cytoplasm and translated into proteins.
DNA
Transcription
Unstable 5¢ E I E E I E I E
HnRNA
7 mGTP cap
End Stabilisation
Ca
Besides undergoing splicing, the pre-mRNA
undergoes distinctive modifications at both ends. At its
5' end one or two nucleotides are methylated and an
additional methylated guanosine triphosphate is also
liked and serves as a 5' cap. Similarly a 50 to 200
adenine containing sequence is added to 3' end and
helps in export of the m-RNA into cytoplasm from the
nucleus.
Q.4. Mention main steps/stages of DNA replication?
Or Explain the semi-conservative replication of DNA?
Ans. Replication of DNA molecules: The formation of two
exact copies of DNA molecules is called replication.
The DNA serves as the hereditary blueprint carrying
the coded informations of all structural and functional
characteristics of cells from one to the next generation.
Hence it is the prime importance before a cell division.
Amongst all biomolecular only the molecules of DNA
possess the unique property of self-duplication.
Semi-conservative replication of DNA:
Experimental proof of semi-conservative made of
replication was given by Mathew Masson and Franklin
W. Stahl in bacterium Escherichia coli. Watson and
E 3¢ Crick discovered the double helical structure of DNA.
Poly A tail
They were the first who proposed the scheme for semi-
AAAA n conservative replication of DNA. The two
io
yla
t polynucleotide strands of a double stranded DNA are

5¢ E I E E I E I E E 3¢ en
pp

d
lya anti-parallel and complementary to each-other.
in g

AAAA
Po
Because of the specific pairing of the nitrogenous
RNA splicing
I = Intron bases of the nucleotide monomers of opposite strands
E = Exon
5¢ E I E E I E I E E 3¢ by means of hydrogen bonds join the two strands
Hn RNA AAAA together. Therefore when separated by breaking of the
RNA splicing hydrogen bonds each strands acts as a template or
Spliced RNA AAAA mould upon which a new polynucleotide strand is
E E E E E E
polymerized by complementary pairing of the
3¢ nitrogenous bases of nucleotides. In each of the two
Mature mRNA 5¢
AAAA DNA molecules, thus formed one strand is of the old
7 mGTP cap Poly A tail DNA and the other is the new one. It is because of this
Fig. Overall mechanism of RNA processing feature that the DNA replication is called semi-
(Diagrammatic representation)
conservative.
Process/Mechanism: The process of removing introns The Mechanism of DNA Replication in Eukaryotes:
from pre-mRNA and rejoining the exons together to The mechanism of replication of DNA molecules is
form mature RNA molecule is termed RNA splicing. basically similar in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
The first step in RNA splicing is to cut the pre m-RNA cells. Yet it was first studied in prokaryotes. British
at 5' and 3' ends of introns to separate all introns and molecular geneticist John Cairns was first to find out
exons from one another. This cutting is catalyzed by the details of DNA replication in E.coli. This process is
spliceosomes which are assembled groups of small quite complex and involves participation of some RNA
RNA-protein complexes each containing once or two and several enzymes.
molecules of small nuclear RNAs (sn RNAs). After
cleavage the exons are rejoined by RNA ligase
enzymes, whereas the introns are degraded.
 65

3'
two-strands of DNA start separating, a Y-shaped
dT C
C A
g stran
Leadin
T G T A replication fork forms. 1968 Huberman and Riggs
C C discovered that the process of replication begins of
A T
T A

two DNA polymerase

C
5' T G both forks and thus proceed in opposite directions

Replisome with
A C G G T C C A A T
Direction of along the DNA molecule. The strands are named as

units
Replication fork movement
of replisome leading and lagging strands.
T G C C A G G T T A
A C 1. As the two strands molecule start separating at a
3' G A T
T A
G G replication fork, a short RNA chain of about to
A C
A T
Laggin
g stra
G T A G complementary ribonucleotide monomers forms
nd
5' opposite each DNA strands using the stars
template.
DNA Polymerase
2. These small RNA molecules are called RNA
3' Primer primers.
C
A C
A T 3. The synthesis of RNA primers is catalyzed by a
G T T A G
trand C C
T
A T
G 5' special type of RNA polymerase called primase
L ea d
ing s A T A C is
5' C T A A G G
s sy nthes enzyme which remains associate with the DNA
A T T
G T nuou
A C G G T C C A Conti
helicase complex.
Okazaki fragment
s 4. The two strands of a DNA molecule are anti-
5' parallel i.e., the direction of one strand is 5'–3' and
T G C C A G G T T A A A T 3'
3'
Laggin
C G
A T T C C T 5'
3'
that of the complementary strand is 3'–5'.
g stra A G G T
A C A
nd G A
C A
T G T
T C 5. The direction of the complementary RNA primer
A G
that forms of 5' end of this strand is obviously 3'–5'
DNA Polymerase Primer
Fig. Replication fork and mechanism of DNA replication
5' from the fork.
6. The direction of RNA primer that forms of 3' end
To make it easier to understand. It can be divided into
of this strand at opposite fork is 5'–3' from the
following steps.
fork.
Decoiling and Recoiling of DNA supercoils:
7. The RNA primer whose 3' end is towards the fork
Molecules of DNA remain condensed or compacted by
the deoxyribonucleotide molecule start linking
super coiling into much shorter chromatin filaments
one behind the other.
than their actual lengths. Their duplication therefore,
8. This linking is catalyzed by DNA polymerase III.
necessitates their step-by-step decoiling in minute
It results into continuous elongation of the newly
segments for synthesis and recoiling just after
forming complementary strand.
synthesis. These process controlled by a special
9. This new strand is, therefore, called the leading
category of enzymes kinds topoisomerases I and II. At
strand.
a specific points, topoisomerase I produces a
10. In case of other RNA primer whose 5' end is
momentary cut in one of the two strands of DNA
towards the fork, deoxyribonucleotide molecules
molecule to uncoil it at this site. The topoisomerase II,
start polymerizing in 5'–3' direction.
also-called DNA gyrase serves the same function, but it
11. This synthesis of new DNA strand with the old
produces a cut in both strands of DNA.
DNA strand cannot occur continuously as the
Unwinding and Melting of DNA Double Helix: replication fork progresses.
Replication of a DNA molecule in eukaryotic cell 12. In 1968 Reiji Okazaki discovered that this new
begins simultaneously at several special sites along the DNA strand is synthesized in small separate
length of the molecule called replication origins. The pieces which are later jointed with each other of
bacterial replication origin is named oric. DNA ligase.
Molecules of certain special types of proteins called 13. This DNA strand is called lagging strand. The
origin-binding proteins, link with a DNA molecule at fragments which are jointed to form it were later
each replication origin. Using the energy of ATP, the named Okazaki fragments.
origin binding proteins now break the H-bonds of the 14. The lagging strand is formed by joining of
two DNA strands. This causes unwinding of the DNA Okazaki fragments, it is necessary to prevent the
ds and separation of its strands of the replication origin. rewinding of DNA helix till these fragments join
This is called melting of DNA molecules. to complete the lagging strand.
Synthesis of New Polynucleotide Chains:
(Bidirectional) As the hydrogen bonds break and then
 66

15. This function is performed by a number of small (a) Cytosine and guanine are attached by three
molecules of single-stranded DNA binding hydrogen bonds.
protein (ssDNA-BP). (b) Adenine and thymine are attached by two
16. Now the DNA polymerase I enzyme removes the hydrogen bonds.
RNA primer one by one replacing these with (v) Diameter of DNA molecule is 20 Å.
deoxyribonucleotides. (vi) In both polynucleotide chains sugar molecules are
17. Ultimately when the adjacent Okazaki fragments placed at 11 Å distance from each other.
remain separated only by minute gaps called (vii) In double helical structure, one complete turn is at
nicks, the enzyme DNA ligase removes these gaps a distance of 34 Å and 10 base pairs are there in a
connecting the fragments with one another. turn.
(viii) DNA nucleus replicates in presence of required
The replication of one strand (leading) is continuous
enzymes in the interphase.
and the other (lagging) is discontinuous i.e., it
(ix) Complementary strands of DNA have
completes in segments. Hence, the replication of DNA
complementary base pairings means if one strand
is semidiscontinuous. has 5¢-3¢ direction of sugar molecules the other
After replication the DNA proof reading mechanism is will have 3¢-5¢ direction.
done by DNA polymerase and DNA ligase enzymes. (x) Ratio of purine and pyrimidine is 1 : 1.
Q.5. Illustrate Watson and Crick’s model of DNA. Explain
its significance. (2017, 18)
Or Make labelled diagram of DNA structure as
proposed by Watson and Crick. (No need of
description) (2016)
Or Describe the structure of double helical DNA model
proposed by Watson and Crick.
Or What is nucleic acid. Explain the double helical
structure of DNA proposed by Watson and Crick.(2020)
Ans. Nucleic acid : Nucleic acid, naturally occurring
chemical compound that is capable of being broken
down to yield phosphoric acid, sugars and a mixture
of organic bases (purines and pyrimidines). Nucleic
acids are the main information-carrying molecules of
the cell, and by directing the process of protein
synthesis, they determine the inherited characteristics
of every living thing. The two main classes of nucleic
acids are deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and
ribonucleic acid (RNA). DNA is formed by pentose
sugar, phosphoric acid and nitrogenous base.
Nitrogenous bases are of two types : Fig. Double helical structure of DNA

Pyrimidine: It includes cytosine and thymine. Importance/Significance of double helical model in

Purine: It includes adenine and guanine. Sugar
participating in formation of DNA is deoxyribose
sugar. Sugar and phosphate molecules form nucleic
acid, whereas bases are attached at their sides.
Some important characteristics of DNA are following:
(i) It’s double helical model was first proposed by
Watson and Crick in 1953.
(ii) Both polynucleotide chains are parallel to each
other in double helix of DNA.
(iii) Nucleotides attach by phosphate-sugar linkage to
form polynucleotides.
(iv) Both polynucleotide chains of DNA are
connected or linked with each other by hydrogen
bonds.
Replication of DNA
(i) At the time of replication both strands separate
and work as template.
(ii) Sequence of DNA remains same in new cell.
(iii) Two DNA segments are synthesised from one
segment.
(iv) Sequence of nucleotides remains same in
complementary strand.
Q.6. What is genetic code? Give an account of specialities
of it. (2015, 17, 18)
Or What is genetic code? How does it work? (2019)
Or Write an essay on genetic code. (2019)
Ans. Genetic code is the relationship between the sequence
of nucleotides on mRNA and the sequence of amino

acids in the polypeptide. In 1954, George Gamow, a
physicist proposed that in order to code for all the 20
amino acids, the code should be made up of three
nucleotides (triplet code).
This can be explained as if one base coded for one
amino acid, only four amino acids could be specified,
i. e., the proteins could contain only four amino acids. If
a sequence of two bases coded for one amino acid, the
four bases could specify only 16 (4×4) amino acids,
which is also inadequate. But if a sequence of three
bases coded for one amino acid, the four bases would
specify 64 (4×4×4) amino acids.
The various features of genetic code which can
explained by using the given checker-board are as
follows :
(i) From all of 64 codons, only 61 code for 20 amino
acids and 3 codons (UAA, UGA and UAG) do not
code for any amino acid. Thus, they function as
terminating or stop codons.
Fig. Triplet codons of mRNA, showing the amino acids which they code
67
(ii) Genetic code is unambiguous and specific. Thus,
one codon codes for only one amino acid, e. g.,
CCU codes only for proline and not for any other
amino acid.
(iii) Since, the number of codons is greater, all the
amino acids, with exceptions of methionine
(AUG) and tryptophan (UGG); are coded by more
than one codon, a feature referred to as the
degeneracy of genetic code, e. g., GGU, GGC,
GGA and GGG all specify the same amino acid
glycine.
(iv) The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous
fashion, i. e., without punctuation. Thus, the code
is commaless.
(v) The genetic code is nearly universal, i. e.,
particular codon codes for the same amino acid in
all organisms except in mitochondrial codons and
few protozoans.
(vi) AUG is a codon with dual functions. It codes for
the amino acid methionine (met) and also acts as
an initiator codon.
 68
NCERT Fully Solved Exercise
Q.1 Group the following as nitrogenous bases and
nucleosides: Adenine, Cytidine, Thymine, Guanosine,
Uracil and Cytosine.
Ans. Nitrogenous bases—Adenine, Thymine, Uracil and
Cytosine.
Nucleoside—Cytidine, Guanosine.
Q.2 If a double stranded DNA has 20 per cent of cytosine,
calculate the per cent of adenine in the DNA. (2020)
Ans. According to Chargaff’s base pairing rule, amount of
cytosine is equal to that of guanine. Similarly amount
of thymine is equal to the amount of adenine.
So, the given DNA also contains 20 per cent of
guanine.
Since, A+T+G+C = 100% and A=T
So, A+A+20+20 = 100%
Or 2A + 40 = 100%
Or A = 30%
Q.3 If the sequence of one strand of DNA is written as
follows:
5’-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-3’
Write down the sequence of complementary strand in
5 ® 3 direction.
Ans. The sequence of complementary strand in 3’ ® 5’
direction would be :
3’-TACG TACG TACG TACG TACG TACG
TACG-5’
So, the sequence of this strand (complementary strand)
in 5’ to 3’ direction would be :
5’-GCAT GCAT GCAT GCAT GCAT GCAT
GCAT-3’
Q.4 If the sequence of the coding strand in a transcription
unit is written as follows:
5’-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-3’
Write down the sequence of mRNA. (2019)
Ans. The coding strand in a transcription unit is the strand
which has same base sequence as found in the mRNA
except that it has U in place of T. So, the sequence of
mRNA would be :
5’-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-3’
Q.5 Which property of DNA double helix led Watson and
Crick to hypothesise semi-conservative mode of DNA
replication? Explain.
Ans. DNA double helix has specific base paring. According
to Chargaff, A always pairs up with T and similarly G
pairs up with C and vice versa. This highly specific
base pairing rule, led Watson and Crick to hypothesise
semi-conservative mode of DNA replication.
Q.6 Depending upon the chemical nature of the template
(DNA or RNA) and the nature of nucleic acids
synthesised from it (DNA or RNA), list the types of
nucleic acid polymerases.
Ans. DNA to DNA (Replication)—DNA dependent DNA
polymerase
DNA to RNA (Transcription)—DNA dependent RNA
polymerase
RNA to DNA (Reverse transcription)—RNA
dependent DNA polymerase
Q.7 How did Hershey and Chase differentiate between
DNA and protein in their experiment while proving
that DNA is the genetic material?
Ans. Hershey and Chase made use of radioactive (heavy
isotope) of phosphorus and sulphur. Phosphorus is the
component of DNA (nucleic acid) while sulphur is
found in proteins. When such radio-labelled
bacteriophages were tested for radioactivity, only
radioactive phosphorus was found in the following
generations. Radioactive sulphur was absent in the
following generations. This proved that only DNA has
capacity to get transmitted from one generation to the
other.
Q.8 Differentiate between the followings:
(a) Repetitive DNA and Satellite DNA
(b) mRNA and tRNA
(c) Template strand and Coding strand
Ans. (a) Repetitive DNA and Satellite DNA : When a
small stretch of DNA nucleotides is repeated
many times in a DNA molecule, it is called
repetitive DNA. When DNA is applied to density
gradient centrifugation, repetitive DNA appears
in the form of many small peaks one after the
other. Such tandemly repeated DNA sequences
are called DNA satellites. (So, DNA satellites
contain repetitive DNA).
(b) mRNA and tRNA : The type of RNA which
conveys message of protein synthesis from DNA
to the ribosome, is called mRNA. On the other
hand, the type of RNA which serves to bring
amino acids to the ribosomes, is called tRNA.
(c) Template strand and Coding strand : The
strand of DNA double helix which is transcribed,
i.e., used for the formation of mRNA is called
template strand. On the other hand, the strand,
which is complementary to the template strand is
called coding strand. (So, coding strand is not
transcribed). It is called so, as it contains the same
base sequence as found in the mRNA (except that
in place of U, it has T).

Q.9 List two essential roles of ribosome during translation.
Ans. Two essential roles of ribosome during translation are :
(a) Bringing charged tRNAs (i.e., tRNA bearing an
amino acid) close to each other
(b) Forming peptide bond between amino acids to
form a polypeptide chain.
Q.10 In the medium where E. coli was growing, lactose was
added, which induced the lac operon. Then, why does
lac operon shut down some time after addition of
lactose in the medium ?
Ans. This is because of feed back inhibition. When the
lactose related requirements of the E. coli get fulfilled,
the products of lactose catabolism, inhibit the
machinery, i.e., lac operon.
Q.11 Explain (in one or two lines) the function of the
followings:
(a) Promoter (b) tRNA (c) Exons
Ans. (a) Promoter : These are small DNA sequences,
which are present near a gene (upstream side).
These regulate the transcription process by
directing the movement of RNA polymerase,
through the concerned gene.
(b) tRNA : It is the type of RNA which serves to
bring amino acids to the ribosomes, during
translation process.
(c) Exons : These are coding portions of a gene,
which actually carry the information regarding the
formation of a polypeptide chain.
Q.12 Why is the Human Genome Project called a mega
project ? (2020)
Ans. The Human Genome Project (HGP) is an international
13-year effort formally begun in October 1990. It was
coordinated by ‘U.S. Department of Energy’ and
‘National Institute of Health’. It is called a mega
project as it aimed at revealing out all hidden facts
about human genome (which contains approximately
3 ´ 10 9 base pairs), i.e., number of genes, their
functions, sequencing of whole DNA and genes etc.
Q.13 What is DNA fingerprinting? Mention its application.
(2019, 20)
Ans. There are millions of base pairs in our DNA. These
base pairs are arranged in specific sequences. Some of
the nucleotide sequences in two persons may be same
but not all. DNA of two different persons would
definitely have certain differences in the nucleotide
sequences. In other words, the nucleotide sequence of a
person is highly specific and it does not completely
resemble with the nucleotide sequences of some other
Note : Due to Covid-19 Chapter-7 (Evolution) is not in the Latest Syllabus 2020-21.
69
person. So, a person can be identified solely on the
basis of the sequence of its nucleotide base pairs.
Therefore the identification of a person on the basis of
its DNA material is called DNA fingerprinting. It is
called fingerprinting because earlier for the same
purpose the fingerprints of the persons were in use.
Applications of DNA fingerprinting :
(a) Paternity and maternity : Because a person
inherits his or her DNA from his or her parents,
DNA sequence patterns (VNTR) can be used to
establish paternity and maternity. The patterns are
so specific that a parental DNA sequence pattern
can be reconstructed even if only the children’s
DNA sequence (VNTR) patterns are known.
(b) Criminal identification and forensics : DNA
isolated from blood, hair, skin cells, or other
genetic evidence left at the scene of a crime can be
compared, through VNTR patterns, with the DNA
of a criminal suspect to determine guilt or
innocence.
(c) Verification of immigrants : DNA fingerprinting
helps to verify whether a hopeful immigrant is (as
he/she claims), really close relative of already an
established resident.
(d) Identification of racial groups: DNA
fingerprinting is also helpful in establishing
similarity among different racial groups and thus
helps to rewrite biological evolution.
Q.14 Briefly describe the following:
(a) Transcription (b) Polymorphism
(c) Translation (d) Bioinformatics
Ans. (a) Transcription : The process of formation of
RNA from a DNA piece is called transcription.
This process is the first step in the synthesis of a
protein.
(b) Polymorphism : Occurrence of a substance in
many forms is called polymorphism. In humans,
more than 99.9% of the genome is identical. The
difference lies in the remaining 0.1 % DNA. This
DNA, which is represented by microsatellites
shows variable forms (polymorphism), with
regard to number and length.
(c) Translation : The process of actual assembling of
amino acids on a ribosome, to synthesise a
polypeptide chain is called translation.
(d) Bioinformatics : It is a new area of study which
involves the use of living material such as DNA
and proteins, for data management.
ccc
 Unit-3 : Biology in Human Welfare
70
Chapter 7 : EVOLUTION
(This Chapter has been Deleted From Syllabus For Session
2020-21 Due To COVID-19 Epidemic)
Chapter
8
HUMAN HEALTH
AND DISEASE
² Anaemia : It is a condition when the amount of RBCs or
haemoglobin in the blood becomes reduced. This condition
mainly occurs due to iron deficiency. In this condition the
oxygen carrying capacity of the blood is adversely affected and
person becomes weak.
² Inflammation : The pain in some body parts along with
swelling is known as inflammation.
² Antibiotics : These are drugs which are obtained from certain
micro-organisms. These may also be prepared artificially. The
antibiotics are effective against various types of bacterial,
protozoan and fungal parasites.
² Antibodies : These are specialised types of proteins, present
in blood plasma. These are produced by lymphocytes (a type of
WBC), in response to some antigenic entry into the body. These
serve to kill the antigens.
² Antigens : These are certain materials or proteins, which
when enter in the body, stimulate body’s immune system to start
producing antibodies.
² Diarrhoea : The condition of frequent loose motions is known
as diarrhoea. It occurs due to food poisoning and infection of
gastro-intestinal tract. It results in dehydration and mineral
deficiency in the body.
² Eczema : It is a skin disease, which is characterized by
redness, patches, itching and burning sensation. In severe cases,
blister formation occurs on the skin.
² Edema : It is also known as dropsy. It is a condition when there
is an excessive accumulation of fluids in the cells, tissues and in
the tissue spaces. This causes a swelling or puffiness of tissue.
² Immune system : Our body bears a unique system that fights
against various types of pathogens and foreign substances and
prevents our body from their harmful effects. This system is
called immune system.
² Necrosis : The decay of tissues is known as necrosis. It occurs
in many diseases, especially in tuberculosis.
² Parasite : The organisms, which live at the cost of other
organisms, are called parasite. The victim is called host. The
parasites are mainly pathogenic, i . e. , they cause certain
diseases in their host.
² Vaccine : These are killed antigens, which can produce
antibodies in the body when injected, without causing the
occurrence of disease. Once the antibodies are produced, the
person becomes immune to that particular disease.
² Vector : The organisms, which serve to transmit pathogens or
disease causing substances from one person/place to another
person/place is known as vector.
² Metabolism : Every living organism carry out certain
bio-chemical reactions in its body, such as production of energy,
protein’s, digestion etc. Sum total of all these reactions is called
metabolism.
² Immune system : The system that develops immunity in the
body against foreign invaders, is called immune system. It
includes skin, WBC and their derivatives, various digestive
juices, saliva and lysozyme etc. Two important components of
immune system are — (i) Lymphocytes ( B-cells and T-cells) and
(ii) Tissue macrophages (mature monocytes).
² Innate immunity : Innate immunity refers to all those
defense mechanisms with which an individual is born and
which are always available to protect the living body.
² Antigens : An antigen is any substance which when
introduced in body, stimulates the production of antibodies.
Antigen is essentially a “non-self” material. Antigens are usually
the proteins, with molecular weight greater than 10,000.
² Hapten : The properties of antigens are due to some
non-proteineous, low molecular weight substances, called
hapten. Haptens are better called antigenic determinants. These
are closely associated with protein part of the antigen. Hapten
determines the specificity of antigen but alone can not stimulate
the immune response.
² HLA : HLA stands for human leukocyte antigen. It is an antigen,
which is produced by MHC. It helps in the recognition of self
and non-self.
² MHC : MHC (Major histo-compatibility complex) is a gene,
which produces MHC antigens (In humans the MHC antigen is
 71

also known as HLA). It is present on the short arm of 6th human
chromosome.
² Antibodies : These are immunoglobulin (gamma globulin)
molecules, which are formed by plasma cells (a derivative of
B-Lymphocytes), in response to an antigen. These destroy the
antigens or coat them for subsequent phagocytosis. Antibodies
form humoral immunity. Five major types of antibodies are –
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE and IgD.
² Lymphocytes : Lymphocytes are specialised WBC cells, which
like other blood cells born in bone marrow, but are later
transferred to lymph glands (thymus, tonsil, spleen etc) for
further maturation. Bone marrow contains certain primordial
stem cells, which are of two types — B-cells and T-cells.
² Interferons : These are a class of glycoproteins, released in a
small amount by the cells, when infected with a virus.
Interferons are therefore secreted only in response to some viral
infection.
² Humoral immunity : The antibody mediated immunity, is
called humoral immunity.
² Cellular immunity : The cell mediated immunity, which is
formed by activated T-lymphocytes, is called cellular immunity.
² Opsonisation : Opsonisation refers to the coating of (bacteria
or antigens) by antibodies to facilitate their subsequent
phagocytosis.
² Vaccination : It is the process of introducing a preparation of
antigenic proteins or pathogens (inactivated/attenuated
pathogens) into the body, to generate the primary immune
response.
² Allergy : Allergy is the inappropriate and excessive
(hypersensitive) immune response to some common antigens.
² Autoimmune diseases : Autoimmune diseases are those
disorders, which are caused when the body’s immune system
goes off the track and starts destroying body’s own cells and
molecules.

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. Athlete’s foot is caused by : Q. 9. Interferons are :

(a) Tinea pedis (b) Tinea capitis (a) Anti-bacterial protein (b) Anti-viral protein
(c) Candida albicans (d) Rickettsia (c) Complex protein (d) Anti-clotting protein
Q. 2. Hepatitis B virus is a: Q.10. BCG Vaccine is given against : (2017)
(a) Hepadna virus (b) Variola virus (a) Typhoid (b) Cholera
(c) Retro virus (d) Picorna virus (c) TB (d) Diphtheria
Q.3. Immunoglobulins serving as mediators in allergic Q.11. Aedes aegypti is a vector of : (2017)
response are: (a) Dengue fever (b) Malaria fever
(a) IgE (b) IgD (c) Filariasis (d) Kala-azar
(c) IgM (d) IgA Q.12. Which of the following disease is not produced by
Q. 4. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is virus?
carried out by : (a) Polio (b) T.B.
(a) B-lymphocytes (b) Thrombocytes (c) AIDS (d) Chicken pox
(c) Erythrocytes (d) T-lymphocytes Q.13. Which occur in antiserum ? (2018)
Q. 5. Which stage of plasmodium is infective to man ? (a) Antigen (b) WBCs
(a) Trophozoite (b) Sporozoite (c) Antibody (d) RBCs
(c) Gametocyte (d) Cryptomerozoites Q.14. Morphin is obtain from poppy : (2018)
Q.6. Which of the following is a bacteriogenic disease? (a) Pome (b) Alkaloids
(2014) (c) Latex (d) Tennin
(a) Polio (b) Pyro's disease Q.15. Who was discovered penicilin? (2018)
(c) Diarrhoea (d) Elephantiasis (a) Weisman (b) Smith
Q.7. The vector of chickungunya virus is : (2017) (c) Fleming (d) Arburh
(a) Culex (b) Aedes Q.16. Which of the following disease is confirmed by widol
(c) Anopheles (d) None of these test? (2020)
Q. 8. Sleeping sickness is caused by which organism? (a) Typhoid (b) Malaria
(2015) (c) Dysentery (d) Filaria
(a) Euglena (b) Plasmodium
(c) Tryponosoma (d) Amoeba
 72

Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. What is health? Q.12. Writes names of pathogens and their carriers of
Ans. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and following diseases (2015)
social well being and not merely the absence of disease Filariasis, Malaria dengue.
or infirmity. Ans. Disease Pathogen Carrier
Q.2. Name the causative agent of malaria? (2016) Filaria Wuchereria Female Culex
Ans. The causative agent of malaria is a protozoan parasite Malaria Plasmodium Female Anopheles
named plasmodium. Dengue Virus Female Aedes
Q.3. Who is the father of Immunization? Q.13. Name few disease which show hallucinating
Ans. Edward Jenner symptoms. (2017)
Q.4. What are interferons? (2015, 16, 17) Ans. Hallucination is a perception in the absence of external
Ans. Virus infected cells secrete proteins called interferons stimulus. Hallucination, happens during
which protect non-infected cells from further viral schizophrenia, formication, etc.
infection. Q.14. Make well-labelled diagram of the structure of
Q.5. Name the pathogens of tuberculosis, cholera and sporozoite of Plasmodium under electron microscope.
AIDS. (2018)
Ans. The pathogens of these diseases are : Ans.
Secretory
Tuberculosis — Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mitochondrion Nucleus organelles
Cholera — Vibrio cholerae Microtubules
AIDS — HIV Apical cap

Q.6. Mention the useful as well as the harmful drug Endoplasmic Convoluted tubules
obtained from the latex of poppy plant. reticulum Micropyle
Pellicle
Ans. Useful drug — morphine
Fig. Structure of a sporozoite (infective stage) of Plasmodium
Harmful drug — heroin
Q.7. Name the host cells which are mainly affected by HIV. Q.15. Which is cause of diarrhoea disease in human? (2018)
Ans. T4 lymphocytes are the host cells affect by HIV. Ans. Salmonella and E.coli
Q.16. Name two viruses causes common cold in man. (2018)
Q.8. Name any two types of cells that act as cellular barriers Ans. Rhinovirus and corona virus.
to provided innate immunity in humans?
Q.17. Where is the formation and maturation of T and
Ans. Leucocytes (WBC) and natural killer in the blood are
B-lymphocytes. (2018)
two types of cells that act as cellular barriers to provide
Ans. Formation of both T and B-lymphocytes in bone
innate immunity in humans.
marrow. Maturation of T-lymphocytes in thymus gland
Q.9. Breast fed babies are more immune to disease than the
and B-lymphocytes in bone marrow.
bottle fed babies. Why? (2017)
Q.18. What is immunity? (2019)
Ans. Breast fed babies get some antibodies from their
Ans. The ability of the body (host) to fight against the
mother through the milk thus they are immunised.
disease causing agents is called immunity. It is of two
Q.10. Describe in brief bad effects, prevention and cure of types—innate immunity and acquired immunity.
alcoholism? (2017) Q.19. Which organism cause the typhoid fever? (2020)
Ans. Alcoholism affects the function of liver, nervous Ans. Typhoid is caused by bacterium Salmonella typhi.
system, stomach, heart, kidney etc. It can be cure
Q.20. Which disease born by Entamoeba? How can it
rehabilitation technique.
controlled? (2020)
Q.11. Name the plant source of ganja? How does it affect the
Ans. Entamoeba is the cause of amoebic dysentery.
body of abuses?
Preventive measure : Boil water or treat with iodine
Ans. Cannabis sativa. It damages cardio-vascular system.
tablets.
Avoid eating street foods.
Avoid raw vegetables when in endemic areas.
 73

