DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL BANGALORE SOUTH

LEGAL STUDIES
CODE: 074
CLASS XII

WORKSHEET BOOKLET(2023-24)

NAME: ……………………………………………………………… SEC: ……………

ROLL NO: …………………………………..

 INDEX

S. NO TOPICS Pg. Nos.

1. UNIT 1 3
JUDICIARY

UNIT 2
TOPICS OF LAW

2. CHAPTER 1 6
PROPERTY LAW

3. CHAPTER 2 9
CONTRACT LAW

4. CHAPTER 3 13
TORT LAW

5. CHAPTER 4 17
CRIMINAL LAW

6. UNIT 3 20
ARBITRATION, TRIBUNAL ADJUDICATION AND
ALTERNATIVE DISPUTE RESOLUTION

7. UNIT 4 24
HUMAN RIGHTS IN INDIA

8. UNIT 5 28
LEGAL PROFESSION IN INDIA

9. UNIT 6 31
LEGAL SERVICES

10. UNIT 7 34
INTERNATIONAL CONTEXT

PROJECT GUIDELINES 37

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WORKSHEETS
LEGAL STUDIES

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 WORKSHEET 1 JUDICIARY

1 Which court in India can designate an advocate as a Senior Advocate?

a. High Court only
b. Supreme Court only
c. Supreme Court or any of the High Courts
d. District Court only

2 Match the following

Column 1 Column II

1 Articles 14-18 A Right against Religion

2 Articles 19-22 B Cultural and Educational

Rights

3 Articles 23-24 C Right to Equality

4 Articles 25-28 D Right to Freedom

Choose the correct options

a. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
b. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
c. 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 1-B
d. 1-D, 3-C, 2-B, 4-A

3 Assertion (A): The salaries and allowances of judges are fixed and not subject to vote of
the legislature.
Reason(R): Independence of judges is crucial to ensure independence of judiciary.
a. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
b. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
c. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

4 The age of retirement of a District Court Judge is determined by

a) The President of India

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 b) Chief Justice of High Court of that state
c) Their respective state governments
d) The Chief Justice of India

5 Mr. Mehta, an activist lawyer wrote a letter to a judge of the Supreme Court, drawing
his attention towards the need for political reforms having general elections round the
corner where he insisted on a condition on the disclosure of the assets by the
candidates. Which extra ordinary jurisdiction empowers Mr. Mehta to move the
Court?
a. Public Interest litigation
b. Writ Jurisdiction
c. Special leave to appeal.
d. Judicial review.

6 Sushil was working with a government agency whose function was to formulate laws
and policy for resolving telecom disputes in India. Identify the body.
a. Telecom Dispute Settlement Appellate Tribunal.
b. Central Administrative Tribunal.
c. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India.
d. Regulator.

7. The landmark 1973 Supreme Court case of KeshavanandaBharati v. State of Kerala

discussed the question about…..
a.collegium model of appointment of judges in India
b.scope of separation of powers in India
c.the basic structure or feature of the constitution
d. power of judicial review

8. Prakhar is a citizen of India and a qualified Advocate. In the year 2000, he was
appointed as a Second Class Judicial Magistrate in Rajasthan. But in the year 2003, he
resigned from the post of Second Class Judicial Magistrate. He started practicing as an
Advocate in Delhi High Court in the year 2009. In the year 2011, he shifted to
Panchkula located in Haryana and since then he is practicing as an advocate in Punjab
and Haryana High Court. In 2015 he is eligible to be appointed as?
a. High Court Judge only
b. Both Supreme Court and High Court Judge
c. District Judge only
d. Supreme Court Judge only

9. Intheyear1950,theConstitutionofIndiaenvisagedaSupremeCourtwithoneChiefJustice
and………… judges
a. 8
b. 7
c. 12
d. 24

10. A constitutional amendment was passed by the Indian Parliament which abridged

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 rights conferred in Part III of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court of India
invalidated the said amendment by using the power of:
a. Locus standi
b. Judicial review
c. Public Interest Litigation
d. Writs

11 Apart from early retirement age, give any two factors that deter any senior lawyer
from accepting judgeship in India.

12 Stating the grounds for removal of a judge, explain the process of impeachment of a
judge of the Supreme Court of India.

13 Distinguish between Attorney General and Advocate General.

14 The constitutional imperatives that permit the Supreme Court to adjudicate and advice
on disputes, come from the sub-ordinate courts. In the recent years, the Supreme
Court has relaxed its locus standi and has on its own initiative started cases of public
importance.
a. What is meant by '''locus standi''?
b. Which form of extra-ordinary jurisdiction has been created by its relaxation? State
any two characteristics of this form of extra- ordinary jurisdiction.

15 “The decision in the landmark 1973 Supreme Court case of KeshavanandaBharati v.

State of Kerala was an answer to the 24th Amendment Act to the Constitution
affecting Article 13 and Article 368". Explain.

16 How has the series of three judicial decisions popularly known as the ' three judge’s
case helped in the development of the modern collegium system?

17 Explain the reasons for granting special status to Judiciary in India.

18 The concept of independence and Impartiality of Indian Judiciary must be studied in

conjunction as they aim at achieving the same goal of maintaining judicial integrity in
the democratic process of the country. Comment

19 Explain the scope of judicial review in:

a. Centre State relations
b. Fairness in executive action

20. Differentiate between each of the following (Give one main difference between each
of the following)
a. Division of power and Separation of power
b. Writ of prohibition and writ of certiorari
c. Public Interest litigation and writ jurisdiction

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 WORKSHEET 2 PROPERTY LAW

1 Puja gave possession of her residential property to Aarna for some period of time
for money. What type of relationship exists between Puja and Aarna?
a) Donor and Donee
b) Seller and Buyer
c) Lessor and Leasee
d) Lessor and Sub-lessee

2 Rakesh plans a get together of friends at his home. Ravi, one of his friends,
promised to make a special dish for the guests. On the day of get together Ravi did
not come nor did he arrange for the dish. Since it was the only starter planned in
the menu, Rakesh had to face embarrassment .He sues Ravi for the breach of
contract. Will Rakesh succeed in his action?
a.Rakesh will succeed because Ravi failed to keep his promise.
b.Rakesh will succeed because his reputation was affected due to of negligent
behaviour of Ravi.
c.Rakesh will not succeed because there is no consideration for Ravi to keep his
promise.
d.Rakesh will not succeed because Court doesn’t entertain such petty issues.

