Matrix Science Academy

Chemistry- Solid State Level-1

1. The three states of matter are solid, liquid and gas. Which of 12. The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal
the following statement is/are true about them. systems is.
(a) Gases and liquids have viscosity as a common property (a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 14
(b) The molecules in all the three states possess random 13. Bravais lattices are of.
translational motion (a) 8 types (b) 12 types (c) 14 types (d) 9 types
(c) Gases cannot be converted into solids without 14. The number of close neighbour in a body-centered cubic lattice
passing through the liquid phase of identical sphere is.
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2
(d) Solids and liquids have vapour pressure as a
15. The formula for determination of density of unit cell is.
common property
a3  N o NM
2. A pure crystalline substance, on being heated gradually, first (a) g cm − 3 (b) g cm − 3
NM a3  N o
forms a turbid looking liquid and then the turbidity completely
disappears. This behaviour is the characteristic of substances a3  M M  No
forming. (c) g cm − 3 (d) g cm − 3
N  No a3  N
(a) Isomeric crystals (b) Liquid crystals
16. If an atom is present in the centre of the cube, the participation
(c) Isomorphous crystals (d) Allotropic crystals
of that atom per unit cell is.
3. NaCl is an example of. 1 1 1
(a) Covalent solid (b) Ionic solid (a) (b) 1 (c) (d)
4 2 8
(c) Molecular solid (d) Metallic solid 17. The number of spheres contained (i) in one body centered cubic
4. Amorphous substances show. unit cell and (ii) in one face centered cubic unit cell, is.
(A) Short and long range order (B) Short range order (a) In (i) 2 and in (ii) 4 (b) In (i) 3 and in (ii) 2
(C) Long range order (D) Have no sharp M.P. (c) In (i) 4 and in (ii) 2 (d) In (i) 2 and in (ii) 3
(a) A and C are correct (b) B and C are correct
(c) C and D are correct (d) B and D are correct 18. Frenkel defect is caused due to.
5. The characteristic features of solids are. (a) An ion missing from the normal lattice site creating a
(a) Definite shape vacancy
(b) Definite size (b) An extra positive ion occupying an interstitial
(c) Definite shape and size position in the lattice
(d) Definite shape, size and rigidity (c) An extra negative ion occupying an interstitial position in
6. Diamond is an example of. the lattice
(a) Solid with hydrogen bonding (b) Electrovalent solid (d) The shift of a positive ion from its normal lattice site to an
(c) Covalent solid (d) Glass interstitial site
7. The solid NaCl is a bad conductor of electricity since. 19. Schottky defect generally appears in.
(a) In solid NaCl there are no ions (a) NaCl (b) KCl
(b) Solid NaCl is covalent (c) CsCl (d) All of these
(c) In solid NaCl there is no velocity of ions 20. Due to Frenkel defect, the density of ionic solids.
(d) In solid NaCl there are no electrons (a) Increases (b) Decreases
8. The existence of a substance in more than one solid (c) Does not change (d) Changes
modifications is known as or Any compound having more than 21. What type of crystal defect is indicated in the diagram below?
two crystal structures is called.
Na+Cl– Na+Cl– Na+Cl–
(a) Polymorphism (b) Isomorphism
(c) Allotropy (d) Enantiomorphism Cl– Cl– Na+ Na+
9. Which is not a property of solids.
(a) Solids are always crystalline in nature Na+Cl– Cl– Na+Cl–
(b) Solids have high density and low compressibility Cl– Na+ Cl– Na+ Na+
(c) The diffusion of solids is very slow (a) Frenkel defect (b) Schottky defect
(d) Solids have definite volume (c) Interstitial defect (d) Frenkel and Schottky defects
22. In a face centered cubic lattice the number of nearest
10. Which of the following is an example of metallic crystal solid.
(a) C (b) Si (c) W (d) AgCl neighbours for a given lattice point are :
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 14
11. How many space lattices are obtainable from the different 23. Body centred cubic lattice has co–ordination number of :
crystal systems. (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 6 (d) 4
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 32 (d) 230 24. The empty space between the shaded balls and hollow balls as
shown in the diagram is called
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Figure
(a) Hexagonal void (b) Octahedral void
(c) Tetrahedral void (d) Double triangular void
25. In a multi layered close-packed structure
(a) There are twice as many tetrahedral holes as many close-
packed atoms
(b) There are as many tetrahedral holes as many closed
packed atoms
(c) There are twice as many octahedral holes as many close-
packed atoms
(d) There are as many tetrahedral holes as many octahedral
holes

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Solid State Solutions

1. (a) NaCl, KCl, CsCl .

Sol. Both gases and liquids possess fluidity and hence viscosity 20. (c)
molecules in the solid state do not have translational motion. Sol. Since no ions are missing from the crystal as a whole, there
2. (b) is no effect on density.
Sol. It is a characteristic of liquid crystal. 21. (b)
3. (b) Sol. When an atom or ion is missing from its normal lattice site,
Sol. NaCl is a ionic solid in which constituent particles are a lattice vacancy is created. This defect is known as Schottky
positive (Na + ) and negative (Cl − ) ions. defect . Here equal number of Na + and Cl– ions are missing
4. (d) from their regular lattice position in the crystal. So it is
Sol. Amorphous solids have short range order but no sharp in Schottky defect.
melting point. 22. (c)
Sol. Coordination number of sphere in fcc or ccp = 12.
5. (d) 23. (a)
Sol. Solids have definite shape, size and rigidity. Sol. For bcc unit cell coordination number = 8 (In bcc crystal
6. (c) structure, the co-ordination no. is 8 because each atom touches
Sol. Diamond is a covalent solid in which constituent particles four atom in the layer above it, four in the layer below it and
are atoms. none in its own layers).
7. (c) 24. (b)
Sol. Solid NaCl is a bad conductor of electricity because ions Sol. It is a octahedral void.
25. (a)
are not free to move.
Sol. No. of octahedral holes = No. of close packed atoms
8. (a) & No. of Tetrahedral holes = 2× No. of close packed atoms.
Sol. The existence of a substance in more than one crystalline
form is known as polymorphism.
9. (a)
Sol. Solids are also non-crystalline in nature.
10. (c)
Sol. All metals and some alloys are metallic crystal.
11. (b)
Sol. There are 14 Bravais lattices (space lattices).
12. (b)
Sol. The seven basic crystal lattice arrangements are :- Cubic,
Tetragonal, Orthorhombic, Monoclinic,
Hexagonal, Rhombohedral and Triclinic.
13. (c)
Sol. 14 kinds of Bravais lattices (space lattices) are possible in
a crystal.
14. (a)
Sol. BCC has a coordination number of 8.
15. (b)
N  mol . wt.(M )
Sol. Density of unit cell = g cm − 3
V (= a )  avogadro no. ( N o )
3

16. (b)
Sol. Bcc structure has one atom shared by 1 unit cell.
17. (a)
Sol. The number of spheres in one body centred cubic and in
one face centred cubic unit cell is 2 and 4 respectively.

18. (d)
Sol. Frenkel’s defect is due to shift of an ion from the normal
lattice site (Creating a vacancy) and occupy interstitial spaces.
19. (d)
Sol. Schottky defects occurs in highly ionic compounds which
have high co-ordination number ex.
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 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry-Solid State Level-2

1. The lattice site in a pure crystal cannot be occupied by ……. . (d) In this arrangement spheres of the fourth layer are exactly
(a) Molecule (b) Ion (c) Electron (d) Atom aligned with those of the first layer.
2. The total number of tetrahedral voids in the face centred unit
cell is ………. . 11. Schottky defect generally appears in.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 (a) NaCl (b) KCl
3. Which of the following defects is also known as dislocations (c) CsCl (d) All of these
defect?
12. In AgBr crystal, the ion size lies in the order Ag +  Br − . The
(a) Frenkel defect (b) Schottky defect
AgBr crystal should have the following characteristics.
(c) Non – stoichiometric defect (d) Simple interstitial defect
(a) Defectless (perfect) crystal
4. Study the figure of a solid given below depicting the
arrangement of particles. Which is the most appropriate term (b) Schottky defect only
used the figure? (c) Frenkel defect only
(d) Both Schottky and Frenkel defects
13. An ionic compound has a unit cell consisting of A ions at the
corners of a cube and B ions on the centers of the faces of the
cube. The empirical formula for this compound would be
(a) AB (b) A2B (c) AB3 (d) A3 B
14. In a compound, atoms of element Y form ccp lattice and those
of element X occupy 2/3 rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of
the compound will be
(a) Isotropy (b) Anisotropy (a) X2Y3 (b) X2Y (c) X3 Y4 (d) X4 Y3
(c) Irregular shape (d) Amorphous nature 15. An element X (At. wt. = 80 g/mol) having fcc structure,
calculate no. of unit cells in 8 gm of X:
5. The major binding force in diamond, silicon and quartz is
(a) 0.4 × NA (b) 0.1 × NA (c) 4 × NA (d) NA/40
(a) Electrostatic force (b) Electrical attractions 16. The number of nearest neighbours to each sphere in
(c) Covalent bond force (d) Van der Waals forces hexagonal close packing pattern in its own layer will be:
6. A crystal is formed by two elements X and Y in cubic structure. (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 8
X atoms are at the corners of a cube while Y atoms are at the 17. How many chloride ions are surrounding sodium ion in sodium
face centre. The formula of the compound will be chloride crystal?
(a) XY (b) XY2 (c) X2Y3 (d) XY3 (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 12
18. Silver halides generally show
7. Total volume of atoms present in a fcc cell of a metal with
(a) Schottky defect
radius r is
(b) Frenkel defect
12 3 16 3 20 3 24 3
(a) r (b) r (c) r (d) r (c) Both Frenkel and Schottky defects
3 3 3 3 (d) Cation excess defect
8. Relationship between atomic radius and the edge length a of a 19. An electron trapped in an anion site in a crystal is called
body – centred cubic unit cell is
(a) F – centre (b) Frenkel defect
3 3a
(a) r = a/2 (b) r = a / 2 (c) r = a (d) r = (c) Schottky defect (d) Interstitial defect
4 2 20. What is the effect of Frenkel defect on the density of ionic
9. Which of the following statements is not true about amorphous solids?
solids? (a) The density of the crystal increases
(a) On heating they may become crystalline at certain (b) The density of the crystal decreases
temperature. (c) The density of the crystal remains unchanged.
(b) They may become crystalline on keeping for long time. (d) There is no relationship between density of a crystal and
(c) Amorphous solids can be moulded by heating. defect present in it.
(d) They are anisotropic in nature.
10. Which of the following statements is not true about the 21. The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc crystal with density
hexagonal close packing? d = 10 g / cm 3 and cell edge equal to 100 pm , is equal to.
(a) The coordination number is 12. (a) 4  10 25 (b) 3  10 25 (c) 2  10 25 (d) 1  10 25
(b) It has 74% packing efficiency. 22. A solid has a structure in which 'W ' atoms are located at the
(c) Tetrahedral voids of the second layer are covered by the corners of a cubic lattice ' O' atoms at the centre of edges and
spheres of the third layer. ' Na' atoms at the centre of the cube. The formula for the
compound is.

MSA-Chemistry
 (a) NaWO 2 (b) NaWO 3 (a) 127.6 pm (b) 180.5 pm (c) 160.5 pm (d) 64 pm
38. In a CCP lattice of X and Y, X atoms are present at the corners
(c) Na 2 WO 3 (d) NaWO 4
while Y atoms are at face centres. Then the formula of the
23. A compound is formed by elements A and B. This crystallizes compound would be if one of the X atoms from a corner is
in the cubic structure when atoms A are the corners of the cube replaced by Z atoms (also monovalent) ?
and atoms B are at the centre of the body. The simplest (a) X7Y24Z2 (b) X7Y24Z (c) X24 Y7Z (d) XY24 Z
formula of the compounds is. 39. If the unit cell length of sodium chloride crystal is 600pm, then
(a) AB (b) AB 2 (c) A 2 B (d) AB 4 its density will be
24. In a cubic structure of compound which is made from X and Y, (a) 2.165gm/cm3 (b) 3.247gm/cm3
where X atoms are at the corners of the cube and Y at the face (c) 1.79 gm/cm3 (d) 1.082 gm/cm3
centres of the cube. The molecular formula of the compound 40. What is the coordination in a square close packed structure in
is. two dimnensions?
(a) X 2Y (b) X 3Y (c) XY 2 (d) XY 3 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

41. Silicon doped with electron-rich impurity forms …….

25. If three elements X, Y & Z crystallized in cubic solid lattice
(a) p-type semiconductor (b) n – type semiconductor
with X atoms at corners, Y atoms at cube centre& Z -atoms at
the edges, then the formula of the compound is: (c) Intrinsic semiconductor (d) Insulator
(a) XYZ (b) XY3Z (c) XYZ3 (d) X3 YZ 42. Ionic solids conduct electricity in molten state but not in solid
state because
-3
26. A substance has density of 2 kg dm & it crystallizes to (a) In molten state free ions are furnished which are not free
fcc lattice with edge length equal to 700 pm,then the moalr
to move in solid state
mass of the substance is
(b) In solid state ionic are hard, brittle and become soft in
(a) 75.50 gmmol -1 (b) 103.30 gmmol -1
molten state
(c) 56.02 gmmol -1 (d) 65.36 gmmol -1
(c) All solids conduct electricity in molten state
27. Copper crystallises infcc lattice with a unit cell edge of 361
pm. The radius of copper atom is: (d) In solid state ions are converted to atoms which are
(a) 108 pm (b) 128 pm (c) 157 pm (d) 181 pm insulators.
28. Lithium forms body centred cubic structure. The length of the 43. In ABC ABC packing if the number of atoms in the unit cell in
side of its unit cell is 351 pm. Atomic radius of the lithium will n then the number tetrahedral voids in the units cell as equal to
be : (a) n (b) n/2 (c) n /4 (d) 2n
(a) 75 pm (b) 300 pm (c) 240 pm (d)152 pm 44. Which of the following does not represent radius of the atoms
29. The smallest repeating pattern which when repeated in three correctly?
dimensions results in the crystal of the substance is called a
(a) Space lattice (b) Crystal lattice (i) Simply cubic cell : Radius =
(c) Unit cell (d) Coordination number 2
30. You are given 4 identical balls. What is the maximum number a
of square voids and triangular voids (in separate arrangements) (ii) Face centred cubic cell : Radius =
that can be created ? 3 3
(a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 1 (c) 3, 1 (d) 1, 3
3
31. Copper crystallises in a structure of face centerd cubic unit cell. (iii) Body centred cubic cell : Radius − a
The atomic radius of copper is 1.28 Å. What is axial length on 4
an edge of copper. (a) (i) (b) (iii) (c) (ii) (d) (i) and (ii)
(a) 2.16 Å (b) 3.62 Å (c) 3.94 Å (d) 4.15 Å
45. Edge length of unit cell of chromium metal is 287 pm with bcc
32. The maximum percentage of available volume that can be
arrangement. The atomic radius is of the order
filled in a face centred cubic system by atoms is-
(a) 74% (b) 68% (c) 34% (d) 26% (a) 124.27pm (b) 287 pm
33. You are given 6 identical balls.What is the maximum number (c) 574 pm (d) 143.5pm
of square voids and triangular voids(in separate arrangements)
that can be created? 46. How many lithium atoms are present in an units cell with edge
−3
(a) 2 , 4 (b) 4 , 2 (c) 4 , 3 (d) 3 , 4 length 3.5 Å and density 0.53 g cm ?
34. In a compound, oxide ions are arranged in cubic close packing (Atomic mass of Li = 6.94 )
arrangement. Cations A occupy one-sixth of the tetrahedral (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 6
voids and cations B occupy one-third of the octahedral voids.
The formula of the compound is 47. An element with atomic mass 100 has a bcc structure and edge
(a) A2BO3 (b) AB2O3 (c) A2 B2O2 (d) ABO3 length 400pm. The density of element is
−3 −3
(a) 10 .37 g cm (b) 5.19 g cm
35. The co-ordinatation number of a metal crystallizing in a −3 −3
(c) 7.29 g cm (d) 2.14 g cm
hexagonal closed packed structure is :
(a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 0 48. What type of crystal defect is shown in the figure given below?
36. A solid compound contains X, Y and Z atoms in a cubic lattice
with X atoms occupying the corners, Y atoms in the body
centred positions and Z atoms at the centre of the faces of the
unit cell. What is the empirical formula of the compound ?
(a) XY2Z3 (b) XYZ3 (c) X2Y2 Z3 (d) X8YZ6
37. An element 'A' has face-centred cubic structure with edge
(a) Frenkel defect (b) Schottky defect
length equal to 361 pm. The apparent radius of atom 'A' is -
MSA-Chemistry
 (c) Interstitial defect (d) Cations excess defect
49. Schottky defect is observed in crystals when ……… .
(a) Some cations move from their lattice site to interstitial
sites
(b) Equal number of cations and anion are missing from the
lattice
(c) Some lattice sites are occupied by electrons
(d) Some impurity is present in the lattice.
50. The correct order of the packing efficiency in different types of
unit cells is ……… .
(a) fcc< bcc < simple cubic (b) fcc> bcc > simple cubic
(c) fcc< bcc > simple cubic (d) bcc<fcc> simple cubic

MSA-Chemistry
 Matrix Science Academy
Solid State Answers

1. Sol. Lattice sites in a pure crystal are occupied by the

3a
constituent units like atoms, molecules, ions but not occupied d =
by electrons. 2
2. (b)
d 3
Sol. No. of atoms per unit cell in face centred unit cell = 4 Radius, r = = a
 No. of tetrahedral voide = 2 ×4 =8 2 4
3. (a) 9. (d)
Sol. Frenkel defect is also known as dislocations defect as in Sol. Amorphous solids are isotropic in nature.
this the smaller ion (usually cations) is dislocation from its 10. (d)
normal site to an interstitial site. Sol. When third layer is placed over the second layer and all
4. (b) tetrahedral voids are covered by the spheres of the third layer
Sol. Crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature due to different then in this case, the spheres of the third layer are exactly
arrangement of particles in different directions. aligned with those of the fist layer. (ABAB…….. pattern). This
5. (c) structure is called hexagonal close packed (hcp)
Sol. In covalent solids, the forces of attraction are covalent structure.
bond forces.
6. (d) 11. (d)
1 Sol. Schottky defects occurs in highly ionic compounds which
Sol. No. of X atom (at the corners) =  8 = 1 have high co-ordination number ex.
8
NaCl, KCl, CsCl .
NO. of Y atoms (fcc)
12. (c)
1
= 6 = 3 Sol. AgBr exhibits Frenkel defect due to large difference in the
2 size of Ag + and Br − ions.
Hence, the formula is XY3. 13. (c)
7. (b) 1
Sol. Number of A ions per unit cell = ×8=1
Sol. a = 2 2r 8
Volume of the cell a = ( 2 2r ) = 16 2r 1
3 3 3
Number of B ions per unit cell = ×6=3
1 1 2
No. of spheres in fcc = 8 + 6 = 4 Empirical formula = AB3 .
8 2 14. (d)
4 3 16 3 Sol. According to question : Number of Y atom in ccp unit cell
Volume of 4 spheres = 4  r = r =4
3 3
2 16
8. (c) Number of X atom in ccp unit cell = 8 × =
Sol. Distance between nearest neighbours. 3 13
AD Formula of compound = X16/3Y4 = X16 Y12 = X4 Y3
d= 15. (d)
2 Sol. Effective no. of atom in a unit cell = 4
8
no. of atom =  NA
80
N 1 N
 no of unit cell = A  = A
10 4 40
16. (b)
In right angled Sol. Number of nearest neighbours in hcp pattern in its own
ABC, AC = AB2 + BC2 layer = 6.

AC2 = a 2 + a 2 or AC = 2a
Now in right angled ADC ,
AD2 = AC2 + DC2
AD 2 = ( 2a ) 2 + a 2 = 3a 2  AD = 3a 17. (c)

MSA CHEMISTRY
 Sol. Each Na + ion is surrounded by 6 Cl− ions and each Cl− 27. (b)
Sol. FCC lattice
ion is surrounded by 6 Na + ions is NaCl crystal. a = 361 pm
18. (c) a 2 = 4r
Sol. Silver halides generally show both Frenkel and Schottky
defects. 361 2
r= = 127.6 » 128 pm.
19. Sol. F – centres are electron trapped anion site which are 4
responsible for colour. 28. (d)
20. (c) 3 3
Sol. In Frenkel defect, ion get displaced form their original Sol. For BCC structure 3 a = 4r r = a=  351
4 4
position and move to interstitial sites. Hence, there is no change
= 152 pm.
in the density of the crystal. 29. (c)
Sol. Unit cell : Unit cell is the smallest portion of a crystal
21. (a) lattice which, when repeated in different directions, generates
  a 3  N 0  10 −30 the entire lattice.
Sol. M =
z 30. (a)
−30
Sol.
10  (100 )  (6 .02  10 )  10
3 23
= = 15 .05
4
6.02  1023
No. of atoms in 100 g =  100 = 4  10 25 .
15.05
22. (b)
31. (b)
1
Sol. In a unit cell, W atoms at the corner = 8 =1
8 Sol. 4r = a 2
4r 4 1.28
atoms at the centre of edges =
1
 12 = 3 a= =
4 2 2 Å = 3.62 Å
Na atoms at the centre of the cube = 1 32. (a)
W : O : Na = 1 : 3 : 1, hence formula = NaWO 3 Sol. Packing efficiency of FCC or CCP = 74%.
23. (a) 33. (a)
Sol. A atoms are at eight corners of the cube. Therefore, the Sol.
8
number of A atoms in the unit cell = = 1 , atoms B per unit
8
cell = 1. Hence the formula is AB. 2 Square Voids (4)
34. (d)
24. (d)
Sol. no. of oxide ions = 4
Sol. X atoms are at eight corners of the cube. Therefore, the
1 4
number of X atoms in the unit cell =
8
=1 . 8
8 no. of A particles = 6 =3
Y atoms are at the face centre of six faces. Therefore, its share 1 4
6
4
in the unit cell = = 3 . The formula is XY 3 . no. of B particles = 3 = 3
2
so formula is A4/3 B4/3O4 or ABO3
25. (c)
Sol. Atom X is shared by 8 corners 35. (a)
1 atoms of Z is shared by 4 unit cells Sol. Coordination number of spheres in HCP arrangement is
Atom Y is present at centre of the unit cell = 12. (6 in its own layer, 3 above and 3 below the layer).
Hence, effective number of atoms of X per unit cell = 36. (b)
8
1 Sol. X = = 1
8 = 1 8
8 Y=1
12 6
Effective number of atoms of Z per unit cell = =3 Z= =3
4 2
Effective number of atoms of Y per unit cell = 1 XYZ 3
Hence, the formula of the compound is XYZ3 37. (a)
26. (b) Sol. a 2 = 4r
n  Mm 2a
Sol.  = r =
NA  a3 4
4  Mm 1.414  361
=
2= 4
6.023  1023  (7  10−8 )3 = 127.6 pm
(Since, effective number of atoms is unit cell = 4 ) on solving 38. (b)
we get Mm = 103. 03 gm/mol
MSA CHEMISTRY
 Sol. X 7 Y3 Z 1   X7Y24 Z
8 8
39. (c)
nMm
Sol.  =
NAa3

= 4  58.5 = 1.79 g/cc

(
6.023  10 23  6  10 −8 )
3

40. (c)
Sol. In such arrangement, each sphere is in contact with four of
its neighbours. Thus, two dimensional
coordination number is 4.

41. (b)
Sol. n – type semiconductor
42. (a)
Sol. Ionic solids conduct electricity in solid state as well as
molten state and are malleable, ductile and have fairly high
melting point.
43. (d)
Sol. Number of tetrahedral voids per atom in a units cell is 2.
Hence the total number of tetrahedral voids = 2n.
44. (c)
a
Sol. For fcc, radius of the atom =
2 2
45. (a)
3
Sol. In bcc lattice, r = a
4
1.732  287
r= = 124.27pm
4
46. (a)
Z M
Sol. d =
NA  a3
a3  d  NA
Z=
M
(3.5  10−8 )3  0.53  6.023  1023
Z= = 1.97  2
6.94
47. (b)
Z M 2  100
Sol. d = = −10 3
a  N A (400  10 )  6.023  1023
3

48. (b)
Sol. Equal number of cations and anions are missing from the
crystal.
49. (b)
Sol. In Schottky defect, equal number of cations and anions are
missing from the crystal.
50. (b)
Sol. Packing efficiency of ccp or fcc = 74%
Packing efficiency of bcc = 68%
Packing efficiency so simple cubic = 52.4%
Thus, the correct order of the packing efficiency is Fcc > bcc
> simples cubic

MSA CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Solutions (Level-1)

1. Which of the following is a colligative property. (b) Solvent molecules move from lower to higher
(a) Osmotic pressure (b) Boiling point concentration
(c) Vapour pressure (d) Freezing point (c) Solute molecules move from higher to lower
2. Which of the following is not a colligative property. concentration
(a) Osmotic pressure (b) Elevation in B.P. (d) Solute molecules move from lower to higher
(c) Vapour pressure (d) Depression in freezing point concentration
3. When a substance is dissolved in a solvent the vapour pressure 12. Two solutions A and B are separated by semi- permeable
of the solvent is decreased. This results in. membrane. If liquid flows form A to B then.
(a) An increase in the b.p. of the solution (a) A is less concentrated than B
(b) A decrease in the b.p. of the solvent (b) A is more concentrated than B
(c) The solution having a higher freezing point than the olvent (c) Both have same concentration
(d) The solution having a lower osmotic pressure than the (d) None of these
solvent 13. Pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because .
4. An aqueous solution of methanol in water has vapour pressure. (a) Heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
(a) Equal to that of water (b) Equal to that of methanol (b) Boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased
(c) More than that of water (d) Less than that of water (c) The higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food
5. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the material
ratio between the number of.
(a) Solute moleules and solvent molecules (d) Cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in
(b) Solute molecules and the total molecules in the solution temperature
14. The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the elevation in B.P.
(c) Solvent molecules and the total molecules in the solution
to.
(d) Solvent molecules and the total number of ions of the solute (a) Molarity (b) Molality
6. When a substance is dissolved in a solvent, the vapour pressure
(c) Mole fraction of solute (d) Mole fraction of solvent
of the solvent is decreased. This results in.
(a) An increase in the boiling point of the solution 15. 1% solution of Ca(NO 3 )2 has freezing point.
(b) A decrease in the boiling point of solvent (a) 0 o C (b) Less than 0 o C
(c) The solution having a higher freezing point than the (c) Greater than 0 o C (d) None of the above
solvent
(d) The solution having a lower osmotic pressure than the 16. In osmosis.
solvent (a) Solvent molecules move from higher concentration to
7. Which one of the following mixtures can be separated into pure lower concentration
components by fractional distillation. (b) Solvent molecules move from lower to higher
(a) Benzene – toluene (b) Water – ethyl alcohol concentration
(c) Water – nitric acid (d) Water – hydrochloric acid (c) Solute molecules move from higher to lower
8. Which of the following is true when components forming an concentration
ideal solution are mixed. (d) Solute molecules move from lower to higher
(a) H m = Vm = 0 (b) H m  Vm concentration
(c) H m  Vm (d) H m = Vm = 1 17. Two solutions A and B are separated by semi- permeable
9. Which of the following is not correct for ideal solution. membrane. If liquid flows form A to B then.
(a) S mix = 0 (b) H mix = 0 (a) A is less concentrated than B
(b) A is more concentrated than B
(c) It obeys Raoult's law (d) Vmix = 0
(c) Both have same concentration
10. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when (d) None of these
10 g glucose (P1 ),10 g urea (P2 ) and 10 g sucrose (P3 ) are 18. Pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because .
dissolved in 250 ml of water is. (a) Heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
(a) P1  P2  P3 (b) P3  P1  P2 (b) Boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased
(c) P2  P1  P3 (d) P2  P3  P1 (c) The higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food
material
11. In osmosis. (d) Cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in
(a) Solvent molecules move from higher concentration to temperature
lower concentration

MSA-CHEMISTRY
19. The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the elevation in B.P.
to.
(a) Molarity (b) Molality
(c) Mole fraction of solute (d) Mole fraction of solvent
20. 1% solution of Ca(NO 3 )2 has freezing point.
(a) 0 o C (b) Less than 0 o C
(c) Greater than 0 o C (d) None of the above

21. If O.P. of 1 M of the following in water can be measured, which

one will show the maximum O.P.
(a) AgNO 3 (b) MgCl2
(c) (NH 4 )3 PO4 (d) Na2 SO 4
22. Which of the following solution in water possesses the lowest
vapour pressure.
(a) 0.1(M) NaCl (b) 0.1(N ) BaCl 2
(c) 0.1(M) KCl (d) None of these
23. Which of the following solutions in water will have the lowest
vapour pressure.
(a) 0.1 M, NaCl (b) 0.1 M, Sucrose
(c) 0.1 M, BaCl 2 (d) 0.1 M Na3 PO4
24. The vapour pressure will be lowest for.
(a) 0.1 M sugar solution (b) 0.1 M KCl solution
(c) 0.1 M Cu(NO 3 )2 solution (d) 0.1 M AgNO 3 solution
25. Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M solution of NaCl and Na 2 SO 4 will
be.
(a) Same
(b) Osmotic pressure of NaCl solution will be more than
Na 2 SO 4 solution
(c) Osmotic pressure of Na 2 SO 4 solution will be more than
NaCl
(d) Osmotic pressure of NaSO 4 will be less than that of NaCl
solution

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry – Solutions Answers

1. (a) 19. (b)

Sol. Osmotic pressure is colligative property. Sol. Tb = Kb  m or Kb = Tb / m
2. (c) 20. (b)
Sol. Vapour pressure is not colligative property. Sol. Freezing point is lowered on addition of solute in it.
3. (a)
1 21. (c)
Sol. Vapour pressure 
Boiling po int Sol. (NH 4 )3 PO4 gives maximum ion. Hence, its osmotic
When vapour pressure decreases then b.pt. increases. pressure is maximum.
4. (c) 22. (b)
Sol. Methanol has low boiling point than H 2 O Sol. BaCl 2 gives maximum ion hence it is shows lowest
Lower is boiling point of solvent more is vapour pressure. vapour pressure.
5. (b) 23. (d)
Sol. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure of dilute Sol. Na 3 PO4 consist of maximum ions hence it show lowest
solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solute molecule
vapour pressure.
present in the solution.
6. (a) Na 3 PO4 → 3 Na + + PO43 − = 4 ion.
Sol. When vapour pressure of solvent decreases, then the 24. (c)
boiling point of solvent increases. Sol. Vapour pressure of a solvent is lowered by the presence
7. (a) of solute in it. Lowering in vapour pressure is a colligative
Sol. Aromatic compound generally separated by fractional property i.e., it depends on the no. of particles present in the
distillation. e.g. Benzene + Toluene. solution. Cu(NO 3 )2 give the maximum no. of ions. (i.e., 3) so
8. (a) it causes the greatest lowering in vapour pressure of water.
Sol. For the ideal solution H mix and Vmix = 0 .
25. (c)
9. (a) Sol. Na2 SO 4 have more osmotic pressure than NaCl
Sol. For the ideal solution S mix is not equal to zero.
solution because Na2 SO 4 gives 3 ions.
10. (c)
w 1
Sol. P = R.T since wvT are constant thus P 
mv m
P2  P1  P3 .

11. (b)
Sol. In the osmosis solvent molecule move from lower
concentration to higher concentration.
12. (a)
Sol. Osmosis occur from dilute solution to concentrate
solution. Therefore solution A is less concentrated than B.
13. (b)
Sol. Due to higher pressure inside the boiling point elevated.
14. (b)
Sol. Tb = Kb  m or Kb = Tb / m
15. (b)
Sol. Freezing point is lowered on addition of solute in it.

16. (b)
Sol. In the osmosis solvent molecule move from lower
concentration to higher concentration.
17. (a)
Sol. Osmosis occur from dilute solution to concentrate
solution. Therefore solution A is less concentrated than B.
18. (b)
Sol. Due to higher pressure inside the boiling point elevated.

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Solutions (Level-2)

1. The relative lowering of vapour pressure produced by 12. Elevation in boiling point was 0.52 o C when 6 gm of a
dissolving 71.5 g of a substance in 1000 g of water is 0.00713.
compound X was dissolved in 100 gm of water. Molecular
The molecular weight of the substance will be.
(a) 18.0 (b) 342 (c) 60 (d) 180 weight of X is (Kb for water is 0.52 per 1000 gm of water)
2. Which solution will show the maximum vapour pressure at (a) 120 (b) 60 (c) 180 (d) 600
300 K. 13. The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the elevation in B.P.
(a) 1 M C 12 H 22 O11 (b) 1 M CH 3 COOH to.
(a) Molarity (b) Molality
(c) 1 M NaCl 2 (d) 1 M NaCl
(c) Mole fraction of solute (d) Mole fraction of solvent
3. The vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 0.80 atm. On mixing a o
non-volatile B to A, its vapour pressure becomes 0.6 atm. The 14. Molal depression constant for water is 1.86 C . The freezing
point of a 0.05 molal solution of a non-electrolyte in water is.
mole fraction of B in the solution is.
(a) 0.150 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (a) − 1.86 o C (b) − 0.93 o C
4. If 3 gm of glucose (mol. wt. 180) is dissolved in 60 gm of water (c) − 0.093 o C (d) 0.93 o C
at 15 o C . Then the osmotic pressure of this solution will be. 15. The amount of urea to be dissolved in 500 ml of water (K =18.6
(a) 0.34 atm (b) 0.65 atm K mole −1 in 100g solvent) to produce a depression of
(c) 6.57 atm (d) 5.57 atm 0.186 o C in freezing point is.
5. The concentration in gms per litre of a solution of cane sugar (a) 9 g (b) 6 g (c) 3 g (d) 0.3 g
(M = 342 ) which is isotonic with a solution containing 6 gms of 16. The freezing point of a solution prepared from 1.25 gm of a
urea (M = 60 ) per litre is. non-electrolyte and 20 gm of water is 271 .9 K . If molar
(a) 3.42 (b) 34.2 (c) 5.7 (d) 19 depression constant is 1.86 K mole −1 , then molar mass of the
6. Osmotic pressure is 0.0821 atm at temperature of 300 K . Find solute will be.
concentration in mole/litre. (a) 105.7 (b) 106.7 (c) 115.3 (d) 93.9
(a) 0.033 (b) 0.066 (c) 0.33  10 −2 (d) 3 17. If K f value of H 2 O is 1.86. The value of Tf for 0.1m
7. Osmotic pressure of a solution containing 0.1 mole of solute solution of non-volatile solute is.
per litre at 273 K is (in atm). (a) 18.6 (b) 0.186 (c) 1.86 (d) 0.0186
0.1
(a)  0 .08205  273 (b) 0.1  1  0.08205  273 18. A solution of urea (mol. mass 56g mol –1) boils at 100.18°C at
1 the atmospheric pressure. If K f and K b for water are 1.86 and
1 0 .1 273
(c)  0 .08205  273 (d)  0.512K kg mol –1 respectively the above solution will freeze at.
0.1 1 0 . 08205 (a) – 6.54°C (b) 6.54°C
8. The average osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.8 bar at 37 o C (c) 0.654°C (d) –0.654°C
. What is the concentration of an aqueous NaCl solution that 19. If O.P. of 1 M of the following in water can be measured, which
could be used in the blood stream. one will show the maximum O.P.
(a) 0.16 mol / L (b) 0.32 mol / L (a) AgNO 3 (b) MgCl2
(c) 0.60 mol / L (d) 0.45 mol / L (c) (NH ) PO (d) Na SO
4 3 4 2 4
9. A solution of sucrose(molar mass = 342 g/mol) is prepared by 20. Which of the following solution in water possesses the lowest
dissolving 68.4 g of it per litre of the solution, what is its vapour pressure.
osmotic pressure (R = 0.082 lit. atm. k −1 mol −1 ) at 273k. (a) 0.1(M) NaCl (b) 0.1(N ) BaCl 2
(a) 6.02 atm (b) 4.92 atm
(c) 0.1(M) KCl (d) None of these
(c) 4.04 atm (d) 5.32 atm
10. The rise in the boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 gram 21. Which of the following solutions in water will have the lowest
vapour pressure.
of glucose in 100 g of a solvent in 0.1o C . The molal elevation
(a) 0.1 M, NaCl (b) 0.1 M, Sucrose
constant of the liquid is.
(c) 0.1 M, BaCl 2 (d) 0.1 M Na3 PO4
(a) 0.01 K / m (b) 0.1 K / m
22. The vapour pressure will be lowest for.
(c) 1 K / m (d) 10 K / m
(a) 0.1 M sugar solution (b) 0.1 M KCl solution
11. If 0.15 g of a solute dissolved in 15 g of solvent is boiled at a (c) 0.1 M Cu(NO 3 )2 solution (d) 0.1 M AgNO 3 solution
temperature higher by 0.216 o C than that of the pure solvent. 23. Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M solution of NaCl and Na SO will
2 4
The molecular weight of the substance (molal elevation
be.
constant for the solvent is 2.16 o C ) is. (a) Same
(a) 1.01 (b) 10 (c) 10.1 (d) 100
(b) Osmotic pressure of NaCl solution will be more than
Na 2 SO 4 solution

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (c) Osmotic pressure of Na 2 SO 4 solution will be more than Number of molecules actually present
(c) i =
NaCl Number of molecules exp ected to be present
(d) Osmotic pressure of NaSO 4 will be less than that of NaCl Total number of particles taken
solution
before association / dissociation
24. The Van't Hoff factor i for a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of urea (d) i =
is. Number of particles after
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.1 (c) 1.2 (d) 1.0 association / dissociation
25. Which of the following curves represents the Henry’s law ?
32. The vapour pressure of water at 20 0C is 17.54 mmHg. What
will be the vapour pressure of the water in the apparatus shown
after the piston is lowered, decreasing the volume of the gas
above the liquid to one half of its initial volume (assume
temperature constant).
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