Short Answer Type Questions 2 & 3 Marks

Q.1. Differentiate between active immunity and passive Each antibody molecules has four peptide chains.
immunity. (2009, 10, 11, 12, 18) Chemically they are glycoproteins, called
Or Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunoglobulin and represented as Ig. Each Ig
immunity and give one example of each. (2020) molecule is said to be made of two heavy chains and
Ans. Difference between active and passive immunity two light chains. These are arranged in a Y-shaped
Active immunity Passive immunity configuration. Stem of Y is exclusively made up of
1. It develop when a host Antigens are not directly heavy chains but the arms are made up both light and
is exposed to antigens. introduced in the host. heavy chains. On the tip of each arm of antibody there
2. Antibodies are Ready-made antibodies is an antigen binding fragment which holds antigen
produced in the host are directly given to host. polypeptide chains of antibody are bound together by
body. disulphide bond and no covalent bonds.
3. Active immunity is Passive immunity to faster Q.4. How many types of antibodies are found? Give the
slow. than active immunity.
function of each?
4. It produce immunity Immunity works for that Ans. Types of Antibodies: Antibodies are classified into
for long time. time, not for long.
five major types.
5. Example—antibodies Example—Antibodies 1. Immunoglobulin G(IgG) : It is smallest and most
that develop in a given to a person to
person’s own immune prevent to disease or to abundant (80%) antibody made up of single
system after the body is treat disease after the body monomer unit. It is only Ig that transferred across
exposed to an antigen is exposed to an antigen. the placenta from mother to foetus. This gives
through a disease. some protection to unborn children from diseases.
Q.2. Differentiate between innate and acquired immunity. This is effective against bacteria virus and fungi.
(2010, 20) 2. Immunoglobulin A (IgA): IgA is commonly
Ans. Difference between innate and acquired immunity called as secretory antibody. It is made up of two
Innate immunity Acquired immunity monomers. It occurs in tears, sweat, saliva and
1. Innate immunity is It is pathogen specific. breast milk (colostrum). A lack of IgA often
non-specific. causes major infections of mucosal surfaces such
2. It is present since It is produced in response as mouth, throat and lungs.
birth. to an antigen or pathogens 3. Immunoglobulin M(IgM): It is made up of five
3. It is not characterized It is characterized by monomer units. It is strong activator of the
by memory. memory. complement cascade.
4. Innate immunity Barrier system is absent. 4. Immunoglobulin E(IgE) : The main action of it is
consists of barriers.
binding to and activating mast cells, which causes
5. Example—cough Example—The placental
reflex, enzyme in transfer of IgG from
swelling, redness, pain and itching effects.
tears and skin oils. mother to foetus during 5. Immunoglobulin D(Ig D): It serves as receptors at
pregnancy. the surface of B cells to secrete other antibodies.
Q.3. Comment on Antibodies? (2014, 20) Q. 5. What is vaccination? (2010)
Ans. Antibody: Antibodies are proteins that have the ability Ans. Vaccination : The process of giving vaccines is called
to bind antigens. vaccination. Vaccines are preparations of antigenic
Antigen binding site proteins of pathogen or inactivated/weakened
N
Antigen S
S S
S pathogens. The antibodies produced in the body
binding site
against these antigens would neutralize the pathogenic
S S
S
S
S S
S
S agents during actual infection. The principle of
S
S S
S
vaccination is based on the property of ‘memory’ of the
S S
S
S S
S S
S immune system. B and T cells that recognize the
Light chain
S S
pathogen quickly on subsequent exposure and
S S
overwhelm the invadens with a massive production of
Heavy chain antibodies.
S S
S S Q.6. Write short note on allergies.
C C
Ans. The exaggerated response of immune system to certain
Fig. Structure of an antibody molecule antigens present in the environment is called allergy.
 74
The substances to which such an immune response is
produced are called allergens. The antibodies produced
to these are of the IgE type. Common types of allergens
are mites in dust, pollens, animal dander etc.
Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like
histamine and serotonin from the mast cells.
Symptoms: Allergy symptoms can be categorised as
mild, moderate or severe symptoms. Allergy symptoms
include sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and
difficulty in breathing.
Q. 7. Write a short note on dengue fever. (2017, 18)
Ans. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is a more serious form of
dengue infection. It is caused by four dengue fever
virus (DEN 1, DEN 2, DEN 3 and DEN 4). Dengue
viruses are transmitted by the bite of an infected Aedes
mosquito.
Symptoms : Symptoms appear three to 15 days after
the mosquito bite and include high fever and severe
headache. Other symptoms are joint pain, muscle and
bone pain, rash and mild bleeding.
Prevention : The Aedes mosquito breeds in stagnant
water bodies like water tanks, coolers etc. The disease
can be prevented by eliminating breeding places of
mosquitoes.
Q. 8. Write the causative agent, symptoms and treatment of
swine flu and Chikungunya.
Ans. Swine flu:
Causative agent: Swine flu is a respiratory disease
caused by influenza virus (RNA) named, novel HINI.
The newest swine flu virus is influenza AH3N2V.
Symptoms: Fever, cough, nasal secretions, fatigue and
headache. The most serious complication of the flu is
pneumonia.
Prevention and treatment: Vaccination is the best way
to prevent or reduce the chances of becoming infected.
Two antiviral agents, Zanamivir (Relenza) and
Oscltamivir (Tamiflu), have been reported to help
prevent or reduce the effects of swine flu when it taken
within 48 hours of the onset of symptoms.
Chikungunya :
Causative agent : It is caused by an RNA virus that
belongs to the alpha virus genus.
Symptoms: Chikungunya is characterized by an abrupt
onset of fever frequently with joint pain. Other
common signs include muscle pain, headache, nausea,
fatigue and rash.
Prevention and treatment: Prevention and control relies
heavily on reducing the number of natural and artificial
water filled container habitats that support breeding of
the mosquito.
There is no specific antiviral drug treatment for
chikungunya.
Q.9. Write short note on any one. (2018)
(a) Cancer (b) Malaria
Ans. See for cancer Long answer type Q.No. 1
See for malaria Short answer type question-13.
Q.10. What is immunity? Explain the mechanism of acquired
immunity? (2019)
Ans. Please see the answer of Long answer question-7.
Q.11. Write short notes on the following :
(i) Elephantiasis (ii) Ascariasis
Or Write a short note on Filariasis (Elephantiasis).
(2020)
Ans. (i) Elephantiasis : Please see ans of Long answer
type question-1
(ii) Ascariasis : This disease spreads by helminth
parasite—Ascaris lumbricoides, which is an
internal parasite. It is transmitted through
contaminated water, fruits and vegetable etc.
Symptoms : Internal bleeding, anaemia, fever,
blockage of intestinal passage and muscular paint etc.
are its symptoms.
Prevention and Treatment : Keeping clean
environment, no open disposal of faeces, no
consumption of polluted food and rotten fruits and
vegetables, proper washing of hands before eating,
proper cleanliness of toilets and use of pure water, etc.,
are few preventive measures of this disease. On the
occurrence of disease, piperazin citrate and piperazin
phosphate, etc., medicines are used to kill the parasite.
Q.12. Differentiate between the following and give one
example of each : (2019)
(i) Innate and acquired immunity
(ii) Active and passive immunity
Ans. Please see the ans of Short answer type question-2 and
1.
Q.13. Write pathogenicity, symptoms and preventive
measures of malaria. (2019)
Or How is malaria disease transmitted? Mention its
control measures. (2019)
Or Which are the different species of Plasmodium?
Explain the different types of malaria caused by thein.
(2020)
Ans. Malaria : About 300 million people are infected with
malaria every year and more than 2 million die
annually due to malaria.
Pathogenicity :
(i) Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite, named
as Plasmodium.
(ii) Its four species are known—P. falsiparum, P.
vivex, P. malarie and P. ovale.
(iii) The infective stage of Plasmodium lives in the
salivary glands of female Anopheles.

(iv) When this insect sucks the blood of a normal man,
the Plasmodium reaches into the blood and results
in malaria. (Note: male Anopheles is
non-infective as it feeds on plant juice).
Symptoms :
(i) Headache, nausea, muscular pains and high fever
are the main symptoms of malaria.
(ii) Each malarial attack is of 6-10 hours and consists
of three stages — cold stage (feeling very cold and
shivering), hot stage (high fever, faster respiration
and heart beat) and sweating stage (in which
temperature goes down to normal).
(iii) When the patient gets cured of malaria, the patient
becomes weak and anaemic. Malaria may also
cause the enlargement of spleen and liver.
Prevention : Following measures may be taken to
prevent malaria :
(i) Use wire-gauze on doors and windows to prevent
entry of mosquitoes.
(ii) Use insect-repellents to prevent mosquito- bite.
(iii) Sleep under mosquito net.
(iv) Mosquito larvae should be killed by sprinkling
kerosene oil on large sized water bodies.
(v) Larvivorous fishes such as Gambusia, minnows
and trouts etc. (which feed on mosquito larvae)
may be introduced into water bodies. Similarly
ducks can also control the larval population of
insect.
(vi) Kill adult mosquitoes by spraying insecticides.
(vii) Destroy mosquito-breeding places.
(viii) Fill up all ditches with soil to avoid any
accumulation of water.
Control: Quinine (a drug, extracted from the bark of
Cinchona calisaya tree) is known to be highly effective
in treating malaria.
Q.14. Differentiate between the following : (2019, 20)
(i) Physical barrier and cellular barrier
(ii) Allergy and autoimmune disease.
Ans. (i) Physical barriers : Skin on our body is the main
barrier which prevents entry of the
microorganisms. Mucus coating of the epithelium
lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and
urogenital tracts also help in trapping microbes
entering our body.
Cellular barriers : Certain types of leukocytes
(WBC) of our body like Polymorpho-Nuclear
Leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils).
(ii) Allergy : The exaggerated response of the
immune system to certain anitgens present in the
environment is called allergy. The substances to
which such an immune response is produced are
called allergens. Allergy is due to the release of
75
chemicals like histamine and serotonin from the
mast cells.
Autoimmune disease : Sometimes, due to genetic
and other unknown reasons, the body attacks
self-cells. This results in damage to the body and
is called autoimmune disease. Rheumatoid
arthritis which affects many people in our society
is an autoimmune disease.
Q.15. Give an account on misuse of drugs and alcohols
during adolescence. (2019)
Ans. Misuse of drugs and alcohols during adolescence :
Curiosity, need for adventure and excitement and
experimentation, constitute are the most common
causes, which motivate youngesters towards drugs and
alcohol use.
The first use of drugs or alcohol is generally because of
curiosity and experimentation, but later the child starts
developing an addiction for the alcohol/drugs. Stress
and some social pressure also play a significant role in
compelling youngesters to try alcohol and drugs.
Television, movies, newspapers, internet also help
significantly to promote their inclination towards
cigarette smoking and tobacco chewing. Family
atmosphere is also one the major causes.
Q.16. Define cancer and comment upon its various types.
(2019)
Ans. Please see Long anwer type question-1.
Q.17. Describe in brief the harmful effects caused by misuse
of alcohol. (2019)
Ans. Please see NCERT exercise question-14.
Q.18. Write the causal organisms and control measure of
Dengue and Chikungunya. (2019)
Ans. Dengue : Please see the answer of Short answer type
question-7.
Chikungunya : Please see the ans of Short answer type
question-8.
Q.19. Write a short note on opioids. (2020)
Ans. Opioids are substances that, when reaching opioid
receptors, have effects similar to those of morphine.
Medically they are primarily used for pain relief,
including anesthesia. Other medical uses include
suppression of diarrhoea, replacement therapy for
opioid use disorder, reversing opioid overdose,
suppressing cough. Extremely potent opioids such as
carfentanil are approved only for veterinary use.
Opioids are frequently used non-medically for their
euphoric effects.
Side effects of opioids may include itchiness, sedation,
nausea, respiratory depression, euphoria and
constipation. Opioids act by binding to opioid
receptors. They are found principally in the central and
peripheral nervous system and the gastrointestinal
 76

tract. These receptors mediate both the psychoactive Q.22. What is pathogen? Write down the names of pathogens
and the somatic effects of opioids. causing typhoid fever and common cold in man and
Q.20. Write a short note on human disease caused by also symptoms of these disease. (2020)
mosquitoes and their control. (2020) Ans. Pathogen : A pathogen or infectious agent is a
Or Write the names of any two pathogens causing biological agent that cause diseases or illness to its
diseases in humans and comment upon their regulation. host. The term is most often used for agents that
(2020) disrupts the normal physiology of multicellular animal
Ans. The diseases caused by mosquitoes are malaria, dengue or plant. However pathogens can infect unicellular
and chikungunya. organisms from all of the biological kingdoms.
Malaria : See the answer of Short answer question-13. Common cold : See the answer of L.A. question-3.
Dengue : See the answer of Short answer question-7. Typhoid fever—
Chikungunya : See the answer of Short answer Cause : Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi. It
question-8. is rare in industrialized countries. However it remains a
Q.21. Draw a labelled diagram of life cycle of malaria serious health threat in the developing world,
parasite. (2020) especially for children.
Ans. Spreading : Typhoid fever spreads through
When the mosquito bites
another human, sporozoites contaminated food and water or through close contact
are injected with bite
into host’s body. with some one who is infected.
Mature infective stages Signs and symptoms : Signs and symptoms usually
(sporozoites) escape Parasites (sporozoites)
from intestine and Sporozoites reach the liver through include a high fever, headache, abdominal pain and
migrate to the mosquito blood.
salivary glands.
Salivary glands
Liver
either constipation or diarrhoea.
Fertilisation and
Mosquito Host Most people with typhoid fever feel better within a few
(sexual)
development take
The parasite reproduces days of starting antibiotic treatment, although a small
place in the
asexually in liver cells,
mosquito’s stomach.
bursting the cell and
number of them may die of complications. Vaccines
es Human Host
cyt releasing its gametes against typhoid fever are available, but they are only
Female mosquito meto (asexual)
into the blood.
takes up gametocytes Ga
with blood meal.
Female
Parasites reproduce asexually partially effective.
Male in red blood cells, bursting the
red blood cells and causing
Sexual stages (gametocytes) cycles of fever and other
develop in red blood cells. symptoms. Released parasites
Stages in the life cycle ofPlasmodium infect new red blood cells.

Long Answer Type Questions 5 Marks

Q.1. What do you understand by infectious and non- Symptoms: The disease is characterized by
infectious diseases? Write their pathogens symptoms constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, stool
and preventive measures by giving two examples of with excess mucous and blood clots.
each. (2014) Transmission: Houseflies are the mechanical
Or What is diabetes mellitus disease? Write two main carriers of the pathogen and serve to transmit the
symptoms of this disease. (2013) parasite from faeces of infected person to food.
Ans. (a) Infectious or communicable diseases: Those Thus contaminated food and water are the main
diseases which can pass from one infected person to a sources of infection.
healthy one by various means are called infectious Preventive measures : (i) Throughly wash fruits
diseases. A wide range of organism like bacteria, and vegetables before eating. (ii) Avoid eating
viruses, fungi, and protozoa, helminthes could cause foods or vegetables unless you wash and peel the
disease in men. yourself. (iii) Stick to bottled water and soft
Some infectious diseases are : Typhoid fever, drinks. (iv) If you must drink water, boil it or heat
pneumonia, common cold, malaria, amoebiasis, it with iodine.
ascariasis, filariasis etc. (ii) Elephantiasis (Filariasis) : Wuchereria is a
(i) Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery) : Entamoeba parasitic roundworm spread by a mosquito vector.
histolytica is a monogenetic protozoan parasite. It It causes lymphatic filariasis. Two species,
occurs in the large intestine of human and causes W.bancrofti and W.malayi are common to infect
amoebiasis.

man. If infection is left untreated, it can develop
into a chronic disease called elephantiasis.
Symptoms: Filarial worms cause a slowly
developing inflammation of the organs in which
they live usually the lymphatic vessel of the lower
limbs and the disease is called filariasis. The
genital organs are also often affected.
Preventive measures : Mosquitoes breeding
places should be destroyed to prevent this disease.
Hetrazan, antimony and arsenic compounds are
used as its cure.
(b) Non-infectious diseases: These diseases are not
transmitted from one person to other. These occurs due
to deficiency of any nutrient substances or due to
sensitivity for substance or metabolic defects. Such as
diabetes, heart disease, arthritis, cancer etc.
(i) Diabetes: This is an ancient human disease,
which is caused due to deficiency of insulin as a
result of slow activity of b-cells of pancreas.
Glucose level increase in blood of affected person
and is excretes with urine.
Symptoms : The patient gets weakness.
♦ Weight starts decreasing.
♦ Tiredness occurs.
♦ Urine comes frequently.
Prevention : 1. Sugar containing substances
should not be used in food.
2. Regular exercise should be done.
(ii) Cancer: This disease occurs due to uncontrolled
division of body cells because of activation of
oncogenes present in the cells. Some substances
are helpful to produce cancer; these are called
carcinogens.
Causes of cancer
© Radiation that can penetrate to the nucleus.
© Tobacco chewing causes mouth cancer.
© Smoking causes mouth, throat, and pharynx and
lung cancer.
Types of cancer : These are of two types—
© Benign remain confined to their original location
and do not spread in the entire body.
© Malignant are the mass of proliferating cells,
called neoplastic or tumour cells. These grow
rapidly invade and damage the surrounding normal
cells.
Symptoms: Sharp rise in any wart of body.
© Formation of tumour in any part.
© Regular loss of weight.
Treatment :
© Keeping away from radiations and pollutants can
prevent cancer.
© Radio therapy.
© Chemotherapy.
77
Q.2. Describe harmful effects caused by the following and
also mention their prevention measures. (2014, 17)
(a) Alcohol
(b) Drugs (intoxicating medicines)
(c) Tobacco
Ans. (a) Harmful effects of alcohol : Some harmful
effects of alcohol are as following :
(i) Instant adverse effects of alcohol/drugs are
expressed in the form of indiscriminates
behaviour, vandalism and violence.
(ii) Consuming high quantity of these can cause
respiratory failure, heart failure and even death
due to cerebral hemorrhage. First unconscious-
ness then coma then death.
(iii) Academic and social life is affected by use of
alcohol/drug. Absence from school/college
without any clear reason, lack of interest in
personal hygiene, loneliness, depression,
rebellious behaviour, deterioration relationship
with family and friends, changes in the sleeping
and eating habits, hesitance in hunger and weight
etc.
(iv) Persons consuming alcohol during lack of money,
starts to resort to theft.
(v) Persons who take drugs intravenously, have more
possibilities to get serious infections like AIDS
and hepatitis-B.
(vi) Consuming drugs and alcohol during pregnancy
cause adverse effect on foetus.
(vii) Physical characters start changing in males and
females.
(b) Harmful effects of drugs :
(i) Drugs impose adverse effects on nervous system
and person becomes dependent on them. These
drugs are called intoxicating drugs. These drugs
are also called psychotropic drugs. e.g., Cannabis,
hemp, hashish, etc.
(ii) When a person is constantly dependent on taking
a drug, then that state is called drug addiction.
Such person becomes physically and mentally
sick for that drug.
(iii) Drug addicted person, feels lively and healthy
after using these drugs.
(c) Harmful effects of tobacco : Generally people
use tobacco in the form of cigarette, beedi,
hookah, etc. Its uses cause many adverse effects
on human body. In children, their effects are fast,
but slowly in adults. Hence, children and adults
should avoid its consumption.
(i) Nicotine, the drug that makes tobacco addictive,
goes to your brain. It makes you feel good when
you are smoking, but it can make you anxious,
78
nervous, moody and depressed after you smoke.
Using tobacco also can cause headaches and
dizziness.
(ii) Tobacco stains your teeth and gives you bad
breath. Tobacco ruins some of your taste buds, so
you won’t be able to taste your favorite foods as
well.
(iii) Smoking increases your heart rate and blood
pressure. If you try to do activities like exercise or
play sports, your heart has to work harder to keep
up.
(iv) Smokers have trouble breathing because smoking
damages the lungs. If you have asthma, you can
have more frequent and more serious attacks.
Smoking causes a lot of coughing with phlegm
(mucous). Tobacco can also increase emphysema
(lung disease) and lung cancer.
(v) Smoking causes dry, yellow skin and wrinkles.
The smell sticks to your skin too.
Prevention and Control : The age-old adage of
‘prevention is better than cure’ holds true here also. It is
also true that habits such as smoking, taking drug or
alcohol are more likely to be taken up at a young age,
more during adolescence. Some of the measures
mentioned here would be particularly useful for
prevention and control of alcohol and drugs abuse
among adolescents.
(i) Avoid undue peer pressure : Every child has
his/her own choice and personality, which should
be respected and nurtured. A child should not be
pushed unduly to perform beyond his/her
threshold limits; be it studies, sports or other
activities.
(ii) Educationa nd counselling : Educating and
counselling him/her to face problems and stresses,
and to accept disappointments and failures as a
part of life. It would also be worthwhile to
channelise the child’s energy into healthy pursuits
like sports, reading, music, yoga and other
extracurricular activites.
(iii) Seeking help from parents and peers : Help from
parents and peers should be sought immediately
so that they can guide appropriately. Help may
even be sought from close and trusted friends.
Besides getting proper advise to sort out their
problems, this would help young to vent their
feelings of anxiety and guilt.
(iv) Looking for danger signs : Alert parents and
teachers need to look for identify the danger signs
discussed above. Even friends, if they find
someone using drugs or alcohol, should not
hesitate to bring this to the notice of parents or
teacher in the best interest of the person
concerned. Appropriate measures would then be
required to diagnose the malady and the
underlying causes. This would help in initiating
proper remedial steps or treatment.
(v) Seeking professional and medical help : A lot of
help is available in the form of highly qualified
psychologists, psychiatrists, and de-addiction and
rehabilitation programmes to help individuals
who have unfortunately got in the quagmire of
drug/alcohol abuse. With such help, the affected
idnividual with sufficient efforts and will power,
can get rid of the problem completely and lead a
perfectly normal and healthy life.
Q. 3. What is disease? Explain the various types of diseases
caused by viruses and nematodes and their control
measures. (2017)
Ans. The condition of improper functioning or any
condition which interferes with the normal functioning
of one or more organs or systems of the body and
causes disorder of mind or body is called diseases. It is
characterized by various signs and symptoms.
Various types of diseases caused by viruses are given
below :
(i) Common cold: Causative agents of common cold
are rhinoviruses. It is the most common viral
infection found in case of humans. These viruses
majorly affects the nose and the respiratory
passage, (but not the lungs).
Symptoms : Include nasal congestion and
discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough,
headache, tiredness, etc. Symptoms usually last
for 3-7 days. Infection is transmitted through
droplets resulting from coughing or sneezes of an
infected person or through contaminated objects
such as pens, books, cups, door knobs, computers
keyboard, etc.
Control measures : (i) Avoid touching your eyes,
nose and mouth with unwahsed hands. Viruses
that cause colds can enter yourbody this way and
make you sick. (ii) Stay away from people who
are sick.
(ii) AIDS : It’s pathogen is Human Immunodefi-
ciency Virus (HIV). It destroys T-helper
lymphocytes and weakens immune system, which
causes many diseases to accumulate inside the
body. It has no treatment till date. It spreads
through infected needle, blood donation, sexual
contacts, etc.
Prevention and control : Blood banks should be
screened for HIV, use of disposable needles and

syringes, use condoms during coitus and promote
regular checkup for HIV.
Various types of diseases caused by nematodes
are given below.
(a) Ascariasis—This disease spreads by
helminth parasite—Ascaris lumbricoides
(unhostile), which is an intestinal parasite. It
is trasmitted through contaminated water,
vegetables, fruits, etc.
Symptoms are internal bleeding, muscular
pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of
intestinal passage.
Prevention and Treatment : Keeping clean
environment, no open disposal of faeces, no
consumption of polluted food and rotten
fruits and vegetables, proper washing of
hands before eating, proper cleanliness of
toilets and use of pure water, etc., are few
preventive measures of this disease. On the
occurrence of disease, piperazin citrate and
piperazin phosphate, etc., medicines are used
to kill the parasite.
(b) Filariasis : See Long answer type Q.No. 1
Q.4. Write short notes on any two of the following. (2017)
(i) Alcohol abuse
(ii) Stem cell
(iii) Human health
Ans. (i) Alcohol abuse : Ethyl alcohol or ethanol
(C 2 H 5 OH) is a colourless liquid produced by the
fermentation of carbohydrates.
Alcohol causes intoxication and, therefore it can
as slow poison. The drinker begins with small
doses and then slowly starts consuming large
doses and became addicts. Alcohol addicts are
called alcoholics.
Stress and some social pressure also play a
significant role in compelling youngesters to try
alcohol.
The immediate effects of alcohol abuse are
observed in the form of reckless behaviour,
vandalism and violence.
Most common warning signs of alcohol abuse:
(a) Drop in academic performance.
(b) Change in sleeping and eating habits.
(c) Loss of interest in hobbies.
(d) Aggressive and rebellious behaviour.
(ii) Stem cell: These are undifferentiated biological
cells that can differentiate into specialized cells
and can divide to produce more stem cells. They
are found in multicellular organisms. In mammals
there are two types of stem cells; embryonic stem
cells, which are isolated from the inner cell mass
79
of blastocysts and adult stem cells which are
found in various tissues.
(iii) Health: According to World Health Organisation
(WHO), health is a state of complete physical,
mental and social well being and not merely the
absence of disease or infirmity. Healthy people
are more efficient at work which helps in
increasing the productivity and brings economic
prosperity. It also increases the longevity of
people by reducing infant and maternal mortality
rates.
Health is mainly affected by :
(a) Genetic disorders which the child inherits from
parents by birth and deficiencies with which a
child is born.
(b) Infections caused by pathogens.
(c) Lifestyle including the food and water we take,
rest and exercise, habits that we have or lack, etc.
Good health can be achieved and maintained by :
(a) Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular
exercise.
(b) Regular yoga practice to achieve physical and
mental health.
(c) Awareness about the diseases and their effects on
different body functions.
(d) Vaccination (immunisation) against infectious
diseases.
(e) Proper disposal of wastes, control of vectors,
maintenance of hygenic food and water resources.
Q.5. What is called drug addiction? Mention effects of
intoxicating drugs. (2016)
Or What is addiction? Give the name of main
intoxicating drugs and explain their effects. (2020)
Ans. When a person is constantly dependent on taking
drugs, then this state is called drug addiction. Such
person becomes physically or mentally sick for that
drugs. Drug addicted person feels lively and healthy
after using that drug.
Types of intoxicating/narcotic drugs : Intoxicating
drugs can be categorised in following groups—
(i) Tranquiliser and hypnotics: These drugs affect
central nervous system. Reduce tension and
anxiety of the brain and induce sleep, e.g., balium,
librium, barbiturates, equanil, etc.
(ii) Stimulants or antidepressants: These drugs also
affect central nervous system. They get relief
from pain. Blood pressure increases and
behaviour becomes violent, e.g., tofranil,
caffeine, amphietamines, methamphetamines,
etc., tea, coffee cocoa also come under these.
(iii) Hallucinogens or Psychedelic: They produce
vision and auditory illusions. This is the drug
 80
altering thoughts and feelings, e.g., cannabis,
hemp, hashish, marijuana, charas, LSD,
mescaline, psilocybin, etc.
(iv) Opiates: They reduce pain, anxiety and tension.
Reduce blood pressure and respiration rate. They
induce sloth and sleep. An opiate is a group of
narcotic drugs, which include Opium and
substance formed by its secretion like morphine,
heroin, pethidine, methadonem, etc.
Effects of intoxicating drugs : See the answer of
Long Questions-2.
Q.6. What do you understand by the immune system? Who
invented the immune system? Write down the
symptoms, transmission and control measures of
smallpox disease. (2017)
Ans. The ability of an organism to fight against disease
causing agents is called immunity. Several organs of
the body participated in the immunity these are
collectively called immune system, i.e., lymphoid
organs tissues, cells, etc. Smallpox is a contagious and
sometimes fatal disease, caused by a brick-shaped
double-stranded DNA virus of the Poxviridae family. It
is one of the largest virions, approximately the same
size of chlamydiae.
An English Physician Edward Jenner invented the
immune system. The main parts of the immune system
are—WBCs, antibodies, the complement system, the
lymphatic system, the spleen, the thymus and the bone
marrow. These are the parts of your immune system
that actively fight infection.
Symptoms : Smallpox pustules covering the trunk of
the body Smallpox Open pop-up dialog box.
The first symptoms of smallpox usually appear 10 to 14
days after you are infected. During the incubation
period of seven to 17 days, you look and feel healthy
and can't infect others.
Following the incubation period, a sudden onset of
flu-like signs and symptoms occurs. These include:
Fever, Overall discomfort, Headache, Severe fatigue,
Severe back pain, Vomiting, possibly.
A few days later, flat, red spots appear first on your
face, hands and forearms, and later on your trunk.
Within a day or two, many of these lesions turn into
small blisters filled with clear fluid, which then turns
into pus. Scabs begin to form eight to nine days later
and eventually fall off, leaving deep, pitted scars.
Causes : Smallpox is caused by infection with the
variola virus.
Transmission : Directly from person to person. Direct
transmission of the virus requires fairly prolonged
face-to-face contact. The virus can be transmitted
through the air by droplets that escape when an
infected person coughs, sneezes or talks.
Indirectly from an infected person. In rare instances,
airborne virus can spread farther, possibly through the
ventilation system in a building, infecting people in
other rooms or on other floors.
Via contaminated items. Smallpox can also spread
through contact with contaminated clothing and
bedding, although the risk of infection from these
sources is less common.
As a terrorist weapon, potentially. A deliberate release
of smallpox is a remote threat. However, because any
release of the virus could spread the disease quickly,
government officials have taken numerous precautions
to protect against this possibility, such as stockpiling
smallpox vaccine.
Lesions also develop in the mucous membranes of your
nose and mouth and quickly turn into sores that break
opne.
Prevention : In the event of an outbreak, people who
had smallpox would be kept in isolation in an effort to
control the spread of the virus. Anyone who had
contact with someone who developed an infection
would need the smallpox vaccine, which can prevent or
lessen the severity of the disease if given within four
days of exposure to the smallpox virus.
The vaccine uses a live virus that's related to smallpox,
and it can occasionally cause serious complications,
such as infections affecting the heart or brain. That's
why a general vaccination program for everyone isn't
recommended at this time. The potential risks of the
vaccine outweigh the benefits, in the absence of an
actual smallpox outbreak.
Lab tests suggest certain antiviral drugs may be
effective against the virus that causes smallpox. These
drugs have not been tested in people who are sick with
smallpox, however, so it's not known if these drugs are
effective treatment options.
Q.7. What do you know about immunity? Name two human
vaccines and clarify their importance. (2017)
Ans. The ability of the body (host) to fight against the
disease causing agents is called immunity. It is of two
types as shown below.
(a) Innate immunity: See the answer to Long
Question-10.
(b) Acquired immunity: See the answer to Long
Question-10.
Principal vaccines used to prevent bacterial/viral
diseases in human

Bacterial Vaccine Recommen- Booster
Disease dation
Cholera Crude fraction of For people who Every 6 months
Vibrio cholerae work and live in as needed
endemic areas
Diphtheria Purified For children 2 Every 10 yrs for
diphtheria toxoid months to 16 yrs adults
Meningoco- Purified For people with Need not to be
ccal polysaccharide substantial risk of established
from Neisseria infection
meningitidis
Pertussis Killed whole or Children prior to For high-risk
fragments of school age (3-4 adults
(whooping
cough) Bordetella yrs)
pertussis
Q.8. Describe specific defence system.
Ans. Animals have immune system to defend from acquired
diseases. These immunity feature and associated
organs are collectively called immune system. White
blood cells participate in this. Main cells of immune
system are T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes.
Lymphocytes which mature in thymus gland are
differentiated into T-lymphocytes and lymphocytes
which mature in lymph tissues are differentiated in
B-lymphocytes.
Immune system of two types :
(i) Cell-mediated immunity: T-lymphocytes
become active coming in contact with antigens
and increase in their number by mitotic division
which results in the formation of four types of
lymphocytes.
(a) Killer T-lymphocytes: They kill the
pathogenic cells by direct attack on them.
(b) Helper T-lymphocytes: Stimulate the activity
of killer T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes.
(c) Suppressor T-lymphocytes: They suppress
the activity of immune system after the
infection has been finished.
(d) Memory cells: Some of the cells after coming
in contact with pathogens become sensitized
and stored in lymphoid tissue as memory
cells. These cells become instantly active to
attack by same antigen.
(ii) Antibody-mediated immunity: B-lymphocytes
produce antibodies; some B-lymphocytes became
active and differentiate into plasma cells. These
plasma cells produce antibodies. Some
B-lymphocytes stored in lymphoid tissue as
memory cells. When the same attack repeats,
these cells form lacs of similar cells and produce
antibodies.
81
Q.9. Which three main defense methods are used to prevent
infection in human body? Describe main features of
immune responses. (2016)
Ans. Following three main defense methods are used to
prevent infection in human body.
(i) First defensive level (Impenetrable level of
body-skin and mucus layer).
(ii) Second defensive level (Non-specific immune
system).
(iii) Third defensive level (Specific immune system)
Main feature of immune response
Immune response induced in animals to produce
specific types of protein antibody. For this
purpose, lymphocytes present in blood and lymph
become sensitised towards pathogens entering
inside the body and provide life time protection by
identifying foreign organisms, and destroying
them.
So, main features of immune response are as
follows:
1. Recognition of invader or Detection of foreign
substances: First and main task of immune
responses is to differentiate between own cells or
substances and foreign organisms or substances
invading from outside or recognising foreigners
or invaders. After recognising once, immune
system starts destroying foreign substance.
Lymphocytes of immune system perform
recognition and destruction of foreign substances.
Substances starting immune response starts
antigen antibody reactions. Mainly antigens are
large molecules of protein. Antibodies attached at
the surface of T and B-lymphocytes recognize
antigen. Glycoprotein attached on plasma
membrane of foreign cells also functions as
antigens. Our body's lymphocytes recognise these
foreign glycoprotein.
Due to this reason immune system recognises
cancer cells and tissue graft cells. Some medicines
(Sulfa drug, antibiotics,) toxins, toxoids and some
chemical substances (Like formaldehyde to
poison), etc. also initiate immune responses.
2. Overcoming threates or Destruction of
antigens: Antibodies destroy foreign organism in
five ways—
(a) By neutrilisation: Antibodies make an
covering around virus molecules, due to
which virus molecules do not stick on the
plasma membranes of somatic cells and are
incapable of invading them. Similarly
antibodies also gets neutrilised.
 82
(b) Agglutination : Single antibody agglutinates
many antigens and bacteria by binding with
them. Later macrophages destroy these
antigen-antibody agglutinates by engulfing
them.
(c) Precipitation : Antibodies make antigen
insoluble by binding with them. These
antigen-antibody complex precipitate and
are destroyed by macrophages.
(d) Opsonisation: Some antibodies cover the
surface of bacteria due to which phagocytic
cells easily destroys them by eating.
Antibodies performing this activity are
called opsonin.
(e) Activation of complementary system :
Antigen-Antibody complex activates
complementary protein molecules of
non-specific immune system.
3. Memorising invader or Production of memory
cells: Cells of immune system produce memory
cells against invading substances.
Some memory cells are produced for each antigen
or pathogen by B and T both lymphocytes, which
remain in the blood and lymph in dormant state.
Such as external antigen invades in the body, all
memory cells against that antigen get ready for
infection by activating themselves, this is called
secondary immune response.
Lymphocyte destroy invaders. Lymphocytes form
in red bone marrow and remain in blood and
lymph. These are of two types, i.e., immature and
mature.
Q.10. What do you mean by the term immunological system?
Describe different types of immunological system.
(2017, 18)
Ans. Immunological system refers to the association of
organs and cells involved in defence of a host body.
The function of this system is to provide immunity
against disease causing agents like bacteria, fungi,
virus, etc.
Immunity developed in our body is grouped into
following categories.
Innate immunity : The defence elements with which
an individual is born and which are always available to
protect the body. It is a non-specific type of defence. It
consists of four types of barrier systems that prevent
the entry of pathogen or foreign element into the body.
There are various types of barriers as given below :
(i) Physical barriers : Skin prevents the entry of the
pathogens into the body. Mucous coating of
epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal
and urogenital tracts also help in trapping
microbes.
(ii) Physiological barriers : Tears from the eyes,
saliva in the mouth, acid in the stomach, etc.,
prevent the growth of microbes.
(iii) Cellular barriers : These include the special types
of cells in our body which kill the disease causing
agents. These are WBCs like Polymorpho
Nuclear Leucocytes (PMNL-neutrophils),
monocytes and natural killer cells (type of
lymphocytes) in the blood and macrophages in
tissues.
(iv) Cytokine barriers : Cells which are virus-infected
release proteins called interferons that protect
non-infected cells from further viral infection.
Acquired Immunity
The pathogen’s specific immunity. It is not present
from birth and develops during an individual’s
lifetime. This type of immunity is acquired, either by
encountering the disease or by vaccination. It has the
following characters :
(a) Specificity : It has the ability to distinguish many
different foreign molecules.
(b) Memory : The ability to memorise the primary
encounter with a pathogen.
(c) Discrimination : Between self and non-self cells.
It can be of following two types—
Active Immunity
The immunity developed by the body on exposure to
the antigens either in living form or dead microbes or
other proteins. It involves production of antibodies.
Introduction of pathogens or microbes either during
immunisation or by any infection induces active
immunity. It is slow but long lasting and has no side
effects. This immunity may be :
(i) Artificial immunity : developed by vaccination.
(ii) Natural immunity : developed during natural
infection.
(b) Passive Immunity
The immunity bestowed by antibodies that are directly
administered in the body. It is fast but lasts only for few
days. For example,
(i) Antibodies received by foetus from mother
through placenta.
(ii) Antibodies in the colostrum (IgA rich).
Colostrum is a yellowish fluid secreted by
mother during the initial days of lactation.

