

35


Section-A (Physics) 7. A stone is thrown vertically downward with an

1. The de Broglie wavelength of a thermal electron initial velocity of 40 m/s from the top of a
at 27°C is . When the temperature is increased to building. If it reaches the ground with velocity
927°C, its de-Broglie wavelength will become: 60 m/s, then the height of the building is:
 (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 4 (2)
(1) 140 m (2) 80 m
 (3) 100 m (4) 120 m
(3) (4) 2
8. A concave lens of focal length, 25 cm is
2. The ratio of the radii of two circular coils is 1 : 2.
sandwiched between two convex lenses, each of
The ratio of currents in the respective coils such
focal length, 40 cm. The power in dioptre of the
that the same magnetic moment is produced at
combined lens would be:
the centre of each coil:
(1) 9 (2) 1
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 0.01 (4) 55
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
9. A network of resistors is connected across a
3. The current in an inductor of self inductance 4 H
10 V battery with internal resistance of 1  as
changes from 4 A to 2 A in 1 second. The e.m.f.
shown in the circuit diagram. The equivalent
induced in the coil is:
resistance of the circuit is:
(1) 2 V (2) –4 V
(3) 8 V (4) –2 V 2 2
4. An electromagnetic wave is moving along
negative z(–z) direction and at any instant of time,
2
at a point, its electric field vector is . The
4 4
corresponding magnetic field at that point and
instant will be:
(Take c = 3 × 108 ms–1) 1
10V
(1) − (2)
(1)  (2) 
(3) − (4)
5. Two amplifiers of voltage gain 20 each, are (3)  (4) 
cascaded in series. If 0.01 volt a.c. input signal is
10. The correct statement about the variation of
applied across the first amplifier, the output a.c.
viscosity of fluid with increase in temperature:
signal of the second amplifier in volt is:
(1) viscosity of both liquids and gases increases
(1) 4.0 (2) 0.01
(2) viscosity of liquids increases
(3) 0.20 (4) 2.0
(3) viscosity of liquids decreases
6. A linearly polarised monochromatic light of (4) viscosity of gases decreases
intensity 10 lumen is incident on a polarizer. The 11. Let L1 and L2 be the orbital angular momentum of
angle between the direction of polarisation of the an electron in the first and second excited states of
light and that of the polariser such that the hydrogen atom, respectively. According to the
intensity of output light is 2.5 lumen is: Bohr's model, the ratio L1 : L2 is:
(1) 75° (2) 30° (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 45° (4) 60° (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 2

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36

12. During simple harmonic motion of a body, the


(1) (2)
energy at the extreme positions is:
(1) is always zero
(2) purely kinetic (3) (4)
(3) purely potential
(4) both kinetic and potential 16.
13. The output of the logic circuit shown is equivalent
Q
R to a/an:
(1) NOR gate (2) AND gate
P  (3) NAND gate (4) OR gate
 S 17. The plot of current I flowing through a conductor
O versus the applied voltage V across the ends of a
conductor is:
When a body of mass 'm' just begins to slide as
shown, match list-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(a) Normal reaction (i) P (1) (2)

(b) Frictional force (fS) (ii) Q

(c) Weight (mg) (iii) R
(d) mgsin (iv) S
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(3) (4)
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) 18. The value of resistance for the colour code of the
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) given resistor is:
14. Twelve point charges each of charge q coulomb
are placed at the circumference of a circle of
radius r with equal angular spacing. If one of the
charges is removed, the net electric field (in N/C)
at the centre of the circle is : (0 – permittivity of (1) (470 ± 47) k (2) (360 ± 36) k
free space)
(3) (360 ± 18) k (4) (36 ± 36) k
(1) (2) zero 19. An inductor coil of self inductance 10 H carries a

current of 1 A. The magnetic field energy stored in
(3) (4) the coil is:
 
15. A block of mass m is moving with initial velocity u (1) 2.5 J (2) 20 J
(3) 5 J (4) 10 J
towards a stationary spring of stiffness constant k
20. The dimensions of mutual inductance (M) are:
attached to the wall as shown in the figure.
(1) [MLT–2A2] (2) [M2L2T–2A2]
Maximum compression of the spring is:
(3) [ML2T–2A–2] (4) [M2LT–2A–2]
(The friction between the block and the surface is
21. A strong magnetic field is applied along the
negligible)
direction of velocity of an electron. The electron
u would move along:
(1) the original path (2) a helical path
m
(3) a circular path (4) a parabolic path

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37

22. In a photoelectric experiment, blue light is capable 27. A fluid of density  is flowing in a pipe of varying
of ejecting a photoelectron from a specific metal cross-sectional area as shown in the figure. The
while green light is not able to eject a
Bernoulli's equation for the motion becomes:
photoelectron. Ejection of photoelectrons is also
p2
possible using light of the colour:
(1) Red (2) Violet p1  2t
(3) Orange (4) Yellow  1t h2
h1
23. When the circular scale of a screw gauge
completes 2 rotations, it covers 1 mm over the
(1) +  = constant
pitch scale. The total number of the circular scale
divisions is 50. The least count of the screw gauge
(2)  + gh = constant
in metre is:
(1) 10–5 (2) 10–2 (3) p + gh = constant
(3) 10 –3
(4) 10 –4

(4) +  +  = constant
24. A beam of light is incident vertically on a glass
slab of thickness 1 cm, and refractive index 1.5. A 28. At some instant, the number of radioactive atoms
fraction 'A' is reflected from the front surface while in a sample is N0 and after time 't' the number
another fraction 'B' enters the slab and emerges
decreases to N. It is found that the graphical
after reflection from the back surface. Time delay
representation 'ln N' versus 't' along the y and x
between them is:
axes respectively is a straight line. Then the slope
(1) 5 × 10–10 s (2) 10–11 s
of this line is:
(3) 5 × 10–11 s (4) 10–10 s
(1) – (2) –1
25. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (3) ––1 (4) 
Reason (R). 29. A particle of mass 4 M kg at rest splits into two
Assertion (A): A standing bus suddenly
particles of mass M and 3 M. The ratio of the
accelerates. If there were no friction between the
feet of a passenger and the floor of the bus, the kinetic energies of mass M and 3M would be:
passenger would move back. (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1
Reason (R): In the absence of friction, the floor (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
of the bus would slip forward under the feet of the
30. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is given '+Q'
passenger.
In the light of the above statements, choose the charge to its outer surface. The electric potential at
most appropriate answer from the options given
a distance from the centre of the sphere will
below:
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true be:
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (1)

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) (2)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false 
26. A gas undergoes an isothermal process. The
(3)
specific heat capacity of the gas in the process is: 
(1) 0.5 (2) zero
(3) 1 (4) infinity (4)


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38

31. Rain is falling vertically downward with a speed of Section-B (Physics)


35 m/s. Wind starts blowing after some time with 36. The fraction of the original number of radioactive
a speed of 12 m/s in East to West direction. The
atoms that disintegrates (decays) during the
direction in which a boy standing at the place
average life time of a radioactive substance will be
should hold his umbrella is:
:
−  
(1)   w.r.t. wind
  (1)
  +
−
(2)   w.r.t. rain
  −
(2)
  +
−
(3)   w.r.t. wind
  −
(3)
−  
(4)   w.r.t. rain
 
(4)
32. The ratio of the moments of inertia of two spheres
about their diameter and having same mass and 37. Three capacitors, each of capacitance 0.3 F are
their radii in the ratio 1 : 2 is: connected in parallel. This combination is
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 connected with another capacitor of capacitance

(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1 0.1 F in series. Then the equivalent capacitance

of the combination is:
33. A string is wrapped along the rim of a wheel of
(1) 0.09 F (2) 0.1 F
moment of inertia 0.10 kg-m2 and radius 10 cm. If
(3) 0.01 F (4) 0.9 F
the string is now pulled by a force 10 N, then the
38. Given below are two statements:
wheel starts to rotate about its axis from rest. The
Statement-I: The magnetic field of circular
angular velocity of the wheel after 2 seconds is: current loop at very far away point on the axial
(1) 80 rad/s (2) 10 rad/s line varies with distance as like that of a magnetic
(3) 20 rad/s (4) 40 rad/s dipole.
34. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform Statement-II: The magnetic field due to
density, its acceleration due to gravity acting on a magnetic dipole varies inversely with the square of
body: the distance from the centre on the axial line.
(1) increases with increasing depth In light of above statements, choose the most

