PEB TRAINING AND REVIEW

Bacolod City, Negros Occidental

BOARD OF CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

Registered Civil Engineer Licensure Examination

Saturday, November 8, 2023 08:00 a.m. – 1:00
p.m.
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INORGANIC AND PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY DIAGNOSTICS 1

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil No.2 only.

1. Which of the following is not explained by Dalton's atomic theory?

A) conservation of mass during a chemical reaction
B) the existence of more than one isotope of an element
C) the law of definite proportions
D) the law of multiple proportions

2. The existence of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom was demonstrated by

A) Millikan's oil drop experiment. B) Rutherford's gold foil experiment.
C) Thomson's cathode ray tube experiment. D) None of these

3. Which are isotopes? An atom that has an atomic number of 34 and a mass number of 76 is an isotope
of an atom that has
A) an atomic number of 32 and a mass number of 76.
B) an atomic number of 34 and a mass number of 80.
C) 42 neutrons and 34 protons.
D) 42 protons and 34 neutrons.

4. What is the mass of one atom of the element hydrogen?

A) 2.0 g B) 1.0 g C) 3.4 × 10-24 g D) 1.7 × 10-24 g

5. Which reaction below represents decay by positron emission?

A) → + C) → +

B) → + D) → +

6. When decays in a 5-step series the product is . How many alpha and beta particles
are emitted in the decay series?
A) 2 α, 3 β- B) 3 α, 2 β- C) 4 α, 1 β- D) 1 α, 4 β-

7. In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons?
A) Br-, Kr, Sr2+ C) C, N3-, O2-
B) Mg2+, Sr2+, Ba2+ D) O, O2-, O2+

8. The definitive distinction between ionic bonding and covalent bonding is that
A) ionic bonding involves a sharing of electrons and covalent bonding involves a transfer of
electrons.
B) ionic bonding involves a transfer of electrons and covalent bonding involves a sharing of
electrons.
C) ionic bonding requires two nonmetals and covalent bonding requires a metal and a nonmetal.
D) covalent bonding requires two nonmetals and ionic bonding requires a metal and a nonmetal.

9. Beta decay of 32P produces a beta particle and

A) 28Al. B) 31P. C) 32Si. D) 32S.

10. What is the identity of element Q if the ion Q2+ contains 10 electrons?
A) C B) O C) Ne D) Mg

11. Balance the following redox reaction in basic conditions. Determine the sum of coefficients of
the balanced reaction:

Ag + Zn2+ → Ag2O + Zn

A) 34 B) 7 C) 8 D) 11

12. What is the empirical formula for ethyl fluoride if the compound contains 49.97% carbon, 10.51%
hydrogen, and 39.52% fluorine by mass?
A) C2H5F B) C4H10F2 C) C4H10F4 D) C25F2

13. What are the coefficients in front of BrO3-(aq) and Br-(aq) when the following equation is
balanced in an acidic solution?
_____ BrO3-(aq) + _____ Br-(aq) → _____ Br2(aq)

A) 1, 3 B) 1, 5 C) 2, 3 D) 2, 5

14. Balance the following reaction in acidic solution. Determine the sum of coefficient:

H2S + MnO4¯ ---> S8 + Mn2+

A) 124 B) 271 C) 189 D) 71

15. According to the Bohr-Rydberg equation, electromagnetic radi ation with the shortest wavelength
will be emitted when an electron undergoes which of the following transitions?
A) m = 1 → n = 2 C) m = 2 → n = 3
B) n = 2 → m = 1 D) n = 3 → m = 2

16. Which of the following is not quantized?

A) the charge on a monatomic ion C) the distance between two objects
B) the population of the Philippines D) the static charge on a balloon rubbed with wool

17. What is the de Broglie wavelength of a 300-g object moving at a velocity of 50 m/s (about 100
mph)?
A) 4 × 10^-38 m B) 4 × 10^-35 m C) 4 × 10^9 m D) 4 × 10^12 m

18. Which of the following is true?

A) The Bohr atom is the model currently accepted for electrons in atoms.
B) Electrons travel around the nucleus in circular orbits.
C) There is a 5% chance of finding an electron in an atom outside its orbital.
D) The square of the wave function gives the probability of finding the electron.

19. What are the possible values of n and ml for an electron in a 5d orbital?
A) n = 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 and ml = 2
B) n = 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 and ml = -2, -1, 0, +1, or +2
C) n = 5 and ml = 2
D) n = 5 and ml = -2, -1, 0, +1, or +2

20. An electron in a 4p orbital can have a wave function with which of the following set of quantum
numbers, (n, l, ml, ms)?
A) (4, 0, 0, 1/2) C) (4, 1, –1, –1/2)
B) (5, 4, 1, –1/2) D) (5, 4, 4, 1/2)

21. Which of the following represent electron configurations that violate the Pauli exclusion
principle?
(A) [Ne]3s13p5 (B) [Kr]4d125s25p3 (C) [Ar]3d104s24p2

A) only (A) B) only (B) C) (A) and (B) D) (B) and (C)

22. Which of the following have the same number of valence electrons?
A) K, As, Br B) B, Si, As C) N, As, Bi D) He, Ne, F

23. The reason why the ionic radius of Cl- is larger than Na+ even the configuration for both is
that of neon Ne is due to:
A) Quantum tunneling C) Shielding effect
B) HOMO-LUMO D) VSEPR

24. If barium has a work function of 2.60 eV, what is its cut-off wavelength when used as a
phototube
target?
A) 398 nm B) 478 nm C) 497 nm D) 596 nm