NCERT Fully Solved Exercise
Q.1 What are the various public health measures, which
you would suggest as safeguard against infectious
diseases ?
Ans. Various public health measures, as safeguard against
infectious diseases can be—education of public,
isolation and treatment of the infected ones,
vaccination, sanitation, eradication of vectors and
sterilization.
Q.2 In which way has the study of biology helped us to
control infectious diseases ?
Ans. Study of biology has helped us to know about causes of
diseases, carriers of diseases (vectors), effects of
diseases on our body and its functions. Biology has
also helped us in finding out the control measures of
various diseases.
Q.3 How does the transmission of each of the following
diseases take place ?
(a) Amoebiasis (2020) (b) Malaria
(c) Ascariasis (2020) (d) Pneumonia.
Ans. (a) Amoebiasis : It is caused by Entamoeba
histolytica. Infection occurs by ingesting cysts
with food and drinks. These cysts are carried by
flies from faeces to food and drinks.
(b) Malaria : It is caused by Plasmodium sp. Malarial
parasites are carried from the infected to the
healthy persons by the bite of female Anopheles
mosquito.
(c) Ascariasis : Infection occurs by taking Ascaris
eggs with food and water. Children become
infected by ingesting soiled bed sheets.
(d) Pneumonia : It spreads by sputum of the patient.
Infection occurs when Penumococci containing
droplets are inhaled by a healthy person.
Q.4 What measure would you take to prevent water-borne
diseases ?
Ans. Water borne diseases can be prevented by using clean
drinking water and also periodic cleaning and
disinfecting of water reservoirs, pools, and tanks.
Q.5 Discuss with your teacher what does ‘a suitable gene’
means, in the context of DNA vaccines.
Ans. The term ‘suitable gene’ refers to that gene (specific
segment of DNA) that will be modified in the host to
produce specific protein to kill specific disease causing
organisms.
Q.6 Name the primary and secondary lymphoid organs.
Ans. (a) Primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and
thymus.
83
(b) Secondary lymphoid organs are spleen, lymph
nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine
and appendix.
Q.7 The following are some well-known abbreviations,
which have been used in this chapter. Expand each one
to its full form :
(a) MALT (b) CMI (c) AIDS (d) NACO (e) HIV
Ans. (a) MALT—Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissues.
(b) CMI—Computerized Magnetic Imaging.
(c) AIDS—Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome.
(d) NACO—National AIDS Control Organization.
(e) HIV—Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
Q.8 Differentiate the following and give examples of each :
(a) Innate and acquired immunity (2019)
(b) Active and passive immunity
Ans. Please see the answer of Short answer type question-2
and 1.
Q.9 Draw a well-labelled diagram of an antibody molecule.
(2020)
Ans. See short answer type Q.No. 3
Q.10 What are the various routes by which transmission of
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) takes place ?
Ans. HIV is transmitted through various routes but it
requires the contact of the body fluids of the infected
person and healthy person. Important routes are :
(i) Unprotected (without condom) sexual intercourse
with the infected partner if there is tissue injury to
permit blood contact.
(ii) Use of contaminated needles and syringes to
inject drugs or vaccines.
(iii) Use of contaminated razors for shaving.
(iv) Transfusion of infected blood or blood products.
(v) Organ transplant, where donor is infected.
(vi) Parturition from mother to baby due to rupturing
of blood vessels.
Q.11 What is the mechanism by which the AIDS virus
causes deficiency of immune system of the infected
person?
Ans. (i) After getting into the body of the person, the HIV
enters macrophages where RNA genome of the
virus replicates to form viral DNA with the help of
reverse transcriptase enzyme.
(ii) The viral DNA then gets incorporated into DNA
of the host cell and directs the synthesis of virus
particles.
(iii) HIV now enters helper T-lymphocytes, where it
replicates and produces viral progeny. These
viruses then released into the blood and they
attack other helper T-lymphocytes. In this way,
there is a progressive decrease in number of
 84
helper T-lymphocytes. As a result, person starts
suffering from infections and immune system
becomes weaker.
Q.12 How is a cancerous cell different from a normal cell ?
Ans. Cancer cell is different from normal cells in following
aspects :
(i) It continues dividing ceaselessly.
(ii) It divides in an uncontrolled manner.
(iii) It does not undergo differentiation.
(iv) It forms an ever growing tumour by accumulation.
(v) It does not remain confined to a particular place
but shows metastasis. It spread to other places and
form secondary tumours.
(vi) It invades the neighbouring tissue and dislocate
their functions.
(vii) Spread throughout the body, forming secondary
tumours.
(viii) It does not show contact inhibition.
Q.13 Explain what is meant by metastasis ?
Ans. The ability of the cancerous or neoplastic cells to move
from one place to another place and generate secondary
tumours is called metastasis. As the tumour cells divide
actively and grow, they even starve the normal cells by
competing for necessary nutrients.
Q.14 List the harmful effects caused by alcohol/drug abuse.
Ans. Alcohol and drug abuse causes severe adverse effects
on the individual, his family, and the society.
Effects on individual : When an individual consumes
alcohol/drugs, it causes damage to the liver and the
nervous system. As a result, other symptoms such as
depression, fatigue, aggression, loss of weight and
appetite are observed. The spread of HIV is most
common in such individuals as they share common
needles for injecting drugs in their body. A person
dependent on drugs becomes frustrated, irritated, and
anti-social.
Effects on the family : Consumption of excess alcohol
by any family member can have devastating effects on
the family. It leads to several domestic problems such
as quarrels, frustrations, insecurity, etc.
Effects on the society :
(a) Rash behavior.
(b) Malicious mischief and violence.
(c) Deteriorating social network.
(d) Loss of interest in social and other activities.
Note : Due to Covid-19 Chapter-9 (Strategy for Enhancement in Food Production) is
not in the Latest Syllabus 2020-21.
Q.15 Do you think that friends can influence one to take
alcohol/drugs? If yes, how may one protect himself/
herself from such an influence ?
Ans. Yes, friends can influence a person to take alcohol and
drugs. One can protect himself/herself from such type
of influences by avoiding experimental use of alcohol
and drugs for curiosity or pleasure and avoiding the
company of such friends.
Q.16 Why is that once a person starts taking alcohol or
drugs, it is difficult to get rid of this habit? Discuss it
with your teacher.
Ans. Drug and alcohol consumption has an inherent
addictive nature associated with euphoria and a
temporary feeling of well-being. Repeated intake of
drugs increases the tolerance level of the body’s
receptors, leading to more consumption of drugs. So, it
is very difficult to get rid of this habit.
Q.17 In your view what motivates youngsters to take to
alcohol or drugs and how can this be avoided ?
Ans. Many factors are responsible for motivating
youngsters towards alcohol or drugs. Curiosity, need
for adventure and excitement, experimentation are the
initial causes of motivation. Some youngsters start
consuming drugs and alcohol in order to overcome
negative emotions (such as stress, pressure, depression,
frustration).
Media like movies, television, internet, etc. are also
responsible for promoting the idea of taking alcohol to
the younger generation. Other reasons such as
unsupportive family environment and peer pressure
can also push these individuals towards drugs.
Preventive measures against addiction of alcohol and
drugs:
(a) Parents should educate their children about the
ill-effects of alcohol.
(b) Parents should motivate and try to increase the
will power of their child.
(c) Parents should watch their children carefully for
their activities.
(d) Children should be encouraged to devote their
energy in other extra-curricular and recreational
activities.
(e) Proper professional and medical help should be
provided to a child if sudden symptoms of
depression and frustration are observed.
ccc
Chapter 9 : Strategy for Enhancement in Food Production
(This Chapter has been Deleted From Syllabus For Session 85

2020-21 Due To COVID-19 Epidemic)

Chapter

10
MICROBES IN
HUMAN WELFARE

² Saprophytes are the micro-organisms, which obtain their food from dead and decaying organic matter.
² Lactic acid bacteria are rod shaped bacteria.
² In our stomach, LAB also helps us by checking the growth of other micro-organisms.
² Fermentation is a process of chemical change caused by organisms or their products, usually producing effervescence and heat.
² Fermentation involves anaerobic oxidation.
² Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic associationship of fungi with the roots of higer plants.
² The first antibiotic was discovered accidentally by Sir Alexander Fleming, while working on Staphylococci bacteria. This antibiotic
was Penicillin as it was isolated from a fungus, Penicillium notatum.
² Streptokinase, produced by Streptococcus and modified by gene engineering is used as a ‘clot buster’ i.e., it helps in removing clots from
the blood vessels in persons, who have undergone myocardial infarction.
² Secondary treatment of sewage water is also called biological treatment.
² Anaerobic sludge digesters can produce biogas.
² The technology of biogas production in India was developed mainly due to the efforts of IARI (Indian Agricultural Research Institute)
and KVIC (Khadi and Village Industries Commission).
² In 1961, a Gobar Gas Research Station was also established at Ajitmal (district Etawah in U.P.), which has designed a variety of ‘gas
plants’ suited to Indian conditions and supplying electricity at a cheap rate.
² Bacillus thuringiensis is a bacterium that produces toxins, which are harmful for insect larvae.
² Bt Cotton is a genetically engineered plant, containg toxin producing gene of bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis.
² Azospirillum and Azotobacter are free living nitrogen fixing bacteria.
² Some fungi such as Glomus also form symbiotic associations with plants (mycorrhiza).

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. Biogas is produced by: (c) Bacillus megathermus and Xanthomonas sp.
(a) Bacteria (b) Archaebacteria (d) Lactobacillus and Streptococcus
(c) Mycoplasma (d) Cyanobacteria Q.5. Baker’s yeast is :
Q. 2. The free living fungus Trichoderma can be used for: (a) S. cerevisae (b) S. ludwingii
(a) Killing insects (c) S. octosporous (d) Schizosaccharomyces
(b) Biological control of disease Q. 6. First discovered antibiotic is :
(c) Controlling caterpillars (a) Penicillin (b) Azithromycin
(d) Producing antibodies (c) Amphoterecin (d) Chloromycal
Q.3. Which one of the following is not a nitrogen fixing Q.7. Bacillus thuringiensis is used as :
organism? (a) Biofertilizer (b) Biopesticide
(a) Anabaena (b) Nostoc (c) Bioenergy source (d) All of these
(c) Azotobacter (d) Pseudomonas Q.8. In september 2001, which of the following was used as
Q.4. Which group is responsible for formation and flavour a bioweapon agent in America?
of yoghurt? (a) Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
(a) Bacillus subtilis and E.coli (b) Botulinum
(b) Rhizobium meliloti and Azotobacter (c) AIDS virus (d) Polio virus
 86

Q.9. Nitrate found in soil is converted into nitrogen by: (c) Pseudomonas (d) All of these
(2018) Q.12. Bacillus thuringiensis is a :
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter (a) Mould (b) Bacteria
(c) Pseudomonas (d) All of these (c) Virus (d) Algae
Q.10. Which fungus is used in production of alcohol from Q.13. Antibiotics obtained mainly from : (2020)
sugar? (2018) (a) Blue-green algae (b) Bacteria
(a) Yeast (b) Penicillium (c) Bryophyta (d) Virus
(c) Rhizopus (d) Mucour Q.14. Who discovered penicillin? (2020)
Q.11. Which of the following has symbiotic relation with (a) Herbert Boyer (b) Swaminathan
root nodules found in leguminous plants? (2018) (c) Ram dev Mishra (d) A. Fleming
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)

11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Define pasteurization? Ans. Azolla pinnata, Anabaena and Nostoc are used as
Ans. It is a method of preserving milk by killing all the bio-fertilizers.
pathogens present in it. This is achieved by heating the Q.12. Write down the names of components of biogas. (2018)
milk sample at a particular temperature for specific Ans. Methane (CH 4 ), CO 2 and hydrogen are the
time period. components of biogas.
Q. 2. Name two free-living nitrogen fixing microbes. Q.13. What is the contribution of yeast cell in the formation
Ans. Azotobacter and Clostridium. of dough? (2014)
Q. 3. What is biogas? (2018) Ans. Yeast on fermentation breaksdown the sugar, CO 2 and
Ans. Biogas is a mixture of methane, carbon dioxide,
C 2 H 5 OH are formed. It has a major contribution in the
hydrogen sulphide and ammonia.
formation of dough which can be used to make food
Q. 4. Give the name of bacteria which converts the lactose products.
sugar of milk into lactic acid?
Q.14. Which bacteria is used in the production of vinegar?
Ans. (i) Streptococcus lactis
(2018)
(ii) Lactobacillus lactis
Ans. Acetobacter aceti
Q.5. Who discovered the Penicillin? (2011)
Q.15. What is the importance of Rhizobium in agriculture?
Ans. Alexander Fleming discovered the penicillin from a
(2018)
fungus named Penicillium notatum.
Ans. It fixes the nitrogen in soil.
Q.6. Give the name of any two antibiotics?
Q.16. Which micro-organism is used for fermentation of tea
Ans. (i) Streptomycin— obtained from Streptomyces
leaves? (2018)
griseus
Ans. Micrococcus candidans
(ii) Chloromycetin— obtained from S. venezuelae.
Q.17. What is leguminous haemoglobin? (2018)
Q. 7. What are bio-fertilizers? (2016)
Ans. Leguminous haemoglobin or leghaemoglobin is an
Ans. Bio-fertilizers are organism that enrich the nutrients in
oxygen carrier haemoprotein, which is found in the
the soil.
nitrogen fixer root nodules of leguminous plants. It
Q.8. Give an example of rod shaped bacteria?
supplies O 2 to cells of symbiotic bacteria for
Ans. Tobacco mosaic virus.
respiration.
Q.9. What is sewage?
Q.18. Discuss the role of blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) in
Ans. The untreated or semi-treated household, waste water,
increasing the fertility of the soil in brief. (2019)
containing human and animal excreta and fecal matter
Ans. Blue-green algae (BGA) are photosynthetic nitrogen
is called sewage.
fixers and are free living. Increase in soil phosphate by
Q.10. When was Ganga Action plan started?
excretion of organic acid. Increasing rice growth and
Ans. ‘Ganga Action Plan’ was started in 1985.
yield as a natural biofertilizer.
Q.11. Write any two microbes used as bio-fertilizers.
 87

Short Answer Type Questions 2 & 3 Marks

Q.1. How microbes help in the making of drinks and bread? enzyme and many acids. These products are very
(2011) useful for mankind. Its importance and clear from
Ans. Microbes are helpful in the production of drinks following points.
generally alcoholic drinks. 1. Some bacteria like Bacillus megatherium and
Alcohol is made by fermenting different food products Micrococcus candidans are used in tobacco
with the help of yeast. Along with it CO2 and alcohol industry.
are also formed. Alcohol is separated through 2. Micrococcus candidans is also used in curing of
distillation. Alcoholic drinks consists of beer, rum, tea leaves, which causes the special taste of tea.
whisky, wine etc. 3. Antibiotic medicines are prepared by the some
Zymase bacteria like.
C 6 H12 O 6 ¾¾¾®
Yeast
2C 2 H 5 OH + 2CO 2 + Heat (i) Bacillus brevis — Thyrothrin
(ii) Streptomyces primosus — Terramycin
Microbes are also used in the making of bread dough.
(iii) S. fradiae — Neomycin
Yeast is put for fermentation. During respiration it
4. Vinegar is obtained by the action of bacterium
gives CO2 gas which results in pores in dough.
Acetobacter aceti with sugar solution.
Generally in bakery products Saccharomyces yeast is 5. Some vitamins like vit. B2 and vit. C is obtained
used. from bacterium Clostridium acetobutylicum and
Q.2. What is meant by BOD? Acetobacter respectively.
Ans. This is the amount of oxygen present in water for the Q.5. Write the constituent gases of biogas and write its two
degradation of organic and other human pollutants by benefits for human beings? (2016, 17, 18)
microbes. Biological oxygen demand gives the Or What is biogas? Give two uses of biogas in rural
measure of oxygen required by microbes to areas. (2017)
degradation of pollutants in 1 litre of water. More BOD
Ans. Biogas or gobar gas is a methane rich gas. This gas is
is an indication of more polluted water.
produced by the fermentation or degradation of
Q.3. Explain the advantage and disadvantages of Biogas? biomass. The energy released from biogas depends
Ans. Advantages: upon the proportion of methane present in it.
1. Biogas provides a non-polluting and renewable
Constituents of biogas :
source of energy.
2. Efficient way of energy conversion. Name of gas Chemical formula Percentage
3. Leads to improvement in the environment, and Methane CH4 50-68%
sanitation and hygiene. Carbon dioxide CO2 25-35%
4. Leads to employment generation in the rural Hydrogen H2 1-15%
areas. Nitrogen N2 2-7%
5. Any biodegradable matter can be used as
Oxygen O2 0.01%
substrate.
6. Household wastes and bio-wastes can be disposed Hydrogen sulphide H2 S Very small amount
off usefully and in a healthy manner. Benefits :
Disadvantages: (i) It provides fertilisers in farms.
1. This process is not very attractive, economically (ii) This gas is used in producing electricity and for
or a large industrial scale. cooking.
2. It is very difficult to enhance the efficiency of Q.6. What do you understand by biofertilizers? Write the
biogas systems. name of any two nitrogen fixing bacteria. (2017, 20)
3. Biogas contains some gases as impurities, which Or What are biofertilisers? Why is it used more than
are corrosive to the metal parts of internal chemical fertilisers? (2016)
combution engines. Or Micro-organisms used as bio-fertilizers.
4. Not feasible to locate at all the locations. “Microbes can be used to decrease the use of chemical
Q. 4. Give the importance of bacteria in industrial products. fertilizers and pesticides”. Justify the statement. (2019)
Or Describe the importance of micro-organisms in Or What do you understand by biofertilisers? Give its
industrial production with examples. (2019) source and usefulness. (2019)
Ans. Bacteria or microbes gives their contribution in making Or Write a short note on biofertilizers. (2020)
wine, vinegar, antibiotics and chemicals such as
 88

Ans. Biofertilisers are the microbial organism that have the Formation of cheese, also involves the use of microbes.
ability to enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. The The flavour and taste of different varieties of cheese is
main sources of biofertilisers are bacteria, fungi and due to use of specific microbes. For example, the
cyanobacteria. bacterium, Propionibacterium sharmanii produces
Some of the microbes (nitrogen-fixing) produce large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ due to the production of a
nitrogen in the environment by fixing nitrogen, e. g., large amount of CO 2 . The ‘Roquefort cheese’ which
Rhizobium, Acetobacter, Azolla, etc. They are nitrogen is a blue cheese prepared from sheep’s milk, is ripened
fixing organisms. by growing a specific fungus (Penicillium roqueforti)
Micro-organisms protect the plants from the bad on it.
effects of other insects. Some organisms also take part Q.8. Explain the use of micro-organism in the production of
in the production of humun in soil. energy (Biogas)? (2018)
Many members of the genus Glomus (fungi) form Or What is the role of micro-organisms in production
symbiotic associations with plant known as of biogas. (2019)
mycorrhiza that Or Write a short not on the role of microbes in biogas
â absorb phosphorus from soil and pass it to the plant. production. (2020)
â help the plants to develop resistance to root-borne Ans. Microbes like methanogens and Methanobacter are
pathogens. used for the production of ‘biogas’ which is used as
â increase their tolerance to salinity and drought and energy source. The major part of biogas, consists of
thus, help in overall increase in plant growth and methane (50-70%). Other constituents of biogas are
development. CO 2 (30-40%), small amount of hydrogen, nitrogen
Biofertilisers are preferred over because chemical ethylene, acetylene, ethane, propane and a very little
fertilisers. amount of hydrogen sulphide (H 2 S).
(i) Chemical fertilisers are expensive as well as The excreta of cattle, i. e., cattle dung (commonly
harmful for the soil. They decrease the fertility of known as gobar) is rich in methanogenic bacteria, is
the soil and make it infertile. used in the generation of biogas or gobar gas.
(ii) Their excess usage creates a bad effect on human Biogas plant optimises the utilisation of manure, waste
body. and these organic feed stock by converting the
(iii) Usage of coal and petroleum in production biomasses into energy and valuable bio-fertilisers.
increases pollution. Biofertilisers keep the Biogas was developed in India by Khadi and Village
structure of soil intact as well as the fertility of soil Industries Commission (KVIC) and Indian
is also not damaged. Agricultural Research Institute (IARI).
Q.7. What is fermentation? Give it economic importance. Q.9. Explain the medicinal uses of micro-organisms.
(2018) (2018)
Ans. Fermentation is a process of chemical change caused Or Write the name of any three fungal spceies which
by organisms or their products, usually producing are used in the production of antibiotic. (2019)
effervescence and heat. Microbiologists consider Ans. 1. Use of bacteria in production of antibiotic :
fermentation as ‘any process for the production of a Antibiotics Bacteria
product by means of mass culture of micro-organisms’. 1. Streptomycin Streptomyces griseus
The product formed as a result of fermentation are 2. Aureomycin S. aureofaciens
called fermented food. 3. Terramycin S. rimosus
Fermentation is used in the production of many 4. Chloromycetin S. venezuelae
products, such as bear (and also other alcoholic 2. Use of fungus in production of antibiotic :
beverages), bread, yogurt, cheese, idly, dosa etc. The Antibiotic Fungus
dough, used in dosa and idli is also a fermented 1. Penicillin Penicillium notatum
product. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to 2. Ergot Claviceps purpurea
the production of CO 2 gas. The dough, which is used 3. Clavicin Aspergillus claveus
for making bread, is also fermented by using baker’s 4. Cephalosporin Cephalosporium
yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae). acremonium
Many traditional drinks are also made by fermentation 3. Use of fungus in production of enzyme :
by the microbes. For example, ‘Toddy’, which is Enzyme Fungus
traditional in southern India is made by fermenting sap 1. Invertase Yeast, Alternaria
from palms. 2. Amylase Aspergillus oryzae
3. Renate protease Mucor
 89

4. Use of bacteria in synthesis of various medicinal process in which certain types of bacteria convert the
substances : biological wastes into useful biogas. Since the useful
Product Bacteria gas originates from biological process, it has been
1. Dextron Leuconostoc termed as biogas. Methane gas is the main constituent
2. Vitamin B2 Clostridium acetobutylicum of biogas.
3. Vitamin B12 Streptomyces oliasis Components of biogas plants:
4. Vitamin C Acetobacter (i) Mixing tank : The feed material (dung) is
Q.10. Write the importance of microbes in household collected in the mixing tank. Sufficient water is
products. (2018) added and the material is thoroughly mixed till a
Or Describe the role of micro-organisms in production homogeneous slurry is formed.
of domestic food material. (2019) (ii) Inlet pipe : The substrate is discharged into the
Ans. Microbes in household products : Microbes are used digester through the inlet pipe/tank.
in household products in day-to-day life, e. g., curd is (iii) Digester : The slurry is fermented inside the
digester and biogas is produced through bacterial
made by Lactobacillus, commonly called Lactic Acid
action.
Bacteria (LAB). It grows in milk and converts it into
(iv) Gas holder or gas storage dome : The biogas gets
curd, during growth. The amount of curd added as raw
collected in the gas holder, which holds the gas
material to convert milk into curd is known as
until the time of consumption.
inoculum. The dough which is used for making foods
(v) Outlet pipe: The digested slurry is discharged into
as dosa, idli, cakes and bread are also fermented by
the outlet tank either through the outlet pipe or the
bacteria or yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae).
opening provided in the digester.
Toddy is a traditional drink of Southern India. It is (vi) Gas pipeline: The gas pipeline carries the gas to
made by fermenting sap from palm trees, coconut, etc. the point of utilization, such as a stove or lamp.
Cheese is also made by using microbes. Different
Gas
varieties of cheese are known by taxture, flavour and Dung Water
Mixing pipeline
Gas
taste. These specifity comes from propionibacterium tank
holder Sludge
shermanii in Swiss cheese and Penicillium roqueforti
Outlet
in roquefort cheese. pipe
Q.11. What do you understand by antibiotic? Write down the
names of any two antibiotics. (2019) Inlet pipe
Ans. Antibiotic is a medicine which is used for destroying
bacteria and curing infections. Digester tank
Streptomycin and Chloromycetin are two antibiotics.
Q.12. Name any two species of fungus and the antibiotics Fig. A typical biogas plant
produced by them. (2019) Q.15. How chemical fertilizers are differen from
Ans. Please see the ans. of Short answer type question-9. bio-fertilizers? (2020)
Q.13. What is the key defference between primary and Ans. Difference between chemical fertilizers and bio-
secondary sewage treatment? (2019) fertilizers
Ans. Key differences between primary and secondary
Chemical fertilizers Bio-fertilizers
sewage treatment are as follows :
(i) These are manufactured These are manufactured
Primary Secondary artificially. naturally.
Sewage treatment Sewage treatment
(ii) These are primarily, These are plants such as
It is a physical process. It is a biological process. chemicals having N, bacteria (Azotobacter,
It involves physical It involves the action of phosphate and K as main Rhizobium), fungi etc.
removal of solid material. microbes. soil nutrients.
It is less complicated and It is a complicated and an (iii) These deteriorates to soil These improve to soil
not expensive. expensive process. health. health.
(iv) These have high cost. These have low cost.
Q.14. What is biogas? Describe a typical biogas plant with
(v) These are non-renewable. These are renewable.
the help of a diagram. (2019)
Ans. Biogas : It mainly comprises of hydrocarbon which is Q.16. Explain the significance of micro-organisms in sewage
combustible and can produce heat and energy when treatment. (2020)
burnt. Biogas is produced through a bio-chemical
 90
Ans. Anaerobic bacteria are used in waste water treatment
on a normal basis. The main role of these bacteria is
sewage treatment is to reduce the volume of sludge and
produce methane gas from it. The great thing about this
type of bacteria and why it is used more frequently than
aerobic bacteria is that the methane gas, if cleaned and
handled properly, can be use as an alternative energy
source.
Unlike aerobic bacteria, this type of bacteria is able to
get more than enough oxygen from its food source and
will not require adding oxygen to help do its job.
Phosphorus removal from waste water is another
benefit of anaerobic microbes used in sewage
treatment.
Q.17. What are parasite bacteria? Describe it by giving an
example. (2020)
Ans. While some bacteria are parasites, not all bacteria are.
Neither are all parasites bacteria. Parasites can be any
organism that uses another as a host, and sometimes
that parasitic organism is bacteria. It depends on the
life cycle of the parasitic organism and how it uses the
host. The bacteria that causes strep throat acts as a
parasite in the human body because it uses the host to
multiply and eventually spread to another organism.
Long Answer Type Questions
Q.1. Write comments on the followings.
(a) River Action Plan
(b) Microbes in Sewage Treatment
(c) Bioactive Molecules
(d) Mycorrhizal Association
Ans. (a) River Action Plan : In order to protect the major
rivers of India from sewage pollution. The
ministry of environment and forests of India has
initiated Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action
Plan under the National River Authority. Under
these plans, it is proposed to build a large number
of sewage treatment plants so that only treated
sewage may be discharged in the rivers. Uttar
Pradesh Government 2011 set up the Asia's
largest sewage treatment plant at Lucknow.
(b) Microbes in Sewage Treatment: Refer Q. No. 2
(L.A.).
(c) Bioactive Molecule :
(i) Cyclosporine–A is a bioactive molecule that is
used as an immunosuppressant agent in
organ-transplant patients. It is produces by the
Trichoderma polysporum.
(ii) Statin is a chemical agent produced commercially
by the yeast Monascus purpureus. It is used for
lowering the blood cholesterol level.
If bacteria can infect a host, multiply inside the body
and eventually spread to another organism, it exhibits
the behavior of a parasite. Many bacterial diseases do
this. In particular, food-borne illness such as
Salmonella exhibit this behavior. Other examples of
bacteria that act as parasites are those which cause
sexually transmitted diseases. The bacteria that causes
syphilis and gonorrhea use the natural function of
human hosts to multiply and spread. Additional
bacteria that act as parasites include those that cause
the diseases cholera, small pox and the Bubonic
plague.
Q.18. Define the antibiotic. Who discover the penicillin?
Explain the significance of penicillin. (2020)
Ans. Antibiotic are chemical substances, which are
produced by some microbes and can kill or retard the
growth of other microbes.
Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming.
Penicillin prevents the bacteria from synthesizing
peptidoglycan, a molecule in the cell wall that provides
the wall with the strength it need to survive in the
human body. The drug greatly weakens the cell wall
and causes bacteria to die, allowing a person to recover
from a bacterial infection.
5 Marks
(iii) Dextran is another polysaccharide of microbial
origin produced by Leuconostoc mesentero.
Dextran is used to extend blood plasma.
(iv) Nutrients like amino acids, nucleotides, vitamins
are also produced by micro-organisms. e. g., The
lysine is a product of the bacterium
Corynebacterium glutamicum. Vitamin B12 and
vitamin B2 are produced by a bacterium and a
mold respectively.
(d) Mycorrhizal association : Fungi are known to
form symbiotic associations with plants. Many
members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.
The fungal symbiont in these associations absorbs
phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant.
Plants having such associations show other
benefits also, such as resistance to root-borne
pathogens, tolerance to salinity and drought and
an overall increase in plant growth and
development.
Q.2. Describe the sewage treatment giving its all steps
showing flow chart.
Ans. Pollution due to sewage, animal waste and effluents
from industries is a big problem. Micro-organisms can
be very helpful in converting the harmful sewage and
effluent water into harmless water. They can also
 91

convert the sludge (organic waste) into inorganic
compounds.
A sewage treatment plant is nothing more than a giant
microbial culture breeding facility. They effectively
use up unwanted nutrients in the system, by
metabolizing the solid waste that passes through the
treatment plant. The microbes oxidize the organic
waste and produce inorganic chemicals like
phosphates, nitrates and sulphates. The process is
called mineralization. Gaseous by-products
carbon-dioxide are also produced. Both aerobic and
anaerobic microbes are used in the treatment process.
In the first instance, aerobic microbes breakdown the
large organic compounds. These are supplied with
excess oxygen to promote vigorous reactions.
In essence, sewage treatment has two functions :
o To kill pathogens (whatever they are) and
The processes occurring in aeration tank, kill
infectious bacteria leaving non-pathogenic bacteria
and harmless organic matter.
When the BOD is reduced significantly, the water is
transferred to a settling tank, where bacterial flocs are
allowed to settle down (sediment). This sediment is
called activated sludge. (a small part of activated
sludge may be used in the aeration tank as inoculum).
The major portion of activated sludge can be pumped
to large tanks for ‘anaerobic sludge digesters’.
During this digestion, anaerobic bacteria produce
gases like methane, CO 2 and H 2 S etc., which together
form biogas.
Reduction
Growth of in BOD level Settling
microbe masses Effluent
tank
(flocs)

