Tests 1

State Establishment “Dnipropetrovsk medical academy
MH of Ukraine”
Department: Propaedeutics of childhood diseases
Ratified on the department’s meeting

Head of the department
Professor Ilchenko S.I.
Date: 31.08.2020 Protocol № 1
The test base on “Anatomic and physiological

fetures, methods of examination of the child
and semiotics of childchood diseases”
Discipline: Propaedeutics of Pediatrics
Faculty: Іnternational
Year: 3 Semester: V Speciality: General medicine
Curator of the
theme: ass. professor Yaroshevska T.V.
Dnepro-2020
Contents
Section I
3
Theme. Periods of child's age
Section II
8
Theme. Features of neonatal period
Section III
Theme. Physical development of children and anthropometry
13
Theme. Estimation of physical development of children
Section IV
Theme. Psychomotor development of children.
19
Theme. Estimation of psychomotor development of children
Section V
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features, method of examinatin and
23
semiotics of diseases of the nervous system in children
Section VI
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features, method of examination and
27
semiotics of skin, subcutaneous fat in children
Section VII
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features, method of examination and
32
semiotics of skeletal and muscular system in children
Section VIII
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features of respiratory system in children
Theme. Method of examination of respiratory system in children
37
Theme. Semiotics of respiratory diseases in children
Section IХ
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features of cardiovascular system in children
Theme. Method of examination of cardiovascular system in children
48
Theme. Semiotics of affection of cardiovascular system in children
Section Х
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features of the digestive system in children,
method of examination
Theme. Semiotics of affection of the digestive system 55
Section XI
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features of the urinary system in children,
62
method of examination. Semiotics of violation of the urinary system
Section XII
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features of the endocrine system, method of
68
examination, semiotics of affection
Section XIII
Theme. Anatomo-physiological features, method of examination and
72
semiotics of affection of system of blood and immune system in children
2
Section I
Theme. Periods of child's age
1. Perinatal period includes the following periods, except for:

1. late antenatal period
2. intranatal period
3. early neonatal period
4. late neonatal period
2. The following signs speak about biological maturity of children of school age,
except for:
1. terms and order of dentition
2. development of secondary sexual characters
3. presence of age zones of ossification
4. degree of development of hypodermic fat
5. accordance of physical development to age of the child
3 It is known the following types of anamnesis, except for:
1. genealogical
2. biological
3. sociological
4. allergic
5. immunological
4. The terms of estimation of the general condition of the child are the following,
except for:
1. satisfactory condition
2. average condition
3. light condition
4. grave condition
5. extremely grave condition
5. Infancy period proceeds:
1. from 1 month to 10 months
2. from 1 month to 1 year
3. from 2 months to 1 year
4. from 1 month to 9 months
5. to 3-years-old age
6. The fetal period of intrauterine development proceeds:
1. from 2 months to birth
7. In what age does the infancy period finish?
1. in 6 months
2. in 8 months
3. in 10 months
4. in 12 months
5. in 18 months
8. What age of child answers the pre-preschool (toddler) period?
1. 6-12 months
2. 1-3 years
3. 4-5 years
4. 5-6 years
3
5. 7-12 years
9. What age is the preschool period limited by?
1. 4-6 years
2. 4-5 years
3. 5-6 years
4. 1-3 years
5. 2-6 years
10. What age is the junior school period limited by?
1. 6-8 years
2. 7-10 years
3. 6-9 years
4. 6-11 years
5. 8-12 years
11. What age is the senior school period limited by?
1. 10-15 years
2. 10-16 years
3. 12-18 years
4. 11-16 years
5. 9-14 years
12. The intrauterine stage of development lasts:
1. 270 - 280 days
2. 250 - 270 days
3. 270 -290 days
4. 260-270 days
5. 240-260 days
13. The perynatal period includes the next terms:
1. from the birth to 7 days
2. from 28th week of intrauterine development to 7 days of life
3. from the moment of cutting of umbilical cord of to 7 days of life
4. from 8 to 28 days
5. from 23rd week of intrauterine development to 14 days of life
14. Term of the early neonatal period is:
1. from birth of to 7th day
2. from 28th week of intrauterine development of to 7 days
3. from the moment of cutting of umbilical cord of to 7 days
4. from 8th to 28th days
5. 14 days after birth
15. Term of the late neonatal period is:
1. from birth of to 7th days
2. from 28th week of intrauterine development to 7 days
3. from the moment of cutting of umbilical cord of to 7 days
16. What duration of phase of the embryonic development of child?
1. from 2nd weeks from the conception
2. to 1 month from the conception
3. to 1,5 months from the conception
4. 2-3 months from the conception
5. to 3-4 months from the conception
17. What periods of child's age are united in one perynatal?
4
1. germynal, embryonic, fetal
2. embryonic, neofetal, early fetal
3. neofetal, early and late fetal
4. early and late fetal, intranatal
5. late fetal, intranatal, early neonatal
18. What duration of period of the fetal development?
1. from 10 to 40 week
19. By what pathologies is embryopathy characterized?
1. dysplasia
2. hypoplasia
3. defect of development
4. sclerosis
5. inflammation
20. By what pathologies is early fetopathy characterized?
1. anomaly of development
2. anomalies of location
3. agenesia
4. dysplasia
5. aplasia
21. What period of child's age is synthesis of surfactant characterized?
1. embryonic
2. embryofetal
3. germinal
4. early fetal
5. late fetal
22. What period of child's age does proceed during 5-6 weeks?
1. germynal
2. embryonic
3. embryofetal
4. early fetal
5. late fetal
23. Determine the terms of early fetal period:
1. from 26 to 40 weeks
24. Determine the terms of late fetal period:
25. What duration of period of implantation?
1. 40 hours
2. 12 hours
3. 24 hours
5
4. 36 hours
5. 48 hours
26. Germynal period, from the moment of the conception to the implantation, lasts
approximately:
1. 2 weeks
2. 3 weeks
3. 4 weeks
4. 1 week
5. 5 weeks
27. Which period of intrauterine development is characterized by the processes of
deposition of nutrients, high degree of maturity of function of essential organs,
accumulation of immunoglobulin, synthesis of surfactant?
1. early fetal
2. embryofetal
3. embryonic
4. late fetal
5. germynal
28. What period of intrauterine development is characterized by forming of early
fetopathy?
3. from 3 to 7 week
4. from 7 to 9 week
29. What period of child's age is the period of the first physiological extension
(mainly linear growth)?
1. neonatal
2. infancy
3. toddler
4. preschool
5. senior school
30. What period of child's age is the period of the second physiological extension
(mainly linear growth)?
1. neonatal
2. infancy
3. toddler
4. preschool
5. senior school
31. What period of child's age do the transitory states happen in?
1. neonatal
2. infancy
3. pre-preschool
4. preschool
5. junior school
32. In what period of child's age does the permanent dentition begin?
1. infancy
2. preschool
3. toddler
4. junior school
5. senior school
6
33. In what period of child's age does the milk dentition finish?
1. toddler
2. infancy
3. preschool
4. school
5. neonatal
34. In what period of childhood does loss of passive immunity happen?
1. neonatal
2. breast
3. preschool
4. school
5. toddler
35. In what period of child's age does the intensive forming of lymphatic tissue of
pharynx (tonsils, adenoids) occur?
1. breast
2. neonatal
3. toddler
4. preschool
5. school
36. In what period of child's age there is the most intensive physical and nervno-
psychical development?
1. preschool
2. school
3. breast
4. neonatal
5. pre-preschool
37. What sources of collection of anamnesis of disease in new-born child?
1. parents
2. relatives or person who nurses the child
3. medical personnel
4. medical documents of new-born
5. all of above
38. During first 3-4 months child has immunity to the separate infections (measles,
diphtheria, and chicken-pox). What immunity we speak about?
1. active cellular immunity
2. active humoral immunity
3. passive humoral immunity
4. passive cellular immunity
5. all of above
39. The child is urgently admitted to the hospital without parents and medical
documents. How can a doctor most exactly define age of the child?
1. on mass of body
2. on length of body
3. on number of teeth
4. on quantity of words in the child’s dictionary
5. on motor skills
40. A doctor-pediatrician first time collects anamnesis in healthy new-born child.
What type of anamnesis he should not to collect?
1. anamnesis of life
2. anamnesis of disease
7
3. food anamnesis
4. genealogical anamnesis
5. epidemiological anamnesis
41. Sequence of collection of anamnesis:
1. complaints, anamnesis of life, anamnesis of disease
2. anamnesis of life, anamnesis of disease, complaints
3. complaints, anamnesis of disease, anamnesis of life
4. anamnesis of disease, complaints, anamnesis of life
5. anamnesis of life, complaints, anamnesis of disease
42. Genealogical anamnesis includes such questions:
1. hereditary diseases
2. harmful habits
3. Mantoux (tuberculin) test
4. frequency and duration of diseases
5. socio-economic condition
43. The next sings are necessary at examination for assessing the general condition
of patient, except for:
1. position in a bed
2. consciousness
3. motor activity
4. feeling
5. anthropometric parameters
Section II
Theme. Features of neonatal period
1. Criteria of maturity of new-born:

1. mass of body 2500 g and more
2. gestation age 38-40 weeks
3. length of body of 45 сm and more
4. circumference of the head 34-36 сm
5. all of above
2. Criteria of morphological immaturity of new-born:
1. low mass of body
2. insufficient development of hypodermic fat
3. abundant lanugo
4. changed proportions of body
5. all of above
3. Basic criterion of premature new-born:
1. mass of body 500 - 2500 g
2. term of gestation from 22 to 38 weeks
3. morphological immaturity
4. functional immaturity
5. length of body 35 - 45 cm
4. The transitional condition of digestive system in new-born is:
1. enteritis
2. intestinal dysbacteriosis
3. gastritis
4. colitis
5. gastroenterocolitis
5. The transitional condition of skin in new-born is:
8
1. simple erythema
2. toxic erythema
3. milia
4. peeling
5. all of above
6. The criterion of prematurity I degree is gestation age:
1. 26-28 weeks
2. 29-31 weeks
3. 32-34 weeks
4. 35-37 weeks
5. 38-42 weeks
7. Mass of body of III degree premature child:
1. less than 500 g
2. from 500 to 1000 g
3. from 1000 to 1500 g
4. from 1500 to 2000 g
5. more than 2000 g
8. Prenatal hypotrophy is characterized by the following:
1. low length and mass of body
2. normal length and mass of body
3. normal mass and low body length
4. low mass of body and normal length of body
5. high length of body and normal mass
9. Projectile vomiting in new-born is the most characteristic for:
1. hypogalactia in mother
2. artificial feeding
3. pectoral feeding
4. pylorospacm
5. pylorostenosis
10. What from listed is not included in a concept "sexual crisis"?
1. hyperplasia of mammary glands
2. descvamative vulvovaginitis
3. metrorrhagia
4. brick color of urine
5. gyperpigmentation of scrotum in boys
11. For diagnostics of what state in new-born is a weight-height index used?
1. immaturity
2. prematurity
3. antenatal hypotrophy
4. postmaturity
5. edema
12. What degree of antenatal hypotrophy is in a child with the weight-height index 51,8 (mass of
body 2700 g, length of body 52 сm)?
1. 1 degree
2. 2 degree
3. 3 degree
4. absents of hypotrophy
5. paratrophy
13. How long can physiological jaundice in new-born be present?
1. one day
2. no more than three days
3. two weeks
9
4. during a month
5. more than two weeks
14. The physiological loss of mass of body of new-born child makes in average:
1. 2-3%
2. 10-15%
3. 6-10%
4. 1-2%
5. 20-25%
15. Name the basic mechanicm of violation of thermal balance in new-born:
1. immature of functional activity of digestive glands
2. increase of mother’s milk
3. increase of motor activity of the child
4. retractive termogenesis in skeletal muscles
5. activation of disintegration of brown fat
16. The general amount of brown fat in new-born child:
1. 20% from mass of body
2. 15%
3. 2-6%
4. 10%
5. 25%
17. Where is brown fat in new-born child localized?
1. subcutaneously
2. interscapular space
3. around adrenal glands
4. around large vessels
5. all of above
18. Characteristic sings of the deep premature child?
1. frequent breathing
2. slow breathing
3. respiratory arrhythmia
4. breathing with convulsive inspirations
5. by the stops of breathing
19. The level of fetal hemoglobin in a blood of new-born makes:
1. 60-40%
2. 30-40%
3. 20-35%
4. 80-85%
5. 70-75%
20. Systolic arterial pressure in new-born child makes:
1. 40-50 mm Hg
2. 70-80 mm Hg
3. 80-90 mm Hg
4. 90-100 mm Hg
5. 100-110 mm Hg
21. Height-weight index in healthy new-born makes:
1. 60-70
2. 55-60
3. 50-55
4. 40-50
5. 30-40
22. Physiological transitional states of new-born are the next, except for:
1. physiological hypothermia
10
2. physiological jaundice
3. primary loss of mass of body
4. omphalitis
5. Transitional hyperthermia
23. Gestation age of the mature new-born is:
1. 34-37 weeks
2. 38-42 weeks
3. 42-44 weeks
4. 36-38 weeks
5. 25-30 weeks
24. Late fetopathy is characterized by the following pathological displays, except for:
1. prematurity
2. immaturity
3. prenatal hypotrophy
4. expressed anatomic defects
5. intrauterine infections
25. Mass of body of new-born child depends on the following factors, except for:
1. health of pregnant
2. constitutions of parents (heredity)
3. features of nutrition of pregnant
4. duration of delivery
5. multiple pregnancy in mother
26. An early neonatal period lasts:
1. from the first to the seventh day of life
2. from the first to the ninth day of life
3. to the 2nd weeks
4. to 1 month
5. the first three days
27. Immaturity and delay in differentiation of tissues is characteristic for the following stages of
intrauterine development, except for:
1. early fetal period
2. late fetal period
3. embryonic period
4. period of gestation from 12 to 32 weeks
5. placenta development period
28. Signs of maturity of new-born child are the next, except for:
1. presence of sucking and swallowing reflex
2. loud emotional cry
3. expressed physiological reflexes
4. somnolence
5. motor activity
29. Neonatal hemolytic disease is not characterized by:
1. icteritiousness of skin
2. icteritiousness of sclera
3. acholic stool
4. usual color of the urine
5. hyperbilirubinemia
30. Movements of new-born child look as:
1. chaotic
2. coordinated
3. it is practically absent
4. movement of only upper extremities are present
11
5. purposeful
31. In new-born children in norm is observed:
1. increase of lymphatic glands of neck
2. increase of lymphatic glands of mediastinum
3. hyperplasia of mammary glands
4. generalized increase of lymphatic glands
5. increase of inguinal lymphatic glands
32. The yellow color of skin appears at physiological jaundice in new-born:
1. on 7-10 day of life
2. from 9 day after birth
4. jast after birth
5. after the first feeding
33. Vernix caseosa of new-born contains all transferred, except for:
1. a lot of fat
2. cholesterol
3. a lot of glycogen
4. a lot of albumin
5. a lot of vitamins
34. Meconium appears:
1. at first 48 hours
2. after 72 hours
3. on 5 day of life
4. on 10 day of life
5. on 7 day of life
35. What from transferred is not concern to the transitional physiological state of new-born?
1. uric acid infarction of kidneys
2. hormonal crisis
3. pemphigus of new-born
4. physiological jaundice
5. physiological disbacteriosis
36. What age is the neonatal period limited by?
4. to 10 days
37. Mass of body of mature new-born in norm makes:
1. 2500 - 3500г
2. 2700 - 4000г
3. 3500 - 4000г
4. 2000 - 4000г
5. 2100 - 2900г
38. The loss of mass of body after birth is named:
1. physiological
2. pathological
3. standard
4. classic
5. temporal
39. The maximal physiological loss of mass of body in new-born is observed:
1. to 5 day of life
2. at the end of the first day of life
12
3. to 3 days
4. to 10 days
5. to 7 days
40. The maximal physiological loss of mass of body makes:
1. more than 8%
2. 6-10%
3. less than 5%
4. less than 3%
5. 1-3%
41. Restoration mass of body after the physiological loss takes place:
2. on the third day of life
3. on the 17th day of life
4. to the end of the first month of life
5. during two weeks
Section III
Theme. Physical development of children and anthropometry
Theme. Estimation of physical development of children
1. What is usual body length gain in child during the first year of life?
1. 20 cm
2. 15 cm
3. 25 cm
4. 30 cm
5. 35 cm
2. What is average monthly increase of mass of body in second half-year child?
1. 400 g
2. 500 g
3. 600 g
4. 700 g
5. 800 g
3. What ratio between the length of the body and the height of the head is in new-born?
1. 10%
2. 15%
3. 20%
4. 25%
5. 30%
4. What is average circumference of the thorax in 10 years old child?
1. 48сm
2. 53сm
3. 60сm
4. 50сm
5. 63сm
5. The second physiological drawing (height „jump”) in girls usually occurs in:
1. 5-8 years
2. 11-15 years
3. 10-12 years
4. 13-15 years
5. 1-4 years
13
6. The following methods are used for estimation of physical development of children, except
for:
1. sociological
2. somatoscopy
3. anthropometry
4. physiometry
5. somatometry
7. What percentile corridor anthropometric indexes below average belong to?
1. 75-90
2. 3-10
3. 10-25
4. 25-50
5. 90-97
8. What percentile corridor high anthropometric indexes belong to?
1. 75-90
2. 10-25
3. 25-75
4. 3-10
5. 90-97
9. Average mass of new-born girl makes (in g):
1. 2800-3000
2. 3100-3300
3. 3300-3500
4. 3500-3700
5. 3700-3900
10. What initial body mass does speak about intrauterine hypotrophy in newborn?
1. 3000
2. 2900
3. 2800
4. 2600
5. 2500
11. Average length of body of the worn new-born child is in limits (in cm):
1. 45-48
2. 48-50
3. 50-52
4. 53-54
5. 55-56
12. What formula does determine the length of body in children of the first three months of life?
1. 50+n
2. 75+n
3. 66+n
4. 50+2n
5. 50+3n
13. What formula does determine the length of body in children after 4 years?
1. 75-5n
2. 5n-20
3. 100+6(n-4)
4. 100-8(4-n)
5. 75+5n
14. The circumference of thorax in children of the first half-year of life is determined by
formula:
1. 43-n
14
2. 45+n
3. 45+2n
4. 45-2(6-n)
5. 45+0.5n
15. The circumference of thorax in children of 2 half-year of life is determined by formula:
1. 45+2n
2. 45+0,5(n-6)
3. 45+n
4. 46-n
5. 46-2n
16. What deficit of mass of body (in %) is evidence of hypotrophy of І degree?
1. 5-10
2. 10-20
3. 20-25
4. 20-30
5. more than 30
17. Obesity of the ІІ degree is diagnosed in children with excess of mass of body on:
1. 10-20%
2. 15-25%
3. 21-30%
4. 50-100%
5. 30-50%
18. What excess of mass of body can testify about paratrophy of І degree in infant?
1. 21-30%
2. 10-20%
3. 15-25%
4. 7-15%
5. 26-50%
19. Excess of the body mass in child with paratrophy of ІІ degree makes:
1. 1-10%
2. 21-30%
3. 11-20%
4. 11-30%
5. 15-25%
20. What degree of hypotrophy is there in a child with the deficit of mass of body from 21% to
30%?
1. ІІ
2. І
3. ІІІ
4. V
5. IV
21. What is average weight in 5 years old child?
1. 22 kg
2. 25 kg
3. 23 kg
4. 20 kg
5. 19 kg
22. Main factors which determine and regulate growth of fetus are:
1. the system "gypothalamus-hypophysis"
2. uterine blood stream and placenta perfusion
3. growth hormone
4. thyroid gland hormones
15
5. nutrition of mother
23. What hormones have influence on growth of child?
1. somatotropin
2. STG, hormones of thyroid gland, insulin
3. hormones of thyroid gland
4. hormones of thyroid gland, insulin
5. insulin
24. The circumferences of the thorax and of the head become equal in children of age:
1. 2 months
2. 4 months
3. 6 months
4. 6,5 months
5. 1 month
25. Specify, that does not belong to the basic parameters of physical development of new-born
depending on gestation age:
1. mass of the body
2. circumference of the head
3. size of the large fontanel
4. circumference of the thorax
5. height-weight index
26. The first period of drawing in children is observed in age:
1. 3-4 years
2. 4-5 years
3. 6-7 years
4. 7-8 years
5. 10-13 years
27. Average mass of the body in 1 year old children is:
1. 9-9,5 kg
2. 9,5-10 kg
3. 10-10,5 kg
4. 11-11,5 kg
5. 12 kg
28. Average monthly increase of the body length in the second quarter of the first year of life is:
1. 1,5 cm
2. 2 cm
3. 2,5 cm
4. 3 cm
5. 3,5 cm
29. Length of the body in 1 year old child is:
1. 72-74 cm
2. 70-72 cm
3. 75-77 cm
4. 78-80 cm
5. 90 cm
30. The changes in the structure of body of child of preschool age are characterized by the
following signs, except for:
1. lengthening of extremities
2. increase of relief of face
3. decreasing of fatty layer
4. forming of sexual specificity
5. increase of length of the body
31. What is the probable age of the child, if his mass is 10 kg, length of body is 75 cm:
16
1. 12 months
2. 1 year 2 months
3. 6 months
4. 9 months
5. 2 years
32. Circumference of the head in new-born is:
1. 34-36 cm
2. 32-34 cm
3. 38-40 cm
4. 30-32 cm
5. 36-38 cm
33. What is mass of the body and the height in 12 years old child?
1. mass 40 kg, height 150 cm
34. Circumferences of the head and of the chest in 1 year old child in cm are:
1. circumference of the head is 46-48; circumference of the chest
is 48-50
is 50-52
is 46-49
is 46-48
is 48-50
35. The weight-height index in new-born in norm is:
1. 10-20
2. 30-40
3. 35-45
4. 55-65
5. 60-80
36. A child is 5 years old: mass of body in this age?
1. 20 kg
2. 25 kg
3. 19 kg
4. 15 kg
5. 23 kg
37. A boy is 14 years. To define average length of the body in this age:
1. 150 cm
2. 175 cm
3. 166 cm
4. 140 cm
5. 148 cm
38. In the first three months of life the body lenth increases:
1. on 3 cm monthly or on 9 cm for a quarter
2. on 2,5 cm monthly or on 7,5 cm for a quarter
4. on 1,0 cm monthly or on 3 cm for a quarter
17
39. In the second quarter of life the body lenth increases:
4. on 1,0 cm monthly or on 3см for a quarter
40. In the third quarter of life the body lenth increases:
41. In the fourth quarter of the first year of life the body lenth increases:
42. Body length doubles in comparison with body length at birth in:
1. 1 year
2. 3 years
3. 4 years
4. 12 years
5. 5 years
43. Body length triples in comparison with body length at birth in:
1. 1 year
2. 3 years
3. 4 years
4. 12 years
5. 15 years
44. The physiological loss of mass of body in new-born is not exceeds of:
1. 15%
2. 10%
3. 6%
4. 8%
5. 5%
45. In what position is the length of the body measured in children yanger than 1.5 year?
1. standing
2. sitting
3. lying
4. in any position
5. it is not measured
46. In what position is the length of the body measured in age 3 months?
1. standing
2. sitting
3. lying
4. in any position
5. it is not measured
47. What formula is for the index of mass of body?
1. Body mass (kg)
Body lenth (m)
2. Body mass (kg)
18
Body lenth (m)2
3. Body mass (kg)2
Body lenth (м)
4. Body mass (kg)2
Body lenth (m)2
5. Body lenth (m)2
Body mass (kg)
Section IV
Theme. Psychomotor development of children.
Theme. Estimation of psychomotor development of children.
1. Buzz (separate sounds) appears in children in age:

1. from 1 to 2 months
5. 6 months
2. The following belonde to reflexes of oral automatism:
1. Моpо reflex
2. searching
3. grasping
4. Kerning’s
5. Babinsry’s reflex
3. A child begins to tern from the back to the abdomen:
1. from 2 months
2. from 6 months
3. from 4 months
4. from 3 months
5. from 5 months
4. Directed movements of arms appears in a child:
1. from 6 months
2. from 2 months
3. from 3 months
4. from 4 months
5. from 5 months
5. When does a child begin to sit?
1. in 10 months
2. in 6 months
3. in 7 months
4. in 8 months
5. in 5 months
6. A child begins to stand up, holding on the support:
1. from 4 months
2. from 6 months
3. from 8 months
4. from 10 months
5. from 3 months
7. Motor speech develops at a child from age:
1. 7 months
2. 8 months
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3. 10 months
4. 12 months
5. 9 months
8. A child independently walks to age:
1. 12 months
2. 15 months
3. 10 months
4. 11 months
5. 9 months
9. For estimation of neuro-psychical development the following indexes are taken into account,
except for:
1. active speech
2. understanding of speech
3. sensor development
4. motion and game
5. habits
10. To what maximal age disappears Babinsky’s reflex?
1. to 6 months
2. to 8 months
3. to 1 year
4. to 2 years
5. to 5 years
11. To define age of child, if he stands near a support, steps sideways, sits down from the lying
position:
1. 6 months
2. 8 months
3. 10 months
4. 12 months
5. 7 months
12. What indexes of neuropsychical development are characteristic for the child of 3 months
age?
1. laughs loudly
2. begins to buzz
3. there is auditory concentration
4. fixs the look on objects
5. emotional revival complex
13. At what age does babble appear in children?
1. 10 months
2. 5 months
3. 6 months
4. 2 months
5. 12 months
14. Syllable speech appears in age:
1. 10-11 months
2. to 1 year
3. 8 months
4. 6 months
5. 4 months
15. Development of speech in a child 2 year 6 months:
1. builds sentences from 3 and more words
2. uses babble and facilitated words
3. declaims short verses
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4. sings short songs
5. uses 20-30 words
16. In what age does a child crawl well?
1. to 6-7 months
2. to 7-8 months
3. to 8-9 months
4. to 9-10 months
5. to 11-12 months
17. In what age in a child is "mature" gait formed?
1. to 1 year
2. to 2 years
3. to 4-5 years
4. to 3 years
5. to 5-6 years
18. Averade age of appearance of smile:
1. 5 weeks
2. 9 weeks
3. 3 weeks
4. 10 weeks
5. 6 weeks
19. When does a child begin to hold a head in vertical position?
1. 1 month
2. 2 months
3. 3 months
4. 4 months
5. 6 months
20. Average age of beginning of turning from the back to the abdomen:
1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 5 months
4. 7 months
5. 2 months
21. Average age of beginning of the independent seating:
1. 5 months
2. 4,5 months
3. 8 months
4. 6 months
5. 10 months
22. Average age of beginning of independent crawl:
1. 4 months
2. 7 months
3. 9 months
4. 10 months
5. 5 months
23. Average age of beginning of the independent standing near support:
1. 5 months
2. 6 months
3. 11 months
4. 8 months
5. 7 months
24. How many words are there in a child’s lexicon in 1 year?
1. 30-40 words
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2. 5-8 words
3. 10-12 words
4. 15-20 words
5. 14-18 words
25. In which age does a child begin to make the simple sentences?
1. from 1 to 1,5 years
2. by the end of 2 year
3. after 2 years
4. in 3 years
5. in 4 years
26. In which age does a child begin to use composite sentences?
1. in 1,5 years
2. in 2 years
3. in 2,5 years
4. in 3 years
5. in 5 years
27. A child begins to get dressed independently:
1. in 2 years
2. 2 of months in about 6
3. in 3 years
4. in 1 year 6 months
5. in 3,5 years
28. 43. In which age does a child begin to get up near support independently?
1. in 4 months
2. in 6 months
3. in 8 months
4. in 10 months
5. in 12 months
29. What age does «babble» begin in a child?
1. 4 month
2. 6 month
3. 8 month
4. 10 month
5. 12 month
30. A child cries loudly, sleeps about 22 hours in days, adopts an embryonic pose, has well
expressed innate unconditioned reflexes: support, crawl, automatic walking, grasping, Moro,
Galant, Peres. What is the age of the child?
1. 1 months
2. 2 months
3. new-born child
4. 1,5 months
5. 3 months
31. A child distinguishes relatives and strangers, strict and tender intonations well. Takes a toy
from the hands of adult and keeps it fast. Child during long time lies on abdomen, supporting on
the palm of the straightened arms. He can tern from the back to the abdomen and stand with
support under arm-pits. What is the age of the child?
1. 3 months
2. 4 months
3. 5 months
4. 6 months
5. 7 months
22
32. A child pronounces separate syllables, knows his name, shifts toys from hand to hand, turns
from abdomen to back, sits independently. What is the age of the child?
1. 4 months
2. 5 months
3. 6 months
4. 7 months
5. 8 months
33. A child watches after a falling object, searches the toys hidden under a napkin. On a question
“where?” finds the acquainted objects in eyeshot, gives a hand, gets from one object to other,
holding on by hand. What is the age of the child?
1. 5 months
2. 6 month
3. 7 months
4. 8 months
5. 9 months
34. A child walks independently without support, understands prohibition, speaks 8-10 words,
independently drinks from a cup (takes, puts on a table). What is the age of the child?
1. 8 months
2. 9 months
3. 10 months
4. 11 months
5. 12 months
Section V
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features, method of examinatin and semiotics of diseases of
the nervous system in children.
1. Which reflex does not disappear to the end of the first year of life?
1. grasping
2. Kernig’s
3. lip
4. Babinski’s
5. palm-mouth
2. Myelinization of nervous fibres in a postnatal period is closed to:
1. 6 months
2. 1 year
3. 2 years
4. 3-5 years
5. 7-10 years
3. Which reflex belonges to the group of mesencephalic?
1. labyrinthin tonic reflex
2. Babkin’s reflex
3. Babinski’s reflex
4. reflex of support
5. Moro’s reflex
4. What age does searching reflex disappear?
1. 4 months
2. 6 months
3. the end of 1 year of life
4. 8 months
5. 18 months
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5. What age does sucking reflex disappear?
1. 2 - 3 months of life
2. to the end of 1 year of life
3. 5 - 6 months
4. 8 months
5. 18 months
6. What age does crawling reflex disappear?
1. to 7 months
2. to 4 months
3. to 6 months
4. to 8 months
5. to 12 months
7. What age does grasping reflex disappear?
1. to 1 month
2. to 4 months
3. to 6 months
4. to 8 months
5. to 12 months
8. What age does Moro’s reflex disappear?
1. to 2 months
2. to 4 months
3. to 6 months
4. to 8 months
5. to 12 months
9. What age does the Kernig’s reflex disappear?
1. to 2 months
2. to 6 months
3. to 8 months
4. to 10 months
5. to 12 months
10. What age does supporting reflex disappear?
1. to 7 months
2. to 2 months
3. to 6 months
4. to 8 months
5. to 12 months
11. What age does reflex of automatic step disappear?
1. to 6 months
2. to 2 months
3. to 10 months
4. to 8 months
5. to 12 months
12. What age does Galant’s reflex disappear?
1. to 10 months
2. to 4 months
3. to 2 months
4. to 8 months
5. to 12 months
13. What age does Peres’ reflex disappear?
1. to 6 months
2. to 4 months
3. to 2 months
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4. to 8 months
5. to 12 months
14. For peripheral paralyses is characteristic:
1. appearance of pathological reflexes
2. increase of tendon reflexes
3. increase of muscle tone
4. decrease of muscle tone and weakening of tendon reflexes
5. increase of tendon reflexes and hypertone of muscle
15. For central paralyses is characteristic:
1. increase of tendon reflexes, hypertone of muscle
2. absence of muscle tone
3. decline of muscle tone
4. atrophy of muscles
5. decrease of tendon reflexes
16. The syndrome of spasmophylia is characterized by:
1. Babinski’s symptom
2. Trousseau’s symptom
3. Brudzinski’s symptom
4. Kernig’s symptom
5. symptom of rigid neck
17. Mass of brain in relation to mass of body in new-born makes:
1. 2,5%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4. 15%
5. 20%
18. The features of liquor in new-born are:
1. increased level of protein, insignificant lymphocytic citosis
2. negative reaction of Pandy, presence erythrocites
3. xanthochromia, absence of protein
4. decreased level of protein, increased level of sugar
5. positive reaction of Pandy, neutrophilic citosis
19. A spinal cord in new-born finishes at level:
1. L 1-2
2. L 2-3
3. L 3-4
4. Т 11-12
5. Т 12-L 1
20. What reasons of predilection of children of early age to the toxic forms of infectious
diseases?
1. large lateral ventricles
2. increased blood supply of brain
3. difficult outflow of blood from the brain
4. high permeability of hematoencephalic barrier
5. all of above
21. What symptom is not pathological for the children of early age?
1. Kernig’s
2. Brudzinski’s top
3. Brudzinski’s middle
4. Brudzinski’s lower
5. Rigid neck
22. During research of dermographics a child has white wide line. It testifies about:
25
1. sympathicotonia
2. vagotonia
3. normotonia
4. dystonia
5. eutonia
23. A child laies on the back, a doctor tries to rebend his leg which is bending in hip and knee
joints. Such unbending causes pain and it’s impossible. It testifies, that the child has positive
symptom:
1. Kernig’s
5. Rigid neck
24. The children of senior age have pressure of liquor in limits:
1. 40-60 mm of water
25. Cytosis in liquor in children after 1 year in 1 mcl:
1. 3-5 lymph.
2. 3-5 neutroph.
3. 5-8 lymph.
4. 8-10 neutroph.
5. 1-3 neutroph.
26. The Pandy reaction is positive (++) in children:
1. new-born
2. 1-6 months
3. 6-12 months
4. 12-18 months
5. 18-24 months
27. The contents of protein in liquor in new-born:
1. 0,50-0,70 g/l
2. 0,5-0,33 g/l
3. 0,30-0,25 g/l
4. 0,24-0,20 g/l
5. 0,19-0,15 g/l
28. Flexing the child’s head while he is supine causes involuntary flexing of knees and hips.
What sign is positive?
1. Kernig’s
5. Rigid neck
29. Child is 4 months old; he is the first day sick. The general condition of child is grave, a high
temperature, tension of greater fontanel is marked, a head is thrown back legs pressed to an
abdomen. What syndrome does a child have?
1. convulsive
2. meningeal
3. encephalic
4. hydrocephaly
5. spazmophylia
26
30. At objective examination of 6 months old child muscular hypertension and tendon
hyperreflexia of upper and lower extremities are marked. What type of paralysis is present in
child?
1. monoplegia
2. hemiplegia
3. superior paraplegia
4. inferior paraplegia
5. tetraplegia
31. At objective examination of 4 months old child increase of circumference of head, swelling
and augmentation of greater fontanel, expansion of vein network on the head, «sun set»
symptom, horizontal nistagmus are marked. What syndrome is there in this child?
1. meningeal
2. convulsive
3. encephalic
4. hydrocephaly
5. syndrome of paralysis
32. At objective examination of the 6 months old child expressed reduction diminishment of
volume of muscles (degenerative atrophy), muscular hypotonia, areflexia, periodic convulsions
of muscles are present. What syndrome is there in child?
1. central paralysis
2. peripheral paralysis
3. convulsive
4. hydrocephaly
5. meningeal
33. In a 7 years old boy muscular hypertension of extremities, hyperreflexia and expansion of
area of reflexes, foot and hand clonuses, protective reflexes are present, arms are pressed to the
trunk and bent. About what syndrome is it possible to think?
1. convulsive
2. meningeal
3. central paralysis
4. encephalic
5. peripheral paralysis
34. In a 5 years old child liquor is turbid, with high pressure, neutrophylic cytosis 800 in 1 mcl.
Protein level is 0,65 g/l. What syndrome takes place?
1. hydrocephaly
2. purulent meningitis
3. serous meningitis
4. convulsive
5. syndrome of paralysis
Section VI
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features, method of examination and semiotics of skin,
subcutaneous fat in children
1. What part of the infant’s body subcutaneous fat tissue diappears at hypotrophy in final order
from?
1. stomach
2. thorax
3. back
4. extremities
5. face
2. Anatomic-physiological features of skin in children which promotes the infectious process:
27
1. thin epidermis
2. poor expressed granular layer
3. insufficiency of melanin
4. underdevelopment of fibre structure of derma
5. "transparency" of skin
3. What function of skin promotes development of complications at external application of toxic
medicines?
1. excretory
2. resorption
3. thermoregulation
4. protective
5. metabolic
4. What type of tissure in children provides uncontractive thermogenesis?
1. muscular tissure
2. white fatty tissure
3. brown fatty tissure
4. connecting tissure
5. bone tissure
5. Color of skin at the purulent-septic diseases:
1. icteric
2. pink
3. pale
4. vaxy
5. grey
6. Acrocyanisis is:
1. cyanosys of all surface of the body
2. appearance of dark blue spots on extremities
3. cyanosys around the mouth
4. cyanosys around the eyes
5. cyanosys of tips of nose, fingers and toes, lips and ears
7. It is necessary for determination of elasticity of skin:
1. to press down a skin to the front surface of shin
2. to check up the symptom of pinch
3. to take a skin in a small fold and release on the back surface of
hand
4. to measure a skin fold on a stomach
5. to measure a skin fold under the corner of scapule
8. Early signs of allergic diathesis in children?
1. resistent irritation in skin folds even at a careful sanitary care
2. polymorphic rash on a body
3. geographical tongue
4. eczema on cheeks
5. perspiring and baldness of the occiput
9. To the primary morphological elements of skin belong:
1. crusts
2. papulae
3. erosions
4. ulcers
5. cicatrices
10. In what age does a physiological jaundice in new-born disappear?
1. on 2-3 day
2. on 7-10 day
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3. in 3 weeks
4. in 4 weeks
5. in 2 months
11. Dryness of skin is observed at:
1. hypotrophy
2. rickets
3. diabetis melitus
4. hypothyrosis
5. obesity
12. Brown adipose tissue in newborns takes part:
1. in the processes of water- mineral metabolism
2. in thermogenesis
3. in energy metabolism
4. in carbohydrate metabolism
5. in lipid metabolism
13. Select the features of skin in new-born children:
1. well-developed border between an epidermis and derma
2. derma does not have a cellular structure
3. epidermis is thin
4. physiological icterus appears on 5-7 day
5. blood supply is unsufficient
14. Clinical signs of hypotrophy of 2 degree:
1. deficit of body mass on 11-20%
4. deficit of body mass on 21 - 30%
15. The skin in new-born is characterized by all the listened, except for:
1. high water contents
2. morphologically immaturity
3. covered by a curd-lubricating layer
4. maturity of local immunity
5. high permeability
16. The skin in childlen does not execute the following function:
1. protective function
2. function of hematogenesis
3. thermoregulation
4. respiratory function
5. function of secretion
17. What pathological states does dilatation of veins on a front abdominal wall appear at?
1. appendicitis
2. holelithiasis
3. portal hypertension
4. intestinal infections
5. pancreatitis
18. What condition is peryoral cyanosys present in?
1. anemia
2. hypoxy
3. hemolysis
4. hypercoagulation of blood
5. hypoglycemia
19. Hyperhydrosis of skin is observed at:
29
1. initial period of rickets
2. hypotrophy
3. poliomyelitis
4. hypothyrisis
5. blood hypotension
20. It is observed at the edema:
1. formation of pit at pressure on the anterior surface of middle part of shin
2. general hyperemia of skin
3. augmentation of joints
4. hyperestesia of skin
5. reduction of hypodermic adipose tissue
21. The color of skin does not depend on:
1. amount of melanine
2. level of blood haemoglobin and erythrocytes
3. depths of blood capillaries
4. thicknesses of corneal layer
5. amount of keratohyaline
22. Paratrophy is:
1. decreasing of hypodermic-fatty layer
2. increasing of hypodermic-fatty layer
3. disproportional distribution of hypodermic-fatty layer
4. general emaciation
5. disproportional increase of body length
23. The clinical signs of hypotrophy of 2 degree:
1. hypodermic fatty layer disappears on upper extremities
2. hypodermic fatty layer disappears on lower extremities
3. hypodermic fatty layer disappears on a trunk and on extremities
4. hypodermic fatty layer disappears on a face
5. hypodermic fatty layer disappears on a stomach
24. The localisation of brown fatty tissue is not characteristic:
1. in area of buttock
2. around a thyroid
3. in axilla
4. in intrascapular space
5. around kidneys
25. About hypotrophy of 3 degree speaks:
1. hypodermic fatty layer disappears on upper extremities
2. hypodermic fatty layer disappears on lower extremities
3. hypodermic fatty layer disappears on a trunk and on extremities
4. hypodermic fatty layer disappears on a face, on a trunk and on extremities
5. hypodermic fatty layer disappears on a stomach
26. Poor expressed function of skin in children of early age:
1. respiratory
2. excretory
3. thermogenesis
4. secretory
5. protective
27. The excessive deposition of fat is observed at:
1. overfeeding
2. hypervitaminosis D
3. mobile way of life
4. increase of metabolism
30
5. malnutrition
28. Sclerema is:
1. limited necrosis of hypodermic-fatty layer
2. induration of hypodermic-fatty layer
3. unproroptional deposition of hypodermic-fatty layer
4. thinning of hypodermic-fatty layer
5. thinning of skin
29. Hypotriphy is:
1. increasing of hypodermic-fatty layer
2. decreasing of hypodermic-fatty layer
3. decreasing of tissue turgor
4. disproportional distribution of hypodermic adipose tissue
5. decreasing of muscular tone
30. How many layers of epidermis have the newborns?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6
31. What layer of epidermis is present only on the palms and soles of child?
1. horny
2. flash
3. granular
4. corneal
5. basal
32. What function of skin is developed in children better, than in adults?
1. protective
2. secretory
3. thermogenesis
4. respiratory
5. excretory
33. What function of skin is developed in children worse, than in adults?
1. protective
2. respiratory
3. resorbtion
4. metabolic
5. sensory
34. What method is not use for estimation of state of skin capillaries?
1. pinch test
2. McClure-Aldridge test
3. hammer symptom
4. tourniquet test
35. The positive pinch test is appearance in place of pinch:
1. 4-5 petechias
2. 2-3 petechias
3. more than 6 petechias
4. bleeding
5. more than 10 petechias
36. What from the following morphological elements of skin are the secondary?
1. papule
2. pustule
3. blister
31
4. node
5. cictrix
37. What from the morphological elements of skin are not the secondary?
1. crust
2. skale
3. bulla
4. erosion
5. ulcer
38. What states is the peripheral edema not characteristic for?
1. diseases of stomach
2. diseases of kidneys
3. diseases of heart
4. diseases of liver
5. diseases of thyroid gland
39. What color of skin at Adisson’s disease?
1. pale
2. cyanotic
3. bronze
4. hyperemia
5. jaundice
Section VII
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features, method of examination and semiotics of skeletal and
muscular system in children
1. Terms of closing of large fontanel:

1. 7-9 months
2. 12-18 months
3. 1-2 years
4. 6-7 months
5. 1,5-2 years
2. Amount of milk teeth:
1. 10
2. 14
3. 12
4. 16
5. 20
3. Term of permanent dentition:
1. 3 years
2. 4 years
3. 5 years
4. 6 years
5. 7 years
4. Basic symptoms of innate dislocation of hip joint:
1. asymmetry of skin folds
2. incomplete abduction of thighs
3. shortening of extremity
4. symptom of click
5. all of above
5. The early changes at rickets are the following, except for:
1. osteomalacia of bones of skull
32
2. flatness of occiput
3. softening of edges of fontanels
4. muscular hypotonia
5. violation of permanent dentition
6. The changes of bone tissue at rickets are the following, except for:
1. violation of synthesis of organic matrix of bone tissue
2. violation of endochondral ossification
3. osteoid hyperplasia
4. insufficiency of mineralisation of bone tissue
5. pathological fractures
7. What promotes of inflammatory changes in bones in child's age?
1. close location of osteoblasts and osteoclasts
2. presence of cartilage which separate epiphysis from diaphysis
3. good blood supply of epiphyses
4. thick periosteum
5. all above enumerated
8. Localization of marrow in a bone-cerebral cavity:
1. occupies all bone-cerebral cavity
2. it is localized in epiphyses
3. it is localized in methaphyses
4. in methaphyses and epiphyses
5. in the middle part of bone-cerebral cavity
9. What age (in years) does the structure of bone tissue approach to the structure of the adult in?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 9
4. 12
5. 14
10. Time of appearance of neck lordosis in a child:
1. when begins to sit
2. when begins to walk
3. when turns from the back to the stomach
4. when begins to stand
5. when begins to hold a head
11. Curvature of spine at rachitic kyphosis:
1. conner-shaped
2. undulating
3. arched
4. square-form
5. flat
12. Expressed lumbar lordosis is characteristic for:
1. Pathology of long dorsal muscle
2. progressive muscular dystrophy
3. chondrodystrophy
4. congenital dislocation of hip joint
5. all of above
13. Pain in feet at walking observes in children with the next pathology:
1. rachitis
2. platipodia
3. bone tuberculosis
4. rheumatic disease
5. polyartritis
33
14. Rachitic bone deformations are following, except for:
1. Olympic forehead
2. rachitic rosary
3. "strings-of-pearls"
4. keeled chest
5. saber-shaped form of shins
15. Features of skull in new-born child are:
1. cerebral skull prevail over facial one
2. sutures are not formed
3. presence of fontanels
4. weak development of nasal sinuses
5. all of above
16. Early closing of fontanels is characteristic for:
1. rickets
2. hypothyrosis
3. hydrocephaly
4. underdevelopment of cerebrum
5. microcephaly
17. Pulsation and thrusting out of anterior fontanel is observed at:
1. high fever
2. high intracranial pressure
3. hydrocephaly
4. during attac of convulsions
5. all of above
18. Fontanel sinks down at:
1. low intracranial pressure
2. dehydration
3. cardiac failure
4. vomiting and diarrhoea
5. all of above
19. Features of thorax of child of the first year of life:
1. barrel form
2. ribs have horizontal position
3. soft pliable ribs
4. obtuse epigasral angle
5. all of above enumerated
20. What age does complete ossification of hands in child come to?
1. 6-8 years
2. 8-10 years
3. 10-12 years
4. 12-14 years
5. 15-16 years
21. Level of calcium in a blood in children:
1. 2, 25- 2,75 mmol/l
2. 3,0-3,25 mmol/l
3. 3,25-3,5 mmol/l
4. 1,8-2,1 mmol/l
5. 1,5-2,0 mmol/l
22. Specify the average size of anterior fontanel in new-born child (in cm):
1. 0,5 х 0,7
2. 0,8 х 1,0
3. 1,0 х 1,0
34
4. 2,0 х 2,0
5. 2,5 х 3,0
23. Expressed muscular hypotonia is characteristic for the diseases:
1. rickets
2. meningitis
3. myositis
4. peritonitis
5. tonic convulsions
24. The first dentition in children appears in age:
1. 2 months
2. 3 months
3. 5 months
4. 6 months
5. 8-9 months
25. Morphological features of muscular tissue in children:
1. muscular fibres are thick
2. plenty of nucleus in the myocytes
3. muscular fibres are thin
4. plenty of connective tissue
5. muscular fibres are long
26. When does physiological hypertone of flexor muscles of extremities disappear in children?
1. to 3-4 months
2. to 1 month
3. 5-6 months
4. 10-12 months
5. to 1,5 years
27. What diagnostic method is used for checking up the tone of muscles in infant?
1. test on "traction" and "symptom of returning"
2. symptom "turniquet"
3. symptom of "pinch"
4. searching symptom
5. Kerning’s symptom
28. Clinical signs of muscular hypotonia in infant:
1. "frog stomach"
2. does not hold a head
3. chaotic motions
4. symptom of "obstetrician’s hand"
5. does not turn
29. Which deformation of thorax is characteristic for rickets?
1. chicken chest
2. cardiac hump
3. barrel form
4. flat form
5. lateral curvature
30. The third stage of osteogenesis is provided by hormone:
1. thyroxin
2. insulin
3. thyrotropin
4. parathormon
5. thyrocalcitonin
31. The end of milk dentition is the age:
1. 1 year
35
2. 2 years
3. 2,5 years
4. 3-3,5 years
5. 5 years
32. More intensive blood supply of bone tissue is observed in children:
1. new-born
2. under 1 year
3. under 2 years
4. after 11 years
5. under 6 years
33. Name the reasons of late milk dentition in children:
1. hypotrophy
2. hypervitaminosis D
3. spasmophylia
4. rickets
5. anaemia
34. Name the symptoms of muscular hypotonia in children of senior age:
1. violation of bearing
2. hypertrophy of muscles
3. flat stomach
4. umbilical hernia
5. scapulas clasp to the back
35. Most muscles in new-born are localized on:
1. upper extremities
2. upper and lower extremities
3. trunk
4. trunk and lower extremities
5. lower extremities
36. The dermal way of osteogenesis is not characteristic for the following bones:
1. cerebral skull
2. diaphysis of mandible
3. diaphysis of humerus
4. diaphysis of clavicle
5. facial scull
37. Tone of muscles it is determined:
1. by the nasyl'nym unbending of extremities
2. by passive motions
3. by external examination
4. by feeling of muscles
5. perkussyey muscles
38. Hypertone of muscles is expressed in new-born from the following muscles:
1. flexors of lower extremities
2. protractors of upper extremities
3. protractors of lower extremities
4. muscles of the back
5. muscles of stomach
39. Posterior fontanel is closed to:
1. 1 month
2. 2 months
3. 5 months
4. 6 months
5. 1 year
36
40. In new-born next suture is closed:
1. arrow-shaped
2. frontal
3. coronal
4. cervical
5. sagittal
41. At examination of oral cavity of child a doctor reveled 8 incisors. What is the age of child?
1. 8 months
2. 10 months
3. 12 months
4. 16 months
5. 20 months
Section VIII
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features of respiratory system in children
Theme. Method of examination of respiratory system in children
Theme. Semiotics of respiratory diseases in children
1. In what period of pregnancy does the active synthesis of surfactant begin?