25. Blue light (wavelength = 460 nm) is incident on a piece of potassium (work function = 2.20 eV).
What is the maximum kinetic energy (in eV)of the ejected photoelectrons? 1 eV = 1.6 x 10^-19 J
A) 1.0 eV B) 0.50 eV C) 0.25 eV D) 4.9 eV

26. X-rays of wavelength of 0.065 nm undergo Compton scattering from free electrons in carbon. What
is the wavelength of photons scattered at 90.0° relative to the incident beam?
A) 0.00246 nm B) 0.0138 nm C) 0.0893 nm D) 0.0674 nm

27. Due to the dual nature of light and matter, either can act in an experiment as if it is a wave
or a particle. In which experiment is the wave aspect exhibited for matter?
A) the Schrodinger’s cat in a box C) the photoelectric effect
B) pair production D) Compton scattering

28. What is the ground-state electron configuration of Se2-?

A) [Ar]3d104s24p2 C) [Ar]3d104s24p4
C) [Ar]3d124s24p4 D) [Ar]3d104s24p6
29. What is the general trend in ionization energy and electron affinity values?
A) Both decrease as one traverses a period from left to right and both decrease as one descends a
group.
B) Both decrease as one traverses a period from left to right and both increase as one descends a
group.
C) Both increase as one traverses a period from left to right and both decrease as one descends a
group.
D) Both increase as one traverses a period from left to right and both increase as one descends a
group.

30. Of the following elements, which has the highest electronegativity

A) P B) S C) Sc D) As

31. Element A has an electronegativity of 0.8 and element B has an electronegativity of 3.0. Which
statement best describes the bonding in A3B?
A) The AB bond is largely covalent with a δ- on A.
B) The AB bond is largely covalent with a δ+ on A.
C) The compound is largely ionic with A as the cation.
D) The compound is largely ionic with A as the anion.

32. How many lone pairs of electrons are on the P atom in PF3?
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

33. What is the approximate carbon-oxygen bond order in carbonate CO32-?

A) 1 B) 4/3 C) 5/3 D) 2

34. Assign formal charges to each atom in the resonance form for SOCl2 given below.

A) 0 for Cl, 0 for S, and 0 for O

B) 0 for Cl, +1 for S, and -1 for O
C) -1 for Cl, +4 for S, and -2 for O
D) -1 for Cl, -2 for S, and -2 for O

35. What is the molecular geometry of AsCl3?

A) T-shaped B) tetrahedral C) trigonal planar D) trigonal pyramidal

36. What is the molecular geometry of TeCl4?

A) seesaw B) square planar C) square pyramidal D) tetrahedral

37. Given that O2 is paramagnetic and has a bond order of 2, and its highest occupied molecular
orbital is antibonding, what would be the expected bond orders for O22- and O22+?
A) 1 for O22- and 3 for O22+ C) 3/2 for O22- and 5/2 for O22+
B) 5/2 for O22- and 3/2 for O22+ D) 3 for O22- and 1 for O22+

38. The orbital hybridization on the carbon atom in C2H2 is

A) sp. B) sp2.
B) sp3. D) sp3d2.

39. Which of the following contains an atom that does not obey the octet rule?
A) CsI B) SnO2 C) ClF5 D) ClF

40. Which of the following is a possible value of the azimuthal quantum number for an electron at 3f
subshell?
a. 3 b. -2 and +2 c. 0 d. -2, -1, 0, 1, 2

41. A sample containing a radioactive isotope produces 2000 counts per minute in a Geiger counter.
After 120 hours, the sample produces 250 counts per minute. What is the half-life of the isotope?
a. 15 h b. 30 h c. 40 h d. 60 h

42. Calculate the longest wavelength in Å (1 Å = 10-10 m) in the ‘Balmer series’ of singly ionized
helium (He+). Ignore nuclear motion in your calculation.
a. 1200 A b. 340 A c. 1640 A d. 915 A

43. The most probable valence of an element which an electronic configuration of IS22s22p63s23p5 is
__________.
a. +1 b. +2 c. -1 d. -2

44. Which set of approximate bond angles at C1, C2, and N of the
following molecule indicates the correct shape?
a. C1 120°, C2 120°, N 120°
b. C1 109.5°, C2 120°, N 109.5°
c. C1 109.5°, C2 120°, N 120°
d. C1 120°, C2 109.5°, N 109.5°
45. What is the sum of ALL the coefficients if the following chemical reaction is balanced?
__CuSCN + __KIO3 + ___HCl  __CuSO4 + __KCl + __HCN + __ICl + __ H2O
b. 34 b. 52 c. 68 d. 100

46. What is the molecular geometry of SF6?

a. Hexagonal b. Tetrahedral c. Octahedral d. Trigonal planar

47. Identify the missing particle in the following nuclear equation:

U → Sr + ? + 2 n + 4 γ

a. Te b. Xe c. Xe d. Te

48. Determine the half-life of a nuclide that loses 38.0% of its mass in 387 hours.
a.277 hours b. 455 hour c. 561 hours d. 639
hours

49. The states that in a given atom, no two electrons can have exactly the same set of
quantum numbers.
a) Hund’s Rule c) Pauli Exclusion Principle
b) Aufbau Law of multiplicity d) quantum mechanics

50. A compound that is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen contains 70.6% C, 5.9% H, and
23.5% O by mass. The molecular weight of the compound is 136 amu. What is the molecular formula?
A) C8H8O2 B) C8H4O C) C4H4O D) C9H12O