Constant
agitation
o To eliminate harmful chemicals from the water.
Flocs
o Chemicals that are toxic and the bulk of organic

Released into natural water bodies

sediment
chemicals that cause the depletion of
life-supporting oxygen in the receiving waters of a
stream, river or lake. Air Sma
Working of Sewage Treatment Plant : Large as in ll part
oculu
aeration m Activated
It involves three types of treatments—1. Primary, Sludge
2. Secondary and 3. Tertiary treatment. tank
1. Primary Treatment : It includes physical processes
like separation of large debris, gravels, insects, and
sedimentation etc. using appropritate filters. Primary Effluent Anaerobic
treatment involves different steps. In the first stage, sludge
Sedimentation

digester
floating debris are removed by sequential filtration. (large tank)
After this, the girt (soil and small pebbles) are removed Grit (soil and

Digestion
by sedimentation. All solids that settle down, form the small pebbles)
primary sludge and the supernatant forms the effluents. Primary
The effluent from the primary settling tank is taken for sludge
Sequential

secondary treatment. (i.e., primary sludge is removed

filtration

off).
2. Secondary Treatment : It is also called biological
treatment as it involves the use of micro-organisms
in oxidation ponds or activated sludge process. The
effluents from the primary treatment are passed into
large aeration (oxidation) tank, which is a shallow
water reservoir. The water in the tank is constantly
agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it. This
procedure allows sufficient aeration of the water and
promotes the vigorous growth of micro-organisms in it.
The masses of bacteria associated with fungal
filaments are formed. These are called flocs. These
form mesh like structures. These biological agents
consume most of the organic matter present in the
primary effluent. This reduces the BOD (biological
oxygen demand) of the water.
Biogas
Floating
debris
Sewage
waste
Fig. Flow chart showing sewage treatment strategy
The supernatant (clear water), may be subjected to
tertiary treatment (or may be released to natural water
bodies).
3. Tertiary Treatment : It involves physico-chemical
processes that remove turbidity in the waste water (due
to nitrogen and phosphorus etc.). This treatment
involves the oxidation of waste-water by strong
oxidising agents (like chlorine, per chlorate salts,
ozone gas and UV radiations). After tertiary treatment,
the water can be discharged into natural water and can
be used for irrigation purpose.
 92
NCERT Fully Solved Exercise
Q.1 Bacteria cannot be seen with the naked eyes, but these
can be seen with the help of a microscope. If you have
to carry a sample from your home to your biology
laboratory to demonstrate the presence of microbes
under a microscope, which sample would you carry
and why ?
Ans. For demonstration, we would carry a small sample of
curd. This is because the curd is easily available and it
contains large number of Lactobacillus bacteria.
Q.2 Give examples to prove that microbes release gases
during metabolism.
Ans. Bacteria and fungi (Yeast) carry out the anaerobic
process of fermentation. During this process, they
release carbon dioxide. Two examples are given
below:
(a) Fermentation of sugars produces alcohol with the
release of carbon dioxide.
(b) The dough used for making idli and dosa gives a
puffed appearance due to the releases carbon
dioxide.
Q.3 In which food would you find lactic acid bacteria?
Mention some of their useful applications.
Ans. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) are present in curd. Its
useful applications are :
(a) It converts milk into curd which is used for
making many food articles.
(b) Lactobacillus checks the growth of many harmful
bacteria in the stomach.
Q.4 Name some traditional Indian foods made of wheat,
rice and Bengal gram (or their products) which involve
use of microbes.
Ans. (a) Wheat products, which involve the use of
microbes : Bread, cake, etc.
(b) Rice products, which involve the use of microbes:
Idli, dosa.
(c) Bengal gram products, which involve the use of
microbes : Dhokla, Khandvi.
Q.5 In which way have microbes played a major role in
controlling diseases caused by harmful bacteria ?
Ans. Micro-organisms are used to obtain certain drugs
called antibiotics. These drugs are very effective
against a wide variety of pathogens. In this way,
microbes have played a major role in controlling
diseases caused by harmful bacteria.
Q.6 Name any two species of fungus, which are used in the
production of the antibiotics.
Ans. The two species are :
(a) Penicillium notatum — Penicillin
(b) Penicillium griseofulvin — Griseofulvin
Q.7 What is sewage? In which way can sewage be harmful
to us ? (2020)
Ans. The untreated or semi-treated household waste water,
containing human and animal excreta and fecal matter
is called sewage. It is harmful because it contains many
harmful bacteria and promotes the growth of
pathogens.
Q.8 What is the key difference between primary and
secondary sewage treatment? (2020)
Ans. Please see the answer of Short answer type
question-13.
Q.9 Do you think microbes can also be used as source of
energy? If yes, how ?
Ans. See the answer of Short answer type question-8.
Q.10 Three water samples namely river water, untreated
sewage water and secondary effluent discharged from
a sewage treatment plant were subjected to BOD test.
The samples were labelled A, B and C; but the
laboratory attendant did not note which was which.
The BOD values of the three samples A, B and C were
recorded as 20 mg/L, 8 mg/L and 400 mg/L,
respectively. Which sample of the water is most
polluted? Can you assign the correct label to each
assuming the river water is relatively clean ?
Ans. Sample C with BOD value 400 mg/L is the most
polluted. This is because, the BOD values are high
when amount of oxygen dissolved in water is very less.
So, this represents the poor oxidation state of the
organic matter present in the sample. Hence it is the
most polluted one.
Q.11 Find out the name of the microbes from which
Cyclosporin A (an immunosuppressive drug) and
Statins (blood cholesterol lowering agents) are
obtained.
Ans. Cyclosporin A — Trichoderma polysporum
Statins — Monascus purpureus
Q.12 Find out the role of microbes in the following.
(a) Single cell protein (SCP)
(b) Soil
Ans. (a) Single Cell Protein (SCP) : A protein extracted
from cultured algae, yeasts, or bacteria and used
as a substitute for protein-rich foods, especially in
animal feeds, is known as single cell protein
(SCP).
Bacteria, yeast and unicellular algae are all single
celled organisms. They can be cultured rapidly on
simple culture medium and can be forced to

produce various proteins of importance.
Commercial production of SCP is mostly based
on the use of yeast and some other fungi, such as
Fusarium graminearum etc.
(b) Soil : Soil contains many micro-organisms
including many bacteria and fungi. These
microbes convert the dead and decaying matter in
to humus which make the soil fertile.
Furthermore, bacteria like Azospirillum and
Azotobacter fix the atmospheric nitrogen and
enrich the fertility of the soil.
93
Q.13 How do biofertilisers enrich the fertility of the soil ?
(2020)
Ans. Biofertilisers mainly help in enriching the soil with
appropriate nitrogenous contents. Although 78%
nitrogen is present in air, none of the plant cannot take
it directly from aerial parts. So, nitrogen can be taken in
to the plant body only in organic form. Biofertilisers
contain organisms like cyanobacteria, Azotobacter
etc., which can fix atmospheric nitrogen into
biologically useful form.
ccc
 94

Chapter

11
Unit-4 : Biotechnology
BIOTECHNOLOGY :
PRINCIPLES
AND PROCESSES

² Study of genome is called genomics.

² Restriction endonuclease enzymes are also called molecular scissors.
² Monozygotic twins are clones.
² Retro-viruses can carry out reverse transcription.
² Genetic material in all retro-viruses is RNA.
² Term ‘cloning’ is applied to living structures only.
² First cloned mammal was a sheep, named Dolly.
² Meristematic cells of plants are totipotent in nature.
² Totipotency of animal cells is lost due to a high degree of specialisation and differentiation.
² Transgenic crops give rise to genetically modified food (GMF).
² Production of a large number of plantlets in culture medium is called micro-propagation.
² Only totipotent cells can produce their clones naturally.
² Offspring produced as a result of asexual reproduction, are natural clones.
² Two clones must have a similar genetic configuration.
² Direct gene transfer does not involve any vector. This can be achieved by gene guns.
² Artificial chromosomes, obtained from bacteria are called BACs and those, obtained from a yeast cell are called YACs.
² BACs and YACs can be used as a vector during genetic engineering.
² Ti plasmid is present in Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
² Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects many vegetable crops and causes cancerous growth, called Crown Gall Tumour.
² A specific portion of Ti plasmid is called T-DNA.
² SCID stands for Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency.
² SCID is genetic disorder, in which the gene, producing adenosine deaminase (ADA) becomes defective.
² Hybridoma cells are produced by fusing a lymphocyte with a cancerous cell (myeloma).
² Transgenic organisms are called genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
² Bacillus thuringiensis produces ‘Cry proteins’ which are insecticidal in nature.
² Flavr savr is a transgenic tomato.
² Bt-cotton is transgenic cotton, produced by inserting, cry protein-forming gene of Bacillus thuringiensis bacterium, into a normal cotton
plant. This variety is resistant to insect and larval attack.
² The technique of DNA fingerprinting was developed by Alec Jeffreys.
² The DNA of all persons carries small tandemly repeated sequences of nucleotides. These are called VNTRs.
² VNTRs stand for ‘Variable Number Tandem Repeats’.
² Probe is a radioactive strand of DNA often used to find particular sequences in a ‘Southern Blot’ during DNA finger printing.
² The first recombinant DNA was made by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer (1972), using the plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. Who discovered restriction enzyme? (c) Arber smith and Nathan
(a) Fleming (d) Burgar
(b) Waksman
 95

Q.2. Which enzyme is used to obtain specific DNA (a) RNA (b) Ribonucleoprotein
fragment? (c) Simple protein (d) Recombinant DNA
(a) Ligase Q.8. Plasmids are found in which cells of the following?
(b) Lipase (a) Animal cells (b) Plant cells
(c) Hydrolase (c) Bacterial cells (d) Diseased infected cells
(d) Restriction endonuclease Q.9. Identifies of DNA fragments by : (2017)
Q.3. Which obtain from genetic engineering? (2017) (a) Northern blotting (b) Southern blotting
(a) Glucose (b) Wheat (c) Western blotting (d) All of these
(c) Maize (d) Golden rice Q.10. Proper vectors of cloning in animal cells is : (2018)
Q.4. Transformed antibiotics are formed by which (a) SV 40 (b) pBR 327
technique? (c) pUC (d) pBR 322
(a) Genetic engineering (b) Rapid centrifugation Q.11. Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic
(c) Convergence (d) Microfiltration engineering to form : (2019)
Q.5. Which of the following is use as a best genetic vector in (a) Recombinant DNA molecule
plants? (b) Recombinant RNA molecule
(a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (c) Recombinant molecule of both DNA and RNA
(b) Psuedomonas putida (d) None of these
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis Q.12. Which enzyme joins the DNA segments? (2019)
(d) None of the above (a) Ligase (b) Endonuclease
Q.6. Plasmids is : (c) Exonuclease (d) Chitinase
(a) Double stranded circular DNA Q.13. Which of the following enzyme cut the DNA at
(b) Single stranded DNA specific site? (2020)
(c) Extrasomal linear DNA (a) Exonuclease (b) Endonuclease
(d) None of the above (c) Polymerase (d) All of these
Q.7. Telomerase enzyme is :

Answers
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)

11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. What do you understand by biotechnology? (2012, 13)
Ans. Biotechnology is an integrated branch of biology
which deals with the technologies of using live
organism or enzymes from organisms in order to
produce different products and processes useful to
humans.
Q.2. What is EcoRI ? How does EcoRI differ from an
exonuclease ?
Ans. EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease enzyme, that is
extracted from bacterium E.coli. It differs from
exonuclease because, exonuclease makes peripheral
cuts, whereas EcoRI, being endonuclease makes
internal cuts at precise points.
Q.3. Why is Taq polymerase preferred in PCR ? Mention
the source of this enzyme.
Ans. It is a thermostable DNA polymerase that is obtained
from a bacterium Thermus aquaticus.
Q.4. Name the source of the DNA polymerase used in PCR
technique. Mention why it is used?
Ans. The source is the bacterium Thermus aquaticus. It is
used because it is thermostable and do not denature at
high temperatures.
Q.5. How does an alien DNA gain entry into a plant cell by
‘biolistics’ method ?
Ans. In biolistics, the cells are bombarded with high velocity
micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
Q.6. What are cry proteins ?
Ans. These are special proteins which are insecticidal in
nature. These are produced by a bacterium — Bacillus
thuringiensis.
Q.7. Define genetic engineering.
Ans. Genetic engineering is the manipulation of genetic
material of an organism in order to produce desirable
changes.
Q.8. What is the purpose of electrophoresis ?
Ans. Electrophoresis is carried out to arrange charged
particles according to their size.
Q.9. What is recombinant DNA ?
 96
Ans. Recombinant DNA is the DNA formed by combining
DNAs from two different organisms.
Q.10. Wrtie the name and functions of any two enzymes
useful in genetic engineering. (2017)
Ans. The two useful enzymes in genetic engineering are
restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases.
The function of restriction endonuclease is to form
recombinant DNA molecules which are composed of
desired genes. DNA ligases are used to join
complementary DNA strands/ends together.
Q.11. What are restriction enzymes (molecular scissors)?
Write down their functions. (2017, 18)
Ans. Restriction enzymes are molecular scissors which are
used for cutting DNA at specific locations. These
belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases,
which are of two types :
(i) Endonucleases (ii) Exonucleases
These enzymes are used to form recombinant DNA
molecules bearing desired gene.
Short Answer Type Questions
Q.1. How are ‘sticky ends’ formed on a DNA strand? Why
are they so called ?
Ans. Restriction enzymes cut the two strands of the DNA
molecule, a little away from the centre of the
palindromic sites, but between the same two bases on
opposite strands. This leaves called sticky single
stranded position at the ends.
These are named so because they form hydrogen bonds
with their complementary cut counterparts.
Q.2. Why are molecular scissors so called? Write their use
in biotechnology.
Ans. Molecular scissors are so called because they cut the
DNA at very specific and precise sites. They cut the
DNA and produce sticky ends.
With the help of these enzymes, DNA from two
different sources can be cut and recombine with each
other. Therefore these enzymes are helpful in
producing recombinant DNA.
Q.3. Name the natural source of agarose. Mention one role
of agarose in biotechnology.
Ans. The natural source of agarose is sea weed. Agarose is a
natural polymer. It is used to develop the matrix for gel
electrophoresis, which helps in the separation of DNA
fragments in an electric field, based on their size.
Q.4. How can DNA segments, separated by gel
electrophoresis, be visualised and isolated ?
Ans. The separated DNA molecules are visualised only after
staining DNA with ethidium bromide followed by
exposure to UV radiation. They appear as bright
orange coloured bands. The separated bands of DNA
Q.12. Mention the uses of cloning vector in biotechnology.
Ans. Cloning vectors are used for transferring fragments of
foreign DNA into a suitable host. They are also used to
select recombinants from non-recombinants.
Q.13. Recombinant DNA was first created by whom?
Ans. First recombinant DNA was created by Stanley Cohen
and Herbert Boyer in 1972.
Q.14. How recombinant DNA is formed? (2011)
Ans. Recombinant DNA is formed by combining DNA
molecules from two different sources by gene cloning
and gene transfer.
Q.15. Write down the name of any cloning vector in which
capacity of replication is present independently
without chromosomal control. (2019)
Ans. Such as cloning vector is plasmid and other cloning
vectors are bacteriophages, SV-40 (for animals),
Ti-plasmids (for plants) etc.
2 & 3 Marks
(on the gel) are cut from the agarose gel and extracted
from the gel piece. This process is called elution.
Q.5. List the key tools used in recombinant DNA
technology.
Ans. The key tools used in recombinant DNA technology
are:
(i) Restriction enzymes (ii) Polymerase enzyme
(iii) Ligase enzyme (iv) Vectors
(v) Host organism/cell.
Q.6. Explain the action of the restriction endonuclease
EcoRI.
Ans. (i) The recognition sequence shows palindrome
character in which the sequence of base pairs read
the same on both the DNA strands, i. e., same in 5¢
® 3¢ or 3¢ ® 5¢ directions, e. g., 5¢ — GAATTC —
3¢ or 3¢—CTTAAG —5¢
(ii) The restriction endonuclease acts on specified
length of a DNA and binds to the DNA at the
recognition sequence.
(iii) It cuts the opposite double helix of DNA in the
sugar-phosphate backbones, at little away from
the centre of the palindrome sites.
(iv) There are overhanging stretches called sticky
ends on each strand, which form hydrogen bonds
with their complementary cut counterparts. This
stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the
enzyme DNA ligase.
Q.7. Write the role of ‘Ori’ and ‘restriction’ site in a cloning
vector pBR322.

Ans. ‘Ori’ is the site where replication starts. This site is
responsible for controlling the copy number of a
vector. Restriction site is the site of ligation of
alien/foreign DNA in the vector, in one of the two
antibiotic resistance site or coding sequence of a
galactosidase.
Q.8. List the steps involved in recombinant DNA
technology.
Ans. Steps in recombinant DNA technology :
(i) Isolation of DNA.
(ii) Fragmentation of DNA by restriction
endonucleases.
(iii) Isolation of the desired DNA fragments.
(iv) Amplification of the gene of interest.
(v) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector using
DNA ligase.
(vi) Transfer of recombinant DNA into the host
organism.
(vii) Culturing the host cell on a suitable medium on a
large scale.
(viii) Extraction of the desired product.
(ix) Downstream processing of the products as
finished products are ready for marketing.
Q.9. What is GMF (Genetically Modified Food) ?
Ans. To improve crop productivity and their resistance for
pests, scientists are now modifying their genetic
makeup with the help of genetic engineering. The food
from such genetically engineered plants and crops is
called GMF (Genetically Modified Food).
Q.10. Study the linking of DNA fragments shown below :
a DNA b DNA
A A T T C
G living organisms (animals, plants and microbes) by
G
C T T A A Technology (RDT), which aims are isolating desired
(i) Name ‘a’ DNA and ‘b’ DNA.
(ii) Name the restriction enzyme that recognises this
palindrome.
(iii) Name the enzyme that can link these two DNA
fragments.
Ans. (i) ‘a’ is vector/plasmid DNA, ‘b’ is foreign DNA
(ii) EcoRI
(iii) DNA ligase.
Q.11. Draw a schematic sketch of pBR322 plasmid and label
the following in it
(i) Any two restriction sites
(ii) Ori and rop genes
(iii) An antibiotic resistant gene
Ans. The labelled diagram of pBR322 plasmid is shown in
the given figure with—
(i) EcoRI and Bam HI as restriction enzymes
97
(ii) Ori and rop genes
(iii) amp (an antibiotic resistant gene)
Eco RI
Bam HI
ampR
pBR322
ori rop
Fig. E. coli cloning vector pBR322
Q.12. Comment on gel electrophoresis. (2018)
Ans. DNA fragments are separated on the basis of their size
by a provalent technique. This technique is called gel
electrophoresis. DNA fragments are negatively
charged molecules, so they are separated by moving in
gel medium in the electric field towards the anode. The
smaller DNA segments, the far they travel.
Q.13. (i) How are recombinant vectors created?
(ii) For creating one recombinant vector only one
type of restriction endonuclease is required. Give
reason.
Ans. (i) The vector DNA is cut at a particular restriction
site using a restriction enzyme (to cut the desired
DNA segment). The alien DNA is then linked
with the plasmid DNA using an enzyme called
ligase to form the recombinant vector.
(ii) Since a restriction enzyme recognises and cuts the
DNA at a particular sequence is called recognition
site, the same restriction enzyme is used for
cutting the DNA segment from both the vector
and the other source.
Q.14. Write note on genetic engineering. (2018)
Ans. It is the process of manipulation of genetic material of
man in vitro for the benefit of mankind. An example of
genetic engineering technique is Recombinant DNA
DNA sequences from different sources and then
joining them to produce a recombinant DNA.
Q.15. Give the name of the type of bioreactor shown in given
figure. Write the purpose for which it is used.
pH Motor
Controller
Foam braker
Steam for
sterilisation
Impeller
Culture
broth
Sterile air
 98

Ans. The given bioreactor shown in the figure is the simple
stirred-tank type bioreactor. Its purpose is large scale
production of recombinant proteins or enzymes, using
microbial plants, animals and human cells.
Q.16. Write four applications of genetic engineering. (2018)
Ans. Four applications of genetic engineering are as
follows:
(i) Mapping of human gene
(ii) Idendify of individual genes
(iii) Detect of genetic disease
(iv) Treatment of genetic disease
Q.17. What are plasmids? Write their utility in the life of
living organisms. (2007, 09)
Or Write four main characters of plasmids.
(2007, 08, 11, 16)
Or Where are plasmids found? Where are they used?
Or Explain plasmid. Mention their uses.
(2009, 10, 11, 12)
Or Write a short note on plasmid. (2018, 20)
Ans. Plasmids are extrachromosomal, self-replicating,
double-stranded, closed and circular DNA molecules.
These are seen in the bacterial cells and few yeast cells.
These are used as vectors in biotechnology.
Characters of plasmids :
(i) They are inherited independently.
(ii) They contain antibiotic resistant genes on them.
(iii) They have capacity to replicate independently
from host cell.
Plasmids are useful for molecular biologists because
these scientists can form a desired cell by using
plasmids as genetic vectors and inserting them in the
desired cell. When desired gene is inserted in plasmid
and these modified plasmids are placed inside the host
cell, they start replicating with the population of
bacteria, which was descend from the ancestor host
(ii) Primers : These are chemically synthesised
oligonucleotides (short segment of DNA) that are
complementary to the regions of DNA template.
(iii) Enzymes : Two commonly used enzymes in PCR
reaction are—
Taq Polymerase : It is isolated from a
thermophilic bacterium, i. e., Thermus aquaticus.
It has a property to remain active during the high
temperature induced denaturation of double-
stranded DNA. It also helps in the amplification of
a segment of DNA.
Vent Polymerase (isolated from Thermococcus
litoralis).
Nucleotide Bases : These are added by DNA
polymerase to the growing chain.
Three main steps involved in the PCR technique are—
Step I (Denaturation) : The double-stranded DNA is
denatured by using high temperature of 95°C for
15 seconds. Now, each separated single strand
acts as a template for DNA synthesis.
Step II (Annealing) : Two sets of oligonucleotide
primers are annealed (hybridised) to the separated
single-strands. This step is carried out at a slightly
lower temperature ( 40 - 60°C).
Step III (Extension) : The thermostable enzyme Taq
DNA polymerase is used in this reaction, extends
the primers by adding dNTPs
(deoxynucleoside triphosphates) complementary
to those of the template DNA.
2+
Mg is required as a cofactor for thermostable DNA
polymerase. These steps are repeated many times in
order to obtain several copies of desired DNA.
Region to be amplified

cell. If such genes code for protein like Thyroid 5´ 3´

Stimulating Hormone (TSH), the proteins accumulate 3´ 5´
inside the bacterium, from where it can be extracted. Heat (causes separation Denaturation
1. of strands)
Therefore, 20 such plasmids can be placed in E. coli.
Cycle repetition

Primer
As a result, 20 TSH genes can be placed at a time and 5´ 3´
3´ 5´
these genes can collectively produce 20 time more
5´ 3´
quantity of this hormone. 3´ 5´
Primer DNA polymerase Annealing of
Q.18. Explain polymerase chain reaction (PCR) with the help (Tag polymerase) primers
of diagram. (2019) 2. + deoxynucleotides
5´ 3´
Or Write a short note on PCR. (2019) 3´ 5´

Ans. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) : It is best 5´ 3´

3´ 5´
defined as in vitro process of DNA replication. This Extension
technique was developed by Kary Mullis in 1985, who 30 cycles (polymerisation)
3.
received Nobel Prize for it in 1993.
The basic requirements of a PCR reaction are as
Amplified DNA
follows : (~1 billion times)
(i) DNA Template : The double-stranded DNA that Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
needs to be amplified.

Q.19. What do you know about gel electrophoresis? Describe
in brief the technique of separation and isolation of
DNA fragment. (2019)
Ans. DNA fragments are separated on the basis of their size
by a provalent technique. This technique is called gel
electrophoresis.
Since, the DNA fragments are negatively charged
molecules, so they can be separated by forcing them to
move towards the anode under an electric field through
a medium or matrix (agarose).
The smaller the fragment size, farther it moves. The
separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after
staining the DNA with Ethidium Bromide (EtBr)
followed by exposure to UV radiation. The bright
orange coloured bands of DNA, are seen when exposed
to UV light.
These stained separate bands of DNA are cut out from
the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece by the
process known as elution.
Q.20. Write short notes on the following : (2019)
(i) Bioreactor
(ii) DNA polymerase enzyme
Ans. (i) Bioreactor : Please see NCERT Que. 10(b).
(ii) DNA polymerases are enzymes that play a key
role in DNA replication. DNA replication is the
process of splitting an existing double-stranded
DNA molecule into two single strands of DNA,
then using DNA polymerases to translate the
single strands.
The function of DNA polymerase is to replicate,
proofread and repair DNA. Several DNA
polymerases exist, but DNA polymerase I, or Pol
I, and DNA polymerase III or Pol III, are the main
ones involved in DNA replication.
Q.21. What are exonucleases and endonucleases? Write their
functions. (2019)
Ans. Exonucleases and Endonucleases : Please see
NCERT question-12.
Functions : Exonuclease act on single strand of DNA
or gaps in double stranded DNA. Endonuclease cleave
one strand or both strands of double stranded DNA.
They also called molecular scissors.
Q.22. Write short notes on the following :
(i) RNA Polymerase (ii) DNA ligase
Ans. (i) RNA Polymerase : A RNA polymerase (RNAP)
or ribonucleic acid polymerase, is a multi subunit
enzyme that catalyzes the process of transcription
where an RNA polymerase is synthesized from a
DNA template.
Transcription begins when RNA polymerase
binds to a promoter sequence near the beginning
of gene (directly or through helper protein).
99
(ii) DNA ligase : See the answer of Short answer type
question-24.
Q.23. What is the importance of cloning vectors in
biotechnology? (2019)
Ans. Decades after their first use, plasmids are still crucial
laboratory tools in Biotechnology. Virtually all
plasmids that are used to deliver DNA contain genes
for antibiotic resistance. Cloning vectors are used as
the vehicle for transporting foreign genetic material
into another cell. This foreign segment of DNA is
replicated and expressed using the machinery of the
host organism. A cloning vector facilitates
amplification of a single copy DNA molecule into
many capies.
All commonly used cloning vectors in molecular
biology have key features necessary for their function,
such as suitable cloning site and selectable marker.
Thus the cloning vectors used often have elements
necessary for their propagation and maintenance in
E . coli, such as a functional origin of replication (ori).
Q.24. What are restriction enzymes? Write down their
functions. (2018, 20)
Or What do you mean by restriction enzyme. Explain
its significance. (2020)
Or Explain the ‘restriction enzyme’ in brief and write
down the name of two type restriction enzyme also.
(2020)
Ans. Restriction enzymes are molecular scissors which are
used for cutting DNA at specific locations. These
belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases,
which one of two types :
(i) Endonucleases (ii) Exonucleases
These enzymes are used to form recombinant DNA
molecule bearing desired gene.
Q.25. Write down the functions of restriction enzyme and
ligase enzyme. (2020)
Ans. Functions of restriction enzyme :
(i) They are used to assist insertion of genes into
plasmid vectors during gene cloning and protein
production experiments.
(ii) Restriction enzymes can also be used to
distinguish gene alleles by specifically
recognising single base changes in DNA.
Functions of Ligase enzyme :
(i) DNA ligase is an enzyme which can connect two
strands of DNA together by forming a bond
between the phosphate group of one strand and
the deoxyribose group on another.
(ii) It is used in cells to join together the Okazaki
fragments which are formed on the laggign strand
during DNA replication.
100
Long Answer Type Questions
Q.1. Briefly describe DNA recombinant techniqe and write
characteristic feature of pBR322 vector with a
well-labelled diagram. (2014, 15)
Ans. DNA Recombinant technique : Please see answer of
Long answer question-2.
Characteristic features of pBR 322 : pBR 322 is the
standard cloning vector obtained from E. coli. It is
genetically engineered and has one or two genes for
resistance against antibiotics. It is a plasmid vector, i. e.
extrachromosomal, self-replicating, double-stranded
closed and circular DNA present in E. coli. It’s name
was given by Bolivar and Rodriguez. Therefore, its
name is pBR322. It has 4361 base pairs.
Features that are required to facilitate cloning into a
pBR322 vector are—
(i) Origin of replication (Ori) : This is a sequence
from where replication starts and any piece of
DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to
replicate within the host cells. This sequence is
also responsible for controlling the copy number
of the linked DNA.
(ii) Cloning (Recognition) Sites: These are generally
required to link the foreign or alien DNA with the
vector. For this, the vector requires very few or
single recognition sites for commonly used
restriction enzymes. If more than one recognition
sites is present within the vector, it will generate
several fragments that will lead to more
complication in gene cloning.
Cal I Hind III
Eco R I
Bam H I
Pvu I
Pst I
ampR tetR
pBR322 Sat I
ori rop
Pvu II
Fig. E. coli cloning vector pBR322
The ligation of the foreign DNA is carried out at a
restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic
resistance genes. Selection of recombinants
formed can be done by one of the following
methods, given below :
· Inactivation of antibiotic resistance gene.
· Insertional activation.
5 Marks
(iii) Selectable Marker : It helps in identifying or
selecting transformants and eliminating
non-transformants by selectively permitting the
growth of the transformants.
Transformation is a procedure, through which a
piece of DNA is introduced into the host
bacterium. Normally, the genes encoding
resistance to antibiotics like ampicillin,
chloramphenicol, tetracycline, kanamycin, etc.,
are considered as useful selectable markers for E.
coli. The normal E. coli cells do not carry
resistance against any of these antibiotics.
Q.2. Write a note on gene cloning : (2020)
Ans. The production of exact copies of a particular gene or
DNA sequence using genetic engineering techniques is
called gene cloning.
The term “gene cloning,” “DNA cloning,”
“molecular cloning,” and “recombinant DNA
technology” all refer to same technique.
DNA cloning can be achieved by two different
methods :
(i) Cell based DNA cloning
(ii) Cell-free DNA cloning (PCR)
Principle of Gene Cloning
A fragment of DNA, containing the gene to be cloned,
is inserted into a suitable vector, to produce a
recombinant DNA molecule. The vector acts as a
vehicle that transports the gene into a host cell usually a
bacterium, although other types of living cell can be
used. Within the host cell the vector multiplies,
producing numerous identical copies not only of itself
but also of the gene that it carries. When the host cell
divides, copies of the recombinant DNA molecule are
passed to the progeny and further vector replication
takes place. After a large number of cell divisions, a
colony, or clone, of identical host cells is produced.
Each cell in the clone contains one or more copies of
the recombinant DNA molecule; the gene carried by
the recombinant molecule is now said to be cloned.
Steps used in Gene Cloning
The basic steps involved in gene cloning are :
(a) Isolation of the DNA fragment or gene
The target DNA or gene to be cloned must be first
isolated. A gene of interest is a fragment of gene whose
product (a protein, enzyme or a hormone) interests us.
For example, gene encoding for the hormone insulin.
The desired gene may be isolated by using restriction
endonuclease (RE) enzyme, which cut DNA at specific
recognition nucleotide sequences.
 101