1. in the I trimester
2. in the II trimester
3. in the I half
4. in the III trimester
2. What is the anatomic-physiological feature of bronchial tree in children of early age?
1. weak secretion of bronchial glands
2. relativly large lumen of bronchial tubes
3. well development of connecting tissue
4. bad blood supply of mucous membrane
5. weak development of muscular layer
3. Bitonal cough is characteristic for:
1. pneumonia
2. whooping-cough
3. laryngitis
4. augmentation of intrathoracal lymph nodes
5. bronchial asthma
4. What breathing is characteristic for lobular pneumonia?
1. puerile
2. tracheal
3. vesicular
4. hard
5. weakened
5. How many segments are counted in the right lung?
1. 8
2. 9
3. 10
4. 11
5. 12
6. Intensified bronchophonia observes at:
1. obesity
2. presence of exudation in a pleural cavity
3. presence of air in a pleural cavity
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4. consolidation of pulmonary tissue
5. pulmonary emphysema
7. What disease is crepitation characteristic for?
1. obstructive bronchitis
2. pneumonia
3. exudative pleurisy
4. bronchial asthma
5. dry pleurisy
8. Percutory changes above the lungs at segmental pneumonia:
1. vesicular resonance
2. hyperresonance (bandbox sound)
3. flatness of resonance (blunted sound)
4. tympanic resonance
5. dullness
9. Bandbox percutory resonance is determined at the following diseases:
1. bronchitis
2. bronchial asthma
4. pneumonia
5. cavernous tuberculosis
10. Intrauterine development of structure of bronchial tree is completed:
1. in 4 weeks
2. in 6 weeks
3. in 8-10 weeks
4. in 16 weeks
11. The criteria of respiratory failure are the following:
1. perioral and periorbital cyanosis
2. dyspnea
3. tachypnea
4. tachycardia
5. all of the above
12. The character of dyspnea at pneumonia:
1. inspiratory
2. expiratory
3. mixed
4. all of above is possible
5. absent
13. Respiratory failure in child of the first year of life can be the display of:
1. bronchiolitis
2. pneumonia
4. congenital heart defect
5. all of the above
14. Blunted percutory resonance is present at the following diseases, except for:
1. segmental pneumonia
2. atelektasis
4. bronchiolitis
5. primary tubercular complex
15. The clinical signs of exudative pleurisy are the following, except of:
1. sharp pain at breathing
2. short, painful cough
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3. limited excursion of thorax on the affected side
4. hard respiration at auscultation
5. dullness above exudation
16. Respiratory rate in 5 years old children:
1. 16
2. 20
3. 30
4. 40
5. 50
17. Respiratory failure of the 1 degree is characterized by:
1. appearance of dispnea in a rest
2. appearance of dispnea at the ordinary physical load
3. appearance of dispnea at the strong physical load
4. appearance of general cyanosis
5. cyanosis of skin and mucous
18. What equivalent of cough is observed in new-born?
1. sneezing
2. bradypnea
3. foam on the lips
4. arhythmical breathing
5. tachypnea
19. Basic signs of adenoid vegetations:
1. parted opened mouth
2. speaking through the nose
3. snore during sleep
4. pulled ahead mandible
5. all of the above
20. The reason of often development of stenosis of larynx at ARVI in children of early age is:
1. narrow nasal meatus
2. thin and short vocal cord
3. funnel-shaped form of larynx
4. rich blood supply of mucous
5. irritation of nervous receptors
21. The sings of bronchitis are next, except for:
1. moist rales of a different caliber
2. dry rales
3. areas of weakened respiration
4. whistling rales
5. hard respiration
22. The basic initial sign of laryngitis is:
1. dry cough
2. moist cough
3. bitonal cough
4. barking cough
5. hoarse voice
23. In what age of the child is it possible to define his upper borders of lungs by percussion?
1. from 1 year
2. from 7 years
3. from 10 years
4. from 5 years
5. from 3 years
24. Respiratory rate in 1 year old child:
39
1. 40-60 per 1 minute
25. What process in bronchus does determine appearance of moist rales?
1. bronchospasm
2. exudation
3. edema of mucous membrane
4. deformations
5. anatomic defects of development
26. What character of percutory resonance is above focus of inflammation at pneumonia?
1. tympanic
2. blunt
3. vesicular
4. hyperresonance
5. dull
27. How many segments are there in the left lung?
1. 10
2. 9
3. 11
4. 3
5. 2
28. Appearance of crepitation is characteristic for:
1. pneumonia
2. bronchitis
3. tracheitis
4. laryngitis
5. pleurisy
29. Bandbox resonance is characteristic for:
1. accumulation of liquid in a pleural cavity
2. pneumothorax
3. emphysema
4. dry pleurisy
5. pneumonia
30. At exudative pleurisy the area of decrease in resonance on the affected side is named:
1. Garland’s triangle
2. Rauchfus’ triangle
3. Traube’s space
4. Sokolov’s triangle
5. Shouffar’s area
31. Respiratory rate in new-born child:
1. 16-18 in a minute
32. What is the reason of seldom development of sinusitis in children of early age?
1. anatomic underdevelopment of sinuses
2. big size of sinuses
3. narrowness of nasal meatus
4. low level of secretory Ig A
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5. plentiful vascularisation of mucous
33. What character of respiration at auscultation is in 1 year old child?
1. vesicular
2. puerile
3. hard
4. bronchial
5. weakened
34. What is the character of respiration at auscultation, if both inspiration and expiration are
louder?
1. puerile
2. amphoric
3. tracheal
4. bronchial
5. vesicular
35. In what segments the foreign body of bronchi gets more often:
1. segments of left upper lobe
2. segments of right upper lobe
3. segments of right middle lobe
4. segments of right lower lobe
5. segments of left lower lobe
36. What can promote bronchoobstructive syndrome in children of early age?
1. immature nervous adjusting
2. immature mucous membrane
3. narrowness of bronchial tubes
4. hypertrophy of smooth muscles
5. softness of bronchial cartilages
37. Puerile respiration is possible to characterize as:
1. bronchial
2. amplified vesicular
3. laryngotracheal
4. hard vesicular
5. weakened vesicular
38. Give auscultative characteristic of puerile respiration:
1. respiration is more loud in both phases of breathing
2. respiration is more loud and longer on inspiration
3. respiration is more loud and longer on expiration
4. respiratory noise is more week and shorter in both phases of breathing
5. respiratory noise is more week and longer on inspiration
39. In what age puerile respiration does disappear?
1. 6-8 months
2. 12 months
3. 5-7 years
4. 2 years
5. 6-8 years
40. From what age does puerile respiration appear?
1. from 1 month
2. from 6 months
3. from 12 months
4. from 3 years
5. from 2 years
41. It is heard during auscultation at bronchial asthma:
1. dry whistling rales
41
2. moist rales of different size
3. crepitation
4. bronchial respiration
5. amphoric respiration
42. In puberty girls prevails next type of respiration:
1. thoracal
2. abdominal
3. thoraco-abdominal
4. diaphragmal
5. diapraglal-abdominal
43. When does forming and development of elastic tissue of lungs finish?
1. to birth
2. to 1 year
3. to 5 years
4. to 12 years
5. to 15 years
44. Larynx in children:
1. rich in lymphoid tissue
2. poor in lymphoid tissue
3. has weak blood suply
4. relatively longer
5. relatively thicker
45. "Barking" cough is observed at the affection of:
1. lungs
2. pleura
3. bronchial lymph nodes
4. larynx
5. bronchial tree
46. Peculiarities of bronchial tree in infants are the next:
1. narrow lumen
2. blood supply is poor
3. has well developed muscular and elastic tissue
4. mucous membrane is thick
5. mucous membrane is relatively moist
47. "Takhypnoe" is:
1. low respiratory rate
2. deep respiration
3. high respiratory rate
4. superficial breathing
48. "Apnoe" is:
2. deep respiration
4. sop of respiration
49. "Bradypnoe" is:
2. deep respiration
4. superficial breathing
42
50. Respiratory rate in 10 years old child is:
4. 20 in a minute
5. 25 in a minute
51. New-born has respiration-to-pulse ratio:
1. 1:2
2. 1:4
3. 1:3.5
4. 1:2.5
5. 1:5
52. Predilection to atelectasis in new-born is mainly cased by:
1. narrowest of bronchial tubes
2. mildness of cartilages
3. insufficient synthesis of surfactant
4. well development of elastic tissue of lungs
5. high blood supply of lungs
53. Respiration-to-pulse ratio in 5 years old child is:
1. 1:2
2. 1:4
3. 1:3.5
4. 1:2.5
5. 1:5
54. Bandbox percutory resonance is determined:
1. above the liquid in a pleura cavity
2. at pneumothorax
3. at emphysema
4. at dry pleurisy
5. above the focus of pneumonia
55. Area of dull sound in opposite side of presence of exudation has name:
2. Traube’s space
4. Chauffard’s area
5. Damoiseau’s triangle
56. In 5 years old child on a background the hard respiration are present the moist rales, the
amount of them considerably diminishes after cough. What is affected organ?
1. trachea and large bronchus
2. larynx
3. lungs
4. pharynx
5. pleura
57. It is not characteristic for lungs in new-born:
1. increased blood supply
2. high pressure in pulmonary vessels
3. underdevelopment of elastic tissue
4. diminished amount of alveoli in acinuses
5. underdevelopment of muscular tissue
58. Tympanic percutory resonance is present in healthy child:
1. above the breastbone
2. above the Traube’s space
43
3. Is subscapulare area
4. above the spine
5. above the area of heart
59. Relative rareness of nasal bleedings in children of the first year of life can be explained by:
1. weak blood supply of mucous
2. dryness of mucous membrane
3. absence of lower nasal meatus
4. underdevelopment of cavernous part of submucous layer
5. by underdevelopment of sinuses of nose
60. The feature of anatomy of nose of new-born child is:
1. wide nasal passages
2. narrow nasal passages
3. low blood supply of mucous
4. well developed sinuses of nose
5. overdevelopment of cavernous tissue
61. Respiratory rate in a new-born child:
1. 40-60 per a minute
62. The displays of expiratory dyspnea are the next, except for:
1. a thorax is in position of inspiration
2. present the wheezes mainly on a phase of the long expiration
3. the muscles of frontal abdominal wall are tense and take part in breathing
4. the muscles of the thorax take part in the act of respiration
5. a child is in lying position
63. Purulent sputum is characteristic for:
1. pneumonia
2. abscess of lungs
3. bronchitis
4. tracheitis
5. tuberculosis
64. Space above exudation, which forms tympanic resonance at passion, is named:
2. Traube’s space
4. Chauffard’s area
5. Damoiseau’s triangle
65. Breathing type in children of the first year of life:
1. diaphragmal
2. thoraco-abdominal with predominance of abdominal
3. thoracal
4. thoraco-abdominal with predominance of thoracal
5. abdominal
66. Respiratory rate in 10 years old child:
1. 16 in 1 minute
2. 30 in 1 minute
3. 20 in 1 minute
4. 40 in 1 minute
5. 25 in 1 minute
67. The small respiratory surface of lungs in children of early age can be explained by:
44
1. few and less sizes of alveolus
3. weakness of respiratory musculature
4. limited excursion of thorax
5. immaturity of surfactant
68. The weakened vocal tremor is observed at:
1. laryngitis
2. pneumonia
3. emphysema
4. tracheitis
5. bronchitis
69. Maximal hyperplasia of tonsils in children is observed:
1. in the first half-year of life
2. in 3-4 years
3. in 5-6 years
4. in pubescent
5. in 15-18 years
70. In what period of intrauterine development of child the synthesis of surfactant does begin?
1. in embryonic
2. in embryofetal
3. in germinal
4. in early fetal
5. in late fetal
71. Respiratory rate in 1 year old child makes:
72. The purpose of conducting of comparative percussion is:
1. determination of borders of internal organs
2. determination of size of internal organs
3. study of form of internal organs
4. diagnostics of asymmetric pathological changes
5. determination of presence of organ
73. Name a line which passes along the edge of breastbone?
1. lin. mediana anterior
2. lin. sternalis
3. lin. parasternalis
4. lin. medioclavicularis
5. lin. axillaris anterior
74. Where does рarasternale line pass?
1. vertical through the middle of breastbone
2. along the edge of breastbone on either side
3. through the middle of both clavicles
4. between the edge of breastbone and medioclavilulare lines
5. through the edge of arm-pits
75. Name the parameters of description of percutory resonance.
1. intensity
2. duration
3. height
4. timbre
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5. all transferred
76. What character of percutory resonance is above the lungs in norm?
1. femoral dullness
2. shortened, dull
3. clear pulmonary
4. tympanic
5. bandbox
77. In children of early age the lower edge of lungs on mediaclaviculare line right side is
disposed:
1. at the level of the III rib
2. at the level of the IV rib
3. at the level of the V rib
4. at the level of the VI ribs
5. at the level of the VII rib
78. The lower edge of left lung on axillaries media line in children of school age is disposed:
1. at the level of the VI rib
2. at the level of the VII rib
3. at the level of the VIII rib
4. at the level of the IX rib
5. at the level of the X rib
79. From what age it is possible to define the upper borders of lungs:
1. from 1 year
2. from 7 years
3. from 10 years
4. from 5 years
5. from 8 years
80. The moist rales appear due to:
1. bronchospasm
2. presence of liquid in bronchial tubes
3. edema of mucous membrane
4. anatomic narrowing of bronchial tubes
5. dilatation of bronchial tubes
81. What age does antrum of Highmorea become visible by X-ray examination?
1. from 1 month
2. from 2 months
3. from 3 months
4. from 12 months
5. from 18 months
82. What segments of lungs do form upper lobe?
1. 1,2,3
2. 7,8,9
3. 8,9,10
4. 4,5
5. 7
83. What segments of lungs do form lower lobe?
1. 1,2,3
2. 7,8,9
3. 6,7,8,9,10
4. 4,5
5. 7,9,10
84. The children of early age have the next structural features of bronchi:
1. tender mucous membrane and narrow lumen
46
2. absence of ciliary epithelium
3. well developed muscular and elastic fibers
4. underdevelopment of mucous glands
5. underdevelopment of cartilages
85. The features of lungs in new-born children are:
1. insufficient elasticity
2. high contents of air
3. low level of vascularity
4. excessive development of connecting tissue
5. Absents of segmental structure
86. The children of early age have the next features of larynx:
1. underdevelopment of elastic tissue
2. mildness of cartilages
3. narrow glottis
4. tenderness of mucous membrane
5. all transferred
87. Puerile respiration in children is the result of:
1. underdevelopment of lungs
2. thin wall of thorax
3. high rate of breathing
4. high contents of air
5. short bronchial tubes
88. Amplified of bronchophony testifies about:
1. consolidation of pulmonary tissue
2. exudation in a pleural cavity
3. obesity in patient
4. emphysema
5. pneumothorax
89. Physiological hyperplasia of pharynx lymphoid tissue present in children under:
1. 1 year
2. 3 years
3. 10 years
4. 5 years
5. 2 years
90. Bitonal cough is characteristic for:
1. augmentation of intrathoracal lymph nodes
2. whooping-cough
3. stenotic laryngitis
4. pneumonia
5. bronchial asthma
91. Most characteristic auscultative changes at pneumonia are:
1. dry whistling rales
2. weakened respiration and crepitation
3. amplified respiration
4. moist rales
5. pleural friction rub
92. Bandbox percutory resonance is not characteristic for:
1. emphysema
2. bronchial asthma
4. pneumonia
5. pneumothorax
47
93. Barking cough is characteristic for:
1. bronchitis
2. whooping cough
3. stenotic laryngitis
4. pneumonia
5. bronchial asthma
Section IХ
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features of cardiovascular system in children