3 The judiciary has adopted the role of a social activist through

a. Original Jurisdiction
b. Advisory Jurisdiction
c. Special Leave to Appeal
d. Public Interest Litigation

4 Amit sold his farmhouse to Puja which consisted of apple and plum orchards, meant
primarily for selling the produce of the orchards. Identify which law will govern this
transaction:
a. Sale of Goods Act
b. Transfer of Property Act
c. Indian contract Act
d. Consumer protection Act

5 Which of the following is the definition of the term ‘Exchange’ as given under the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
a. When two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the
ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only
b. When two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the
ownership of another, either thing or both things being money only
c. When two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the
ownership of another, either thing or both things being money only
d. When two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the

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 ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only
6. Rohit, aged 13 years and Kartik, aged 20 years entered into a sale agreement
wherein Rohitagreed to sell his farmhouse to Kartik for Rs. 5, 00,000. After
execution of the sale agreement,Rohit avoided the agreement of sale stating that
the farmhouse is involved in a litigationpending before the Hon’ble Delhi High Court
and he cannot transfer the farmhouse.Aggrieved by this, Rohit and Kartik agreed to
appoint a mediator to resolve their dispute.Given the dispute, which of the
following statement is correct?
a. The dispute can be referred to arbitration as contractual disputes are best suited
forarbitration.
b. The dispute cannot be referred to mediation as claims against minors are
excluded fromthe scope of mediation.
c. The dispute can be referred to mediation as property disputes are best suited for
Mediation.
d. The dispute cannot be referred to mediation as the property is lispendens
7. What is the mode adopted for execution of transfer of property by exchange?
a. Registered sale deed
b. Registered lease deed
c. Registered deed for gift of immovable property
d. No registered document is required.
8. Ritu gives a diamond ring to her friend Rashmi. Rashmi accepts the ring but does not
pay anything in return for the ring.
The relationship between Ritu and Rashmi is of
a. Lessor and Lessee
b. Buyer and Seller
c. Donor and Donee
d. Lessor and Sub-Lessee
9. Under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the seller is duty bound
to disclose:
A. Patent defects in the property
B. Latent defects in the property
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
10. Under the provisions of the Transfer of the Property Act, 1882, the benefits of a
contract can be assigned as an actionable claim and transferred unless:
A. The contract is one which had been induced by personal qualifications or
considerations as to the parties to it
B. The benefit is coupled with an obligation which the assignor is bound to discharge
C. either A or B
D. neither A nor B
11. Suresh and Dinesh were brothers who had a dispute over a property. Dinesh filed a
suit in the court to determine the title of the property. While the suit is pending,
Suresh initiates a sale of this property in favour of Mahesh. Is the action of Suresh
justified in law? Give reasons for your answer.

12. Maniram owned a mango grove. In 2014, he sold the mangoes from his grove. Later,
in 2018, he sold the wood of the trees as timber. Citing the relevant case law,

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 identify the nature of property in a. 2014 b. 2018

13. Who can transfer property? Explain the ways in which an immovable property can
be transferred.

14. Shreemala has transferred her ownership rights in her property by way of sale and a
sale deed is to be executed. For this an essential legal formality is to be done by
both the parties.
a. Identify this essential legal formality
b. State any two conditions to be fulfilled for completing the formality identified in
(a) above.

15. What is ‘Doctrine of Election’ and ‘Doctrine of LisPendence’ in the law of property?
How do these two affect the validity of a transfer of a property?

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 WORKSHEET 3 CONTRACT LAW

1 Anand enters into a contract with Raman to supply 5 bags of cement for Rs. 2000/-.
He delivers 5 bags of cement on the decided date, and receives Rs. 2000/- from
Raman as consideration, leading to discharge of the contract. What was the mode
of discharge of contract in the above situation?
a. Discharge by Breach of Contract
b. Discharge by Performance
c. Discharge by Operation of law
d. Discharge by Lapse of time.

2 Vikas, a 16 year old offer to sell their plot in NOIDA to Arshad (aged 24) for Rs. 10
lacs. Vikas took an advance of Rs. 1 lac from Arshad. Vikas’s father was annoyed
with him at the transaction and did not allow the transfer. Arshad brought a suit for
specific performance against Vikas. Will he succeed?
a) Arshad will succeed as Vikas entered into the contract with his own free will
b) Arshad will succeed as there is consideration and it is valid
c) Arshad will not succeed as Vikas’s father did not approve the transfer
d) Arshad will not succeed as Vikas does have the capacity to contract

3 This form of discharge of Contract takes place when one of the parties fails or
refuses to perform their part of the promise. In this event, the party that suffers due
to the other party’s nonperformance of promise becomes entitled to monetary
compensation. What is the name given to the monetary compensation for the loss
suffered by the injured party in this form of discharge?
a. Remuneration
b. Damages
c. Discharges
d. Consideration

4 Adwik sells his bike for a consideration of Rs. 50000 to his friend Sandeep, whereas
the market price of the said bike is Rs. 75000.
The above agreement is
a. not enforceable as Aadwik cannot sell his bike below the market price.
b. enforceable as the consideration need not be adequate, but should be real.
c. not enforceable as it is an unlawful confideration
d. enforceable as the consideration is adequate and reasonable as the bike is not
brand new.

5 Rakesh plans a get together of friends at his home. Ravi, one of his friends,promised
to prepare a the starters for the occasion. On the day of the get together, Ravi did
not come nor did he arrange for the dish. Since it was the only starter planned in
the menu, Rakesh had to face embarrassment. He sues Ravi for the breach of
contract. Will Rakesh succeed in his action?
a. Rakesh will succeed because Ravi failed to keep his promise.

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 b. Rakesh will succeed because his reputation was affected due to negligent
behaviour of Ravi.
c. Rakesh will not succeed because there is no consideration for Ravi to keep his
promise.
d. Rakesh will not succeed because Court doesn’t entertain such petty issues.

6 Bhoora, a poor farmer, forced by hunger and destitution, loans Rs. 10000 from Ajay
provided Bhoora undertakes to work for him without pay for all his life. After a year
of hard labour, Bhoora stops working for Ajay.
Which of the following will apply in this instance?
a. Ajay can move the court as Bhoora has breached the contract.
b. Ajay cannot enforce contract as Bhoora's consent was not free.
c. Ajay cannot enforce contract because agreement was without adequate
consideration.
d. Ajay can sue Bhoora as he hasn't done enough work, since the agreement was for
life.

7 Assertion (A): An agreement would be voidable for the person whose consent is
not free.
Reason(R): Because Indian Contract Act requires that if there is no free consent,
the contract becomes voidable.
a. R is correct but A is incorrect
b. A is correct but R is incorrect
c. Both A and R are correct
d. Both A and R are incorrect.

8 This form of discharge of Contract takes place when one of the parties fails or
refuses to perform their part of the promise. In this event, the party that suffers due
to the other party’s non-performance of promise becomes entitled to monetary
compensation. What is the name given to the monetary compensation for the loss
suffered by the injured party in this form of discharge?
a.Remuneration
b.Damages
c.Discharges
d.Consideration

9. Match the following:

a. When one person signifies to another his willingness to i. Free

do or not to do certain things Consent
b. In this case there is no need to communicate ii. Acceptance
acceptance. Merely fulfilling the conditions of the offer
itself is sufficient.
c. When two persons agree on the same thing in the same iii. Offer
sense.
d. A contract to do something or not to do something on iv. General
the happening or non-happening of an event which is Offer
collateral to the contract.