E. coli bacterium (e) Isolation of Recombinant Cells

Plasmld Cell with DNA
containing gene For isolation of recombinant cell from
1 Isolate plasmid of interest
Bacterial Isolate DNA non-recombinant cell, marker gene of plasmid vector is
chromosome 2
employed.
3 Cut plasmid DNA
For examples, pBR322 plasmid vector contains
wlth enzyme Gene of interest
4 Cut cell’s DNA
different marker gene (Ampicillin resistant gene and
Gene
with same enzyme Tetracycline resistant gene. When pst1 RE is used it
of interest knock out Ampicillin resistant gene from the plasmid,
5 Combine targeted fragment so that the recombinant cell become sensitive to
and plasmid DNA Ampicillin.
(f) Multiplication of Selected Host Cells
6 Add DNA ligase, which closes
the circle with covalent bonds Once transformed host cells are separated by the
Recombinant screening process; becomes necessary to provide them
Gene of interest
DNA plasmid optimum parameters to grow and multiply.
7 Put plasmid into bacterium In this step the transformed host cells are introduced
by transformation
into fresh culture media.
Recombinant
bacterium At this stage the host cells divide and re-divide along
8 Allow bacterium with the replication of the recom-binant DNA carried
to reproduce

Clone by them.
of cells (g) Isolation and Purification of the Product
The next step involves isolation of the multiplied GI
Fig. Steps used in gene cloning
attached with the vector or of the protein encoded by it.
(b) Selection of suitable cloning vector This is followed by purification of the isolated gene
The vector is a carrier molecule which can carry the copy/protein.
gene of interest (GI) into a host, replicate there along Gene for human
Recombinant growth hormone
with the GI making its multiple copies. The cloning EooRI
DNA
vectors are limited to the size of insert that they can
Gene for human
carry. Depending on the size and the application of the growth hormone
insert the suitable vector is selected. DNA
Human cell Sticky
(c) Formation of Recombinant DNA ends
recombination

The plasmid vector is cut open by the same RE enzyme DNA

insertion
used for isolation of donor DNA fragment. The mixture Bacterial cell
Bacterial
of donor DNA fragment and plasmid vector are mixed chromosome EooRI

together. In the presence of DNA ligase, base pairing of

donor DNA fragment and plasmid vector occurs.
Bacterial cell for
The resulting DNA molecule is a hybrid of two DNA containing gene for
Plasmid
molecules – the GI and the vector. In the terminology human growth hormone

of genetics this intermixing of different DNA strands is Applications of Gene Cloning

called recombination. (i) A particular gene can be isolated and its
Hence, this new hybrid DNA molecule is also called a nucleotide sequence determined.
recombinant DNA molecule and the technology is (ii) Control sequences of DNA can be identified and
referred to as the recombinant DNA technology. analyzed.
(d) Transformation of recombinant vector into suitable (iii) Protein/enzyme/RNA function can be
host investigated.
The recombinant vector is transformed into suitable (iv) Mutations can be identified, e. g., gene defects
host cell mostly, a bacterial cell. Some bacteria are related to specific diseases Organisms can be
naturally transformable; they take up the recombinant ‘engineered’ for specific.
vector automatically. (v) Purposes, e. g., insulin production, insect
For example: Bacillus, Haemophillus, Helicobacter resistance, etc.
pylori, which are naturally competent.
 102

NCERT Fully Solved Exercise

Q.1. Can you list 10 recombinant proteins/products, which Ans. A chromosome contains one DNA molecule. So, these
are used in medical practice? Find out where they are are 46 DNA molecules in a normal human cell (G1
used as therapeutics. phase).
Ans. Q.5. Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases?
Human insulin Treatment of insulin dependent Justify your answer.
diabetes Ans. Restriction endonucleases are not found in eukaryotic
Human growth hormone Treatment of growth hormone cells. Till date, all restriction enzymes have been
related disorders isolated from bacterial cell (which are prokaryotic).
Calcitonin Treatment of rickets Q.6. Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what
Chorionic gonadotropin Treatment of infertility other advantages do stirred tank bioreactors have over
Blood clotting factor VIII/IX Treatment of haemophilia shake flasks?
Tissue Plasminogen Dissolving blood clots after heart Ans. Stirred tank bioreactors have systems for pH,
Activator attacks and strokes temperature control. They also have foam control
Erythropoetin Stimulation of RBC production in systems and sampling ports. All these features make
anaemic persons these bioreactors advantageous over shake flasks.
Platelet derived growth factor Stimulation of wound healing Q.7. Collect 5 examples of palindromic DNA sequences by
Interferon Treatment of viral infections consulting your teacher. Better try to create a
palindromic sequence by following base-pair rules.
Interleukins Enhancement of immune response
Ans.
Vaccines Prevention of infectious diseases
Palindromic Enzyme Source
Q.2. Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation) Recognition Site
showing a restriction enzyme, the substrate DNA on G¯ AATT C EcoRI Escherichia coli R factor
which it acts, the site at which it cuts DNA and the C TTAA­ G
product it produces. G¯ GATC C BamHI Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
Ans. The required chart (diagram) for EcoRI is given below:
C CTAG­ G
5´ 3´ GG¯ CC HaeIII Hemophilus aegyptius
CC­ GG
3´ 5´ A¯ AGCT T HindIII Hemophilus influenzae D
T TCGA­ A
T¯ CG A TaqI Thermus aquaticus
5´ 3´ A GC­ T

3´ 5´ Q.8. Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a

5´
3´
Product (cut DNA pieces)
Q.3. Can you tell whether enzymes are bigger or DNA is
bigger in molecular size? How did you know?
Ans. DNA is bigger than enzyme in length. This is because,
one enzyme works on one palindromic site. A DNA
can have many such sites. This shows that the size of
DNA is bigger than that of an enzyme.
Q.4. What would be the molar concentration of human
DNA in a human cell?
recombinant DNA is made?
Ans. In a normal cell, dividing by meiosis, a recombinant
DNA is made during crossing over. It occurs during
3´
prophase I stage.
Q.9. Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can
5´
be used to monitor transformation of host cells by
foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker ?
Ans. A reporter enzyme is produced by a reporter gene,
which can be used to monitor the transformation of
host cells by foreign DNA. Such a reporter gene, along
with the foreign gene is placed in the same DNA
construct. Then, this combined DNA construct is
inserted into the cell. Here, the reporter gene is used as
a selectable marker to find out the successful uptake of
genes of interest (foreign genes). If the transformation
is successful, the reporter gene would produce the
 103

reporter enzyme. So, the presence of reporter enzyme which are also called molecular scissors, are being
in the host cell clearly indicates the successful used in DNA recombination technology.
transformation. (c) Chitinase: It is an hydrolytic enzyme which is
Q.10. Describe briefly the following : used to digest a complex polysaccharide, chitin,
(a) Origin of replication (b) Bioreactors which is often found in the cell wall of fungi. So,
(c) Downstream processing in order to isolate the DNA enclosed within the
Ans. (a) Origin of replication: Origin of replication is cell membrane of the fungus, enzyme chitinase is
defined as the DNA sequence in a genome from used to break the cell for releasing its genetic
where replication is started. The initiation of material.
replication is usually bidirectional. A protein Q.12. Discuss with your teacher and find out how to
complex recognizes the ‘on’ site, unwinds the two distinguish between :
strands, and initiates the DNA replication. (a) Plasmid DNA and Chromosomal DNA
(b) Bioreactors: Bioreactors are large glass or steel (b) RNA and DNA
vessels, used for the large-scale production of (c) Exonuclease and Endonuclease
microbial products from raw materials. They Ans. (a) Plasmid DNA and Chromosomal DNA
provide optimal conditions of growth for Plasmid DNA Chromosomal DNA
microorganisms in order to obtain the desired Plasmid DNA is an Chromosomal DNA is the main
product. Bioreactors have an oxygen delivery extra-chromosomal DNA chromosomal DNA. It contains
system, a foam control system, a pH and molecule in bacteria which genes for all important activities of
temperature control system, and a sampling port can replicate independently. the cell.
It has genes for antibiotic
to obtain a small volume of culture for sampling. resistance.
For diagram please see the answer of Short answer
the question-15. (b) RNA and DNA
(c) Downstream processing: Downstream RNA DNA
processing is a method of separation and RNA is a single stranded DNA is a double stranded molecule.
purification of foreign gene products after the molecule.
completion of the biosynthetic stage. The product It contains ribose sugar. It contains deoxyribose sugar.
is subjected to various processes in order to RNA does not contain DNA does not contain Uracil but
separate and purify the product. After thymine but contain uracil. contain Thymine.
downstream processing, the product is formulated RNA cannot replicate itself. DNA molecules can replicate by
and is passed through various clinical trials for itself.
quality control and other tests. It is a component of the It is a component of the
Q.11. Explain briefly : ribosomes. chromosomes.
(a) PCR It does not follow Chargaff’s It does follows Chargaff’s base
(b) Restriction enzymes and DNA base pairing rule. pairing rule.
(c) Chitinase (c) Exonuclease and Endonuclease
Ans. (a) PCR or polymerase chain reaction: See the
Exonuclease Endonuclease
answer of Short answer type question-18.
It is a type of restriction It is a type of restriction enzyme that
(b) Restriction enzymes: These are specific enzyme that removes the makes a cut within the DNA to
endonuclease enzymes which can cut a DNA nucleotide from 5’ or 3’ ends generate sticky ends.
molecule at a very precise site (called of the DNA molecule.
palindromic/restriction site). These enzymes,

ccc
 104

Chapter

12
BIOTECHNOLOGY
AND ITS
APPLICATIONS

² Totipotency of animal cells is lost due to a high degree of specialisation and differentiation.
² Transgenic crops give rise to genetically modified food (GMF).
² Super mouse is a transgenic mouse, which has been produced by inserting human growth hormone forming gene into mouse
genome. It is double the size of a normal mouse.
² CC Kitten was the first cloned cat.
² The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl. She had genetic deficiency of an enzyme adenosine
deaminase (which is responsible for normal functioning of immune system).
² Insulin is synthesized from the proinsulin precursor molecule by the action of proteolytic enzymes, known as prohormone convertases
(PC1 and PC2), as well as the exoprotease carboxypeptidase enzyme.
² Bacillus thuringiensis, or Bt, is an endospore forming bacterium.
² Bt cotton is resistant to the attack of worms.
² Bt in Bt crops refers to Bacillus thuringiensis.
² Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis.
² Bacillus thuringiensis is a bacterium that produces ‘cry protein’.
² The Bt toxin protein does not kill the bacteria itself because it exists as inactive protoxins but once an insect ingests the inactive toxin, it
is converted into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilise the crystals. The activated toxin binds to the
surface of midgut epithelial cells and causes their lysis (breakdown), finally, resulting in the death of the larvae.
² Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains: chain-A and chain-B, that are linked together by disulphide bridges.

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Recombinant DNA is also called: (a) GM-Tomato (b) GM-cotton

(a) Pseudo DNA (b) Sat DNA (c) Disease (d) Transgenic pig
(c) Chimeric DNA (d) cDNA Q. 6. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of:
Q. 2. The enzymes which are commonly used in genetic (a) Cow (b) Pig
engineering are: (c) Fish (d) Mice
(a) Restriction endonuclease and polymerase Q. 7. The first human produced by r-DNA technology:
(b) Endonuclease (a) Progesterone (b) Insulin
(c) Restriction endonuclease and ligase (c) Estrogen (d) Thyroxin
(d) Ligase and polymerase. Q. 8. Natural genetic engineer is:
Q. 3. Cry genes are found in: (a) Bacillus subtilis
(a) Agrobacterium (b) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Pseudomonas sp.
(c) Rhizobium (d) T2 bacteriophage (c) Escherichia coli
Q. 4. If other one or more genes are introduced in any plant, (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
the plant will be called: (2017) Q. 9. Which one of the following can be used as a vector in
(a) Transgressive (b) Transgenic DNA recombination technology?
(c) Triploid (d) Trisomic (a) Phasmid (b) Plasmid
Q. 5. Flavr Savr is a: (c) Cosmid (d) All of these
 105

Q.10. Which of the following takes part in the production of Q.14. Bt-toxin is produced by which bacteria? (2019)
Bt crops ? (2017) (a) Bacillus vulgaris (b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(a) Algae (b) Fungi (c) Bacillus subtilis (d) Bacillus megatherium
(c) Bacteria (d) All of these Q.15. Which statement is correct for genetic modification?
Q.11. Bt cotton has an insecticidal property which is a type (2020)
of: (2017) (a) Genetically modification made crops more
(a) Carbohydrate (b) Lipid tolerent to drought and cold.
(c) Protein (d) Vitamin (b) Genetic modification reduced reliance on
Q.12. Which of the following is obtained from genetic chemical pesticides.
engineering? (2017) (c) Genetic modification enhanced nutritional value
(a) Golden rice (b) Maize of food.
(c) Wheat (d) Glucose (d) All of these.
Q.13. Which of the following synthesis of substance by Q.16. Genetic engineering is used in : (2020)
genetic engineering on the industrial level? (2018) (a) Agriculture field
(a) Human growth hormone (b) Medical field
(b) Insulin (c) Vaccine manufacturing
(c) Interferon (d) All of these
(d) All of the above

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)

11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. What is recombinant DNA? Ans. It is a transgenic cotton plant. It has been developed by
Ans. Recombinant DNA is the DNA formed by combining inserting gene from Bacillus thuringiensis bacterium.
DNAs from two different organisms. Due to this, the plant is resistant to the attack of
Q.2. What is gene gun? worm/pathogens.
Ans. The instrument for bombarding micro-projectile Q.8. Give the full form of SCID and ELISA.
particles (gold/tungsten particles) coated with foreign Ans. SCID— Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency.
DNA, with great velocity, into a target cell is called ELISA— Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay.
gene gun. Q.9. Write two uses of PCR technique in diagnosis.
Q.3. What are cry proteins? Ans. (i) It is used to increase the amount of DNA during
Ans. These are special proteins which are insecticidal in forensic investigation.
nature. These are produced by a bacterium-Bacillus (ii) It helps to obtain multiple copies of a particular
thuringiensis. gene for DNA recombination experiments.
Q.4. Name the substance used as a medium in gel Q.10. What are transgenic animals?
electrophoresis? Ans. Animals in which, DNA has been manipulated to
Ans. Agarose. possess and express an extra gene are known as
Q.5. What is a plasmid? transgenic animals.
Ans. A plasmid is a circular extra-chromosomal DNA Q.11. Which vitamin is found in more quantity in golden rice
molecule present in a bacterial cell, which is used as a obtained by genetic engineering? (2017)
vector in r-DNA technology. Ans. Vitamin A (b-carotene).
Q.6. Define genetic engineering. Q.12. Write two uses related to Agriculture of
Ans. Genetic engineering is the manipulation of genetic Biotechnology? (2018)
material of an organism in order to produce desirable Ans. (i) Development of resistance species.
changes. (ii) Increase in plant yield.
Q.7. What is Bt cotton?
Q.13. What is Interferon? (2018)
 106

Ans. Interferon is an antivirus glycoprotein. They are
working as immunity controller. It is using in treatment
of many diseases now-a-days.
Q.14. What do you understand by transgenic (GMO)
animals? (2014)
Ans. See short answer type question no. 1.
Q.15. What is Biopiracy? (2020)
Ans. Please see the answer of Short answer type question-3.

Short Answer Type Questions 2 & 3 Marks

Q.1. Write short note on the following: transgenic. In other words, transgenic bacterium are
(i) GMOs (2018) (ii) Recombinant DNA (2020) those, whose genomes have been changed due to the
Ans. (i) GMOs: The organisms in which the genes have presence of other species genes.
been changed by manipulation are called as e. g., In 1983, insulin was produced by inserting
genetically modified organisms (GMOs). These recombinant plasmid in E.coli, preparing two DNA
are the organisms in which the foreign genes have sequences corresponding to the sequence of human
been introduced by genetic engineering methods. insulin A and B.
The foreign genes change the expression of such Q.3. Comment on the following :
organism genetically. The GMOs are therefore (i) Biopiracy (2014, 15, 18) (ii) Biopatent
also called as Transgenic organisms and the genes Ans. (i) Biopiracy: If multinational companies or other
which are introduced are known as transgenes. organisation uses the bioresources or traditional
(ii) Recombinant DNA: Recombinant DNA knowledge of any country or from their people
technology is a stream of biotechnology which without authorized or without any compensation,
deals with the manipulation of genetic material by it is known as biopiracy.
man in vitro, in which the desired genes or DNA (ii) Biopatent: Biopatent refers to patents obtained
sequence of an organism are cut into fragments by individual/groups/country to establish
and then introduced into host cells with or without exclusive right over the origin of a particular
help of carrier or vectors to alter its phenotype to organism/plants. Such rights gives the holder to
suit human needs. claim global trading rights without any other
GAATTC group claiming the trading right.
TAAG
CT Q.4. What is gene therapy? (2009, 14)
DNA to be cloned
Plasmid
cloning GAATTC GAATTC Or Write a short note on gene therapy. (2020)
vector CTTAAG CTTAAG Ans. Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows
correction of a gene detect that has been diagnosed in a
Eco RI child/embryo. Normally there is no cure for genetic
Eco RI disorder, but gene therapy gives a ray of hope. Here the
AAT defective gene is either corrected or replaced with the
T AATTC G
A G
G TA
C

G CTTAA normal one into the person’s cells and tissues to treat
CT

the disease. A carrier called a vector must be used to

Mix together and allow
to hybridize; ligate
using DNA ligase
(Annealing)
Q.5.
Ans.
Recombinant plasmid
Q.2. What is transgenic bacteria? Give an example.
Ans. When any gene is inserted into a bacterium then it is
called transgene and such bacterium is called
deliver the therapeutic gene to the patient's target cells.
The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a
4-year old girl. The success of gene therapy depends
upon the successful transfer of the introduced gene into
the genome of the patient.
Write short notes on the following :
(i) Ti-plasmid (ii) Bt-cotton (2020)
(i) Ti-plasmid: A bacterium (Agrobacterium
tumefaciens) is of common occurrence in the soil.
It causes tumours in dicotyledonous woody plants
which are called as crown galls. The formation of
tumour is induced due to Ti (Tumour inducing)
plasmid of this bacterium. The tumour causing
part of this plasmid is eliminated and in its place
the genes of desired traits are added. The

recombinant Ti-plasmid formed in this way can be
introduced into the bacterial cell with which the
plant cells are again got infected.
(ii) Bt-cotton: The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis
produces a kind of protein which has the capacity
to kill different types of insects. The genes coding
for the Bt-toxin are isolated and introduced into
the crop plants and in this way Bt-cotton crop
plants have been developed. There is no effect of
boll worms on Bt-cotton and thus the yield
increases.
Q.6. Describe the medical applications of biotechnology.
(2017)
Or Write applications of biotechnology in the area of
human health. (2015, 16)
Ans. Health and Biotechnology: Biotechnology has
specific contribution in the treatment of human
diseases which are as follows :
(i) In the production of steroids and insulin hormone.
(ii) In vaccine production.
(iii) To identify disease during pregnancy.
(iv) To detect AIDS, b-thalassemia, sickle-cell
anaemia etc.
Q.7. Explain gene cloning and cloning of animals and
differentiate between them. (2016)
Ans. Gene cloning: If many replicas of a single gene or
DNA or chromosome are created, then this action is
called gene cloning. This practice have become
possible through PCR.
Cloning of animals: It is related to the cloning of
whole organism. Organism cloning is of two types on
the basis of its objective or aim.
Q.8. Differentiate between the gene therapy and enzyme
therapy with example. (2018)
Ans. Differences between the gene therapy and enzyme
therapy
Gene therapy Enzyme therapy
1. In this therapy, faulty It is a medical treatment which
gene is replaced by replaces an enzyme that is
functional gene. deficient or absent in the body.
2. It does not require life It requires life long intravenous
long treatment. infusion.
3. It cures genetic diseases. Enzyme Replacement Therapy
(ERT) cures some lysosomal
storage diseases.
Q.9. What is vaccine? Write the name and usefulness of any
two vaccines. (2019)
Ans. A vaccine is a biological preparation that provides
active acquired immunity to a particular disease. A
vaccine typically contains an agent that resembles a
disease causing microorganism and is often weakened
or killed forms of the microbes, its toxins, or one of its
107
surface proteins. The agent stimulates the body’s
immune system to recognise the agent as a threat,
destroy it, and to further recognize and destroy any of
the microorganisms associated with that agent that it
may encounter in the future.
Vaccine can be prophylactic (to prevent or ameliorate
the effect of a future infection by a natural or ‘wild’
pathogen) or therapeutic ( e. g., vaccines against cancer,
which are being investigated).
Name of two vaccines and their usefulness :
(i) BCG—It is a vaccine used for curing tuberculosis.
(ii) Oral Polio Virus (OPV)—It is a vaccine used to
protect individuals from polio, thus eradicating
the disease.
Q.10. Describe the uses of biotechnology in agriculture.
(2019, 20)
Or What is the utility of biotechnology in agriculture?
(2019)
Ans. Please see the ans. of Long answer type question-2.
Q.11. What do you mean by Bt? Explain it with example of
Bt-cotton. (2019)
Ans. Bt-meaning is a preparation of a bacterium (Bacillus
thuringiensis) often modified by genetic engineering
for use as a biopesticide against insects and especially
lepidopteran larvae.
Bt-cotton—Please see the ans. of Short answer type
question-5.
Q.12. What are transgenic animals? Write four benefits of
such transgenic animals. (2019)
Or Write a short note on transgenic animal. (2020)
Ans. Transgenic animals : The animals in which, DNA has
been manipulated to possess and express an extra gene
are known as transgenic animals.
Methods for creation of transgenic animals are
(i) DNA microinjection.
(ii) Embryonic stem cell mediated gene transfer.
(iii) Retrovirus mediated gene transfer.
Benefits of transgenic animals : Some benefits of
transgenic animals are as follows :
(i) These animals have high resistance power.
(ii) These animals have high yield capacity.
(iii) These animals are highly valuable for agriculture.
(iv) These animals are highly valuable for industrial
applications.
Q.13. What is Bt-toxin? Why does this toxin not kill the
Bacillus? (2019)
Ans. Bt is a kind of anti-toxin produced by a bacteria. Bt
called Bacillus thuringiensis. Bt gene is isolated from
this bacterium and is transferred to plants by genetic
engineering. This helps the plants to produce anti-toxin
to kill insects/pest causing disease in them. But, Bt
 108
toxin does not kill the Bacillus because toxin is inactive
and crystalline form.
Q.14. What is biopiracy? Explain it with the help of examples.
(2019)
Ans. Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources by
multinational companies and other organisations
without proper authorisation from the countries and
people concerned without any payment.
All the organisms which can be used to derive
commercial benefits are included under bioresources.
Disputes and accusations are going on about this
matter, e. g., efforts by an Australian Government
agency in 1997 to preserve Arhar, obtained by
international gene bank.
Examples of biopiracy include Basmati seeds, which is
an aromatic rice of India. We are growing it since many
centuries, but Rice Tech claims that this unique
discovery was done by them. In 1996, Dr. Vandana
Shiva challenged the patent granted to the firm of WR
Grace and Co by the European patent office, for
‘fungicidal uses of neem oil’.
Relation with Texmati : In the late 1990’s, a Texas
rice company, Rice Tech claimed to have breed a new
variety of Basmati ‘similar or superior to’ Asian
Basmati. The company was awarded US patent. Rice
Tech planned to market the ‘American Basmati’ under
the brand ‘Texmati’. It was an example of high-tech
biopiracy.
Q.15. Write a short note on vaccine production. (2019)
Ans. Vaccine production : The first step in order to produce
a vaccine is generating the antigen that will trigger the
immune response. Viruses are grown on primary cells
such as cells from chicken embryos or using fertilized
eggs. The hepatitis B and the human papillomavirus
(HPV) vaccine is composed of a protein that resides on
the surface of the virus. It takes a long time to develop a
new vaccine usually between 10 and 15 years.
Vaccines go through many phases of development
including research, discovery, pre-clinical testing,
clinical testing and regulatory approval.
Q.16. Define biotechnology. Write the name of only two
fields where its technique plays an important role in
human welfare. (2019)
Ans. Biotechnology is an integrated branch of biology
which deals with the techniques of using live organism
or enzymes from organisms in order to produce
differnet products and processes useful to humans and
See Q.2. (LA).
Q.17. Insulin is used for the treatment of which disease?
Describe its method of preparation in brief. (2019)
Ans. Insulin is used for the treatment of Diabetes.
The technique used to make a new combination of
desired DNA with host to develop the many number of
the exact copies of desired DNA is known as
recombinant DNA technology.
For the production of insulin with the help of
Recombinant DNA technology, following steps are
required :
(i) DNA sequences corresponding to the two
polypeptide chains of insulin are synthesised in
vitro.
(ii) They are introduced into plasmid DNA of E.coli.
(iii) This bacterium is cloned under suitable
conditions.
(iv) The transgene is expressed in the form of
polypeptides and secreted into the medium.
(v) They are extracted and combined by creating
disulphide bridges to form human insulin.
Q.18. What is the importance of biotechnology in human
life? Explain it in brief ? (2019)
Ans. Please see Long answer type question 2.
Q.19. Write two examples of transgenic organisms. (2019)
Ans. Examples of two transgenic organisms are given
below:
(i) Bt-Cotton— Bt toxin gene isolated from bacteria
and transferred to cotton crops, therefore,
bollworms do not effect Bt-Cotton.
(ii) Golden rice— It is a variety of rice in Vitamin-A.
It is developed by inserting b-carotene genes into
rice plant’s genome.
Q.20. What is the use of biotechnology in medicines? (2019)
Ans. Please see Long answer type question-2.
Q.21. Discuss the utility of Gene therapy. (2019)
Ans. Please see the NCERT Q.5..
Q.22. Write short notes on the following : (2019)
(i) Genetically modified crops.
(ii) Application of biotechnology in health.
Ans. (i) Genetically modified crops : Genetically
modified crops (GM crops) are plants used in
agriculture, the DNA of which has been modified
using genetic engineering methods. In most cases,
the aim is to introduce a new trait to the plant
which does not occur naturally in the species.
Examples in food crops include resistance to
certain pests, diseases, environmental conditions,
reduction of spoilage, resistance to chemical
treatments (e.g., resistance to a herbicide), or
improving the nutrient profile of the crop.
Examples in non-food crops include production
of pharmaceutical agents, biofuels, and other
industrially useful goods, as well as for
bioremediation.
 109

(ii) Application of biotechnology in health : Please extracted and finally combined by creating disulfide
see Short answer type question-6. bonds to form human insulin.
Q.23. Write a short note on stem cell. (2020)
Ans. The key properties of a stem cell were first defined by
Ernest Mc Culloch and James till in the early 1960s.
They discovered the blood forming stem cell, the
hematopoietic stem cell (HSC), through their
pioneering work in mice. In multicellular organisms,
stem cells are un-differentiated or partially
differentiated cells that can differentiate into various
types of cells and divide indefinitely to produce more Fig. Formation of human insulin
of the same stem cell. They are the earliest type of cell Q.25. What are transgenic organisms? Explain with suitable
in a cell lineage. They are found in both embryonic and
examples. (2020)
adult organism, but they have slightly different
Ans. Organisms that have altered genomes are known as
properties in each. They are usually distinguished from
transgenic. Most transgenic organisms are generated in
progenitor cells, which cannot divide indefinitely and
the laboratory for research purposes. For example,
precursor or blast cells, which are usually committed to
“knock-out” mice are transgenic mice that have a
differentiating into one cell type.
particular gene of interest disabled. By studying the
Adult stem cells are found in a few select locations in
effects of the missing gene, researchers can better
the body, known as niches, such as those in the bone
understand the normal function of the gene.
marrow or gonads. They exist to replenish rapidly lost Male pronucleus
cell types and are multipotent or unipotent, meaning
DNA
they only differentiate into a few cell types or one cell
type. Cell
Holding needle
Q.24. Write a short note on human insulin. (2020) Female pronucleus
Ans. Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from Polar bodies
pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs. However, this
insulin caused an immune response (allergy) in some
patients.
In mammals, insulin is synthesized in the pancreas
within the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans. Insulin
consists of two short polypeptide chains: chain A and
chain B, that are linked together by disulphide bridges.
Fig. Transgenic mouse
Insulin is synthesized from the proinsulin precursor
molecule by the action of proteolytic enzymes, known Transgenic organisms have also been developed for
as prohormone convertases (PC1 and PC2), as well as commercial purposes. Perhaps the most famous
the exoprotease carboxypeptidase E. These examples are food crops like soy and corn that have
modifications of proinsulin remove the center portion been genetically modified for pest and herbicide
of the molecule, or C-peptide, from the C- and N resistance. These crops are widely known as “GMOs”
terminal ends of the proinsulin. The remaining (genetically modified organisms). Here are few other
polypeptides (51 amino acids in total), the B- and A- examples of transgenic organisms with commercial
chains, are bound together by disulfide/disulphide value:
bonds. So, the C peptide chain is not present in the Golden rice: modified rice that produces b-carotene,
mature insulin. the precursor to vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency is a
The main problem in developing human insulin by public health problem for millions of people around the
recombination DNA technology, has been getting the world.
insulin in the mature form (i.e., without C peptide). Q.26. What is gene theray? Explain with suitable example.
Eli Lilly (1983), an American company prepared the A (2020)
and B chains separately by introducing DNA Ans. See the answer of question-5 of NCERT excreise.
sequences corresponding to these chains into E. coli
plasmid. The separate chains were isolated and
110
Long Answer Type Questions
Q. 1. What is genetic engineering? Why is this called
recombinant DNA technology? Briefly describe DNA
recombination technology.
Ans. Genetic Engineering : The genetic engineering or
recombinant DNA technology is a stream of bio-
technology which deals with the manipulation of
genetic material by man in vitro, in which the desired
genes or DNA sequence of an organism are cut into
fragments and then introduced into host cells with or
without the help of carriers or vectors to alter its
phenotype to suit human needs.
This technique involves the recombination of DNA
fragments of different organisms, so that it is also
called as recombinant DNA technology.
Process of recombinant DNA technology: It involves
several steps in specific sequence:
1. Formation of r-DNA: After having cut the source
DNA as well as the vector DNA with a specific
restriction enzyme, the cut out gene of interest
from the source DNA and cut vector are mixed
and ligase is added. This result in the formation of
recombinant DNA or chimeric DNA.
2. Amplification of Gene Using PCR: Polymerase
chain reaction is a technique of synthesizing
multiple copies of the desired gene in vitro. It is
based on the principle that a DNA molecule when
subjected to high temperature, splits into two
strands due to denaturation.
These single stranded DNA molecule in the
presence of DNA polymerase, result in the
duplication of original DNA molecule. Multiple
copies of the DNA can be generated by repeating
process several times.
3. Cutting of DNA at Specific Locations: Restriction
enzyme digestions are performed by incubating
purified DNA molecules with the restriction
endonuclease enzyme at the optimal conditions
for that specific enzyme. This enzyme only
identify the specific palindromes and cut the DNA
molecule from here.
4. Isolation of Desired DNA or Gene: This can be
achieved by treating the cells/ tissue with
enzymes such as lysozymes. The RNA can be
removed by treating with ribonuclease, proteins
can be digested by treatment with protease and
purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the
addition of chilled ethanol.
5. Insertion of r-DNA into the Host Organism: In
case of bacteria as host this is done by treating
5 Marks
them with a Ca + + ions which increases the
efficiency of bacterial cell wall. r-DNA can then
be forced into such cells by incubating the cells
with r-DNA on ice, followed by placing them
briefly at 42°C and then putting them back on ice.
6. Cloning: This is the last step of genetic
engineering to obtain the several copies of r-RNA.
The bacterial cell containing foreign DNA is
allowed to grow in DNA culture medium. This
process is called cloning.
Q.2. Write down the utility of biotechnology. (2013)
Or Write down the importance of biotechnology in the
field of agriculture. (2015)
Ans. The utility of biotechnology in different fields is as
follows:
(i) Biotechnology in agriculture: Some significant
achievements in the field of agriculture by using
biotechnology are as follows :
Development of nitrogen-fixation capacity in a
leguminous plant: Efforts are being done to
transfer genetically engineered Nif gene into
wheat and other leguminous plants by isolating it
form Klebsiella pneumoniae and inserting inside
E. coli.
Protection of plants from diseases: Plants which
are produced as a result of culture of meristematic
tissues, are resistant to viral diseases; e.g., stocks
of sugarcane.
Development of new species: New species are
developed through protoplast fusion (like
pomato), cloning and other methods.
(ii) Biotechnology in Industry: There are as follows:
Cheese: Paneer is prepared from fat containing
milk. Pure milk is heated at 60°C for 30 minutes
and at 72°C for 15 minutes. This milk is cooled
down till 30°C temperature. Thereafter
Lactobacillus bacterium and rennin enzymes are
added. About 45 minutes, milk casein becomes
solid. It is cut into small pieces. These pieces are
heated in hot water for an hour.
These pieces are immersed into light saline water
after carefully squeezing them.
Yoghurt: It is prepared from milk. Now a days it is
produced at commercial level. For its production,
pure milk is first heated, than cooled, Culture of
Streptococcus thermophillus and Lactobacillus
vulgaris is added in cold state. As a result of this,
milk becomes semi-solid. It gets a smooth
substance yoghurt after churning.