(2) is independent of the mass of the earth appropriate answer from the options given below:

(3) is independent of the mass of the body (1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
correct.
(4) increases with increasing altitude
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
35. If X, I, M and  are the wavelengths of X-rays,
correct.
infrared rays, microwaves and  rays respectively,
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
then:
incorrect.
(1) M < I < X <  (4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(2) X <  < M < I incorrect.
(3) X < I <  < M
(4)  < X < I < M

 E
 
39
 The correct statement, about the motion of the
S
39. ~ D1 D2 particle is:
D
T (1) The particle is accelerated throughout its

D4 motion.
D3
(2) The particle is accelerated continuously for
The circuit represents a full wave bridge rectifier
when switch S is open. The output voltage (V0) time t0 then moves with constant velocity.
pattern across RL when S is closed is: (3) The particle is at rest.
V0
(4) The particle moves at constant velocity up to a
time t0 and then stops.
(1)
42. The temperature at which the rms speed of atoms
t
in neon gas is equal to the rms speed of hydrogen
molecules at 15°C is:
V0
(Atomic mass of neon = 20.2 u, molecular mass
(2) of H2 = 2 u)
t (1) 2.9 K (2) 0.15 × 103 K
(3) 0.29 × 103 K (4) 2.9 × 103 K
V0
43. Air is pushed carefully into a soap bubble of

(3) radius r to double its radius. If the surface tension

of the soap solution is T, then work done in the
t
process is:
(1) 24 r2T (2) 4 r2T
(3) 8 r2T (4) 12 r2T
(4) 44. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
40. When a particle with charge +q is thrown with an Assertion (A): Gauss's law for magnetism states
initial velocity v towards another stationary charge
that the net magnetic flux through any closed
+Q, it is respelled back after reaching the nearest
surface is zero.
distance r from +Q. The closest distance that it
can reach if it is thrown with initial velocity 2v, is: Reason (R): The magnetic monopoles do not
exist. North and South poles occur in pairs,
(1) (2) (3) (4)
allowing vanishing net magnetic flux through the
41. The figure given below shows the displacement surface.
and time, (x-t) graph of particle moving along a In the light of the above statement, choose the

straight line: most appropriate answer from the options given

below:
x (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
to t (4) (A) is true but (R) is false

E 
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40

45. A monochromatic light of frequency 500 THz is 48. Two planets are in a circular orbit of radius R and

incident on the slits of a Young's double slit 4R about a star. At a specific time, the two planets
experiment. If the distance between the slits is 0.2 and the star are in a straight line. If the period of
mm and the screen is placed at a distance 1 m the closest planet in T, then the star and planets
from the slits, the width of 10 fringes will be: will again be in a straight line after a minimum
[THz = 1012 Hz] time:
(1) 15 mm
(1)
(2) 30 mm
(3) 3 mm (2) 2 T
(4) 1.5 mm
(3) 8 T
46. An a.c. source given by V = Vm sin t is
connected to a pure inductor L in a circuit and I m (4) (4)2 T
is the peak value of the ac current. The 49. A string of length l is fixed at both ends and is
instantaneous power supplied to the inductor is:
vibrating in second harmonic. The amplitude at
(1) −  antinode is 2 mm. The amplitude of a particle at a

(2) VmIm sin2(t) distance from the fixed end is:

(3) – VmIm sin2(t)
(1) 4 mm
(4) 
(2) mm
47. In a metre bridge experiment, the null point is at a
(3) mm
distance of 30 cm from A. If a resistance of 16 is
connected in parallel with resistance Y, the null (4) mm
point occurs at 50 cm from A. The value of the
50. The determination of the value of acceleration
resistance Y is:
due to gravity (g) by simple pendulum method
employs the formula,

= 

The expression for the relative error in the value

of 'g' is:
   
(1) =   − 
 

(1) 
   
(2) =   + 
 
(2) 
  
(3) = −
(3) 

  
(4)  (4) = +

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41
 Section-A (Chemistry) 55. Which of the following is not correct about
51. Match List-I with List-II :
postulates of kinetic molecular theory of
List-I List-II
gases?
(Monomers) (Polymers)
(1) Volume of the gas is due to the large
(a) Caprolactam (i) Bakelite
number of molecules of the gas.
(b) Ethylene glycol and (ii) Nylon 6,6
(2) Average kinetic energy of molecules is
Benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic
directly proportional to the absolute
acid
(c) Hexamethylenediamine (iii) Nylon-6 temperature of the gas.

and adipic acid (3) The molecules move randomly with different

(d) Phenol and (iv) Terylene speeds in different directions.

Formaldehyde (4) Pressure of the gas is due to the collision
Choose the correct answer from the options of molecules against the walls of the container.
given below : 56. The work done when 1 mole of a gas
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) expands reversibly and isothermally from
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) pressure of 5 atm to 1 atm at 300 K is
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(Given log 5 = 0.6989 and R = 8.314 J K –1 mol–1)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) 150 J (2) + 4014.6 J
52. Which of the following is the correct statement ?
(3) –4014.6 J (4) zero J
(1) Al+ is more stable than In+
57. LiF is sparingly soluble in water because it has
(2) Ga+ is more stable than Al+
(1) small electronegativity.
(3) Al+ is more stable than Ga+
(2) high lattice enthalpy.
(4) Ga+ is more stable than In+
53. Which one of the following statements is (3) low hydration enthalpy.
− (4) partial covalent character.
true about the structure of ion ?
58. What is the correct order for boiling points of the
(1) Out of the three C–O bonds, two are
following compounds ?
longer and one is shorter.
(2) It has three sigma and three -bonds. (1) BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3

(3) All three C-O bonds are equal in length (2) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3

with a bond order in between 1 and 2. (3) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(4) It can be explained by considering sp 3 (4) AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
hybridization. 59. A ferromagnetic substance becomes a permanent
54. Which one of the following electrons in the magnet when it is placed in a magnetic field
ground state will have least amount of because
energy? (1) domains are not affected by magnetic field.
(1) An electron in 2p orbital of carbon atom. (2) domains get randomly oriented.
(2) The electron of copper atom present in
(3) all the domains get oriented in the direction of
4s orbital.
magnetic field.
(3) The outermost electron in sodium atom.
(4) all the domains get oriented in the direction
(4) An electron in hydrogen atom.
opposite to the direction of magnetic field.

E 
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42

60. Which one is not a D-sugar ? 63. Match List-I with List-II :

CHO List-I List-II
H OH (a) Element which (i) Mn
(1) exhibits +3 oxidation
OH H
state only
CH2OH (b) Element which exhibits (ii) Zn
CHO more number of
H OH oxidation states
(2) (c) Element which is a (iii) Sc
H OH
reducing agent in its
CH2OH +2 oxidation state
CH2OH (d) Element which is not (iv) Cr
considered as a
C=O transition element
(3) H Choose the correct answer from the options
OH
given below :
CH2OH (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
CHO
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
HO H
(4) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
H OH
CH2OH (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
61. Match List-I with List-II :
64. Given below are two statements :
List-I List-II Statement - I : The product of reaction of
(Amines) (pKb values) phenol with bromine depends on the nature of
(a) N-methylmethanamine (i) 9.30 solvent.
(b) Ammonia (ii) 9.38 Statement - II : Reaction of phenol with
(c) N-methylaniline (iii) 4.75 bromine in CHCI3 gives monosubstituted bromo

(d) Benzenamine (iv) 3.27 derivative whereas reaction of phenol with

bromine water yields trisubstituted bromo
Choose the correct answer from the options
derivative of phenol.
given below :
In light of the above statements, choose the most
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) correct
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (2) Both Statement-I and Statement–II are
62. The number of bridging carbonyl groups in correct
[Co2(CO)8] and [Mn2(CO)10], respectively are (3) Both Statement-I and Statement–II are

(1) 2 and 2 incorrect

(4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(2) 2 and 4
incorrect
(3) 0 and 2
(4) 2 and 0

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43

65. Match List-I with List-II : 68. Which one of the following is the correct order of
List-I List-II decreasing bond enthalpies for the given species ?
(Example of (Nature of dispersion − −
(1)   
Colloidal medium and
− −
Systems) dispersed phase) (2)   

(a) Insecticide (i) Dispersion medium-liquid (3)   −

 −

spray Dispersed phase - solid

− −
(4)   
(b) Whipped (ii) Dispersion medium – gas
Cream Dispersed phase – liquid 69. The correct reaction among the following is
(c) Paint (iii) Dispersion medium– liquid Br Br
(1) + ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Dispersed phase – liquid
(d) Hair (iv) Dispersion medium– liquid
(2) 2CH3CH2Br ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3CH2CH2CH3
Cream Dispersed phase - gas
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) 2CH3CH2Br ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ CH3CH2CH2CH3
given below : Br
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (4) CH3CH2Br + 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

CH2CH2
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
66. The solubility product of BaSO 4 in water is 70. Given below are two statements :
1.5 × 10 . The molar solubility of BaSO4 in
–9
Statement-I : Aldehydes and ketones having at
0.1 M solution of Ba(NO3)2 is least one -hydrogen undergo aldol condensation
(1) 0.5 × 10 M –8
in the presence of dilute alkali as catalyst.
(2) 1.5 × 10–8 M
Statement-II : When aldol condensation is
(3) 1.0 × 10–8 M
(4) 2.0 × 10–8 M carried out between two different aldehydes, it is

67. The correct order of acid strength of the following called cross aldol condensation. Ketones do not

molecules is give this reaction.