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 A. a,ii ,b,iii,c,iv, d,i
B. a.i,b.ii,c.iii,d.iv
C. a.iii,b.iv,c.ii,d.i
D. a.iv,b.iii,c.ii,d.i

10 Read the excerpt from the decided case of Lalman Shukla v. GauriDutt and answer
the questions that follow:

Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act states that the communication of a proposal is
complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made. In
Lalman case the defendant’s nephew absconded from home. The plaintiff who was
defendant’s servant was sent to search for the missing boy. After the plaintiff had
left in search of the boy, the defendant issued handbills announcing a reward of Rs.
501 to anyone who might find out the boy. The plaintiff who was unaware of this
reward, was successful in searching the boy. When he came to know of the reward,
which had been announced in his absence, he brought an action against the
defendant to claim this reward. It was held that since the plaintiff was ignorant of
the offer of reward, his act of bringing the lost boy did not amount to the
acceptance of the offer and therefore he was not entitled to claim the reward.

A. Identify the nature of the offer made in the case given above.
a. Legal offer
b. Specific offer
c. General Offer
d. It was not an offer for Lalman

B. What is the first step in the formation of a contract?

a. Acceptance
b. Intention
c. Offer
d. Consideration

C. When is the communication of offer complete?

a. when it is accepted
b. when it has a consideration
c. when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
d. when the person to whom it is made has capacity to enter into a valid contract

D. What happens when an offer is accepted?

a. Contract
b. agreement
c. legal relationship
d. proposal

E. How is this judgment contradictory to the Carlill v. Carbolic Smokeball Company

Case?

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 a. No intention to enter into legal relationship
b. The need for acceptance of the offer was emphasised
c. Knowledge of the offer is important
d. there was intention to enter into legal relationship

11 Sumit and Samaira enter into an agreement where Sumit promised to pay Rs. 5000
if India won against Australia in the cricket match and Samaira promised to pay Rs.
5000 if Australia won the match. Vinay entered into a contract with Vimal Ltd. for
procuring 500 Tshirts @ Rs. 250 per T- shirt, having a photograph of the Indian
Cricket team if India won the semifinal in the cricket world cup. Identify and
differentiate between the above two types of agreements

12 Chanbar Medicos Ltd. created a drug ‘Chikleria’ for treatment of Chikangunia if

taken regularly as per directions during monsoons and even offered a reward if
anyone contracted the disease despite taking the medication as per directions. Soni
purchased the drug and consumed it according to the directions, but yet contracted
chikangunia. Soni sued the company for the reward. The Company denied the
reward on the ground that the offer was not made to Soni personally hence there
was no binding contract. Decide the above in light of leading case law.

13 Vidya Bharti Appliances Ltd. was a manufacturer of laptops. It claimed to have

deve14oped a laptop which did not need to be charged for 7 days if it was charged
overnight as per directions. It put up an advertisement offering a reward of Rs.
10,000/- to anyone who had a contrary experience after charging the laptop in the
prescribed manner.Mr. Ramakant bought the said laptop, and charged it as per
directions but the battery did not last for even 2 days. He claimed the reward
offered by Vidya Bharti appliances Ltd, but the company refused to pay the amount,
saying that no offer was made to Mr. Ramakant. Mr. Ramakant sued the company
for the amount.
Giving valid reasons decide if Mr. Ramakant is entitled to compensation.

14 Raman and Mohit entered into a contract where Raman promises to supply 20 bags
of sugar to Mohit, a sweet shop proprietor, on 5th September 2021. The sugar was
to be supplied by 15th September 2021. The mode of transport available to their
places is roadways only. A landslide happened on 7th September 2021 and the
connecting road was completely damaged and could not be repaired within 15 days.
Raman offered to supply the sugar by 25th September 2021. Mohit refused to
accept the sugar. Raman filed a claim for Rs. 10,000 on Mohit for refusal of the
order.
a. Identify the mode of discharge of this contract?
b. What remedy is available to Raman?

15 “All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts”. Explain with
the help of case laws.

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 WORKSHEET 4 TORT LAW

1 Assertion (A): When the defendant carries out or keeps an unusually hazardous
situation or activity on his or her building premises or involves in an activity that
offers an inevitable danger of injury to the claimant or his or her property, the
defendant could be responsible for the damage caused.
Reason (R): The liability arises due to the violation of the principle established under
Donoghue v. Stevenson.
a. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
b. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
c. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

2 Statement (1): The intentional tort of battery occurs when the defendant causes the
touching of the claimant with the intent to cause harm or offense.
Statement (2): The act of touching doesn't necessarily have to be done with
defendant's hands always.
a. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
b. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
c. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.
d. Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

3 Ashish hits Rohan with a stone from his rear. Rohan could not see the stone coming
towards him. Does this act amount to tort?
a. Yes, because battery can take place even without assault
b. Yes, because assault can take place even without battery
c. No, battery cannot take place without assault
d. No, assault cannot take place without battery

4 Divya purchased a bottle of orange juice from a retailer. As she consumed more
than 3/4 of the contents of the bottle, she found decomposed remains of a snail in
the bottle. After seeing the remains of a snail, she fell sick on the thought of what
she consumed. Can Divya sue the manufacturer?
a.Divya cannot sue the manufacturer in the absence of a contract
b. Divya can sue the manufacturer as he had duty to take care to see that bottles did
not contain any other substance than the juice and hence liable to have broken that
duty
c. There is no remedy available to Divya.
d. None of the above

5. A few week after a surgery, Lata complained of excruciating pain in her abdomen. A
scan revealed that a piece of gauze had been left inside and had led to a severe
infection. Which of the following is applicable in this instance?

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 a. The surgeon is liable for unlawful harrassment, this cannot be mistake.
b. The surgeon is liable for negligence.
c. The surgeon is not liable since nothing major has happened.
d. The surgeon is liable for tort of assault.

6. One morning Sandeep and his friends, Varan and Blair, were hanging out at the
McLaren‘s coffee shop. Blair pointed out a very beautiful girl to Sandeep. The girl
was sitting alone at the bar. Sandeep, with the intention of befriending her, went up
to her to introduce himself. Before he could say anything, the girl threw her hot
drink in his face as she was suffering from heartbreak and did not want to talk to
him. Sandeep decides to sue the girl for battery.
a. The girl cannot be blamed as she was suffering from heartbreak. Sandeep got
what he deserved.
b. The girl realised that Sandeep was flirting with her and her behaviour can be
justified on the grounds of self-defence.
c. The girl had a justification to throw the drink in his face. The use of force was
completely lawful and hence battery has not been committed.
d. The girl has committed battery as she used unlawful force to ward off Sandeep.
Moreover, her act was intentional.

7. A was sitting on a chair reading a book. His friend, B decided to play a practical joke
on him. Accordingly, he pulled the chair from under him. As a result of which, A
landed on the floor.
a. B’s act amounts to a battery
b. B’s act amounts to an assault
c. B’s act amounts to an assault till the time A lands on the floor
d. B’s act amounts to neither battery nor assault because there was no intention

8. Deepak purchased woolen innerwear of a renowned company.As soon as he wore

it, rashes developed all over the body and he was medicated and a huge amount
was spent on his treatment. Deepak wants to sue the company for compensation. In
order to successfully argue that the company was careless in a way that harmed
Deepak, what are the elements that must be proved against the company?
b. In the situation given above, the court orders for laboratory testing of the
innerwear to find out the reason for Deepak’s ailment. The laboratory report stated
that:
a. The innerwear had traced of white petrol and naphta but to permissible limit
required to protect the garments from being infested by moths.
b. A normal person will not have any problem using it.
c. It was concluded that Deepak’s skin was very sensitive.