Theme. Method of examination of cardiovascular system in children
Theme. Semiotics of affection of cardiovascular system in children
1. What is the age of a child (in months) when Botallo’s duct has obliterated?
1. 2-3
2. 5-6
3. 8-10
4. 10-12
5. 20-24
2. When does an intensive growth and differentiation of myocardium occur?
1. to 1 year
2. in the first 2 years of life
3. in 5 years
4. 6-10 years
5. in the first 6 months
3. What anatomic-and-physyological features of myocardium do predispose to the inflammatory
diseases of it?
1. rich vascularisation of myocardium
2. imperfect coronal system
3. thin muscular fibres
4. underdevelopment of conducting system
5. imperfect nervous adjusting of cardiac muscle
4. When does arterial duct anatomicaly close?
1. up to 6 months
2. up to 1 year
3. up to 3 years
4. up to 2 months
5. up to 6 years
5. Which communication connection is the explorer of rhythm of the first order?
1. atrioventricular node
2. sinoatrial node
3. Gis’ bundle
4. Purkinje’s fibres
5. bundle of Bachman
6. How does atriventricular rhythm look on ECG?
1. positive P wave
2. negative P wave in the III standard lead
3. negative P wave in all leads
4. negative Т wave in the III standard lead
5. negative Т wave in all leads
7. What is pulse rate in new-born children?
1. 120 per minute
2. 80 per minute
48
3. 100 per minute
4. 140 per minute
5. 60 per minute
8. What is blood pressure in 3-7 years old children?
1. 70-75 mm Hg
2. 100-90 mm Hg
3. 100-110 mm Hg.
4. 80-90 mm Hg
5. 60-70 mm Hg
9. What auscultative changes do characterize ventrical septal defect?
1. diastolic murmur in the 2 intercostal space leftside
2. soft systolic murmur in the 3-4 intercostal spaces leftside
3. rough systolic murmur in the 3-4 intercostal spaces leftside
4. rough systolic murmur in the 2 intercostal space leftside
5. systolic murmur in the 2 intercostal space rightside
10. What auscultative changes do characterize the opened arterial channel?
1. rough systolic murmur in the 3-4 intercostal spaces leftside
2. systolic-diastolic "machine" murmur in the 2 intercostal space leftside
4. loudness of S2 over pulmonary artery, systolic murmur
11. What does promote to instability of heard rhythm in a fetus and a new-born?
1. underdeveloped structure of myocardium
2. imperfection of the nervous adjusting
3. presence of «additional» bundles in the conducting system of a heart
4. maintenance of mitochondria in a sinoatrial node
5. instability of blood circulation
12. The usual place of auscultation of mitral valve of a heart is:
1. lower edge of a breastbone
2. second intercostal space on the left
3. second intercostal space on the right
4. apex of a heart
5. interscapular region
13. Which interval does reflect the electric systole of ventricles?
1. RR
2. PQ
3. QRS
4. QT
5. ST
14. Some congenital heard defects results in decreasing of pulmonary circulation, except of:
1. stenosis of pulmonary artery
2. tetralogy of Fallot
3. triad of Fallot
4. common arterial trunk
5. ventricular septal defect
15. Some congenital heard defects are accompanied by cyanosys, except of:
1. tetrad of Fallot
2. transposition of main vessels
3. atresia of tricuspidal valve
4. atriovemtricular communication
5. atrial septal defect
16. Coarctation of aorta is characterized by the following signs, except of:
49
1. increase BP on arms
2. weakening of pulsation of vessels of feet
3. hyperthrophy of left ventricle
4. accent of S2 above pulmonary artery
5. low BP on legs
17. What pathology does swift pulse appear at?
1. coarctation of aorta
2. pulmonary artery stenosis
3. incompetence of aortic valve
5. aortic stenosis
18. ECG reflects the following functions of myocardium, except for:
1. automatism
2. contractive
3. excitation
4. conductive
5. metabolic
19. Left border of relative cardiac dullness in children from 2 to 7 years old is:
1. 3 cm laterally from the left medioclavicular line
4. left medioclavicular line
5. 2 cm medially from the left medioclavicular line
20. Pulse rate in 5 years old child is:
1. 110-120 in a min.
2. 95-100 in a min.
3. 90-80 in a min.
4. 70-80 in a min.
5. 130 in a min.
21. Embryocardia is:
1. arrhythmia
2. equality of intervals between sounds of a heart
3. tachycardia
4. bradycardia
5. alternating pulse
22. Right border of relative cardiac dullness in new-born:
1. right medioclavicular line
2. left medioclavicular line
3. right parasternal line
4. on 0,5 cm laterally from a right sternal line
5. left parasternal line
23. Organic murmur is characterized by the following signs, except for:
1. hard
2. long
3. only systolic
4. occupies the whole systole
5. is connected with heart sounds
24. Left border of relative cardiac dullness in children 12-14 years old:
1. 2 cm outward from a left medioclavicular line
2. 1 cm outward from a left medioclavicular line
3. on a left medioclavicular line
4. on 2 cm of inward from a left medioclavicular line
50
5. on 0,5 cm of inward from a left medioclavicular line
25. Botallo’s duct connects:
1. umbilical vein with inferior vena cava
2. pulmonary artery with aorta
3. umbilical vein with aorta
4. umbilical vein with superior vena cava
5. umbilical artery with pulmonary artery
26. Relative mass of heart in new-born child makes (in % of mass of body):
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 8
5. 1
27. Point of auscultation of pulmonary artery valve is:
1. at the lower edge of breastbone
2. in the second intrcostal space on the left
3. in the second intrcostal space on the right
4. at the apex of heart
5. in the 3-4 intrcostal spaces on the left from the breastbone
28. Blood from umbilical vein flows in fetus:
1. into descending aorta
2. into inverior vena cava
3. into superior vena cava
4. into Botallo’s duct
5. into Aranzi’s duct
29. Pulse rate in 5 years old child per a minute:
1. 110
2. 100
3. 90
4. 80
5. 60
30. What fetal communication does connect small and large circulation?
1. Aranzi’s duct
2. Botallo’s duct
3. umbilical vein
4. hepatic vein
5. ventrical septal defect
31. Shift of relative cardiac dullness to the left is characteristic for:
3. stenosis of aortic valve
4. mitral stenosis
5. mitral valve prolapse
32. Thickness of walls of right and left ventricles:
1. is no difference in all age periods
2. equal in new-born
3. prevails of a right ventricle
4. predominance of left in new-born is marked
5. left ventricle is always thicker
33. Pulse rate in 3 years old child per a minute:
1. 125
2. 115
51
3. 105
4. 100
5. 80
34. Pulse rate in new-born child per a minute:
1. 140-160
2. 100-115
3. 90-80
4. 90-110
5. 120-140
35. Negative apex beat is characteristic for:
1. heart defects
2. adhesive pericarditis
3. cardiac failure
4. exudative pericarditis
5. hypertrophy of myocardium
36. The next feature of development of myocardium is characteristic for new-born, except for:
1. thin muscular fibres
2. plenty of nucleus
3. plenty of elastic elements
4. weak development of connective tissue
5. weak development of muscular fibres
37. Terms of closing of Botallo’s duct after birth:
1. functional in the moment of the first inspiration, anatomic to 1 month
2. functional to 10-15 hours of life, anatomic to 2 months
3. functional by the end of the first day, anatomic to 1 year
4. functional and anatomic on the 3 day
5. functional to 24 hours of life, anatomic to 4 months
38. Where is the left border of relative cardiac dullness in new-born child determined?
1. 2 cm from the midclavicular line outward
2. on the left midclavicular line
3. on the left edge of breastbone
4. 2 cm from the left midclavicular line inward
5. 2 cm outward from the left parasternal line
39. Where is the right border of relative cardiac dullness in new-born child determined?
1. on the right parasternal line
2. on the right ege of breastbone
3. 2 cm outward from the right parasternal line
4. 2 cm inward from the right midclavicular line
5. on the left edge of breastbone
40. Where is the upper border of relative cardiac dullness in new-born child determined?
1. II rib
2. II intrcostal space
3. III rib
4. III intrcostal space
5. IV rib
41. Shift of apex beat to the left is observed at:
1. peritonitis
2. ascitis
3. hypertrophy of the left ventricle
4. flatulence
5. emphysema of lungs
42. Histological development of heart comes to end:
52
1. to the moment of birth
2. by the end of the first year of life
3. in early school age
4. in prepubertal period
5. in neonatal period
43. The formula of calculation of diastolic blood pressure in children:
1. 60 + n (n- number of years)
4. 75 + 2n (n- number of years)
5. 1/2 of systolic pressure
44. Respiratory arrhythmia of pulse in children is maximal expressed in:
1. 3-7 years
2. 6-9 years
3. 10-11 years
4. 14-15 years
5. 15-18 years
45. Blood pressure in norm on lower extremities in comparison with it on arms is:
1. lower on 20-30%
2. higher on 20-30%
3. lower on 20-30 mm Hg
4. higher on 20-30 mm Hg
5. equal
46. A cardiac hump is observed at:
1. considerable increase of sizes of heart
2. myocarditis
3. accumulation of liquid in pericardium
4. pericarditis
5. endocarditis
47. Blood from placenta in fetus goes to:
1. umbilical artery
2. umbilical vein
3. Aranzi’s duct
4. Botallo’s duct
5. portal vein
48. Forming of what congenital heart defect does violation in the process of the normal closing
of arterial duct result?
1. artial septal defect
3. opened Botallo’s duct
49. Which violation of physical development takes place in child with coarctation of aorta?
1. lag in physical development
2. high physical development
3. disproportional physical development
4. low mass of body
5. low length of body
50. Which congenital heart defect does belonge to the „blue type”?
53
51. Which from the transferred congenital heart defectsdoes not result in violation of small
circulation?
1. triad of Fallot
2. tetrad of Fallot
5. stenosis of aorta
52. What disease of the cardiovascular system system are cyanotic attacks characteristic for?
5. tetrad of Fallot
53. At cardiovascular failure II A stage in child of school age liver is determined:
1. is not palpated
2. near the edge of costal arch
3. on 2-3 cm lower
4. on 3-4 cm lower
5. on 4-5 cm lower
54. At cardiovascular failure II B stage in child of school age liver is determined:
1. near the edge of costal arch
2. on 1-2 cm lower
3. on 2-3 cm lower
4. on 3-5 cm lower
5. on 5-7 cm lower
55. Shortness of breath at cardiovascular failure II A stage is characterized by the increase of
respiratory rate on:
1. 10-20%
2. 20-30%
3. 30-50%
4. 50-70%
5. 70-80%
56. Shortness of breath at cardiovascular failure II B stage is characterized by the increase of
respiratory rate on:
1. 10-20%
2. 20-30%
3. 30-50%
4. 50-70%
5. 70-80%
57. Puls rate at cardiovascular failure II A stage is increase on:
1. 10-15%
2. 15-30%
3. 30-50%
4. 50-70%
5. 70-80%
58. Puls rate at cardiovascular failure II B stage is increase on:
1. 10-15%
2. 15-30%
3. 30-50%
4. 50-70%
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5. 70-80%
59. The characteristic symptom of the cardiovascular failure I stage is:
1. high blood pressue
2. edema of extremities
3. increase of sizes of liver
4. shortness of breath and tachycardia in a rest
5. shortness of breath and tachycardia at physical load
60. The main symptom of left ventrical cardiac failure is:
1. cyanosys
2. shortness of breath
3. tachicardia
4. moist rales above lungs
5. augmentation of liver
61. The main symptom of right ventrical cardiac failure is:
1. cyanosys
2. shortness of breath
3. tachicardia
4. moist rales above lungs
5. augmentation of liver
Section Х
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features of the digestive system in children, method of
examination
Theme. Semiotics of affection of the digestive system
1. What is the most typical localization of pain at palpation at duodenal peptic ulcer?
1. epigastric area
2. right hypochondrium
3. pyloroduodenal area
4. left hypochondrium
5. right inguinal area
2. Name the basic syndrome at duodenal peptic ulcer:
1. syndrome of "hungry pain"
2. dyspepsia (nausea, vomiting, constipation)
3. hepatolienale syndrome
4. asteno-vegetative syndrome
5. admixture of blood in an excrement
3. What from additional methods is necessary for the diagnostics of duodenal peptic ulcer?
1. general blood test
2. biochemical blood test
3. endoscopy
4. routine urine analysis
5. sonoscopy of organs of abdominal cavity
4. Specify, at the level of what thoracic vertebrae transition of gullet in a stomach is situated:
1. 5-6
2. 6-7
3. 7-8
4. 8-9
5. 10-11
5. Dependence of pain syndrome on meal intake at duodenal peptic ulcer:
1. after overeating
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2. early pain after meal
3. late pain after meal and on an empty stomach
4. after fat dishes
5. more frequent on empty stomach
6. The basic functions of liver are following, except for:
1. oxygen synthesis
2. pygment synthesis
3. protein synthesis
4. deposition of carbohydrates
5. erythropoiesis
7. At cholecystitis the next symptomes are positive, except for:
1. Kehr’s
2. Mayo-Robson’s
3. Orthner’s
4. Murphy’s
5. Mussy’s
8. Pain pancreatic points are the next:
1. Mayo-Robson’s
2. Kehr’s
3. McBurney’s
4. Virchov’s
9. Enzyme of pancreas:
1. hydrochloric acid
2. pepsin
3. rennin
4. gastrin
5. tripsin
10. Specify the characteristic symptom at the diseases of gall-bladder:
1. Kehr’s
2. Mendel’s
3. Pasternatsky’s
4. Blumberg’s
5. Kerning’s
11. What is the normal character of excrements in children of the 1 year of life on a breast
feeding?
1. yellow
2. dark green
3. brown
4. with a greenish tint
5. with fatty disseminations
12. Features of salivary glands in neonate?
1. morphologically is formed, but secretory function is low
2. morphologically and functional immature
3. morphologically and functional mature
4. morphologically unformed, and secretory function is developed enough
5. absent at all
13. What part of stomach in children of breast age is developed best of all?
1. pyloric
2. cardial
3. fundus of stomach
4. body of stomach
5. no one
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14. Anatomic-physiological features of what part of stomach do promote frequent regurgitations
in children of early age?
1. pyloric
2. fundus
3. cardial
4. body
5. corner of Hiss
15. The lower edge of liver is palpated in children of early age:
1. at the level of costal arch
2. on 1-2 cm below than costal arch
4. a lower edge is not accessible to palpation
16. Features of pancreas in children are the next:
1. most intensive growth in preschool age
2. smooth surface in neonate
3. the tail of pancreas is most developed
4. active growth after introduction of weaning
5. produces somatothrophin
17. Features of rectum in children under 2 years are the next, except for:
1. relatively longer
2. mucous membrane is well fixed
3. muscular layer is developed not enough
4. an ampoule is badly expressed
5. located above the entrance in a small pelvis
18. What does it mean: "Moynihan’s rhythm of pain" at the diseases of duodenum in children?
1. pain diminishes after meal, and then again increases, arises up at night and
on empty stomach
2. pain increases after meal, and then diminishes
3. hungry night pain
4. independence of pain with meal
5. early pain after meal
19. Select the features of liver in new-born children:
1. occupies small part of abdominal cavity
2. does not grow in a postnatal period
3. the left part of liver is very massive
4. fibrous capsule is dense, collagen and elastic fibers are well developed
5. blood supply of liver is reduced
20. Select the features of sigmoid bowel in children:
1. short
2. not mobile
3. under 5 years is disposed highly
4. under 5 years is disposed low
5. has a large diameter