26. The law which indicates the relationship between solubility of

a gas in liquid and pressure is………
(a) Raoult’s law (b) Henry’s law
(a) 8.77 mmHg (b) 17.54 mmHg
(c) Lowering of vapour pressure (d) Van’t Hoff law
(c) 35.08 mmHg (d) Between 8.77 and 17.54 mmHg
27. The osmotic pressure of a solution can be increased by
33. The degree of dissociation of an electrolyte is  and its van’t
(a) Increasing the volume Hoff factor is i. The number of ions obtained by complete
(b) Increasing the number of solute molecules dissociation of 1 molecule of the electrolyte is:
(c) Decreasing the temperature i +  −1 i −1 1 +1 +
(d) Removing semi permeable membrane. (a) (b) i −  − 1 (c) (d)
  1 
28. The unit of ebulioscopic constant is _________. 34. FeCl3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aq. solution gives blue
−1
(a) K kg mol −1 or K (molality) colour. These are separated by a semipermeable membrane PQ
−1 −1 as shown. Due to osmosis there is-
(b) mol kg K or K (molality)
−1 −1 −1 −1
(c) Kg mol K or K (molality)
−1
(d) K mol kg or K (molality )
29. The values of van’t Hoff factors forKCl, NaCl and K 2SO 4 ,
respectively, are _______. (a) Blue colour formation in side X
(a) 2, 2 and 2 (b) 2, 2 and 3 (b) Blue colour formation in side Y
(c) 1, 1 and 2 (d) 1, 1 and 1 (c) Blue colour formation in both of the sides X and Y
(d) No blue colour formation
30. When acetone and chloroform are mixed together, which of the
35. Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions will have the
following observation is correct
lowest freezing point ?
(a) K2SO4 (b) NaCl (c) Urea (d) Glucose
36. The molarity of 648 g of pure water is
(a) 36 m (b) 55.5m (c) 3.6m (d) 5.55m
37. What is mass percentage of carbon tetrachloride if 22 g
(a) A-A and B-B interactions are stronger than A-B benzene is dissolved in 122 g of carbon tetrachloride
interactions. (a) 84.72% (b) 15.28 % (c) 50% (d) 44%
(b) A-A and B-B interaction are weaker than A-B interaction 38. Henry’s law constant molality of methane in benzene at 298 K
(c) A-A , B-B and A-B interactions are equal 4.27 105 mm Hg. The molefraction of methane in benzene
(d) The liquids from separated layer and are immiscible. at 298 under 760 mm Hg is
−3
31. Which of the following representation of I (Van’t Hoff factor) (a) 1.78  10 (b) 17.43 (c) 0.114 (d) 2.814
is not correct?
39. A solution is made by dissolving 20 g of substance in 500 mL
Observed colligative property
(a) i = of water. Its osmotic pressure was found to be 600 mm of Hg
Expectedcoligative property at 15º C . Find the molecular weight of the substance.
(a) 1198 (b) 500 (c) 1200 (d) 1000
Normal molecular mass
(b) i = 40. A plant cell shrinks when it is kept in a
Observed molecular mass (a) Hypotonic solution (b) Hypertonic solution
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (c) Isotonic solution (d) Pure water

41. What weight of glycerol should be added to 600 g of water in

order to lower its freezing point by 10º C ?
−1
( K f = 1.8º C m )
(a) 496 g (b) 297 g (c) 310 g (d) 426 g
−1
42. If 1 g of solute (molar mass = 50 g mol ) is dissolved in 50
g of solvent and the elevation in boiling point is 1 K. the molar
boiling constant of the solvent is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2.5 (d) 5
43. Which of the following has the highest freezing point?
(a) 1 m NaCl solution (b) 1 m KCl solution
(c) 1 m AlCl3 solution (d) 1 m C6 H12O6 Solution
44. For which of the following solutes the van’t Hoff factor is not
greater than one?
(a) NaNO3 (b) BaCl2
(c) K 4 [ Fe(CN ) 6 ] (d) NH 2CONH2
45. The Van’t Hoff factor of 0.005 M aqueous solution of KCl is
1.95 the degree of ionization of KCl is
(a) 0.95 (b) 0.97 (c) 0.94 (d) 0.96
46. In comparisons to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the
depression in freezing point of a 0.01M MgCl 2 solution is
(a) The same (b) About twice
(c) About three times (d) About six times
47. At a given temperature osmotic pressure of a concentrated
solution of a substance _______.
(a) Is higher than that at a dilute solution.
(b) Is lower than that of a dilute solution
(c) Is same as that of a dilute solution
(d) Cannot be compared with osmotic pressure of dilute
solution.
48. Value of Henry’s constant K H _________.
(a) Increases with increase in temperature
(b) Decreases with increase in temperature
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases then decreases
49. The value of Henry’s constant K H is _________.
(a) Greater for gases with higher solubility
(b) Greater for gases with lower solubility
(c) Constant for all gases
(d) Not related to the solubility of gases
50. Solubility of a substance is its maximum amount that can be
dissolve in a specified amount of solvent. It depends upon.
(i) Nature of solute
(ii) Nature of solven
(iii) Temperature
(iv) Pressure
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Solutions Answer Key

1. (d) 14. (c)

w Sol. Tf = K f  molality = 1.86  0.05 = 0.093 °C
P 0 − Ps m 71 .5 m
Sol. = or 0 .00713 = Thus freezing point = 0 – 0.093 = − 0.093 o C .
P0 w W 71 .5 1000
+ + 15. (c)
m M m 18
100  K  w 100  18 . 6  w
m = 180 Sol. T f = 0 . 186 =
m W 60  500
2. (a)
w = 3g
Sol. Sucrose will give minimum value of P .
16. (a)
P = P 0 − Ps
K f  1000  w 1 . 86  1000  1 . 25
Sol. Molar mass = =
Ps = P − P is maximum.
0
T f  W 20  1 . 1
3. (b) = 105 .68 = 105 .7 .
P 0 − Ps 17. (b)
Sol. According to Raoult’s Law = xB
P0 Sol. T f = K f  m = 1.86  0.1 = 0.186 .
0 .8 − 0 .6
(Mole fraction of solute) x B = = 0 .25 . 18. (d)
0 .8 Sol. Tb = 0.18 ; Tb = mK b
4. (c)
0 .18 mK b 0 . 18  1 . 86
3  1000 = ; = T f ; T f = 0.653
Sol.  = CRT =  0 . 0821  288 = 6.56 atm . T f m Kf 0 . 512
180  60
5. (b) T 0 − Ts = 0.653 ; T 0 − Ts = 0.653 ; Ts = 0 − 0.653 o C .
w1 w2
Sol. Isotonic solution = = 19. (c)
m 1 V1 m 2 V2 Sol. (NH 4 )3 PO4 gives maximum ion. Hence, its osmotic
w1 6 342  6 pressure is maximum.
= = = = 34 .2 .
342  1 60  1 60 20. (b)
6. (c) Sol. BaCl 2 gives maximum ion hence it is shows lowest
 0 . 0821
Sol.  = CRT , C = = = 0 .33  10 − 2 . vapour pressure.
RT 0 . 821  300
21. (d)
7. (a) Sol. Na 3 PO4 consist of maximum ions hence it show lowest
w 0 .1
Sol.  =  RT =  0 .0821  273 vapour pressure.
m 1
8. (b) Na 3 PO4 → 3 Na + + PO43 − = 4 ion.
 7 .8 22. (c)
Sol.  = C R T ; C = = = 0  31 mol / litre
RT  082  310 Sol. Vapour pressure of a solvent is lowered by the presence
9. (b) of solute in it. Lowering in vapour pressure is a colligative
Sol.  = CRT property i.e., it depends on the no. of particles present in the
w  R  T 68 .4  0 . 0821  273 solution. Cu(NO 3 )2 give the maximum no. of ions. (i.e., 3) so
 = = = 4.92 atm
mV 342
it causes the greatest lowering in vapour pressure of water.
10. (c) 23. (c)
Tb 0 .1  100
Sol. K b = = =1K /m . Sol. Na2 SO 4 have more osmotic pressure than NaCl
m 1 .8
 1000 solution because Na2 SO 4 gives 3 ions.
180
11. (d) 24. (d)
K b  w  1000 2 .16  0 .15  1000 Sol. Urea does not give ion in the solution.
Sol. m = = = 100 .
Tb  W 0 .216  15 25. (a)
Sol. Henary’s law is m = K · P ; where m = mass of gas
12. (b)
absorbed by given volume of the solvent.
100  K b  w 100  5 . 2  6
Sol. Tb =  0 .52 = P = pressure of gas ;
m W m  100
log m = log K + log P
100  5 . 2  6
m= = 60
0 . 52  100 . 26. (b)
13. (b)
Sol. Tb = Kb  m or Kb = Tb / m

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 Sol. Henry’s law states that mass of a gas dissolved per unit p = kHx
volume of a solvent is directly proportional to the pressure of
p 760
the gas at that temperature. x= = = 1.78  10−3
m  p or m = kp k H 4.27  10 5

27. (b) 39. (a)

WB RT 20  0.0821 288  1000
n Sol. M = = = 1198
Sol.  = RT V (600 / 760)  500
V
Hence   n 40. (b)
Sol. Hypertonic solution has high osmotic pressure. When a
28. (a)
plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution water will diffuse out
Sol. Unit of ebulioscopic constant (K b ) is K kg mol −1 or K
of the cell resulting in shrinking of the cell.
−1
(molality)
−1 41. (b)
(molality = mol kg )
k f  W2  1000
29. (b) Sol. Tf = k f  m =
+ −
M 2  W1
Sol. KCl ⎯
⎯→ K + Cl , thus i = 2
10  92  600
⎯→ Na + + Cl− thus, i = 2
NaCl ⎯ W2 = = 296.77g
1.86  1000
⎯→ 2K + + SO 24− thus, i = 3
K 2SO 4 ⎯ 42. (c)
30. (b) Sol. Tb = K b  m
Sol. When acetone and chloroform are mixed together a
Tb 1 5
hydrogen bond is formed between them which increase Or K b = = = = 2.5
m 1 1000 2
intermolecular interactions, hence A – B interactions are 
stronger than A – A and A – B interactions. 50 50
43. (d)
Sol. C6 H12 O6 is a non electrolyte hence furnishes minimum
number of particles and will have maximum freezing point.
Tf = iK f m or Tf  i
31. (d) 44. (d)
Sol. i = Total no. of particles after association / dissociation Sol. Urea is non electrolyte hence will not dissociate to give
No. of particles taken before associaiton / dissociation ions.
(a)
32. (b) 45. Sol. KCl K + + Cl− (n = 2)
Sol. Vapour pr. depends on temperature not volume.
33. (a) i − 1 1.95 − 1
= = = 0.95
i +  −1 n −1 2 −1
Sol. i = 1 + (n – 1)  so n =
 46. (c)
34. (d) Sol. Tf = iK f m
Sol. Semipermeable membrane allows the solvent particles
only to pass through it. For glucose i = 1
35. (a) For MgCl 2 , i = 3
1
Sol. Freezing point  Thus, the depression in freezing point (Tf ) of a 0.01 M
No. of particles
36. (b) MgCl 2 solution is abut three time of that of 0.01M glucose
Number of moles solute
Sol. Molality =  1000 solution
Weight of solvent (in g) 47. (a)
Sol.  = CRT
648 1000
m=  = 55.5 m Greater the concentration of solution more will be its osmotic
18 648
pressure. Thus, osmotic pressure of a concentrated solution of
37. (a)
a substance is higher than that at a dilute solution.
Sol. Mass of solution = Mass of C6 H 6 + Mass of CCl4 48. (a)
= 22 + 122 = 144 g Sol. The value of Henry’s constant K H increase with
122 increase in temperature.
Mass % of CCl 4 =  100 = 84.72% 49. (b)
144
38. (a) Sol. p = K H x
Sol. According to Henry’s law

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 Higher the value of K H at a given pressure the lower is the
solubility of the gas in the liquid.
50. (d)
Sol. Solubility depends on all these factors.

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Ionic Equilibria Level-1

1. Which of the following is non-electrolyte. 11. At infinite dilution, the percentage ionisation for both strong
(a) NaCl (b) CaCl 2 and weak electrolytes is.
(a) 1% (b) 20% (c) 50% (d) 100%
(c) C12 H 22 O11 (d) CH 3 COOH
12. For a weak acid HA, Ostwald's dilution law is represented by
2. Ammonium hydroxide is a. the equation.
(a) Strong electrolyte
 2c
(b) Weak electrolyte (a) K a = c (b) K a =
1 − 2
1 −
(c) Both under different conditions
Kac  2c
(d) Non-electrolyte (c)  = (d) K a =
1−c 1 −2
3. Ammonium hydroxide is a weak base because.
(a) It has low vapour pressure 13. Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte because.
(a) Its molecular weight is high
(b) It is only slightly ionized
(b) It is covalent compound
(c) It is not a hydroxide of any metal
(c) It does not dissociate much or its ionization is very less
(d) It has low density
4. Electrolytes when dissolved in water dissociate into their (d) It is highly unstable
constituent ions. The degree of dissociation of an electrolyte 14. Which will not affect the degree of ionization.
increases with. (a) Temperature (b) Concentration
(a) Increasing concentration of the electrolyte (c) Type of solvent (d) Current
(b) Decreasing concentration of the electrolyte 15. For two acids A and B, pK a = 1.2, pK b = 2.8 respectively in
(c) Decreasing temperature value, then which is true.
(d) Presence of a substance yielding a common ion (a) A and B both are equally acidic
5. An electrolyte. (b) A is stronger than B
(a) Gives complex ions in solution (c) B is stronger than A
(b) Dissolves in water to give ions (d) Neither A nor B is strong
(c) Is ionized in the solid state (e) None of these
(d) Generates ions on passing electric current 16. An aqueous solution of ammonia consists of.
6. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the (a) H + (b) OH − (c) NH 4+ (d) NH 4+ and OH −
presence of.
(a) Free electrons (b) Free ions 17. The conjugate base of NH 2 − is.
(c) Free molecules (d) Atoms of sodium and chlorine (a) NH 3 (b) NH 2 − (c) NH 4+ (d) N 3 −
7. An example for a strong electrolyte is. 18. The strength of an acid depends on its tendency to.
(a) Urea (b) Ammonium hydroxide (a) Accept protons (b) Donate protons
(c) Sugar (d) Sodium acetate (c) Accept electrons (d) Donate electrons
8. If  is the degree of ionization, C the concentration of a weak 19. Which is not a electrophile.
electrolyte and K a the acid ionization constant, then the correct (a) AlCl3 (b) BF3 (c) (CH 3 )3 C + (d) NH 3
relationship between , C and K a is. 20. Accepting the definition that an acid is a proton donor, the acid
Ka C in the following reaction.
(a)  =
2
(b)  = 2
C Ka NH 3 + H 2 O → NH 4+ + OH − is

Ka C (a) NH 3 (b) H + (c) NH 4+ (d) H 2O

(c)  = (d)  =
C Ka 21. NH 4 OH is weak base because.
9. The extent of ionization increases. (a) It has low vapour pressure
(a) With the increase in concentration of solute (b) It is only slightly ionized
(b) On addition of excess water to solution (c) It is not a hydroxide of metal
(c) On decreasing the temperature of solution (d) It has low density
(d) On stirring the solution vigorously 22. The expression for the solubility product of Al 2 (SO 4 )3 is.
10. Which is generally true about ionic compounds. (a) K sp = [ Al 3 + ] (SO 42 − ] (b) K sp = [ Al 3 + ]2 (SO 42 − ]3
(a) Have low boiling point
(b) Have low melting point (c) K sp = [ Al 3 + ]3 (SO 42 − ]2 (d) K sp = [ Al 3 + ]2 (SO 42 − ]2
(c) Soluble in non polar solvents 23. Let the solubility of an aqueous solution of Mg(OH )2 be x then
(d) Conduct electricity in the fused state its k sp is.

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (a) 4 x 3 (b) 108 x 5 (c) 27 x 4 (d) 9 x
24. The solubility product of BaSO 4 at 25 C is 1.0  10 −9 . What
would be the concentration of H 2 SO 4 necessary to precipitate
BaSO 4 from a solution of 0.01 M Ba 2 + ions.
(a) 10 −9 (b) 10 −8 (c) 10 −7 (d) 10 −6
25. The solubility of CaF2 is a moles/litre. Then its solubility
product is …..
(a) s 2 (b) 4s3 (c) 3s 2 (d) s 3

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Ionic Equilibria Solutions

1. (c) 19. (d)

Sol. C12 H 22 O11 is a sugar and non-electrolyte. Sol. Electron donating species called nucleophile. NH 3 have a
2. (b) lone pair of electron.
Sol. It is a weak electrolyte since it is slightly ionized. 20. (d)
3. (b) Sol. In this reaction H 2 O acts as a acid.
Sol. It is a weak electrolyte since slightly ionized. 21. (b)
4. (b) Sol. Its ionization is very less.
Sol. Because the degree of dissociation is inversely 22. (b)
proportional to the concentration of the electrolyte. Sol. Solubility of Al 2 (SO 4 )3
5. (b)
Sol. Electrolytes are those substances which on dissolving in Al 2 (SO4 )3 ⇌ 2Al+ + + + 3SO−4 −
water give ions. K sp = [ Al 3 + ] 2 [SO 42 − ]3
6. (b)
23. (a)
Sol. As NaCl ionises completely to yield free ions.
Sol. Mg (OH) 2 ⇌ Mg + + + 2OH2 −
7. (d) (X ) (2 X )
CH 3COONa CH 3COO − + Na +
Sol. ⇌ K sp = 4X 3
H 2O
⇌ H + + OH − 24. (c)
CH 3COOH + NaOH Sol. BaSO4 ⇌ Ba + + + SO 4− −
(S ) (S )
0 .01 5
8. (c)
Sol. According to the Ostwald’s dilution formula Ksp = S 2 = S  S = 0.01  S
K (1 −  )
2 = . But for weak electrolytes  is very small. So K sp 1  10 −9
C S(SO 2− ) = = = 10 − 7 mole/litre.
4 S( Ba + + ) 0.01
Ka
that (1 −  ) can be neglected. So that  = .
C 25. (b)
9. (b) Sol. CaF2 ⇌ Ca + + + 2 F2− ; K sp = 4S 3
(S )
Sol.   dilution of solution.
(2 S )

10. (d)
Sol. Generally ionic compound are conduct electricity in fused
state.
11. (d)
Sol. According to Ostwald’s dilution law because degree of
ionization is directly proportional to the dilution.
12. (b)
Sol. Mathematical form of Ostwald’s dilution law.
13. (c)
Sol. It is a weak electrolyte because it’s ionization is very
less.
14. (d)
Sol. Current does not affect the degree of ionization.
15. (b)
Sol. The value of pK a for strong acid is less.
16. (d)
+
Sol. H2O + NH3 ⇌ NH 4 + OH −
17. (b)
Sol. NH −2 ⇌ NH −2 + H +
Conjugate acid, base pair.
18. (b)
Sol. Those substances which lose proton are called acid.
e.g. strong acid have a strong tendency to donate a proton.
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Ionic Equilibria Level-2

1. The solubility of CaF2 is 2  10 −4 moles / litre. Its solubility 18. The pH of 0.001 M Ba (OH) 2 solution will be
product (K sp ) is. (a) 2 (b) 8.4 (c) 11.3 (d) 2.7
−4 −3 −4
(a) 2.0  10 (b) 4.0  10 19. What will be the pH of 110 M H 2SO 4 solution?
−12 −11
(c) 8.0  10 (d) 3.2  10 (a) 10.4 (b) 3.70 (c) 3 (d) 13
2. The correct representation for solubility product of SnS 2 is . 20. According to Lewis concept, an acid is a/an
(a) [Sn 4 + ] [S 2 − ]2 (b) [Sn 2 + ] [S 2 − ]2 (a) Proton donor (b) Electron pair donor
2+
(c) [Sn ] [2S ] 2− 4+
(d) [Sn ] [2S ] 2− 2 (c) Proton acceptor (d) Electron pair acceptor.
−3
3. pH of a 10 M solution of hydrochloric acid will be. 21. The correct representation for solubility product of SnS 2 is .
(a) 1.3 (b) 2.0 (c) 3.0 (d) 4.5
o (a) [Sn 4 + ] [S 2 − ]2 (b) [Sn 2 + ] [S 2 − ]2
4. The pH of water at 25 C is nearly.
(a) 2 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 12 (c) [Sn 2 + ] [2S 2 − ] (d) [Sn 4 + ] [2S 2 − ]2
5. pH of a solution is 5. Its hydroxyl ion concentration is. 22. pH value of a solution, whose hydronium ion concentration is
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 10 −5
(d) 10 −9 6.2  10 −9 mol / l, is.
6. The pH of a solution in which the [H + ] = 0.01, is. (a) 6.21 (b) 7.21 (c) 7.75 (d) 8.21
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 3
7. Which is a buffer solution. 23. Ksp of SrF2 (s) in water is 3.2 × 10 –11 . The solubility of SrF2 (s)
in 0.1 (M) NaCl solution is –
(a) CH 3 COOH + CH 3 COONa
(a) 3.2 × 10 –9 (M) (b) 2 × 10 –4 (M)
(b) CH 3 COOH + CH 3 COONH 4 –4
(c) 4 × 10 (M) (d) Slightly higher than 2 × 10 –4 (M)
(c) CH 3 COOH + NH 4 Cl 24. What will be the pOH of 0.5 × 10 –4 M H2SO4 solution –
(a) 4 (b) 10.5 (c) 10 (d) 6
(d) NaOH + NaCl 25. The pH of a solution is 6. It is diluted ten times. The resulting
8. The conjugate base of OH- ion is solution will be –
2− (a) Neutral (b) Acidic (c) Basic (d) Unaffected
(a) H 2O (b) O2 (c) H3O+ (d) O− +
26. The pKa value of NH 4 is 9. The pKb value of NH4OH would
9. The conjugate acid of PO 34− is be :
− 2− 1− (a) 9 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 8
(a) H3PO4 (b) H 2 PO 4 (c) HPO 4 is (d) HPO 3
27. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble salt AB 2 is 1.0 ×
10. On diluting a buffer solution, its pH
(a) Is increased 10 –5mol L–1. Its solubility product will be :
(b) Is decreased (a) 4 × 10 –15 (b) 4 × 10 –10 (c) 1 × 10 –15 (d) 1 × 10 –10.
(c) Remain constant 28. If the solubility of lithium sodium hexafluorido aluminate,
(d) Changes which cannot be predicted unless dissociation Li3Na3 (AlF6)2 is ‘s’ mollt–1, its solubility product is equal to:
constant of weak acid or weak base is provided (a) 729 s 8 (b) 12 s 8 (c) 3900 s 8 (d) 2916 s 8
11. Which of the following solutions has pH = 11 –
29. What is the percentage dissociation of 0.1 M solution of acetic
(a) 1 × 10 –11 M NaOH (b) 1 × 10 –3 M HCl −5
(c) 1 × 10 –3 M NaOH (d) 1 × 10 –11 M HCl acid? ( K a = 10 ) .
12. At 90 0 C, pure water has [H3 O+] = 10 –6 mol L–1. What is the (a) 10% (b) 100% (c) 1% (d) 0.01%
value of Kw at 90 0 C –
30. What will be the pH of a soft drink if hydrogen ion
(a) 10 –6 (b) 10–12 (c) 10 –14 (d) 10–8 −3
13. The conjugate base of H2PO4 – is concentration in sample is 3.8 10 M?
(a) PO43– (b) P2O5 (c) H3PO4 (d) HPO42– (a) 3.8 (b) 5.04 (c) 2.42 (d) 9.2
31. What is pOH of an aqueous solution with hydrogen ion
14. What is the conjugate base of OH– ? −5 −1
(a) O2 (b) H2O (c) O– (d) O2– concentration equal to 3 10 mol L ?
15. Boric acid H3BO3 is a : (a) 9.47 (b) 4.52 (c) 12.69 (d) 11.69
−10
(a) Arrhenius acid (b)Bronsted acid 32. NH 4 CN is a salt of weak acid HCN ( K a = 6.2  10 )
(c) Lewis acid (d) All of these
16. Ostwald's dilution law gives satisfactory results with the and a weak N 2O 4 ( g ) A one molar solution of NH 4 CN will be.
solution of which electrolyte ? (a) Neutral (b) Strongly acidic
(a) HCl (b) HNO3 (c) CH3COOH (d) NaOH (c) Strongly basic (d) Weakly basic
2−
17. Which of the following is conjugate acid of SO 4 ?
− + 2−
(a) HSO 4 (b) H (c) H 2SO 4 (d) SO 4
MSA-CHEMISTRY
33. Solubility product expression of salt MX 4 which is sparingly (a) 10 −11 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 11
soluble with a solubility s can be given as. 47. The pH of a 0 . 001 M NaOH will be.
5 3 4 (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 11 (d) 12
(a) 256s (b) 16s (c) 5s (d) 25s
48. pH value of a solution, whose hydronium ion concentration is
34. For a reaction, A x B y xA y+ + YB x − , K sp can be −9
6.2  10 mol / l, is.
represented as. (a) 6.21 (b) 7.21 (c) 7.75 (d) 8.21
(a) A   
y+ x
B x− y
(b) A  B
y x 49. What will be the sum of pH and pOH in an aqueous solution
?
(c) A  B (d) A  B
x y x+y x−y
(a) 7 (b) pk w (c) Zero (d) 1
−3
35. The solubility product of BaCl2 is 3.2 10−9 What will be 50. pH of a 10 M solution of hydrochloric acid will be.
−1
(a) 1.3 (b) 2.0 (c) 3.0 (d) 4.5
its solubility in mol L ?
(a) 4 10−3 (b) 3.2 10−9
−3 −9
(c) 110 (d) 110

36. The conjugate base of NH 2 − is.

(a) NH 3 (b) NH 2 − (c) NH 4+ (d) N 3 −
37. The strength of an acid depends on its tendency to.
(a) Accept protons (b) Donate protons
(c) Accept electrons (d) Donate electrons
38. The expression for the solubility product of Al 2 (SO 4 )3 is.
(a) K sp = [ Al 3 + ] (SO 42 − ] (b) K sp = [ Al 3 + ]2 (SO 42 − ]3
(c) K sp = [ Al 3 + ]3 (SO 42 − ]2 (d) K sp = [ Al 3 + ]2 (SO 42 − ]2
39. If the solubility product Ksp of a sparingly soluble salt MX 2 at
25 C is 1.0  10 −11 , the solubility of the salt in mole litre –1 at
this temperature will be.
(a) 2.46  10 14 (b) 1.36  10 −4
(c) 2.60  10 −7 (d) 1.20  10 −10
40. Let the solubility of an aqueous solution of Mg(OH )2 be x then
its k sp is.
(a) 4 x 3 (b) 108 x 5 (c) 27 x 4 (d) 9 x
41. The solubility product of BaSO 4 at 25 C is 1.0  10 −9 . What
would be the concentration of H 2 SO 4 necessary to precipitate
BaSO 4 from a solution of 0.01 M Ba 2 + ions.
(a) 10 −9 (b) 10 −8 (c) 10 −7 (d) 10 −6
42. The solubility of CaF2 is a moles/litre. Then its solubility
product is …..
(a) s 2 (b) 4s3 (c) 3s 2 (d) s 3
43. Which is the correct representation of the solubility product
constant of Ag 2 CrO4 .
(a) [ Ag + ]2 [CrO4−2 ] (b) [ Ag + ] [CrO4−2 ]
(c) [2 Ag + ] [CrO4−2 ] (d) [2 Ag + ]2 [CrO4−2 ]
44. The solubility of CaF2 is 2  10 −4 moles / litre. Its solubility
product (K sp ) is.
(a) 2.0  10 −4 (b) 4.0  10 −3
(c) 8.0  10 −12 (d) 3.2  10 −11
45. The solubility of silver chromate in 0.01 M K 2 CrO4 is
2  10 −8 mol dm −3 . The solubility product of silver chromate
will be.
(a) 8  10 −24 (b) 16  10 −24
(c) 1.6  10 −18 (d) 16  10 −18
N
46. What is the pH value of KOH solution.
1000
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Ionic Equilibria Solutions

1. (d) So it will behave as Lewis acid.

Sol. Ksp for CaF2 = 4s 3 = 4  [2  10 −4 ]3 = 3.2  10 −11 . 16. (c)
Sol. Ostwald's dilution law is valid for weak electrolysis.
2. (a) 17. (a)
Sol. SnS2 ⇌ Sn 4 + + 2S 2− 2−
Sol. Conjugate acid of SO 4 is HSO 4
−

K sp = [Sn 4 + ] [S 2 − ] 2 18. (c)

3. (c) Sol. Ba(OH )2 Ba 2+ + 2OH −
Sol. [H + ] = 10−3 M, pH = − log[10−3 ], pH = 3
[OH − ] = 2 110−3 M
( ) = 2.7
4. (b) − −3
Sol. [H + ] = [OH − ] pOH = - log [OH ] = − log 2 10

Kw = [H + ] [OH − ] pOH + pH = 14  pH = 14 − 2.7 = 11.3

= 10−14
19. (b)
[H+ ] = 10−7 , pH = − log[H+ ] = 7 .
Sol. H 2SO 4 2H + + SO 24−
5. (d)
Sol. pH = 5 means [H + ] = 10−5
[H + ] = 2 110−4 M
pOH = 14 − pH = 14 − 5 = 9 ( )
pH = − log 2 10−4 = 3.70
[OH − ] = 10−pOH = 10−9 20. (d)
Sol. Lewis acid is acceptor of a pair of electrons while lewis
6. (a)
base is donor of a pair of electons.
Sol. pH = − log [H + ] ; [H + ] = 0.01 N
pH = − log [10−2 ] ; pH = 2 21. (a)
Sol. SnS2 ⇌ Sn 4 + + 2S 2−
7. (a)
Sol. Buffer solution is a mixture of weak acid and its conjugate K sp = [Sn 4 + ] [S 2 − ] 2
base. 22. (d)
8. (b)
Sol. [H3O+ ] means [H + ] = 6.2 10−9 mol / l
− −H + 2−
Sol. OH ⎯⎯ ⎯→ O
pH = − log (6.2 10−9 ) = 8.21 .
acid bases
9. (c)
Sol. Conjugate acid and base differs by one proton hence the 23. (d)
Sol. SrF2 (s) Sr2+ + 2F– s 2s
conjugate acid of PO 4 is HPO −42
3−
(where s is the solubility)
10. (c)  4s3 = 32 × 10 –12 or s = 2 × 10 –4 (M)
Sol. On diluting a buffer solution, the ratio of salt to acid (or But practically the solubility of SrF2 (s) in NaCl solution is
base) does not change. Hence its pH remains constant. slightly greater than 2 × 10 –4 because NaCl increases ionic
11. (c) strength of the solution.
Sol. 10–3 M NaOH has [OH– ] = 10 –3 24. (c)
or [H+] = 10 –11. Hence pH = 11. Sol. 0.5 × 10 –4 M H2SO4 = 10 –4 M H+
12. (b) pH = 4 or pOH = 14–4 = 10
Sol. For pure water, [H3O+] = [OH–] 25. (b)
Hence Kw = 10 –12. Sol. pH = 6 means acidic solution. On dilution it will remain
13. (d) acidic.
Sol. Conjugate base is formed by the removal of H’ from acid 26. (b)
H 2 PO −4 → HPO 24− + H + Sol. pKa + pKb = 14.
14. (d) 27. (a)
Sol. Conjugate base of OH– OH– O2– +H+ Sol. AB2 A2+ + 2B– s = 1.0 × 10 –5 mol L–1
15. (c)
Ksp = [A2+] [B–]2 = 1.0 × 10 –5 × (2.0 × 10 –5)2
Sol.
= 4.0 × 10 –15
28. (d)
Sol. (a) Li3Na3(AlF6)2 ⎯⎯
⎯→ 3Li+ + 3Na + + 2[AlF ]3–
6
H3BO3 =

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Ksp = (3s)3 (3s)3 (2s)2 = 2916 s 8 . K sp 1  10 −9
S(SO 2− ) = = = 10 − 7 mole/litre.
29. (c) 4 S( Ba + + ) 0.01
−5
Ka 10 42. (b)
Sol.  = or  = = 10 −2
c 0.1 Sol. CaF2 ⇌ Ca + + + 2 F2− ; K sp = 4S 3
(S ) (2 S )

% dissociation, = 10−2 100 = 1% 43. (a)

30. (c) Sol. Ag 2CrO4 ⇌ [2Ag + ] + [CrO−4 − ]
+
Sol. pH = - log [H ] = − log 3.8 10 ( −3
) = 2.42 Hence K sp = [Ag + ]2 [CrO −4 − ]
31. (a)
+ −5 44. (d)
Sol. pH = − log [H ] = − log (3 10 ) = 4.5229
Sol. Ksp for CaF2 = 4s 3 = 4  [2  10 −4 ]3 = 3.2  10 −11 .
pOH = 14 – pH, 14 - 4.5229 = 9.47
45. (d)
32. (d)
Sol. K sp = [Ag + ]2 [Cro −4 − ] = [2S]2 [0.01]
Sol. Since K b  K a , the solution will be slightly basic.
= 4S2[0.01] = 4[2 10−8 ]2  0.01 = 16  10 −18 .
33. (a) 46. (d)
+ −
Sol. MX 4 M + 4X Sol. 10 −3 N KOH will give [OH − ] = 10 −2 M
s 4s
pOH = 2
K sp = s  (4s) = 256 s4 5
pH + pOH = 14 , pH = 14 − 2 = 12
(a) 47. (c)
34.
Sol. A x B y xA y+ + yBx − Sol. 0.001 M of NaOH means [OH − ] = .001
= 10 −3 M  pOH = 3
K sp = [A y+ ]x [B x − ] y
pH + pOH = 14  pH = 14 − 3 = 11
35. (c)
48. (d)
Sol. BaCl2 Ba 2+ + 2Cl − Sol. [H3O+ ] means [H + ] = 6.2 10−9 mol / l
K sp = [Ba 2+ ][Cl − ]2 = x  (2 x ) 4x 3
2
pH = − log (6.2 10−9 ) = 8.21 .
4x 3 = 3.2 10−9 49. (b)
Sol. pH + pOH = pK w
 x = 9.28 10−4 = 0.928 10−3  110−3
50. (c)
36. (b) Sol. [H + ] = 10−3 M, pH = − log[10−3 ], pH = 3
Sol. NH −2 ⇌ NH −2 + H +
Conjugate acid, base pair.
37. (b)
Sol. Those substances which lose proton are called acid.
e.g. strong acid have a strong tendency to donate a proton.
38. (b)
Sol. Solubility of Al 2 (SO 4 )3
Al 2 (SO4 )3 ⇌ 2Al+ + + + 3SO−4 −
K sp = [ Al 3 + ] 2 [SO 42 − ]3
39. (b)
Sol. MX 2 ⇌ M + + 2 X 2− ; K sp = 4S 3
(S ) (2 S )

K sp 1  10 −11
S =3 =3 = 1 .35  10 − 4
4 4
40. (a)
Sol. Mg (OH) 2 ⇌ Mg + + + 2OH2 −
(X ) (2 X )

K sp = 4X 3
41. (c)
Sol. BaSO4 ⇌ Ba + + + SO 4− −
(S ) (S )
0 .01 5

Ksp = S 2 = S  S = 0.01  S

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Chemical Thermodynamics (Level-1)

1. Internal energy of an ideal gas depends on. (d) H = E

(a) Volume (b) Temperature 15. For the reaction N 2 + 3H 2 ⇌ 2 NH 3 ; H =
(c) Pressure (d) None of these (a) E − RT (b) E − 2 RT
2. A well stoppered thermos flask contains some ice cubes. This
(c) E + RT (d) E + 2 RT
is an example of a.
(a) Closed system (b) Open system 16. Which of the following expressions represents the first law of
thermodynamics.
(c) Isolated system (d) Non-thermodynamic system (a) E = −q + W (b) E = q − W
3. If a refrigerator's door is opened, then we get.
(c) E = q + W (d) E = −q − W
(a) Room heated
(b) Room cooled
17. System in which there is no exchange of matter, work or energy
(c) More amount of heat is passed out from surroundings is.
(d) No effect on room (a) Closed (b) Adiabatic
4. Which of the following is zero for an isochoric process. (c) Isolated (d) Isothermal
(a) dP (b) dV (c) dT (d) dE
18. E = q + W is mathematical expression for
5. Internal energy is an example of.
(a) Path function (b) State function (a) First law of thermodynamics
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (b) Second law of thermodynamics
6. The process, in which no heat enters or leaves the system, is (c) Third law of thermodynamics
termed as. (d) Zeroth law of thermodynamics.
(a) Isochoric (b) Isobaric 19. Consider the following reaction:
(c) Isothermal (d) Adiabatic 1
CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
7. The intensive property among these quantities is. 2
(a) Enthalpy (b) Mass/volume How are  E and  H related for the reaction?
(c) Mass (d) Volume
(a) H = E − 0.5RT (b) H = E − RT
8. In thermodynamics which one of the following is not an
(c) H = E + 0.5RT (d) H = E − 1.5RT
intensive property.
(a) Pressure (b) Density 20. According to the first law of thermodynamics, U = q + W. in
(c) Volume (d) Temperature special cases the statement can be expressed in different ways.
Which of the following is not a correct expression?
9. If in a container neither mass and nor heat exchange occurs
then it constitutes a. (a) At constant temperature, q = - W
(a) Closed system (b) Open system (b) When no work is done:, U = q
(c) Isolated system (d) Imaginary system (c) In gaseous system:, U = q + P V
10. Which of the following is true for an adiabatic process. (d) When work is done by the system:, U = q + W
(a) H = 0 (b) W = 0 (c) Q = 0 (d) V = 0 21. The statements “The change of enthalpy of a chemical reaction
11. Which of the following is not a state function. is same whether the reaction takes place in one or several step”
(a) Internal energy (b) Enthalpy is.
(c) Work (d) Entropy (a) Le chatelier’s law
12. Among them intensive property is. (b) Van’t Hoff’s law
(a) Mass (b) Volume (c) First law of thermodynamics
(c) Surface tension (d) Enthalpy (d) Hess’s law.
13. The relation between E and H is. 22. Which is the correct order of bond energy of single, double and
(a) H = E − P V (b) H = E + P V triple bonds between carbon atoms?
(c) E = V + H (d) E = H + P V (a) C −− C  C == C  C  C
14. At constant T and P, which one of the following statements is (b) C == C  C  C  C −− C
correct for the reaction, (c) C  C  C −− C  C == C
1
CO (g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g) . (d) C  C  C == C  C −− C
2
23. Which of the following reactions will have the value of S
(a) H is independent of the physical state of the reactants of
with a negative sign?
that compound
(a) H2O(l) → H2O(g) (b) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(s)
(b) H  E
(c) H  E (c) Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g) (d) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

MSA CHEMISTRY
24. Which of the following processes is a non – spontaneous
process?
(a) Dissolution of salt or sugar in water
(b) Mixing of different gases through diffusion
(c) Precipitation of copper when zinc rod is dipped in aqueous
solution of copper sulphate
(d) Flow of heat from a cold body to a hot body in contact
25. Which of the following expressions regarding entropy is not
correct?
q
(a) ssystem =
T
(b) ssystem = stotal + ssurrouding
(c) s = Sfinal − Sinitial
(d) s total = ssystem + ssurrounding

MSA CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy

Chemical Thermodynamics L1 Solutions

1. (b) Sol. First law of thermodynamics is represented

Sol. Internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of temperature mathematically as E = q + W, where E is change in
only.
internal energy, q is heat absorbed and W is work does.
2. (c)
19. (a)
Sol. In isolated system neither exchange of matter nor
Sol. H = E + n g RT
exchange of energy is possible with surroundings.
3. (a) 3 1
Sol. The compressor has to run for longer time releasing more n g = 1 − = − or − 0.5
2 2
heat to the surroundings.
4. (b) Hence H = E − 0.5RT
Sol. dV = 0 for an isochoric process. 20. (d)
5. (b) Sol. When work is done by the system, U = q − W.
Sol. The functions whose value depends only on the state of a 21. (d)
system are known as state functions. Sol. This is the statement of Hess’s law of heat summation.
6. (d) 22. (d)
Sol. For adiabatic process q = 0 . Sol. B.E. of triple bond > double bond > single bond
7. (b) 23. (b)
Sol. The intensive property is mass/volume. Sol. 2SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → 2SO 3( g )
8. (c)
Sol. Volume is not an intensive property. n g = 2 − 3 = −1, S = − ve
9. (c) 24. (d)
Sol. An isolated system neither shows exchange of heat nor Sol. Heat cannot flow a cold body to a hot body.
matter with surroundings. 25. (b)
10. (c) Sol. Ssystem = Stotal − Ssurrounding
Sol. For adiabatic process Q = 0 .
11. (c)
Sol. Work is not a state function as during a process its value
depends on the path followed. The value of enthalpy, internal
energy and entropy depends on the state and not on the path
followed to get that state, hence these are state functions.
12. (c)
Sol. Surface tension is an intensive property which do not
depend upon the quantity of matter present in the system.
13. (b)
Sol. H = E + PV .
14. (c)
3 −1
Sol. n g = 1 − = , As ng is negative, thus H  E .
2 2
15. (b)
Sol. H = E + nRT
Since n = −2
Than H = E − 2 RT .
16. (c)
Sol. E = q + w .