9. Sanjeev allows the growth of poisonous weed on his plot of land. He was not
negligent nor was he aware of the fact that the weed is poisonous. The weed
spreads and grows onto the property owned by Gurmeet. Gurmeet’s cattle die after
consuming the poisonous weed. Which of the following is applicable in the given
scenario?
a. Sanjeev is not liable to Gurmeet as the latter should have taken due care of his

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 livestock.
b. Sanjeev is liable because allowing poisonous plants to grow and spread amounts
to trespass to land.
c. Sanjeev is strictly liable to Gurmeet even though he may not be negligent.
d. Sanjeev is liable as it amounts to trespass to chattels

10. Green World Organics is the manufacturer of a medicine called ‘Gilyostava’ which
was used for the treatment of Dengue and Chikenguniya. The company believed
that the medicine completely cured these ailments. An advertisement was put up
offering a reward of Rs. 10000 to anyone who got Dengue and Chikenguniya again
after using the ‘Gilyostava’ medicine continuously for fifteen days. In the
advertisement, it was also stated that Rs. 100000 was deposited in a Bank, namely,
Alliance Bank for paying the reward if such situation arose. Seeing the
advertisement, Mrs.Suchika bought the Gilyostava medicine and used it as per the
directions provided. Mrs.Suchika got a fresh episode of Dengue and Chikenguniya.
Mrs.Suchika sued the company for the reward of Rs.10000. With reference to the
following case study, answer the following questions.
A. The acceptance of Mrs.Suchika can be construed as,
a. She read the advertisement and got attracted with the offer.
b. She purchased the medicine.
c. She used the medicine as per the directions provided.
d. She got dengue after consumption of the medicine.

B. The above case is based on the following landmark judgement.

a. Durga Prasad v. Baldeo
b. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
c. Balfour v. Balfour
d. Madam Pillai v. Badar Kali.

C. If the acceptance is not communicated to the offerer, the offer

becomes
a. Void
b. Invalid
c. Voidable.
Valid
D. The company is liable for Mrs.Suchika because;
a. Company has sent an advertisement about the medicine.
b. The company has declared a reward of Rs. 10000 to anyone who got
Dengue.
c. The company has deposited Rs. 100000 in the bank.
d. All the above as this signifies that the Company’s intention to enter into
contract.

11. Vaibhav, without taking permission from his friend Raj, took his golf kit. While
playing golf, he damaged the golf kit in such a way that it became useless.
a. Identify and explain the tort. b. What is the remedy in such cases?

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12. What are the conditions required to satisfy the tort of False imprisonment? State its
exception as well.

13. What is the principle of Absolute Liability? What did Justice PN Bhagwati held in the
famous 1987 case of MC Mehta v. Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizers Industries
regarding this principle?

14. Chintu and his friends were working in a fire cracker factory. One day, the factory
caught fire and Chintu and his friends were seriosly injured. It was established that
the owner had taken all due precautions for the safety of his factory. However,
Chintu wants compensation for the injury suffered by him and his friends. Identify
the principle of tort law under which he can claim relief and explain its evolution.

15. Vidyut Supply Board (VSB) owned and managed the supply of electricity in a city. On
a particular stormy night, a live wire snapped off and came down in a service lane.
Alok, a scooterist, who happened to pass through that street at night got
electrocuted and died. His family sued the Vidyut Supply Board for compensation.
Stating the observations of the Hon’able Supreme Court in the M.C Mehta Vs. Shri
Ram Foods and Fertilizer Industries, decide on the liability of VSB and validity of the
claim of Alok’s heirs.

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 WORKSHEET 5 CRIMINAL LAW

1 Which of the following may act as an estoppel?

A. Admission
b. Confession
c. Intention
d. Preparation

2 An armed thief entered Aviral's house. To save himself and his belongings, Aviral
pushed the thief which resulted in head injuries to the thief. Is Aviral’s act justified
under criminal law?
A. Yes, cauring injury under self-defence is not a crime.
B. No, cauring hurt intentionally is a crime.
c. Yes, because the injury was not serious.
d. No, he should have called the police.

3 A crime involves the following stages:

1. Commission
2. Preparation
3. Intention
4. Attempt
Which of the following shows the correct sequencing:
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 4,3,2,1
c. 3,2,4,1
d. 3,2,1,4

4 Situation 1: A boy is sinking in the swimming pool of a resort. A man who is standing
beside the pool does not make any attempt to save this boy.
Situation 2: A lifeguard on duty at a resort. A boy is sinking in the swimming pool of
a resort. He does not make any attempt to save the boy sinking in the pool. Which
of the following statements describe both the situations?
a. In both the situations there is actusreas though mensrea is missing
b. In both the situations none can be held liable for criminal omission.
c. Situation 1 shows moral omission, whereas Situation 2 shows illegal omission.
d. The act of not doing anything does not accrue any criminal liability as actusrea is
not there.

5 Rakesh was caught jumping the traffic signal and as a punishment, he was sought to
be imprisoned. However, instead of being imprisoned, Rakesh could pay a fine.
Which category of crime does the above act belong to?
a. Compoundable offences
b. Non – compoundable offences
c. Cognizable offences
d. Non – bailable offence

17
6 Brij was caught red handed while travelling without a ticket in a train by the
Travelling Ticket officer.
a. Brij has to pay a fine as the TT officer is compounding the offence.
b. Brij has to be imprisoned as this is a non-compoundable offence.
c. Brij can’t pay a fine at all but has to be imprisoned by the officer.
d. The Travelling Ticket officer can allow Brij to travel without a ticket

7 A security guard at a museum shoots an armed intruder who tries to breach the
security barrier.
Which of the following is true in this situation?
a. Using force to prevent a crime as part of one’s duty is not a criminal act.
b. Causing injury to an assailant in self-defence is not a crime.
c. The injury is caused with the intent to take revenge and thus the act is criminal.
d. Both the elements of actusreus and mensrea are present so the security guard is
criminally liable.
8 A acquires a pistol to kill his arch business rival B. A keeps the pistol loaded in his
pocket but does nothing more than that to kill B.
a. A is guilty of a criminal act as he kept the gun loaded in pocket.
b. A is guilty of a criminal act as there he acquired the pistol
c. A is not guilty as he has made no attempt to kill B.
d. A is guilty because he had the intention to kill B.
9 Match the following:

a. A deed which is a physical result of human i. Crime

conduct
b. Anything done wilfully and not accidently or ii. Actusreus
mistakenly
c. An unlawful act punishable by the State iii. Intention
d. Deemed offences iv. Exception to
mensrea.