21. What is the physiological volume of stomach at birth?
1. 50 ml
2. 30 ml
3. 7 ml
4. 3 ml
5. 10 ml
22. What are the reasons of appearance in yang children rectal prolapse?
1. weak fixing of mucous membrane and good development of submucous layer
57
2. sufficient fixing of mucous membrane and weak development of submucous
layer
3. sufficient fixing of mucous membrane and good development of submucous
layer
4. weak fixing of mucous membrane and weak development of submucous layer
5. relative long rectum
23. From what age is a determined size of liver by Kurlov’s method?
1. from one year
2. from 5-7 years
3. from 3 years
4. from birth
5. from 2 years
24. Which symptom characterizes malabsorption syndrome?
1. polyfaecalia
2. constipation
3. flatulence
4. increase of mass of body
5. polyuria
25. In healthy children the lower edge of liver comes from a costal arch on midclavicular under
the next age:
1. 3 years
2. 7 years
3. 4 years
4. 12 years
5. 1 year
26. Peculiarities of ceacum in new-born are the next:
1. has a funnel-shaped form
2. almost immobile
3. located low
4. the entrance in an appendix is closed by a valve
5. dense on consistency
27. What disease of organs of digestion connects with "early" stomach-aches?
1. gastritis
2. duodenitis
3. esophagitis
4. pancreatitis
5. cholecystitis
28. What disease of organs of digestion connects with "late" stomach-aches?
1. esophagitis
2. gastritis
3. pancreatitis
4. duodenal ulcer
5. hepatitis
29. What is characteristic for "meconium"?
1. description of excrements of child on the natural feeding
2. description of excrements of child on the artificial feeding
3. "first-born" excrements
4. description of excrements at gastric bleeding
5. description of excrements of child with dyspepsia
30. What pathological states does dilatation of veins on frontal abdominal wall appear at?
1. pancreatitis
2. intestinal infection
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3. duodenal ulcer
4. portal hypertension
5. hepatitis
31. What character of vomiting is characteristic for pylorostenosis in children?
1. permanent "flow out" from an oral cavity
2. vomiting by a "fountain" after each feeding
3. periodic vomiting after feeding
4. vomiting at overfeeding
5. hematemesis
32. What are the features of mucous membrane of small intestine in children?
1. poor vascularity
2. insufficient permeability of mucous
3. thick mucous membrane
4. high permeability of mucous
5. poor innervation
33. What character of excrements is typical for salmonellosis?
1. «raspberry jelly»
2. yellow
3. green
4. melena
5. «rice-water»
34. What character of excrements is typical for dysentery?
1. melena
2. steatorrhea
3. with admixture of blood
4. watery
5. retention of stool
35. What symptom is not characteristic in children with the diseases of biliary tract?
1. Orthner’s symptom
2. phrenicus-symptom
3. symptom of bowl (Philisofov’s)
4. Kerh’s symptom
5. Murphy’s symptom
36. What syndrome does belong to the violation of the hepatobiliary system?
1. syndrome of cytolisis
2. syndrome of cholestasis
3. malabsorption syndrome
4. syndrome of hepatic-cellular insufficiency
5. syndrome of inflammation
37. What symptom is characteristic for the syndrome of "acute abdomen"?
1. Kerh’s symptom
2. Orthner’s symptom
3. Boas’ symptom
4. Schetkin – Blumberg’s symptom
5. Murphy’s symptom
38. What volume of stomach is in 12 months old child?
1. 100 ml
2. 300 ml
3. 500 ml
4. 800 ml
5. 700 ml
39. Ratio between length of intestine and length of body in new-born is:
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1. 2:1
2. 5,4:1
3. 1:1
4. 8,3:1
5. 3:1
40. What features of intestinal microflora are there in new-born?
1. E.coli prevails
2. cocci prevails
3. lactobacteria prevails
4. mycotic flora prevails
5. bifidobacteria prevails
41. Physiological hypersalivation arises in infant children in age:
1. 1-3 months
2. 2-4 months
3. 3-6 months
4. 6-9 months
5. 9-12 months
42. What anatomic-physiological features of oral cavity in children is an adaptation to the act of
suction?
1. big tongue
2. dry mucous membrane
3. increased secretion of saliva
4. thin mucous membrane
5. increased blood supply of mucous membrane
43. Length of esophagus at new-born in relation to length of body makes:
1. 1/2 + 6,3 cm
2. 1/3 + 6,3 cm
3. 1/4+ 6,3 cm
4. 1/5 + 6,3 cm
5. 1/6 + 6,3 cm
44. Form of stomach in new-born is:
1. retort-shaped
2. oval
3. pear-shaped
4. flat
5. there is no certain form
45. Reasons of regurgitations in healthy new-born:
1. horizontal position of stomach
2. insufficient development of cardial part of stomach
3. aerophagia
4. overfeeding
5. all of the above enumerated
46. The reasons of development of invagination of intestine in yang children are the following,
except for:
1. big length of intestine
2. increased mobility of intestine
3. presence of antiperistaltic movements
4. high length of stuffing-box
5. retrocaecal location of appendix
47. During superficial palpation of stomach such symptoms are found out, except for:
1. tension of muscles of frontal abdominal wall
2. divergence of muscle rectus
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3. presence of hernia
4. increased mobility of intestine
5. hypotonia of muscles of abdominal press
48. Mayo-Robson’s point is the pain point:
1. of gall-bladder
2. of body of pancreas
3. of tail of pancreas
4. of head of pancreas
5. of appendix
49. Cholecystitis in children accompanies with the next symptom:
1. Mendel’s
2. Orthner’s
3. Rovsing’s
4. Schotkin-Blumberg’s
5. Kerning’s
50. McBurney’s point is situated:
1. on the middle of right costal arch
2. on the middle of left costal arch
3. on 2/3 distance from an umbilicus to the middle of the left costal arch
4. on 2/3 distance from an umbilicus to the middle of the right ilium
5. all transferred is incorrect
51. During examination of the digestive system in 2 years old boy doctor reveal expressed
tympanic sound above the surface of stomach. What is the possible reason of this?
1. peritonitis
2. colitis
3. enteritis
4. appendicitis
5. flatulence
52. In 10 years old boy present during 2 years pain in an epygastria after eating; heartburn, sour
eructation. What possible reason of these symptoms?
1. chronic cholecystitis
2. chronic hepatitis
3. chronic pancreatitis
4. biliary dyskinesia
5. chronic gastritis
53. A boy has complaints about weakness, often headaches. At examination is present “vascular
stars» on a skin, joundies of skin and sclera, augmentation of liver and spleen. What disease is
possible in child?
1. chronic gastritis
2. chronic cholesystitis
3. billiary dyskinesia
4. chronic hepatitis
5. hemolytic jaundice
54. What violation of the digestive system in new-born child can be accompanied by fountain
vomiting after each feeding, with considerable loss of mass of body?
1. tracheo-esophageal fistula
2. atresia of esophagus
3. pylorospasm
4. congenital esophagitis
5. pylorostenosis
55. Malabsorption syndrome is characterized by:
1. diarrhea with polyfaecalia
61
2. polyphagia
3. nausea and vomiting
4. jaundice
5. melena
56. The 8 years old child has the reddish-yellow color of skin and mucous, augmentation of liver,
dark urine, periodically decolorated excrements, in a blood increasing of direct and indirect
bilirubin is exposed. What type of icterus is in this child?
1. mechanical
2. hemolytic
3. conjugated
4. parenchimatous
5. exogenous
57. Position of sick child in a bed is forced, with the legs pressed resulted to the abdomen; the
face is full of suffering (face of Hippocrates), vomiting, retention of stool and gases; abdomen is
flat, as a board, painful at palpation, the muscles of frontal abdominal wall are tense; positive
Shchetkin-Blumberg’s symptom. What is a probable syndrome in this child?
1. gastroenterocolitis
2. «acute abdomen»
3. malabsorption
4. hepatic failure
5. pylorostenosis
Section XI
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features of the urinary system in children, method of
examination. Semiotics of violation of the urinary system
1. What week of intrauterine development the process of urine formation does start?
1. 1
2. 5
3. 9
4. 11
5. 22
2. What age is the lobular structure of kidneys saved to?
1. to 1 year
2. to 6 months
3. to 3 years
4. to 5 years
5. to 6 years
3. What age kidneys are lower, than in adults?
1. to 6 months
2. to 2 years
3. to 10 years
4. to 3 years
5. to 7-8 years
4. Why in yang children relative density of urine is low?
1. insufficient function of capsule
2. insufficient function of proximal tubules
3. insufficient function of distal tubules
4. insufficient function of collective tubes
5. insufficient function of loop of Henle
5. Mass of a kidney in new-born in corporation with body mass makes:
62
1. 1/50 from mass of body
6. What function is carried out by the loop of Henle?
1. obligatory reabsorption
2. facultative reabsorption
3. function of asidogenesis
4. filtration
5. function of osmotic concentration
7. What is the main place of filtration of protein in kidneys?
1. Boumen’s capsule
2. epithelium of tubules
3. basal membrane of capsule
4. collective tubes
5. loop of Henle
8. What index does characterize function of filtration in kidneys?
1. osmolarity of the urine
2. clearence on endogenous creatinin
3. serum protein and albumin
4. urea of blood
5. proteinuria
9. What changes are characteristic for haematuria?
1. leucocyturia
2. proteinuria
3. cylinderuria
4. macrohaematuria
5. erythrosytosis
10. What changes in the urine are characteristic for infectious inflammation in kidneys?
1. leucocyturia
2. proteinuria
3. cylinderuria
4. macrohaematuria
5. uraturia
11. Choose the normal indexes of Nechiporenko’s test in boys:
1. erythrocytes < 1000, leucocytes < 2000
12. Daily amount of the urine in 1 year old child is:
1. 600 ml
2. 1000 ml
3. 1200 ml
4. 300 ml
5. 100 ml
13. Normal McKlur-Oldridge test in yang children:
1. 10-20 min.
2. 30-40 min.
3. 20-25 min.
4. 5-10 min.
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5. 1-5 min.
14. Characteristic symptoms at glomerulonephritis are the next, except for:
1. bilateral back pain
2. edema
3. blood hypotension
4. erythrocyuria
5. blood hypertension
15. Which urine analysis estimates the secretion and concentration function of kidneys?
1. Zimnitsky’s test
2. Nechiporenko’s test
3. daily proteinuria
4. microalbuminuria
5. bacteriological research of urine
16. Relative density (specific gravity) of urine in 10 years old child:
1. 1002- 1004
2. 1010 - 1017
3. 1011 - 1025
4. 1012 - 1020
5. 1005 - 1035
17. What features of structure of kidneys are there in an infant?
1. nephron is well differentiated
2. cortical layer is well developed
3. connective tissue is well expressed
4. kidneys have lobular structure
5. loop of Henle is well developed
18. Volume of bladder in 10 years old child in ml is:
1. 50 ml
2. 100 ml
3. 250 ml
4. 400 ml
5. 500 ml
19. What structure of ureter in child's age in comparison with adults:
1. diameter of ureter is relative less
2. relative short with numerous bends
3. relative long with numerous bends
4. more straight
5. wider than in adults
20 What formula is it possible to count daily amount of urine in children by?
1. 600+100(n-1)
2. n х 80
3. 200x(n+10)
4. 100х(n-3)
5. 90 + 2n
21. What is the frequency of urination in new-born child?
1. 10-15 times per day
22. Daily amount of urine in 10 years old child (in ml):
1. 600 – 700 ml.
2. 900 – 1000 ml
64
3. 1100 – 1200 ml
4. 1100 – 1300 ml
5. 1400-1500 ml
23. The structure of nephron becomes like in adult after:
1. 1 years
2. 5 years
3. 10 years
4. 13-15 years
5. 7 years
24. For the diagnostics of latent edema is used:
1. test Tiffno
2. Shalkov’s test
3. McKlur-Oldridge test
4. pinch test
5. QD test
25. Daily amount of the urine in 3 years old child is:
1. 600 ml
2. 700 ml
3. 800 ml
4. 900 ml
5. 1000 ml
26. Capacity of bladder in 1 year old child is:
1. 50 ml
2. 70 ml
3. 100 ml
4. 150 ml
5. 20 ml
27. What disease is accompanied by polyuria?
1. urethritis
2. glomerulonephritis
3. pyelonephritis
4. diabetes mellitus
5. cystitis
28. Under "olyguria" they understand:
1. increase of daily amount of urine
2. decrease of daily amount of urine
3. violation of rhythm of urination
4. predominance of night diuresis above day-time one
5. predominance of daily diuresis above night-time
29. Under "nocturia" they understand:
3. decrease of concentration function of kidneys
4. increase of concentration function of kidneys
30. Under "polyuria" they understand:
1. decrease of daily amount of urine
5. decrease of concentration function of kidneys
31. Ratio of thickness of cortical and medullar layers of kidneys in new-born makes:
65
1. 1:2
2. 1:3
3. 1:4
4. 1:5
5. 1:10
32. Mass of kidneys in new-born child in relation to mass of body makes:
1. 1:50
2. 1:80
3. 1:100
4. 1:150
5. 1:200
33. Specific gravity (relative density) of urine in new-born child is:
1. 1006-1012
2. 1002-1006
3. 1012-1020
4. 1020-1025
5. 1025-1030
34. That does not answer to the anatomic features of kidneys in new-born:
1. relative bigger than in adults
2. lobular structure
3. relative high location
4. weak fixation
5. underdevelopment of cortical layer
35. Nechiporenko’s test helps to display:
1. concentration function of kidneys
2. daily volume of urine
3. daily proteinuria
4. clearence of creatinin
5. leucocyturia in 1 ml
36. The uric acid infarction of kidneys is observed at:
2. pyelonephritis
3. congenital anomalies of urinary system
4. urolithiasis
5. transitory conditions in healthy new-born
37. The low indexes of glomerular filtration in new-born are conditioned by:
1. small size of glomerule
2. relative low hydrostatical pressure
3. structure of visceral layer of capsule from a cube epithelium
4. additional loading after stopping of function of placenta
5. all of the above
38. What part of nephron does realize reabsorption of amino acid and proteins from primary
urine?
1. glomerule
2. proximal tubules
3. distal tubules
4. loop of Henle
5. collective tubes
39. What part of nephron does realize excretion of antibiotics?
1. glomerule
2. proximal tubules
3. distal tubules
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4. loop of Henle
5. collective tubes
40. McKlur-Oldridge test is used for the diagnostics of:
1. latent edema
2. latent spasmophylia
3. latent hematuria
4. latent bacteriuria
5. latent leucocyturia
41. Polyuria is observed at:
1. neurogenic polydipsia
2. diabetes insipidus
3. diabetes mellitus
4. chronic kidney failure
5. all of the above
42. Violation of glomerular filtration is possible at the next syndromes, except for:
1. chronic kidney failure
2. cystitis
4. acute kidney failure
5. urolithiasis
43. Syndrome of glomerulonephritis has the next displays in the routine urine analysis, except
for:
1. macrohematuria
2. proteinuria
3. cylinderuria
4. pyuria
5. microhematuria
44. Syndrome of pyelonephritis has the next displays in the routine urine analysis, except for:
1. macrohematuria
2. bacteriuria
3. leucocyturia
4. pyuria
5. epitheliuria
45. The clinical displays of acute kidney failure are the next:
1. olyguria
2. anuria
3. nausea and vomiting
4. thirst
5. all of the above enumerated
46. The laboratory displays of chronic kidney failure are the next:
1. polyuria
2. nocturia
3. hypostenuria
4. azotemia
5. all of the above
47. The clinical displays of chronic kidney failure are the next, except for:
1. general weakness
2. polydipsia (thirst)
3. headache
4. polyuria
5. smell of acetone from an oral cavity
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Section XII
Theme. Anatomic-physiological features of the endocrine system, method of examination,
semiotics of affection
1. The characteristic feature of appearance at congenital hypothyroidism:

1. narrowed eye slits
2. edema of face and tongue
3. hypertelorism
4. broad nose bridge
5. all answers are correct
2. It is characteristic for hypothyroidism:
1. hyperactivity of a child
2. losing mass of body
3. somnolence
4. high mental development
5. bulimia
3. Insulin regulates:
1. level of blood lipids
2. level of blood glucose
3. level of blood potassium
4. level of blood albumins
5. level of blood globulins
4. Specify the most characteristic symptom of hypothyroidism:
1. gigantism
2. edema in the legs
3. dense edema of face, dorsal hands and feet
4. exophthalmia
5. late dentition
5. Basic signs of manifest diabetes mellitus are:
1. polyuria
2. hyperglycemia
3. polydipsia
4. polyphagia
6. Name the basic clinical symptoms of congenital hypothyroidism in children:
1. dryness of skin
2. mental underdevelopment
3. dense edema
4. somnolence
7. What cells of pancreas do produce insulin?
1. capillary endothelium
2. alpha-cells
3. cells of duct of pancreas
4. beta-cells
5. delta-cells
8. Specify the symptom of Stelwag:
1. rare blinking of eyelids
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2. tremor of the closed eyelids
3. exophthalmia
4. violation of convergence
5. «angry» look
9. Hyperglycemic coma is characterized by the following symptoms, except for:
1. suddenly appearance
2. convulsive syndrome
3. shallow breathing
4. smell of acetone from the mouth
5. hyperemia of cheeks
10. There are the following symptoms at the Adisson’s illness, except for:
1. hyperpygmentation
2. obesity
3. vomiting
4. diarrhea
5. low blood pressure
11. The deficit of iodine in an organism can call the next violation, except for:
1. abnormal synthesis of thyroxin
2. metabolic dysfunction
3. abnormal synthesis of T3
4. hyperplasia of thyroid gland
5. tachycardia
12. The following symptoms belong to the basic displays of diabetes mellitus, except of:
1. hyperglycemia
2. glucosuria
3. olyguria
4. polyuria
5. polyphagia
13. The functional antagonist of insulin is:
1. TTH
2. androgens
3. cortisol
4. glucagon
5. aldosteron
14. Cushing’s syndrome develops because of:
1. tumor of thymus
2. long treatment by cytostatics
3. low secretion of corticotropin
4. affection of medullar matter of adrenal gland
5. primary violation in cortical matter of adrenal gland
15. What hormone determines the level of metabolism in an organism?
1. ACTH
2. thyroxin
3. cortisol
4. vasopressin
5. MSG
16. Which hormone stimulates growth and function of thyroid gland?
1. somatotropin
2. corticotropin
3. thyrotropin
4. insulin
5. calcitonin
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17. What hormone is produced by beta-cells of pancreas?
1. glucagon
2. insulin
3. somatostatin
4. thyroxin
5. somatomedin
18. What hormone violation secretion does diabetes insipidus develop at?
1. glucagon
2. insulin
3. vasopressin
4. thyroxin
5. somatostatin
19. Violation of what endocrine gland results in development of gigantism?
1. pancreas
2. thyroid gland
3. pituitary body
4. sexual glands
5. thymus
20. What hormone is responsible for metabolism of calcium in an organism?
1. insulin
2. adrenalin
3. thyrocalcitonin
4. cortisol
5. thyroxin
21. In which age the histological structure of thyroid gland is completed?
1. in 4 years
2. in 6 years
3. in 1 year
4. in 2 years
5. in 12-15 years
22. What hormone of pituitary body controls the level of hormones of adrenal glands?
1. corticitropin
2. TTH
3. growth hormone
4. vasopressin
5. oxytocin
23. What hormone is produced by b-cells of pancreas?
1. glucagon
2. insulin
3. somatostatin
4. thyroxin
5. triiodthyronine
24. What hormone is produced by Д-cells of pancreas?
1. glucagon
2. insulin
3. somatostatin
4. thyroxin
5. somatomedin
25. At the low of synthesis of hormone Т4 develops:
1. hyperthyroidism
2. gigantism
3. hypothyroidism
70
4. nanism
5. hypogonadism
26. What hormones are synthesized by the posterior lobe of pituitary body?
1. vasopressin, oxytocin
2. MSH
3. GH, ACTH
4. TTH, MSH
5. somatotropin, GH
27. What hormone is synthesized by the middle lobe of pituitary body?
1. vasopressin, oxytocin
2. MSH
3. GH, ACTH
4. TTH, MSH
5. somatotropin, GH
28. Function of b-cells of thyroid glands begins:
1. on the 1 month of intrauterine development
29. Which hormone deficiency does lead to the development of nanism?
1. ACTH
2. somatotropin
3. thyrotropin
4. melanotropin
5. somatostatin
30. Violation of secretion of which hormone does Cushing’s syndrome develop at?
1. somatostatin
2. somatotropin
3. thyrotropin
4. melanotropin
5. corticotropin
31. What hormones are produced in the cortical layer of adrenal gland?
1. adrenaline, noradrenaline
2. adrenaline, aldosterone
3. glucocorticoids
4. mineralocorticoids
5. glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgens
32. What hormones are produced in medullar matter of adrenal gland?
1. adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine
2. adrenaline, aldosterone
3. glucocorticoids
4. mineralocorticoids
5. glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgens
33. Mechanism of action of parathormon?
1. increased absorption of calcium in an intestine
2. decreased absorption of calcium in an intestine
3. increased urinary excretion of calcium
4. increased leaching of calcium from bones
5. decreased urinary excretion of phosphorus
34. Fasting blood glucose level in healthy children:
1. 6,6-8,5 mmol/l
71
2. 7,4- 10,2 mmol/l
3. 3,3-5,5 mmol/l
4. 10,0-15,8 mmol/l
5. 2,1-3,4 mmol/l
35. The age of appearance of the secondary sexual characteristics in boys is:
1. 7 years
2. 8 years
3. 9 years
4. 10-11 years
5. 12 years
36. Specify the Graefe symptom:
1. wide opening of eye slits
2. brilliance of eyes
3. rare blinking
4. backlog of the upper eyelid at the look down
5. backlog of the lower eyelid at the look up
Section XIII
Theme. Anatomo-physiological features, method of examination and semiotics of affection of
system of blood and immune system in children
1. What month of intrauterine development medullar hematopoiesis begins on?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6
5. 9-10
2. Basic organ of hematopoiesis in postnatal period is:
1. spleen
2. liver
3. lymph nodes
4. bone marrow
5. reticular formation
3. Basic organ of hematopoiesis in prenatal period is:
1. spleen
2. placenta
3. liver
4. bone marrow
5. lymphatic glands
4. Indexes of red blood in new-born children in the first hours after birth:
1. Hв -120-140 g/l, Er. – 4.0-5.0 T/l
2. Hв 180-240 g/l, Er. – 5.0-7.0 T/l
3. Hв 110-120 g/l, Er. – 3.0-3.5 T/l
4. Hв 70-80 g/l, Er. – 2.7-3.0 T/l
5. Hв 260-280 g/l, Er. – 9.0-10.0,1 T/l
5. Amount of leucocytes in the peripheral blood of children of the first 5 days of life:
1. 15-20 G/l
2. 5-6 G/l
3. 8-10 G/l
4. 30-40 G/l
5. 3-4 G/l
6. New-born children have leucocyte count on the 5-6 day of life:
72
1. neutrophils – 60%, lymphocytes - 30%
7. Terms of second physiological decussation of lymphocytes and neutrophils:
1. 4-5 days
2. 1-2 years
3. 5-6 years
4. 7 years
5. 10 years
8. Specify the amount of eosinophils in healthy children (in %):
1. 0
2. 0-5
3. 3-7
4. 5-10
5. 6-8
9. What indexes of red blood does testify of anaemia in child of early age?
1. Er.- 4,2 T/l, Hв -132 g/l
2. Er.- 3,8 • T/l, Hв -117 g/l
3. Er.- 3,0 T/l, Hв -97 g/l
4. Er.- 3,5 T/l, Hв -112 g/l
5. Er.- 5,1 • T/l, Hв -146 g/l
10. Neutrophilia is characteristic for:
1. leucosis
2. bacterial inflammatory processes
3. viral infections
4. parasitic diseases
5. allergic diseases
11. The following changes of white blood are the pathological in children:
1. leucopenia
2. presents of lymphoblasts
3. presents of myeloblasts
4. eosinophilia
5. all of the above
12. The reasons of hemolythic disease are the following, except for:
1. action of hemolythic toxins
2. incompatible blood transfusion
3. deficiency of the vitamin В12
4. deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatdehydrogenase
5. incompatibility of a mother and a child by rhesus-factor
13. Basic functions of blood system are the next, except for:
1. respiratory
2. absorption
3. protective
4. homeostatic
5. metabolic
14. Acute myeloblastic leucosis is characterized by the presents in peripherial blood the next
cells:
1. lymphoblasts
2. stab neutrophils
3. segmented neutrophils
73
4. myeloblasts
5. juvenile neutrophils
15. Eosinophilia is characteristic for the next syndromes, except for:
1. pneumonia
2. helmintic disease
3. allergic dermatitis
4. respiratory allergy
5. bronchial asthma
16. Hyperchromic anemia is the next:
1. hemolytic
2. posthemorrhagic
3. iron deficient
4. protein deficient
5. В12 deficient
17. Term of the first decussation of neutrophils and lymphocytes is the next:
1. 5-6 years
2. 5-6 months
3. 5-6 weeks
4. 5-6 days
5. 5-6 hours
18. Augmentation of bronchopulmonal lymph nodes can be reviled by the next methods, except
for:
1. Kerning’s sign
2. Filisofov’s bowl sign
3. Koranyi’s symptom
4. Arkavin’s symptom
5. Maslov’s symptom
19. It is characteristic for erythrocytes in newborn children, except for:
1. anysocytosis
2. polychromatophylia
3. microcytosis
4. contents of fetal hemoglobin
5. reticulocytosis
20. What are the haematological signs of В12 deficient anaemia?
1. macrocytosis
2. anysocytosis
3. hyperchromia
4. reticulocytos
5. all of the above
21. Content of fetal haemoglobin in a blood to the moment of birth:
1. 20%
2. 40%
3. 60%
4. 80%
5. 100%
22. Neutrophylia with shift to the left is characteristic for:
1. intestinal gelmintic invasion
2. viral infection
3. bacterial infection
4. fungal deseases
5. allergic diseases
23. The tests for study capillary wall resistance are the next, except for:
74
1. McClur-Oldridge test
2. cuff test
3. pinch test
4. tourniquet test
5. Nesterov’s test
24. What type of hemorrhagic elements is observed at haemophilia A?
1. hematoma
2. petechia
3. purpura
4. mixed type
5. angioma
25. What type of hemorrhagic elements is observed at hemorrhagic vasculitis?
1. purpura
2. petechia
3. hematoma
4. mixed type
5. angioma
26. What type of hemorrhagic elements is characteristic for trombocytopenia?
1. purpura
2. petechia
3. hematoma
4. mixed type
5. angioma
27. In what terms of intrauterine development does the hepatic type of hemopoiesis change on
bone-marrow type?
1. 1-2 months
2. 3-4 months
3. 6-9 months
4. 5-6 months
5. does not change
28. An anaemic syndrome is characterized by the following signs, except for:
1. pallor of skin
2. ascitis
3. decrease of haemoglobin
4. pallor of mucous membranes
5. weakness
29. The augmentation of spleen in children is observed at the next syndromes, except for:
1. leucosis
2. anaemia
3. sepsis
4. encephalitis
5. hemolytic icterus
30. Contents of trombocytes in the peripheral blood in children (G/l):
1. 100-150
2. 300-350
3. 180-350
4. 250-300
5. 50-100
31. What is "physiological anaemia"?
1. the girls of puberty period have anaemia
2. anaemia in the first days of life
3. exhaustion of supplies of iron in the second, third month of life
75
4. exhaustion of supplies of iron in the fifth, sixth month of life
5. exhaustion of supplies of iron in the second year of life
32. The amount of leucocytes makes in new-born 18-20 T/l on:
1. 1-2 day
2. 7-9 day
3. 3-5 day
4. 5-7 day
5. 10 day
33. Color index in neonate is:
1. 0.8
2. 0.9
3. 1.0
4. 1.2
5. 0.7
34. Augmentation of the occipital lymph nodes is characteristic for:
1. flu
2. scarlet fever
3. rubella
4. measles
5. laryngitis
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State Establishment “Dnipropetrovsk medical academy

Ratified on the department’s meeting

Date: 31.08.2020 Protocol № 1

The test base on “Anatomic and physiological

Discipline: Propaedeutics of Pediatrics

Year: 3 Semester: V Speciality: General medicine

1. Perinatal period includes the following periods, except for:

1. Criteria of maturity of new-born:

1. Buzz (separate sounds) appears in children in age:

1. Terms of closing of large fontanel:

1. In what period of pregnancy does the active synthesis of surfactant begin?

1. The characteristic feature of appearance at congenital hypothyroidism:

1. What month of intrauterine development medullar hematopoiesis begins on?

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