17. (c)
Sol. In isolated system, work energy or heat are not exchanged
with the surroundings.
18. (a)

MSA CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Chemical Thermodynamics (Level-2)

1. For the reaction N 2 + 3H 2 ⇌ 2 NH 3 ; H = 12. The enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam,
(a) E − RT (b) E − 2 RT H vap = 37 .3 kJ mol −1 at 373 K .
(c) E + RT (d) E + 2 RT The entropy change for the process is.
2. Work done during isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal (a) 111 .9 J mol −1 K −1 (b) 37 .3 J mol −1 K −1
gas from 10 atm to 1 atm at 300 K is (Gas constant = 2).
(a) 938.8 cal. (b) 1138.8 cal. (c) 100 J mol −1 K −1 (d) 74 .6 J mol −1 K −1
(c) 1381.8 cal. (d) 1581.8 cal. 13. Thermochemical reactions.
3. In which of the following E = H . 1
C(graphite ) + O 2 (g) → CO (g); H = −110 .5 kJ
(a) N 2 O 4 (g) ⇌ 2 NO 2 (g) 2
1
(b) 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ⇌ 2SO 3 (g) CO (g) + O 2 (g) → CO 2 (g); H = −283 .2 kJ
2
(c) H 2 (g) + I 2 (g) ⇌ 2 HI(g) From the above reaction, the heat of reaction for
C(graphite ) + O2 (g) → CO 2 (g) will be.
1
(d) H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ⇌ H 2 O(l)
2 (a) – 393.7 kJ (b) + 393.7 kJ
4. For the reaction (c) – 172.7 kJ (d) + 172.7 kJ
CH 3 COOH (l) + 2O 2 (g) ⇌ 2CO 2 (g) + 2 H 2 O(l) at 25 C and 1 14. Given that
o
2C(s) + 2O2 (g) → 2CO 2 (g); H = −787 kJ
atm. pressure, H = −874 kJ . Then the change in internal
1
energy (E) is …. H 2 (g ) + O 2 (g) → H 2 O(l); H = −286 kJ
2
(a) – 874 kJ (b) – 871.53 kJ 1
C 2 H 2 (g ) + 2 O 2 (g) → 2CO 2 (g) + H 2 O(l); H = −1301 kJ
(c) – 876.47 kJ (d) + 874 kJ 2
5. For the reaction, Heat of formation of acetylene is.
C 3 H 8 (g) + 5O 2 (g) → 3CO 2 (g) + 4 H 2 O(l) (a) − 1802 kJ (b) + 1802 kJ (c) −800 kJ (d) +228 kJ
at constant temperature, H − E is. 15. The heat of formations of CO(g) and CO 2 (g) are −26 .4 kcal
(a) – RT (b) + RT (c) – 3RT (d) + 3RT and −94 .0 kcal respectively. The heat of combustion of carbon
6. The value of H − E for the following reaction at 27 o C will monoxide will be.
be 2 NH 3 (g) → N 2 (g) + 3 H 2 (g) . (a) +26 .4 kcal (b) −67 .6 kcal
(a) 8.314  273  (−2) (b) 8.314  300  (−2) (c) −120 .6 kcal (d) +52 .8 kcal
(c) 8.314  27  (−2) (d) 8.314  300  (2)
7. Work done during isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal 16. The enthalpy of combustion at 25°C of H 2, cyclohexane
gas from 10 atom. to 1 atm at 300K is. (C6H12) and cyclohexene (C6H10 ) are –241, –3920 and –800 KJ
(a) 4938.8 J (b) 4138.8 J / mole respectively. The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene
(c) 5744.1 J (d) 6257.2 J is.
(a) – 121 KJ / mole (b) + 121 KJ / mole
8. Eo of combustion of isobutylene is − X kJ mol −1 . The value
(c) – 242 KJ / mole (d) + 242 KJ / mole
of H o is . 17. Energy required to dissociate 4 gm of gaseous hydrogen into
(a) = Eo (b)  Eo (c) = 0 (d)  Eo free gaseous atoms is 208 kcal at 25 o C . The bond energy of
9. When disorder of a system increases, the change is said to be. H − H bond will be.
(a) Exothermic (b) Non-spontaneous (a) 104 kcal (b) 10.4 kcal
(c) Endothermic (d) Spontaneous (c) 1040 kcal (d) 104 cal
10. Which of the following pairs of a chemical reaction is certain 18. The H − H bond energy is 430 kJ mol and Cl − Cl bond
to result in spontaneous reaction ?
energy is 240 kJ mol −1 . H for HCl is −90 kJ . The H − Cl
(a) Exothermic and decreasing disorder
bond energy is about.
(b) Endothermic and increasing disorder
(a) 180 kJ mol −1 (b) 360 kJ mol −1
(c) Exothermic and increasing disorder
(d) Endothermic and decreasing disorder (c) 213 kJ mol −1 (d) 425 kJ mol −1
11. Which of the following is true for the reaction H 2 O(l) ⇌ 19. If the bond energies of H − H , Br − Br and HBr are 433, 192
H 2 O(g) at 100 o C and 1 atmosphere. and 364 kJ mol −1 respectively, the H o for the reaction,
(a) E = 0 (b) H = 0 (c) H = E (d) H = TS H 2 (g) + Br2 (g) → 2 HBr(g) is.
(a) + 261 kJ (b) – 103 kJ
(c) – 261 kJ (d) + 103 kJ
MSA Chemistry
20. The free energy change for a reversible reaction at equilibrium
is. (a) H2(g) + I2(g) ⎯⎯→ 2HI(g)

(b) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) ⎯⎯→ NaCl(aq) + H2O(  )

(a) Large positive (b) Small negative
(c) Small positive (d) 0
21. A minus sign of the free energy change denotes that (c) C(s) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯→ CO2(g)
(a) The reaction tends to proceed spontaneously
(b) The reaction is non-spontaneous (d) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⎯⎯→ 2NH3 (g)
(c) The system is in equilibrium 31. Look at the following diagram :
(d) The reaction is very much unlikely 80
22. Spontaneity of a chemical reaction is decided by the negative

Enthalpy(kJ)
change in. A
40
(a) Internal energy (b) Enthalpy
(c) Entropy (d) Free energy 15 B
23. Gibb’s free enrgy (G) is defined as.
Progress of reaction
T
(a) G = H − TS (b) G = H + The enthalpy change for the reaction A → B will be
S
(a) – 25 Kj (b) – 40 kJ (c) + 25 kJ (d) – 65 kJ
(c) H = G − TS (d) G = H + T .C p 32. Warming ammonium chloride with sodium hydroxide in a test
24. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes for the tube is an example of :
oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are − 382 .64 kJ mol −1 and (a) Closed system (b) Isolated system
(c) Open system (d) None of these
− 145 .6 JK −1mol −1 , respectively. Standard Gibbs energy 33. Out of boiling point (I), entropy (II), pH (III) and e.m.f. of a
change for the same reaction at 298 K is. cell (IV), intensive properties are :
(a) – 439.3 kJ mol −1 (b) – 523.2 kJ mol −1 (a) I, II (b) I, II, III (c) I, III, IV (d) All of the above
34. A system absorb 600J of heat and work equivalent to 300J on
(c) – 221.1 kJ mol −1 (d) – 339.3 kJ mol −1 its surroundings. The change in internal energy is
25. The free energy for a reaction having H = 31400 ca; . (a) 300 J (b) 400 J (c) 500 J (d) 600 J
35. In thermodynamics, which one of the following properties is
S = 32 cal K −1 mol −1 at 1000 o C is. not an intensive property?
(a) – 9336 cal (b) – 7386 cal (a) Pressure (b) Temperature
(c) –1936 cal (d) + 9336 cal (c) Volume (d) Density
26. At 27°C one mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally
and reversibly from a pressure of 2 atm to 10 atm. The values 36. Consider the following reaction:
of E and q are (R = 2) 1
(a) 0, –965.84 cal (b) – 965.84 cal, + 965.84 cal CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
2
(c) + 865.58 cal, –865.58 cal (d) –865.58 cal, –865.58 cal
27. Given that C(g) + 4 H (g) → CH 4 (g); H = −166 kJ . The How are  E and  H related for the reaction?
bond energy C − H will be (a) H = E − 0.5RT (b) H = E − RT
(a) 208 kJ/mol (b) – 41.5 kJ/mol (c) H = E + 0.5RT (d) H = E − 1.5RT
(c) 832 kJ/mol (d) None of these 37. In endothermic reactions,
28. For the given reaction (a) Reactants have more energy than products
H2(g) + F2 (g) ⎯→ 2HF(g) H° = – 124 kcal (b) Reactants have less energy than products
H2(g) ⎯→ 2H(g) H° = 104 kcal
(c) Reactants and products have same energy
F2(g) ⎯→ 2F(g) H° = 37.8 kcal
then the value of H0 for H(g) + F(g) ⎯→ HF(g) is (d) Reactants have lower temperature than products.
(a) 142 kcal (b) – 132.9 kcal
(c) 132 kcal (d) 134 kcal 38. Given the bond energies N  N , H − H and N–H bonds are
29. Which plot represent an exothermic reaction ? 945, 436 and 391 kJ mole –1 respectively the enthalpy of the
following reaction N 2 (g) + 3 H 2 (g) → 2 NH 3 (g) is
(a) – 93 kJ (b) 102 kJ (c) 90 kJ (d) 105 kJ
39. An ideal gas expands from an initial volume V into vacuum
under isothermal conditions. For this process.
(a) U  0, W = 0 and Q  0 (b) U 0 , W  0 and Q  0
(c) U  0, W  0 and Q = 0 (d) U = 0, W = 0 and Q = 0
(a) (b) 40. In which process net work done is zero ?
(a) Cyclic (b) Isochoric
(c) Free expansion (d) Adiabatic
41. The work done by a system is 8 joule, when 40 joule heat is
supplied to it, what is the increase in internal energy of system
(a) 25 J (b) 30 J (c) 32 J (d) 28 J
42. For a reaction at 25°C enthalpy change and entropy change are
(c) (d)
– 11.7×103 J mol–1 and − 105 J mol −1 K −1 respectively, what
30. For which of the following change  H   E ?
is the Gibb's free energy.

MSA Chemistry
 (a) 15.05 kJ (b) 19.59 kJ (c) 2.55 kJ (d) 22.55 kJ
43. G 0
for the reaction x + y = z is – 4.606 kcal. The value of
equilibrium constant of the reaction at 227 o C is
(R = 2.0 kcal mol −1 K −1 )
(a) 100 (b) 10 (c) 2 (d) 0.01
44. If H 0
f for H O
2 2 and H 2 O are – 188kJ/mole and
−286 kJ / mole . What will be the enthalpy change of the
reaction 2 H 2O2 (l) → 2 H 2O(l) + O2 (g)
(a) −196 kJ / mole (b) 146 kJ / mole
(c) −494 kJ / mole (d) −98 kJ / mole
45. The heat of combustion of carbon is –94 kcal at 1 atm pressure.
The intrinsic energy of CO 2 is
(a) + 94 kcal (b) –94 kcal
(c) + 47 kcal (d) –47 kcal
46. The bond dissociation energies of gaseous H 2 , Cl2 and HCl
are 104, 58 and 103 kcal respectively. The enthalpy of
formation of HCl gas would be
(a) – 44 kcal (b) 44 kcal (c) –22 kcal (d) 22 kcal

47. What is the free energy change (  G) when 1.0 mole of water
at 100 0C and 1 atm pressure is converted into steam at 1000C
and 1 atmpressure ?
(a) 80 cal (b) 540 cal (c) 620 cal (d) Zero
48. (  H-  U) for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO) from
its elements at 298 K is
(R = 8.314 J K–1mol–1)
(a) 1238.78 J mol–1 (b) -2477.57 J mol –1
(c) 2477.57 J mol–1 (d) -1238.78 J mol –1
49. For the real gases reaction 2CO (g) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2CO2 (g)
; DH = – 560 kJ. In 10 litre rigid vessel at 500 K, the initial
pressure is 70 bar and after the reaction it becomes 40 bar. The
change in internal energy is :
(a) – 557 kJ (b) – 530 kJ (c) – 563 kJ (d) None of these
50. Match the entries of column I with appropriate entries of
column II and choose the correct option out of the four options
(a), (b), (c) and (d).
Column I Column II
(X) Isothermal (p) DT = 0
(Y) Isobaric (q) DV = 0
(Z) Adiabatic (r) DP = 0
(W) Isochoric (s) q = 0
(a) X–p, Y–q, Z-r, W-x (b) X–p, Y–r, Z-s, W-q
(c) X–s, Y–p, Z-r, W-q (d) X–s, Y–p, Z-q, W-r

MSA Chemistry
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemical Thermodynamics Solutions

1. (b) H 37 .3 KJ mol −1
vap
Sol. H = E + nRT Sol. S vap = =
T 373 K
Since n = −2
Than H = E − 2 RT . = 0.1 kJ mol −1 K −1 = 100 J mol −1 K −1 .
2. (c) 13. (a)
p Sol. eq. (i ) + eq. (ii ) gives the required result.
Sol. − W = + 2.303 nRT log 1
p2 14. (d)
10
Sol. Aim: 2C + H 2(g) → C2 H 2(g) .
−W = 2.303  1  2  300 log = 1381 .8 cal.
1 eq. (ii) + eq. (iii) → eq. (iv) – eq. (i)
3. (c) find the required result.
Sol. Here n = 0 so, E = H . 15. (b)
4. (a) 1
Sol. For this reaction n = 0 than E = H . Sol. Aim : CO + O 2 → CO 2
2
5. (c)
 1 
Sol. H − E = nRT ; n = −3 H = H 0f (CO 2 ) − H 0f (CO ) + H 0f (O 2 )
 2 
so, H − E = −3 RT .
= − 94 .0 − (−26 .4 ) = −67 .6 kcal.
6. (d)
Sol. H − E = nRT
also, 2 NH 3(g) → N 2(g) + 3 H 2(g) 16. (a)
1
n = 2 . Sol. (i) H 2 + O 2 → H 2 O, H = −241 kJ
2
7. (c)
17
Sol. Given that (ii) C6 H 10 + O 2 → 6 CO 2 + 5 H 2 O, H = −3800 kJ
2
P1 = 10 atm , P2 = 1 atm , T = 300 K , n = 1
(iii) C6 H12 + 9O2 → 6CO2 + 6 H 2O, H = −3920 kJ
R = 8.314 J / K / mol
C6 H10 + H 2 → C6 H12
Now, by using
Eq. (i) + Eq. (ii) – Eq. (iii)
P2
W = 2 .303 nRT log 10 H = −241 − 3800 − (−3920 )
P1
= −4041 + 3920 = −121 kJ
1
= 2 .303  1  8 . 314  300 log 10 17. (a)
10
Sol. 4 g H 2 = 2 moles. Bond energy for 1 mole of
W = 5744 .1 Joule
H 2 = 208 / 2 = 104 kcal.
8. (d)
Sol. (CH 3 )2 C = CH 2 (g) + 6O2 (g) → 4 CO 2 (g) + 4 H 2 O(l) 18. (d)
1 1
ng = 4 − 6 = −2 (i.e., negative) Sol. H 2 + Cl 2 → HCl , H = −90 KJ
2 2
we know that H = E + ngRT
1 1
 H = E H − H + ECl −Cl
= E − (ng)RT ( ng = −ve ) 2 2
 H  E 1 1
or − 90 =  430 +  240 − E HCl
9. (d) 2 2
Sol. When S = +ve the change is spontaneous.  EH −Cl = 425 kJ mol −1 .
10. (c)
19. (b)
Sol. G = H − TS
Sol. H − H + Br − Br → 2 H − Br
for spontaneous process G should be negative in option (3)
433 + 192 2  364
H = −ve and ΔS = +ve than
625 728
G = (−ve ) − T (+ve ) = − ve
Energy absorbed = Energy released
11. (d) Net energy released = 728 − 625 = 103 kJ
Sol. At equilibrium, G = 0
i.e., = H = −103 KJ
Hence 0 = H − TS or H = TS .
12. (c) 20. (d)
Sol. G at equilibrium = 0.
21. (a)
MSA CHEMISTRY
 Sol. When G = −ve than the reaction is spontaneous in nature.
22. (d) 38. (a)
H
Sol. Spontaneous change shows G = −ve . N  N + 3H − H
⎯⎯→
|
2N—H
945 + 3  436 |
  
23. (a) energy absorbed H
2 
(3 391 ) =2346
Sol. G = H − TS (Gibb’s free energy equation) Sol.

energy released


24. (d) Net energy (enthalpy) = BEreactants – BEproducts = 2253 – 2346

Sol. G = H − TS =– 93
−3
G = −382 .64 − (−145 .6)  10  298 H = −93 kJ
39. (d)
= −339 .3 KJ mol −1 Sol. For an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas
25. (a) U = O
Sol. G = H − TS = 31400 − 1273  32 Since Pext is zero in vacuum.
= 31400 − 40736 = −9336 cal W = –Pext V = 0
26. (a) Q=0
Sol. w = −2.303nRT log P1 40. (c)
P2 Sol. W = –Pext V
2 For free expansion Pext = 0
= 2 .303  1  2  300 log = 965 .84
10 W = 0
At constant temperature E = 0 41. (c)
E = q + w ; q = −w = −965 .84 cal Sol. q = 40 J
27. (b) w = −8 J (work done by the system)
C(g) + 4 H (g) → CH 4 (g); E = q + w = 40 − 8 = 32 J
Sol. H = −166 kJ
166 42. (b)
Bond energy for C – H = − = −41 . 5 kJ / mole
4 Sol. G = H − TS , T = 25 + 273 = 298 K
28. (b) G = −11 .7  10 3 − 298  (−105 ) = 19590 J = 19 .59 kJ
Sol. Now for the reaction, 43. (a)
H2(g) + F2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2HF(g); Sol. R = 2.0 kcal mol −1 K −1 ; T = 500
H0 = – 124 kcal K ; G 0 = −4.606 kcal ;
 H0 = B.E. (reactants) – B.E of (products)
G 0 = −2.303 RT log K
or, – 124 = HH–H + HF–F –2HH–F = 104 + 37.8 – 2HH–F
−4.606 = −2.303  0.002  500 log K
 2H0H–F = 104 + 37.8 + 124 = 265.8 kcal
265.8 log K = 2, K = 100
Bond energy of H–F = = 132.9 kcal 44. (a)
2
H0 for the given reaction = – 132.9 kcal Sol. H 2 + O2 → H 2O2 ; H 0f = −188 kJ / mole
29. (a) 1
Sol. H R  H P H 2 + O2 → H 2 O H 0f = −286 kJ / mole
2
30. (d) H = H 0(product) − H 0(Reactants )
Sol. using  H =  E +  n gRT
= (2  −286 ) − (2  −188 ) = −572 + 376 = −196
31. (a)
45. (b)
Sol.  H = Hp – HR = 15 – 40 = – 25 kJ. Sol. C(s) + O2 (g) → CO 2 (g); H = −94 kcal
32. (c) H = E + ng RT ; E = ?
Sol. Test tube is open to atmosphere.
33. (c)  ng = 1 − 1 = 0 ; H = E ; E = −94 kcal
Sol. Entropy is extensive property & others are intensive 46. (c)
properties. Sol. 1 H 2 + 1 Cl 2 → HCl
34. (a) 2 2
Sol. We know that E = Q + W = 600 + (−300) = 300 J H = B. E.(Reactants) − B. E.(Products)
W = – 300, because the work done by the system.
1 1 
35. (c) H =  B. E.( H 2 ) + BE (Cl 2 ) − B. E.( HCl )
Sol. Volume is not an intensive property.  2 2 
1 1
= (104 ) + (58 ) − 103
36. (a) 2 2
Sol. H = E + n g RT = 81 − 103 = −22 kcal
H = −22 kcal.
3 1
n g = 1 − = − or − 0.5
2 2 47. (d)
Hence  H =  E − 0 .5RT Sol. At equilibrium,  G = 0
37. (b) 48. (a)
Sol. Reactants have less energy then products Sol.  H –  U =  ng RT C(s) + 1/2 O2 (g) → CO (g)
MSA CHEMISTRY
 1 1
 ng = 1 – =+
2 2
1
 H –  U = × 8.314 × 298 = 1238.78 J mol –1
2
49. (b)
Sol. At constant volume  H =  U + VP
 – 560 =  U + 10 × (–30) × 0.1
  U = –530 kJ
50. (b)
Sol. In isothermal process, T= 0
In isobaric process,  P = 0
In adiabatic process, q = 0.
In isochoric process  V = 0

MSA CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Electrochemistry Level-1

1. Which of the following will not conduct electricity in aqueous 1

(a) Cl − → Cl 2 + e − (b) Cu → Cu + + + 2e −
solution. 2
(a) Copper sulphate (b) Sugar (c) Hg + → Hg + + + e − (d) Zn 2 + + 2e − → Zn
(c) Common salt (d) None of these
15. A cell from the following which converts electrical energy into
2. In aqueous solution, strong electrolytes.
chemical energy.
(a) Are partially ionized (b) Do not ionize
(a) Dry cell (b) Electrochemical cell
(c) Ionise almost completely (d) Form polymers
(c) Electrolytic cell (d) None of these
3. Electrolysis involves oxidation and reduction respectively at.
16. The relationship between standard reduction potential of cell
(a) Anode and cathode (b) Cathode and anode and equilibrium constant is shown by.
(c) At both the electrodes (d) None of the above n 0 .059
0
(a) Ecell = log K c 0
(b) Ecell = log K c
4. Which of the following compounds will not undergo 0 .059 n
decomposition on passing electricity through aqueous solution.
log K c
(a) Sugar (b) Sodium Chloride 0
(c) Ecell = 0.059 n log Kc 0
(d) Ecell =
n
(c) Sodium Bromide (d) Sodium Acetate
17. The specific conductance of a solution is 0.2 ohm −1cm −1 and
5. During the electrolysis of an electrolyte, the number of ions
produced, is directly proportional to the. conductivity is 0.04 ohm −1 . The cell constant would be.
(a) Time consumed (a) 1 cm −1 (b) 0 cm −1 (c) 5 cm −1 (d) 0.2 cm −1
(b) Electro chemical equivalent of electrolysis 18. In a electrochemical cell.
(a) Potential energy changes into kinetic energy
(c) Quantity of electricity passed
(b) Kinetic energy changes into potential energy
(d) Mass of electrons
6. In the electrolytic cell, flow of electrons is from. (c) Chemical energy changes into electrical energy
(a) Cathode to anode in solution (d) Electrical energy changes into chemical energy
(b) Cathode to anode through external supply 19. The standard electrode potentials of Zn 2 + / Zn and Ag + / Ag
(c) Cathode to anode through internal supply are − 0.763 V and + 0.799 V respectively. The standard
(d) Anode to cathode through internal supply potential of the cell is.
7. During electrolysis of NaCl solution, part of the reaction is (a) 1.56 V (b) 0.036 V
Na + + e − → Na. This is termed as. (c) – 1.562 V (d) 0.799 V
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction 20. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following
(c) Deposition (d) Cathode reaction half reactions are given against each.
8. During electrolysis, the species discharged at cathode are. Zn 2 + (aq.) + 2e ⇌ Zn(s) ; – 0.762
(a) Ions (b) Cation
Cr 3 + (aq) + 3e ⇌ Cr(s) ; – 0.740
(c) Anion (d) All of these
9. What weight of copper will be deposited by passing 2 Faradays 2 H + (aq) + 2e ⇌ H 2 (g) ; 0.00
of electricity through a cupric salt (Atomic weight of Cu =
Fe 3 + (aq) + e ⇌ Fe 2 + (aq) ; 0.770
63.5).
(a) 2.0 gm (b) 3.175 gm Which is the strongest reducing agent.
(c) 63.5 gm (d) 127.0 gm (a) Zn(s) (b) Cr(s) (c) H 2 (g) (d) Fe 2 + (aq)
10. On passing 0.1 Faraday of electricity through aluminium 21. The standard reduction electrode potentials of four elements
chloride, the amount of aluminium metal deposited on cathode are
is ( Al = 27 ) A = −0.250 V B = −0.136 V
(a) 0.9 gm (b) 0.3 gm (c) 0.27 gm (d) 2.7 gm
C = −0.126 V D = −0.402 V
11. How many Faradays are required to generate one gram atom of
magnesium from MgCl 2 . The element that displaces A from its compounds is.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) None of these
12. The unit of molar conductivity is. 22. The standard oxidation potential of zinc and silver in water at
(a) −1cm −2mol −1 (b)  cm −2mol −1 298 K are.
−1
(c)  cm mol2 −1
(d)  cm 2mol Zn (s) → Zn 2 + + 2e − ; E = 0.76 V

13. The unit ohm −1 is used for. Ag (s) → Ag 2 + + 2e − ; E = −0.80 V

(a) Molar conductivity (b) Equivalent conductivity Which of the following reactions actually take place.
(c) Specific conductivity (d) Conductivity (a) Zn(s) + 2 Ag + (aq) → Zn + + (aq) + 2 Ag(s)
14. Which one is not called a anode reaction from the following.
(b) Zn + + (aq) + 2 Ag(s) → 2 Ag + (aq) + Zn(s)
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (c) Zn(s) + Ag(s) → Zn + + (aq) + Ag + (aq)
(d) Zn + + (aq) + Ag + (aq) → Zn(s) + Ag(s)
23. EMF of cell Ni | Ni 2 + (1.0 M ) || Au 3 + (1.0 M ) | Au (Where E o
for Ni 2 + | Ni is − 0.25 V; E o for Au +3 | Au is 1.50 V ) is.
(a) + 1.25 V (b) − 1.75 V
(c) + 1.75 V (d) + 4.0 V
24. Reduction potential of four elements P, Q, R, S is
− 2.90, + 0.34 , + 1.20 and − 0.76 . Reactivity decreases in the
order.
(a) P  Q  R  S (b) Q  P  R  S
(c) R  Q  S  P (d) P  S  Q  R
25. A conductivity cell has two platinum electrodes of 1.2 cm 2
area, separated by a distance of 0.8 cm. The cell constant is,
(a) 0.66 cm −1 (b) 1.5 cm −1
−1
(c) 0.96 cm (d) 0.66 cm

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Electrochemistry Solutions

1. (b)
Sol. K = C  Cell constant = K = 0 .2 = 5 cm −1 .
Sol. Sugar solution does not form ion; hence does not conduct C 0 . 04
electricity in solution. 18. (c)
2. (c) Sol. In the electrochemical cell chemical energy changes into
Sol. Strong electrolytes are almost completely ionised in polar electrical energy.
solvent. 19. (a)
3. (a) o
Sol. Ecell = Ecathode
o
− Eanode
o
= 0.799 − (−0.763 ) = 1.562 V
Sol. In electrolysis process oxidation occurs at anode and 20. (a)
reduction occurs at cathode. Sol. More negative is the reduction potential, higher will be
4. (a) the reducing property, i.e. the power to give up electrons.
Sol. Because in it covalent bonding is present. 21. (c)
5. (c) Sol. A is displace from D because D have a
Sol. According to Faraday’s law.
E o = −0.402 V .
6. (d)
Sol. In electrolytic cell, cathode acts as source of electrons. 22. (a)
7. (b)
Sol. Na + + e − → Na , means oxidation number is
+1 0

decreased so the reaction is reduction.

8. (b)
Sol. In this reaction zinc act as a anode and Ag act as a
Sol. During electrolysis cation discharged at cathode and
anion discharged at anode. cathode.
9. (c) 23. (c)
Sol. Cu 2 + + 2e − → Cu Sol. Ecell = E oAu 3 + / Au − E Ni
o
2+
/ Ni
= 1.50 − (−0.25 ) = 1.75 V.

2 Faradays will deposit = 1 g atom of Cu = 63 .5 g . 24. (d)

Sol. Reducing power i.e. the tendency to lose electrons
10. (a)
Sol. At cathode; Al 3+ + 3e − → Al increases as the reduction potential decreases.
25. (a)
27
E Al = =9 l 0 .8
3 Sol. Cell constant = = = 0 . 66 cm −1 .
a 1 .2
W Al = E Al  No. of faradays = 9  0.1 = 0.9 gm .
11. (b)
Sol. 1 mole of electrons = 1 faraday
Mg ++ + 2e − → Mg ; 2 moles of electrons = 2 faraday .
12. (c)
1
Sol. Molar condcutivity =
M

So its unit will be  −1 cm 2 mol −1 .

13. (d)
1 1
Sol. Conductance = = = ohm −1 or mho
resistance ohm
14. (d)

Sol. . It shows reduction reaction.

15. (c)
Sol. In the electrolytic cell electrical energy change into
chemical energy.
16. (b)
2 .303 RT 0 .0591
o
Sol. E cell = log K = log K c at 298 K .
nF n
17. (c)

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry Electrochemistry Level-2

1. Standard electrode potentials of three metals A, B and C are + The emf for the cell reaction, when 0.1 M Cu 2 + and 0.1 M
0.5 V, – 3.0 V and – 1.2 V respectively. The reducing power of
these metals is in the order Zn 2+ solution are used, at 25 o C is
(a) B > C > A (b) A > B > C (a) 1.10 V (b) 0.10 V (c) –1.10V (d) –0.110 V
13. How many coulomb of electricity will be consumed when 100
(c) C > B > A (d) A > C > B
2. The highest electrical conductivity among the following mA current is passed through a solution of AgNO 3 for half an
aqueous solutions is of : hour during electrolysis
(a) 0.1 M acetic acid (b) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid (a) 108 (b) 180 (c) 1800 (d) 18000
(c) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid (d) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid 14. E 0 RP or Fe +/Fe and Sn +2/Sn are - 0.44 and 0.14 volts
3. The electrode potential becomes equal to standard electrode respectively. The standard emf for cell.
potential when reactants and products concentration ratio is
(a) Equal to 1 (b) Greater than 1 Fe+2 + Sn ⎯ ⎯→Sn +2 + Fe is
(c) Less than 1 (d) None of the above (a) + 0.30 V (b) - 0.58 V (c) + 0.58 V (d) - 0.30 V
4. In H2− O2 fuel cell the reaction occuring at cathode is 15. Emf of the cell
Ni | Ni2+ ( 0.1 M ) || Au 3+ (1.0 M) | Au will be
(a) 2 H2O + O2 + 4 e- ⎯ ⎯→ 4 OH- 0
E Ni / Ni2+
0
= 0.25, E Au / Au 3+ = −1.5 V
(b) 2 H 2 + O2 ⎯
⎯→ 2 H2 O (l) (a) 1.75 V (b) + 1. 7795 V
(c) H + + OH - ⎯
⎯→ H 2O (c) + 0.7795 V (d) - 1.7795 V
(d) H + + e- ⎯
⎯→ H2 . 16. 1 mol each of AgNO3, CuSO4 and AlCl3 is electrolysed.
Number of faradays required are in the ratio of :
2Ce 4+ + Co →2Ce 3+ + Co 2+ E 0 cell = 1.89 V, E 0 CO 2 +/ CO (a)1 : 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 3 : 1
5. is + 2+
= - 0.277 V hence, E 0 Ce 4 +/ Ce3+ 17. For a cell given below : Ag | Ag || Cu | Cu
(a) 0.805 V (b) 1.62 V (c) – 0.805 V (d) – 1.61 V - +
6. The resistance of 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte was found Ag + e ⎯
+ -
⎯→ Ag E0 = x
to be 210 Ohm at 298 K. Its conductance is, The value of
(a) 4.76  10 −3 mho (b) 4.76 mho Cu 2+ + 2e- ⎯ ⎯→ Cu, E0 = y
(c) 210 mho (d) None of these E 0 cell is :
7. The resistance of 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte was found (a) x + 2y (b) 2x + y (c) y – x (d) y – 2x
to be 210 Ohm at 298 K, using a conductivity cell of cell 18. The following E0 values :
constant 0.66 cm −1 . The specific conductance of solution is, E 0Fe3+ / Fe2+ = +0.77 V; E Sn 0
2+ = −0.14 V Under
/ Sn
−3 −1 −3 −1
(a) 3.14  10 mho cm (b) 3.14  10 mho cm standard conditions, the cell potential for the reaction given
(c) 3.14 mho cm −1 (d) 3.14 mho −1 cm −1 below is :
8. Molar conductivity of a solution is 1.26 × 10 2  1cm 2 mol 1 . Its Sn (s) + 2Fe 3+ (aq) → 2Fe 2+ (aq) + Sn 2+ (aq)
molarity is 0.01. Its specific conductivity will be (a) 1.68 V (b) 1.40 V (c) 0.91 V (d) 0.63 V
−5 −3
(a) 1 . 26  10 (b) 1 . 26  10 19. The limiting molar conductivities  for NaCl, KBr and KCl
0

(c) 1.26  10 −4 (d) 0.0063 are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The value of
9. Molar ionic conductivities of a bivalent electrolyte are 57 and
73. The molar conductivity of the solution will be
0 for NaBr is
(a) 128 S cm2 mol–1 (b) 176 S cm2 mol–1
(a) 130 S cm 2 mol −1 (b) 65 S cm 2 mol −1
(c) 278 S cm2 mol–1 (d) 302 S cm2 mol–1
(c) 260 S cm 2 mol −1 (d) 187 S cm 2 mol −1 20. The values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are – 0.41, + 1.57, + 0.77 and
10. The ionic mobilities of the cation and the anion of a salt are 140 + 1.97 V respectively. For which one of these metals, the
and 80 mho respectively. The equivalent conductivity of the change in oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest
salt at infinite dilution will be (a) Cr (b) Mn (c) Fe (d) Co
(a) 160 mho (b) 280 mho How many Coulombs of electricity are required for reduction
21.
(c) 60 mho (d) 220 mho of 1 mole of MnO −
to Mn 2+
4
11. The EMF of the cell, Ni | Ni 2 + || Cu 2 + | Cu is 0.59 volt. The
(a) 96500 C (b) 1.93  10 5 C
standard electrode potential (reduction potential) of copper
electrode is 0.34 volt. The standard electrode potential of nickel (c) 4.83  10 5 C (d) 9.65  10 6 C
electrode will be 22. Given that Eº values of Ag /Ag, K / K, Mg2+/ Mg and Cr3+/ Cr
+ +

(a) 0.25 volt (b) – 0.25 volt are 0.80V, –2.93V, –2.37V and –0.74V respectively. Therefore
(c) 0.93 volt (d) – 0.93 volt the order for the reducing power of the metal is –
12. The standard emf for the cell reaction (a) Ag > Cr > Mg > K (b) Ag < Cr < Mg < K
(c) Ag > Cr > K > Mg (d) Cr > Ag > Mg > K
Zn + Cu 2 + → Cu + Zn 2 + is 1.1 volt at 25 C .
o

MSA CHEMISTRY
23. Which of the following statements about galvanic cell is conductivity of the solution (in S cm −1 where S has usual
incorrect.
meaning) is
(a) Anode is positive (a) 0.15 (b) 1.5 (c) 0.015 (d) 150
(b) Oxidation occurs at the electrode with lower reduction 33. A conductivity cell has two platinum electrodes of 1.2 cm 2
potential area, separated by a distance of 0.8 cm. The cell constant is,
(c) Cathode is positive
(a) 0.66 cm −1 (b) 1.5 cm −1
(d) Reduction occurs at cathode
(c) 0.96 cm −1 (d) 0.66 cm
24. The molar conductances of NaCl, HCl and CH 3 COONa at 34. The standard potentials at 298 K for the following half
infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91 ohm −1 cm 2 mol −1 reactions are as given
respectively. The molar conductance of CH 3 COOH at Zn 2+ + 2e Zn Eº = –0.762 V
infinite dilution is. 2H + 2e → H2 (g) Eº = 0.000 V
+

Cr3+ + 3e Cr Eº = – 0.740 V
(a) 201 .28 ohm −1 cm 2 mol −1 (b) 390 .71 ohm −1 cm 2 mol −1
Fe3+ + 2e → Fe2+ Eº = 0.772 V
(c) 698 .28 ohm −1 cm 2 mol −1 (d) 540 .48 ohm −1 cm 2 mol −1 Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent ?
25. In dry cell the reaction which takes place at the zinc anode is. (a) Zn (s) (b) Cr (c) H2 (g) (d) Fe 2+ (aq)
35. Given :
(a) Zn 2 + + 2e − → Zn(s) 0
E Cr 3+ / Cr = −0.74 V; E MnO− / Mn 2+ = 1.51 V
0
(b) Zn(s) → Zn 2 + + 2e − 4

(c) Mn 2 + + 2e − → Mn(s) E 0
Cr2O72 − / Cr 3+
= 1.33 V; E 0
Cl / Cl −
= 1.36 V Based on the
(d) Mn(s) → Mn + + e − + 1.5 V data given above, strongest oxidising agent will be :
26. Which of the following reactions occurs at the cathode during (a) Cl (b) Cr3+ (c) Mn2+ (d) MnO4–
the charging of a lead storage battery. 36. Salt bridge contains
2+ −
(a) Pb + 2e → Pb (a) Calomel (b) Corrosive sublimate
(c) H 2 O (d) Agar-agar Paste
(b) Pb 2 + + SO 42 − → PbSO 4
37. The emf of the cell,
(c) Pb → Pb 2 + + 2e − Ni | Ni 2+ (1.0 M) || Ag + (1.0M) | Ag [E0 for Ni 2+ / Ni = - 0.25
2− −
(d) PbSO 4 + 2 H 2 O → 2 PbO 2 + 4 SO 4 + 2e
volt, E° for Ag+/Ag = 0.80 volt] is given by
27. The name of equation showing relation between electrode (a) –0.25 + 0.80 = 0.55 volt
potential (E) standard electrode potential (E ) and o (b) –0.25 – (+0.80) = –1.05 volt
concentration of ions in solution is. (c) 0 + 0.80 – (–0.25) = + 1.05 volt
(d) –0.80 – (–0.25) = – 0.55 vol
(a) Kohlrausch's equation (b) Nernst's equation 2+ 2+
(c) Ohm's equation (d) Faraday's equation 38. In the cell Zn | Zn || Cu | Cu, the negative terminal is
2+ 2+
28. The correct representation of Nernst's equation is. (a) Cu (b) Cu (c) Zn (d) Zn
0 . 0591
(a) E n + = E o M n + / M +
M /M
log (M n + ) 39. How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to
n
produce 100 g of Ca from molten CaCl2 ?
0 .0591
(b) E M n + / M = E o M n + / M − log (M n + ) (a) 1 F (b) 2 F (c) 3F (d) 5 F
n
40. The quantity of charge required to obtain one mole of
n
(c) E M n + / M = E o M n + / M + log (M n + ) aluminum from Al2 O3 is _______.
0 . 0591
(d) None of the above (a) 1 F (b) 6 F (c) 3 F (d) 2 F
29. EMF of cell Ni | Ni 2 + (1.0 M ) || Au 3 + (1.0 M ) | Au (Where E o 41. The cell constant of a conductivity cell __________.
(a) Changes with change of electrolyte
for Ni 2 + | Ni is − 0.25 V; E o for Au +3 | Au is 1.50 V ) is.
(b) Changes with change of concentration of electrolyte
(a) + 1.25 V (b) − 1.75 V
(c) Changes with temperature of electrolyte
(c) + 1.75 V (d) + 4.0 V (d) Remains constant for a cell.
30. The charge over anode in a galvanic cell is. 42. While charging the lead storage battery ________.
(a) Negative (a) PbSO 4 anode is reduced to Pb
(b) Positive
(c) No charge (b) PbSO 4 cathode is reduced to Pb
(d) Sometimes negative and sometimes positive (c) PbSO cathode is oxidized to Pb
4
31. Electrode potential of Zn 2 + / Zn is −0.76 V and that of
(d) PbSO 4 anode is oxidised to PbO2
Cu 2 + / Cu is +0.34 V . The EMF of the cell constructed
43. In a cell reaction
between these two electrodes is.
(a) 1.10 V (b) 0.42 V Cu (s ) + 2Ag (+aq ) → Cu (2aq+ ) + 2Ag ( s )
(c) – 1.1V (d) – 0.42 V
−1
Eº Cell = +0.46 V if the concentration of Cu 2+ ions is
32. The cell constant of a given cell is 0.47 cm . The resistance of
a solution placed in this cell is measured to be 31.6 Ohm. The doubled then Eº Cell will be
(a) Doubled (b) Halved
MSA CHEMISTRY
 (c) Increased by four times (d) Unchanged (b) In fig (Y), electrons flow from Cu to Zn and current flows
44. The cell reaction of the galvanic cell: from Zn to Cu (E ext  1.1V)
Cu ( s ) | Cu (2aq+ ) || Hg (2aq+ ) | Hg ( l ) is (c) In fig (X), Zn dissolves at anode and Cu deposits at cathode.
2+ 2+
(a) Hg + Cu → Hg + Cu (d) In fig (Y), Zn is deposited at Cu and Cu is deposited at Zn.