A. a,ii ,b,iii,c,iv, d,i

B. a.i,b.ii,c.iii,d.iv
C. a.iii,b.iv,c.ii,d.i
D. a.ii,b.iii,c.i,d.iv

10 “The element of mensrea must be read into a statutory penal provision unless a
statute either expressly or by necessary implication rules it out”.
This was held in
a. State of Maharashtra v. Mayor Hans George
b. Kartar Singh v State of Punjab
c. R v. Dudley & Stephen
d. R v. Prince.

11 Give any 2 points of differences between Admission and Confession.

12 Explain the objectives that are widely accepted for enforcement of criminal law.

18
13 ‘The prosecution in a criminal trial must meet quite high standards and it is not
enough for the prosecution to only assert that the accused has committed the
offence.’ Comment with reasons.

14 Vinod barged into the home of Vineeta and after gagging her, took away her
jewellery and laptop. Vineeta went to the police station and lodged an FIR. Identify
and explain the stages of prosecution after the filing of the FIR.

15. Puru a passerby, saw two masked motorbikes looting the ATM of the Bank of Aluba.
The bikers also injured the guard deputed at the ATM. Puru had noted the
registration number of the motorbike. He not only called the ambulance but also
informed the police about the commission of the offence by recording an FIR in the
nearest police station.
In the above given situation:
a. Is the officer in charge bound to investigate the facts and circumstances of the
case? Give reason to your answer.
b. What happens if the police refuse to investigate an offence?

19
 WORKSHEET 6 ARBITRATION, TRIBUNAL ADJUDICATION AND
ALTERNATIVE DISPUTE RESOLUTION

1 In what method of Alternative Dispute Resolution, the third party facilitates

discussion but does not enter the arena of dispute either as a judge or a conciliator?
a. Conciliation
b. Mediation
c. Arbitration
d. Negotiation

2 Powers of the LokAdalat are similar to that of –

a. Civil court under Civil Procedure Code
b. Criminal court under Criminal Procedure Code
c. High Court
d. Supreme Court

3 Rohit, aged 13 years and Kartik, aged 20 years entered into a sale agreement
wherein Rohit agreed to sell his farmhouse to Kartik for Rs. 5, 00,000. After
execution of the sale agreement, Rohit avoided the agreement of sale stating that
the farmhouse is involved in a litigation pending before the Hon’ble Delhi High
Court and he cannot transfer the farmhouse. Aggrieved by this, Rohit and Kartik
agreed to appoint a mediator to resolve their dispute. Given the dispute, which of
the following statement is correct?
a. The dispute can be referred to arbitration as contractual disputes are best suited
for arbitration.
b. The dispute cannot be referred to mediation as claims against minors are
excluded from the scope of mediation.
c. The dispute can be referred to mediation as property disputes are best suited for
mediation.
d. The dispute cannot be referred to mediation as the property is lispendens.

4 Which of the following disputes can be resolved through mediation?

A. Election disputes
b. Criminal offences
c. Matrimonial disputes
d. Cases of minors.

5 Rohan wants to opt for a dispute resolution form which offers way to discuss and
solve the problem underlying a dispute and create truly lasting peace? Identify:
a. Mediation
b. Conciliation
c. Arbitration
d. LokAdalat

20
6 Mohan purchases a mixer – grinder fro M/s. Makil and Bros. The grinder
malfunctions within the warranty period. Both the manufacturer and the seller fail
to rectify the problem and dispute ensues. The dispute may best be resolved
through
a. Mediation
b. Conciliation
c. Arbitration
d. Negotiation

7 In what method of Alternative Dispute Resolution, the third party facilitates

discussion but does not enter the arena of dispute either as a judge or a conciliator?
a. Conciliation
b. Mediation
c. Arbitration
d. Negotiation

8 Assertion(A): In an adversarial system, the parties in a legal proceeding develop

their own theory of the case and gather evidence to support their claims.
Reason(R): In an Adversarial system, cross-examination is an effective way to test
the credibility of the witnesses presented.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is correct but R is incorrect
d. A is incorrect but R is correct

9 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 ushered the era of ''tribunalisation of Indian Judiciary
and the enactment of Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 empowered the justice
system of India.
a. How did the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 usher the era of ''tribunalisation of
Indian Judiciary?
b. Name the two tribunals that were formed under the Administrative tribunals Act,
1985?
c. State the procedural benefits of a tribunal.
d. ''Tribunals are not meant to replace the courts'''. How has the Supreme Court
explained this fact in L Chandra Kumar Case?

10 Sandeep and Sarika were involved in a business transaction where a dispute arose
and the same was referred to arbitration. The award given by the arbitrator was in
the form of a wager. Identify the ground on which the award can be set aside.
a. Bias of arbitrator
b. Dispute outside the scope of arbitration agreement
c. Award violates public policy
d. Improper appointment of arbitrator

11 Define a 'LokAdalat'? Which method of adjudication is followed by the LokAdalat?

Why should the concept of lokadalats be promoted? State any two values that it
fosters in judicial system.

21
12 How has the adversarial system followed by India made access to justice difficult?

13 Evaluate the role of ADR techniques and institutions help in promoting lawyers as
social engineers.

14 Salil and Gunjan had a matrimonial dispute for which they approached litigation as
the mode of dispute resolution. However, the procedure turned out to be very
lengthy and the hearing dates were far apart from each other. Many a times,
lawyers representing the parties charged their fees without fruitful results.
In light of the above situation, state the benefits of alternative dispute resolution
over traditional litigation.

15 Gaurav opened an account with Sapna Bank. One day, while operating the ATM, his
card did not function. However, the money was deducted from his account. To add
to this agony, he discovered that his passbook showed multiple deductions for
service charges also. He approached the Bank but the Bank refused to address his
problem.
a. Idenfity the agency he can approach for the redressal of his grievance.
b. State its functions.
c. Provide the advantage and disadvantages of this body.

16 A statutory body was created consisting of an eminent judicial member of

impeccable integrity as its chairman and 8 other members, out of which 4 were
judicial members.
Identify the body and state its scope.

17 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 ushered the era of ''tribunalisation of Indian

Judiciary and the enactment of Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 empowered
the justice system of India”. Explain

18 How can mediation be entered into? Identify and explain the type of mediation
being discussed here;
a. The type of mediation that is focused on providing the parties with an evaluation
of their case and directing them toward settlement.
b. The mediators that act as guardian of the process, not the content or the
outcome.
c. The mediation practice that is focused on supporting empowerment and
recognition shifts, by allowing and encouraging deliberation, decisionmaking and
perspective-taking.

19 Identify and explain which Alternative Dispute Resolution is followed in the given
situation.
Mr. Sharma and Mr. Narayan are neighbours and residing in ‘ United Heights’
Apartments. A dispute arose between them regarding the right of way (type of
easement that allows a person tp pass through another’s land). They mutually
appointed Mr.Iyyer( Society Secretary), as a neutral third party to resolve their

22
 dispute. Mr.Iyyer focused on providing the parties with an evaluation of their case
and directed them towards settlement.