(1) C2H5OH < H2O < CH3COOH < In light of the above statements, choose the most
OH appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
correct.
OH
(2) C2H5OH < H2O < < CH3COOH (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
OH incorrect.
(3) H2O < C2H5OH < < CH3COOH
(4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
incorrect.
OH
(4) H2O < < C2H5OH <

CH3COOH

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44

71. The incorrect statement among the following Choose the correct answer from the options

regarding food preservatives is given below :
(1) antioxidants used in wine are SO2 and (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

sulphites. (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2) antioxidants help in preserving the food (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

longer. (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

75.
(3) antioxidants react with oxygen with a slower
rate than food.
(4) sorbic acid and propanoic acid are good food
Alkali metals, though white, impart a characteristic
colour to the flame because of
(1) oxidation of metal in the presence of flame.

preservatives. (2) excitation of valence electrons.

72. One mole of sugar is dissolved in three moles of (3) gain of electrons,

water at 298 K. The relative lowering of vapour (4) excitation and coming back of valence

pressure is electrons to the original level.

(1) 0.20 (2) 0.50 76. Identify the set from the following sets in which all

(3) 0.33 (4) 0.25 species can exhibit disproportionation reactions.

− −
73. Match List-I with List-II : (1)
List-I List-II − − −
(2)
Elements Atomic radii (pm)
(a) O (i) 88 (3) − −

(b) C (ii) 74
− −
(4)
(c) B (iii) 66
(d) N (iv) 77 77. For the reaction, 2A → B. rate = k[A]2.
Choose the correct answer from the options If concentration of reactant is doubled, then the
given below : (a) rate of reaction will be doubled.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (b) rate constant will remain unchanged, however
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) rate of reaction is directly proportional to the
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) rate constant.
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (c) rate constant will change since rate of reaction
74. Match List-I with List-II : and rate constant are directly proportional to
List-I List-II each other.
(Compound) (Boiling Point in K) (d) rate of reaction will increase by four times.
(a) (i) 300.9 Identify the set of correct statements :
Choose the correct answer from the options
(b)
(ii) 282.5 given below :
(1) (a), (b) only
(c) (iii) 309.1
(2) (b), (d) only
(3) (c), (d) only
(4) (a), (c) only
(d) (iv) 341.9

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78. Match List-I with List-II : 80. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(Commercial name) (Chemical name)
(a) Separation of (i) Fractional
(a) Calgon (i) Sodium aluminium
aniline-water distillation
silicate (hydrated)
mixture (b) Permutit (ii) Sodium carbonate
(b) Separation of (ii) Distillation (c) Soap (iii) Sodium hexameta-
aniline-chloroform under reduced phosphate
(d) Washing soda (iv) Sodium stearate
mixture pressure
Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) Separation of (iii) Distillation given below :
glycerol from (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
spent-lye (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(d) Separation of (iv) Steam distillation
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
different fractions
81. Chlorine shows the bleaching action in the
of crude oil
presence of moisture due to the formation of
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) HOClO (2) H2O2
given below : (3) O (4) HOCl
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) 82. The product formed in the following reaction

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) sequence is

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

→

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

79. Match List-I with List-II : (2) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
List-I List-II
(4)
(a) 4.48 litres of (i) 0.2 moles
O2 at STP
(b) 12.022 × 1022 (ii) 12.044 × 1023 83. The three cells with their 
values are given
molecules molecules
below :
of H2O
Cells
(c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g
(a) Fe  Fe2+ Fe3+  Fe 0.404
(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP
(b) Fe  Fe  Fe , Fe
2+ 3+ 2+
 Pt 1.211
(Given – Molar volume of a gas at STP = 22.4 L)
(c) Fe  Fe3+ Fe3+, Fe2+  Pt 0.807
Choose the correct answer from the options
The standard Gibbs free energy change values for
given below :
three cells are, respectively
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(F represents charge on 1 mole of electrons)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (1) +2.424 F, +2.422 F, +2.421 F
(2) –0.808 F, –2.422 F, –2.421 F
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) –2.424 F, –2.422 F, –2.421 F
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) –1.212 F, –1.211 F, –0.807 F

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84. The increasing order of reactivity of the following 87. A student collected samples from two water

compounds towards acid catalysed dehydration is bodies A and B in a metro city. The biochemical
(a) CH3–CH2–OH oxygen demand for 'A' is 3 ppm while for B is
found to be 18 ppm. Which one of the following
is true?
(b) OH
(1) Both A and B are polluted.
(2) A is clean but B is polluted.
(c) (3) A is polluted but B is clean.
(4) Both A and B are clean.
88. Consider the following reaction taking place in
1 L capacity container at 300 K.
(d) CH3–C(CH3)2–OH
+ +
Choose the correct answer from the options
If one mole each of A and B are present initially
given below :
and at equilibrium 0.7 mol of C is formed, then
(1) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d) equilibrium constant (KC) for the reaction is
(2) (a) < (c) < (d) < (b) (1) 1.2 (2) 6.2
(3) (c) < (a) < (b) < (d) (3) 5.4 (4) 9.7
(4) (b) < (c) < (a) < (d) 
89.  for NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4,
85. The chain length of silicones can be controlled by 425.9 and 91.05 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. If
adding conductivity of 0.001028 mol L–1 acetic acid
(1) SiCl4 (2) (CH3)2SiCl2 solution is 4.95 × 10–5 S cm–1, find the degree of
(3) (CH3)3SiCl (4) CH3SiCl3 dissociation of the acetic acid solution
(1) 1.00 (2) 0.1233
Section-B (Chemistry) (3) 1.233 (4) 0.01233
86. The major products formed in the following 90. The compound obtained by addition of water to
an alkyne having more than two carbons, in
reaction are
presence of HgSO4 and dilute H2SO4 at 333 K is
(1) an aldehyde (2) an alcohol
O
+ HI ⎯⎯→ (3) a ketone (4) a vicinal diol
91. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : The Ellingham diagram provides
an idea about the feasibility of a reaction.
(1) Statement-II : The Ellingham explains the rate
of the reduction reactions.
In light of above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given
(2) below
(1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
correct.
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(3) correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(4) incorrect.

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92. The product(s) formed from the following reaction
is/are

(1) (2)

(1) RCH2COOH only

(2)
(3) (4)

(3) RCOOH and RCH2COOH

(4) RCOOH only
98. Which one of the following is the correct order of
93. Identify the pair of Lanthanoides with one strong
spin-only magnetic moment for the given
oxidant and one strong reductant. complexes?
(1) Yb(II), Eu(II) (2) Eu(IV), Lu(III) (1) [Fe(CN)6]3– > [Co(H2O6]2+ > [MnCl6]3–
(3) Ce(IV), Eu(II) (4) Ce(IV), Tb(IV)
(2) [MnCl6]3– > [Fe(CN)6]3– > [Co(H2O)6]2+
94. A monochromatic infrared range finder of power
1 mW emits photons with wavelength 1000 nm in (3) [MnCl6]3– > [Co(H2O)6]2+ > [Fe(CN)6]3–
0.1 second. The number of photons emitted in
(4) [Co(H2O)6]2+ > [MnCl6]3– > [Fe(CN)6]3–
0.1 second is
(Given : h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js, c = 3 × 108 ms–1 , 99. Which statement among the following is not
Avogadro number = 6.022 × 1023)
correct?
(1) 5 × 1014 (2) 30 × 1034 (1) Ferrimagnetism arises due to the alignment of
(3) 5 × 1011 (4) 30 × 1037
magnetic moments of the domains in the
95. The correct IUPAC name of the following substance in parallel and anti-parallel
compound is :- directions in unequal numbers.
(2) Replacing some silicon atoms by boron atoms
in crystal of silicon produces p-type

(1) 4-methylhex-3-en-2-one semiconductor.