(b) Hg + Cu 2+ → Cu + + Hg +
(c) Cu + Hg → CuHg
2+
(d) Cu + Hg → Cu 2+ + Hg
45. When a lead storage battery is discharged,
(a) Lead sulphate is consumed (b) Oxygen gas is evolved
(c) Lead sulphate is formed (d) Lead sulphide is formed

46. What would be the equivalent conductivity of a cell in which

0.5 N salt solution offers a resistance offers 40 ohm whose
electrodes are 2 cm apart and 5cm2 in area?
(a) 10 ohm−1cmh 2eq−1 (b) 20 ohm−1cm2eq−1
(c) 30 ohm−1cm2eq−1 (d) 25 ohm−1cm2 eq
47. Molar conductivity of 0.15 M solution of KCl at 298 K, if its
conductivity is 0.0152 S cm−1 will be
(a) 124−1cm2 mol−1 (b) 204−1 cm2 mol−1

(c) 101−1cm2 mol−1 (d) 300−1cm2 mol−1

48. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of
concentration
(a) 0.004 M (b) 0.002 M
(c) 0.005 M (d) 0.001M
49. Specific conductance of 0.1 M NaCl solution is
1.01 102 ohm−1 cm−1 its molar conductance in
ohm−1cm2 mol −1 is
(a) 1.0110 (b) 1.0110
2 3

(c) 1.0110
4
(d) 10.1
50. Given below are two figures of Daniell cell (X) and (Y) Study
the figures and mark the incorrect statement from the
following.

(a) In Fig (X), electrons flow from Zn rod to Cu rod hence

current flows from Cu to Zn (E ext  1.1 V)

MSA CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry Electrochemistry Solutions

1. (a) −3 1
Sol. A B C = (100  10 )  (  60  60) = 180 C
2
Eored +0.5 V –3.0 V –1.2 V
14. (b)
The reducing power follows the following order : B > C > A.
Sol. Fe+2 + Sn ⎯ ⎯→Sn +2 + Fe
2. (d)
Sol. Difluoroacetic acid will be strongest acid due to electron E0 cell = E0 Fe2+/ Fe + E0Sn / Sn+2
withdrawing effect of two fluoring atoms so as it will show = - 0.44 - 0.14 = - 0.58 V
maximum electrical conductivity 15. (b)
3. (a)
Sol. Cell reaction: 3Ni + 2Au +3 ⎯ ⎯→3Ni +2 + 2Au
Sol. E = E 0 0.0591 Pr oduct Pr oduct
log if =1 [ Ni +2 ]3
n Re ac tan t  Re ac tan t  0.0591
E cell = E cell −
0
log
6 [Au +3 ]2
then E = E0
4. (a) 0.0591 . )3
( 01 0.0591
= (0.25 + 15
. )− log = 175
. − log(01
.)
Sol. H2–O2 fuel cell 6 (1) 2 2
At anode : 2OH– + H2 ⎯
⎯→ 2H2O + 2e– = 1.75 + 0.295 = + 1.7795 V
16. (b)
At cathode : 2 H2O + O2 + 4e – ⎯ ⎯→ 4OH–
Sol. Ag + + e– ⎯⎯→ Ag
5. (b)
Sol. Eºcell = 1.89 ; EºCe4+/Ce3+ + EºCo/Co2+ = E + 0.277  Cu 2+ + 2e– ⎯ ⎯→ Cu
E = 1.62 V Al3+ + 3e– ⎯ ⎯→ Al
6. (a) Thus, number of faradays required by 1 mol each = 1 : 2: 3.
1 1 17. (c)
Sol. Conductance = = = 4 .76  10 − 3 mho .
R 210 Sol.
7. (a) At LHS (oxidation) 2 × (Ag ⎯
⎯→ Ag + + e - ) E 0 ox = - x
1 l 1
Sol.  =  =  0 .66 = 3 .14  10 − 3 mho cm −1 . At RHS (reduction) Cu 2+ + 2e - ⎯
⎯→ Cu E 0 red = + y
R a 210
8. (b) 2Ag + Cu 2+ ⎯ ⎯→ Cu + 2Ag + , E 0 red = (y - x)
  1000   Molarity 18. (c)
Sol.  m = or  = m 0
Molarity 1000 Sol. E cell = 0.77 + 0.14 = 0.91 volt.
1 . 26  10 −2  0 . 01 19. (a)
= = 1 .26  10 − 3 .
Sol.  NaBr = 126 + 152 – 150 = 128 S cm2 mol–1 .
0
1000
9. (a) 20. (a)
Sol. 0m = 57 + 73 = 130S cm2 mol −1. 2+ 3+
Sol. Cr l Cr = +0.41V
10. (d)
Mn 2+ l Mn 3+ = −1.57 V
Sol. 0eq = 0c + 0a = 140 + 80 = 220 mho .
11. (b) Fe2+ l Fe3+ = −0.77V
Sol. E 0cell = E 0Re d (RHS) − E 0Re d (LHS) Co2+ l Co3+ = −1.97 V
= E 0Cu 2 + / Cu − E 0Ni 2 + / Ni As Cr will have maximum oxidation potential value, therefore
its oxidation will be easiest
i.e. 0.59 = 0.34 − E 0Ni 2 + / Ni 21. (c)
or E o 2 + = 0.34 − 0.59 = − 0.25 Volt Sol. (MnO 4 ) − → Mn 2+ i.e., Mn 7 + + 5e − → Mn 2 +
Ni / Ni
12. (a) Thus 1 mole of MnO 4− requires 5 F

Sol. E cell = −
0 .0591 
Zn 2 +  = 5  96500 C = 482500 ≃ 4.83  10 5 C.
 
0
E cell log
n Cu 2 + 22. (b)
Sol. More the negative Eº value, larger the reducing power of
0 .0591  0 .1 
E cell = 1 .10 − log   the metal.
2  0 .1 
Ecell = 1.10 V ( log 1 = 0) 23. (a)
13. (b) Sol. Anode has negative polarity.
Sol. Charge passed during electrolysis = i. x. t 24. (b)
Sol.  mo (CH 3 COOH ) =

MSA CHEMISTRY
  o (CH 3 COONa ) +  o (HCl ) −  o (NaCl )  Al3+ + 3e− → Al
= 91 + 426 .16 − 126 .45 = 390 .71 ohm −1 cm 2 mol −1 . Thus, 3 F of charge is required to obtain 1 mole of Al from
25. (b) Al2O3
Sol. At anode: Zn(s) → Zn 2+ + 2e − . 41. (d)
26. (d) Sol. Remains constant for a cell
Sol. PbSO 4 + 2 H 2 O → 2 PbO 2 + 4 SO 4− − + 2e − . 42. (a)
Sol. On charging the battery the reaction is reversed and
27. (b)
PbSO 4 ( s ) is converted into Pb at anode and PbO2 at
Sol. Nernst’s equation shows relation between E and E o
28. (a) cathode.
RT 1 43. (d)
Sol. E = E o − ln ; E = E o + RT ln[ M n + ]
nF [M n + ] nF Sol. Eº Cell = Eº Cathode −Eº anode
2 .303 RT It will remain unchanged
E = Eo + log[ M n + ]
nF 44. (d)
2+
Substituting the value of R, T (298K) and F we get Sol. Cell reaction: Cu + Hg → Cu 2+ + Hg
0 .0591
E = Eo + log( M n + ) . 45. (c)
n Sol.
29. (c)
Pb ( s ) + PbO 2 (s ) + 2H 2SO 4 ( aq ) → 2PbSO 4 (s ) + 2H 2 O ( l )
Sol. Ecell = E oAu 3 + / Au − E Ni
o
2+
/ Ni
= 1.50 − (−0.25 ) = 1.75 V.

30. (a) 46. (b)

Sol. In galvanic cell anode always made up of negative
1 l 1 2
electrode. Sol. k =  = 
31. (a) R A 40 5
o
Sol. Ecell = Ecathode
o
− Eanode
o
= 0.34 − (− 0.76 ) = 1.10 V . 1000 1 2 1000
 eq = k  =   = 20 ohm −1cm2 eq −1
32. (c) N 40 5 0.5
1 1 47. (c)
Sol.  =  cell constant =  0 .47 = 0 .015 S cm −1 .
R 31.6 k  1000 1.52  10 −2  1000
33. (a) Sol.  m = =
M 0.15
l 0 .8
Sol. Cell constant = = = 0 . 66 cm −1 .
a 1 .2 = 101−1 cm2 mol−1
34. (a) 48. (d)
Sol. More negative the standard potential, least the reduction Sol. Molar conductivity is inversely proportional to molarity.
tendency of the ion. The corresponding atom has largest
49. (a)
oxidation tendency and thus is a strong reducing agent. Zn is
k  1000
the strongest reducing agent. Sol.  m =
35. (d) M
Sol. Higher the SRP, better is oxidising agent −2
1.01  10  1000
Hence MnO4- is strongest oxidising agent. = = 1.01  102 ohm −1cm2 mol −1
36. (d)
0.1
Sol. Agar-Agar is a gelatin, it used in salt bridge along with 50. (d)
KCl electrolyte Sol. In fig. (Y), Zinc is deposited at the zinc electrode and
copper dissolves at copper electrode.
37. (c)
Sol. E cell = E 0Ni / N 2+ + = 0.25 + 0.80 = 1.05 Volt
38. (c)
Sol. In an electrochemical cell anode (Zn) is a negative
terminal
39. (d)
2+
Sol. CaCl2 → Ca + 2Cl−
Ca 2+ + 2e − → Ca
2 moles 1Moles ( 40 g )

40 g 0of Ca  2F
100 g of Ca  5 F
40. (c)
Sol. Al2 O3 → 2Al

2Al3+ + 6e− → 2Al

MSA CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Chemical Kinetics Level-1

1. The rate of a chemical reaction. (b) Decreases with increase in temperature

(a) Increases as the reaction proceeds (c) Does not depend on temperature
(b) Decreases as the reaction proceeds (d) Does not depend on concentration
(c) May increase or decrease during the reaction
(d) Remains constant as the reaction proceeds 12. Which of these does not influence the rate of reaction.
2. The rate at which a substance reacts depends on its. (a) Nature of the reactants
(a) Atomic weight (b) Equivalent weight (b) Concentration of the reactants
(c) Molecular weight (d) Active mass (c) Temperature of the reaction
3. The concentration of a reactant decreases from 0.2 M to 0.1 M (d) Molecularity of the reaction
in 10 minutes. The rate of the reaction is. 13. The rate law for reaction A + 2 B = C + 2 D will be.
(a) 0.01 M (b) 10 −2 (a) Rate = K[ A][B] (b) Rate = K[ A][2 B]
−3 −1
(c) 0.01 mol dm min (d) 1 mol dm −3 min −1 [C][D]2
(c) Rate = K[ A][B]2 (d) Rate = K
4. If the concentration of the reactants is increased, the rate of [ A][B]2
reaction.
14. The rate law for the reaction
(a) Remains unaffected (b) Increases [H + ]
Sucrose + Water ⎯⎯ ⎯→ Glucose + Fructose is given by.
(c) Decreases (d) May increase or decrease
5. Time required for completion of ionic reactions in comparison (a) Rate = K [sucrose] [water]
to molecular reactions is. (b) Rate = K [sucrose] [water] 0
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Rate = K [sucrose] 0 [water]
(c) Equal (d) None (d) Rate = K [sucrose] 1 / 2 [water] 1 / 2
6. The term  −  in a rate equation refers to the.
dc 15. The rate constant of a reaction depends on.
 dt  (a) Temperature (b) Mass
(a) Concentration of the reactant (c) Weight (d) Time
(b) Decrease in concentration of the reactant with time 16. The rate of reaction is determined by slow step reaction. The
(c) Increase in concentration of the reactant with time step is called.
(d) Velocity constant of the reaction (a) Reaction rate (b) Activation step
7. The rate of a reaction depends upon the. (c) Rate determining step (d) None of the above
(a) Volume (b) Force 17. The rate of the reaction
(c) Pressure (d) Concentration of reactant CCl 3 CHO + NO → CHCl 3 + NO + CO is given by Rate
8. For a given reaction 3 A + B → C + D the rate of reaction can = K [CCl 3 CHO ][ NO] . If concentration is expressed in
be represented by.
moles/litre, the units of K are.
1 d[ A] −d [B] +d [C ] +d[D]
(a) − = = = (a) litre2 mole −2 sec −1 (b) mole litre−1 sec −1
3 dt dt dt dt

(b) −
1 d[ A] d[C]
= = K [ A] [ B]
m n (c) litremole −1 sec −1 (d) sec −1
3 dt dt
18. For the reaction 2 N 2 O5 → 4 NO 2 + O2 rate of reaction and rate
1 d[ A] −d[C ]
(c) + = = K[ A]n [B]m constant are 1.02  10 −4 and 3.4  10 −5 sec −1
3 dt dt
respectively. The concentration of N 2 O5 at that time will be.
(d) None of these
9. A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by. (a) 1.732 (b) 3 (c) 1.02  10 −4 (d) 3.4  10 5
(a) Increasing the activation energy 19. If the concentration is expressed in moles per litre, the unit of
(b) Decreasing the activation energy the rate constant for a first order reaction is.
(c) Reacting with reactants (a) Mole litre −1 sec −1 (b) Mole litre −1
(d) Reacting with products (c) sec −1 (d) Mole −1 litre −1 sec −1
10. The main function of a catalyst in speeding up a reaction is. 20. A zero order reaction is one whose rate is independent of.
(a) To increase the rate of the forward reaction (a) Temperature of the reaction
(b) To change the reaction path so as to decrease the energy of (b) The concentrations of the reactants
activation for the reaction (c) The concentration of the products
(c) To reduce the temperature at which the reaction can occur (d) The material of the vessel in which the reaction is carried
(d) To increase the energy of the molecules of the reactants out
11. The rate of a reaction. 21. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is.
(a) Increases with increase in temperature (a) litre sec −1 (b) litre mole −1 sec −1
Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh
 (c) mole litre−1 sec −1 (d) mole sec −1

22. The inversion of cane sugar is represented by

C12 H 22 O11 + H 2 O → C6 H 12 O6 + C6 H 12 O6
It is a reaction of.
(a) Second order (b) Unimolecular
(c) Pseudo unimolecular (d) None of the three
23. Which one of the following formula represents a first order
reaction.
1  1 1 
(a) K = x (b) K =  − 
t 2 t  (a − x )2 a 2 
2 .303 a 1 x
(c) K = log 10 (d) K =
t (a − x ) t a(a − x )
24. The order of a reaction which has the rate expression
dc
= K[ E]3 / 2 [D]3 / 2 is.
dt
(a) 3/2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 0
25. The reaction 2 N 2 O5 ⇌ 2 NO 2 + O2 follows first order kinetics.
Hence, the molecularity of the reaction is.
(a) Unimolecular (b) Pseudo–unimolecular
(c) Bimolecular (d) None of the above

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 Matrix Science Academy
Chemical Kinetics Answers

1. (b) Sol. It is a second order reaction and the unit of k for second
Sol. Rate of reaction continuously decreases with time. order reaction is litre mol −1 sec −1 .
2. (d)
18. (b)
Sol. According to law of mass action.
Sol. R = K[A] , 1.02  10 −4 = 3.4  10 −5 , [ N 2 O5 ]
3. (c)
dx  0 .2 − 0 .1  0 .1 1 .02  10 −4
Sol. Rate of reaction = =  = 10 or (N 2 O 5 ) = ,K = 3
dt  10  3 .4  10 −5
= 0.01 mol dm −3 min −1 . 19. (c)
Sol. Unit of K for first order reaction = sec −1 .
4. (b)
20. (b)
Sol. Greater are the concentrations of the reactants, faster is
Sol. The rate of zero order reaction is not depend on the
the reaction. Conversely, as the concentrations of the reactants
concentration of the reactants.
decreases, the rate of reaction also decreases.
21. (c)
5. (b)
Sol. The unit of K for zero order reaction
Sol. Ionic reactions are very fast reactions i.e. take place
= mole litre−1 sec −1 .
instantaneously.
6. (b)
dc 22. (c)
Sol. − refers as decrease in concentration of the reactant Sol. Inversion of cane sugar is a Pseudo unimolecular
dt
with time. reaction.
7. (d) 23. (c)
2 .303 a
Sol. The rate of a reaction depends upon concentration of Sol. For 1 st order reaction K = log 10 .
t (a − x )
reactant.
8. (a) 24. (b)
d [B] +d[C ] +d (D) 3 3 3+3 6
Sol. −
1 d [ A]
=− = = . Sol. Order of reaction = + = = =3
3 dt dt dt dt 2 2 2 2
9. (b) 25. (c)
Sol. Catalyst increases the rate by decreasing the activation Sol. Two molecules are taking part in elementary step.
energy.
10. (b)
Sol. Catalyst decrease energy of activation.
11. (a)
Sol. Thus both rate and rate constant K increase with
temperature, r = k (reactant) n and k = Ae − Ea / RT

12. (d)
Sol. Molecularity of the reaction does not influence the rate of
reaction.
13. (c)
Sol. The rate law for an reaction can be given by; rate =
K( A)(B)2 , i.e. the powers are raised which are given as
coefficient of reactant.
14. (b)
Sol. It is a pseudo-unimolecular reaction.
15. (a)
Sol. K = Ae − Ea / RT by this equation it is clear that rate
constant of a reaction depends on temperature.
16. (c)
Sol. Rate determining step is a slow step by which rate of
reaction can be determined.
17. (c)

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Chemical Kinetics Level-1

1. The rate law for the reaction (d) None of these

RCl + NaOH (aq) → ROH + NaCl is given by Rate 8. In which of the following cases, does the reaction go farthest
= K1 [RCl ] . The rate of the reaction will be. to completion.
(a) K = 10 3 (b) K = 10 −2
(a) Doubled on doubling the concentration of sodium
(c) K = 10 (d) K = 1
hydroxide
9. For the reaction 2 N 2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g) , if
(b) Halved on reducing the concentration of alkyl halide to one
half concentration of NO2 in 100 seconds is increased by
(c) Decreased on increasing the temperature of the 5.2  10 −3 m . Then rate of reaction will be.
reaction (a) 1.3  10 −5 ms −1 (b) 5  10 −4 ms −1
(d) Unaffected by increasing the temperature of the (c) 7.6  10 −4 ms −1 (d) 2  10 −3 ms −1
reaction
(e) 2.5  10 −5 ms −1
2. If doubling the concentration of a reactant `A' increases the rate
d [ A]
4 times and tripling the concentration of `A' increases the rate 10. A + 2 B → C + D . If − = 5  10 − 4 mol l −1 s −1 1, then
9 times, the rate is proportional to. dt
(a) Concentration of `A' d [ B]
− is.
dt
(b) Square of concentration of 'A'
(c) Under root of the concentration of 'A' (a) 2.5  10 −4 mol l−1 s −1 (b) 5.0  10 −4 mol l−1 s −1
(d) Cube of concentration of `A' (c) 2.5  10 − 3mol l−1s−1 (d) 1.0  10 −3 mol l−1 s −1
3. In a catalytic conversion of N 2 to NH 3 by Haber's process,
the rate of reaction was expressed as change in the 11. The reaction
concentration of ammonia per time is 1
N 2 O5 (in CCl 4 solution ) → 2 NO 2 (solution ) + O2 (g)
40  10 −3 mol litre−1 s −1 . If there are no side reaction, the rate of 2
the reaction as expressed in terms of hydrogen is (in mol is of first order in N 2 O5 with rate constant 6.2  10 −1 s −1 . What
litre−1 s −1 ) is the value of rate of reaction when
−3 −3
(a) 60  10 (b) 20  10 [ N 2 O5 ] = 1.25 mole l −1 .
−3
(c) 1.200 (d) 10 .3  10 (a) 7.75  10 −1 mole l −1 s −1 (b) 6.35  10 −3 mole l −1 s −1
4. For reaction 2 A + B → products, the active mass of B is kept
constant and that of A is doubled. The rate of reaction will then. (c) 5.15  10 −5 mole l −1 s −1 (d) 3.85  10 −1 mole l −1 s −1
(a) Increase 2 times (b) Increase 4 times 12. A reaction that is of the first order with respect to reactant A has a
(c) Decrease 2 times (d) Decrease 4 times rate constant 6 min −1 . If we start with [ A] = 0.5 mol l −1 , when
5. In a reaction 2 A + B → A2 B , the reactant A will disappear at. would [A] reach the value 0.05mol l −1 .
(a) Half the rate that B will decrease (a) 0.384 min (b) 0.15 min
(b) The same rate that B will decrease (c) 3 min (d) 3.84 min
(c) Twice the rate that B will decrease 13. For the reaction 2 N 2 O5 → 4 NO 2 + O2 rate of reaction and rate
(d) The same rate that A2 B will form constant are 1.02  10 −4 and 3.4  10 −5 sec −1
6. For the reaction N 2 (g) + 3 H 2 (g) → 2 NH 3 (g) under certain respectively. The concentration of N 2 O5 at that time will be.
conditions of temperature and partial pressure of the reactants, (a) 1.732 (b) 3 (c) 1.02  10 −4 (d) 3.4  10 5
−1
the rate of formation of NH 3 is 0.001 kg h . The rate of 14. A first order reaction which is 30% complete in 30 minutes has
conversion of H 2 under the same conditions is. a half-life period of.
−4
(a) 1.82  10 kg / hr (b) 0.0015 kg / hr (a) 24.2 min (b) 58.2 min
(c) 102.2 min (d) 120.2 min
(c) 1.52  10 4 kg / hr (d) 1.82  10 −14 kg / hr
15. A first order reaction requires 30 minutes for 50% completion.
7. For a given reaction 3 A + B → C + D the rate of reaction can The time required to complete the reaction by 75% will be.
be represented by. (a) 45 minutes (b) 15 minutes
1 d[ A] −d [B] +d [C ] +d[D] (c) 60 minutes (d) None of these
(a) − = = =
3 dt dt dt dt 16. Which one of the following does not represent Arrhenius
1 d[ A] d[C] equation.
(b) − = = K[ A]m [B]n
3 dt dt E
(a) k = Ae − E / RT (b) log e k = log e A −
1 d[ A] −d[C ] RT
(c) + = = K[ A]n [B]m
3 dt dt

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 E E
(c) log 10 k = log 10 A − (d) k = AE − RT (c) log 10 k = log 10 A − (d) k = AE − RT
2 .303 RT 2 .303 RT
17. The differential rate law for the reaction H2 + I2® 2HI is : 27. The differential rate law for the reaction H2 + I2 ® 2HI is :
dH 2  dl  dHl dH 2  dl  dHl
(a) − =− 2 =− (a) − =− 2 =−
dt dt dt dt dt dt
dH 2  dl 2  1 dHl dH 2  dl 2  1 dHl
(b) = = (b) = =
dt dt 2 dt dt dt 2 dt
1 dH 2  1 dl 2  dHl 1 dH 2  1 dl 2  dHl
(c) = =− (c) = =−
2 dt 2 dt dt 2 dt 2 dt dt
dH 2  dl 2  dHl dH 2  dl 2  dHl
(d) − 2 = −2 =+ (d) − 2 = −2 =+
dt dt dt dt dt dt
d (B) d (B)
18. If 3 A → 2 B then the rate of reaction of + is equal to 28. If 3 A → 2 B then the rate of reaction of + is equal to
dt dt
d ( A) 1 d ( A) d ( A) 1 d ( A)
(a) + 2 (b) − (a) + 2 (b) −
dt 3 dt dt 3 dt
2 d ( A) 3 d ( A) 2 d ( A) 3 d ( A)
(c) − (d) − (c) − (d) −
3 dt 2 dt 3 dt 2 dt
19. If the first order reaction involves gaseous reactant and gaseous 29. If the first order reaction involves gaseous reactant and gaseous
products the units of its rate are – products the units of its rate are –
(a) atm (b) atm-sec (c) atm-sec–1 (d) atm2-sec 2 (a) atm (b) atm-sec (c) atm-sec–1 (d) atm2-sec2
20. The rate of the reaction, 30. The rate of the reaction,
3A + 2B → Products 3A + 2B → Products
is given by the rate expression : is given by the rate expression :
Rate = k[A][B] 2 Rate = k[A][B] 2
If A is taken in excess, the order of the reaction would be: If A is taken in excess, the order of the reaction would be:
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 5 (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 5
31. In the reaction A + 2B ⎯⎯→ 3C + D.
21. The reaction
d[C] 3d[A] 3d[C] 2d[B]
1 (a) =– (b) =–
N 2 O5 (in CCl 4 solution ) → 2 NO 2 (solution ) + O2 (g) dt dt dt dt
2
– d[B] + d[B]
is of first order in N 2 O5 with rate constant 6.2  10 −1 s −1 . What (c) = (d) None of these
2dt 3dt
is the value of rate of reaction when
32. For reaction 2A + B ⎯ ⎯→ D + E, following mechanism has
[ N 2 O5 ] = 1.25 mole l −1 . been proposed
(a) 7.75  10 −1 mole l −1 s −1 (b) 6.35  10 −3 mole l −1 s −1 mechanism A + B ⎯
⎯→ C + D ...... Slow
−5
(c) 5.15  10 mole l s −1 −1 −1
(d) 3.85  10 mole l s −1 −1 A+C ⎯ ⎯→ E ..........fast
Rate law for the reaction
22. A reaction that is of the first order with respect to reactant A has a
(a) r = K[A] 2[B] (b) r = K[A][B]
rate constant 6 min −1 . If we start with [ A] = 0.5 mol l −1 , when (c) r = K[A] (d) r = K[A][C]
would [A] reach the value 0.05mol l −1 . 33. Consider the chemical reaction,
(a) 0.384 min (b) 0.15 min 2A (g) ⎯⎯→ B(g) + 3C(g)
(c) 3 min (d) 3.84 min The rate of this reaction can be expressed in terms of time
23. For the reaction 2 N 2 O5 → 4 NO 2 + O2 rate of reaction and rate derivatives of conc. of A(g) , B(g) or C(g). Identify the correct
−4
constant are 1.02  10 and 3.4  10 sec −5 −1 relationship amongst rate expressions :
d[A] d[B] d[C]
respectively. The concentration of N 2 O5 at that time will be. (a) Rate = – = =
(a) 1.732 (b) 3 (c) 1.02  10 −4 (d) 3.4  10 5 dt dt dt
1 d[A] d[B] 1 d[C]
24. A first order reaction which is 30% complete in 30 minutes has (b) Rate = = =
a half-life period of. 2 dt dt 3 dt
(a) 24.2 min (b) 58.2 min 1 d[A] d[B] 1 d[C]
(c) 102.2 min (d) 120.2 min (c) Rate = – = =
25. A first order reaction requires 30 minutes for 50% completion.
2 dt dt 3 dt
1 d[A] d[B] 1 d[C]
The time required to complete the reaction by 75% will be. (d) Rate = =− =−
(a) 45 minutes (b) 15 minutes 2 dt dt 3 dt
(c) 60 minutes (d) None of these 34. The differential rate law equation for the elementary reaction
A + 2B ⎯ ⎯→
26. Which one of the following does not represent Arrhenius K
3C, is :
equation.
d[A] d[B] d[C]
(a) k = Ae − E / RT (b) log k = log A −
E (a) − =− = = k [A] [B] 2
e e
RT dt dt dt

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C] 42. The rate constant for a first order reaction whose half-life, is
(b) − =− = = k [A]2 [B] 480 seconds is –
dt 2 dt 3 dt (a) 2.88 × 10 –3 sec–1 (b) 2.72 × 10 –3 sec–1
d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C] –3
(c) 1.44 × 10 sec –1 (d) 1.44 sec –1
(c) − =− = = k [A] [B] 2
dt 2 dt 3 dt d[B]
43. 3A → 2B, rate of reaction + is equal to -
(d) None of these dt
35. For a reaction X → Y the rate of reaction becomes twenty 3 d[A] 2 d[A]
(a) – (b) –
seven times when the concentration of X is increased three 2 dt 3 dt
times. What is the order of the reaction? 1 d[A] 2d[A]
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 0 (c) – (d) +
3 dt dt
44. Consider the reaction 2 N 2 O 5 ⎯⎯→ 4 NO 2 + O 2 .
36. Consider the chemical reaction,
In the reaction NO2 is being formed at the rate of
2A (g) ⎯⎯→ B(g) + 3C(g)
The rate of this reaction can be expressed in terms of time 0.0125 mol L . What is rate of reaction at this time?
derivatives of conc. of A(g) , B(g) or C(g). Identify the correct
relationship amongst rate expressions : (a) 0.0018 mol L−1s −1 (b) 0.0031mol L−1s −1
d[A] d[B] d[C] (c) 0.0041mol L−1s −1 (d) 0.050 mol L−1s −1
(a) Rate = – = =
dt dt dt
45. In a reaction 2HI → H 2 + I 2 , the concentration of HI
1 d[A] d[B] 1 d[C]
(b) Rate = = = decrease from 0.5 mol L−1 to 0.4 mol L−1 in 10 minutes
2 dt dt 3 dt
what is the rate of reaction during this interval?
1 d[A] d[B] 1 d[C]
(c) Rate = – = = (a) 5  10−3 M min −1 (b) 2.5  10−3 M min −1
2 dt dt 3 dt −2 −1
(c) 5  10 M min (d) 2.5  10−2 M min −1
1 d[A] d[B] 1 d[C]
(d) Rate = =− =− 46. For the reaction 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H 2O, if the rate
2 dt dt 3 dt
−3
of disappearance of NH3 is 3.6  10 mol L−1s −1 what is
37. For the reaction 2A + 3B → 4C the rate of reaction may be
represented as the rate of formation of H 2 O ?
−1 −1

(a) r = – 2
d[A]
=–3
d[B]
=4
d[C] (a) 5.4  10 −3 mol L s −1 (b) 3.6  10 −3 mol L s −1
dt dt dt −1
(c) 4  10 −4 mol L s −1
−1

d[A] d[B] d[C] (d) 0.6  10 −4 mol L s −1

(b) r = – 6 =– 4 =3
dt dt dt
1 d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C] 47. The unit of rate constant for the reaction,
(c) r = –
2 dt
=
3 dt
=
4 dt 2H 2 + 2NO → 2H 2 O + N 2
Which has rate = k[H 2 ][ NO] , is
1 d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C] 2
(d) r = – =– =
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt −1 −1 −1
38. For the reaction N 2 + 3H 2 ⇌ 2NH 3 , if (a) mol L s (b) s
−2 2 −1 −1
[ NH 3 ] − [H 2 ] (c) mol L s (d) mol L
= 2  10 − 4 mol l −1 s −1 , the value of would
t t 48. The rate constant for the reaction 2N 2 O5 → 4NO 2 + O 2 is
be
−5 −1 −1
(a) 1  10 −4 moll −1s −1 (b) 3  10 −4 mol l −1 s −1 2 10−5 s −1. If rate of reaction is 1.4 10 mol L s what
−1
(c) 4  10 −4 moll −1 s −1 (d) 6  10 −4 mol l −1 s −1 will be the concentration of N 2 O5 in mol L ?
39. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 100 sec. The rate (a) 0.8 (b) 0.7 (c) 1.2 (d) 1
constant of the reaction is 49. The unit of rate and rate of constant are same for a
(a) 6.93  10 −3 sec −1 (b) 6.93  10 −4 sec −1 (a) Zero order reaction (b) First order reaction
(c) 0.693 sec −1 (d) 69 .3 sec −1 (c) Second order reaction (d) Third order reaction
40. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of N 2O5 is 50. For the reaction 2 N O ⎯
2 5 ⎯→ 4 NO 2 + O 2 , the rate of
−4 −1
6.2  10 sec . The half-life period for this decomposition in reaction can be expressed in terms of time and concentration
seconds is by the expression:
(a) 1117.7 (b) 111.7 (c) 223.4 (d) 160.9 d[ N 2 O 5 ] 1 d[ NO 2 ] 1 d[O 2 ]
41. For the reaction 2NO2 + F2 ⎯→ 2NO2F, (a) Rate = =− =
following mechanism has been provided: dt 4 dt 2 dt
NO2 + F2 ⎯slow
⎯⎯→ NO2 F + F 1 d[ N 2 O5 ] 1 d[ NO 2 ] d[O 2 ]
(b) Rate = − = =
NO2 + F ⎯fast⎯→
⎯ NO2 F
2 dt 4 dt dt
Thus rate expression of the above reaction can be written as - 1 d [ N O ] 1 d [ NO ] d[ O2 ]
(c) Rate = − 2 5
= 2
=
2
(a) r = K [NO2] [F2] (b) r = K [NO2 ] 4 dt 2 dt dt
(c) r = K [NO2] [F2] (d) r = K [F2]
1 d[ N 2 O5 ] 1 d[ NO 2 ] 1 d[O 2 ]
(d) Rate = − = =
2 dt 2 dt 2 dt
MSA-CHEMISTRY
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemical Kinetics Answers