20 There is a dispute between an M/s Rohtash Bros an Indian Body Corporate and M/s
Garry and Fern Bros. a Canadian Body Corporate, regarding breach of contractual
terms. Both Companies appointed an institution for initiating the process required
for settlement of their dispute. Arbitration proceedings were conducted in Canada
and the award was enforced in India.
Identify and explain any two types of Arbitration mentioned in the above situation.

23
 WORKSHEET 7 HUMAN RIGHTS IN INDIA

1 Which among the following can be a reasonable restriction?

a) Restrictions on the sale of a book because of protests
b) Not allowing use of loudspeakers for religious purposes
c) Restriction on sacrifice of animals for religious purpose
d) State recognized or State aided educational institutions cannot force any
student to take part in any religious instruction

2 Article 24 prohibits employment of children below the age of ----------- years in

factories, mining, and other hazardous employment.
a) Eleven
b) Twelve
c) Thirteen
d) Fourteen

3 Mr. Smith, a foreign national visited India and was arrested on the suspicion of
smuggling gold. He did not have the means to engage a lawyer and was thus
unable to present his case. Identify the fundamental right of Mr. Smith
violated in the above situation:
a. Article 14 – Right to equality
b. Article 19 – Right to freedom
c. Article 21 – Right to life and personal liberty
d. Article 24 – Right against exploitation

4 Jatin, a resident of Sompur was visiting the neighbouring city of Malikgarh,

where he was prevented from entering a public park by the local authority as
he did not belong to Malikgarh. Which fundamental right of Jatin has been
violated?
a. Article 14
b. Article 15
c. Article 17
d. Article 32

5 Richard, a citizen of an enemy country was detained by the local police

without providing grounds of arrest. Can Richard question the action of police
authority?
a. Yes, he was not given ground for his arrest under Section 22 of the Indian
Constitution
b. Yes, he is a foreign national and will not be subject to Indian laws
c. No, safeguard for arrest and detention under Article 22 do not apply to a

24
 national from an enemy country
d. No because police authorities can arrest and detain on suspicion

6 This article is most fundamental; it is expansive and covers many other rights
and is applicable to both the citizens as well as non-citizens”
A. Identify the article:
a. Article 21
b. Article 12
c. Article 14
d. Article 15

B. Right to life includes:

a. Right to dignity
b. Right to freedom of religion
c. Right to vote
d. Right to stand in elections

C. A person can be deprived of his right to life and personal liberty:

a. By the state in an absolute manner
b. By the Courts without any reason
c. only by procedure established by law
d. This right cannot be taken away

D. Which of the following is not true with respect to death penalty:

a. death penalty is awarded only in rarest of rarest cases, and
b. there should not be delay in executing the prisoner waiting in death row.
c.Indian Penal Code allows for appeal where the wait period is longer than five
years.
d. Death penalty is not allowed in India

7 Assertion (A): The provisions made to raise level of nutrition and standard of
living and to improve public health are part of Directive Principles.
Reason (R): Yes, as Directive Principles can be executed and implemented as
they are part of enforceable laws.
a. R is correct but A is incorrect
b. A is correct but R is incorrect
c. Both A and R are correct
d. Both A and R are incorrect
8 Assertion (A): International law addresses the provision for free legal services
from the perspective of Human Rights.
Reason (R): India has ratified the International Covenant on Civil and Political
Rights (ICCPR) and is bound to provide free legal assistance.
Analyse the statements marked A and R and select the most appropriate
response.
a. Both A and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true, but R is false

25
 d. A is false, R is true.
9 The second part of Article 21 describes that one's right to life and personal
liberty can be taken away only by
a. the Supreme Court of India
b. a procedure that is fair and reasonable
c. the State
d. law, when it violate any other Fundamental Rights.

10 Match the following:

COLUMN I COLUMN II

A. Articles 14-18 i. Right to Freedom

B. Artcles 19-22 ii. Cultural and Educational

Rights

C. Articles 23-24 iii. Right to Equality

D. Articles 25-28 iv. Right against Exploitation

E Airticles 29-30 Right to Freedom of Religion

a. A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv), E(v)

b. A(iv), B(i), C(ii), D (v), E(iii)
c. A(iii), B(i), C(iv), D(v), E(ii)
d. A(ii), B(iii), C(v), D(i), E(iv)

11 In context with provisions of the death penalty as stated in the Indian Penal
Code, explain how it justifies the application of ‘procedure established by law’
as stated in Article 21 of the constitution.

12 Justify the contradiction between Article 14 and Article 16.

13 “This article is most fundamental, it is expansive and cover many other rights
and is applicable to both the citizens as well as non- citizens ". Evaluate the
above statement by identifying the article described.

14 A. State the ‘Principle of Equality’ as given under the Article 14 of the

Constitution. Which of the following abides by this principle and how? i. The
Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006 prescribes the marriage age of girl as 18
years and that of boy as 21 years. ii. The marriage between two parties can be
disallowed based on the 4 5 A 5 classification of religion, race, caste, sex or
place of birth. B. How do the provisions of Article15, 16 and 17 attempt to
maintain the spirit of equality in the country?

26
15 Saahi, a resident of Candia, fearing persecution on the grounds of nationality,
seeks asylum from a neighboring country, and is unwilling to return to Candia.
What is the status of Saahi in International Law?
Identify the International convention which provides legal safeguards to Saahi
in this context.
16 Ajit was suspected of being involved in child abduction and merely on this
suspicion was assaulted by the inhabitants of his village. A detailed report
came in the newspaper highlighting the inaction of state agencies in protecting
Ajit and his basic non derogable rights.
Name the specialized body which can take action against the state agency.
Give its functions and powers.

17 What are Directive Principles of State Policy? State its main features and give
one instance where a DPSP was raised to the status of Fundamental Right.

18 Examine the following situations and explain whether an action for violation of
fundamental rights would be justified.
a. A textile mill employed a boy aged 12 years. A case was filed against the
textile mill by an NGO.
b. Amar and his friends prevented the college union leader Sahil from giving a
speech because they considered it provocative for others to commit violence.
Sahil sued Amar and his friends for violation of his Fundamental Right.

19 State the procedure to lodge a complaint with the National Human Rights
Commission.

20 Write any four powers of the National Commission for Women, which are
similar to that of a civil court.

27
 WORKSHEET 8 LEGAL PROFESSION IN INDIA

1 Vishal, a lawyer appearing in the Supreme Court argues cases in court upon
instructions from another advocate. He wears gown that has flaps on the shoulders
and cannot file a vakalatnama. Which category of lawyers does Vishal belong to? a.
Senior Advocate b. Advocate on Record c. Solicitor d. Attorney General

2 Simran is 22 years old and has completed her LLB degree from a recognized Indian
University. She wants to obtain a license to start her practice. Identify the additional
requirement she needs to fulfill.
a. She must have an LLM degree
b. She must get herself registered with BCI.
c. She must have completed her internship under a senior advocate.
d. She must clear All India Bar Exam.