(2) 4-ethylpent-3-en-2-one (3) Replacing some germanium atoms by

(3) 3-methylhex-3-en-4-one phosphorus atoms in crystal of germanium
(4) 2-ethylhex-3-en-4-one produces n-type semiconductor.
96. At 300 K, 250 mL of gas A at 1 bar pressure is (4) When conduction band and valence band
mixed with 500 mL of gas B at 2 bar pressure in a overlap, a semiconductor is obtained.
1.0 L flask. Gas A does not react with gas B. The
100. The plot of ln k vs for the following reaction
final pressure of the mixture is :
(1) 2.15 bar (2) 2.50 bar 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
(3) 1.25 bar (4) 1.00 bar gives a straight line with the slope of line equal to
97. The major product (P) formed in the following –1.0 × 104 K. Activation energy for the reaction in
reaction sequence is J mol–1 is
 (Given R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1)
(1) 4.0 × 10–2 (2) 8.3 × 10–4

(3) 8.3 × 104 (4) 4.0 × 102

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Section-A (Biology : Botany) Choose the correct answer from the options

101. Which one of the following structures is haploid in
given below:
its ploidy level?
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(1) Microspore Mother Cell
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c).(i), (d)-(iv)
(2) Protonemal cell of a moss
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) Primary Endospore Nucleus
107. The process of individuals of the same species
102. Select the correct statement related to the activity
that have come into the habitat from elsewhere
of cork cambium.
during the time period under consideration is
(1) The cork differentiated from cork cambium, is
impervious to water due to deposition of referred as :

tannins and resins. (1) Emigration (2) Competition

(2) Cuts the cells only on the outer side. (3) Immigration (4) Association
(3) Cuts the cells on inner as well as outer side. 108. Which of the following come under the "Evil
(4) The outer cells differentiate into phelloderm. Quartet"?
103. Which one of the following process is responsible (a) Habitat loss and fragmentation
for the release of N2 in the atmosphere? (b) Over-exploitation
(1) Ammonification (c) Alien species invasion
(2) Denitrification (d) Mortality
(3) Biological nitrogen fixation (e) Competition
(4) Industrial Nitrogen fixation Choose the correct answer from the options
104. DNA replication is semi-conservative in nature given below :
was experimentally proved in eukaryotes by :
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(1) Macleod and McCarty
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Meselson and Stahl
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Talyor and his colleagues
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) Hershey and Chase
109. Given below are two statements :
105. High dose of UV-B causes inflammation of cornea
Statement – I : Cellulose is a polymeric
and is called as :
polysaccharide.
(1) Colour-blindness Statement – II : The building blocks of cellulose
(2) Evening-blindness are glucose molecules.
(3) Snow-blindness In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) UV-blindness correct answer from the options given below :
106. Match List - I with List - II (1) Statement - I is incorrect but Statement –
List – I List - II II is correct
(a) ETS complex-l (i) Cyt bc1 (2) Both Statement - I and Statement – II are
(b) ETS complex-II (ii) Cyt a, a3 and correct
2 copper centres (3) Both Statement - I and Statement – II are
(c) ETS complex-Ill (iii) NADH incorrect
dehydrogenase (4) Statement - I is correct but
(d) ETS complex-IV (iv) Ubiquinone and Statement - II is incorrect
FADH
dehydrogenase

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110. The living differentiated cells, that lost the capacity 114. Identify the correct statements related to the
to divide anymore, can regain the capacity of androecium in the flower.
division under certain conditions. (a) The sterile stamens are called staminodes.
This phenomenon is termed as : (b) When stamens are attached to petals they are
(1) Maturation (2) Differentiation called epipetalous.
(3) Dedifferentiation (4) Redifferentiation (c) Monadelphy is seen in China-rose.
111. Match List - I with List - II (d) Polyadelphy is seen in Pea.
List-I List-II (e) Variation in the length of anther filaments is
(a) Haemophilia (i) Inborn error of seen in Mustard.
metabolism which
Choose the correct answer from the options
lacks an enzyme
given below :
that converts
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
phenylalanine
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
into tyrosine.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(b) Down's (ii) Sex-linked
(4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
recessive
115. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
Syndrome disorder, defect in
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
blood coagulation.
(c) Phenylketonuria (iii) Presence of Reason (R).
additional copy of Assertion (A) : The growth of multicellular
X-chromosome organism is due to mitosis.
(44+XXY) Reason (R) : Mitosis is also called as equational
(d) Klinefelter's (iv) Additional copy of division and it offers genetic stability.
Syndrome chromosome In the light of the above statements, choose the
number 21 correct answer from the options given below :
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
given below: (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) correct explanation of (A)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
112. Identify the cytochrome which acts as a mobile
116. Identify the correct set of statements with regard
carrier for the transfer of electrons between to properties of humus.
complex III and IV? (a) Highly resistant to microbial action.
(1) Cytochrome a3 (b) Dark coloured amorphous substance.
(2) Cytochrome b c1 (c) End product of detritus food chain.
(3) Cytochrome c (d) Reservoir of nutrients.
(4) Cytochrome a (e) Undergoes decomposition very fast.
113. Which one of the following is not a criterion of Choose the correct answer from the options given
genetic material? below :
(1) Should be able to express itself in the form of (1) (a), (b) and (e) only
Mendelian character. (2) (a) and (b) only
(2) Should be able to generate its replica. (3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) Should be stable chemically and structurally. (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) Should not provide the scope for changes for
evolution.

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117. The products of light reaction in photosynthesis 124. Removal of apical dominance by decapitation is

are: utilised for :
(1) ATP, NADPH, O2 and H2O (1) Early senescence
(2) ATP, NADPH and H2O (2) Hedge making
(3) ATP, NADPH and CO2 (3) Preparing weed-free lawns
(4) ATP, NADPH and O2 (4) Suppressing the activity of intercalary
118. Which one of the following experiments of meristem
Frederick Griffith resulted in the discovery of
125. Which of the following statements about facilitated
bacterial transformation?
(1) S-strain (heat killed) + R-strain (live) diffusion is incorrect?
→ injected in to Mice → Mice died (1) Porins are involved in this process.
(2) S-strain → injected in to Mice → Mice died (2) Movement of molecule occurs against the
(3) R-strain → injected in to Mice → Mice lived concentration gradient.
(4) S-strain (heat killed) → injected in to Mice (3) ATP is not required for this process,
Mice lived (4) Special proteins of the membrane help in this
119. Which hormone is used to induce immediate process.
stomatal closure in leaves? 126. Species Area relationship is described by the
(1) Gibberellin (2) Abscisic Acid following equation.
(3) Auxin (4) Cytokinin log S=log C+Z log A
120. Select the correct statements with respect to where Z is :
pleiotropism. (1) Species richness
(a) A gene is said to be pleiotropic if it affects (2) Slope of the line
more than one trait. (3) Y-intercept
(b) Phenylketonuria is an example of pleiotropy. (4) Area
(c) A condition where one gene has several 127. Genetically engineered insulin for human is
alleles is referred to as pleiotropism. produced from :
(d) A trait is said to be pleiotropic if several genes (1) Pseudomonas putida
control it. (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) Rhizobium meliloti
given below : (4) Escherichia coli
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only 128. Which of the following physical properties of
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (b) only water is/are responsible for providing water, the
121. Which of the following is the correct equation of high tensile strength and high capillarity during
exponential growth? ascent of sap in the plants?
(1) Nt = N0 e rpt
(2) Nt = N0 e rst
(1) Cohesion, adhesion and surface tension
(3) Nt = N0 e rt
(4) Nt = N0 e rnt
(2) Cohesion only
122. Which of the following plants possesses the (3) Adhesion and cohesion
placentation of ovules borne on central axis with (4) Surface tension and cohesion
no septa? 129. Choose the mismatched pair of leaf character with
(1) Pea (2) China-rose
its example :
(3) Primrose (4) Lemon
(1) Alternate phyllotaxy - China-rose
123. What will be the ploidy of endosperm of a seed
produced after crossing tetraploid female plant (2) Leaf tendril - Pea
with tetraploid male plant? (3) Opposite phyllotaxy - Calotropis
(1) Hexaploid (2) Diploid (4) Palmately compound - Alstonia
(3) Triploid (4) Pentaploid