1. (b) 1 .02  10 −4
Sol. R = K[RCl ] , if [RCl] =1/2, then rate = R/2. or (N 2 O 5 ) = ,K = 3
3 .4  10 −5
2. (b) 14. (b)
Sol. 2 2 = 4, 3 2 = 9 2 .303 a
Sol. k = log
3. (a) t a−x
− d(N 2 ) 1 d (H 2 ) 1 d ( NH 3 ) 3 0 . 693 2 . 303 100
Sol. =− = =  40  10 − 3 = log
dt 3 dt 2 dt 2 T t 100 − 30
= 60  10 −3.  T = 58 .2 min.
4. (b) 15. (c)
Sol. Rate = K( A)2 (B)1 on doubling the active mass of A the 0 .693 2 .303  100 
Sol. k = = 0 .0231 ; t = log  
rate of reaction increase 4 times. 30 k  100 − 75 
5. (c) 2 .303
t= log 4 = 60 minutes
Sol. ‘A’ will disappear at twice the rate at which ‘B’ will 0 .0231
decrease. 16. (d)
6. (b) Sol. All other are different forms of Arrhenius equation.
−dN 2 −1 dH 2 1 dNH 3 17. (d)
Sol. = =
dt 3 dt 2 dt Sol. H2 + □2 → 2H□
dH 2 3
=  0 . 001 = 0 .0015 kg hr −1 .
When 1 mole of H2 and 1mole of I2 reacts, 2 moles of HI are
dt 2 formed in the same time interval.
7. (a) Thus the rate may be expressed as
Sol. −
1 d [ A]
=−
d [B] +d[C ] +d (D)
= = − H 2  l 2  1 Hl
3 dt dt dt dt
. = = The negative sign signifies a
t t 2 t
8. (a) decrease in concentration of the reactant with increase of time.
Sol. Higher the value of rate constant so, faster the reaction rate. 18. (c)
9. (a) Sol. 3 A → 2 B ; Rate
Sol. 2 N 2 O5(g) → 4 NO 2(g) + O 2(g) 1 d [ A] 1 d [ B] d [ B] 2 d [ A]
=− = ; + =−
Rate of reaction with respect to NO 2 3 dt 2 dt dt 3 dt
19. (c)
1 d[ NO 2 ] 1 5 .2  10 −3
= =  = 1 .3  10 −5 ms −1 Sol. Rate = atm sec –1
4 dt 4 100 20. (b)
10. (a) Sol. When A is taken in excess, its concentration will become
−d [ A] constant; the rate law may, therefore, be given as :
Sol. A + 2 B → C + D = 5  10 − 4
dt Rate = k[B]2 Order = 2
1 d[B] 5  10 −4
− = = 2 .5  10 − 4 mol −1 sec −1 21. (a)
2 dt 2
Sol. Rate = K(N 2 O5 ) = 6.2  10 −1  1.25
11. (a) = 7.75  10 −1 mol l−1 s −1
Sol. Rate = K(N 2 O5 ) = 6.2  10 −1  1.25 22. (a)
−1 −1 −1 Sol. We know that for first order kinetics
= 7.75  10 mol l s
2 . 303 a
12. (a) k= log
Sol. We know that for first order kinetics t a−x
2 . 303 0 .5
k=
2 . 303
log
a (a − x ) = 0.05 mol l−1 , 6 = log
t a−x t 0 . 05
2 .303 0 .5 2 .303
(a − x ) = 0.05 mol l−1 , 6 =
2 . 303
log
0 .5 or t = log = = 0 .384 min
t 0 . 05 6 0 .05 6

2 .303 0 .5 2 .303 23. (b)

or t = log = = 0 .384 min Sol. R = K[A] , 1.02  10 −4 = 3.4  10 −5 , [ N 2 O5 ]
6 0 .05 6
13. (b) 1 .02  10 −4
or (N 2 O 5 ) = ,K = 3
Sol. R = K[A] , 1.02  10 −4 = 3.4  10 −5 , [ N 2 O5 ] 3 .4  10 −5
24. (b)
 37. (d)
Sol. k = 2 .303 log a
t a−x Sol. For the reaction 2A + 3B → 4C, the rate of reaction is
0 . 693 2 . 303 100 represented as
= log 1 d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C]
T t 100 − 30 – =– =
 T = 58 .2 min. 2 dt 3 dt 4 dt
38. (b)
25. (c)
Sol. N 2 + 3H 2 ⇌ 2NH 3
0 .693 2 .303  100 
Sol. k = = 0 .0231 ; t = log   −[ N 2 ] 1 [H 2 ] 1 [ NH 3 ]
30 k  100 − 75  =− = ;
t 3 t 2 t
2 .303
t= log 4 = 60 minutes [H 2 ] 3 [ NH 3 ] 3
0 .0231  =  =  2  10 − 4
t 2 t 2
26. (d) −4 −1 −1
Sol. All other are different forms of Arrhenius equation. = 3  10 mol l s .
27. (d) 39. (a)
Sol. H2 + □2 → 2H□ Sol. k =
0.693
=
0.693
= 6.93  10 −3 sec −1
When 1 mole of H2 and 1mole of I2 reacts, 2 moles of HI are t 1 / 2 100 sec
formed in the same time interval. 40. (a)
Thus the rate may be expressed as 0.693 0.693
− H 2  l 2  1 Hl Sol. t1/ 2 = = = 1117.7 sec
= = The negative sign signifies a k 6.2 10 −4
t t 2 t 41. (c)
decrease in concentration of the reactant with increase of time. Sol. By slow step ; r = K × [NO2] [F2]
28. (c) 42. (c)
Sol. 3 A → 2 B ; Rate 0.693 0.693
Sol. K = = = 1.44 × 10 –3 sec–1
1 d [ A] 1 d [ B] d [ B] 2 d [ A] t1/ 2 480
=− = ; + =−
3 dt 2 dt dt 3 dt 43. (b)
29. (c) 1 d[ A ] 1 d[B]
Sol. Rate = atm sec –1 Sol. – =+
30. (b) 3 dt 2 dt
Sol. When A is taken in excess, its concentration will become 44. (b)
constant; the rate law may, therefore, be given as : Sol.
Rate = k[B]2 Order = 2 1 d[ NO 2 ] 1
31. (c) Rate = =  0.0125 = 0.0031 mol L−1s −1
4 dt 4
R
Sol. = C 45. (a)
3
1 [R ] 1 0.4 − 0.5
32. (b) Sol. Average rate = − =− 
Sol. R.D.S = step , 2 t 2 10
R = K[A]'[B]'
1 0.1
33. (c) =  = 5  10 −3 M min −1
Sol. 2A [g]⎯⎯→ B[g] + 3C[g] [elementary reaction] 2 10
46. (a)
1 d[A] d[B] 1 d[C]
Rate = – = = Sol. −
1 d[ NH 3 ] 1 d[H 2 O]
2 dt dt 3 dt =+
4 dt 6 dt
34. (c)
d[H 2 O] 6
Sol. A + 2B ⎯⎯→
K
3C [elementary reaction] =  3.6  10 −3 = 5.4  10 −3 mol L−1s −1
d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C] dt 4
Rate = – =− = = k (a) (b) 2
dt 2 dt 3 dt 47. (c)
35. (c) Sol. Unit of rate constant for the reaction is
Sol. Let rate of reaction
rate mol L−1 s −1
R = k[X]
n
…… (i) k= = = mol −2 L2s −1
[H 2 ][ NO]2 (mol L−1 )(mol L−1 ) 2
27R = k[3X]n … (ii) 48. (b)
Sol. Rate = k[ N 2 O5 ] (first order as unit of rate constant is s
−1
Or 27 = 3 [Dividing (ii) by (i)]
n

Or 3 = 3 or n = 3
3 n
)
rate 1.4  10 −5 mol L−1s −1
36. (c) [ N 2O5 ] = = = 0.7 mol L−1
k 2  10 −5 s −1
Sol. 2A [g]⎯⎯→ B[g] + 3C[g] [elementary reaction]
49. (a)
1 d[A] d[B] 1 d[C] Sol. For a zero order reaction rate = k[A]º = k
Rate = – = =
2 dt dt 3 dt −1 −1
Units = mol L time
50. (b)
Sol. For 2N 2 O5 → 4NO2 + O2 the rate of reaction can be
expressed as
1 d[ N 2 O 5 ] 1 d[ NO 2 ] d[O 2 ]
− = =
2 dt 4 dt dt
 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XII - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : Transition and Inner transition Elements Marks : 25

01) Which has valency two? B) +3

A) Ge C) +2
B) Cu D) +5
C) Rb
D) Al 10) Steel contains
A) Fe+Mn+Cr
02) Silver nitrate is supplied in coloured bottles B) Fe+Mn
because it is C) Fe+C+Al
A) reactive towards air in sunlight. D) Fe+C+Mn
B) explosive in sunlight.
C) decomposes in sunlight. 11) Smelting is done in
D) oxidized in air. A) electric furnace.
B) open-hearth furnace.
03) Brass is an alloy of C) blast furnace.
A) Zn and Cu. D) muffle furnace.
B) Zn and Sn.
C) Cu, Zn and Sn. 12) The number of 4f electrons in Eu (63) and Gd
D) Cu and Sn. (64) is ..........................
A) 7,6
04) The valence shell electronic configuration of B) 6,7
Cr2 ion is C) 7,7
D) 6,6
A) 3p6 4s2
B) 4s2 3d0 13) Bullet-proof steel alloy is prepared by using
2
C) 4s 3d 2 A) Zn
B) Zr
D) 4so 3d4
C) Ni
D) Sc
05) Which of the following have maximum number
of unpaired electrons? 14) Which of the following ores does not represent
A) Co2+ the ore of iron?
B) Co3+ A) Limonite
C) Fe2+ B) Cassiterite
D) Fe3+ C) Magnetite
D) Haematite
06) Which actinide does not occur in nature?
A) Pa 15) Which of the following series have all the
B) An elements radioactive in nature?
C) U A) Lanthanides
D) Th B) Actinides
C) s-block
07) Lanthanides and actinides resemble in D) d-block
A) formation of complexes.
B) ionization energy. 16) The transition element of 3d-series which
C) oxidation state. shows only +2 oxidation state.
D) electronic configuration. A) Ti
B) Sc
08) Fe is most stable in +3 oxidation state than +2 C) Cu
because ...................... D) Zn
A) extra half-filled stability of d-orbital
B) variation in electronic configuration 17) Froth-floatation method is successful in
C) extra full-filled stability of d-orbital separating impurities from ores because
D) none of the above A) the pure ore is not as easily wetted by water as
by pine oil, cresylic acid etc.
09) The common oxidation state of Actinoids is B) the impurities are soluble in water containing
..................... additives like pine oil, cresylic acid etc.
A) +4
JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)
 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

C) the pure ore is soluble in water containing C) ns and np orbits

additives like pine oil, cresylic acid etc. D) ns orbit
D) the pure ore is lighter than water containing
additives like pine oil, cresylic acid etc.

18) The correct electronic configuration of Uranium

(Z = 92) is ...................
A) Rn 5f 4 6d17s2
B) Rn 5f 2 6d6 7s2
C) Rn 5f 3 6d17s2
D) Rn 4f 4 6d0 7s2

19) 3do4so electronic configuration exhibits

A) Zn+2
B) Ti+4
C) Sc+2
D) Pd+2

20) Which of the following element have

com-pletely filled 4f subshell?
A) Tm and Lu
B) La and Ce
C) Yb and Tm
D) Yb and Lu

21) The highest magnetic moment is shown by the

transition metal ion with ____ outer electronic
configuration.
A) 3d9
B) 3d5
C) 3d7
D) 3d2

22) The iron formed in blast furnace is called

......................
A) pig iron
B) cast iron
C) steel
D) wrought ion

23) The smelting of iron in the blast furnace

involves all the following process except
A) sublimation.
B) decomposition.
C) reduction.
D) oxidation.

24) The general electronic configuration of

Actinoids is ..................
A) Rn 4f114 5d0 6s2
B) Rn 5f 014 6d017s2
C) Rn 4f 014 5d017s2
D) Rn 5f 014 6d17s1

25) Transitional elements exhibit variable valencies

because they release electrons from the following
orbits
A) (n - 1) d orbit
B) (n - 1) d and ns orbits
JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)
 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XII - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : Transition and Inner transition Elements Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: B) Cu completely filled 3d-orbitals.

02) Ans: C) decomposes in sunlight. 17) Ans: A) the pure ore is not as easily wetted by
Sol: Decomposes in sunlight. water as by pine oil, cresylic acid etc.

2AgNO3  2Ag  2NO2  O2
18) Ans: C) Rn 5f 3 6d17s2
03) Ans: A) Zn and Cu. Sol: Rn 5f 3 6d17s2
Sol: Brass is an alloy of Zn as well as Cu.
19) Ans: B) Ti+4
04) Ans: D) 4so 3d4 Sol: We know, Ti  3d24s2
Sol: Electronic configuration of chromium is given Ti+4  3do4s0
as Cr  [Ar] 3d5 4s1  C r2  [ A r ]34d 4
0
s
20) Ans: D) Yb and Lu
05) Ans: D) Fe3+ Sol: Yb   Xe 4f14 6s2
Sol: Co2+  [Ar] 3d7 4s0, number of unpaired
Lu   Xe 4f14 5d16s2
electrons = 3
Co3+  [Ar] 3d6 4s0, number of unpaired electrons
=4 21) Ans: B) 3d5
Fe2+  [Ar] 3d6 4s0, number of unpaired electrons
Sol: 3d5 has maximum no.of unpaired electrons
=4
Fe3+  [Ar] 3d6 4s0, number of unpaired electrons (i.e., 5).
=5
22) Ans: A) pig iron
06) Ans: B) An
23) Ans: A) sublimation.
07) Ans: C) oxidation state.
Sol: The oxidation state in both lanthanide and 24) Ans: B) Rn 5f 014 6d017s2
actinide is +3. The properties of actinide are very Sol: Rn 5f 014 6d017s2
similar to those of lanthanide when both are in +3
state.
25) Ans: B) (n - 1) d and ns orbits
08) Ans: A) extra half-filled stability of d-orbital
Sol: Fe3 will have 3d5 configuration which
coonts for half-filled stability of d-orbital.

09) Ans: B) +3

10) Ans: D) Fe+C+Mn

11) Ans: C) blast furnace.

12) Ans: C) 7,7

13) Ans: B) Zr

14) Ans: B) Cassiterite

Sol: Here, Cassiterite (SnO2 ) , Magnetite (Fe3O4 ) ,
Haematite (Fe2O3 ) , Limonite (Fe2O3 .3H2O) .

15) Ans: B) Actinides

16) Ans: D) Zn
Sol: Zn shows only +2 oxidation state due to

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 Matrix Science Academy
Transition and Inner Transition Elements

1. The number of unpaired electrons in Cr + will be. (a) V 2+ (b) Cr 3+ (c) Zn

2+
(d) Ti
3+

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 18. Which of the following transition metal ions has highest
2. The highest oxidation state of Cr will be. magnetic moment?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
(a) Cu 2+ (b) Ni 2+ (c) Co 2+ (d) Fe 2+
3. Which statement is true about the transitional elements.
(a) They are highly reactive 19. Which of the following compounds is not coloured?
(b) They show variable oxidation states (a) Na 2 [CuCl4 ] (b) Na 2 [CdCl4 ]
(c) They have low M.P. (c) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] (d) K 3 [ Fe(CN ) 6 ]
(d) They are highly electropositive 20. Select the correct option, among Sc (III), Ti(IV), Pd(II) and
4. Across the lanthanide series, the basicity of the lanthanoide Cu(II) ions,
hydroxides : (a) All are paramagnetic
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(b) All are diamagnetic
(c) First increases and then decreases (d) Does not change
5. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of the lanthanoide. (c) Sc(III), Ti(IV) are paramagnetic and Pd(III), Cu(II) are
Which of the following statement about cerium is incorrect? diamagnetic
(a) The common oxidation state of cerium are +3 and +4. (d) Sc(III), Ti(IV) are diamagnetic and Pd(II), Cu(III) are
(b) The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than +4 paramagnetic.
oxidation state.
21. Identify the species in which the metal atom is in +6 oxidation
(c) The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solution.
state.
(d) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidizing agent. − 3− 2−
6. The outer electron configuration of Lu (Atomic No : 71) is : (a) MnO 4 (b) Cr (CN ) 6 (c) NiF6 (d) CrO2 Cl 2
(a) 4f3 5d 5 6s2 (b) 4f8 5d 0 6s2 22. Consider the following statements with respect to lanthanides:
(c) 4f4 5d 4 6s2 (d) 4ƒ 14 5d1 6s2 1. The basic strength of hydroxides of lanthanides increase
7. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired from La(OH) 3 to Lu(OH) 3
d-electron?
3+ 2+
(a) Zn 2+ (b) Fe 2+ (c) Ni2+ (d) Cu 2+ 2. The lanthanide ions Lu , Yb and Ce 4+ are
8. Which one of the ionic species will impart colour to an aqueous diamagnetic.
solution? Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Ti4+ (b) Cu + (c) Zn 2+ (d) Cr3+ (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
9. Which of the following transition element shows the highest
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
oxidation state :
(a) Mn (b) Fe (c) V (d) Cr 23. The correct configuration of f-block elements is
1−14 0−1
(a) (n − 2)f (n −1)d ns 2
10. Which one of the transition metal ions is coloured in aqueous
solution? 1−14
(a) Cu + (b) Zn 2+ (c) Sc 3+ (d) V4+
(b) (n − 1)f (n −1)d 0−1ns 2
11. Which of the following lanthanide ion is paramagnetic? (c) (n − 3)f
1−14
(n − 2)d 0−1 (n − 1)s 2
4+ 2+ 3+ 2+
(a) Ce (b) Yb (c) Lu (d) Eu 0 −1 0 −1
(d) ( n − 2)f (n − 1)d ns
2
12. Lanthanoid contraction is due to increase in
(a) Atomic number (b) Effective nuclear charge 24. Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3
5
(c) Atomic radius (d) Valence electrons oxidation state is [Ar]3d what is its atomic number?
13. The common oxidation state shown by lanthanides in their (a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 24
compound is 25. There are 14 elements in actinoid series. Which of the
(a) +1 (b) +3 (c) +5 (d) +6 following elements does not belong to this series?
14. Which is the non - lanthanide element? (a) U (b) Np (c) Tm (d) Fm
(a) La (b) Lu (c) Pr (d) Pm
15. What is the total number of inner transition elements in the 26. Amalgams are.
periodic table? (a) Highly coloured alloys
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 30 (d) 28 (b) Always solid
16. General electronic configuration of transition metals is (c) Alloys which contain mercury as one of the contents
1−10
(a) (n − 1)d ns
2 10 2
(b) nd ns (d) Alloys which have great resistance to abrasion
1−5 27. The form of iron having the highest carbon content is.
(c) (n − 1)d ns (d) (n − 1)d ns
10 2 2
(a) Cast iron (b) Wrought iron
17. Which of the following transition metal ions is colourless? (c) Strain steel (d) Mild steel

MSA-CHEMISTRY
28. In which of these processes platinum is used as a catalyst. 44. Which of the following group of ions is paramagnetic in nature
(a) Oxidation of ammonia to form HNO 3 :
+ 2+ 3+ 2+ 3+ 2+
(b) Hardening of oils (a) Cu , Zn , Sc (b) Mn , Fe , Ni
(c) Production of synthetic rubber 2+ 3+ 3+ 2+ 2+ 4+
(c) Cr , Mn , Sc (d) Cu , Ni , Ti
(d) Synthesis of methanol 45. The correct order of number of unpaired electrons is
2+ 2+ 3+ 3+
29. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired (a) Cu  Ni  Cr  Fe
electrons? 2+ 2+ 3+ 3+
(a) Mg+2 (b) Ti+3 (c) V+3 (d) Fe +2 (b) Ni  Cu  Fe  Cr
30. Ti4+ is isoelectronic with - 3+ 3+ 2+ 2+
(c) Fe  Cr  Ni  Cu
(a) Mn 4+ (b) Cl– (c) Cr3+ (d) V3+
3+ 3+ 2+ 2+
31. Which of the following group of transition metals is called (d) Cr  Fe  Ni  Cu
coinage metals? 46. Arrange the following in increasing value of magnetic
(a) Cu, Ag, Au (b) Ru, Rh, Pb
moments
(c) Fe, Co, Ni (d) Os. Ir, Pt
(i) [ Fe(CN ) 6 ]4− (ii) [ Fe(CN ) 6 ]3−
32. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe 2+ (At. no. Fe = 26)
2+
ions are : (iii) [Cr ( NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (iv) [ Ni ( H 2 O) 4 ]
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
(a) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (b) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii)
33. Purpose of smelting of an ore is. (d) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv) (d) (iii) < (i) < (ii) < (iv)
(a) To oxidise it (b) To reduce it 47. Which of the following pairs of ions have the same electronic
(c) To remove vaporisable impurities (d) To obtain an alloy configuration?
34. The substance which is mixed with the ore for removal of 2+ 2+ 3+ 2+
(a) Cu , Cr (b) Fe , Mn
impurities is termed as.
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
(a) Slag (b) Gangue (c) Flux (d) Catalyst (c) Co , Ni (d) Sc , Cr
35. Which of the following processes involves smelting. 48. Interstitial compounds are
(a) ZnCO 3 → ZnO + CO2 (a) Non-stoichiometric and are ionic in nature
(b) Fe2O3 + 3C → 2 Fe + 3CO (b) Non- Stoichimetric and are covalent in nature
(c) 2 PbS + 3O2 → 2 PbO + 2SO 2 (c) Non- Stoicheiometric and are neither typically ionic nor
covalent
(d) Al2O3 .2 H 2O → Al2O3 + 2 H 2O
(d) Stoichimoetric and are neither ionic nor covalent
36. In the manufacture of iron lime stone added to the blast furnace, 49. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate
the calcium ion ends in the form of. choice.
(a) Slag (b) Gangue
Column I Column II
(c) Calcium metal (d) CaCO 3
(A) Ni in the presence of (i) Ziegler Natta
37. Flux added in the extraction of iron is. hydrogen catalyst
(a) Silica (b) Felspar (B) (ii) Contact process
Cu 2 Cl 2
(c) Limestone (d) Flint
38. In the manufacture of iron from haematite, the function of lime (C) V2 O5 (iii) Vegetable oil to
stone is as. ghee
(a) A reducing agent (b) Flux (D) Finely divided iron (iv) Sandmeyer
(c) Slag (d) Gangue reaction
39. The slag obtained during the extraction of copper from copper (E) TiCl 4 + Al(CH3 )3 (v) Haber’s process
pyrites is composed mainly of.
(a) (A) → (iv), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (i), (E) →
(a) CaSiO3 (b) FeSiO3
(v)
(b) (A) → (ii), (B) → (v), (C) → (i), (D) → (iii), (E) →
(c) CuSiO 3 (d) SiO2
(iv)
40. Which of the following ions has the maximum magnetic
(c) (A) → (v), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (ii), (E) →
moment?
(a) Mn 2+ (b) Fe 2+ (c) Ti2+ (d) Cr2+. (i)
41. The magnetic moment of 25 Mn in ionic state is B.M, then Mn (d) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (v), (E) →
is in : (i)
(a) +2 state (b) +3 state (c) +4 state (d) +5 state 50. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate
42. Which of the following transition metal ions has the lowest choice.
density? Column I Column II
(a) Copper (b) Nickel (c) Scandium (d) Zinc (A) Mischmetal (i) Alloy of Cu and Sn
43. Of the ions Zn 2+ , Ni2+ and Cr3+ (atomic number Zn = 30, Ni (B) Ziegler catalyst (ii) Alloy of lanthanoid
= 28, Cr = 24): metals
(a) Only Zn 2+ is colourless and Ni 2+ and Cr3+ are coloured.
(b) All three are colourless.
(C) Brass (iii) TiCl 4 + Al(CH3 )3
(c) All three are coloured. (D) Bronze (iv) Alloy of Cu and Zn
(d) Only Ni2+ is coloured and Zn 2+ and Cr3+ are colourless. (a) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (ii)
MSA-CHEMISTRY
(b) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(c) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii)
(d) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Transition & Inner Transition Elements Key

1. (c) (C) Valence shell electron configuration of Fe 3+ is [Ar]18 3d5

Sol. ; so n = 5
(D) Valence shell electron configuration of Co 3+ is [Ar]18 3d6
; so n = 4
11. (d)
Sol. Ce → [Xe] 4f 5d 6s ;
1 1 2
Ce4+ → [Xe]
Yb → [Xe]4f 14 6s 2 ; Yb 2+ → [Xe ]4f 14
2. (d)
Sol. There are 6 electrons in its ultimate and Lu → [Xe]4f 14 5d1 6s 2 ; Lu3+ → [Xe]4f 14
penultimate shell. Eu → [Xe]4f 7 6s 2 ; Eu 2+ → [Xe]4f 7
3. (b)
Sol. They show variable oxidation state due to participation of 12. (b)
Sol. As we move down the lanthanoid series the shielding
ns and (n − 1)d electrons.
effect of electrons is very little due to poor shielding of f-
4. (b)
orbitals and hence the nuclei charge increase at each step
Sol. Across lanthanoide series basicity of lanthanoide
hydroxide decreases. increasing the pull of the electron in wards which results in
5. (c) lanthnoid contraction.
Sol. (3) Cerium can also show the oxidation state of +4 in 13. (b)
solution as it leads to a noble gas configuration, from [Xe]54 Sol. The typical oxidation state of the lanthanides is +3 the
4f1 5d1 6s2 to [Xe]54 , after losing four electrons. It is only other oxidation state +2 and +4 are also exhibited by few of
Ce4+ which exist in solution among the lanthanides. lanthanides. (These are shown by those elements which acquire
6. (d) stable configuration by losing 2 and 4 electrons)
Sol. Lutetium (71Lu) = [Xe] 54 4ƒ 145d16s2 14. (a)
7. (b) Sol. Lanthanum is a d-block element which resembles
Sol. 30Zn [Ar]18 3d 10 , so n = 0, Fe 2+ [Ar]18 3d6, so n = 4 ; lanthanides.
15. (d)
Ni2+ [Ar]18 3d 8, so n = 2 ; Cu 2+ [Ar]18 3d9, so n = 1. Sol. Total number of inner transition elements in periodic table
8. (d)
28, 14 each in lanthanoid and actinoid series
Sol. In Ti4+, Cu + and Zn 2+, all have electrons paired so all are 16. (a)
diamagnetic. Cr 3+ with electron configuration [Ar] 18 3d3 has Sol. (n − 1)d
1−10
ns 2
three unpaired electrons. So it undergoes d-d transition of
electrons in presence of ligands according to CFT and thus it is 17. (c)
2+
Sol. Zn → 3d has no unpaired electrons for excitation.
coloured. 10

9. (a) 18. (d)

Sol. (I) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3, x + 6(0) = +3 ; so x = +3 (II) CrO5 Sol. More the unpaired d-electrons, more is the magnetic
moment.
Cu 2+ − 3d 9 No. of unpaired electrons = 1
Ni 2+ − 3d8 No. of unpaired electrons = 2
, 2+
; so x = +6
Co − 3d No. of unpaired electrons = 3
7

(III) K3[CrO8]3– or [Cr(O2 )4]3–, here ligand is peroxo i.e. Fe2+ − 3d 6 No. of unpaired electrons = 4
19. (b)
O22– ; x + 4 (–2) = –3 ; so x = +5. 2+
Sol. Na 2 [CuCl4 ] Cu = +2 or Cu → 3d
9
(IV) (NH3 )3CrO4 or [Cr(O2)2 ], here ligand is peroxo i.e. O22–
; x + 2 (–2) = 0 ; so x = +4. Na 2 [CuCl4 ] Cd = +2 or Cd 2+ → 4d10
10. (c)
3+ 18
K 4 [Fe(CN ) 6 ] Fe = +2 or Fe2+ → 3d 6
Sol. (A) Valence shell electron configuration of V is [Ar]
3d2 ; so n = 2 K 3 [Fe(CN ) 6 ] Fe = +3 or Fe3+ → 3d 5
(B) Valence shell electron configuration of Cr 3+ is [Ar]18 3d3 Since Cd
2+
has completely filled d-subshell hence it is
; so n = 3
colourless.
20. (d)
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 3+ 0
Sol. Sc (3d ), Ti
4+
(3d 0 ) are diamagnetic while Pd2+ Fe 2 O 3 + 3CO → 2 Fe + 3CO 2
2+ 9 34. (c)
( 4d8 ) and Cu (3d ) are paramagnetic. Sol. Flux is added during smelting it combines with infusible
21. (d) gangue present in the ore to form a fusible mass known as
Sol. In CrO2 Cl 2 , O.S. of Cr = +6 slag. Flux + Gangue → Slag
MnO−4 , O.S. of Mn = +7 35. (b)
Sol. Reduction with carbon is called smelting
Cr (CN ) 36− , O.S. of Cr = +3 Fe2O3 + 3C → 2 Fe + 3CO
2− 36. (a)
NiF , O.S. of Ni = +4
6
Sol. SiO 2 + CaO → CaSiO 3
22. (b) Impurity Flux Slag

Sol. Basic strength decreases from La(OH) 3 to Lu(OH) 3 37. (c)

Sol. Impurities of SiO 2 is present in the iron ore so basic flux
hence, (1) is incorrect.
+ CaCO 3 is added. CaO + SiO 2 → CaSiO 3
Ce = [Xe]4f 5d 6s ; Ce
1 1 2
= [Xe] Flux Impurity Slag

2+
Yb = [Xe]4f 6s ; Yb 14 2
= [Xe]4f 14 38. (b)
Sol. CaCO 3 → CaO + CO2 ; CaO + SiO 2 → CaSiO 3
Lu = [Xe ]4f 14 6s 2 ; Yb 2+ = [Xe ]4f 14 Flux Impurity of
haematite
Slag

The given ions contain no unpaired electrons and therefore are 39. (b)
diamagnetic. Sol. FeO + SiO 2 → FeSiO 2
Impurity Flux Slag
23. (a)
1−14
Sol. (n − 2)f (n −1)d 0−1ns 2 40. (a)
24. (b) Sol. (a) Valence shell electron configuration of Mn 2+ is 3d5,
3+ 5
Sol. The electronic configuration of X is [Ar]3d therefore, has the maximum number of unpaired electrons
equal to 5 and, therefore, has maximum magnetic moment.
 Atomic no. of X = 18 + 5 + 3 = 26
25. (c) (b) Valence shell electron configuration of Fe 2+ is 3d 6,
Sol. Actinoid series has elements from atomic no. 90 to 103. therefore, has the maximum number of unpaired electrons
equal to d.
Thulium (Tm) has atomic no. 69
(c) Valence shell electron configuration of Ti 2+ is 3d 2,
therefore, has the maximum number of unpaired electrons
26. (c)
equal to b.
Sol. Amalgams are alloys which contain mercury as one of
(d) Valence shell electron configuration of Cr 2+ is 3d 4,
the contents.
therefore, has the maximum number of unpaired electrons
27. (a) equal to d.
Sol. Cast iron : iron –93–95% 41. (c)
Carbon – 2.5 –5%, impurities about 2%.
Sol. 15 = n ( n + 2) ; n = 3, and three unpaired
28. (a)
Sol. Platinum acts as catalyst in the oxidation of ammonia to electrons are found when Mn is in Mn 4+ i.e., 3d 3 4s0
form nitric oxide. This reaction is used in the Ostwald’s configuration as its metal electron configuration is
method of nitric acid preparation [Ar] 18 3d 5 4s 2 .
42. (c)
4 NH 3 + 5 O 2 ⎯⎯ Pt
→ 4 NO + 6 H 2 O
750  C Sol. (A) = 8.95 (B) = 8.91
2 NO + O2 → 2 NO 2 (C) = 3.0 (D) = 7.14.
Across the period atomic volumes decreases upto copper due
4 NO 2 + O2 + 2 H 2 O → 4 HNO 3 poor shielding of d-orbital electrons and addition of extra
29. (d) electrons in inner orbitals and then increases in zinc due to
+2
Sol. Fe has 4 unpaired electron. interelectronic repulsions in completely filled d- and s-orbitals.
30. (b) Consequently densities increase from Sc to Cu and then
+4 –
Sol. Both Ti and Cl have 18e – decreases in Zn.
31. (a) 43. (a)
Sol. Cu, Ag, Au group of elements are called coinage metals as Sol. Valence shell electron configuration of 30 Zn 2+ is 3d1º
these are used in minting coins. 4sº. As there is no unpaired electrons for d–d transition, the
32. (d) solution of ions will be colourless.
Sol. Fe26–[Ar]3d 64s2 Valence shell electron configuration of 28Ni2+ is 3d 8 4sº. As
2+
Fe (24 electrons) – [Ar] 3d 4s 6 0 there are 2 unpaired electrons, there is d–d transition of
electron, so the solution of ions will be coloured.
33. (b) Valence shell electron configuration of 24Cr3+ is 3d 3 4sº. As
Sol. Smelting is a process of reducing metal oxide to metal by there are 3 unpaired electrons, there is d–d transition of
means of coke or CO . electron, so the solution of ions will be coloured.
Fe2O3 + 3C → 2 Fe + 3CO 44. (b)

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Sol. (A) Cu +[Ar]18 3d 10 , so n = 0 ; Zn 2+ [Ar]18 3d 10 , so n
= 0 ; Sc 3+ [Ar]18 3d0 , so n = 0
(B) Mn 2+ [Ar]18 3d5 , so n = 5 ; Fe 3+ [Ar]18 3d5 , so n = 5 ;
Ni2+ [Ar]18 3d 8 , so n = 2
(C) Cr2+ [Ar]18 3d4 , so n = 4 ; Mn 3+ [Ar]18 3d4 , so n = 4 ;
Sc3+ [Ar]18 3d 0 , so n = 0
(D) Cu 2+ [Ar]18 3d 9 , so n = 1 ; Ni 2+ [Ar]18 3d8 , so n = 2;
Ti4+ [Ar]18 3d0 , so n = 0
45. (c)
Sol. Fe3+ − 3d 5 No. of unpaired electrons = 5
Cr 3+ − 3d 3 No. of unpaired electrons = 3
2+
Ni − 3d 8
No. of unpaired electrons = 2
Cu 2+ − 3d 9 No. of unpaired electrons = 1
46. (b)
4−
Sol. [ Fe(CN ) 6 ] No. of unpaired electrons = 0

[Fe(CN ) 6 ]3− No. of unpaired electrons = 1

[ Ni (H 2 O) 4 ]2+ No. of unpaired electrons = 2
[Cr ( NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ No. of unpaired electrons = 3
47. (b)
3+
Sol. Fe (z = 26 ) → 3d
5

Mn 2+ (z = 25) → 3d 5
48. (c)
Sol. Non- Stoicheiometric and are neither typically ionic nor
covalent
49. (d)
Sol. (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (v), (E)
→ (i)
50. (b)
Sol. (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Coordination Compounds Level-1

1. In K 4 Fe(CN )6 . (a) + 1 (b) + 2 (c) + 3 (d) + 4

(a) (CN) are linked with primary valency 15. Which one of the following octahedral complexes will not
(b) (CN) are linked with secondary valency show geometric isomerism (A and B are monodentate ligands).
(a) [MA5 B] (b) [MA 2 B4 ]
(c) K are linked with secondary valency
(d) K are linked with non-ionic valency (c) [MA3 B3 ] (d) [MA4 B2 ]
2. The co-ordination number of copper in cuprammonium 16. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex ion [CoF6 ]3 −
sulphate is. is (Atomic no. of Co = 27 ) .
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) – 4
(a) Zero (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
3. Which of the following acts as a bidentate ligand in complex
formation. 17. Co (NH 3 )5 NO 2 Cl 2 and Co (NH 3 )5 (ONO )Cl 2 are related to
(a) Acetate (b) Oxalate each other as.
(c) Thiocyanate (d) EDTA (a) Geometrical isomers (b) Optical isomers
4. The co-ordination number of cobalt in the complex (c) Linkage isomers (d) Coordination isomers
[Co (en)2 Br2 ]Cl2 is. 18. Co (NH 3 )5 Br  SO 4 and Co (NH 3 )5 SO 4 Br are examples of
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4 which type of isomerism.
5. Which of the following is not true for ligand-metal complex. (a) Linkage (b) Geometrical
(a) Larger the ligand, the more stable is the metal-ligand bond (c) Ionization (d) Optical
(b) Highly charged ligand forms strong bond 19. Co (NH 3 )4 Cl 2 NO 2 and Co (NH 3 )4 Cl. NO 2 Cl are ........
(c) Larger the permanent dipole moment of ligand, the more isomers.
stable is the bond (a) Geometrical (b) Optical
(d) Greater the ionization potential of central metal, the (c) Linkage (d) Ionization
stronger is the bond 20. Coordination isomerism is caused by the interchange of ligands
between the.
6. What is the co-ordination number of the metal in
(a) Cis and Trans structure
Co (en)2 Cl 2 + .
(b) Complex cation and complex anion
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3
(c) Inner sphere and outer sphere
7. Which is the example of hexadentate ligand.
(d) Low oxidation and higher oxidation states
(a) 2, 2—dipyridyl
(b) Dimethyl glyoxime 21. In the complex [SbF5 ]2 − , sp 3 d hydridisation is present.
(c) Aminodiacetate ion Geometry of the complex is.
(a) Square pyramidal (b) Square bipyramidal
(d) Ethylene diammine tetra acetate ion [EDTA]
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Square
8. The coordination number of a metal in coordination
compounds is. 22. The type of hybridization involved in the metal ion of
(a) Same as primary valency [ Ni(H 2 O)6 ]2 + complex is.
(b) Sum of primary and secondary valencies (a) d 3 sp 2 (b) sp 3 d 2 (c) sp 3 (d) dsp 2
(c) Same as secondary valency 23. An octahedral complex is formed, when hybrid orbitals of the
(d) None of these following type are involved.
9. Which of the following complexes show six coordination (a) sp 3 (b) dsp 2 (c) sp 3 d 2 (d) sp 2 d
number. 24. Ziegler-Natta catalyst is an organometallic compound of which
(a) [Zn(CN )4 ]2− (b) [Cr(H 2 O)6 ]3 + metal.
(c) [Cu(CN )4 ] 2−
(d) [ Ni(NH 3 )4 ]2+ (a) Iron (b) Zirconium
(c) Rhodium (d) Titanium
10. How many ions are produced in aqueous solution of
25. The IUPAC name of K3 Fe(CN)6 is :
[Co (H 2 O)6 ]Cl 2 .
(a) Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
(b) Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
11. In K 4 Fe(CN )6 , the E.A.N. of Fe is. (c) Potassium hexacyanoiron(II)
(a) 33 (b) 35 (c) 36 (d) 26 (d) Tripotassiumhexacyanoiron(II)
12. The oxidation number of Cr in [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 3 is .
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3
13. In Ni(NH 3 )4 SO 4 , the E.A.N. of Ni is.
(a) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37
14. The oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C2 H 4 )Cl 3 ]− is.
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Coordination Compounds Key

1. (b) Sol. Octahedral complexes of the type

Sol. (CN) are linked with secondary valency. [MA4 B2 ], [MA2 B4 ], [MA3 B3 ] exhibit geometrical
2. (c)
isomerism.
Sol. In Cuprammonium sulphate [Cu(NH 3 )4 ]SO 4
16. (d)
co-ordination no. of Cu is 4. Sol. The number of unpaired electrons in the Complex ion
3. (b) [CoF6 ]3 − is 4.
Sol. As it makes use of its two atoms to form two co-ordinate
17. (c)
covalent bonds with the central metal ion.
Sol.
4. (b)
Sol. [Co (en) 2 Br2 ] Cl 2
C. N . of Co = 2 × number of bidentate ligand
+1×number of monodentate ligand =2× 2 + 1× 2 = 6.
5. (b)
Sol. The charge does not decide the formation of bond but
Here more than one atom function as donor, as oxygen in first
availability of lone pair decide the formation of Co-ordinate
one and nitrogen in second, so they show linkage isomerism.
bond.
18. (c)
6. (c)
Sol. The two given compounds have same composition but in
Sol. In [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]+
solution both will give different ions. The isomerism is
No. of monodentate ligand = 2 known as ionisation isomerism.
No. of bidentate ligand = 2 19. (d)
Co-ordination no. of the metal = 2 + 2(2)= 6. Sol. Both produce different ions in solution state-
7. (d) [Co( NH3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]NO2 ⇌ [Co( NH3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]+ NO−2
Sol.
[Co( NH3 ) 4 Cl. NO2 ]Cl ⇌ [Co( NH3 ) 4 Cl. NO2 ]+ + Cl −
20. (a)
Sol. Co-ordination isomerism is caused by the interchange of
ligands between cis and trans structure.
8. (c)
21. (a)
Sol. According to modern view primary valency of complex
Sol. Complex with sp 3 d − hybridisation show square
compound is its oxidation number while secondary valency is
the co-ordination number. pyramidal geometry.
9. (b) 22. (b)
Sol. Co-ordination number is equal to total number of ligands Sol. sp3d 2
in a complex.
10. (b)
Sol. [Co (H 2O)6 ] Cl 2 ⇌ [Co (H2O)6 ]+ + 2Cl − .
11. (c)
Sol. EAN =Atomic number – Oxidation state + 2 × number of
23. (c)
Ligands = 26 – 2 + 2 (6) = 36. Sol. sp 3 d 2 − hybridisation gives octahedral complex.
12. (d)
Sol. x + 6  (0) + 3  (−1) = 0 24. (d)
Sol. (CH 3CH 2 )3 Al + TiCl4 is the Ziegler-Natta catalyst.
x − 3 = 0 , x = +3, Oxidation number of Cr is = +3.
25. (b)
13. (a) Sol. 3K+ + [Fe(III)(CN)6 ]3– now follow IUPAC
Sol. EAN = (atomic no)- (oxidation state) +
nomenclature.
(2 × number of Ligands) = 28 - 2 + 2 × 4 = 34
14. (b)
Sol. [Pt (C 2 H 4 ) Cl 3 ]−
x 0 −1

x + 0 + 3x(−1) = −1 , x − 3 = −1, x = +2.