3 The driver of a bus owned by State Road Transport Authority asked Rajni, a
passenger to deboard the bus in a deserted place where no other means of
transport was available. She alleged that her Fundamental Right was violated by the
driver's conduct. Can action be taken against the State Road Transport Authority?
a. Yes, because Rajni was dropped at a deserted place.
b. Yes, because State Road transport Authority is state according to Article 12.
c. Yes, Fundamental Rights can be enforced against private entities.
d. Yes, because she was not given a fair hearing.

4 With respect to an Advocate on Record, point the odd one out:

a. Has to be enrolled with the Bar Council of India for atleast 5 years.
b. Completed 1 year training with an AOR of not less than 5 year standing.
c. Must have office in Delhi within 16 kms from the Supreme Court.
d. Wear gowns that have flaps on the shoulder.

5 Dinesh Kumar, a practicing advocate engaged in the following activities as part of his
professional duties:
a. Accepted the brief from his client.
b. Asked for the contingency fee from the client.
c. Met the opposite party directly.
d. Maintained client confidentiality.
Which of the above activities amounts to breach of professional duties by the
advocate?
A. Only 2
b. Both 1 and 2.

28
 c. Both 2 and 3
d. Only 3

6 Ravin, a Non law graduate wants to become a Solicitor in the UK. He necessarily
needs to pursue:
a. Graduate Diploma in Law
b. Legal Practise Course
c. LL.B.
d. Bar Vocational Course

7 In response to a PIL filed by AK Balaji, the Madras High Court allowed the foreign
lawyers to practice in India and held that :
a. Foreign lawyers are not allowed to practice in India
b. Foreign lawyers are allowed to practice in India by setting up offices
c. Foreign lawyers are not allowed to set up liason offices in India
d. Foreign lawyers can practice in India on a fly in, fly out basis

8 Rohan is a citizen of India and a resident of Mumbai. He is qualified Legal

Practitioner and practicing Law since 1992, in the Bombay High Court; where he
only prepares the case but do not argue in the court. He belongs to a separate class
of legal practitioners, known as:
a. Barristers
b. Attorneys
c. Advocates
d. Solicitors

9 Meena is a young law graduate, aspiring to practise as an advocate in a court of law

in India. Which of the following is a good way to achieve it?
a. Clear All India Bar Examination
b. Being attached with research centres of law firms.
c. Clear the Judicial Services Exam
d. Clear the Common Law Admission Test.

10 The State Bar Council is constituted with 15 advocates elected for a term of five
years. Who will be the chairman of this Council?
a. President, All India Bar Council
b. Attorney General of India
c. Advocate General of State
d. Law Minister of the State.

11 Monali has set up a legal firm in partnership with Pranoy. They have engaged
Creative Web Designers to create a web page for their firm.
a.Enlist the information that can be put up by them on the internet.
b.Whose permission is to be taken by Monali and Pranoy for publishing any
information in public domain?

12 Neha and Rani are good friends and have also completed a degree in law. As fresh

29
 graduates, Neha is keen to contribute in policy making and Rani wants to specialise
in commercial and economic laws. Mention the fields that they can specialise in.

13 Describe any six options and opportunities open to law graduates in India

14 Consider the following situations and answer the questions that follow:
a. In India, a Law Firm mentions on their website, their areas of expertise.
b. In India, a Law Firm promotes itself by putting up billboards across the city and
distributing flyers at the traffic signals.
c. Which of the abovementioned situations does not violate the guidelines given by
BCI regarding advertisement by Lawyers? Give reasons for your answer.
d. State the guidelines provided by Bar Council of India regarding advertisements.

15 When can a senior advocate be appointed under the NALSA regulation?

16 What are the rules on advertising by lawyers in India?

17 The Bar Council of India maintains high ethical and moral standards for the
advocates. On this line it forbids the advocates from advertising, but allows them to
furnish certain information about them over internet.
a. How does it regulate high ethical standards for advocates?
b. What all information can be given by an advocate?
c. What is the prerequisite to be complied by the advocate for publishing such
information?

18 Explain the main provisions of “The Advocates Act, 1961” in reference to the
following points:
i.Catagories of practitioners
ii. Eligibility criterion for enrolment as an advocate.

19 India is expected to liberalise the legal sector under the General Agreement on
Trade andServices (GATS) and other free trade agreements. In light of this, evaluate
the judgement ofBombay and Madras High Courts.

20 Describe the Advocates’ Act, 1961, and explain how it revolutionized legal
profession in India.

30
 WORKSHEET 9 LEGAL SERVICES

1 Article 39A of the Constitution - inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 provided
for
a. Free Legal Aid
b. Dispute resolution through Administrative Tribunal
c. Permanent lokadalats for disputes regarding Public Utility Services
d. Establishment of National Legal Services Authority.

2 Bipin approached Permanent LokAdalat for resolution of his dispute with the Electricity
Board on the issue of inflated electricity bill. Permanent LokAdalat are set up under –
a. Legal Services Authorities (Amendment) Act 2002
b. Legal Services Authorities Act 1987
c. Article 39A of Constitution of India.
d. Article 14 of Constitution of India

3 The panel lawyer selected under NALSA Regulations is –

a. Allowed to charge fees from client
b. Not allowed any remuneration
c. Given remuneration from the consolidated fund of India
d. Barred from taking any fees from the client

4 Given below are the different stages in the development of the legal aid movement in
India. Arrange them chronologically.
1. Article 39A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Committee on National Implementation of Legal Aid was constituted with Justice
Bhagwati as its head.
3. The Union Government initiated the national legal aid scheme which faced financial
shortages and died a natural death. 1 5
4. The Union Government constituted a committee under the chairmanship of Justice
Krishna Iyer to develop a legal aid scheme for states.

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 3, 2, 4
c. 3, 4, 1, 2
d. 4, 3, 2, 1

5 Whose services can be availed for by the Chairman of the legal services institution in
cases of great public importance and where serious threats to life and liberty of the
applicant exists? a. Advocate-on-Record
b. Solicitor General

31
 c. Senior Advocate
d. Retired Judge

6 Rawl’s first principle of justice states that

a. each person should have an equal right to the system of equal basic liberties.
b. the provision of legal aid should help those who are socially and economically
backward.
c. if the creditor took his poor debtor’s cloak in pledge , he must return it by nightfall.
d. everyone has the right to be born as free, to work off his debt and no incest.

7 Raghav was empanelled in the year 2020 under The Delhi Legal Services Authorities Act
as an expert for matrimonial cases.
In which year will he have to reapply for being a panelist in the reconstituted panel?
a. 2021
b. 2023
c. 2025
d. 2026
8 Assertion (A): Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was amended in 2002
Reason (R): The Parliament of India realized that litigation oriented legal services
cannot bring out desired result of making judicial system accessible to all.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.
9 Read the given situations and decide which of the following is eligible to receive free legal aid a.
Raghu in a property dispute with his brother
b. Pankaj working as accounts officer in Government sector undertaking having service related
issues
c. Mr. Seth a senior citizen fighting for his pension
d. Mrs.Verma, branch manager of a bank accused of money laundering

10
11 Mr.Mahavir is physically and mentally harassed by his son and daughter in law and
wishes to file a case against them under the Indian Penal Code. He is a senior citizen
and runs a small tea stall for his survival. He approaches Delhi district legal services
authority for help.
a. What kind of help can be provided by the Delhi district legal services authority?
b. Will Delhi district legal services authority be able to help Mr.Mahavir? Give reason
for your answer.