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130. In prophase I of Meiosis, chromosomes start 134. Match List - I with List - II
pairing together and synapsis takes place. This List – I List – II
process occurs during which of the following (a) Cedrus (i) Pteridophyte
stage? (b) Adiantum (ii) Gymnosperm
(1) Diplotene (2) Leptotene (c) Sphagnum (iii) Liverwort
(3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene (d) Marchantia (iv) Moss
131. Given below are two statements : one is labelled Choose the correct answer from the options given
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as below :
Reason (R). (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Assertion (A) : Restriction enzyme is a type of (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
endonuclease.
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Reason (R) : Restriction enzyme cuts the two (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
strands of DNA at specific positions within the
135. Phloem sap in the plants mainly consists of:
DNA.
(1) fructose and sucrose
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) glucose and water
correct answer from the options given below :
(3) sucrose and water
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) fructose and water
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Section-B (Biology : Botany)
correct explanation of (A) 136. Which of the following bond is formed as a result
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the of reaction of carboxyl group of one amino acid
correct explanation of (A) with amino group of other amino acid with
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct elimination of water?
132. Axillary buds are derived from the activity of: (1) Hydrogen Bond
(1) Secondary meristem (2) Glycosidic Bond
(2) Apical meristem (3) Peptide Bond
(3) Intercalary meristem (4) Phosphodiester Bond
(4) Lateral meristem 137. Which of the following was proved by girdling
133. Given below are two statements : one is labelled experiment?
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (1) Symplastic movement of water occurs through
Reason (R). interconnected protoplast.
Assertion (A) : A father will never pass the gene (2) Xylem is responsible for uptake of water.
for haemophilia to his sons. (3) Phloem is responsible for translocation of food.
Reason (R) : Haemophilia is sex-linked (X- (4) Apoplastic movement of water occurs through
linked) recessive trait. intercellular spaces.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 138. Identify the fungi which do not belong to the
correct answer from the options given below : group of other fungi among the following.
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) Puffballs

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (2) Mushrooms
(3) Bracket Fungi
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Sac-fungi
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
139. The ratio of carbon dioxide fixation between C4
the correct explanation of (A)
plants and C3 plants is :
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1

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140. Following crops have been extensively cultivated
in CO2 rich atmosphere for higher yield :
(1) Carrots and Tomatoes
(2) Wheat and Sugar beet
(3) Tomatoes and Bell pepper
(4) Sugar beet and Cabbage
141. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled us
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In rDNA technology non
recombinants transformed bacteria grow on the
medium containing ampicillin as well as medium
containing tetracycline.
Reason (R) : Recombinant plasmids contain the
foreign DNA or gene of interest.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
142. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from
the ground to the top of the atmosphere is
measured in terms of :
(1) Swedberg units (2) Monomeric units
(3) Dobson units (4) Balton units
143. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Semiconservative replication was
experimentally proved by Mathew Meselson and
Franklin Stahl (1958).
Reason (R) : Meselon and Stahl used radioactive
isotope N and equilibrium density gradient
15
centrifugation technique.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the

correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
144. Which of the following are not correct regarding
decomposition of wastes?
(a) Low temperature inhibits decomposition.
(b) Warm and moist environment favours the
process.
(c) The process is anaerobic.
(d) It is slower if detritus is rich in proteins and
carbohydrates.
(e) Detritus is degraded into simpler inorganic
substances by fungal and bacterial enzymes.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) (c), (a) and (d) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (c), (d) and (e) only (4) (b) and (c) only
145. Which of the following is not a character of
collenchyma tissue?
(1) They occur in layers below epidermis in
dicotyledonous plants.
(2) They consist of cells with thick corners due to
cellulose deposition.
(3) They are usually dead and without protoplasts.
(4) They provide mechanical support to the
growing part of the plant.
146. Assuming that fur colour of an animal is dark,
range of colour shade and white. A cross is made
between a male (AABBCC) with dark fur colour
and a female (aabbcc) with white fur colour. What
would be the fur colour of F1 generation?
(1) Range of colour shade
(2) All dark colour
(3) All white colour
(4.) All intermediate colour
147. Which of the following pair of micronutrients
would help in the light phase of photosynthesis to
help in the reaction leading to oxygen evolution?
(1) Manganese and Molybdenum
(2) Molybdenum and Iron
(3) Manganese and Chlorine
(4) Zinc and Chlorine
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148. Which of the following set represents the correct Section - A (Biology : Zoology)
labelling of A, B, C and D with respect to the 151. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
given diagram? as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : With the help of several
ommatidia, a cockroach can perceive several
images of an object, ie, mosaic vision.
Reason (R) : Mosaic vision gives more sensitivity
(1) A-Seed Coat, B-Scutellum, but less resolution.
C-Endocarp, D-Mesocarp In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) A-Seed Coat, B-Scutellum most appropriate answer from the option given
C-Micropyle, D-Endocarp
below :
(3) A-Pericarp, B-Coleoptile
C-Endosperm, D-Scutellum (1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) A-Seed Coat, B-Cotyledon, (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
C-Endosperm, D-Hypocotyle correct explanation of (A)
149. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
correct explantation of (A)
Reason (R).
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Assertion (A) : The beginning of diplotene is
152. Inadequate supply of oxygen to heart muscles
recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal
complex and formation of X shaped structures leads to a symptom of acute chest pain. This
called chiasmata. disorder of the circulatory system is identified as :
Reason (R) : In oocytes of some vertebrates, (1) Cardiac arrest
diplotene can last for months or years. (2) Heart failure
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) Coronary Heart Disease
correct answer from the options given below :
(4) Angina pectoris
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
153. In Drosophila, the genes for color of body and
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
color of eyes are situated on _________.
correct explanation of (A)
(1) autosomes
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) not the
correct explanation of (A) (2) Y-chromosome

(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) X-chromosome

150. The construction of the first recombinant DNA (4) both the sex chromosomes
emerged from the possibility of linking a gene 154. An intestinal hormone that stimulates the
encoding antibiotic resistance with a native pancreas to release watery secretion that is rich in
plasmid of which of the following organism? bicarbonate ions :
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) Gastric Inhibitory Peptide
(2) Salmonella typhimurium (2) Enterokinin
(3) Secretin
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Cholecystokinin
(4) Escherichia coli

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155. The hormone releasing IUDs among the following 161. The term ‘blue Revolution’ is related with :

are : (1) Development of water reservoirs
(a) Multiload 375 (2) Honey and its by products
(b) LNG - 20 (3) Fishery industry
(c) Progestasert (4) Various crop plants and their by products
(d) Lippe’s loop 162. The oocytes of some vertebrates get arrested for
(e) Vaults
years or months in:
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(1) diplotene (2) Diakinesis
options given below :
(3) Metaphase - I (4) Telophase - I
(1) (c) and (e) only
163. Which one of the following is not an Assisted
(2) (a) and (b) only
Reproductive Technology (ART) used by childless
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (d) only couples to have children?
156. Which of the following disorders represents (1) IUD (2) IVF
decrease in respiratory surface due to damaged (3) IUT (4) ZIFT
alveolar walls? 164. A population with finite resources shows a logistic
(1) Bronchitis (2) Asthma growth curve where the correct sequence of
(3) Emphysema (4) Hypocapnia events will be :
157. Which of the following is/are vegetative (1) Acceleration phase → Deceleration →
propagule(s)? Asymptote
(a) Eyes of Potato (2) Acceleration phase → Lag phase → Stationary
(b) Zoospore of Chlamydomonas phase
(c) Rhizome of Ginger (d) buds in Hydra (3)Lag phase → Acceleration phase →
(e) Bulbil of Agave
Deceleration → Asymptote
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(4) Stationary phase → Acceleration phase →
options given below :
Lag phase → Asymptote
(1) (a), (c), (e) only (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
165. A low frequency recombination indicates that the
(3) (b), (d) only (4) (e) only
genes are :
158. In a cell, the separation of DNA strands is brougth
(1) Located close to each other
about by the enzyme DNA helicase, whereas in
(2) Not linked
PCR, the separation of DNA strands is due to :
(3) Present on different chromosomes
(1) Two sets of Primers
(4) Located far apart from each other
(2) Taq DNA polymerase
166. Arrange the following male sex accessory ducts in
(3) Deoxynucleotides
the correct sequence for the transport of sperms
(4) High temperature
from the testes.
159. Which of the following types of epithelium lines
(a) Epididymis (b) Ejaculatory duct
the walls of blood vessels?
(c) Vasa efferentia (d) Rete testis
(1) Squamous epithelium (2)Cuboidal epithelium
(e) Vas deferens
(3) Columnar epithelium (4) Ciliated epithelium
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
160. Endemism refers to :
options given below :
(1) Species evenness
(1) (d), (c), (e), (a), (b)
(2) Species confined to that region
(2) (d), (c), (a), (e), (b)
(3) Species diversity
(3) (d), (e), (a), (c), (b)
(4) Species richness
(4) (d), (a), (c), (e), (b)