Alcohol Production: By using biotechnology
ethyl alcohol is also produced.
It is done by two methods:
(a) By Starchy Substances: Raw material in this
process is in the form of potato, maize, barley,
rice, etc. First of all diastase enzyme is obtained
from germinated barley, which is called malt
extract. Malt is added into boiled starchy
substance and this is kept at 53°C temperature.
Diastase enzyme converts starch into maltose.
Maltose is boiled to remove diastase enzyme from
it, after that yeast is added into it, after cooling and
kept at 25-37°C. Maltase enzyme degrades
maltose into glucose and zymase enzyme
degrades, glucose into ethyl alcohol.
(b) By Fermentation of Sugary Foods: In this process
raw material is thick juice of sugarcane or syrup,
Now, yeast is added in minute quantity in this
solution and is placed at 20-30°C after filling in
tanks. In this state, yeast produces two enzymes
invertase and sucrase. These enzymes convert
sugarcane syrup in glucose and fructose. Zymase
another enzyme produced by yeast, converts
glucose and fructose into ethyl alcohol.
(iii) Biotechnology, antibody and medicines:
Achievements in the field of medicines are as
follows:
Molecular Diagnosis: Monoclonal antibodies are
used for the diagnosis of many diseases.
This is produced by hybridoma technique. Jeorge
Kohler and Cosar Milstein were awarded by
Nobel Prize for preparing monoclonal antibodies.
Inserting a particular antigen in the body through
vaccine, results in production of antibodies
against that antigen. These are formed by plasma
cells derived from B- cells. However, antibodies
vary in physical and chemical forms due to
variations in plasma cells. Now scientists isolated
one B-cell and fused it with that absurd cell which
has capacity of endless division. Now the cell
formed by this, is called hybridoma cell.
These cells become source of pure antibody in a
long period, which are called monoclonal
antibodies. Such antibodies work against only a
single antigen.
Effects of chemotherapy and radiotherapy can be
presented by this.
Gene Therapy: In this technique normal genes are
transferred in a person or an embryo to treat cells
with genetic disorders, which compensate
inactive gene and accomplish its work.
111
Q.3. What is genetic engineering? Describe its application
in medical. (2020)
Or What is recombinant DNA technology? Explain its
uses in human health. (2020)
Ans. Genetic engineering or recombinant DNA
technology : See the answer of Long answer
question-1.
Use of genetic engineering in human health :
Diabetics are unable to produce satisfactory amounts
of insulin, which facilitates the processing of sugars
from food into energy that the body can use. In the past,
diabetics needed to take insulin purified from pigs and
cows to fulfill their insulin requirement. However,
non-human insulin causes allergic reactions in many
diabetics. Recombinant DNA technology provided a
way for scientists to produce human insulin in the
laboratory.
The gene for human insulin is isolated from human
cells and inserted into plasmids. These plasmids are
then introduced into bacterial cells, which manufacture
the insulin protein based on the human code. The
purified product is identical in nature to human insulin
and does not cause any allergies.
In addition to bacteria, other biotechnologists use yeast
in recombinant DNA technology to make human
insulin. Yeast can perform more of the complicated
cellular processes that occur in human cells, making it
a more useful organism for producing human
substances.
Q.4. What are transgenic animals, why they are produced?
Explain in brief the usefulness of transgenic animals
for human being. (2019, 20)
Ans. Animals that have their DNA manipulated to possess
and express an extra (foreign) gene are known as
transgenic animals, e. g., transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs,
sheep, cows, mice and fishes. There are several
benefits of transgenic animals.
(i) Normal Physiology and Development :
Transgenic animals can be specifically designed
to allow the study of regulation of gene and
normal functioning of the body and its
development. For example, the study of complex
factors involved in growth such as insulin like
growth factors.
(ii) Study of Disease : Many transgenic animals are
designed to increase the understanding about
genes for contributing in the treatment of various
diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis,
rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer.
(iii) Biological Products : Human diseases can be
treated by medicines that contain biological
products.
112
(a) Transgenic animals that produce useful
biological products can be created by the
introduction of the portion of the DNA or
genes that code for a particular product such
as human protein (a-1-antitrypsin) which is
used to treat emphysema.
(b) Similar attempts are being made for the
treatment of Phenylketonuria (PKU) and
cystic fibrosis. For example, the first
transgenic cow Rosie produced human
protein enriched milk (2.4 g/L) in 1997. The
milk contained the human alpha lactalbumin
NCERT Fully Solved Exercise
Q.1. Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not
kill the bacteria themselves because —
(a) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin
(b) Toxin is immature; (c) Toxin is inactive;
(d) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac.
Ans. (c) Toxin is inactive.
Q.2. What are transgenic bacteria? Illustrate using any one
example.
Ans. Those bacteria in which foreign gene has been inserted,
are called transgenic bacteria. Bacillus thuringiensis
and Agrobacterium are some of the important
examples, in which desirable foreign genes have been
inserted. Such bacteria can also be used as a vector for
further transferring foreign genes into crop plants.
Q.3. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadva-
ntages of production of genetically modified crops.
Ans. The production of genetically modified (GM) crops
has several advantages.
(i) GM crops are mainly developed for pest
resistance, which increases the crop productivity
and reduces the dependence on chemical
pesticides.
(ii) GM food crops also have enhanced nutritional
quality. So, these are good for health.
(iii) These plants prevent the loss of fertility of soil by
increasing the efficiency of mineral usage.
(iv) They are highly tolerant to changing
environmental conditions.
(v) GM crops also decrease the post harvesting losses
of crops.
However, there are certain disadvantages of the use of
genetically modified crops.
The use of these crops can affect the native biodiversity
in an area. For example, the use of Bt toxin to decrease
the amount of pesticide is posing a threat for beneficial
insect pollinators such as honey bee. If the gene
expressed for Bt toxin gets expressed in the pollen,
then the honey bee might be affected. As a result, the
and was nutritionally a more balanced product
for human babies than natural cow’s milk.
(iv) Vaccine Safety : Transgenic mice are being used
testing the safety of vaccines before they are used
on human, e. g., polio vaccine. If found reliable
and successful they could replace the use of
monkeys in order to test the safety of batches of
the vaccine.
(v) Chemical Safety Testing : It is also known as
toxicity or safety testing. It is similar to the
procedure used for testing toxicity of drugs.
process of pollination by honey bees would be
affected.
GM crops may also affect human health. Their
products may be allergic to the body.
They can also cause genetic pollution in the wild
relatives of the crop plants. Hence, it can affect our
natural environment.
Q.4. What are Cry proteins? Name an organism that produce
it. How has man exploited this protein to his benefit?
Ans. Certain bacteria produce special toxic proteins. These
are called cry protein. These are toxic to insect larvae.
Bacillus thuringiensis is one such bacterium. Its cry
protein is also called Bt toxin protein.
Our scientists have introduced its genes into the crop
plants (Cotton etc.). This has enabled the crop plants
resistant to larval attack.
Q.5. What is gene therapy? Illustrate using the example of
adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. (2020)
Ans. Gene therapy is a technique for correcting or replacing
a defective gene with the healthy gene. It involves the
delivery of a normal gene into the individual to replace
the defective gene.
Bacterium carrying
plasmid with cloned Genetically Disabled
normal humanADA gene Retrovirus
Cloned ADA gene is
T-cells with Disabled incorporated into virus
ADA gene isolated
from SCID patient Genetically altered
cells are reimplanted,
produce ADA
Retrovirus infects
T-cells, transfers
ADA gene to cells Cells are
grown in culture to
ensure ADA gene is active
For example : The adenosine deaminase enzyme is
important for the normal functioning of the immune

system. The individual suffering from this disorder can
be cured by transplantation of bone marrow cells.
The first step involves the extraction of lymphocytes
from the patient’s bone marrow. Then, a functional
gene for ADA is introduced into lymphocytes with the
help of retrovirus.
These treated lymphocytes containing ADA gene are
then introduced into the patient’s bone marrow. Thus,
the gene gets activated producing functional T-
lymphocytes and activates the patient’s immune
system.
Q.6. Can you suggest a method to remove oil (hydrocarbon)
from seeds based on your understanding of rDNA
technology and chemistry of oil ?
Ans. Using rDNA, we can obtain oil less seeds by
preventing the synthesis of either glycerol or fatty
acids. This is done by removing the specific gene
responsible for the synthesis.
Q.7. Find out from internet what is golden rice?
Ans. Golden rice is a genetically modified variety of rice,
Oryza sativa, which has been developed as a fortified
food which is rich in vitamin A content. The plant
113
naturally produces b-carotene (a precursor of vitamin
A) pigment in its leaves.
Q.8. Does our blood have proteases and nucleases ?
Ans. No, human blood does not include the enzymes,
nucleases and proteases.
Q.9. Consult internet and find out how to make orally active
protein pharmaceutical. What is the major problem to
be encountered ?
Ans. Orally active protein pharmaceuticals contain
biologically active materials such as peptides or
proteins, antibodies, and polymeric beads. It is
administrated orally into the body in the form of
capsules. These ingredients are used for treatment of
various diseases and are also used as vaccines.
However, the oral administration of these drugs has
certain problems. One major problem is that, these
ingredients get digested by gastric pepsin and lipases in
the intestine. Hence, it is necessary to protect these
therapeutic protein from digestive enzymes, if taken
orally.
ccc
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Chapter

13
Unit-5 : Ecology

ORGANISMS
AND POPULATIONS

² Environment: The environment refers to the whole range of external conditions, physical and biological in which an organism lives.
It is the sum total of all biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) factors that surround and potentially influence an organism.
² Species: Species is a group of similar individuals, which are capable of interbreeding and are able to produce fertile offspring.
Members of a species share a common gene pool.
² Biotic community: All kinds of living organisms living in a particular area at a particular time, form a biotic community. A
community contains individual of more than one species.
² Ecosystem: A well-defined area, containing both biotic and abiotic components is called an ecosystem. It is the basic functional unit of
ecology.
² Biome: A biome is a very large regional ecological unit, which is characterised by a major vegetation type and characteristic fauna,
found in a specific climatic zone.
² Photoperiodism: In plants, the duration of light has specific effect on flowering and other processes. This effect is called
photoperiodism.
² Climate: Climate refers to the average weather conditions of a particular area over a long time period. The climate reflects the general
patterns of atmospheric conditions, seasonal variations of a particular area.
² Microclimate: The climate of a very small local area is called microclimate. For example the immediate surroundings of plants and
animals in a garden or in a micro-ecosystem is an example of microclimate.
² Habitat: The place where an organism lives is called its habitat. Habitat of an organism is the best place, where it finds maximum food
and shelter.
² Niche: Niche (or ecological niche) is the positional status of an organism in an ecosystem. The niche of an organism determines (i) the
range of conditions, it can tolerate, (ii) the resources which it can utilise and (iii) the role it plays in the ecosystem.
² Cold-blooded animal (Poikilotherms): Animals, which do not have a constant body temperature and body temperature
fluctuates with the temperature of the surroundings are called cold blooded animals, e. g. , frog, fishes, reptiles etc.
² Warm-blooded animal (Homeotherms): Animals, which have a constant body temperature and body temperature does not
fluctuate with the temperature of the surroundings are called warm blooded animals, e. g. , birds, mammals.
² Soil Profile: A soil is formed by many horizontal layers, which are deposited one over the other. These can be seen in a vertical section
of soil. Such a vertical section, which shows the arrangement of various layers of soil is called soil profile.
² Producers: Producers are the organisms, which carry out photosynthesis and produce food from sunlight, e. g. , algae and green
plants.
² Consumers: Consumers are the organisms, which feed and depend on other organisms. Consumers mainly intake their food by
ingestive methods.
² Decomposers (reducers): These are the organisms, which feed upon the dead bodies and decaying organic matter of other
organisms (herbivores and consumers). These organisms decompose complex organic matter into simpler inorganic compounds, e. g. ,
bacteria and fungi.
² Acclimatisation: When an organism experiences some stress (within the tolerance range) it tries to avoid it, usually by migrating to
some other place or habitat. Such a mechanism to avoid environmental stress is called acclimatisation.
² Ecotypes: When a small group of a species lives in different climatic conditions over a long period of times, it becomes adapted to it.
Such locally adapted group (population) of a species is called ecotype.
² Adaptations: The adjustment of internal or self-environment by an organism, according to its external environment is called
adaptation. It is a fundamental property of all living beings.
 115

² Migrations: The movement of an animal or species from its native place to some other place in the search of food and shelter is called
migration.
² Mimicry: When an organism makes itself similar to another organism, the phenomenon is called mimicry. The organism, which is
making the changes, is called mimic, while other organism (which is being copied) is called model.
² Population: A group of individuals of same species which occupy a given area at a given time is called a population. The size of the
population usually depends upon the dimensions of the concerned area.
² Metapopulation: Metapopulation refers to a set of local populations that are connected by dispersing individuals.
² Population density: Population density refers to the total number of individuals present per unit area or volume at a given time.
² Carrying capacity: Food and space in a given area are limited. Therefore a given environment can support only certain number of
individuals. The maximum number of individuals of a population, that can be supported by a given habitat (environment), is called its
carrying capacity.
² Natality: It is also called birth rate. It is the increase in the number of individuals in a given population, by birth at a given time.
² Mortality: It is also called death rate. It is the number of individuals removed from a population due to death, under given
environmental conditions, at a given time.
² Biotic Potential: Biotic potential refers to the inherent maximum capacity of an organism to reproduce and increase in number.
² Dispersal: The movement of individuals into a population (immigration) or out of the population (emigration) is called dispersal. It
directly affects the size of a given population.
² Environmental Resistance: All those environmental factors, which put a check on the growth of the population, are together
known as ‘environmental resistance’.
² Mutualism: It is a functional interspecific association between two different species, in which both the species are benefited.
² Symbiosis: It is the condition/phenomenon in which there is a close physical association between the individuals of two different
species. The association is not harmful for any of the partners.
² Commensalism: It is an association between individuals of two different species, in which, one species is benefited and the other one
is neither benefited nor is adversely affected.
² Predation: It is a type of interaction between individuals of two different species, which involves the killing and consumption of one
(prey) by the other (predator).
² Competition: It is a type of interaction between two individuals, either of the same species or of different species, where both are
adversely affected.
² Parasitism: It is a type of interaction between individuals of two different species, where one (parasite) depends on the other (host)
for food and shelter and in the process, damages the host.
² Physiognomy: Various biotic and abiotic factors of a community decides the nature of the community and give it a characteristic look.
This look or outer appearance of a community is called ‘physiognomy’.
² Keystone species or ecological dominants: The species in a community, which have major influence on the nature of the
community, are called keystone species or ecological dominant.
² Ecotone: The transition zone between two adjacent communities is known as ecotone. Ecotone is therefore a common border for two
nearby communities.
² Edge effect: The ecotone (the border between two communities) has a greater biodiversity then either of the communities. This effect
is called edge effect.
² Ecological succession: Ecological succession is a community-controlled phenomenon where different communities are successively
replaced one after the other in a given area, till a climax community stage is reached, in an area, over a period of time.

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q.1. The term ecology was coined by: Q.4. Epiphytes are considered as:
(a) Robert brown (b) Elton (a) Space parasites
(c) Haeckel (d) Reiter (b) Commensals of plant kingdom
Q.2. Root cap is absent in: (c) Obligate parasite
(a) Lithophytes (b) Xerophytes (d) (a) and (b) both
(c) Hydrophytes (d) Mesophytes Q.5. Vivipary and pneumatophore formation is seen in:
Q.3. Which type of water is used by the plant? (a) Apline forests (b) Arctic vegetation
(a) Gravitational water (b) Capillary water (c) Mangrove forests (d) Tropical forests
(c) Hygroscopic water (d) Bound water
 116

Q.6. Mycorrhiza shows: (a) Ruscus (b) Asparagus

(a) Symbiotic relationship (b) Endoparasitism (c) Opuntia (d) Accasia
(c) Decomposers (d) Ectoparasitism Q.11. Assimilatory root found in :
Q.7. Killing and eating an organism is: (a) Trapa (b) Ranunculus
(a) Parasitism (b) Exploitation (c) Typha (d) Lemna
(c) Predation (d) Symbiosis Q.12. The size of particles of clay soil is : (2018)
Q.8. Lichens represent : (a) 0.20-2.0 mm (b) 0.02-2.0 mm
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) 0.002-0.02 mm (d) less than 0.002 mm
(c) Ammensalism (d) Parasitism Q.13. The interaction where one species is benefitted and the
Q.9. Which is one of the following rootless plant? other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called : (2019)
(a) Wolfia (b) Ranunculus (a) Ammensalism (b) Commensalism
(c) Ceratophyllum (d) All of these (c) Mutualism (d) Competition
Q.10. Cladode are found in : (2018)

Answers
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)

11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Define parasitism. (2017)
Ans. Parasitism is an interaction between two species in
which one species is benefited while the other species
is harmed.
Q. 2. Who used the term ecology?
Ans. Reiter was the first, who proposed the term ecology in
1868.
Q. 3. Define ecology?
Ans. According to Ernst Haeckel. The study of reciprocal
relations between organisms and the environment is
called ecology.
Q. 4. What is population ecology?
Ans. It lead with the growth, tropic structure, metabolism
and regulation of a population and interrelationship of
different populations and environment.
Q. 5. What is habitat?
Ans. A living place of an organism is called habitat.
Q. 6. Who gave the term Ecological niche?
Ans. The term Ecological niche was first used by Grinnel in
1917.
Q. 7. Air chamber/spaces are more developed in hydrophytic
plants. Give reason.
Ans. Air chambers help in floating of the plants in water.
They also help in the exchange of gases.
Q. 8. Mesophytic plants die on placing in saline water. Give
reason.
Ans. On placing in saline water or using high amount of
fertilizers. Water comes out of these plants through
plasmolysis and after sometime plants die.
Q. 9. In which plants vivipary germination is found?
(2015, 16)
Ans. In mangrove plants — e. g., Rhizophora
Q.10. What is “Gause’s competitive exclusion principle”.
Ans. Gause’s principle state that two closely related species.
Competing for the same resources cannot co-exist
indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be
elimination eventually.
Q.11. What are you understand to urithermal and
stanothermal organism?
Ans. The species which can tolerate high range of
temperature change, is called urithermal organism.
While the species which can tolerate low range of
temperature change is called stanothermal.
Q.12. What do you mean by symbiosis? (2017)
Ans. Symbiosis is an interaction between two different
organisms living in close physical association,
typically of the same habitate, e. g., mutualism,
commonsalism etc.
Q.13. The thorn is the modification of which plant’s part in
xerophytic plants?
Ans. Leaves
Q.14. Why are leaves of Opuntia modified into thorns? (2019)
Ans. Leaves of Opuntia are modified into thorns to reduce
the rate of transpiration.
Q.15. Write the names of any two ectothermic animals.
(2019)
Ans. Reptiles and fishes are ectothermic animals. Body
temperature of these animals depends on external
sources.
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Short Answer Type Questions 2 & 3 Marks

Q.1. What is ecological niche? How it is differ from habitat? Q.4. What is the importance of water in the life of plants?
Ans. Ecological niche indicated the profession of the Ans. (i) Water is the major component of the protoplasm.
species. It is the functional position of an organism in a (ii) Water is a solvent through which mineral
community. It is thus defining the specific position of nutrients enter in a plant from the soil solution.
the species in a habitat. It include habitat as well as (iii) Mineral nutrients absorbed by the roots and food
functional role of an organism in the community. The formed in leaves are transported by water.
concept of niche includes food relationship, prey (iv) All seeds require water for germination.
predator relationship tolerance capacity etc. (v) In photosynthesis O 2 is evolved by the photolysis
Q.2. What is mean by environment factors? Write its types? of water.
Ans. Each and every thing outside the organism which (vi) The high specific heat of water help plants to
influences in any way directly or indirectly the life of maintain relatively stable internal temperature.
the organism are called environment factors. (vii) It maintains turgidity of plant parts.
Ecological factors are classified as follows. (viii) It help in dispersal of seeds and fruits.
(i) Climatic factors: Light, temperature, wind Q.5. Write short note on:
velocity, gases, rainfall, atmospheric humidity. (i) Wilting (ii) Mangrove plants
(ii) Edaphic factors: Mineral matter, organic matter, Ans. (i) Wilting: When the transpiration rate is more than
soil water, soil air. the rate of water absorption from the soil plant
(iii) Topographic factors: Altitude, sleepness of leaves loss their turgidity and this condition is
slope, direction of slope. called wilting. In night transpiration rate becomes
(iv) Biotic factors: Bacteria, algae, fungi, parasites, slow and the leaves regain their natural turgidity.
saprophytes, symbionts and animals. This is known as temporary wilting. Under the
Q.3. What is the soil profile? Explain in brief. conditions of soil water stress, the wilted leaves
Ans. At any place where parent do not regain their natural state at night and
material is weathering over a remain as such then the wilting is called
period of time, there permanent.
develops layers of soil one (ii) Mangrove plants / Halophytes /
over the other in progressive Horizon-A Pneumatophores or Vivipary: Plants adopted
state of maturity. Such a for saline environment are halophytes. They occur
vertical section of soil is in salt lakes and in marine environment.
known as soil profile. The Horizon-B Mangroves which form shallow littoral forests
soil profile is characteristic near sea shores are halophytes. They grow in 3%
of fully formed soil and are level of NaCl salinity and thus they are
named as A, B, and C euhalophytes.
horizons from the surface to Horizon-C
These plants develop shallow rooting due to
downwards. water-logged environment where oxygen scarcity
(i) Horizon A: This is the prevails. To ensure proper aeration in root system,
topmost soil and it plants produce respiratory roots or
contains Rocks
pneumatophores, which are negatively geotropic
undecomposed, peg like projection above ground with pores for
partially decomposed Soil Profile gaseous exchange. The seeds of these plants
humus from upper to germinate before dehiscence of fruits or before
lower sides. This is usually sandy and the roots of break off from the mother plant. It is called
plants are embedded in this zone. This forms viviparous germination and phenomenon is
feeling zone. vivipary, e. g., Avicennia officinalis, Sonneratia
(ii) Horizon B: This is known as subsoil and is alba and Suaeda macrocarpa.
formed with clayey soils. Root develop poorly in Q.6. What do you understand by key-stone species?
this zones. Ans. Ecotone species are the transition zone present
(iii) Horizon C: It is the bottom of soil profile. It between two different types of communities. These
contains weathered rock of parent material. species convert the entire environmental condition of
Below this hard rocks are found.
 118

this area. i. e., convert green lands to deserts, e. g., Kind of Commensalism is a Parasitism is a
Kangaroo rats present in chihuahuan converted green interaction positive interaction. negative
interaction.
grasslands to the deserts.
Q.7. Describe the commensalism and mutualism. (2019) Benefits Here, only one In this
species gets benefits, relationship, only
Ans. Please see the ans of Long answer type question-1. while the other has one species get the
Q.8. An orchid plant is growing on the branch of mango no effects. benefits, while
tree. How would you describe the interaction between other is harmed.
two? (2019) Example 1. Barnacles growing 1. Salps and
Ans. Please see the ans of NCERT exercise question-8. on whales. Phronima.
Q.9. If a marine fish is placed in a fresh water aquarium, will 2. Climbers taking 2. Cuscuta and the
the support of trees to host plant.
the fish be able to survive? (2019) grow.
Ans. Please see the ans of NCERT exercise question-2.
Q.10. Write short notes on the following : (2019) Q.15. What is Mycorrhiza? Describe its ufility. (2020)
(i) Parasitism (ii) Symbiosis Ans. Mycorrhizae is a mutually beneficial relationship
Or What is symbiosis? Explain with the help of between the root of a plant and a fungus that colonizes
examples. (2019) the plant root. In many plants, mycorrhiza are fungi
Ans. (i) Parasitism : Please see the ans of Long answer that grow inside the plant’s roots, or on the surfaces of
type question-1. the roots.
(ii) Symbiosis : An interaction between two different Not all plants will have mycorrhizal associations. In
organisms living in same habitat in close physical environments in which water and nutrients are
association is known as symbiosis. It can be abundant in the soil, plants do not require the assistance
classified as following: of mycorrhizal fungi, nor might mycorrhizal fungi
o Commensalism : When one is benefitted and germinate and grow in such environments.
other is neither harmed nor benefitted, e. g., There are two predominant types of mycorrhizae:
orchid growth on mango tree. ectomycrrhizae and endomycorrhizae. They are
o Mutualism: When both the species are classified by where the fungi colonize on the plants.
benefitted, e. g., Lichens. (i) Ectomycorrhiza : Ectomycorrhiza tend to form
o Amensalism: When one is harmed and other mutual symbiotic relationships with woody
is neither benefitted nor harmed, e. g., plants, including birch, beech, willow, pine, oak,
Penicillium kills bacteria but not mould. spruce and fir. Ectomycorrhizal relationships are
Q.11. Explain the special morphological adaptations in characterized by an intercellular surface known as
xerophytes. (2019) the Hartig Net. The Hartig Net consists of highly
Ans. Please see Long answer type question-2. branched hyphae connecting the epidermal and
Q.12. Write a short note on predation. (2019) cortical root cells. In other words, ectomycorrhiza
Ans. Predatation : Please see Long answer type question-1. live only on the outside of the root. Overall, only
Q.13. What do you mean by hydrophytes? Describe 5-10% of terrestrial plant species have
hydrophytic adaptations in such plants. (2019) ectomycorrhiza.
Ans. Please see Long answer type question-3. (ii) Endomycorrhiza : Endomycorrhizae are found
Q.14. Explain the differences between parasitism and in over 80% of extant plant species-including
commensalism. (2020) crops and greenhouse plants such as most
Ans. vegetables, grasses, flowers and fruit trees.
Basis for Endomycorrhizal relationships are characterized
Commensalism Parasitism by the fungi and the formation of arbuscules and
comparison
Meaning Commensalism is the Parasitism is the vesicles by the fungi. In other words,
relationship where relationship endomycorrhiza have an exchange mechanism on
one organism of the where only one the inside of the root with the fungi’s hyphae
two different species organism receive
gains benefits while benefits, while the
extending outside of the root. It is a more invasive
other is unaffected. other is harmed in relationship compared to that of the
return. ectomycorrhiza.
Kind of Nonobligatory. They can be Utility of mycorrhiza : The plant and the fungus have
relationship Obligatory or a mutually beneficial relationship, where the fungus
Facultative. facilitates water and nutrient uptake in the plant, and

the plant provides food and nutrients created by
photosynthesis to the fungus. This exchange is a
significant factor in nutrient cycles and the ecology,
evolution, and physiology of plants.
In some cases, the relationship is not mutually
beneficial. Sometimes, the fungus is mildly harmful to
the plant, and at other times, the plant feeds from the
fungus.
Q.16. Define commonsalism and give one example of it.
(2020)
Ans. Please see the answer of Long answer question-1.
Q.17. Describe in brief the morphological adaptation in
hydrophyte. (2020)
Ans. Please see the answer of Long answer question-3.
Q.18. Write down the short note on interspecific competition.
(2020)
Ans. Interspecific competition : This competition occurs
between the individuals of two different species. Plants
and animals live together in the ecosystem. Process of
competition between different species of plants and
animals is expressed in many types like competition for
habitat, nutrition, water, light, etc., is commonly found
in different species of community.
For example, in Parthenium, plant secretes phenolic
chemicals, due to which germination of nearby seeds
stops.
Q.19. Define the following words and give one example of
each. (2020)
(i) Parasitism (ii) Mutulism
Long Answer Type Questions
Q.1. What is community interaction? Give its types with
examples.
Ans. Community interactions: In a biotic community, the
community of plants, animals and microorganisms
interact with one another for sharing energy, resources
and space. This is called community interactions. All
these organisms are equally important for maintaining
ecological balance of earth and for proper functioning
of the ecosystem.
Common type of interactions:
1. Positive interactions
2. Negative interactions
1. Positive Interaction: Such type of interactions in
which either one or both partners get benefited
without harming. It is of following types.
(a) Mutualism: It is a type of permanent
association involving physiological
interdependance. In this both partners are
equally benefited, neither is harmed. e. g.,
119
Ans. Please see the answer of question-15 of NCERT
exercise.
Q.20. Write down a short note on Allen’s rule. (2020)
Ans. Allen’s rule is an ecogeographical rule formulated by
Joel Asaph Allen in 1877, broadly stating that animals
adapted to cold climates have shorter limbs and bodily
appendages than animals adapted to warm climates.
More specifically, it states that the body surface
area-to-volume ratio for homeothermic animals varies
with the average temperature of the habitat to which
they are adapted (i. e., the ratio is low in cold climates
and high in hot climates).
Allen’s rule predicts that endothermic animals with the
same body volume should have different surface areas
that will either aid or impede their heat dissipation.
Because animals living in cold climates need to
conserve as much heat as possible, Allen’s rule
predicts that they should have evolved comparatively
low surface area-to-volume ratios to minimize the
surface area by which they dissipate heat, allowing
them to retain more heat. For animals living in
warmclimates, Allen’s rule predicts the opposite: that
they should have comparatively high ratios of surface
area to volume. Because animals with low surface
area-to-volume ratios would overheat quickly, animals
in warm climates should, according to the rule, have
high surface area-to-volume ratios to maximize the
surface area through which they dissipate heat.
5 Marks
(i) Algae and Fungi (Lichens)
(ii) Algae and higher plants
(iii) Bacteria and leguminous plants.
(iv) Fungi and higher plants (Micorrhizal
associates)
(b) Commensalism: In this relation only one
partner is benefited but other partner neither
is harmed nor benefitted. This relationship
may be either permanent or temporary. e. g.,
(i) Epiphytic plants are considered as
commensals of plant kingdom. Lichens
and orchids are the classical example of
epiphytes.
(ii) Epizoans are also commensals.
Cladophora grow on shells of snails.
Some bacteria grow as commensal in the
intestine of man. (E.coli).
120
(c) Protocooperation: It is an interaction
between two or more species which is
favourable but not obligatory to both.
e. g., Rhizosphere microflora. Some microo-
rganism grow in very closed association to
roots of higher plants. Root secretes food for
microflora (fungi, bacteria) and microflora
provide inorganic nutrition for plants.
Oxpecker feeding on the skin parasites of
Rhino or cattle egret feeding on lice and
ticks.
2. Negative Interactions: The interaction in which
usually one partner harms the other for deriving
benefits for their own survival.
It is of following types:
(i) Competition: There remains a competition
between two or more individual for space,
light, water and energy resources.
(ii) Antagonism: Total or partial inhibition of
the growth of one organism by another either
by modifying its immediate environment or
by secretion of some inhibitory chemicals.
None of them derive any benefit from such
interactions, e. g., Antibiotic secretion from
penicillin inhibiting growth of other
competitors.
(iii) Parasitism: This is the interaction between
two organisms in which one is called as
parasite and other is host. Parasite develop
nutritional relationship with the host, which
is called parasitism. e. g.,
Cuscuta — total stem parasite.
Phylloclade
Refflesia and Orobanche—total root
parasite.
Santalum — Partial root parasite.
(iv) Predation: This is the direct nutritional
relationship between two organisms. It
include herbivores and carnivores. The
organisms which are nutritionally dependent
on living prey are called predators and such
type of parasitism is called predation.
Q.2. What are xerophytes? Describe their morphological
and anatomical characters with examples. (2013)
Or Write the characters of xerophytic plants.
(2011, 14)
Or Describe various morphological adaptations of
xerophytic plants. (2009, 10, 11, 16, 17)
Ans. Vegetation present in dry habitat is called xerophyte.
These types of habitat are physiologically dry. These
can be of following types:
(i) Physiologically dry habitat: In these habitats
plants are not able to utilize the water although
sufficient water is present, i.e., Saline, alkaline or
cold place.
(ii) Physically dry habitat: In this habitats, lack of
water holding capacity in the soil; Like desert and
rocks.
(iii) Physically and physiologically dry habitats:
Plants of some habitats are not able to utilize
water and soil has less water holding capacity, due
to which these habitat are physically and
physiologically dry habitat, like vegetation on
mountains.
Morphological adaptations in Xerophytic plants
They contain following morphological adaptations.
(i) Adaptation in roots: Root system is more
developed. They grow into more depth. e.g., roots
of Alfalfa can go upto 130 feet depth in the
ground. Root hairs and root caps are more
developed. Sometimes roots also store water, e.g.,
Asparagus.
(ii) Adaptation in stems: Stem in most of the plants is
woody, dry, hard and covered with thick bark. In
some plant, it takes the form of bulb, e.g., Agave.
Sometimes stem modified into leaf like, e.g.,
Ruscus and Opuntia. This is called phylloclade;
Asparagus contain cladode.
(iii) Adaptation in leaves: Leaves modify into spines
in Opuntia, petiole becomes green and flat and
takes the form of Lamina and does photosynthesis
in Parkinsonia, this is called phyllode, leaf
surface smooth and shiny, which reflects the heat.
Leafy spines
Floral buds
Flower
Leaf
Scaly stipule
Phylloclade
(A)
(B)
Cladode
Stem
Leafy
spines Scaly
leaf
(C)
Fig. (a) Phylloclade of Ruscus (b) Phylloclade of Opunita
(c) Cladode in Asparagus