15. (a)
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Coordination Compounds Level-2

1. Ethylene diamine is an example of a .......... ligand : (d) [PtCl(ONO) NH3 (SO 4 )]

(a) Monodentate (b) Bidentate
(c) Tridentate (d) Hexadentate 16. The formula of the complex diamminechloro (ethylendiamine)
nitroplatinum (IV) chloride is
2. The donor sites of (EDTA) 4– are?
(a) O atoms only (a) [Pt( NH 3 ) 2 Cl(en) NO 2 ]Cl 2
(b) N atoms only
(b) Pt[Pt( NH 3 ) 2 (en)Cl 2 NO 2 ]
(c) Two N atoms and four O atoms
(d) Three N atoms and three O atoms (c) Pt[( NH3 ) 2 (en) NO2 ]Cl 2
3. Ligands are :
(a) Lewis acids (b) Lewis bases (c) Neutral (d) None (d) Pt[( NH3 ) 2 (en) NO2 Cl 2 ]
4. What is not true about ligand?
(a) It can act as Lewis base 17. For the square planar complex [M abcd ] where M is the central
(b) A monodentate ligand cannot cause chelation atom and a,b,c,d aare monodentante ligands, the number of
(c) A multidentate ligand cannot cause chelation possible geometrical isomers are
(d) It can have no. of donor sites  1 (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four.
5. Which is a pair of ambidentate ligands among the following? 18. Which of the following is correct?
(a) CN–, NO2– (b) NO3–, NO2– (a) Valence bond theory explain the colour of the coordination
–
(c) CNS , C2O4 –2 (d) C2O4–2, SO4–2
compounds.
6. EAN of a metal carbonyl M(CO) x is 36. If atomic number of
2−
metal M is 26, what is the value of x? (b) [ NiCl 4 ] is diamagnetic in nature.
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 6 (c) Ambident ligands can show linkage isomerism.
7. The EAN of platinum in potassium hexachloridoplatinate (IV) (d) A bidentate ligand can have four coordinations sites.
is (Atomic number of Pt = 78) :
(a) 90 (b) 86 (c) 76 (d) 88
8. The number of ions give by [Pt( NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 4 in aqueous 19. The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+ is :
(a) 0 (b) +1 (c) +2 (d) +3
solutions will be
20. Which one of the following complexes would exhibit the
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Five (d) Eleven.
lowest value of paramagnetic behaviour?
9. Which of the following ligands forms a chelate?
(a) Acetate (b) Oxalate (c) Cyanide (d) Ammonia (a) [Co(CN) 6 ]3– (b) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3–
10. Which of the following is not a neutral ligand? (c) [Mn(CN) 6 ]3– (d) [Cr(CN) 6 ]3–
(a) H 2 O (b) NH 3 (c) ONO (d) CO 21. How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules
11. Which of the following ligands will not show chelation? are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca 2+ion?
− (a) Six (b) Three (c) One (d) Two
(a) EDTA (b) DMG (c) Ethene – 1, 2 (d) SCN 22. The 'spin only' magnetic moment (in units of Bohr magneton,
12. Which of the following complexes will show maximum mB) of Ni2+ in aqueous solution would be (atomic number Ni
paramagnetism?
4 5 6 7 = 28)
(a) 3d (b) 3d (c) 3d (d) 3d (a) 2.84 (b) 4.80 (c) 0 (d) 1.73
13. Among the following which are ambidentate ligands? 23. The coordination number and the oxidation state of the element
− − − 2− 'E' in the complex [E(en) 2(C2O4)] NO2 (when 'en' is ethylene
(i) SCN (ii) NO 3 (iii) NO 2 (iv) C 2 O 4
diamine) are, respectively,
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (a) 4 and 2 (b) 4 and 3 (c) 6 and 3 (d) 6 and 2
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) 24. Which among the following will be named as dibromidobis
14. The coordination number and the oxidations state of the (ethylene diamine) chromium (III) bromide?
element E in the complex. (a) [Cr (en) 3]Br3 (b) [Cr(en) 2Br2]Br
[E(en) 2 (C2 O4 )]NO2 (where (en) is ethylene diamine are, (c) [Cr(en)Br4 ]– (d) [Cr(en)Br2 ]Br
repectively) 25. Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionic
(a) 6 and 3 (b) 6 and 2 (c) 4 and 2 (d) 4 and 3 conductivity?
15. Correct formula of tetraamminechloronitrplatinum (IV) (a) K4 [Fe(CN6] (b) [Co(NH3 )6] Cl3
sulphate can be written as (c) [Cu(NH3)4] Cl2 (d) [Ni (CO) 4]
(a) [Pt( NH3 ) 4 (ONO)Cl]SO 4 26. Which of the following complexes produces three moles of
silver chloride when its one mole is treated with excess of silver
(b) [Pt( NH3 ) 4 Cl 2 NO 2 ]2 SO 4 nitrate?
(a) [Cr(H2O)3 Cl3] (b) [Cr(H2O)4 Cl2 ]Cl
(c) [ Pt ( NH 3 ) 4 ( NO 2 )Cl ]SO 4
(c) [Cr(H2O)5 Cl]Cl2 (d) [Cr(H2O)6 ]Cl3

MSA-CHEMISTRY
27. On adding AgNO3 solution to a solution of [Pt(NH3 )3Cl3]Cl, 44. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex ion [CoF6 ]3 −
the percentage of total chloride ion precipitated is: is (Atomic no. of Co = 27 ) .
(a) 100 (b) 75 (c) 50 (d) 25 (a) Zero (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
45. Co (NH 3 )5 NO 2 Cl 2 and Co (NH 3 )5 (ONO )Cl 2 are related to
28. The complexes [Pt(NH3)4] [PtCl6] and [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] [PtCl4]
are :
each other as.
(a) Linkage isomers (b) Optical isomers
(a) Geometrical isomers (b) Optical isomers
(c) Co-ordination isomers (d) Ionisation isomers
29. [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2 are related to (c) Linkage isomers (d) Coordination isomers
each other as : 46. Co (NH 3 )5 Br  SO 4 and Co (NH 3 )5 SO 4 Br are examples of
(a) Geometrical isomers (b) Linkage isomers which type of isomerism.
(c) Coordination isomers (d) Ionisation isomers (a) Linkage (b) Geometrical
30. In the coordination compound K4[Ni(CN)4 ], the oxidation (c) Ionization (d) Optical
state of nickel is : 47. Co (NH 3 )4 Cl 2 NO 2 and Co (NH 3 )4 Cl. NO 2 Cl are ........
(a) – 1 (b) 0 (c) + 1 (d) + 2 isomers.
31. A complex of platinum, ammonia and chloride produces four (a) Geometrical (b) Optical
ions per molecule in the solution. The structure consistent with
(c) Linkage (d) Ionization
the observation is:
(a) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4 (b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] 48. Among the following ions which one has the highest
paramagnetism.
(c) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 (d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2
(a) Cr(H 2 O)6 3 + (b) Fe(H 2 O)6 2+
32. The complex [Pt(NH3)4]2+ has ..... structure :
(c) Cu (H 2 O )6 2+ (d) Zn(H 2 O )6 2+
(a) Square planar (b) Tetrahedral
(c) Pyramidal (d) Pentagonal 49. In the complex [SbF5 ]2 − , sp 3 d hydridisation is present.
33. Low spin complex is formed by : Geometry of the complex is.
(a) sp 3d2 hybridization (b) sp 3d hybridization (a) Square pyramidal (b) Square bipyramidal
2 3
(c) d sp hybridization (d) sp 3 hybridization (c) Tetrahedral (d) Square
34. Which of the following is a high spin complex? 50. The shape of Fe(CN )6 4 − ion is.
(a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Fe(CN) 6]4– (a) Hexagonal (b) Pyrimidal
(c) [Ni(CN) 4]2– (d) [FeF6 ]3– (c) Octahedral (d) Octagonal
35. Which has maximum paramagnetic nature?
(a) [Cu(H2O)4]2+ (b) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(c) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Fe(CN) 6]4–
36. The number of unpaired electrons present in complex ion
[FeF6]3- is :
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 0
37. Which one of the following will be able to show cis-trans
isomerism?
(a) Ma 3b (b) M(AA)2 (c) M(AB)(CD) (d) Ma 4
38. Which of the following has the highest molar conductivity in
solution –
(a) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 (b) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3
(c) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 (d) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl

39. In which of the following complexes oxidation state of metal

is zero.
(a) Pt(NH 3 )2 Cl 2  (b) Cr (CO )6 
(c) Cr (NH 3 )3 Cl 3  (d) Cr (en )2 Cl 2 
40. The oxidation number of Cr in [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 3 is .
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3
41. In Ni(NH 3 )4 SO 4 , the E.A.N. of Ni is.
(a) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37
−
42. The oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C2 H 4 )Cl 3 ] is.
(a) + 1 (b) + 2 (c) + 3 (d) + 4
43. Which one of the following octahedral complexes will not
show geometric isomerism (A and B are monodentate ligands).
(a) [MA5 B] (b) [MA 2 B4 ]
(c) [MA3 B3 ] (d) [MA4 B2 ]

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Coordination Compounds Key

1. (b) + −
Sol. In the given complex [E(en) 2 (C2 O4 )] NO2 ethylene
••
Sol. N H 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − NH 2 . It contains two donor 2−
diamine is a bidentate ligand and (C 2 O 4 ) oxalate ion is also
atoms i.e. nitrogen. So it is a bidentate ligand
bidentate ligand. Therefore co-ordinations number of the
2. (c)
Sol. It attaches to the central metal ion through four carboxylate complex is 6 i.e., it is an octahedral complex. Oxidations
group oxygen atoms and the two amine nitrogens. number of E in the given complex is
O O 4– x + 2 × 0+ 1 × (-2) = +1
x = 3
: :

: :
:O C CH2 CH2 C O:
15. (c)
:N CH2 CH2 N: O : : Sol. Tetraammineisothiocyanatochromium (IV) sulphate can
: :

:O C CH2 CH2 C O: be written as

O O [Pt( NH3 ) 4 ( NO2 )Cl]SO 4

4–
EDTA , Ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion 16. (a)
3. (b) Sol. [Pt( NH3 ) 2 Cl(en) NO2 ]Cl 2
Sol. Ligands are Lewis bases as they donate lone pair of
electrons to the metal ion to form coordinate covalent bonds. Diamminechloro (ethylenediamine)nitroplatinum (IV)
4. (c) Chloride
Sol. Multidentate ligand can cause chelation. 17. (c)
5. (a) Sol. Square planar complexes of type [Mabcd] occur in three
Sol. CN– and NO2– are ambidentate ligands. isomeric forms.
6. (c)
Sol. x is number of lone pairs of electrons donated to central
metal ion.
10 18. (c)
So, 26 + 2x = 36 orx = =5
2 Sol. Ambident ligands show linkage isomerism e.g.,
7. (b) − NO2 , ONO.
Sol. K 2 [PtCl 6 ] ; Platinum is in + 4 oxidation state.
Atomic number of Pt = 78..
So EAN Pt(IV) = 78 – 4 + 12 = 86 19. (d)
8. (c) Sol. [Cr(NH3 )4Cl2 ]+ ; let the oxidation state of Cr is x, then x
4+ −
Sol. [Pt( NH 3 ) 6 Cl 4 ] [ Pt ( NH 3 ) 6 ] + 4Cl + 4 (–0) + 2 (–1) = +1
So, x = 3
Total number of ions given in aqueous solutions = 5 20. (a)
9. (b) Sol. [Co(CN)6]3– ;
Sol. Oxalate is a bidentate ligand hence forms a chelate.

10. (c)
−
Sol. ONO is an anionic ligand (ONO ). n=0
11. (d) CN– is strong field ligand ; so it compels for pairing of
− electrons.
Sol. SCN is a monodenate ligand hence cannot show
21. (c)
chelation. Sol. EDTA has four carboxylate oxygens and two ammine
12. (b) nitrogens as donor atoms. So it is a hexadentate ligand.
5 22. (a)
Sol. 3d has maximum number of unpaired electrons.
13. (a) Sol. 3d8
Sol. SCN − and NO−2 are ambidentate ligand since they have
more than one donor atoms to attach to the central metal atom.
14. (a)
H2O is weak field ligand ; so it does not compel for pairing of
electrons. So,
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 m = n ( n + 2) = 2( 2 + 2) = 2.84 B.M
23. (c)
Sol. Let oxidation state of E is x so x + (–2) + 0 = +1 or x = +3 dsp 2 hybrid orbitals
Coordination number is number of s-bonds between metal ion 33. (c)
and ligands. 'en' and 'ox' are bidentate ligands Thus ; Sol. Low spin complex utilizes (n – 1) d-orbital for
coordination number of E = 4 + 2 = 6. hybridisation and thus low spin complex is formed with d2sp3
24. (b)
hybridisation.
Sol. [Cr(en)2Br2]Br 34. (d)
dibromidobis(ethylenediamine)chromium(III) Bromide. Sol. The complex [fef 6]4– is paramagnetic and uses outer
25. (a)
Sol. Conductivity  number of ions in the solution. orbital (4d) in hybridisation (sp 3d2) ; it is thus called as outer
orbital or high spin or spin free complex. so :
K4[Fe(CN)6] 4K+ (aq) + [Fe(CN) 6]4– (aq)
Fe2+, [Ar]3d6
4 : 1 electrolyte.
It contains maximum number of ions i.e. 5.

(B) [Co(NH3)6] Cl3 [Co(NH3)6]3+ (aq) + 3Cl– (aq) [FEF6]4–

1 : 3 electrolyte.
[Cu(NH3)4] Cl2 [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (aq) + 2Cl– (aq)
1 : 2 electrolyte. SP3d2 hybrid orbitals
Six pairs of electrons from six f – IONS.
[Ni (CO)4 ] [Ni (CO)4] (aq) (neutral).
35. (c)
26. (d)
Sol. (C) Mn 2+, 3d 5 configuration has 5 unpaired electrons.
Sol. (d) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (aq) + 3Cl– (aq).
In (d) Fe2+ (3d 6) has no unpaired electrons because of strong
Cl– present in ionisation sphere will give precipitate with field ligand (CN–), all electrons are paired.
AgNO3 .
In (A) and (B) Cu 2+(3d9 ) has one unpaired electron.
3Cl– + 3Ag+ ⎯⎯→ 3AgCl 36. (a)
So, one mole of complex will give three moles of AgCl Sol. Fe3+, 3d 5 configuration has 5 unpaired electrons because
precipitate. F– is a weak field ligand.
27. (d) 37. (c)
Sol. [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl + –
[Pt(NH3)3 Cl3] (aq) + Cl (aq) Sol. Ma3 b, Ma 4 and M(AA)2 (symmetrical bidentate ligand)
have only one form; they does not show geometrical
Out of four Cl – only one Cl – (i.e. 25%) present in ionization isomerism. But M(AB)(CD) shows two geometrical
sphere will give preciptate. isomerism.
+
Ag + Cl – ⎯⎯→ AgCl ¯ (white).
28. (c)
Sol. (C) Coordination compounds made up of cationic and
anionic coordination entities show coordination isomerism due
to the interchange of ligands between the cation and anion
entities. 38. (a)
29. (b) Sol. It has maximum no. of ions
Sol. NO2– is an ambidentate ligand and thus it can linkage to 39. (b)
metal ion through O as well as through N. Hence show linkage Sol. The oxidation state of metal in metal carbonyl is zero.
isomerism. 40. (d)
30. (b) Sol. x + 6  (0) + 3  (−1) = 0
Sol. 4K+[Ni(CN)4]4– ; let the oxidation state of nickel is x,
x − 3 = 0 , x = +3, Oxidation number of Cr is = +3.
then x + 4 (–1) = –4
So, x = 0 41. (a)
31. (c) Sol. EAN = (atomic no)- (oxidation state) +
(2 × number of Ligands) = 28 - 2 + 2 × 4 = 34
Sol. [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 [Pt(NH3)5Cl]3+ + 3Cl–
42. (b)
Section (d) : Bonding in coordination compounds (Crystal field
Sol. [Pt (C 2 H 4 ) Cl 3 ]−
theory) x 0 −1
32. (a)
x + 0 + 3x(−1) = −1 , x − 3 = −1, x = +2.
Sol. 5d8 configuration have higher CFSE and the complex is
thus square planar and diamagnetic. 43. (a)
Pt2+, [Xe]4f14 5d 8 Sol. Octahedral complexes of the type
[MA4 B2 ], [MA2 B4 ], [MA3 B3 ] exhibit geometrical
isomerism.
44. (d)
[Pt(NH3)4 ]2–

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Sol. The number of unpaired electrons in the Complex ion
[CoF6 ]3 − is 4.
45. (c)
Sol.

Here more than one atom function as donor, as oxygen in first

one and nitrogen in second, so they show linkage isomerism.
46. (c)
Sol. The two given compounds have same composition but in
solution both will give different ions. The isomerism is
known as ionisation isomerism.
47. (d)
Sol. Both produce different ions in solution state-
[Co( NH3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]NO2 ⇌ [Co( NH3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]+ NO−2
[Co( NH3 ) 4 Cl. NO2 ]Cl ⇌ [Co( NH3 ) 4 Cl. NO2 ]+ + Cl −
48. (b)
Sol. [Fe(H 2O)6 ]2 + has four unpaired electrons, [Cr(H 2O)6 ]3 + ,
[Cu(H 2O)6 ]2 + and [Zn(H 2O)6 ]2 + have 3, 1, 0 unpaired electrons
respectively.
49. (a)
Sol. Complex with sp 3 d − hybridisation show square
pyramidal geometry.
50. (c)
Sol.

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Halogen Derivatives
No. MCQ 25

1. Which of the following halide is 2 o . (a) C 6 H 4 (CH 3 )Br (b) C 6 H 5 CH 2 Cl

(a) Isopropyl chloride (b) Isobutyl chloride (c) C 6 H 5 Cl (d) None of these
(c) n-propyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride
14. Reaction of aqueous sodium hydroxide on (i) ethyl bromide
2. Haloforms are trihalogen derivatives of. and (ii) chlorobenzene gives.
(a) Ethane (b) Methane (a) (i) Ethene and (ii) o-chlorophenol
(c) Propane (d) Benzene (b) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) o-chlorophenol
3. Which of the following would be produced when acetylene (c) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) phenol
reacts with HCl.
(a) CH 3 CH 2 Cl (b) CH 3 CHCl 2 (d) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) no reaction
15. 2, 6 - Dimethylheptane on monochlorination
(c) CHCl = CHCl (d) CH 2 = CHCl produces……. Derivatives.
4. When ethyl alcohol and KI reacted in presence of Na 2 CO 3 , (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 4
yellow crystals of...... are formed. 16. Chloroform is slowly oxidise by air in presence of light to form.
(a) CHI 3 (b) CH 3 I (c) CH 2 I 2 (d) C 2 H 5 I (a) Formyl chloride (b) Phosgene
5. Chloroform can be obtained from. (c) Trichloroacetic acid (d) Formic acid
(a) Methanol (b) Methanal 17. C6 H 6 Cl6 , on treatment with alcoholic KOH , yields.
(c) Propanol-1 (d) Propanol-2 (a) C 6 H 6 (b) C 6 H 3 Cl 3
6. The compound formed on heating chlorobenzene with chloral (c) (C6 H 6 ) OH (d) C 6 H 6 Cl 4
in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid, is.
(a) Freon (b) DDT 18. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with t−butanol, the
product would be.
(c) Gammexene (d) Hexachloroethane
(a) Benzene (b) Phenol
7. Which of the following compounds gives
trichloromethane on distilling with bleaching powder. (c) t−butyl benzene (d) t−butyl phenyl ether
(a) Methanal (b) Phenol 19. Alkyl halide react with an alchoholic solution of ammonia to
give a mixture of
(c) Ethanol (d) Methanol (a) 1 0and 2 0 amine
8. DDT is prepared by reacting chlorobenzene with. (b) 1 0, 2 0,3 0 amine & quaternary ammonia salt
(a) CCl 4 (b) CCl 3 − CHO (c) 1 0,2 0 & 30 amines
(c) CHCl 3 (d) Ethane (d) 1 0& 3 0 amine
20.
9. Reaction of ethyl chloride with sodium leads to.
(a) Ethane (b) Propane
(c) n-butane (d) n-pentane
10. Alkyl halides can be converted into Grignard reagents by.
(a) Boiling them with Mg ribbon in alcoholic solution NaCN
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(b) Warming them with magnesium powder in dry ether In the given reaction rate is fastest, when (X) is :
(c) Refluxing them with MgCl 2 solution O
(d) Warming them with MgCl 2 O ||
|| − O − S − CH3
− S − O CH3
11. Salicylic acid can be prepared using Reimer-Tiemann's || ||
reaction by treating phenol with. (a) –OH (b) –NH2 (c) O
(d) O
(a) Methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous 21. Which one of the following will be most reactive for SN1
aluminium chloride
reaction?
(b) Carbon dioxide under pressure in sodium hydroxide solution
(c) Carbon tetrachloride and concentrated sodium
hydroxide
(a) (b)
(d) Sodium nitrite and a few drops of concentrated sulphuric
acid
12. When chloroform is exposed to air and sunlight, it gives.
(a) Carbon tetrachloride (b) Carbonyl chloride
(c) Mustard gas (d) Lewsite (c) (d)
13. An organic halide is shaken with aqueous NaOH followed by 22. A primary alkyl halide would prefer to undergo___
the addition of dil. HNO 3 and silver nitrate solution gave white (a) SN1 reaction (b) SN 2 reaction
ppt. The substance can be.
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (c)  − e lim ination (d) Racemisation
23. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by
SN 2 mechanism because.
(a) The carbocation formed is unstable
(b) There is steric hindrance
(c) There is inductive effect
(d) The rate of reaction is faster in SN 2 mechanism
24. Consider the following reaction:
CH3 CH3
| |
C 6 H 5 − C − Br + H 2 O → HO − C − C 6 H 5 + HBr
| |
H H

The reaction proceeds with 98% racemisation. The reaction

may follow.
(a) SN1 mechanism (b) SN 2 mechanism
(c) E1 mechanism (d) E2 mechanism
25. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III)
chloride giving ortho and para halo compounds. The reaction
is
(a) Electrophilic elimination reaction
(b) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(c) Free radical addition reaction
(d) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Halogen Derivatives Solutions

1. (a)

2o
Sol. Isopropyl chloride CH 3 − CH − CH 3 chlorine atom is
|
Cl
attached to 2 o carbon atom. 9. (c)
2. (b) Sol. C 2 H 5 Cl + 2 Na + ClC2 H 5 ⎯⎯⎯→ C 2 H 5 − C 2 H 5 + 2 NaCl
Dry
Ether
−3 H
Sol. CH 4 ⎯⎯ ⎯→ CHX 3 (X = Cl, Br, I) 10. (b)
+3 X

3. (b) Sol. RX + Mg ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ R − Mg − X

Dry ether

+ HCl
Sol. CH  CH + HCl → CH 2 = CHCl ⎯⎯ ⎯→ CH 3 CHCl 2 11. (c)
Sol.
4. (a)
Sol. C 2 H 5 OH ⎯⎯
KI
→ CHI 3
Na 2 CO 3

5. (d)
Sol. CaOCl 2 + H 2O → Ca(OH )2 + Cl2
CH 3 − CH − CH 3 + Cl 2 → CH 3 − C − CH 3 + 2 HCl
| ||

OH O
2-propanol

CH 3 − C − CH 3 + 3 Cl2 → CCl 3 − CO − CH 3 + 3 HCl

||
O

12. (b)
1
Sol. CHCl 3 + O 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
Sunlight
COCl 2 + HCl
6. (b) 2 Phosgene or carbonyl chloride

Sol. DDT is prepared by heating chlorobenzene and chloral 13. (b)

with concentrated sulphuric acid. Sol. C 6 H 5 − CH 2 − Cl ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ C 6 H 5 − CH 2 − OH
NaOH
(aq)

dil HNO 3
⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯
⎯→ C 6 H 5 − CHO
White ppt of AgCl are obtained.
14. (c)
Sol. (i) Ethyl alcohol (ii) Phenol
C 2 H 5 Br + NaOH → C 2 H 5 OH + NaBr
(aq) Ethyl alcohol

7. (c)
Sol. CaOCl 2 + H 2 O → Ca(OH ) 2 + Cl 2
Bleaching powder

Cl2 + H 2O → 2 HCl + O
C 2 H 5 OH + O → CH 3 CHO + H 2 O
ethanol Acetaldehy de

CH 3 CHO + 3 Cl 2 → CCl 3 CHO + 3 HCl

chloral

2CCl 3 CHO + Ca(OH )2 → 2CHCl 3 + (HCOO )2 Ca

chloroform or
trichlorom ethane

8. (b)
Sol. 15. (d)

MSA CHEMISTRY
 Sol. Because CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH − CH 3
| |
CH 3 CH 3
has four methyl groups on the corner so it can produce for
derivatives.
16. (b)
Sol. CHCl 3 + O 2 → COCl 2 + HCl
Phosgene

17. (b)
Sol. C6 H6 Cl6 + 3 KOH → C6 H3Cl3 + 3 KCl + 3 H 2O
Thus Benzene hexahalides decomposes when heated with alc.
KOH and yield trichloro benzene.
18. (a)
Sol. (CH3)3COH + PhMgBr ⎯ ⎯→ PhH
+ (CH3)3COMgBr
19. (b)
Sol. Alcholic solution of ammonia is heated in a scaled tube
at 100 0C

NH Rl Rl
Rl ⎯ ⎯⎯
3
→ RNH2 ⎯⎯→(R)2 NH ⎯⎯→(R)3N ⎯⎯→(R)4 N l
10 amine 2 0 amine 3 0 amine 4 0 salt
20. (d)
Sol. Leaving group ability  Stability of anion.
21. (d)
Sol. According to carboction stability
22. (b)
Sol. Primary alkyl halides prefer to undergo SN 2 reaction.
23. (b)
Sol. In tertiary alkyl halides steric hindrance does not allow
substitution by SN 2 mechanism in which the nucleophile
attacks on the carbon atom and the reaction takes place in
single step.
24. (a)
Sol. SN1 reaction proceeds with racemisation.
25. (b)
Sol. The reaction is electrophilic substitution reaction

MSA CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Halogen Derivatives
Date : 25/02/2023 Time :60Min No. MCQ 50

1. Which of the following halide is 2 o . (c) Ethyl iodide (d) Ethyl alcohol
(a) Isopropyl chloride (b) Isobutyl chloride 13. Propene on treatment with HBr gives.
(c) n-propyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride (a) Isopropyl bromide (b) Propyl bromide
2. Haloforms are trihalogen derivatives of. (c) 1, 2-dibromoethane (d) None of the above
(a) Ethane (b) Methane 14. Best method of preparing alkyl chloride is.
(c) Propane (d) Benzene (a) ROH + SOCl 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (b) ROH + PCl5 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→
3. Full name of DDT is.
(c) ROH + PCl3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
⎯→ (d) ROH + HCl ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯→
anhy. ZnCl 2
(a) 1, 1, 1-trichloro-2, 2-bis(p-chlorophenyl) ethane
(b) 1, 1-dichloro-2, 2-diphenyl trimethylethane 15. Ethyl bromide can be converted into ethyl alcohol by.
(a) Heating with dilute hydrochloric acid and zinc
(c) 1, 1-dichloro-2, 2-diphenyl trichloroethane
(b) Boiling with an alcoholic solution of KOH
(d) None of these
(c) The action of moist silver oxide
4. The compound which contains all the four 1 o ,2 o ,3 o and 4 o
(d) Refluxing methanol
carbon atoms is.
16. Reaction of ethyl chloride with sodium leads to.
(a) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
(a) Ethane (b) Propane
(b) 3-chloro-2, 3-dimethylpentane
(c) n-butane (d) n-pentane
(c) 2, 3, 4-trimethylpentane
17. A mixture of two organic chlorine compounds was treated with
(d) 3, 3-dimethylpentane sodium metal in ether solution. Isobutane was obtained as a
5. What is the main product of the reaction between 2-methyl product. The two chlorine compounds are.
propene with HBr. (a) Methyl chloride and propyl chloride
(a) 1-bromo butane (b) 1-bromo-2 methyl propane (b) Methyl chloride and ethyl chloride
(c) 2-bromo butane (d) 2-bromo-2 methyl propane (c) Isopropyl chloride and methyl chloride
6. When ethyl alcohol (C 2 H 5 OH ) reacts with thionyl chloride, in (d) Isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride
the presence of pyridine, the product obtained is. 18. Alkyl halides can be converted into Grignard reagents by.
(a) CH 3 CH 2 Cl + HCl (b) C 2 H 5 Cl + HCl + SO 2 (a) Boiling them with Mg ribbon in alcoholic solution
(c) CH 3 CH 2 Cl + H 2 O + SO 2 (d) CH 3 CH 2 Cl + HCl + SO 2 (b) Warming them with magnesium powder in dry ether
7. C3 H8 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯→ C3 H7 Cl + HCl is an example of which of
Light (c) Refluxing them with MgCl 2 solution
the following types of reactions. (d) Warming them with MgCl 2
(a) Substitution (b) Elimination 19. Chlorobenzene is.
(c) Addition (d) Rearrangement (a) Less reactive than benzyl chloride
8. R − OH + HX → R − X + H 2 O (b) More reactive than ethyl bromide
In the above reaction, the reactivity of different alcohols is. (c) Nearly as reactive as methyl chloride
(a) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary (d) More reactive than isopropyl chloride
(b) Tertiary < Secondary < Primary 20. Grignard reagent is prepared by the reaction between.
(c) Tertiary < Secondary > Primary (a) Zinc and alkyl halide
(d) Secondary < Primary < Tertiary (b) Magnesium and alkyl halide
9. Ethanol is converted into ethyl chloride by reacting with. (c) Magnesium and alkane
(a) Cl 2 (b) SOCl 2 (c) HCl (d) NaCl (d) Magnesium and aromatic hydrocarbon
10. C 6 H 5 Cl prepared by aniline with. 21. Reaction of t-butyl bromide with sodium methoxide produces.
(a) HCl (a) Isobutane (b) Isobutylene
(b) Cu Cl (c) Sodium t-butoxide (d) t-butyl methyl ether
2 2

(c) Cl 2 in presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 22. C 6 H 5 CH 2 Cl + KCN (aq.) → X + Y

(d) HNO 2 and then heated with Cu 2 Cl 2 Compounds X and Y are.
(a) C 6 H 6 + KCl (b) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CN + KCl
11. The starting substance for the preparation of CH 3 I is. (c) C 6 H 5 CH 3 + KCl (d) None of these
(a) CH 3 OH (b) C 2 H 5 OH
23. The dehydrobromination of 2-bromobutane gives
(c) CH 3 CHO (d) (CH 3 )2 CO CH 3 CH = CHCH 3 . The product is.
12. A Grignard's reagent may be made by reacting magnesium (a) Hofmann product (b) Saytzeff product
with. (c) Hoffmann-Saytzeff product (d) Markownikoff product
(a) Methyl amine (b) Diethyl ether
MSA-Chemistry
24. Ethyl bromide reacts with silver nitrite to form. (a) Alcoholic KOH (b) Aqueous KOH
(a) Nitroethane (b) Nitroethane and ethyl nitrite (c) H 2 O (d) H 2 O 2
(c) Ethyl nitrite (d) Ethane 40. Alkyl halide can be converted into alkene by.
25. 1-chlorobutane reacts with alcoholic KOH to form. (a) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(a) 1-butene (b) 2-butane
(b) Elimination reaction
(c) 1-butanol (d) 2-butanol
(c) Both nucleophilic substitution and elimination
26. Ethyl chloride on heating with silver cyanide forms a
reaction
compound X. The functional isomer of X is.
(a) C 2 H 5 NC (b) C 2 H 5 CN (d) Rearrangement
41. Which one of the following is the correct formula of
(c) H 3 C − NH − CH 3 (d) C 2 H 5 NH 2 dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane.
27. One of the following that cannot undergo dehydro- (a)
halogenation is.
(a) Iso-propyl bromide (b) Ethanol
(c) Ethyl bromide (d) None of these
28. Dehydrohalogenation in monohaloalkanes produces.
(a) A single bond (b) A double bond
(c) A triple bond (d) Fragmentation
29. Dehydrohalogenation of an alkyl halide is.
(a) An addition reaction (b) A substitution reaction (b)
(c) An elimination reaction (d) An oxidation reaction
30. Alkyl halides react with Mg in dry ether to form.
(a) Magnesium halide (b) Grignard’s reagent
(c) Alkene (d) Alkyne
31. In the following sequence of reactions
CH 3 CH 2CH 2 Br ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→( A) ⎯⎯
KOH(alc)
⎯→(B) ⎯⎯
HBr
⎯⎯ ⎯→(C), The
KOH (aq.)

product (C) is. (c)

(a) Propan – 2 – ol (b) Propan – l – ol
(c) Propyne (d) Propene

32. For a given alkyl group the densities of the halides follow the
order.
(a) RI  RBr  RCl (b) RI  RCl  RBr
(c) RBr  RI  RCl (d) RCl  RBr  RI (d)
33. On treating a mixture of two alkyl halides with sodium metal
in dry ether, 2-methyl propane was obtained. The alkyl halides
are.
(a) 2-chloropropane and chloromethane
(b) 2-chloropropane and chloroethane
(c) Chloromethane and chloroethane
(d) Chloromethane and 1-chloropropane 42. For the reaction
34. In which case formation of butane nitrile is possible. R − Br ⎯⎯→ R − O − N = O the suitable reagent is
(a) C3 H7 Br + KCN (b) C4 H 9 Br + KCN (a) NaNO2+HCL (b) HNO2 (c) AgNO2 (d) KNO2
(c) C3 H7 OH + KCN (d) C4 H 9 OH + KCN 43. Elimination of HBr from B-bromobutane result in the
35. The reaction of an aeromatic halogen compound with an alkyl formation of :
halides in presence of sodium and ether is called. (a) Predominantly B-butyne
(b) Predominantly 1-butene
(a) Wurtz reaction (b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(c) Predominantly 2-butene
(c) Wurtz-fittig reaction (d) Kolbe reaction (d) Equimolar mixture of 1 and 2-butene
36. In Wurtz reaction alkyl halide react with. 44. Which of the following is not an allylic halide?
(a) Sodium in ether (b) Sodium in dry ether (a) 4- Bromopent – 2 – ene
(c) Sodium only (d) Alkyl halide in ether (b) 3- bromo -2- methylbut -1-ene
37. When ethyl chloride and alcoholic KOH are heated, the (c) 1-Bromobut -2- ene
compound obtained is. (d) 4-bromobut -1-ene
(a) C2 H 4 (b) C2 H 2 (c) C6 H 6 (d) C2 H 6
38. Reaction of alkyl halides with aromatic compounds in presence 45. Which of the following is a primary halide?
of anhydrous AlCl3 is known as. (a) Iso-propyliodide (b) Sec-Butyliodide
(a) Friedal-Craft reaction (b) Hofmann degradation (c) Ter-butylbromide (d) Neo-Hexylchloride
(c) Kolbe’s synthesis (d) Beckmann rearrangement 46. The IUPAC name of tertiary butyl chloride is
39. Which of the following is boiled with ethyl chloride to form (a) 2-Chloro-2-methypropane
ethyl alcohol.
MSA-Chemistry
 (b) 3-Chlorobutane
(c) 4-Chlorobutane
(d) 1,2-chloro -3-methylpropane
47. Which of the following molecules has highest dipole moment?
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH 2 Cl2 (c) CHCl3 (d) CCl4
48. A primary alkyl halide would prefer to undergo___
(a) SN1reaction (b) SN 2 reaction
(c)  − e lim ination (d) Racemisation
49. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction
most readily?
(a) (CH3 )3 C − F (b) (CH3 )3 C − Cl
(c) (CH3 )3 C − Br (d) (CH3 )3 C − I
50. Which of the following reaction follows Markovnikov’s rule?
(a) C2 H 4 + HBr (b) C3H6 + Cl2
(c) C3H6 + HBr (d) C3H6 + Br2

MSA-Chemistry
 Matrix Science Academy
Halogen Derivatives KEY
No. MCQ 50
1. (a) 11. (a)
Sol. CH 3OH + HI ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ CH 3 I + H 2O
ZnCl 2
2o
Sol. Isopropyl chloride CH 3 − CH − CH 3 chlorine atom is 12. (c)
|
Sol. C 2 H 5 I + Mg ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯→ C 2 H 5 − Mg − I
Dry ether
Cl Ethyl iodide Ethyl magnesium iodide
o
attached to 2 carbon atom. 13. (a)
2. (b) Sol. CH 3 − CH = CH 2 + HBr ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯→ CH 3 − CH − CH 3
Marko wnikoff's |
−3 H
Sol. CH 4 ⎯⎯ ⎯→ CHX 3 (X = Cl, Br, I) rule
Br
+3 X

3. (a) 14. (a)

Sol. Sol. The chlorination of alcohol by SOCl 2 (thionyl chloride)
is the best method for the preparation of alkyl halides as in
this method all the other product are gaseous and thus halides
are obtained on quite pure state.