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167. In the regulation of respiration, a chemo-sensitive 174. In a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme, which of
area adjacent to the rhythm centre in the medulla the following statements is correct?
region of the brain, is highly sensitive to :
(1) Enzymes make transition from substrate to
(1) CO2 (2) O2
−
product more difficult.
(3) N2 (4) 3
(2) Enzymes increase the activation energy for
168. Chylomicrons are :
(1) micro-sized lipid molecules formation of transition state.

(2) protein coated fat globules
(3) spherical aggregates of fatty acids
(4) fat coated protein globules
169. Genetic Drift occurs due to :
(1) Sudden population migration
(2) Continuous gene migration
(3) Enzyme-substrate complex formed during a
reaction lasts for a very long time.
(4) Enzyme decrease the activation energy for
formation of transition state.
175. Given below are two statements :

(3) Mutation Statements-I : Membrane-bound organelles of

(4) Natural selection the endomembrane system coordinate cellular
170. Immuno-suppressants are administered to burn-
functions.
patients or during organ transplantation to
Statement-II : Mitochondria and chloroplasts are
suppress :
(1) Cytokine storm not considered a part of the endomembrane
(2) Humoral immunity system.
(3) Cell-mediated immunity In the light of the above statements choose the
(4) Innate immunity
most appropriate answer from the options
171. Normal sleep-wake cycle in a human body is
given below :
maintained by the secretion of :
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(1) Thymus gland
correct
(2) Pineal gland
(3) Pituitary gland (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

(4) Thyroid gland correct

172. Air bladder is found in : (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

(1) Aves incorrect

(2) Cyclostomata
(3) Chondrichthyes
(4) Osteichthyes
173. With respect to nucleosome, which of the
following statements is incorrect?
(1) Nucleosomes are seen as ‘beads on string’
under Electron Microscope
(2) DNA is wrapped around positively charged
histone octamer to form nucleosome.
(3) Nucleosome is the repeating unit of chromatin
(4) Nucleosome contains 120 bp of DNA helix
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect
176. One of the strands of double stranded DNA has
base composition as follows : 15% A, 15% T,
40% G and 30% C. What will be the percentage
of these bases in the complementary strand?
(1) 15% A, .10% T, 40% G, 15% C
(2) 15% A, 15% T, 40% G, 30% C
(3) 15% A, 40% T, 15% G, 30% C
(4) 15% A, 15% T, 30% G, 40% C

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177. Given below are two statements: 181. Which of the following is a correct statement?

Statement-I : Amphibians and reptiles have a 3- (1) Z-lines anchor myosin (thick) filament to the
ends of the sarcomere.
chambered heart with two atria and a single
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum stores acetylcholine.
ventricle; and oviparous in nature.
(3) Myosin cross bridges contain calcium binding
Statement-II : Crocodiles possess a 4 sites.
chambered heart with two ventricles and two (4) Actin and regulatory proteins are located in
atria; and viviparous in nature. thin filament.
In the light of the-above statements, choose the 182. How many Y-chromosomes are present in 2nd
most appropriate answer from the options polar body in human beings?
(1) 00 (2) 23
given below :
(3) 02 (4) 01
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
183. Which one of the following hormones reduce the
correct
blood pressure?
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) Atrial Natriuretic factor
correct
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(3) Angiotensin-II
incorrect
(4) Antidiuretic hormone
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
184. Which of the following hormones are secreted in
incorrect
women only during pregnancy?
178. Herbarium, Botanical gardens, Museum,
(a) Relaxin (b) Oxytocin
Zoological parks and Key are considered as- (c) hCG (d) hPL
(1) Environmental aids (e) Progesterone
(2) Pollution aids Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(3) Taxonomical aids options given below :
(4) Trophic aids (1) (b) and (e) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
179. Ear wax secreting cells have which type of
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
epithelium?
(4) (c), (d) and (e) only
(1) Exocrine glandular epithelium 185. Bee-keeping helps to improve the yield of
(2) Compound epithelium following crops EXCEPT _________.
(3) Endocrine glandular epithelium (1) Sunflower (2) Apple
(4) Columnar epithelium (3) Mustard (4) Jowar
180. Select the correct sequence of events occurring Section - B (Biology : Zoology)
during Prophase-I of Meiosis-I. 186. Match List-I with List-II regarding sensory
(a) Nuclear envelope breakdown organs in human.
(b) Synaptonemal complex formation (a) Organ of corti (i) Photo receptors
(c) Compaction of chromosomes (b) Nasal mucosa (ii) Gustatory receptors
(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata (c) Taste buds (iii) Auditory receptors
(e) Crossing over (d) Retina (iv) Olfactory receptors
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Choose the correct answer from the options
options given below : given below :
(1) (c) → (a) → (b) → (d) → (e) (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (b) → (c) → (a) → (d) → (e)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
(3) (c) → (a) → (b) → (e) → (d)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii). (d)-(iv)
(4) (c) → (b) → (e) → (d) → (a)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

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
187. Given below are two statements : 191. Identify the properties of a good vector used in
Statement-I : Pyramid of energy is always rDNA technology.
upright and is the most efficient.
(a) It should have origin of replication supporting
Statement-II : Pyramid of biomass in sea is
high copy number.
generally inverted.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (b) It should have preferably more than '2'
most appropriate answer from the options recoginition sites.
given below :
(c) the restriction sites in vector should be in the
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
antibiotic resistant genes.
correct
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (d) It should have suitable marker genes.
correct (e) It should be easy to isolate and purify.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Choose the most appropriate answer from the
incorrect
options given below :
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect (1) (c), (d) and (e) only

188. Terrestrial adaptations necessitated the production (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
of : (3) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
(1) Lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and
(4) (a), (c) and (e) only
uric acid
192. Given below two statements : one is labelled as
(2) Lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like ammonia
and urea Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(3) Highly toxic nitrogenous wastes like ammonia Reason (R).
and urea
Assertion (A) : The nematode can not survive in
(4) Highly toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and
a transgenic host which expresses specific
uric acid
189. Which biological process leads to decrease in fish- interfering RNA.

eating bird population near a water body Reason (R) : Nematode specific gene introduced
containing toxicants from industrial drainage? in the host produces both sense and antisense
(1) Biochemical oxygen demand complementary RNA which initiate RNA
(2) Accelerated Eutrophication interference in the host cell.
(3) Biomagnification In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Algal bloom
most appropriate answer from the options
190. What would be the proportions of light and hybrid
given below :
density DNA molecule, respectively if Meselson
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
and Stahl's experiment was continued for 60
(2) Both (A) and (R) arc correct and (R) is the
minutes ?
(1) 25%, 75% correct explanation of (A)

(2) 75%, 25% (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the

(3) 100%, 0% correct explanation of (A)

(4) 50%, 50% (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

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193. Match List - I with List – II 195. Which one of the following features are not true