12 “These bodies were established by the Legal Services Authorities (Amendment) Act,
2002, for settling disputes concerning public utility services at pre litigation stage”
a. Identify the institution being talked about in the above lines.
b. Enlist any four services covered under Public Utility Services?

13 Legal aid is essential for human rights to become meaningful. Elaborate

14 "In order for citizens to have faith in their court system, all people must have access to
the courts when necessary". Considering the above statement, answer the following

32
 questions:
a. Trace the history of legal aid in India as initiated by the Government of India.
b. Explain the provisions stated in the Indian Legal system for providing legal aid.
c. State the two values communicated by the concept of free legal aid.

15 Comment upon the evolution of legal aid in Criminal Law in India with relevant case
laws.

16 “Prevention is better than cure.” Substantiate the given statement with reference to
pre-litigation legal services.

17 Read the given situations and decide which of the following is eligible to receive free
legal aid
a. Raghu in a property dispute with his brother
b. Pankaj working as accounts officer in Government sector undertaking having service
related issues
c. Mr. Seth a senior citizen fighting for his pension d. Mrs.Verma, branch manager of a
bank accused of money laundering

18 Explain the features of NALSA Regulations, 2010

19 State salient features of LokAdalat and Permanent LokAdalat.

20 What changes did the Legal Services Authorities (Amendment) Act, 2012 bring in the
existing Legal Services Act, 1987?

33
 WORKSHEET 10 INTERNATIONAL CONTEXT

1 Identify the International Organisation that is performing the following functions.

“By promoting culture, preserving the heritage, sharing knowledge and
understanding that are beneficial for the whole of mankind, it aims to aid
sustainable development and foster greater cooperation between nations”.
a. International Labour Organisation
b. World Health Organisation
c. International Monetary Fund
d. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.

2 International law is based on consent-based governance as states are not obliged

to abide by it, unless they expressly consent to a particular course of conduct.
What is the exception to the above rule of consent requirement?
a. Ergaomnes
b. Jus cogens
c. Stare decisis
d. Treaties

3 Four nations, India, USA, United Kingdom and France enter into an international
trade treaty. The Indian delegation provisionally consented to the treaty as the
final consent will follow once the Indian Parliament votes in favour of the said
treaty. Which method of consent is being followed by the Indian delegation?
a. Consent by signature
b. Consent by exchange of instruments
c. Consent by ratification
d. No consent is required

4 In the given scenarios, how can international law be applied in domestic legislation
in India? State the relevant case laws.
a. India is a party to an international agreement to stop taking out oil from
particular species of trees to prevent forest fires. This restricts the right of trade of
certain villagers.
b. India is a party to international convention relating to discrimination against
women. Indian courts created legally binding obligations regarding sexual
harassment.
c. In this case the Supreme Court held that India had ratified conventions regarding
the protection of children and this placed an obligation on the State Government
to implement these principles.

5 State the aim and role of any two of the four given organisations to promote
international cooperation.
a. World Health Organisation

34
 b. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.
c. International Labour Organisation
d. World Bank and International Monetary Fund.

6 Though ………..is not a binding document, per se, it has been referred to in cases by
International Court of Justice and is an extremely important document for the
purpose of International human rights.
a. The Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action
b. The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
c. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
d. The World Health Organisation

7 Assertion (A):International Law addresses the provision for free legal services from
the perspective of Human Rights.
Reason (R): India has ratified the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
and is bound to provide free legal assistance.
Analyse the statements marked A and R and select the most appropriate response.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.

8 Roy and Annie are entrepreneurs who have a dispute with the Government of their
country over trade laws following an embargo. Identify the category of Law which
covers these kinds of disputes.
a. International Treaty Law
b. Public International Law
c. Private International Law
d. Municipal Law.

9 Assertion (A): International Labour Organisation (ILO) was set up post the First
World War in 1919.
Reason (R): International Labour Organisation (ILO) aims to provide loans to
member states for their economic development.
Analyse the statements marked (A) and ( R ) and select
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true , but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

10 Under which Article of the UN Charter are all members of the UN party to the
Statute of the ICJ?
a. Article 92
b. Article 91
c. Article 90
d. Article 93
11 What majority is required to ‘adopt’ the final text in an international conference?

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 a. Full
b. Half
c. Two-thirds
d. One-thirds.

12 Explain the provisions of the most authoritative source of the international law?

i13 Why was the the post of ‘UN High Commissioner for Human Rights’ created by The
Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action (1993)?

14 Why are customs, a disputed source of international law?

15 A grave human rights violation took place in Elpesia by a national of Serenia. The
accused was hiding in a neighbouring country of Serenia which took action against
the accused. Can the above action be justified on the ground of Ergaomnes
obligation?

16 State the relevance of the following institutions:

a. UNESCO.
B. World Bank and IMF

17 What course of action is adopted in case of a conflict between the International

law and domestic law? Explain with reference to the practices followed in India, UK
and USA.

18 'Each country has their own method of dealing with the application of International
Law to its jurisdiction.' Can International law be directly applied in the domestic
jurisdiction? Explain, giving the current position in India as developed by
Constitutional provisions and case law.

19 Under the international treaty, to which India was a signatory, a species of fish was
declared as endangered and restrictions were put on the right to trade of that
species by prohibiting the killing of the fish. How can this treaty be enforced in
India? Explain in the light of constitutional provisions and decided cases.

20 A convention was held to discuss ways by which global warming can be curbed by
the concerted efforts of all participating countries.Answer the following questions:
a. Define treaty.
B. State any two essentials of a treaty.
C. Explain the various ways in which a Country can be bound by the clauses of the
above convention.

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 PROJECT GUIDELINES

INTRODUCTION
The student is required to do a project on ‘Understanding Case Laws’
OBJECTIVES

The project work aims to enable students to:

Identify a legal problem and provide its remedy

Select relevant legal sources and conduct research

Analyse and distinguish between types of cases

Apply case laws and relevant statutory laws

METHODOLOGY

1. The student is required to select any 3 decided cases related to the curriculum where one
must be civil in nature, one criminal and one constitutional in character.

2. The research on the cases must include the following points:

a) Name of the case
b) Parties to the case
c) Citation
d) Bench

e) Nature of the case (Civil, Criminal or Constitutional)

f) Facts of the case and issues involved
g) Arguments of the parties
h) Decision of the case

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RUBRICS

S. NO Parameters of Assessment Marks

1 Preparation and presentation of file 5 marks
2 Research work 5 marks
3 Application and understanding of legal concept 5 marks
4 Viva 5 marks

*****The draft submission of the project before August 2ndweek.

***** The final submission of the project before January 1st week.

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