R − OH + SOCl 2 ⎯⎯→ R − Cl + HCl  +SO 2 
15. (c)
4. (b) Sol. Ag 2O + H 2O → 2AgOH
1o CH
3
1o CH
3 C 2 H 5 Br + AgOH → C 2 H 5 OH + AgBr
1o | | 2o 1o
Sol. CH 3 − CH
o
− C − CH 2 − CH 3 16. (c)
3 4 o|
Cl Sol. C 2 H 5 Cl + 2 Na + ClC2 H 5 ⎯⎯⎯→ C 2 H 5 − C 2 H 5 + 2 NaCl
Dry
Ether
3 - chloro - 2,3 - dimethylpe ntane
17. (c)
5. (d)
Sol. CH 3 − CH − Cl + 2 Na + M
Cl − CH 3 ⎯⎯ ⎯→
Dry
Br
| ethylchloride Ether
|
Sol. CH 3 − CH = CH 2 + HBr → CH 3 − C − CH 3
| | CH 3
CH 3 CH 3 Isopropylchloride
2- bromo, - 2- methyl propane
CH 3 − CH − CH 3 + 2 NaCl
6. (d) |

Sol. C2 H5 OH + SOCl 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ C2 H 5 Cl + SO 2 + HCl

Pyridine CH 3
Isobutane
7. (a) 18. (b)
Sol. C 3 H 8 + Cl 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯→ C 3 H 7 Cl + HCl
Light
Sol. RX + Mg ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ R − Mg − X
Dry ether

This is an example of substitution reaction. Hydrogen atom of 19. (a)

alkane is replaced by halogen atom.
8. (a)
Sol. R − OX + HX → R − X + H 2O
Reactivity order of alcohols for this reaction Sol. Chlorobenzene is less reactive than benzyl
3 o  2 o  1o
Reactivity order of halogen acids
R − I  R − Br  R − Cl
Chloride
9. (b)
In chlorobenzene the lone pairs present on Cl atom get
Sol. C2 H5 OH + SOCl 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ C2 H 5 Cl + SO 2 + HCl
Pyridine
involved in resonance with  electrons of benzene due to
10. (d) which C − Cl bond acquires double bond character Hence,
Sol.
reactivity decreases.

20. (b)

MSA-Chemistry
 Sol. RX + Mg ⎯⎯⎯→ R − Mg − X (X = Cl, Br, I)
Dry
R − X + Mg ⎯⎯⎯→ R − Mg − X
dry
ether Grignard' s reagent ether Grignard' s reagent

21. (b) 31. (a)

CH 3 Sol.
|
Sol. CH 3 − C − Br + CH 3 ONa ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯→
Eliminatio n

|
CH 3
CH 3 CH 3 − CH − CH 3 ⎯ ⎯⎯⎯ CH 3 − CH − CH 3
aq . KOH
| | |
CH 3 − C = CH 2 + CH 3 OH + NaBr OH Br
Isobutylene Propan - 2 - ol

CH 3ONa → CH 3O − + Na +
32. (d)
methoxide ion (CH 3 O − ) is a strong base, therefore it abstract Sol. Density of alkyl halide increases as the size of halogen
proton from 3 o alkyl halide and favours elimination reaction. atom increases.
RF  RCl  RBr  RI
22. (b) 33. (a)
Sol. C6 H5 − CH 2 − Cl + KCN (aq) → C6 H5 − CH 2 − C  N + KCl Sol. It is Wurtz reaction in which hydrocarbon formed when
23. (b) alkyl halide react with Na metal in dry ether.
Sol. CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − CH 3 + KOH ⎯Saytzeff'
⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯→
s rule Cl
|
| (alc)
CH 3 − CH − CH 3 + CH 3 Cl + 2Na ⎯⎯ ⎯→
ether
Br 2 chloro propane chloro
CH 3 − CH = CH − CH 3 + KBr + H 2 O
methane

CH 3
24. (a) |
O CH 3 − CH − CH 3 + 2 NaCl
Sol. C 2 H 5 Br + Ag − O − N = O → C 2 H 5 − N + AgBr 2 methyl pro pane
O
Nitro ethane 34. (a)
Ag − O − N = O is a covalent compound. Therefore, attack of
Sol. C3 H 7 Br + KCN → C3 H 7 CN + KBr
nucleophile occurs through Nitrogen atom. Hence, nitroethane In IUPAC system the carbon of functional group also take in
is formed. numbering. So C3 H 7 CN is butane nitrile.
25. (a) 35. (c)
Sol. CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2 − Cl + KOH (alc.) → Sol. It is Wurtz fittig reaction
CH 3 CH 2 − CH = CH 2 + KCl + H 2 O C 6 H 5 Br + CH 3 Br ⎯⎯
⎯→ C 6 H 5 CH 3 + 2 NaBr
Na

1- butene
Ether

26. (b) 36. (a)

Sol. C2 H 5 Cl + AgCN → C2 H 5 − N = C + AgCl Sol. Alkyl halides give alkane when react with sodium in
Ethyl isocyanide
(X)
ether. This is called Wurtz reaction.
R − Cl + 2 Na + R − Cl ⎯⎯ ⎯→ R − R + 2 NaCl
ether
The functional isomer of ethyl isocyanide is ethyl cyanide alkane

C2 H5 − C  N . 37. (a)
27. (b) Sol. We know that
Sol. Ethanol cannot undergo dehydrohalogenation. CH 3 CH 2 Cl + KOH → CH 2 = CH 2 + KCl + H 2 O
28. (b) Thus in this reaction ethene (C 2 H 4 ) is produced.
Sol.
38. (a)
Sol. Acylation or alkylation of aromatic compound in
presence of AlCl3 is known as Friedal-craft reaction.
C 6 H 6 + CH 3 Cl ⎯⎯⎯→ C 6 H 5 CH 3 + HCl
dry

Benzene chloro AlCl 3 Toluene

methane
29. (c)
39. (b)
Sol. Alkyl halide gives alkene on elimination, reaction takes
Sol. C 2 H 5 Cl + KOH → C 2 H 5 OH + KCl
place in presence of alc. KOH. (aq )

CH 3CH 2 Br + Alc . KOH → CH 2 = CH 2 + KBr + H 2O 40. (b)

There are two types of elimination reactions. Sol. Alkyl halide is best converted to alkene by mean of
(a) E1 → Unimolecular elimination elimination reaction in form of dehydrohalogenation.
R − CH 2 − CH 2 − X ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ R − CH = CH 2
dehydrohal ogenation
(b) E 2 → Bimolecular elimination
41. (a)
30. (b)
Sol.
Sol. Alkyl halide reacts with Mg in presence of dry ether to
give alkyl magnesium halide which is also called as Grignard
reagent. This reaction is also called as Grignard’s reaction.

MSA-Chemistry
42. (d)
Sol. R − Br ⎯ ⎯→ R − O − N = O
Alkyl halide Alkyl nitrities
Alkyl nitrities are prepared by the action of alkyl halide
and potassium nitrite only but in case of silver nitrite the main
product is nitro alkane although a small amount of alky
nitrite is also formed.
R − Br + KNO2 ⎯⎯→R − O − N = O + KBr
43. (c)
Sol.

44. (d)
Sol. An allylic halide is an alkyl halide in which there are one
or more halogen atoms on allylic carbons. Except 4- Bromobut-
1- ene, all are allylic halides.
Br − CH2 − CH2 − CH = CH2

45. (d)
Sol. neo-Hexylchloride is a primary halide as in it Cl atom is
attached to a primary carbon.
CH3
|
CH3 − C − CH 2 − CH 2 Cl
|
CH3

46. (a)
Sol. IUPAC name of tertiary butyl chloride is 2-Chloro-2-
methylpropane
47. (a)
Sol.

Order of dipole moment is

CH3Cl  CH2Cl2  CHCl3  CCl4
48. (b)
Sol. Primary alkyl halides prefer to undergo SN 2 reaction.
49. (d)
Sol. as C-I bond is weakest, (CH3 )3 C − I will undergo SN1
reaction most readily.
50. (c)
Sol. Markovnikov’s rule is followed for addition of HX on
asymmetric alkenes.
CH 3 CH = CH 2 + HBr → CH 3 − C H − CH 3 + CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 Br
|
Br (Minor )
(major )

MSA-Chemistry
 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Alcohols Phenols Ethers Level-1

1. Picric acid is (c) Catechol (d) Resorcinol

(a) Trinitroaniline (b) Trinitrotoluene 13. According to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ether is
(c) A volatile liquid (d) 2, 4, 6 trinitrophenol (a) Acidic (b) Basic
2. Glycerol is a (c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Monohydric alcohol 14. LiAlH4 converts acetic acid into
(c) Secondary alcohol (d) Trihydric alcohol (a) Acetaldehyde (b) Methane
3. Cresols are (c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Methyl alcohol
(a) Hydroxy toluene (b) Dihydric phenols 15. Formaldehyde gives an additive product with methyl
(c) Trihydric phenols (d) Trihydric alcohols magnesium iodide which on aqueous hydrolysis gives
4. Glycerine has (a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Ethyl alcohol
(a) One primary and two secondary −OH groups (c) Methyl alcohol (d) Propyl alcohol
(b) One secondary and two primary −OH groups 16. The reaction given below is known as
(c) Three primary −OH groups C 2 H 5 ONa + IC2 H 5 ⎯⎯→ C 2 H 5 OC 2 H 5 + NaI
(d) Three secondary −OH groups (a) Kolbe's synthesis (b) Wurtz's synthesis
5. Carbinol is (c) Williamson's synthesis (d) Grignard's synthesis
(a) C 2 H 5 OH (b) CH 3 OH
17. Salicylaldehyde can be prepared from
(c) (CH 3 )2 CHOH (d) CH 3 CH 2 CH (OH )CH 3 (a) Phenol and chloroform
6. General formula of primary alcohol is (b) Phenol, chloroform and sodium hydroxide
(a) (b) (c) Phenol, carbon tetrachloride and NaOH
(d) None of these
18. If formaldehyde and potassium hydroxide are heated, then we
get
(c) −CH 2 OH (d) (a) Acetylene (b) Methaned
7. Butanal is an example of (c) Methyl alcohol (d) Ethyl formate
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol 19. Grignard reagent reacts with compounds containing which of
(c) Aliphatic aldehyde (d) Aliphatic ketone the following groups
(a)  C = O (b) −C  N
8. Cyclohexanol is a
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol (c)  C = S (d) All of these
(c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Phenol 20. Acetone on treatment with CH 3 − Mg − I and on further
9. Which of the following are isomers hydrolysis gives
(a) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether (a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Primary alcohol
(b) Ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether (c) Acetic acid (d) 2-methyl 2-propanol
(c) Acetone and acetaldehyde 21. Sodium benzene sulphonate reacts with NaOH and then on
acidic hydrolysis, it gives
(d) Propionic acid and propanone
(a) Phenol (b) Benzoic acid
10. The structural formula of cyclohexanol is
(c) Benzene (d) Disodium benzaldehyde
22. Phenol is obtained by heating aqueous solution of
(a) Aniline (b) Benzene diazonium chloride
(c) Benzoic acid (d) None of these
23. C 2 H 5 MgI reacts with HCHO to form last product
(a) (b) (a) CH 3 CHO (b) C 3 H 7 OH
(c) CH 3COCH 3 (d) CH 3 COOCH 3
24. Action of nitrous acid with ethylamine produces
(a) Ethane (b) Ammonia
(c) (d) (c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Nitroethane
11. Carbolic acid is 25. C6 H5 − CH = CHCHO ⎯⎯→ X
C6 H5 CH = CHCH 2OH .
(a) Phenol (b) Phenyl benzoate In the above sequence X can be
(c) Phenyl acetate (d) Salol (a) H 2 / Ni (b) NaBH 4
12. Which of the following is dihydric alcohol (c) K2Cr2O7 / H + (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Glycerol (b) Ethylene glycol

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Alcohols Phenols Ethers Answers

1. (d)
Sol.

11. (a)
Sol. 5% aqueous solution of phenol at room temperature is
2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol or picric acid
called as carbolic acid.
2. (d)
CH 2 − CH − CH 2 12. (b)
| | | Sol. Glycols are dihydric alcohols (having two hydroxyl
OH OH OH groups). Ethylene glycol is the first member of this series.
Sol. Glycerol is trihydric alcohols.
C H 2 OH
3. (a) |
Sol. CH 2 OH
(Ethylene glycol)

13. (b)
Sol. Ether is basic because lone pairs of electrons are present
••
on oxygen atom, R − O − R .
••

14. (c)
Sol.
CH 3 COOH + 4 H ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ CH 3 CH 2OH + H 2O
LiAlH 4
4. (b)
CH 2 − OH 15. (b)
|
Sol. CH − OH Sol.
|
CH 2 − OH
One secondary and two primary alcoholic groups.
5. (b)
Sol. Carbinol is CH 3OH (Methanol).
6. (c)
Sol. – OH group is attached to primary carbon. 16. (c)
7. (c) Sol. C2 H5 ONa + IC2 H5 → C2 H5 OC2 H5 + NaI
Sol. Butanal CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CHO , an aliphatic aldehyde. 17. (b)
8. (b) Sol.
Sol.

18. (c)
Sol. HCHO + HCHO ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯→ CH 3 OH + HCOOK
Conc. KOH

M ethyl alcohol Potassium formate

Cyclohexanol is a secondary alcohol because − OH group is It is cannizzaro’s reaction.

19. (d)
linked to 2 o carbon. Sol. Grignard reagent reacts with compounds containing
9. (b) multiple bonds like
Sol. C2 H 5 OH and CH 3 − O − CH 3 are isomers.
C = O, C = S, CN.
10. (a)
20. (d)
Sol.
Sol. Acetone reacts with Grignard’s reagent to give tertiary
alcohol.

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 (CH 3 ) 2 C = O + CH 3 MgBr ⎯⎯ ⎯→ (CH 3 ) 3 C − OH
H 2O

ter - butyl alcohol

21. (a)
Sol.

22. (a)
Sol.

23. (b)
Sol.

24. (c)
Sol. C2 H5 − NH 2 + HNO 2 → C2 H5 OH + N 2 + H 2O
25. (b)
Sol. NaBH 4 and LiAlH4 attacks only carbonyl group and
reduce it into alcohol group. They do not attack on double
bond.
C6 H 5 − CH = CHCHO ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
NaBH 4

cinnamic aldehyde

C6 H 5 − CH = CH .CH 2 OH
cinnamic alcohol

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 Matrix Science Academy
Chemistry- Alcohols Phenols Ethers Level-2

1. The compound with the highest boiling point is CH 3 − CH− CH 2 − CH 2 − C H − CH 3

(a) CH 4 (b) CH 3 OH (c) CH 3 Cl (d) CH 3 Br | |
Cl OH
2. Which of the following is not characteristic of alcohols (a) 2-Chloro-5-hydroxyhexane
(a) They are lighter than water
(b) 2-Hydroxy-5-chlorohexane
(b) Their boiling points rise fairly uniformly with increasing
(c) 5-Chlorohexan-2-ol
molecular weight
(d) 2-Chlorohexan-5-ol
(c) Lower members are insoluble in water and organic solvents
13. IUPAC name of m-cresol is
but solubility regularly increases with molecular weight (a) 3-methylphenol (b) 3-chlorophenol
(d) Lower members have pleasant smell and burning taste, (c) 3-methoxyphenol (d) Benzene-1,3-diol.
while higher members are odourless and tasteless
14. For the reaction C2 H 5 OH + HX → C2 H5 X + H 2 O; the
3. In the esterification reaction of alcohol
(a) OH − is replaced by CH 3 COO group order of reactivity is
(a) HCl  HBr  HI (b) HI  HBr  HCl
(b) OH − is replaced by chlorine
(c) HBr  HCl  HI (d) HI  HCl  HBr
(c) H − is replaced by sodium metal
15. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of
(d) OH − is replaced by C2 H 5 OH
RCH 2 OH → RCHO is
4. A compound A on oxidation gave acetaldehyde, then again on
(a) K 2 Cr2 O 7 (b) CrO3 (c) KMnO 4 (d) PCC
oxidation gave acid. After first oxidation it was reacted with
ammoniacal AgNO 3 then silver mirror was produced. A is 16. R − OH + HX → RX + H O
2
likely to be In the above reaction the reactivity of alcohols is
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Tertiary alcohol
(a) Tertiary > secondary > primary
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Acetone
(b) Tertiary < secondary < primary
5. Conc. H 2 SO 4 heated with excess of C 2 H 5 OH at 140 o C to (c) Tertiary > primary > secondary
for (d) Secondary > primary > tertiary
(a) CH 3 CH 2 − O − CH 3
17. Cumene on reaction with oxygen followed by hydrolysis gives
(b) CH 3 CH 2 − O − CH 2 CH 3 (a) CH 3 OH and C 6 H 5 COCH 3
(c) CH 3 − O − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 3
(b) C6 H 5 OH and (CH3 ) 2 O
(d) CH 2 = CH 2
(c) C6 H 5 OCH3 and CH 3 OH
6. Aspirin is also known as
(a) Methyl salicylic acid (b) Acetyl salicylic acid (d) C6 H 5 OH and CH3COCH3
(c) Acetyl salicylate (d) Methyl salicylate
18. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the
7. Diethyl ether finds use in medicine as following reaction?
(a) A pain killer (b) A hypnotic
R − OH + HCl ⎯⎯ ⎯→ R − Cl + H 2O
ZnCl 2
(c) An antiseptic (d) An anaesthetic
CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH − CH 2 CH 3 (a) 1º  2º  3º (b) 1º  2º  3º
8. IUPAC name of | (c) 3º  2º  1º (d) 3º  1º  2º
CH 2 OH
19. Which of the following compounds is aromatic alcohol?
(a) 3-Propylbutan -1-ol (b) 2-ethylpentan -1-ol
(c) 3-methyl hydroxyhexane (d) 2- ethyl -2-propyl ethanol
9. The C − O − C angle in either is about
(a) 180º (b) 190º 28' (c) 110º (d) 105º
10. Tertiary butyl alcohol gives tertiary butyl chloride on treatment (a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, IV (c) II, III (d) I
with 20. Which of the following compounds will react with sodium
(a) Conc. HCl/anyhydrous ZnCl 2 (b) KCN hydroxide solution in water?
(a) C6 H 5OH (b) C6 H5CH 2 OH
(c) NaOCl (d) Cl 2
11. Which of the following is phenol? (c) (CH3 )3 COH (d) C 2 H 5OH
(a) Cresol (b) Catechol
(c) Benzenol (d) All of these 21. Which of the following has lowest boiling point
12. Give IUPAC name of the compound given below: (a) p-nitrophenol (b) m-nitrophenol
Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh
 (c) o-nitrophenol (d) Phenol (c) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
22. The reaction of conc. HNO 3 and phenol forms (d) A mixture of o- and p-bromophenols
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Salicylic acid 36. In the following series of chemical reactions, identify Z
(c) o - and p-nitrophenol (d) Picric acid C 3 H 7 OH ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ X ⎯⎯
Conc . H 2 SO 4
⎯→ Y ⎯⎯
Br2
⎯⎯→ Z
Excess of
160 −180 o C Alc . KOH
23. At low temperature phenol reacts with Br2 in CS 2 to form
CH 3 − CH − CH 2 CH 3 − CH − CH 2
(a) m-bromophenol (b) o-and p-bromophenol | | | |
NH 2 NH 2 OH OH
(c) p-bromophenol (d) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol (a) (b)
o
24. Conc. H 2 SO 4 reacts with C 2 H 5 OH at 170 C to form CH 3 − C = CH 2
|
(a) CH 3COCH 3 (b) CH 3 COOH (c) OH (d) CH 3 C  CH
(c) CH 3 CHO (d) C 2 H 4 37. Alcohols of low molecular weight are
(a) Soluble in water
25. Isopropyl alcohol heated at 300 o C with copper catalyst to
form (b) Soluble in all solvents
(a) Acetone (b) Dimethyl ether (c) Insoluble in all solvents
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Ethane (d) Soluble in water on heating
26. Dehydrogenation of CH 3 − CH − CH 3 gives 38. Primary alcohols on dehydration give
| (a) Alkenes (b) Alkanes
OH
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde
39. Primary and secondary alcohols on action of reduced copper
(c) Acetic acid (d) Acetylene
give
27. The final product of the oxidation of ethyl alcohol is (a) Aldehydes and ketones respectively
(a) Ethane (b) Acetone
(b) Ketones and aldehydes respectively
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Acetic acid
(c) Only aldehydes
28. When phenol is allowed to react with Br2 in (i) CS 2 solution
(d) Only ketones
and (ii) in aqueous solution, the resulting compounds are
40. Lucas test is used for
(a) (i) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol and (a) Alcohols (b) Amines
(ii) o - and p-bromophenol (c) Diethyl ether (d) Glacial acetic acid
(b) (i) m-bromophenol and (ii) 2, 3, 4-tribromophenol
(c) (i) o-and p-bromophenol and 41. Reaction of phenol with dil. HNO 3 gives
(ii) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol (a) p and m-nitrophenols (b) o- and p-nitrophenols
(d) (i) o- and m-bromophenol and (c) Picric acid (d) o- and m-nitrophenols
(ii) 2, 3, 4-tribromophenol 42. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some
29. What amount of bromine will be required to convert 2 g of (a) Pesticides (b) Proteins (c) Dyes (d) Vitamins
phenol into 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
(a) 4.00 (b) 6.00 (c) 10.22 (d) 20.44 43. SN1 reaction is feasible in :
30. The reaction between an alcohol and an acid with the
elimination of water molecule is called
(a) Esterification (b) Saponification
(c) Etherification (d) Elimination
(a) + KOH (aq.)
31. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly
basic medium gives (b) + KOH (aq.)
(a) Diphenyl ether (b) p-hydroxyazobenzene
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Benzene
32. In CH 3 CH 2 OH ⎯⎯→X
o
CH 2 = CH 2 + H 2 O; 'X' is (c) + KOH (aq.)
350 C

(a) NaCl (b) CaCl 2 (c) P2 O5 (d) Al 2 O 3

33. An organic compound A reacts with sodium metal and forms (d) + KOH (aq.)
B. On heating with conc. H 2 SO 4 , A gives diethyl ether. A and 44. Among the following compound which can be dehydrated very
B are easily is :
(a) C 2 H 5 OH and C 2 H 5 ONa (b) C 3 H 7 OH and CH 3 ONa H3C H3C

(c) CH 3 OH and CH 3 ONa (d) C 4 H 9 OH and C4 H 9 ONa

OH H3C OH
34. Which of the following gives ketone on oxidation (a) (b)
(a) (CH 3 )3 COH (b) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH CH3
OH
(c) (CH 3 )2 CHCH 2 OH (d) CH 3 CHOHCH 3
35. Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The
white precipitate formed during the process is (c) H3C OH CH3
(d) H3C CH3

(a) m-bromophenol 45. Elimination of HBr from B-bromobutane result in the

formation of :
(b) 2, 4-dibromophenol (a) Predominantly B-butyne
Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh
 (b) Predominantly 1-butene
(c) Predominantly 2-butene
(d) Equimolar mixture of 1 and 2-butene
46. What is DDT among the following :
(a) Greenhouse gas
(b) A fertilizer
(c) Biodegradable pollutant
(d) Non-biodegradable pollutant

47. Picric acid is

(a) Trinitroaniline (b) Trinitrotoluene
(c) A volatile liquid (d) 2, 4, 6 trinitrophenol
48. Cresols are
(a) Hydroxy toluenes (b) Dihydric phenols
(c) Trihydric phenols (d) Trihydric alcohols
49. General formula of primary alcohol is
(a) (b)

(c) −CH 2 OH (d)

50. Cyclohexanol is a
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
(c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Phenol

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 Matrix Science Academy
Alcohols Phenols Ethers Answers

1. (b)
Sol. CH 3OH has highest boiling point because of hydrogen
bonding.
2. (c)
Sol. Lower members are soluble in water and solubility
12. (c)
decreases with increasing molecular mass because
Sol. The IUPAC name of
hydrophobic character increases. 5
3. (a) 6 4 3 2 1

Sol. CH 3 COOH + C 2 H 5 OH → CH 3 COOC 2 H 5 + H 2O CH 3 + CH− CH 2 − CH 2 − CH− CH 3 is 5-chlorohexan-

| |
Ethyl acetate
Cl OH
4. (a) 2-ol.
Sol. CH 3 CH 2OH ⎯⎯⎯→ CH 3 CHO ⎯⎯
Oxi.
⎯→ CH 3 COOH
Oxi.
Here − OH is the principal functional group and − Cl is a
1o alcohol
A
aubstent.
13. (a)
Sol.

5. (b)
Sol. CH 3 CH 2 − OH + HO − CH 2 − CH 3 ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯⎯→
Conc. H 2 SO 4
o
140 C

CH 3 CH 2 − O − CH 2 − CH 3 + H 2 O
Diethyl ether 14. (b)
6. (b) Sol. The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides is
Sol. HI > HBr > HCl
15. (d)
Sol. PCC is the best reagent to oxidize alcohols to aldehydes.
16. (a)
Sol. Reactions of alcohols involving cleavage of C − OH
bond followed the reactivity order.
Tertiary > Secondary > Primary according to the stability of
Aspirin or Acetyl salicylic acid. carbocation intermediate.
7. (d) 17. (d)
Sol. An anaesthetic. Sol.
8. (b)
5 4 3 2
Sol. CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 C H − CH 2 CH 3
|
1
CH 2OH
2− Eithylpen tan −1−ol

9. (c)
Sol. C − O − C angle in ethers is about 110º 18. (c)
10. (a) Sol. The correct order of reactivity of alcohols towards Lucas
Sol. reagent (Conc. HCl and ZnCl2 ) is : 3º  2º  1º in case of
tertiary alcohols turbidity is produced immediately as they
form the halides easily. Primary alcohols do not produce
turbidity at room temperature.
19. (c)
11. (d) Sol. II, III
Sol. Compounds containing − OH group directly attached to 20. (a)
benzene ring are called phenolic compounds Sol. Phenol (C6 H5OH) will react with sodium hydroxide
solution in water, as phenols are more acidic than alcohols.

MSA-CHEMISTRY
21. (c)
Sol. o-Nitrophenol has intramolecular H-bonding.
22. (d)
Sol.

23. (b) In aq. solution phenol ionize to give phenoxide in which

Sol. highly activates benzene ring and give trisubstituted product
while in presence of CS 2 an inert solvent phenol is unable to
ionize due to which benzene ring is slightly activated. Hence,
monosubstituted product is obtained.
29. (c)
Sol.

In presence of non-polar solvent (CS 2 ) the ionization of

phenol is suppressed. The ring is slightly activated and hence
mono substitution occurs.
On the other hand with Br2 water phenol forms 2,4,6-
tribromo phenol.

94 grams of phenol reacts with 480 gms. of Br2 .

480
2 gm. of phenol —  2 = 10.22 gms.
94
30. (a)
Sol. CH 3 COOH + CH 3 OH → CH 3 COOCH 3 + H 2 O
Esterification
In aqueous solution phenol ionizes to give phenoxide ion.
Due to the presence of negative charge on oxygen the 31. (b)
benzene ring is highly activated and hence trisubstituted Sol.
product is obtained.
24. (d)
Sol. ( C 2 H 5 OH ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ C 2 H 4 + H 2 O )
Conc . H 2 SO 4
o
Ethanol 170 C Ethane

25. (a)
Sol. Secondary alcohol on dehydrogenation gives acetone
CH 3 − CH − CH 3 ⎯⎯
⎯→ CH 3 − C − CH 3 + H 2
Cu
32. (d)
| 300 0 C || Al 2 CO 3
OH O Sol. CH 3 CH 2 OH ⎯⎯
⎯→ CH 2 = CH 2 + H 2 O
(X )
o
350 C
26. (a)
33. (a)
Sol. CH 3 − C H − CH 3 ⎯⎯⎯→ CH 3 − C − CH 3
[O ]
| || Sol. C2 H5 OH + Na → C2 H5 ONa
OH O
2C 2 H 5 OH ⎯⎯ ⎯→ C 2 H 5 − O − C 2 H 5 + H 2 O
Conc.
27. (d) H 2 SO 4
Sol. C2 H 5 OH + [O] → CH 3 CHO → CH 3 COOH .
34. (d)
28. (c)
Sol. CH 3 − CH − CH 3 ⎯⎯⎯→ CH 3 − C − CH 3
[O ]
Sol. | ||
OH O
35. (c)
Sol.

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 46. (d)
Sol. DDT is a non-biodegradable pollutant

47. (d)
Sol.
36. (d)
Sol. CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ CH 3 CH = CH 2
conc. H 2 SO 4
o
160 −180 C

⎯⎯
⎯→ CH 3 − CH − CH 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯→ CH 3 − C  CH
Br2 Alc. KOH
| | Propyne
Br Br
37. (b)
Sol. Lower alcohols are soluble in all solvents. 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol or picric acid
38. (a) 48. (a)
Sol. R − CH 2 − CH 2 − OH ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→
Conc. H 2 SO 4
Sol.
1 o alcohol 170 o C

R − CH = CH 2 + H 2 O
Alkene

39. (a)
Sol. R - CH 2 OH ⎯⎯
⎯→ R − CHO + H 2
Cu

1 o alcohol

R − CH − R ⎯⎯→
⎯ R − C− R + H2
Cu
| ||
OH O
2 o alcohol
49. (c)
40. (a) Sol. – OH group is attached to primary carbon.
Sol. Lucas test is used for the distinction of primary 50. (b)
secondary and tertiary alcohols. Sol.

41. (b)
Sol.

Cyclohexanol is a secondary alcohol because − OH group is

linked to 2 o carbon.

42. (c)
Sol.

43. (a)
Sol. SN1 reaction stability of carbocation
44. (c)
Sol. According to stability of carbocation
45. (c)
Sol.

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XII - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : Aldehyde, Ketones and Carboxylic acid Marks : 25

01) The general formula for mono-carboxylic acids

is ..............
A) CnH2nO2
B) CnH2n1O2
C) CnH2n2O2 A)
D) CnH2n2O2

02) The IUPAC name of   methyl butyraldehyde

is ................... B)
A) 3-Methylbutanal
B) 2-Methylbutanal
C) 3-Ethylproanal
D) 3-Methylpropanal
C)

03) The IUPAC name of

is .......................... D)
A) 2-Ethyl-3-Methylpentanal
B) 4-Methylhexanal 09) Among the following acids which has the
C) 2, 3-Diethylbutanal lowest pKa value?
D) 4-Methyl-3-hexanal A) HCOOH
B) (CH3 )2 CH  COOH
04) The IUPAC name of CH3  C  CH3 2 COOH is C) CH3COOH
................ D) CH3CH2COOH
A) 1, 1-Dimethlpropan-1-oic acid
B) Pentanoic acid
10) Product in the reaction is,
C) 2, 2-Dimethlpropanoic acid
CH3MgI  HCHO  Product
D) Phenylpropanoic acid
A) CH3  O  CH3
05) Acetone is prepared by oxidation of B) C2H5OH
................... C) CH3OH
A) Methyl alcohol
B) Acetic acid D) CH3CHO
C) Propan-1-ol
D) Propan-2-ol 11) Primary aldehyde on oxidation gives
A) carboxylic acid.
06) IUPAC name of CH3COCH3 is B) esters.
A) 2-propanone. C) ketones.
B) acetone. D) alcohols.
C) dimethyl ketone.
D) propanal. 12) Action of hydrazine on aldehydes and ketones
gives compound of the general structure
07) Heptan-4-one is an example of ................... A)  C  N  NH2
A) symmetrical ketone B)  C  N  NH  CONH2
B) asymmetrical ketone C)  C  N  OH
C) mixed ketone D)  C  N  NH  C6H5
D) usaturated carbonyl compound
13) The IUPAC name of Salicylic acid is
08) Identify structure of
..................
2-chloro-4-methylcyclohexanone?
A) 2-Hydroxybenzoic acid
B) 3-Formylbenzoic acid

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

C) 2-Nitrobenzoic acid
D) 1-Oxobenzoic acid 21) Identify the product :

14) Which one is called ethanoic acid?

A) HCOOH
B) CH3CH2COOH
C) CH3COOH
D) CH3CH2CH2COOH

15) The reaction RCN  SnCl2  HCl  R  CHO is A)

known as ....................
A) Haloform reaction
B) Etard reaction
C) Gattermann-Koch reaction B)
D) Stephen reaction

16) In the Gabriel's phthalimide synthesis,

phthalimide is treated first with
C)
A) ethanolic Na
B) C2H5I /KOH
C) ether and LiAlH4 D)
D) ethanol and H2SO4

17) Which of the aldehyde is most reactive?

A) HCHO
22) In the reaction, product is
B) C6H5  CHO
C) CH3CHO
D) All are equally reactive
A)
18) Fehling's test is positive for
A) alcohol.
B) ether.
C) benzaldehyde. B)
D) acetaldehyde.

19) Which of the following does not give iodoform

test? C)
A) PhCOCH3 O
||
B) CH3CHO D) C6H5  C C6H5
C) CH3OH
23) Propanone is an example of ............................
D) CH3CH2OH
A) symmetrical aldehyde
B) symmetrical ketone
20) What is the final product of the following C) unsymmetrical ketone
reaction: D) symmetrical anhydride
H O
CH3CH2  MgBr  CH3  C  N  A 
3
B
24) To convert CH3  COOH into CH3  CO  Cl,
which reagent can not be used?
A) PCl5
A)
B) PCl3
C) SOCl2
D) Cl2
B)
25) Carbolic acid is
A) C6H6
C) B) C6H5CHO
C) C6H5COOH
D) C6H5OH
D)

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XII - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : Aldehyde, Ketones and Carboxylic acid Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: A) CnH2nO2 OH

H  CHO  CH3MgI  CH3  CH2  OH  Mg\/
Sol: CnH2nO2 I

02) Ans: B) 2-Methylbutanal 11) Ans: A) carboxylic acid.

Sol: Aldehydes are easily oxidized to carboxylic
acids on treating with common oxidizing agents
such as nitric acid, potassium permanganate and
Sol: dichromate etc.
The   position is carbon-2.
12) Ans: A)  C  N  NH2
03) Ans: A) 2-Ethyl-3-Methylpentanal Sol:  C  N  NH2

13) Ans: A) 2-Hydroxybenzoic acid

14) Ans: C) CH3COOH

Sol: Sol: CH3COOH
2-Ethyl-3-Methyl-pentanal.
15) Ans: D) Stephen reaction
04) Ans: C) 2, 2-Dimethlpropanoic acid
16) Ans: B) C2H5I /KOH
05) Ans: D) Propan-2-ol Sol: C2H5I /KOH

17) Ans: A) HCHO

Sol: Sol: Among carbonyl compounds, reactivity
decreases with increase in alkyl groups because
06) Ans: A) 2-propanone. alkyl (+I effect) decrease the positive character on
O C- atom. Hence, the correct order of reactivity is
||
Sol: CH3CCH3 HCHO  CH3CHO  C6H5CHO .
2 propanone
18) Ans: D) acetaldehyde.
07) Ans: A) symmetrical ketone
19) Ans: C) CH3OH
Sol: CH3OH

08) Ans: D)
20) Ans: B)
Sol:

Sol:

09) Ans: A) HCOOH

1
Sol: K a  ; Value of K a is the highest for
pK a
HCOOH.

10) Ans: B) C2H5OH

Sol:

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

21) Ans: D)

Sol:

22) Ans: C)
(i) CO
Sol: C6H5MgBr 

2
 C6H5COOH
(ii) H3O (P)

23) Ans: B) symmetrical ketone

24) Ans: D) Cl2

Sol: Cl2

25) Ans: D) C6H5OH

Sol: Phenol was discovered by Runge in the middle
oil fraction of coal-tar distillation and named it
'carbolic acid' (carbo-coil, oleum = oil) or phenol
having 5% water in liquid at room temperature and
it is known as as carbolic acid.