Anatomical adaptation in xerophytic plants:
Following anatomical adaptations are present in
xerophytes.
(i) Epidermis: It is multilayered in Nerium leaf and
thick layer of cuticle is present. Upper surface has
covering of wax in Capparis.
(ii) Hypodermis: It is found multilayered.
(iii) Cortex: Less intercellular space between the cells.
(iv) Vascular tissue: Surrounded by multilayered
bundle sheath.
(v) Mechanical tissues: These are well developed.
(vi) Mesophyll tissues: Leaves contain palisade and
spongy parenchymatous tissue.
(vii) Stomata: Few and sunken stomata e.g., Nerium,
Casuarina etc.
Q.3. Describe ecological adaptations in hydrophytes plants.
Ans. Hydrophytes : These are found in aquatic
environment, which are sub merged or floating.
Following types of adaptions are present in these.
Morphological adaptation in hydrophytic plants
Following morphological adaptations are found in
hydrophytic plants:
(i) Adaptation in roots: Their roots are poorly
developed, because entire part of the plant absorb
water. Sometimes roots are absent, like - Wolffia,
Ceratophyllum.
Some adaptations are given below :
(a) Roots only work as balancing in Lemma.
(b) Roots hairs are absent.
(c) Root cap is not present.
(d) Roots of Trapa are green, so it performs
photosynthesis.
(ii) Adaptation in stems: Stems are long, thin, soft and
spongy in submerged plants. Stem floats
horizontally in free-floating plants, e.g., Azolla,
Eichhornia. Pistia has stolon.
Stem of rooted hydrophytes spread on the bottom
to forms rhizome and remains fixed in the mud;
e.g., Pistia and Nelumbium.
(iii) Adaptation in Leaves: Leaves of submerged
plants are thin and ribbon shaped; e.g., Vallisneria
and these are large, flat and complete in floating
plants. Petiole is swollen in Trapa and
Eichhornia.
Anatomical adaptations in hydrophytic plants :
Following anatomical adaptations are found in
hydrophytic plants :
(i) Cuticle is not present on the epidermis, but mucus
layer is present on the epidermis of floating plants,
i.e., Pistia. Stomata are not present in submerged
plants.
121
(ii) Hypodermis is absent in the stems of submerged
plants, e.g., in Hydrilla and Potamogeton,
mechanical tissues are not present but cortex is
developed.
(iii) Air-cavities are present, due to which plants are
able to float on the water.
Q.4. With the help of suitable diagram describe the logistic
population growth. (2020)
Ans. Logistic (sigmoid) growth model : Since food and
shelter on the earth is limited, so no population in
nature actually has unlimited access to natural
resources to permit exponential growth. As a result of
this there is a competition (intraspecific as well as
interspecific) for limited resources. The individuals
who win this competition have a chance to survive and
reproduce. So, the growth pattern of the population
becomes changed.
K
Number of individuals
S-shaped
Time
Fig. Logistic (Sigmoid) population growth
o In this type of growth pattern the growth of the
population is slow (gradual) in the beginning (lag
phase), but becomes very rapid thereafter (log
phase).
o It now grows with an exponential rate (maximum
rate) to reach a maximum size. When population
reached the maximum size the growth rate
becomes constant (steady phase).
o It fluctuates slightly around the maximum size.
(This maximum size of a population is called its
carrying capacity).
o This type of growth is called Verhulst - Pearl
Logistic Growth (or simply logistic growth).
o This type of growth is found in majority of
populations.
o If the growth is plotted on a graph paper, a sigmoid
or S shaped curve is obtained.
o The S shaped growth pattern can be represented by
the following equation, which includes an
expression for environmental resistance —
dN éK - Nù
= r Nê
dt ë K úû
Where,
dN/dt = Rate of change in the population size, during
time t.
r = Biotic potential or intrinsic rate of natural increase
N = Population density at time t.
K = Carrying capacity
122
We know that the growth of most of the populations is
finite (limited) and sooner or later becomes stable.
NCERT Fully Solved Exercise
Q.1 How is diapause different from hibernation ?
Ans. Some zooplanktons in lakes etc., during unfavourable
periods undergo resting phase. This is called diapause.
Hibernation on the other hand is a phenomenon in
which the organism undergoes deep into the soil to
prevent itself from excessive cold.
Q.2 If a marine fish is placed in a fresh water aquarium, will
the fish be able to survive? Why or why not ?(2019, 20)
Ans. No. It would not survive. This is because marine fishes
have no mechanism to remove out excess of water, as
found in the freshwater fishes. So, when a marine fish
is placed in fresh water, it will accumulate large
amount of water (due to endosmosis) and will
eventually die.
Q.3 Define phenotypic adaptation. Give one example.
Ans. Phenotypic adaptation are the changes in the body of
an organism in response to genetic mutation or certain
environmental changes. These changes occur in an
organism to cope with changing environmental
conditions, e. g., desert plants have thick cuticles and
sunken stomata on the surface of their leaves to prevent
transpiration.
Q.4 Most living organisms cannot survive at temperature
above 45°C. How are some microbes able to live in
habitats with temperatures exceeding 100°C ?
Ans. Many Archaebacteria are thermophiles. These are the
ancient forms of bacteria, which are found in hot water
springs and deep sea hydrothermal vents. They are able
to survive in high temperatures (90°C to even 100°C)
because they are adapted to such environmental
conditions. These organisms contain specialized
thermo-resistant enzymes, which carry out metabolic
functions at high temperature.
Q.5 List the attributes that populations but not individuals
possess.
Ans. The attributes that populations but not individuals
possess are —
(a) Birth rate (Natality) —It is the ratio of births to the
population of an area.
(b) Death rate (Mortality) — It is the ratio of deaths to
the population of an area.
(c) Sex ratio — It is the number of males or females
per thousand individuals.
(d) Age distribution — It is the percentage of
individuals of different ages in a given
population.
Therefore, logistic growth model is more accurate and
reliable.
(e) Population density — It is defined as the number
of individuals of a population present per unit area
at a given time.
Q.6 If a population growing exponentially double in size in
3 years, what is the intrinsic rate of increase (r) of the
population ?
Ans. For a population growing exponentially,
N t = N 0 e rt
Where,
N t = Population density after time t
N 0 = Population density at time zero
r = intrinsic rate of natural increase
e = the base of natural logarithms (2.71828)
From the above equation, we can calculate the intrinsic
rate of increase (r) of a population.
Now, as per the question,
Present population density = x
Then, Population density after two years = 2x
t = 3 years
Substituting these values in the formula, we get:
2x = x e 3 r
2 = e 3r
Applying log on both sides:
log 2 = 3r log e
r = 0.2311
So, the intrinsic rate of increase (r) of the said
population is 0.2311.
Q.7 Name important defence mechanisms in plants against
herbivory.
Ans. Some plants have evolved various mechanisms to
protect themselves against herbivory. These methods
include morphological changes and production of
certain chemicals which are avoided by herbivores.
(1) Morphological mechanisms:
(a) Cactus leaves (Opuntia) are modified into
sharp spines.
(b) Sharp thorns are present in Acacia.
(c) In some plants, the leaf margins are spiny and
have sharp edges.
(2) Chemical production:
(a) Calotropis plant produces certain toxins,
which can prove to be fatal if ingested by
herbivores.
(b) Chemicals like nicotine, caffeine, quinine,
etc. produced by plants as a part of
self-defense.

Q.8 An orchid plant is growing on the branch of mango
tree. How do you describe this interaction between the
orchid and the mango tree ? (2019)
Ans. The orchid plant growing on the branch of mango tree
is an epiphyte. The relation between the two is an
example of ecto-commensalisms, where one species
gets benefited while the other remains unaffected. In
the above interaction, the orchid is benefited as it gets
support but the mango tree remains unaffected.
Q.9 What is the ecological principle behind the biological
control method of managing with pest insects ?
Ans. The ecological principle behind the biological control
method of managing with pest insects is based on
predation. Predation is a biological interaction between
a predator and its prey. In this interaction, the predator
feeds on the prey and thereby, controls the prey
population. In biological control, various insects and
birds are used to feed upon insect pests.
Q.10 Distinguish between the following:
(a) Hibernation and Aestivation
(b) Ectotherms and Endotherms
Ans. (a) Hibernation and Aestivation: Hibernation is a
state of reduced activity in cold blooded animals
to escape cold winter conditions. Aestivation is a
state of reduced activity in cold blooded animals
to escape extreme heat in summers.
(b) Ectotherms and Endotherms: Ectotherms are
cold blooded animals. Their temperature
fluctuates with the changes in their surroundings,
e. g., Fishes, amphibians, and reptiles.
On the other hand, endotherms are warm blooded
animals. They maintain a constant body
temperature, e. g., birds and mammals.
Q.11 Write a short note on :
(a) Adaptations of desert plants and animals
(b) Adaptations of plants to water scarcity
(c) Behavioural adaptations in animals
(d) Importance of light to plants
(e) Effect of temperature or water scarcity and the
adaptations of animals.
Ans. (a) Adaptations of desert plants and animals:
Plants found in deserts are well adapted to cope
with harsh desert conditions such as water
scarcity and extreme heat. Plants have reduced
leaves, thick cuticles and sunken stomata to check
transpiration. They have an extensive root system
to tap underground water. They bear thick cuticles
and sunken stomata on the surface of their leaves
to reduce transpiration. Desert plants have special
pathways to synthesize food, called CAM (C4
pathway) where stomata open at night.
Desert animals prevent water loss from their
bodies in a number of different ways. Some
123
animals live in burrows which do not get too hot
or too cold and have more humid (damp) air
inside. These animals stay in their burrows during
the hot days and emerge at night to feed. Other
animals have bodies designed to save water.
Scorpions and wolf spiders have a thick outer
covering which reduces moisture loss. These
animals have long loops of Henle (in kidneys) to
make urine concentrated, so that they excrete less
water. The kangaroo rat found in the deserts of
Arizona never drinks water in its life. It has the
ability to concentrate its urine to conserve water.
(b) Adaptations of plants to water scarcity: Plants
in desert are well adapted to cope with water
scarcity. They have an extensive root system to
tap underground water. Further, they bear thick
cuticle on leaves, leaves are reduced to minimize
surface area and leaves have sunken stomata. All
these changes help the plant to reduce the rate of
transpiration. In Opuntia, the leaves are modified
into spines and photosynthesis occurs in green
and fleshy stems. In many desert plants, a
photosynthetic pathway is found, which is called
CAM (C4 pathway). It enables their stomata to
remain closed during the day to reduce water loss
by transpiration.
(c) Behavioural adaptations in animals: The
behaviour of the animals is directly affected by
changes in climatic conditions particularly
temperature. Some animals can live only in a
small range of temperature, they are called
stenothermal animals. On the other hand some
other animals can survive effectively in a wider
temperature range. These are called eurythermal
animals.
Certain organisms are affected by temperature
variations. These organisms undergo adaptations
such as hibernation, aestivation, migration, etc. to
escape environmental stress to suit their natural
habitat. These animals are called ectotherms (or
poikilotherms). They are cold blooded animals
such as fish, amphibians, reptiles, etc. For
example — the desert lizard basks in the sun
during early hours when the temperature is quite
low. However, as the temperature begins to rise,
the lizard burrows itself inside the sand to escape
sunlight.
Other animals, in which body temperature
remains constant, are called endotherms or
homeotherms. They are warm-blooded animals,
such as birds and mammals. They also escape cold
and hot weather conditions, by hiding themselves
124
in shelters such as caves, burrows, etc. to protect
against temperature variations.
(d) Importance of light to plants: Plants are
autotrophic organisms, which need light for
carrying out the process of photosynthesis. So,
sunlight is the ultimate source of energy. Light
also plays an important role in generating
photoperiodic responses such as flowering, seed
germination etc. Light also plays an important
role in aquatic habitats for vertical distribution of
plants in the sea.
(e) Effects of temperature or water scarcity and
the adaptations of animals. Animals are well
adapted to suit surrounding temperature and water
scarcity. They are able to hind themselves in caves
and burrows and other shady places to avoid
extreme heat. They have adaptations to cope with
water scarcity particularly in desert. They produce
concentrated urine, feed on succulent plants.
Some have thick cuticle on skin to prevent water
loss.
Q.12 List the various abiotic environmental factors.
Ans. Various abiotic environmental factors are given below:
(a) Light: Light is the primary source of energy. Light
helps in various phenomena like photosynthesis,
photoperiodism, pigmentation, vision, growth etc.
(b) Temperature: For proper functioning, all
organisms require an optimum temperature.
Temperature directly influences the rate of
metabolic activities. Low temperature treatment is
necessary for flowering in many plants
(vernalisation).
(c) Water: Water is the habitat of all aquatic
organisms. It is essential for photosynthesis. It is
the main source of oxygen (released in
photosynthesis). Water is essential for metabolic
activities of organisms. Water helps the
organisms to get rid of excessive heat. Water
helps in the absorption of minerals by the plants
from soil.
(d) Soil: It is the upper shallow layer of earth, which
consists of very fine sand particles, organic and
inorganic depositions. It forms the habitat of all
terrestrial organisms and microorganisms. It helps
to anchor the plants. It provides water and mineral
ions to the plants.
Q.13 Give an example for :
(a) An endothermic animal
(b) An ectothermic animal
(c) An organism of benthic zone
Ans. (a) Birds and mammals
(b) Frog and lizards
(c) Most organisms in the benthic zone are
scavengers and detritivores. These include many
corals, sponges, crabs and polychaete worms.
Q.14 Define population and community.
Ans. Population : A population can be defined as a group of
individuals of the same species residing in a particular
geographical area at a particular time and functioning
as a unit. For example — all human beings living at a
particular place at a particular time constitute human
population.
Community : A community is defined as a group of
individuals of different species, living in a
geographical area. In a biotic community, various
organisms of different species live together and
establish interspecific interactions.
Q.15 Define the following terms and give one example for
each :
(a) Commensalism (b) Parasitism
(c) Camouflage (d) Mutualism
(e) Interspecific competition
Ans. (a) Commensalism: Commensalism is an interaction
between two species in which one species gets
benefited while the other remains unaffected. For
example: an orchid growing on the branches of a
mango tree.
(b) Parasitism : It is an interaction between two
species in which one species (parasite) gets the
benefit, while the other species (host) is
negatively affected. For example: Ascaris, living
in human intestine.
(c) Camouflage : It is a strategy adapted by prey
species to escape their predators by changing their
colour according to surroundings, so that they can
easily mingle in their surroundings and escape
their predators.
(d) Mutualism : It is an interaction between two
species in which both species are benefited. For
example: lichens show a mutual symbiotic
relationship between fungi and algae.
(e) Interspecific competition: An interaction
between individuals of different species where
both species are negatively affected. For example:
the competition between flamingoes and resident
fishes in South American lakes for common food
resources i. e., zooplankton.
Q.16 With the help of suitable diagram describe the logistic
population growth curve. (2020)
Ans. Please see the answer of Long answer type question-4.
Q.17 Select the statement which explains best parasitism.
(a) One organism is benefited.
(b) Both the organisms are benefited.
(c) One organism is benefited, other is not affected.

(d) One organism is benefited, other is affected.
Ans. (d) One organism is benefited, other is affected.
Parasitism is an interaction between two species
in which one species (parasite) is benefited while
the other species (host) is harmed.
Q.18 List any three important characteristics of a population
and explain.
Ans. Three important characteristics of a population are:
(a) Birth rate (natality): It is the ratio of the number
of births to the population of an area in a specific
time. A rise in the natality increases the
population size.
Note : Due to Covid-19 Chapter-14 (Ecosystem) is not in the Latest Syllabus 2020-21.
125
(b) Death rate (mortality): It is the ratio of the
number of deaths to the population of an area in a
specific time. A rise in the mortality decreases the
population size.
(c) Age Distribution: It is the percentage of
individuals of different ages in a given
population. The age distribution pattern is
commonly represented through age pyramids. A
rise in pre-reproductive age shows the expanding
nature of the population.
ccc
 Chapter 14 : Ecosystem
126
(This Chapter has been Deleted From Syllabus For Session
2020-21 Due To COVID-19 Epidemic)
Chapter

15
BIODIVERSITY AND
ITS CONSERVATION

² Biodiversity: The term biodiversity refers to the totality of genes, species and ecosystems of a given region.
² Genetic diversity: Genetic diversity refers to the variation of genes within a species. Genetic diversity is the primary cause of
biodiversity.
² Species diversity: Species diversity refers to the variety of species within a region / ecosystem.
² Protected areas: These are the areas of land or sea, which are specially dedicated to the protection and maintenance of biological
diversity of natural and cultural resources.
² Biosphere reserves: Biosphere reserves are specialised protected areas of land or coastal environments, which provide shelter to the
wildlife in a natural way.
² Cryopreservation: Cryopreservation is the storage of materials at ultra-low temperatures either by very rapid cooling or by gradual
cooling and simultaneous dehydration at low temperatures.
² Hot spots: The hot spots are the designated priority areas, for in situ conservation of biodiversity. 25 hot spots have been recognised
world-wide, out of which 2 lie in India.
² Red list: It is a report, which is published by IUCN that contains the names and status of endangered species.
² Sixth Extinction: Study of fossils records show that, species extinction is not a new phenomenon. It has happened earlier also, even
before humans appeared on the earth. Since the origin and diversification of life on earth there were five episodes of mass extinction of
species.
Therefore the present rapid extinction of species can be regarded as ‘sixth extinction’.

Multiple Choice Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. The concept of hot spots was given by: (c) Maharashtra (d) Punjab
(a) Spencer (b) Norman Myer Q. 7. Which National park is new home of the India one
(c) Haeckel (d) Odum horned rhinoceros?
Q. 2. Number of wild life sanctuaries in India is: (a) Kanha (b) Corbett
(a) 442 (b) 492 (c) Dudhwa (d) Bandhavgarh
(c) 339 (d) 428 Q. 8. Which of the following is not an Indian biodiversity
Q. 3. Which National park, was first established in India? hot-spot? (2018)
(a) Kaziranga (b) Gir (a) Indo-Burma
(c) Jim Corbett (d) Dudhwa (b) Eastern Himalayan
Q. 4. Which one is endangered species of India? (c) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
(a) Horse (b) Fox (d) Medagaskar and Hind Mahasagar Island
(c) Indian wild Ass (d) Elephant Q. 9. The world biodiversity day is celebrated annually on:
Q. 5. Wild life protection act was passed in which years? (a) 5th June (b) 22nd April
(2014) (c) 29th December (d) 16th September
(a) 1986 (b) 1973 Q. 10. Which of the following is state bird of U.P.? (2018)
(c) 1991 (d) 1981 (a) Peacock (b) Crane
Q. 6. Kaziranga National park is situated in which state? (c) Pegion (d) Sparrow
(a) Assam (b) Gujarat Q. 11. Which is the National Animal of India? (2018)
 127

(a) Elephant (b) Deer (c) Gujarat (d) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Bear (d) Tiger Q.13. The most dangerous reason for the existence of lives is:
Q.12. Where is Situated ‘‘Gir National Park’’ the natural (2020)
habitat of Asia Lions? (2018) (a) Desertation (b) Radiation
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Rajasthan (c) Deforestation (d) None of these

Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)

11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c)

Very Short Answer Type Questions 1 Mark

Q. 1. Name any two threatened animal species of India. Q. 8. Who is called as "The old man of the Jungle" ?
Ans. Red Panda and Black Buck. Ans. Orang -Utan is called as "The old man of the jungle"
Q. 2. What are the endangered species? (2019) Q. 9. What is wild life?
Ans. The species which are in danger of extinction and Ans. Wildlife include all wild animals, tree and plants which
whose number have been reduced to a critical level are inhabit their original natural habitats. Thus, they
called endangered species. cannot ordinarily be domesticated and trees and plants
Q. 3. What are hot spots? Give the name of two hot spot of which cannot ordinarily be cultivated.
India. (2014, 17, 18) Q. 10. What is ‘‘Red Data Book’’? Who prepared it? (2018)
Ans. The hot spots are the designated priority area, for in situ Ans. See Short Answer Type Q.No. 5
conservation of biodiversity. In India Eastern Q. 11. What is Sanctuaries? (2018)
Himalayas and Western Ghats are main hot sports. Ans. See Long Answer Type Q.No. 1 (ii)
Q. 4. Give the full form of the following: (2018) Q. 12. What are extinct species? (2018)
(i) IBWL (ii) IUCN Ans. When any plant or animal species are not present on the
Ans. (i) IBWL = Indian Board for Wildlife earth anywhere, i.e. they are died. Such species are
(ii) IUCN = International Union for Conservation of called extinct species. According to IUCN Red List,
Nature and Natural Resources. 784 species are extincted in last 500 years.
Q. 5. What is ex-situ conservation? Q. 13. When the environment (Protection) act was passed by
Ans. To protect the wildlife to outside from their natural Government of India? (2019)
habitat is termed as ex-situ conservation. Ans. In 1986.
Q. 6. What is full form of MABP? Q. 14. Define national park. (2019)
Ans. Man And Biosphere Programme. Ans. National park is an area strictly reserved for protection
Q. 7. Give two examples of National parks of India? and betterment of wildlife. We have 77 national parks
Ans. 1. Gir Forest: Kathiawar, Gujarat only home of in our country.
Asiatic lion in India?
2. Kaziranga: At banks of Brahmaputra river, near
manas tiger reserve in Assam.

Short Answer Type Questions 2 & 3 Marks

Q. 1. Explain the reasons of elimination of destruction of
natural habitats of wild animals?
Ans. The man of present era is grossly guilty of this in
various ways as follows.
1. Acquirement of New Land for Increasing
Human Population: As human population
progressively increases, more and more new land
is required for expanding human habitations. The
only way can acquire new land for these purposes
is by eliminating forests.
2. Forests Fire: Since ancient time, forest fires
caused due to human negligence, have brought
about large scale destruction of forests.
3. Highway Conveyance and Transportation:
Construction of roads and laying of railway lines
through the wilderness for long distance
conveyance and transportation play a significant
128

role in fragmentation and shrinking of natural Tiger" the number of tigers increased from about 1800
habitats. in 1973-1974 to about 4000 in 1985.
4. Human Greed for Forest Proudest: Many areas Q. 5. Write short note on Red Data Book? (2018)
have been deforested and turned into dry, infertile Or What is Red Data Book? Give its significance.
lands due to human greed for forest product like (2014, 15)
timber, herbs, flowers etc. Ans. IUCN is international union for conservation of nature
Q. 2. Write the reasons of the animals being extinct? and natural resources, which is now called world
(2014, 16) conservation union (WCU). Its head quarter is situated
Ans. Artificial destruction of wild animals due to human at Morges, Switzerland. It maintain a Red Data Book or
activities has, caused extinction of a sizable number of red list which is a catalogue of threatened plants and
wild animal species. These human activities are mainly animals facing risk of extinction. The IUCN red list
as follows: system was started in 1963. Since then, evaluation of
1. To obtain skin and fur we have killed wild animals conservation status of species and subspecies is
and now they have become endangered. continuing on a global scale. The 2000 red list contains
2. Due to usage of elephant teeth they have killed. assessments of more than 1800 species. It can helpful
3. Millions of snakes have been killed for skin. in:
4. Due to migration of warm blooded wild animals (i) Identification and documentation of endangered
between the colder and hotter parts of India many species.
of these become threatened. (ii) Developing awareness about the importance of
5. Certain species of wild animals are widely used in threatened biodiversity.
education and research. (iii) Providing a global index of the decline of
All these causes many wild animals species to the biodiversity.
brink of extinction. Q. 6. Differentiate the National Park and Sanctuary.
Q. 3. Write short note on the in situ conservation. Ans. Differences between National Park and Sanctuary.
Ans. In situ conservation requires protection of wild animals National Park Sanctuary
in their natural habitats. These habitat are, therefore
declared as prohibited reserves. According to the 1. It is protected area for both It is a protected area for wild
degree of environment protection afforded. We have animals and plants. animals only.
four types of reserves in our country as follows— 2. Boundary is well Boundary is roughly
(1) National Parks: It is an area strictly reserved for demarkated. demarkated.
protection and betterment of wildlife. We have 77 3. Private ownership is not Private ownership is permitted.
national parks in our country. permitted.
(2) Sanctuaries: These are notified and controlled by 4. Plantation, cultivation and They are permitted.
state government for the protection of wild grazing are not permitted.
animals fauna. There are about 421 sanctuaries in
5. Collection of even minor Harvesting of timber and
our country. forest product is not collection of minor forest
(3) Tiger Reserves: Some of the national parks and allowed. products are permitted.
sanctuaries were declared as special ‘Tiger
reserves’. These reserves are controlled by state Q. 7. Why is it important to protect wild animals? What are
government but funded by both central and state the steps taken by government for this?
government. Ans. Wild animals came under the biotic factors of the
(4) Biospheres Reserves: Biosphere reserve is environment. These are different species of varied
visualized as a perfect natural ecosystems meant numbers, but a sudden change in population cause
to preserve, not only the wilderness, but also the imbalance in the environment.
full wildlife gene bank. To protect wild animals following steps have been
Q. 4. Write short note on the project Tiger? (2017) taken by the government
Ans. Fast decreasing causes of the royal Bengal Tiger (i) ZSI (Zoological Survey of India): Its main
prompted the Indian Government in 1972-73 to declare objective is to conserve the wildlife.
the tiger as National animals, and to launch a special (ii) Indian Board for Wildlife: This board was setup
‘Project Tiger’ to save this magnificant member of our for the conservation of wildlife. Its main work was
natural bounty from extinction. As a result of "Project to make national parks, wild sanctuaries and
zoos as well as to keep animals safe in them.
 129

(iii) In Indian constitution hunting is prohibited.

(iv) Cutting of forests was illegalized. Q.12. What do you mean by National park? Give the name of
(v) Planting of trees was made a continuous process first National Park of India. (2018)
at national level. Or Write a short note on national park. (2020)
(vi) The endangered species are observed by Indian Ans. See Long Answer Type Q.No. 1 (II)
wildlife protection department and its log is kept Q.13. What are Sanctuaries? How many sanctuaries are
in Red Data Book. situated in India? (2015, 17, 18)
Q. 8. Write a short note on Biosphere reserve. (2018, 20) Ans. See Long Answer Type Q.No. 1 (II)
Or What is Biosphere reserve? Write the name of two Q.14. What are endangered wild species? Describe in short.
protected Biosphere reserve of India? (2018) (2017, 18)
Ans. See Long Answer Type Q.No. 1 (II) Ans. Those species, which are of a verge of extinction and to
Q. 9. Define hotspot. Write the names of two hotspots in protect them is difficult, are called as endangered
India. (2017) species. There are 172 species in India which are listed
Or What are biodiversity hotspots? How many as threatened by IUCN, in which 53 are mammals, 69
hotspots are there in India? Write down their names. are birds and 23 are amphibians and 3 are rare animals.
(2018) Other than this, 22 invertebrate species also come
Ans. Those geographical areas where there is immense under this category. In India, there are many rare
biodiversity (wildlife and plants) and their natural species like Bengal fox, Asiatic cheetah, Asiatic lion,
homes are in danger, i.e. the natural resources are Indian elephant, Asiatic wild ass, Indian rhinoceros,
excessively exploited. These areas are known as Cervus elaphus hangul, thamin or brow antlered deer,
hotspots. There are 3 hotspots located in India. Presbytis geei, snow leopard-Panthera uncia, Gavial
In India, Eastern Himalayas, Western Ghats and gavialis, Ardeotis nigriceps and Gibbon-Hylobates,
Indo-Burma are major hotspots. etc.
Q. 10. Explain the ex-situ and in-situ conservation of wild Q.15. What is co-extinction? Give its one example. (2019)
animals in India? . (2018) Ans. Please see Long answer type question-1.
Ans. See Long Answer Type Q.No. 1 Q.16. Write a short note on biodiversity. (2019)
Q. 11. Give the name of four National Parks located in India. Ans. Biodiversity : Please see the answer of Long answer
(2018) type question-1.
Ans. Some National Parks of India : Q.17. Write a short note on WWF. (2020)
Ans. The world fund for nature (WWF) is an international
Name State Estab- Area (In Notability
lished km 2 ) non-governmental organization founded in 1961 that
works in the field of wilderness preservation and the
Dudhwa Uttar 1977 490.29 Tiger Panthera tigris, reduction of human impact on the environment. It was
National Pradesh Sambhar Axis axis, Hog formerly named the World wildlife fund, which
Park Deer Axis procinus.
remains its official name in Canada and United States.
Gir Forest Gujarat 1965 1412 Asiatic lion. Q.18. Write a short note on threatened species. (2020)
National
Park Ans. Threatened species are any species (including animals,
plants, fungi, etc.) which are vulnerable to
Indravati Chhattisgarh 1981 1258.37 Wild Asian buffalo, endangerment in the near future. Species that are
National tiger reserve, hill
Park mynas. threatened are sometimes characterised by the
population dynamics measure of critical depensation, a
Jim Uttarakhand 1936 1318.5 First national park in mathematical measure of biomass related to population
Corbett India (established in
National 1936 as Hailey growth rate.
Park National Park). Threatened Species Definition
A threatened species is any species which is
Kaziranga Assam 1974 858.98 Highest known tiger
National density in the World vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered. The
Park Indian rhinoceros, International Union for Conservation of Nature, or
UNESCO World IUCN, is commonly referenced as a leading
Heritage Site. organization in determining if a species can be
Keoladeo Rajasthan 1981 28.73 UNESCO World considered a threatened species or not.
National Heritage Site.
Park
 130

Ans. Differences between ex situ and in situ conservation

Threatened Species Overview are given below
The IUCN also defines the category nearly-threatened In Situ Conservation Ex Situ Conservation
species, for any animals which are likely to become
threatened species within the foreseeable future. The It is conservation of It is conservation of
endangered species in endangered species outside
IUCN designation of threatened species can be seen their natural habitats. their natural habitats.
below.
Extinct Near
The endangered species The endangered species are
in wlld Threatened threatened are protected from protected from all adverse
predators. factors.
EX EW CR EN VU NT LC The depleting resources They are kept under human
Endangered are argmented. supervision and provided all
Extinct Critically Vulnerable Least the essentials.
endangered concerm
The population recovers Offsprings produced in
Q.19. Write a short note on Hotspots’. (2020) in natural environment, captive breeding are released
Ans. Those geographical areas where there is immense e. g ., hotspots, protected in natural habitat for
biodiversity (wildlife and plants) and their natural areas, etc. acclimatisation, e. g ., gene
homes exploited. These areas are known as hotspots. bank, cryopreservation, etc.
There are 3 hotspots located in India. Q.21. Write a short note on ‘‘Biodiversity’’. (2020)
In India, Eastern Himalayas, Western Ghats and Indo- Ans. See the answer of Long answer type question-1.
Burma are major hotspots.
Q.20. Difference between in situ conservation and Ex situ
conservation. (2020)
Long Answer Type Questions 5 Marks

Q. 1. What is biodiversity? How can we preserve it? Write
the reasons of its degradation?
Or What is biodiversity? Write two procedures for its
preservation?
Or What do you understand by biodiversity? What are
the causes of biodiversity loss? Explain two methods of
biodiversity conservation. (2019)
Or What do you mean by biodiversity? How it can be
preserved? (2020)
Ans: Biodiversity: The term ‘biodiversity’ refers to the
totality of genes, species and ecosystems of a region.
The biodiversity therefore includes different types of
genes, different types of organisms, species and
ecosystems. The distribution of organisms is not even.
It depends upon the habit and habitat of the organism.
Therefore biodiversity differs from place to place.
Taking into consideration, the total habitats of plants
and animals, we can say that the living world abounds
with enormous biodiversity.
We can conserve biodiversity in the following ways.
Conservation of biodiversity
I. Ex situ conservation: To protect endangered species,
they are kept out of their natural homes, Zoos, Games
farms, Safari parks, Aquaria, Botanical gardens, Seed
banks and Gene banks are the examples of ex situ
conservation. Ex situ conservation has different
solutions, where wildlife are conserved. In present our
country has 275 zoos, safari park and aquaria. In India
there are many zoological museums in which extinct
species are kept.
(a) Botanical gardens:These are the large,
artificially made natural surroundings where a
large number of plant species are kept. Botanical
gardens are significant for their plant diversity.
There are more than 1500 botanical gardens in the
world. Some important are described below —
1. Royal Botanical Garden Kew — It is the
largest botanical garden of the world. It is
located at Kew (England) and was founded in
1759 by Willium Aiton. It has about six
million specimens of plants.
2. Museum of Natural History — It is located in
Paris (France). It also contains about six
million specimens of plant species.
3. New York Botanical Garden — It is located
in New York (USA) and was founded in
1801. It contains about 4.5 million specimens
of plants species.
4. British Museum of natural history — It is
located in London. It contains more than 4
million plant specimens.
5. Indian Botanical Garden — It is situated in
Kolkata, India. It is the biggest botanical
garden of India. It contains about 1.5 million
plant specimens.