List – I List - II for chordates?
(a) Adhering (i) Establish a barrier that
(a) Heart is dorsal.
junctions that prevents leakage
(b) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
of extracellular fluid
across a layer of cells (c) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and
(b) Tight (ii) Functions like rivets single.
junctions and fasten cells (d) Post-anal tail is present.
together into strong
(e) Notochord is present.
sheets
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(c) Gap (iii) Pass information
junctions through neuro- options given below :
transmitters from (1) (a), (d) and (c) only
one cell to another (2) (b) and (c) only
(d) Synaptic (iv) Provide cytoplasmic
(3) (a) and (c) only
junctions channels from one
cell to adjacent cell (4) (e) only

for communication 196. Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct answer from the options List – I List - II
given below:
(a) Chromoplasts (i) Proteins
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(b) Amyloplasts (ii) Oil and fats
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (c) Elaioplasts (iii) Starch
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (d) Aleuroplasts (iv) Carotene
194. Given below are two statements : one is labelled Choose the correct answer from the options
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as given below :
Reason (R). (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Assertion (A) : In human beings. Insulin is (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
synthesized as a pro-hormone which needs to be (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
processed before it becomes fully mature and (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
functional.
197. Match List - I with List - II
Reason (R) : The extra stretch of C-peptide is to
List - I List - II
be removed from A-peptide and B-peptide chain
(a) Puccinia (i) Parasitic fungus
of insulin.
on mustard
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options (b) Neurospora (ii) Dead substrates
given below : (c) Saprophytes (iii) Wheat rust
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (d) Albugo (iv) Biochemical and
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the Genetic work
correct explanation of (A) Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

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198. Select the correct match regarding adaptive In the light of the above statements, choose the
radiation of Australian marsupials corresponding most appropriate answer from the options
to placental mammals. given below :
(1) Tasmanian Wolf - Bobcat (1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(2) Marsupial mouse - Mole correct
(3) Spotted Cuscus - Lemur (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(4) Numbat - Flying Squirrel correct
199. Given below are two statements : (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement-I : When an infected female incorrect
Anopheles mosquito bites, it releases gametocytes (4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
of Plasmodium into the healthy person. incorrect
Statement-II : The female Anopheles mosquito 200. If a DNA molecule is shortened by 25 base pairs,
takes up sporozoites of Plasmodium with blood how many helical turns will be reduced from its
meal from an infected person, suffering from structure?
malaria. (1) 3 (2) 2.5
(3) 2 (4) 1

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
ANSWER KEY NEET(UG)-2022(Overseas)

1. At T1 = 27°C = 300 K 2. Since, M = IA

1 =   M1 = M2   = 
and T2 = 927°C = 1200 K
 
2 = ?  =  =
 
= = and = KBT 3. L = 4H
−
 =− =− = –4(–2) = 8 V

4. Wave is propagating along –z direction
 =
= = =



 = =
 
2 = =
= 10 × 10–9 T = 10 nT

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 10. Viscosity of liquid decreases with increase of
5.  =
= 20 × 20 = 400 temp.
11. Ist and 2nd excited state of hydrogen corresponds
=  vout = AV(vin)
to 2nd and 3rd orbital.
= 400 (0.01) = 4 n1 = 2 and n2 = 3
6.  I = I0 cos2
 =

2.5 = 10 cos2  = cos2
 = =
 cos =   = 
12.
7. v2 – u2 = 2gh
−
h= = = 100 m


 At extreme position K.E. = 0

8. So, Total energy = Purely Potential Energy
Q=N fs
R=

=P  mg cos
f2 = –25 cm sin 
mg  S = mg
f1 = f3 = 40 cm 13. O
Q = Normal reaction
 = + +
P = mg sin

and P = R = Friction force

S = Weight (mg)
 = +
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv) and (d)-(i)
= − =
14. at centre = 0
100 Because of symmetry when one charge is
P= = 1D
100 removed

= =
  
9. 
( due to 10 charges will cancel and out each
  other
 Enet will be only because of 11th charge)

u k
15. m


mu2 = kx2
Req. = + + + = + = 

x=

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
16. = + + + 23. Pitch = = 0.5 mm

= + + (By De'Morgans theorem) L.C. =

= (A + B) .(A + B) 
= = 10–5
= A + B  OR Gate
24.
17. By Ohm's law  V = IR  V  I

v= µga = =

s = 2 (Thickness of slab)
18.
t= =
(  )
 

 = = = 10–10 s

25.  There is no friction between feet of passenger

and floor of bus so passenger will not move back
when seen from ground
(360 ± 18) k So Assertion is false but reason is true.
19. E = LI2 26.  Q = ms T
as T = 0
=   s = Q/mT = 
27. By using Bernoullis equation
= =5J
p+ v2 + gh = constant
20. Dimensional formula of mutual inductance
28. N = N0e–t
= [ML2T–2A–2]
ln N = ln N0 + lne(e–t)
21. F=q (  ) ln N = –t + ln N0
 Slope = –
Since and are parallel
  = 0° 29.
Fm = Bqv sin0° = 0
 Original path
22.  Wavelength of blue, indigo and violet light is

less than green light  Fext = 0  P = 0

 Energy of blue, indigo and violet light is more
 P1 + P2 = 0  P1 = –P2
than green light
and E =
Hence, violet light is capable of ejecting of
photoelectron. E  = =

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63
 35.
30.
R → Radio 
m → Micro
I → Infrared
V → Visible
U → UV ray
X → X-ray
Here potential inside sphere will be equal to
potential on surface of sphere. G → -ray
m > I > X > 
= =
 
36. = = 1 – e–t

31.

t = Tav =


So = 1 – e–/ = 1 –e–1 =

  
tan =   = tan–1   w.r.t rain 37.  =
  +
32. I  mR2   −
= −
= 

=
 
=


  
 =  
 
 
=1×   =
 
33. I = 0.1 Kg m2 
38. =
r = 10 × 10–2 m +

F = 10 N
t = 2 sec
  = I = rF

 = = = 10 rads–2
When, x >> a
  = 0 + t
 
  = 0 + t Then, = =
  = 10 × 2 = 20 rads–1
Magnetic field on axis of dipole
34. Acceleration due to gravity acting on a body is
independent of the mass of the body. 
=

 
 =  
 
 Statement I correct and statement II incorrect.

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39. Consider diode 'D' as ideal diode.



= and = =

So,  = 


=   −
=0.03 m =30 mm
 
40. = 46. According to question
V = Vm sin t
  I = Im sin (t – /2) = –Im cos t
 Pinst. = VI
   
=  =  =
     Pinst. = –(Vm sin t) (Im cos t) ×

−
 = = = 

47. = =
41.

 = ….(1)

= =
+
 =  =
+ +
 3(Y + R) = 7R  3Y + 3R = 7R
 3Y = 4R
42.  =

 = = =
 =
48. According to question
 T2  R3
 =

   x2 = 64T2  x = 8T
 =

 T = 2.9 × 103 K 49.

43. Work done =  −


= 8T (4r – r ) = 24 r T
2 2 2

 = ; 2A = amplitude at anti node = 2mm

44.  =
Amplitude = 2A sinkx
 Magnetic monopoles do not exist.  
=
  
45. According to question
 
f = 500 × 1012 Hz =   =  
   
d = 0.2 × 10–3 m
D=1m = =

n = 10

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 61.
50. = 
Amines pKb
   (a) 3.27
 = +

51. (b) •• 4.75

Polymer Monomer
Bakelite Phenol and formaldehyde (c) 9.30
Nylon 6, 6 Hexamethylenediamine and adipic
acid
Nylon 6 Caprolactam
Terylene Ethylene glycol and Benzene-1, 4-
(d) 9.38
dicarboxylic acid
52. Ga is more stable than Al+ as inert pair effect
+

becomes more effective down the group.

62.
53. All three C–O bonds are equal in length with a
bond order in between 1 and 2 due to resonance.
54. An electron in Hydrogen atom will have least
amount of energy because value of
n (principal quantum number) is least which is 1.
55. Volume of the gas is due to the large number of
molecules of the gas is not correct because
volume of the gas is equal to volume of container.
  63.
56. W = –2.303 nRT log  
  (a) Element which (iii) Sc[1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
  exhibits +3 3p6 4s2 3d1]
=−       oxidation state Sc+3 [1s2 2s2 2p6
 
only 3s2 3p6 4s0 3d0]
W = –2.303 × 8.314 × 300 × 1 × log 5 (b) Element which (i) Mn [1s2 2s2 2p6
W = –2.303 × 8.314 × 300 × 0.6989 exhibits more 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d5]
number of (oxidation state
W = –4014.58 J
oxidation states from +2 so +7)
57. LiF is sparingly soluble in water because it has (c) Element which is a (iv) Cr [1s2 2s2 2p6
high lattice enthalpy which dominates hydration reducing agent in 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5]
its +2 oxidation Cr+2 [1s2 2s2 2p6
enthalpy. state 3s2 3p6 4s0 3d4]
58. BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 Cr+2 acts as a
reducing agent,
Top to bottom, molecule weight increases so
Cr+3 is stable
boiling point increases but due to H-Bonding in because of its
NH3, the order becomes configuration -

BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 .

59. All the domains get oriented in the direction of (d) Element which is (ii) Zn [1s2 2s2 2p6
magnetic field. not considered as a 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10]
      transition element Zn+2 [1s2 2s2 2p6
60. Because last carbon (asymmetrical) has –OH 3s2 3p6 4s0 3d10]
group on left hand side. as it is pseudo
transition
element.

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66

64. Bromination product depends on nature of (c) CH3COOH is acid, with acid strength greater

solvent. CHCl3 gives monosubstituted bromo than all and have pKa = 4.76

derivative as CHCl3 is a solvent of low polarity OH

CH3COOH > > H2O > C2H5OH
whereas reaction of phenol with bromine water

yields trisubstituted bromo derivative of phenol. 68. N2 = (B.O. = 3)

65. O2 = (B.O. = 2)

−
= (B.O. = 1.5)

−
= (B.O. = 1)

Bond order  Bond enthalpies

− −
So,   

69.
Br Br
Na
+ +2 NaBr
dry ether

Fittig reaction
70. Aldehydes and ketones having at least one
−
66. BaSO4 Ba+2 + -hydrogen undergo a reaction in the presence of

Ksp = [Ba+2] −
dilute alkali as catalyst to form -hydroxy

= 1.5 × 10–9 = S2 aldehydes (aldol) or -hydroxy ketones (ketol),

− − respectively. This is known as Aldol reaction.

=  = 
71. (1) It is a true statement
−
Ba(NO3)2 → Ba+2(aq) +
(2) It is a true statement
[Due to common ion] → (0.1 + S') (S') = Ksp
(3) It is incorrect or false statement.
(0.1) × S' = 1.5 × 10 –9
( 0.1 >> S')
(4) It is a also a true statement

S' = 1.5 × 10–8 M 72. Relative lowering in vapour pressure = Mole

67. (a) Alcohols are weaker acids than water because fraction of solute

alkoxide are better proton acceptor than nsolute

 xsolute =
nsolute + nsolvent
hydroxide.
1
=
(b) Phenols are better acids than alcohols because 1+ 3
1
phenoxide ion is more stable by resonance. = = 0.25
4

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67

73. List-I List-II (d) If the concentration of reactant is doubled the
Elements Atomic radii (pm)
rate of reaction will increase four times as per the
(a) O (iii) 66 pm
rate equation.
(b) C (iv) 77 pm
i.e., rate = K[2K]2
(c) B (i) 88 pm
rate = 4K
(d) N (ii) 74 pm
(b) Rate constant is independent of concentration
B>C>N>O
but temperature dependent.
As we move across the period from left to right
atomic radius decreases due to increase in nuclear 78. Knowledge based

charge. 79. (a) 4.48 litres of O2 at STP → 6.4 g

74. Boiling point increases with increase in number of
= = =
carbon atoms and decreases with branching.
Option (a) has 5 carbon atoms but =  =  =
Option (b) has 6 carbon atoms
(b) 12.022 × 1022 molecules of H2O → 0.2 moles
 B.P. of (b) > (a)

Option (c) and (d) have '5' carbon atoms each but = = =  =

option (c) has one branch and option (d) has two
(c) 96 g of O2 → 67.2 litres at STP
branches.
 B.P. of (c) > (d) =

 Order of B.P. : b > a > c > d 

= = =
75. The alkali metals and their salts impart
characteristic colour in an oxidising flame. This is (d) 88 g of CO2 → 12.044 × 1023 molecules
because the heat from the flame excites the
=  =
valence electron which comes back to the ground 

state to emit light of wavelength in visible region. N = 6.022 × 1023 × 2

76. The species which can undergo both oxidation = 12.044 × 1023 molecules
and reduction exhibit disproportionation 80. Knowledge based

reactions.
i.e., If the central atom is the species which can
show both increase and decrease in O.N. then it
shows disproportionation reaction.
81. Chlorine reacts with water to form HCl and HClO.
But HClO (hypochlorous acid) is unstable and
easily dissociates to form nascent oxygen

Clearly Option 2, 3, 4 are not possible as they all HClO → HCl + [O]
−
have as common species which is having Cl
Nascent oxygen is a more powerful oxidising
already in +7 oxidation state.
agent which is responsible for the bleaching
77. Rate = K[A]2
nature.

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68

Mechanism :

82. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

(1)

(2)
83. formula G = −
o

(a) n = 6  Go = –6 × F × 0.404

= –2.424 F (3)
(b) n = 2  Go = –2 × F × 1.211
= –2.422 F
(c) n = 3  Go = –3 × F × 0.807 87. The amount of BOD in water is a measure of the
= –2.421 F amount of organic matter in the water, in terms of
84. Order of reactivity of alcohols towards acid how much oxygen will be required to break it
down biologically.
catalyst dehydration is
If BOD < 5 ppm (clean water)
3° > 2° > 1° If BOD  17 ppm (highly polluted water)
88. + +
 a < c < d but option (2) is least because OH
t=0, n= 1 1 0 0
group is attached sp hybridised carbon atom and
2
t=teq, n= 1–x 1–x x x
Moles of C at equilibrium = x = 0.7
partial bond character develops between C–OH
 Concentrations at equilibrium are :
bond. −
= = = − =
85. The chain length of the silicone polymer can be
−
= = = − =
controlled by adding Me3SiCl [CH3]3SiCl.
= = =
The reaction of the sequence can be represented
as :
R + Me3SiCl → Me3Si – R + Cl = = =
This blocks the end of the silicon polymer and 
thus terminates the chain propagation. = = = =

2Cl → Cl2

H3C 89. We know, Λ =

86. H3C O + HI ⎯→ On putting values,

H3C −
H3C  
Λ =

= 48.15 S cm2 mol–1

Now, Λ = Λ +Λ −Λ

= 91.05 + 425.9 – 126.4

Whenever one of the alkyl group is a tertiary = 390.55 S cm2 mol–1
group, the halide formed is a tertiary halide. Λ
= = =
Λ

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69

90. Hydration of Ethyne gives aldehyde but hydration 94. (P) Power = 1 mW = 10–3 watt
of alkynes having more than 2 carbons gives
ketone. E = P × t = 10–3 × 0.1 = 10–4 J
Lets assume, propyne as our alkyne.  = 1000 nm = 1000 × 10–9 m = 10–6 m
We know,

E = nh
Here, E = Energy of n photons
n = number of photons
h = energy of 1 photon

10–4 = 

91. Ellingham diagram provides an idea or gives a   −
 
10–4 = −
prediction about the feasibility of thermal
= 
reduction of an ore.

Ellingham diagram do not deal with the kinetics of

95.
a reduction reaction.
Longest parent chain is selected by giving lowest
92. Ketones are oxidised under vigorous conditions numbering to ketone.
IUPAC name – 4-methyl hex-3-en-2-one
i.e., strong oxidising agents and at elevated
96. Moles of gas is conserved
temperature. ntotal = nA + nB

Oxidation involves carbon-carbon cleavage to Assuming gases as ideal, n =

form mixture of carboxylic acids having less

= +
number of carbon atoms than parent ketone
+  + 
= =

= 1.25 bar
97.
Cleavage of C2–C3 bond also gives same product.

93. Eu = [Xe]4f7 6s2

63

Eu2+ is a strong reducing agent changing to

common +3 state.

Ce = [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2

58

Ce(IV) is a strong oxidant.

E° of Ce4+/Ce3+ = 1.74 V

The of Ce suggests that it can oxidise water.

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98. Cl– → Weak field ligand (no pairing occurs) 100. We know, Arrhenius equation

H2O → Weak field ligand (no pairing occurs)
nK = nA –
CN– → Strong field ligand (no pairing occurs)
y = C + mx
Mn = [Ar]3d54s2

Mn3+ = [Ar] 3d4 no. of unpaired e– = 4 So, slope =

Co = [Ar]3d7 4s2
So, Ea = 104 R
Co 2+
= [Ar] 3d 7
no. of unpaired e = 3 –

= 104 × 8.3
Fe = [Ar]3d 4s 6 2

= 8.3 × 104 J mol–1

Fe 3+
= [Ar] 3d 5

On pairing

no. of unpaired e– = 1

So, spin magnetic moment answer :

− + −
       

99. In case of semiconductor, the gap between

valence band and conduction band is small.

Therefore option (4) is incorrect as here it is

mentioned conduction band and valence bond

overlaps which happens in conductors actually.

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