Significance of botanical garden
♦ Botanical garden provides the visitor to compare
plants in their natural living conditions.
♦ Botanical garden provides material for botanical
research.
♦ Botanical garden provide on the spot education
about the plants.
♦ Botanical garden provides shelter to endangered
species.
♦ Botanical garden acts as a huge library of plants.
(b) Zoological parks: Zoological parks and gardens
are the protected and enclosed areas, which are,
developed to provide shelter to wild animals.
Main object of creating the zoological parks is to
create among people an interest and curiosity for
animals. Various types of animals are kept in a
zoological park for their protection, exhibition
and study purposes.
Zoological parks are mainly run by the central and
state governments. However some
non-government organisations (N.G.Os) are also
active in this direction.
Zoological parks guard animals against their
natural enemies and also against starvation. They
are also given medical treatment and facilities.
Some important zoological parks of India are —
1. Zoological Garden, Kolkata.
2. Zoological Park, Itanagar, Arunachal
Pradesh.
3. Zoological garden, Bikaner, Rajasthan.
4. Nehru Zoological Park, Hyderabad.
5. Nandan Kanan Zoological Park,
Bhuvneshwar, Odisha.
6. Prince of Wales Zoological Garden,
Lucknow.
7. National Zoological Park, Delhi.
8. Sephijala Zoological Park, Tripura.
9. Kamla Nehru Zoological Garden,
Ahemedabad.
10. Indira Gandhi Zoological Park,
Vishakhapattanam.
(c) Storage of seeds, pollen and tissue cultures:
The structures like seeds, pollen and tissue
cultures of important and endangered species can
be protected by storing them at a very low
temperature. The storage of materials at very low
temperature (–196°C) is called cryopreservation.
This temperature is usually achieved with the help
of liquid nitrogen.
(d) Gene or DNA banks: The germplasm or genes
(DNA) of important species can also be stored in
gene or DNA banks. These banks help genetic
131
engineers and plant and animal breeders to
quickly obtain the genetic material of their choice.
(e) Establishing gene bank: Threatened,
endangered and desired genes of wildlife and
living beings are kept at a safe place which is
known as gene bank. In these institutions the
plants are grown through seeds and are kept
safely. These are called as the storage for future
viable seeds.
(f) Cryo-preservation: In this the germplasm of
threatened and endangered species is kept at very
low temperature (-196° C) in liquid nitrogen.
In this process the biological activities, mitosis
and genetic changes stop. It is known as
cryo-preservation.
II. In situ conservation: In this conservation, different
species and genes are preserved in natural habitat. In
the year 1982, the Indian wildlife board was
established. This board works and organizes different
programmes for the natural habitat, their care-taking,
etc. and the topics related to them.
To conserve biodiversity in its natural habitat, national
parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves are made.
(a) National parks: They are areas reserved for
wildlife where the latter is able to obtain all the
required natural resources and proper habitats.
Plantation, cultivation, grazing, felling of trees
and habitat manipulation are not allowed. Private
ownership is not permitted. At present India has
112 National parks. The early national parks
( e. g., Yellowstone Park in U.S.A., Royal Park
near Sydney, Australia) were chosen for their
scenic beauty and recreational values. They now
contain and protect rare species and wilderness
areas. Jim Corbett National Park near Nainital
(Uttarakhand) was the first national park
established in India 1936. Keoladeo, Kaziranga
and Manas have been included among world
heritage sites.
(b) Sanctuaries: They are tracts of land with or
without a lake where animals are protected from
all types of exploitation and habitat disturbance.
Private ownership is permitted. Collection of
minor forest products, harvesting of timber and
wood, tilling of land and other activities are
allowed provided they do not interfere with the
welfare of animals. Presently India has 515
sanctuaries.
(c) Biosphere Reserve:
♦ Biosphere reserves are specialised protected areas,
which represents natural biomes and contain
unique biological communities.
132
♦ The concept of Biosphere Reserves was given
in 1975 as a part of UNESCO’s ‘Man and
Biosphere Programme’ (MAB).
Transition zone
Buffer zone
Core area
Human
settlement
Fig. Zonation in biosphere reserve
Construction of a biosphere reserve : A Biosphere
Reserve consists of the following zones —
(1) The core zone : It is the inner central part that
comprises an undisturbed and legally protected
ecosystem.
(2) The buffer zone : It lies in the middle and
surrounds the core zone. It is managed to
accommodate, a greater variety of resources and
support educational activities and research.
(3) The transition zone : It is the outermost part of the
biosphere reserve. In this zone, there is active
co-operation between the reserve management
and the local people and activities like settlement,
cropping, forestry, recreation, etc. continue to
take place.
The reasons for the extinction of biodiversity
can be explained under following headings—
(i) Habitat Fragmentation: The large natural
habitats of wildlife have been fragmented
into small pieces due to urbanization, which
has caused many animals to shift from one
place to another which resulted in their
limited existence.
(ii) Introduction of Alien or Exotic Species:
Alien species are often introduced
inadvertantly for their economic and other
uses. They often become invasive and drive
away the local species.
(iii) Co-extinction: Extinction of one species
leads to the extinction of other species
dependent on it, e.g., when a small fish gets
extinct, then the superior creatures
depending on it for their food also start to get
extinct.
(iv) Pollution: The main reason for decrease in
animal population is pollution, due to which
many species of a group are effected.
(v) Habitat Destruction: Due to increase in
population, there is human interference in the
natural habitat of wildlife, due to which their
habitat have been destroyed leading to
shortage in biodiversity. This damage has
increased in last 150 years. Regular increase
in the residential areas, agricultural area,
industrial areas has decreased the area of
forest from 18% to very less. The Amazonian
rainforest has been cleared for soybean
farming and pasteurization.
Q. 2. Write an essay on wild animals in India. (2020)
Ans: Various types of wild animals are found in the forests
of India. Since primitive days the wild animals have
close relationship with the mankind. The major wild
animals of India are elephant, tiger, lion, rhino, bear
etc. They live in the dense forests.
The Sundarban of West Bengal is the home of the
Royal Bengal Tigers. Similarly lions live in the Gir
Forest of Gujarat, and rhinoceroses live in the dense,
marshy and moist forests of Assam, north Bengal and
Tripura. Elephants and tigers live in the forests of
Orrissa, Madhya Pradesh, and Karnataka and in the
foot Himalayas and Chhotnagpur plateaus.
Besides, panthers, wolves, bears, deer. Antelopes,
bisons etc. live in almost all forests of India. Ibex types
of wild goats with long furs are found in Kashmir.
Musk-deer and yaks are found in the Himalayan region
in the borders of India and Nepal. Neel-gay is seen in
Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. In our forests
different kinds of venomous snakes like python, cobra
etc. are also found. In almost all our forests live
monkeys, hares, jackals, foxes etc.
Varieties of birds are seen in our forests, the most
important of which are the peacock, cuckoo, myna,
horn-bill (kochila khai), kite, vulture, hawk etc. Swans,
ducks, crows, golden oriole, cranes, doves etc. are
found almost everywhere. Tiger is our national animal
and peacock, the national bird. The number of wild
animals is gradually diminishing as our forests are
diminishing.
Preservation of Wildlife :
The Government of India have forbidden hunting of
birds and animals and declared it punishable under law
as the number of many kinds of wildlife diminishes
beyond expectation. Many plans are being executed for
preservation of wildlife.
There are at present 20 national parks and 190 wildlife
sanctuaries in different States of India for preservation
of wildlife. In 1972 the Indian Wildlife Board launched
a national scheme called the “Project Tiger” to protect
the tiger population.
This tiger project ensures complete protection to the
tiger species in seven specially selected reserves at
Manas (Assam), Palamau (Bihar), Similipal (Odisha),
the Corbett National Park (U.P.), Melghat
(Maharashtra), Manipur (Karnataka) and Sundar-bans

(West Bengal). The other vanishing species like the
rhinoceros and the lion are preserved in the Kaziranga
National Park of Assam and the Gir Forests of Gujarat
respectively.
In Odisha the Candace Forests near Bhuvaneswar have
been declared as Elephant Reserve and Chalice Lake as
the Bird Sanctuary. There are crocodile sanctuaries at
Satkosia of Tikarpada and Bhitar Kanika (Cuttack
District) now Kendrapara District.
Q. 3. What are threatened species? Explain different meth-
ods to conserve them. (2020)
Ans: Threatened species : Please see the answer of short
answer type question-18.
Methods to conserve threatened species : Some
methods are as following :
Conserve habitats in reserves : One of the most
important ways to ensure that threatened plants and
animals survive is to permanently protect their habitats
in national parks, nature reserves or wilderness areas.
National parks enable people to enjoy the beauty and
diversity of species without harming them.
When you visit a national park, observe the wildlife
codes: follow fire regulations; leave your pets at home;
do not pick flowers or remove bush rocks; leave birds'
eggs in their nests; and put your rubbish in a bin or
better still, take it home.
Conserve habitats on farms : Despite the number of
national parks and nature reserves, many native plants
and animals are still inadequately protected. For
NCERT Fully Solved Exercise
Q.1 Name the three important components of biodiversity.
Ans. The three important components of biodiversity are —
(i) Genetic diversity : Diversity at the level of genetic
differences.
(ii) Species diversity: The diversity at the species
level.
(iii) Ecological diversity: The diversity at the
ecosystem / ecological level.
Q.2 How do ecologists estimate the total number of species
present in the world ?
Ans. Ecologists make a statistical comparison of the
temperate-tropical species richness of an exhaustively
studied group of insects and extrapolate this ratio to
other groups of animals and plants to come up with a
gross estimate of the total number of species on earth.
Q.3 Give three hypotheses for explaining why tropics show
greatest levels of species richness.
Ans. Three important hypothesis in this regard are —
133
example, only about one quarter of known threatened
plants are protected in conservation reserves. Some
threatened species are confined to small areas of bush
and native grasslands in cities, farms and even along
the sides of roads and railway lines.
In some areas, farms are vital to the conservation of
threatened species. There are ways to manage farmland
to protect native plants and animals, and minimise land
degradation. These also contribute to more productive
and sustainable agriculture.
Control exotic plants and animals : Non-native
plants and animals are ones that come from outside
your local area.
Many parks and reserves, beaches, headlands and
inland waterways are infested with exotic weeds and
native species are disappearing because of this.
Blackberries infest temperate forests and streamside
vegetation, bitou bush covers the dunes of east coast
beaches, and mimosa is threatening tropical wetlands.
A lot of exotic weeds come from people's gardens,
often because seeds get taken into the bush by the wind
or birds.
Many of the introduced animals particularly foxes and
cats, are very efficient killers. Feral cats hunt a variety
of other small animals and climb trees or enter burrows
to catch their prey. Sporting and aquarium fish have
displaced native fish in rivers. Introduced animals such
as rabbits eat the food of native animals and even live
in their burrows.
(a) Speciation (formation of a new species) is a time
taking process. During the long course of
evolution, temperate regions have been subjected
to frequent glaciations. On the other hand, the
tropical latitudes have remained relatively
undisturbed.
(b) Tropical climate, unlike temperate ones, is less
seasonal and therefore is relatively more constant.
Such conditions help in niche specialisation and
lead to a greater species diversity.
(c) There is more solar energy available in the tropics,
which contributes to higher productivity. This
higher productivity can support a larger number
of species.
Q.4 What is the significance of the slope of regression in a
species – area relationship ?
Ans. The slope of regression in a species area relationship
suggests that, the richness of the species (biodiversity)
134
increases with increase in the explored area, up to a
certain limit.
It was found that the value of slope (Z) ranges between
0.1 to 0.2. This does not depend upon the area and the
taxonomic group ( i. e., Z value or slope of the line is
similar for all taxonomic group and its value lies
between 0.1 to 0.2). But for very large area (say for an
entire continent), the slope is much steeper and the
value of Z is 0.6 to 1.2. For example — for fruit eating
frugivorous birds and mammals in the tropical forests
of different continents, the slope value (Z value) is
about 1.15.
Q.5 What are the major causes of species losses in a
geographical region ?
Ans. Following are the major reasons for the loss of
biodiversity in a geographical reason.
(a) Habitat Loss and Fragmentation : When people
cut down trees, fill a wetland, plough grassland or
burn a forest, the natural habitat of a species is
changed or destroyed. This habitat loss is the
primary cause of loss of biodiversity.
(b) Disturbance and Pollution : Natural disturbances
and calamities, such as fire, tree fall, and
defoliation by insects severely affect
bio-communities. These can destroy biodiversity
on a very large basis.
(c) Introduction of Exotic Species : New species
(exotic species), when enter a geographical
region, have drastic effects on existing species
(endemic species). These species may cause
disappearance of existing species through
changed biotic interactions.
Q.6 How is biodiversity important for ecosystem
functioning ?
Ans. An ecosystem with high species diversity is more
stable than an ecosystem with low species diversity.
High species diversity keeps the ecosystem in
equilibrium with the environment. Ecosystem becomes
more productive, more tolerant and more resistant to
natural disturbances.
The ecological balance in such ecosystems is perfect
and does not get affected with smaller disturbances.
Note : Due to Covid-19 Chapter-16 (Environmental Issues) is not in the Latest
Syllabus 2020-21.
Q.7 What are sacred groves? What is their role in
conservation ?
Ans. In many cultures, tracts of forest are set aside, and all
the trees and wildlife within are venerated and given
total protection. Such areas are called sacred groves.
These are commonly found in Khasi and Jaintia Hills in
Meghalaya and Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan.
Q.8 Among the ecosystem services are control of floods
and soil erosion. How is this achieved by the biotic
components of the ecosystem ?
Ans. The biotic components of an ecosystem, particularly
plants play an important role in controlling floods and
soil erosion. The roots of plants hold the soil particles
together, thereby preventing the top layer of the soil to
get eroded by wind or running water. The roots also
make the soil porous, thereby allowing ground water
infiltration and preventing floods. Hence, plants are
able to prevent soil erosion and natural calamities such
as floods and droughts. Some microorganisms and
worms also make the soil fertile, this helps in the
growth small plants and grass which also make a
protective cover on the top layer of soil.
Q.9 The species diversity of plants (22 per cent) is much
less than that of animals (72 per cent). What could be
the explanations to how animals achieved greater
diversification ?
Ans. More than 72 per cent of species recorded on the Earth
are animals and only 22 per cent species are plants.
This is because animals are mobile and have greater
senses. They have adapted themselves effectively to
ensure their survival in changing climatic conditions.
They are more diverse and distributed to variety of
habitats because of their greater motility compared to
plants.
Q.10 Can you think of a situation where we deliberately
want to make a species extinct? How would you justify
it?
Ans. Yes, there are various kinds of parasites and
disease-causing microbes that we deliberately want to
eradicate them. Scientists have tried hard to eradicate
small pox virus. Similarly, HIV is so deadlier that we
want to completely eradicate this from this world.
ccc
 Chapter

16 ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES

(This Chapter has been Deleted From Syllabus For Session

2020-21 Due To COVID-19 Epidemic)
 136

Unsolved Paper-1 (Based on 30% less syllabus)

Biology-XII
Time : 3 hrs. 15 mins. M.M: 70

Instructions
(i) First 15 minutes are allotted for reading the question paper.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Please clear your answer with labelled diagram if required.
(iv) The fixed marks of all questions are mentioned in front of them.

1. Choose the correct option and write in your answer (d) Differentiate the following and give examples of
sheet. each: 1½ + 1½
(i) Human egg is: 1 (i) Innate and Acquired immunity
(a) Alecithal (b) Mesolecithal (ii) Active and Passive immunity
(c) Megalecithal (d) Telolecithal 5. (a) Write short notes on: 1½ + 1½
(ii) DNA sequences that code for protein are known (i) Use of microbes in fermented milk
as: 1 (ii) Use of microbes in industry.
(a) Interon (b) Differentiate the following 1½ + 1½
(b) Exons (i) RNA and DNA
(c) Control regions (ii) J-shaped population and S-shaped population
(d) Intervening sequences growth.
(iii) An insect repellent neem product is: 1 (c) Describe the commensalism and mutualism. 3
(a) Rotenone (b) Azadirachtin (d) What is mycorrhiza? Describe its utility. 3
(c) Parathion (d) Endrin 6. (a) With a neat, labelled diagram, describe the parts
(iv) Polyembryony was discovered by: 1 of a flower. 3
(a) Leeuwenhoek (b) Maheshwari (b) A teacher wants his/her students to find the
genotype of pea plants bearing purple coloured
(c) Nawaschin (d) Drouchet
flowers in their school garden. Name and explain
2. (a) Give two example of water pollinated plant. 1
the cross that will make if possible. 3
(b) Who coined the term gene? 1
(c) Explain sex determination in honeybees. 3
(c) Name the virus which causes AIDS. 1
(d) Why is using tobacco in any form injerious to the
(d) What is the shape of exponential growth curve? 1
health? Explain. 3
(e) Name any two threatened animal species of India.
7. Write a note on events of sexual reproduction. 5
1
Or
3. (a) What is semen? 2
Describe the alternation of generation and explain the
(b) Draw the structure of the initiator t-RNA adaptor
life cycle of angiospermic plants with the help of
molecule. 2
labelled diagram. 2+ 3
(c) What is full form of MABP? 2
8. Describe the process of DNA replication. 1+ 4
(d) What is habitat? 2
Or
(e) Define biodiversity. Name any one component of
What do you mean by sex-linked characters? Discuss
biodiversity. 2
its types and explain the inheritance of colour blindness
4. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of human sperm. 3
with example. 2+2+1
(b) Explain family planning and give its two methods.
9. What do you understand about immunity? Name two
2+½+½
human vaccines and clarify their importance. 1+ 2 + 2
(c) What is Down’s syndrome? Give its symptoms
Or
and cause. 3
What is ecological efficiency? Explain its significance .
2+ 3
 137

Unsolved Paper-2 (Based on 30% less syllabus)

Biology-XII
Time : 3 hrs. 15 mins. M.M: 70
Instructions : As model paper 1.
1. Choose the correct option and write in your answer (c) What is pathogen? Write down the names of
sheet: pathogens causing typoid fever and common cold
(i) One of the most invasive weed also called ‘terror in man and also symptoms of these disease. 3
of Bengal’ is: 1 (d) Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation)
(a) Lantana camara (b) Water hyacinth showing a restriction enzyme,the substrate DNA
(c) Carrot grass (d) All of these on which it acts the site at which it cuts DNA and
(ii) Crossing-over occurs between two homologous
the product it produces. 3
chromosomes in: 1
(a) Leptotene (b) Diplotene 5. (a) Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in
(c) Pachytene (d) Zygotene our country. Is this ban necessary? Comment. 3
(iii) Occur in antiserum : 1 (b) Write short notes on anemophily. 3
(a) Antigen (b) WBCs (c) Difference between: 1½ + 1½
(c) Antibody (d) RBCs (i) Infectious and non-infectious diseases
(iv) Restriction enzymes are also known as: 1 (ii) Embryo sac and Endosperm.
(a) Carriers (b) Molecular scissors (d) Make diagram of transverse section of mature
(c) Vectors (d) Molecular markers anther. 3
2. (a) Who is the father of Indian embryology? 1 6. (a) Write short notes on: 1½ + 1½
(b) Name the stage of cells division where (i) Hot spots of biodiversity
segregation of an independent pair of (ii) Biosphere reserves
chromosome occurs. 1 (b) Write difference between: 1½ + 1½
(c) Who gave chromosomal theory of inheritance? 1 (i) Homozygous and heterozygous
(d) Which test is done for diagnosis of typhoid? 1 (ii) Genotype and phenotype
(e) State the type of interaction that exists between
(c) Why is that once a person starts taking alcohol or
ticks and dogs. 1
drugs, it is difficult to get rid of this habit? Discuss
3. (a) Write short note on ABO blood group? 1+1
(b) A garden pea plant produced axial white flowers. it with your teacher. 3
Another of the same species produced terminal (d) Why is the Human Genome Project called a maga
violet flowers. Identify the dominant traits. 2 project? 3
(c) Who proposed central dogma of molecular 7. Define the term ‘‘Reproduction’’. Why reproduction is
biology? Write the central dogma of molecular essential for organisms. 1+ 4
biology. 1 +1 Or
(d) Name the plant source of ganja. How does it affect Which blood groups are found in human beings?
the body of the abuser? 1+1 Explain the inheritance of blood groups. 2½ + 2½
(e) What is symbiosis? What is the shape of 8. Explain the usefulness of DNA fingerprinting in favour
exponential growth curve? 1+1 of human beings. 5
4. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of seed. 3
Or
(b) A pedigree chart given below presents a particular
What defense system found in our body to prevent the
generations which shows a trait irrespective of
sexes (i. e., parents in both male and female). infection? Explain special defense system in brief?
Neither of the parents of the particular generations 3+2
shows the trait. Draw your conclusion on the basis 9. Explain main steps involved in DNA recombination
of the pedigree. 3 technology and give its two beneficial uses. 3+2
Or
What is biodiversity? Write two procedures for its
preservation? 1+ 4
 138

Unsolved Paper-3 (Based on 30% less syllabus)

Biology-XII
Time : 3 hrs. 15 mins. M.M: 70
Instructions : As model paper 1.
1. Choose the correct option and write in your answer 5. (a) Write short notes on: 1½ + 1½
sheet: (i) Project Tiger
(i) Blastula of mammals is called: 1 (ii) Enzyme
(a) Blastodisc (b) Blastocyst (b) Difference between. 1½ + 1½
(c) Discoblastula (d) Coeloblastula (i) Self pollination and cross pollination.
(ii) Crick one of the discoverer of DNA double helical (ii) Hypocotyl and epicotyl.
structure was the man of: 1 (c) What is the use of biotechnology in agriculture
(a) Physics (b) Chemistry sector? 3
(c) Zoology (d) Botany (d) Draw a diagram of molecular structure of DNA. 3
(iii) Which of the following is a viral infection? 1 6. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of a section through
(a) Malaria (b) Typhoid ovary. 3
(c) Ringworm (d) Common cold (b) Why DNA is called genetic material? 3
(iv) Cosmids are obtained from : 1 (c) Define adolescence and discuss its problems. 3
(a) Bacteria (b) Viruses (d) You have identified a useful gene in a bacteria.
(c) Fungi (d) Plants Make a flow chart of the steps that you would
2. (a) Name the parts of gynoecium which develop into follow to transfer this gene to a plant. 3
fruit and seeds. 1 7. Describe the Mendel’s genetic law. Explain the
(b) Name any two Mendelian disorders. 1 dihybrid cross between the round-yellow and
(c) Give name of two human diseases which spread green-wrinkled seeded pea plants. 2+3
by sexual reproduction. 1 Or
(d) Name two diseases against which genetically Explain the usefulness of DNA fingerprinting in favour
engineered vaccine are now available. 1 of human beings. 5
(e) Write two examples of National parks of India. 1 8. A heavily bleeding and bruised road accident victim
3. (a) What is placenta? Give its one function. 2 was brought to a nursing home. The doctor
(b) Draw a flow chart of components of an Operon. 2 immediately gave him an injection to protect him
(c) Name any two types of cells that act as cellular against a deadly disease. 5
barriers to provide innate immunity in humans. 2 (i) Write what did doctor inject into the patient’s
(d) Define gene gun. 2 body?
(e) What is turner's syndrome? 2 (ii) How do you think this injection would protect the
4. (a) In our society the woman are often blamed for patient against the disease?
giving birth to daughters. Can you explain why (iii) Name the disease against which this injection was
this is not correct? 3 given and the kind of immunity it provides.
(b) Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation) 1½ + 1½ + 2
showing a restriction enzyme, the substrate DNA
on which it acts the site at which it cuts DNA and Or
the product it produces. 3 Explain main steps involved in DNA recombination
(c) Differentiate the following: 1½ + 1½ technology and give its two beneficial uses. 3+2
(i) T-cells and B-cells. 9. Write an essay on wild animals of India. 1+ 4
(ii) Infectious and Non-infectious diseases Or
Describe various morphological adaptations of
(d) Why are small birds like humming birds not found
xerophytic plants. 1+ 2 + 2
in polar regions? 3
 139

Unsolved Paper-4 (Based on 30% less syllabus)

Biology-XII
Time : 3 hrs. 15 mins. M.M: 70
Instructions : As model paper 1.
1. Choose the correct option and write in your answer (ii) Heterochromatin and Euchromatin
sheet: 5. (a) Give characteristics of insect pollinated flowers. 3
(i) Synergids are: 1 (b) What are the major components of seminal
(a) Haploid (b) Diploid plasma? 3
(c) Triploid (d) Tetraploid (c) Write short notes on: 1½ +1½
(ii) Har Gobind Khorana is Known for : 1 (i) Transcription
(a) Protein synthesis (ii) Double fertilization
(b) Discovery of RNA (d) Write difference between: 1½ +1½
(c) Discovery of DNA (i) Population and community
(d) Discovery of DNA liagse enzyme. (ii) Self pollination and cross pollination
(iii) Which body organ is severely affected in 6. (a) Comment on the RCH programme of the
jaundice? 1 government to improve the reproductive health of
(a) Heart (b) Brain people. 3
(c) Kidney (d) Liver (b) Work out F1 and F2 generations to explain the
(iv) Term ecology was coined by : 1 inheritance of flower colour in Pisum sativum.
(a) Robert brown (b) Elton Give phenotypic ratio (start with pure breeding). 3
(c) Haeckel (d) Reiter (c) List three major functions of a gene/ genetic
2. (a) Which cell organelle help in the formation of material. 3
acrosome? 1 (d) What do you mean by contraception? Give the
(b) Define a codon. 1 name of natural methods of contraception.
(c) Name two STDs. Which can be transmitted 1½ +1½
through contaminated blood. 1 7. Distinguish between spermatogenesis and oogenesis. 5
(d) What is humus? 1 Or
(e) Who is the father of Indian embryology? 1 What is genetics? Describe two Mendel’s law of
3. (a) What is placenta? 2 inheritance with example. 1+2 +2
(b) Mention any two autosomal genetic disorders 8. What is DNA? Describe its structure. Give the
with their symptoms. 2 difference between RNA and DNA. 1+2 +2
(c) Draw a structure of antibody with labelling. 2 Or
(d) What is meant by gene cloning? 2 Explain the term disease. Describe causative agents,
(e) Why green plants are not found beyond a certain symptoms and preventive measures of any two diseases
depth in ocean? 2 given below: 1+2 + 2
4. (a) Is sex education necessary in schools? Why? 3 (i) AIDS (ii) Chikungunya
(b) Why is the Human Genome Project called a mega (iii) Dysentery (iv) Meningitis
project? 3 9. Compare Chemical fertilizer and Biofertilizer. Prove
(c) In metropolitan cities of India, many children are that to maintain the fertility of soil and quality of crops,
suffering from allergy/asthma. What are the main Biofertilizer is more useful. 2+3
causes of this problem. Give some symptoms of Or
allergic reactions. 3 Define biotechnology. Explain application of
(d) Difference between: 1½ +1½ biotechnology in production of Bt cotton. 1+ 4
(i) RNA and DNA
 140

Unsolved Paper-5 (Based on 30% less syllabus)

Biology-XII
Time : 3 hrs. 15 mins. M.M: 70

Instructions : As model paper 1.

1. Choose the correct option and write in your answer (i) Wilting
sheet: (ii) Mangrove plants
(i) Birds are: 1 (b) What is community interaction? Give its type and
(a) Oviparous (b) Viviparous examples. 2+½ +½
(c) Ovoviviparous (d) All of these (c) Write down the differences between
(ii) Number of homologous chromosomes in human commensalism and parasitism. 3
sperm are: 1 (d) Which gases are present in Biogas, give their
(a) 23 (b) 46 name? Give two benefits of Biogas for man. 2+1
(c) 1 (d) Nil 6. (a) When a cross is made between tall plant with
(iii) Antibodies are produced by: 1 yellow seeds (Tt Yy) and tall plant with green
(a) Leucocytes (b) Lymphocytes seed (Tt yy), what proportions of phenotype in the
(c) Erythrocytes (d) None of these offspring could be expected to be: 1½ + 1½
(iv) Tiger is not a resident in the National Park: 1 (i) Tall and green
(a) Sunderbans (b) Gir (ii) Dwarf and green
(c) Jim Corbett (d) Ranthambore (b) Give the name of four viral diseases found in man
2. (a) Who is the father of Indian embryology? 1 and also give the infectious method any one
(b) Universal recipient person belong to which blood disease. 2 +1
group? 1
(c) Write down a short note on Allen's rule. 3
(c) Who gave the chromosomal theory of (d) Write short note on red data book. 3
inheritance? 1
7. What is gene cloning? Explain the different steps used
(d) Give the name of functional unit of gene. 1
in gene cloning. 1+ 4
Or
(e) Give an example of rod-shaped virus. 1
Draw a labelled diagram of human male reproductive
3. (a) Define genetics and who is known as the father of
system showing various reproductive glands. 5
modern genetics? 2
8. Explain the term disease. Describe causative agents,
(b) Difference between DNA and RNA. 2
symptoms and preventive measures of AIDS,
(c) What are interferons? Give the scientific name of
chikungunya, dysentery and meningitis. 1+ 4
causative agent of disease malaria. 2
Or
(d) Mention the uses of cloning vector in
Explain the structure of DNA model given by Watson
biotechnology. 2 and Crick and its work. Explain the Biological
(e) What is fermentation? Give its two uses. 2 significance of this model. 3+2
4. (a) What is polyembryony? how many types it? 1+2 9. Compare the chemical fertilizer and biofertilizer. Prove
(b) How is sex determined in human beings, show it that to maintain the fertility of soil and quality of crops,
with graphical diagram. 3 biofertilizer is more useful. 1+ 4
(c) Write a short note on gel electrophoresis. 3 Or
(d) Differentiate the following: 1½ + 1½
What is pollination? Describe verious kinds of
(i) Homozygous and Heterozygous
pollination that occur in flowering plants. Mention
(ii) Genotype and Phenotype.
about the biotic pollinating agents. 1+ 2 + 2
5. (a) Write the short note. 1½ + 1½
 141

Some Important Diagrams

Stigma Pistil/carpel
Stamen Style
Anther Ureter
Filament Ovary
Seminal vesicle

Urinary bladder

Vas deferens
Ejaculatory
Prostate duct

Petal Penis
Gut
Sepal (rectum)
Urethra

Ovule Glans
Testis Bulbo-urethral
Pedicel
Scrotum (Cowper’s) gland
Structure of flower (bisexual), showing male and female organs
Male reproductive system

Urinary
bladder
Vas deferens Vas deferens
tied and cut tied and cut

Prostate
Seminal
vesicle Cowper’s
gland
Urethra
Vas deferens
Epididymis
Various types of pollination
Testis

Scrotum

Penis

Vasectomy

Pollen tube

HIV (Human
immuno-deficiency virus)
Pollen tube entering an ovule
142

Spermatozoa

Spermatid

Secondary
spermatocyte

Primary
spermatocyte

Sertoli cell

Spermatogonium

Sectional view of a seminiferous tubule

Fallopian tube Fallopian tube

tied and cut tied and cut

Ovary Fimbriae
Endometrium
Myometrium
Internal os
Cervix
External os
Vagina

Tubectomy

Hershey-Chase experiment (Transduction)

Path of sperm and ovum and place of fertilisation

 143

Simple stirred tank bioreactor (STB)

Clover-leaf model of tRNA

A simple food web in a grassland ecosystem

Clean air

Discharge corona
Negatively charged
wire
Water/lime
spray
Dirty air Clean
air

Dirty Dust particles

Particulate
air Collection plate grounded
matter
Electrostatic precipitator
Scrubber
Electrostatic precipitator

Homology in the structure of forearm of different vertebrates

144