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 Matrix Science Academy
Aldehydes Ketones Carboxylic Acids Level-2

1. Reaction of acetaldehyde with HCN followed by hydrolysis (a) Catalytic reduction (b) Na / C2 H 5 OH
gives a compound which shows
(c) Wolf-Kischner reduction (d) LiAlH4
(a) Optical isomerism (b) Geometrical isomerism
(c) Metamerism (d) Tautomerism 13. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched
2. Which of the aldehyde is most reactive? (a)  C = O ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→  CH 2
Clemenson' s reduction

(a) C6 H5 − CHO (b) CH 3 CHO (b)  C = O ⎯⎯⎯-Kishner

Wolf
⎯⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→  CHOH
reduction

(c) HCHO (d) All the equally reactive (c) − COCl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CHO
Rosenmund' s reduction

3. Compound which gives acetone on ozonolysis

(d) − C  N ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ CHO
Stephen reduction
(a) CH 3 − CH = CH − CH 3 (b) (CH 3 )2 C = C(CH 3 )2
14. Which of the following gives aldol condensation reaction
(c) C6 H5 CH = CH 2 (d) CH 3CH = CH 2 O
||
4. Which one of the following compounds is prepared in the (a) C6 H 5 OH (b) C 6 H 5 − C − C 6 H 5
laboratory from benzene by a substitution reaction
(a) Glyoxal (b) Cyclohexane O O
|| ||
(c) Acetophenone (d) Hexabromo cyclohexane (c) CH 3 CH 2 − C − CH 3 (d) (CH 3 )3 C − C − CH 3
CH 3 COCl ⎯⎯⎯→ CH 3 CHO + HCl ;
2H
15. Which of the following products is formed when benzaldehyde
Pd / BaSO 4
5. is treated with CH 3 MgBr and the addition product so obtained
The above reaction is called
is subjected to acid hydrolysis
(a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (b) Cannizzaro reaction
(a) Secondary alcohol (b) A primary alcohol
(c) Rosenmund reaction (d) Reformatsky reaction
(c) Phenol (d) Tert-Butyl alcohol
6. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride
16. Aldol condensation will not be observed in
is called
(a) Chloral (b) Phenyl acetaldehyde
(a) Cannizzaro reaction (b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Hexanal (d) Ethanol
(c) Etard reaction (d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
17. Which of the following organic compounds exhibits positive
7. From which of the following tertiary butyl alcohol is obtained
Fehling test as well as iodoform test
by the action of methyl magnesium iodide
(a) Methanal (b) Ethanol
(a) HCHO (b) CH 3 CHO
(c) Propanone (d) Ethanal
(c) CH 3 COCH 3 (d) CO 2 18. Acetaldehyde when treated with dilute NaOH gives
8. Acetophenone is prepared by the reaction of which of the (a) CH 3 CH 2 OH (b) CH 3 COOH
following in the presence of AlCl 3 catalyst
(c) CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − CHO (d) CH 3 − CH 3
|
(a) Phenol and acetic acid
OH
(b) Benzene and acetone
19. C 2 H 5 CHO and (CH3 )2 CO can be distinguished by testing
(c) Benzene and acetyl chloride
with
(d) Phenol and acetone
(a) Phenyl hydrazine (b) Hydroxylamine
9. Which of the following compound gives a ketone with
Grignard reagent (c) Fehling solution (d) Sodium bisulphate
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Ethyl alcohol 20. Which of the following will not give iodoform test
(a) Ethanal (b) Ethanol
(c) Methyl cyanide (d) Methyl iodided
10. Methyl ethyl ketone is prepared by the oxidation of (c) 2-propanone (d) 3-pentanone
(a) 2-propanol (b) 1-butanol
21. Dimethyl ketones are usually characterised through
(c) 2-butanol (d) t-butyl alcohol
(a) Tollen's reagent (b) Iodoform test
11. Identify the reactant X and the product Y
(c) Schiff's test (d) Benedict's reagent
22. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated, then we get
(a) Acetylene (b) Methane
(c) Methyl alcohol (d) Ethyl formate
23. Aromatic aldehydes undergo disproportionation in presence of
(a) X = MgCl 2 ; Y = CH 3 CH = CH 2 sodium or potassium hydroxide to give corresponding alcohol
(b) X = CH 3 MgCl; Y = C 2 H 5 COCH 3 and acid. The reaction is known as
(a) Wurtz's reaction (b) Cannizzaro reaction
(c) X = CH 3 MgCl; Y = (CH 3 )3 C − OH
(c) Friedel-Craft's reaction (d) Claisen reaction
(d) X = C2 H 5 MgCl;Y = (CH 3 )3 C − OH 24. Which acid is strongest or Which is most acidic
12. Reduction of  C = O to CH 2 can be carried out with (a) Cl 2 CH .COOH (b) ClCH 2 COOH
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (c) CH 3COOH (d) Cl3C.COOH 41. Which of the following carbonyl compounds is most polar?
O O
25. The acid which reduces Fehling solution is || ||
(a) Methanoic acid (b) Ethanoic acid (a) C 2 H 5 − C− C 2 H 5 (b) CH 5 − C− CH 3
(c) Butanoic acid (d) Propanoic acid O O
|| ||
26. What will happen if LiAlH4 is added to an ester
(c) CH 3 − C− H (d) H − C− H
(a) Two units of alcohol are obtained
O
(b) One unit of alcohol and one unit of acid is obtained ||
(c) Two units of acids are obtained 42. Ketones (R − C− R ) can be obtained in one step by (where
(d) None of these R and R’ are alkyl groups)
27. When propanamide reacts with Br2 and NaOH then which of (a) Hydrolysis of esters
the following compound is formed (b) Oxidation of primary alcohols
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Propyl alcohol (c) Oxidation of secondary alcohols
(c) Propyl amine (d) Ethylamine (d) Reaction of alkyl halides with alcohols.
28. Which of the following is the strongest acid 43. In the following reaction, product (P) is
(a) CH 3 COOH (b) BrCH 2 COOH O
||
(c) ClCH 2 COOH (d) FCH 2 COOH R − C− Cl ⎯⎯→
H2
pd / BaSO 4
29. Which of the following reduces Tollen's reagent
(a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid (a) RCHO (b) RCH 3 (c) RCOOH (d) RCH2 OH
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Formic acid 44. Which of the following will not give aldol condensation?
30. Sulphonation of benzoic acid produces mainly (a) Phenyl acetaldehyde (b) 2-Methylpentanal
(a) o-sulphobenzoic acid (b) m-sulphobenzoic acid (c) Benzaldehyde (d) 1-Phenylpropanone
(c) p-sulphobenzoic acid (d) o- and p-sulphobenzoic acid 45. The product of hydrolysis of ozonide of 1-butene are
31. Which one is strongest acid (a) Ethanal only (b) Ethanal and methanal
(a) CH 2 FCOOH (b) CH 2ClCOOH (c) Propanal and methanol (d) Methanal only
(c) CHCl 2COOH (d) CHF2 COOH 46. Which of the following IUPAC names is not correctly
matched?
32. Which does not give silver mirror with ammoniacal AgNO 3 (a)
(a) HCHO (b) CH 3 CHO
(c) CH 3COOH (d) HCOOH
33. Aspirin is an acetylation product of
(a) o-hydroxybenzoic acid (b) o-dihydroxybenzene
(b) (CH 3 ) 2 = CHCOOH : 3-Methylbut-2-enoic acid
(c) m-hydroxybenzoic acid (d) p-dihydroxybenzene
34. When aldehyde is heated with Fehling’s solution, it gives a (c) phCH 2 CH 2 COOH : 3-Phenylpropanoic acid.
precipitate of
(a) Cu (b) CuO (c) Cu 2 O (d) Cu + Cu 2O + CuO
35. Aldol condensation is not given by
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COCH3
(c) CH3CH2CHO (d) HCHO (d)
36. The strongest acid among the following is –
(a) CF3COOH (b) CCl3COOH 47. Which of the following will not undergo aldol condensation
(c) CBr3COOH (d) CH3 COOH (a)CH3 CHO (b)CH3CH2 CHO
37. The oxidation of toluene to benzadehyde by chromyl chloride (c)CD3 CHO (d) PhCHO
is called. 48. Cannizzaro reaction does not take place with
(a) Etard reaction (b) Riemer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Wurtz-reaction (d) Cannizzaro’s reaction.
38. Which of the following compounds will undergo Cannizzaro
reaction? (a) (CH3)3CCHO. (b)
(a) CH 3 CHO (b) CH3COCH3
(c) C6 H 5 CHO (d) C6 H 5 CH 2 CHO (c) (d) CH3CHO
39. Benzoyl chloride on reduction with H 2 / Pd − BaSO 4 49. CH3MgI is an organometallic compound due to
Produces (a) Mg – I bond (b) C – I bond
(a) Benzoci acid (b) Benzyl alcohol (c) C – Mg bond (d) C – H bond
50. Which one of the following is reduced with Zn, Hg and HCl
(c) Benzoyl sulphate (d) Benzaldehyde. acid to give the corresponding hydrocarbon?
40. Which of the following does not undergo Cannizzaro’s (a) Ethyl acetate (b) Butan-2-one
reaction? (c) Acetamide (d) Acetic acid
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) 2-Methylpropanal
(c) p-Methoxybenzxaldehyde (d) 2,2-Dimethylpropanal

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Aldehydes Ketones Carboxylic Acids Key

1. (a) ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯→(CH 3 ) 3 C − OH + Mg(OH )Cl

hydrolysis
(Y )
O OH
|| |
Sol. CH 3 − C − H + HCN ⎯⎯→ CH 3 − C − H 12. (c)
Acetaldehy de Hydrogen
Cyanide
| Sol. Reduction of  C = O to CH 2 can be carried out with
CN
Acetaldehy de Wolf Kischner reduction.
Cynohydrin
13. (b)
(optically active) Sol. Wolf-Kishner reduction does not convert  CO to
2. (c) CHOH but converts it to  CH 2 .
Sol. Among Carbonyl Compounds, reactivity decrease with
14. (c)
increase in alkyl groups as alkyl groups (+I effect) decrease Sol. Although both CH 3CH 2COCH 3 and (CH 3 )3 CCOCH 3
positive character on C-atom. Thus, the correct order of
contain -hydrogen, yet (CH 3 )3 CCOCH 3 does not undergo
reactivity is
HCHO  CH 3 CHO  C6 H5 CHO Aldol condensation due to steric hindrance.
3. (b) 15. (a)
Sol. (CH 3 )2 C = C(CH 3 )2 ⎯⎯→
⎯ 2CH 3 − CO − CH 3
O3 Sol. C 6 H 5 CHO ⎯⎯+
⎯⎯ ⎯→ C 6 H 5 CH (OH )CH 3
CH 3 MgBr

Benzaldehy de H / H 2O 2  Alcohol

4. (c) 16. (a)

Sol. Chloral CCl 3 CHO , has no -hydrogen atom and hence
does not undergo aldol condensation.
Sol. 17. (d)
It is Friedel-Crafts reaction. Acetophenone Sol. Ethanal among the given compounds gives positive
5. (c) iodoform test.
Sol. CH 3 COCl ⎯⎯ ⎯→ CH 3 CHO + HCl
2H
18. (c)
Pd / BaSO 4
OH
|
6. (c) Sol. 2CH 3 CHO ⎯⎯
⎯→ CH 3 − CH − CH 2 CHO
dil.

Sol. NaOH

19. (c)
Sol.
C 2 H 5 CHO + 2 Cu +2 + 5 OH − → Cu 2 O + 3 H 2 O + C 2 H 5 COO −
7. (c) Re d ppt

Sol. CH 3 COCH 3 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ (CH 3 )3 COH CH 3 COCH 3 + 2Cu +2 + 5OH − → No reaction

CH 3 MgI

Acetone tert − Butylalcohol

20. (d)
8. (c) O
O
Sol. || ||
Sol. CH 3 − CH 2 − C − CH 2 − CH 3 do not have CH 3 − C −
Group

21. (b)
O O
9. (c) || ||
Sol. CH 3 − C − CH 3 + 3 I 2 + NaOH → CHI 3 + CH 3 − C − ONa
Sol. dimethyl ketone

22. (c)
Sol. HCHO + HCHO ⎯⎯ ⎯→ HCOOK + CH 3OH
KOH

23. (b)

10. (c)
O
||
Sol. CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − CH 3 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ CH 3 − C − CH 2 CH 3
KMnO 4
Sol.
| Oxidation ethyl methyl ketone
OH This reaction is called as Cannizzaro’s reaction.
2 − Butanol
24. (d)
11. (c) Sol. Presence of –I effect chlorine atom increases the acidic
Sol. CH 3 COCH 3 + CH 3 MgCl → (CH 3 )3 C − OMgCl nature by withdrawing electrons
(X)

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Cl3 CCOOH  Cl2 CHCOOH  Cl − CH 2 − COOH  CH 3 COOH
Trichloroa cetic Dichloro acetic acid M onochloro acetic acid Acetic acid
Sol. : The oxidation of toluene C 6 H 5 CH 3 with chromyl
acid (M ostacidic) (Least acidic)

25. (a) chloride (CrO2 Cl 2 ) in CCl 4 or CS2 to give benzaldehyde

Sol. Methanoic acid resemble with aldehyde due to its is called Etard reaction. In this reaction, the chromyl chloride
structure. So it reduce fehling reagent. first forms a brown complex, which is separated and then
decomposed with H 2 O to give benzaldehyde (C6 H 5 CHO) .
38. (c)
26. (a) Sol.: Aldehydes with no  − H atom undergo Cannizzaro
O reaction on heating with conc. Alkali solution. Hence, only
||
Sol. R − C − R  ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ R − CH 2 OH + R OH
LiAlH 4
C6 H 5 CHO will undergo the reaction.
Two units of alcohols

27. (d) 39. (d)

Br2 / KOH Sol.:
CH 3 CH 2 CONH 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ CH 3 CH 2 NH 2
Hofmann bromamide
Propionami de reaction Ethylamine

28. (d)
Sol. F − CH 2 − COOH  Cl − CH 2 − COOH 
Br − CH 2 − COOH  CH 3 COOH 40. (b)
29. (d) Sol. : Aldehydes containing no  − H atoms on heating with
Sol. Formic acid resemble with aldehyde due to its structure concentrated alkali solution (50%) undergo Cannizzaro’s
so it reduce Tollen’s reagent. reaction. In this reaction one molecule is oxidised at the
O expense of other which is reduced to alcohol.
||
H − C − OH
Aldehydic group

30. (b)
Sol.

31. (d)
Sol. CHF2 − COOH . Difluoroacetic acid is strongest because 41. (d)
presence of two F atoms increases its acidic nature. Sol.: HCHO will be most polar due to lowest electron density
32. (c) on carbon of carbonyl group.
Sol. CH 3 COOH does not give silver mirror test. 42. (c)
33. (a) Sol.: Ketones ar formed by oxidation of secondary alcohols.
Sol. CH 3 − C H − CH 3 ⎯⎯→
[O]
CH 3 − C− CH 3
| ||
OH O

43. (a)
Sol.: Acid chlorides are reduced to aldehydes on reaction with
BaSO 4 and pd. The reaction is called Rosenmund reduction
34. (c)
Sol. Copper Sulphate is reduced to Cu 2O. RCOCl ⎯⎯→
H2
RCHO + HCl
Pd / BaSO 4
35. (d)
44. (c)
Sol. Formaldehyde does not have alpha hydrogen atom.
36. (a) Sol. : Benzaldehyde will not give aldol condensation due to
Sol. absence of  − H atom.
+ 45. (c)
CF3 COOH Sol. :
–I +
CCl3 COOH
–I +
CBr3 COOH
–
CH3 COOH
+I
37. (a)
46. (a) :
Sol.
MSA-CHEMISTRY
47. (d)
Sol. a-hydrogen absent.
48. (d)
Sol.CH3 – CHO (a – Hydrogen is present)
49. (c)
Sol. C – Mg bond
50. (b)
Sol.
O
||
CH3 − C − C2H5 Zn – Hg CH3CH2CH2CH3
2 − Bu tanone HCl Butane
It refers to as Clemensen's reduction

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XII - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : Amines Marks : 25

01) Find the correct decreasing order of their

CH3
boiling points. |
A) Ethyl alcohol > ethane > ethylamine 07) Identify CH3  C  NH2 .
B) Ethane > ethyl alcohol > ethylamine |
C) Ethylamine > ethyl alcohol > ethane
CH3
D) Ethyl alcohol > ethylamine > ethane
A) Primary amine
02) Choose the correct option: A secondary amine B) Puaternary amine
is C) Pertiary amine
A) a compounds with two carbon atoms and an D) Pecondary amine
NH2
group 08) Total ___ tertiary amines are possible having
B) a compound with an NH2 group on carbon molecular formula C4H11N .
atom in number two position A) 1
C) a compound in which hydrogens of NH3 have B) 5
been replaced by two alkyl group C) 2
D) a compounds containing two NH2 groups D) 3

09) In the reaction,

03) _____ isomers of C4H11N are secondary HNO PCI NH
C2H5NH2  2
 A  5

 B 
3
C; what is
amines.
A) 5 the original compound and C?
B) 4 A) They are isomers
C) 3 B) They are different primary amines
D) 2 C) They are same
D) They are homologous
04) What is the IUPAC name of the following
10) Identify incorrect IUPAC name.
CH A) N-(propyl)propan-2-amine
| B) N-ethylcyclohexanamine
compounds CH3CHCH  NH2 ? C) N, N-dimethylehylethanamine
|
D) N-(2-propyl)propan-1-amine
CH3
11) Give the structure of ethyl methyl isopropyl
A) 2-methyl-3-butanamine
amine.
B) 3-methyl-2-butanamine
C) 3-amino-2-methylbutane
D) 3-aminopentane.

05) What ia the IUPAC name for A)

CH3 2 NC CH3 3 ?
A) Dimethyl t-butyl amine
B) N, N-dimethyl-2-methyl-2-propanamine B)
C) N, N-dimethyl-2-methyl-1-propanamine
D) N, N-dimethyl-2-butanamine

06) Find the compounds 'A' and 'B' in the following

C)
reaction.
Alcoholic KCN Na/ethanol
C6H5  CH2  Br   ' A '   'B'
A) C6H5CH2NC,C6H5CH2NHCH3
B) C6H5CH2CN,C6H5CH2NH2 D)
C) C6H5CH2CN,C6H5CH2CH2NH2 12) The IUPAC name of compound when imino
D) C6H5CH2NC,C6H5NHCH3 group is attached to ethyl and n-propyl group is
A) ethyl-1-butanamine
B) ethyl-2-propanamine

MHT-CET
 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

C) ethyl-1-propanamine
D) ethyl isopropylamine

13) ______ has lowest pK b value. B)

A) 4-Nitroaniline
B) 2-Nitroaniline
C) Aniline
D) 4-Methoxyaniline
C)
14) Conisder the reaction,
R
CH3CH2C  N  
 CH3CH2CH2NH2 What is the
reagent R?
A) Ni / H2 D)
B) Na  C2H5OH 20) What is the colour of the compound
C) LiAIH4
D) All of these ?
A) Green
15) Find out N, N-Dimethyl methanamine from the B) Orange
following. C) Red
A)  CH3 2 NH D) Yellow
B)  CH3 3 N 21) What is the IUPAC name of diethylmethyl
C)  CH3 4 NBr amine?
A) Methyl diethanamine
B) N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine
C) Methyl amino propane
D) Amino pentane
D)
22) The secondary amines that are possible for
16) How many hydrogen atoms are required for the molecular formula C4H11N is
reduction of 1-nitropropane to n-propylamine?
A) Two A) 2
B) Three B) 5
C) Six C) 4
D) Four D) 3

17) What is the IUPAC name of 23) If 'A' is C2H5NH2 , 'B' is C2H5 2 NH, 'C' is
 C2H5 3 N then find the correct order of solubility
in water.
? A) A > B > C
A) Ethylbutan-1-amine B) C > B < A
B) Ethylpropanamine C) C > B > A
C) Pentane-3-amine D) B > A > C
D) Hexan-3-amine
24) Aliphatic amines are _____ basic than NH3,
18) Place the given compounds in increasing order but aromatic amines are _____ basic than NH3 .
of solubility in water: C2H5NH2 , C3H7  NH2 , A) more, less
C6H 5NH2. B) none of these
A) C2H5  NH2  C6H5  NH2  C3H7NH2 C) both
D) less, more
B) C2H5  NH2  C3H7NH2  C6H5NH2
C) C3H7  NH2  C6H5NH2  C2H5NH2 25) C3H9N cannot represent which one of the
D) C6H5NH2  C3H7NH2  C2H5NH2 following?
A) 3o amine
19) Find out the structure of 3, 3-Dimethyl butan B) 2o amine
1-amine.
C) 1o amine
D) Quaternary salt

A)

MHT-CET
 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XII - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : Amines Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: D) Ethyl alcohol > ethylamine > ethane ethyl-1-propanamine.

02) Ans: C) a compound in which hydrogens of 13) Ans: D) 4-Methoxyaniline

NH3 have been replaced by two alkyl group
Sol: A secondary amine is a compound in which 14) Ans: D) All of these
hydrogens of NH3 have been replaced by two
alkyl group. 15) Ans: B)  CH3 3 N
Sol:  CH3 3 N
03) Ans: C) 3
16) Ans: C) Six
04) Ans: B) 3-methyl-2-butanamine
17) Ans: D) Hexan-3-amine
05) Ans: B) N,
N-dimethyl-2-methyl-2-propanamine
18) Ans: D) C6H5NH2  C3H7NH2  C2H5NH2
06) Ans: C) C6H5CH2CN,C6H5CH2CH2NH2 Sol: C6H5NH2  C3H7NH2  C2H5NH2
Alc.KCN
Sol: C6H5  CH2  Br  
C6H5  CH2  CN KBr
Benzyl cyanide
Na/C H OH
C6H5  CH2  CN 
2 5

4H   19) Ans: D)
C6 H5  C H2  C H2 N H
2
2 P h e n y l e t h y l a m i n e

07) Ans: A) Primary amine

Sol:
08) Ans: A) 1
20) Ans: B) Orange

Sol: 21) Ans: B) N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine

09) Ans: C) They are same 22) Ans: D) 3

Sol:
HNO PCI
C2H5NH2 
2
 C2H5OH 
5


A
Sol:
NH
C2H5CI 
3
C2H5NH2
C

10) Ans: A) N-(propyl)propan-2-amine

11) Ans: C)
23) Ans: A) A > B > C

24) Ans: A) more, less

Sol:
25) Ans: D) Quaternary salt
12) Ans: C) ethyl-1-propanamine
Sol: The IUPAC name of compound when imino
group is attached to ethyl and n-propyl group is

MHT-CET
 Matrix Science Academy
Amines Level-2

1. Number of isomeric primary amines obtained from C4 H11 N

are (c) (d) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − NH 2
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
Which of the following reactions will not give primary amin
2. Acetamide is treated separately with the following reagents. 13.
Which would give methyl amine (a) CH 3 CONH 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯→
KOH . Br2
(b) CH 3 CN ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
LiAlH 4

(a) PCl5 (b) NaOH + Br2 (c) CH 3 NC ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→

LiAlH 4
(d) CH 3 CONH 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
LiAlH 4

(c) Sodalime (d) Hot conc. H 2 SO 4 14. Which of the following compound is the strongest base
3. The amine formed from an amide by means of bromine and (a) Ammonia (b) Aniline
alkali has (c) Methylamine (d) N-methyl aniline
(a) Same number of C atoms as that of amide 15. Which of the following reacts with NaNO 2 + HCl to give
(b) One less C atom than that of amide phenol
(c) One more C atom than that of amide (a) C 6 H 5 CH 2 NHCH 3 (b) (CH 3 )2 NH
(d) Two more C atoms than that of amide (c) CH 3 NH 2 (d) C 6 H 5 NH 2
Na + C 2 H 5 OH
4. CH 3 CN ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ X
The compound X is 16. In acid medium nitrobenzene is reduced to aniline as shown in
(a) CH 3CONH 2 (b) CH 3CH 2 NH 2 the reaction
C6 H 5 − NO 2 + 6[H ] → C6 H 5 − NH 2 + 2 H 2 O
(c) C2 H6 (d) CH 3 NHCH 3
5. Ethylamine can be prepared by the action of bromine and The reducing agent used in this reaction is …….
caustic potash on (a) LiAlH 4 (b) Sn/HCl
(a) Acetamide (b) Propionamide (c) Na/alcohol (d) H 2 / Ni
(c) Formamide (d) Methyl cyanide Sn + HCl
17. CH 3 NO 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ CH 3 X , the ‘X’ contain
6. Reduction of nitroalkanes yields
(a) − NH 2 (b) − COOH
(a) Acid (b) Alcohol (c) Amine (d) Diazo compounds
7. When methyl iodide is heated with ammonia, the product (c) − CHO (d) (CH 3 CO)2 O
obtained is 18. Which of the following compound is expected to be most basic
(a) Methylamine (a) Aniline (b) Methylamine
(b) Dimethylamine (c) Hydroxylamine (d) Ethylamine
(c) Trimethylamine 19. Which of the following compounds is an amino acid
(d) A mixture of the above three amines O O
|| ||
8. Acetanilide can be prepared from aniline and which of the (a) CH 3 − CH 2 − C − O − NH 4 (b) CH 3 − CH − C − OH
|
following NH 2
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetaldehyde
O O
(c) Acetone (d) Acetic anhydride || ||
9. Which one of the following compound gives a secondary (c) CH 3 − CH 2 − C − NH 2 (d) CH 3 − CH − C − Cl
|
amine on reduction NH 2
(a) Nitromethane (b) Nitrobenzene 20. Aniline when treated with HNO 2 and HCl at 0 o C gives
(c) Methyl isocyanide (d) Methyl cyanide
(a) Phenol (b) Nitrobenzene
10. Which of the following gives RNC, when reacted with CHCl 3
(c) A diazo compound (d) None of these
and KOH
(a) RNH 2 (b) R2 NH (c) R3 N (d) R4 N +Cl − 21. When excess of ethyl iodide is treated with ammonia, the
11. When aniline reacts with NaNO 2 and dil. HCl at 0 o − 5 o C, the product is.
product formed is (a) Ethylamine (b) Diethylamine
(a) Nitroaniline (b) Benzene diazonium chloride (c) Triethylamine (d) Tetraethylammonium iodide.
(c) Benzene (d) Trinitroaniline 22. The correct order of boiling points of the following isomeric
amines is.
C4 H9 NH 2 , (C2 H5 )2 NH, C2 H5 (CH3 )2
12. Starting from propanoic acid, the following reactions were
carried out
(a) C 2 H 5 N(CH 3 )2  (C 2 H 5 )2 NH  C 4 H 9 NH 2
Br2 + KOH
Propanoic acid ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯
SOCl 2
⎯→ Y ⎯⎯
NH 3
⎯⎯ ⎯→ Z

What is the compound Z
(a) CH 3 − CH 2 − Br
(b) (C 2 H 5 )2 NH  C 2 H 5 N(CH 3 )2  C 4 H 9 NH 2
(b) CH 3 − CH 2 − NH 2
(c) C 4 H 9 NH 3  (C 2 H 5 )2 NH  C 2 H 5 N(CH 3 )2
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (d) (C 2 H 5 )2 NH  C 4 H 9 NH 2  C 2 H 5 N(CH 3 )2 (c) C6H5 − NH − C4H9 (d) C6H5 − N(C2H5 )2
23. Choose the incorrect statement. 33. Methylamine reacts with HNO 2 to form
(a) Primary amines show intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
(a) CH3 − O − N = 0 (b) CH 3 − O − CH 3
(b) Tert – butylamine is a primary amine.
(c) Tertiary amines do not show intermolecular hydrogen (c) CH 3OH (d) CH 3 CHO
bonds. 34. The gas evolved when methylamine reacts with nitrous acid is
(d) Isopropylamine is a secondary amine. ___________.
24. Which of the following amines will give carbylamines (a) NH3 (b) N 2 (c) H 2 (d) C 2 H 6
reaction?
(a) (C2 H 5 )3 N (b) (C2 H 5 )2 NH
+
35. The reaction Ar N 2 Cl − ⎯Cu
⎯/ HCl
⎯
⎯→ ArCl + N 2 + CuCl is
(c) C2 H5 NH 2 (d) C3 H 7 NHC 2 H 5 named as ________.
(a) Sandmeyer reaction (b) Gatterrman reaction
25. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of
(c) Claisen reaction (d) Carbylamine reaction
basicity: CH 3 NH 2 , (CH 3 ) 2 NH , NH 3 , C 6 H 5 NH 2
(a) C6 H 5 NH 2  NH 3  (CH3 )2 NH  CH3 NH 2 36. The final product C, obtained in this reaction

(b) CH3 NH 2  (CH3 )2 NH  NH 3  C6 H 5 NH 2

(c) C6 H5 NH 2  NH3  CH3 NH 2  (CH3 )2 NH

(d) (CH3 )2 NH  CH3 NH 2  NH 3  C6 H 5 NH 2

26. Which of the following species are involved in the
carbylamines test?
(i) RNC (ii) CHCl3

(iii) COCl 2 (iv) NaNO2 + HCl

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
27. Which of the following will from isocyanide on reaction with (a) (b)
CHCl3 and KOH?
(a) C6 H 5 NHCH3 (b) CH 3C6 H 4 NH 2

(c) C6 H 5 NHC 4 H 9 (d) C6 H 5 N(C 2 H 5 )2

28. Which of the following is used as hindsberg’s reagent? (c) (d)
(a) C 6 H 5SO 2 Cl (b) C6 H 5SO 3 H 37. The correct order of basicity of amines in water is :
(a) (CH 3 )2 NH  (CH 3 )3 N  CH 3 NH 2
(c) C6 H 5 NHCH3 (d) C 6 H 5 COCH 3
(b) CH 3 NH 2  (CH 3 )2 NH  (CH 3 )3 N
29. Electrophilic substitution of aniline with bromine water at
room temperature gives. (c) (CH 3 )3 N  (CH 3 )2 NH  CH 3 NH 2
(a) 2- bromoaniline (b) 3 – bromoaniline (d) (CH 3 )3 N  CH 3 NH 2  (CH 3 )2 NH
(c) 2, 4, 6 – tribromonaniline (d) 3, 5, 6 - tribromoaniline.
38. Azo dye is prepared by the coupling of phenol and :
30. The most basic amine among the following is. (a) Diazonium chloride (b) o-nitro aniline
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Chlorobenzene
39. The colour of p-amino azobenzene is
(a) Orange (b) Congo red
(c) Bismark brown (d) Indigo
(a) (b) (c) (d) 40. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some
31. The reaction of bezenesulphonyl chloride with ethylamine (a) Dyes (b) Proteins
yields. (c) Pesticides (d) Vitamins
(a) N-ethylbenzenesulphonamide, insoluble in alkali 41. Ortho-Nitrophenol is less soluble in water than p- and m-
(b) N, N-diethylbenzenesulphonamide, soluble in alkali Nitrophenols because :
(c) N, N-diethylbezenesulphonamide, insoluble in alkali. (a) o-Nitrophenol is more volatile steam than those of m- and
(d) N-ethylbenzenesulhonamide, soluble in alkali. p-isomers.
32. Which amine amongst the following will answer positively the (b) o-Nitrophenol shows Intramolecular H-bonding
(c) o-Nitrophenol shows intermolecular H-bonding
carbylamines test (i.e. heating with CHCl3 and KOH)? (d) Melting point of o-Nitrophenol is lower than those of m-
and p-isomers.
(a) C6H5 − NH − CH3 (b) 42. C3 H 9 N cannot represent.
o o
(a) 1 amine (b) 2 amine
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (c) 3o amine (d) Quaternary ammonium salt
43. Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel–phthalimide
synthesis is.
(a) Aniline (b) Benzyl amine
(c) Methyl amine (d) iso – butylamine
44. Which of the following can exist as zwitter ion?
(a) P – Aminoacetophenone (b) Sulphanilic acid
(c) P – Nitroaminobenzene (d) P – Methoxyphenol
45. Which of the following has highest pK b value?
(a) (CH 3 )3 CNH 2 (b) NH 3
(c) (CH3 )2 NH (d) CH3 NH 2
46. The strongest base among the following is
(a) C6H5 NH2 (b) p − NH2C6H4 NH2
(c) m − NO2C6H4 NH2 (d) C6 H5CH2 NH2
47. The action of nitrous acid on aliphatic primary amine gives.
(a) Secondary amine (b) Nitroalkane
(c) Alcohol (d) Alkyl nitrite
48. The coupling reaction of aryldiazonium chloride with aniline
are carried out in
(a) Strongly acidic medium (b) Strongly basic medium
(c) Mild basic medium (d) Mild acidic medium
49. Which of the following is a 3º amine?
(a) 1-Methylcyclohexylamine (b) Triethylamine
(c) Tert-Butylamine (d) N-Methylaniline
50. Reduction of aromatic nitro compounds using Fe and HCl
gives
(a) Aromatic oxime (b) Aromatic hydrocarbon
(c) Aromatic primary amine (d) Aromatic amide

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Amines Key

1. (b) CH 3 CH 2 CONH 2 + Br2 / NaOH → CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 + CO 2

Ethyl amine
Sol. Four 1 o amines are possible
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2 , (CH 3 )2 CHCH 2 NH 2 , 13. (c)
LiAlH
CH 3 CH (NH 2 )CH 2 CH 3 , (CH 3 )3 CNH 2 Sol. CH 3 − N  C ⎯⎯⎯⎯
4
→ CH 3 − NH − CH 3
sec. amine
2. (b) 14. (c)
Sol. CH 3 CONH 2 + Br2 + 4 NaOH → Sol. Methyl amine is the strongest base.
Acetamide

CH 3 NH 2 + Na 2 CO 3 + 2 NaBr + 2 H 2 O 15. (d)

NaNO 3
M ethylamine Sol. C6 H 5 NH 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ C 6 H 5 N 2 Cl ⎯⎯2⎯→
H O
HCl
3. (b)
C6 H 5 OH + N 2 + HCl
NaOH / Br
Sol. CH 3 − CO − NH 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ CH 3 − NH 2
Hofmann' s bromamide (1c)
(2c) 16. (b)
4. (b) Sn + HCl
Na + C 2 H 5 OH Sol. C6 H 5 NO 2 + 6 H ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C6 H 5 − NH 2 + 2 H 2 O
Sol. CH 3 C  N + 4[H ] ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ CH 3 CH 2 NH 2
Reduction 17. (a)
5. (b) Sn
Sol. CH 3 NO 2 + 6 H ⎯⎯→
⎯ CH 3 NH 2 + 2 H 2 O
Sol. CH 3 − CH 2 − CO − NH 2 + Br2 + 4 KOH → HCl
Propionami de
18. (d)
CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 + K 2 CO 3 + 2 KBr + 2 H 2 O Sol. Due to +ve I.E. of alkyl group, N-atom of amines
6. (c) acquires patrial –ve charge and thus electron pair is easily
Sol. CH 3 − CH 2 − NO 2 + 6 [H ] ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
Sn / HCl donated.
Nitro ethane 19. (b)
CH 3 − CH 2 − NH 2 + 2 H 2 O Sol. CH 3 − C H − COOH
|
Ethyl amine
NH 2
7. (d)
NH CH I
The compounds in which both amino (− NH 2 ) as well as acidic
CH 3 I ⎯⎯⎯ 3
→ CH 3 NH 2 ⎯⎯⎯
3
→ (CH 3 )2 NH ⎯⎯
CH 3 I
⎯⎯→ (CH 3 ) 3 N

Sol. M ethylamine Dimethyl amine Trimetyhl amine (–COOH) group is present is called amino acid.
8. (d) 20. (c)
Sol. Sol.

9. (c)

Sol. CH 3 − N = C + 4 [H] ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ CH 3 − NH − CH 3
Reduction
21. (d)
+ −
Sol. : NH 3 + C 2 H 5 I ⎯
⎯→ [(C 2 H 5 ) 4 N ]I
o
2 amine
( Excess) Quaternarysalt
10. (a)
Sol. R − NH 2 + CHCl 3 + 3KOH → R − NC + 3KCl + 3HO 22. (c)
1o − amine Sol. : The boiling point of amines vary in the order of primary
11. (b) > secondary > tertiary.
Sol. 23. (d)
Sol. : Isopropylamien is a primary amine.

24. (c)
Sol. : Only primary amines will give carbylamines reaction .
12. (b) 25. (c)
Sol. CH 3 CH 2 COOH ⎯⎯⎯
⎯2 SOCl
→ CH 3 CH 2 COCl + SO 2 + HCl Sol. : C6H5 NH2  NH3  CH3 NH2  (CH3 )2 NH

CH 3 CH 2 COCl + NH 3 → CH 3 CH 2 CONH 2 + HCl 26. (b)

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Sol. : 37. (a)
 Sol. Basicity of amines increase with increase in number of
RNH 2 + CHCl 3 + 3KOH ⎯
⎯→ RNC + 3KCl + 3H 2O
−CH 3 groups (or any group which cause +I effect), due to
only RNC and CHCl3 are involved in carbylamine reaction. increase in electron density on N atom. As a rule, the basicity
27. (b) of t-amine should be more than that of s-amine, but actually it
Sol. : Only primary amine will give positive is found to be lesser than s-amines. This is due to stearic
carbylamine reaction. hinderence of bulkier alkyl groups, which decreases the
28. (a) availability of lone pair of electron on the N atom of the
Sol. : Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C 6 H 5SO 2 Cl ) acts as amino group. Hence the correct order of basicity is :
Hinsberg’s reagent. (CH 3 )2 NH  (CH 3 )3 N  CH 3 NH 2
29. (c) 38. (a)
Sol.: Sol. Azo dye is prepared by the coupling of phenol and
diazonium chloride.

30. (c)
Sol. : Only − CH3 group is electron donating group hence it
increases the electron density on nitrogen making it most basic.
31. (d)
Sol. :

39. (a)
Sol.

32. (b) 40. (a)

Sol. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some dyes.
Sol. : Only 1º amines (i.e. in the present
case) give positive carbylamine reaction.
33. (c)
Sol. :

41. (b)
Sol.

34. (b)
Sol. :

intra-molecular H-bonding
42. (d)
35. (b) Sol. : Quaternary ammonium salt, as it carries a positive charge
Sol. : Gatterrman reaction +
−
over nitrogen e.g. (CH 3 ) 4 N Cl
36. (d) 43. (a)
Sol. Sol. : only pure 1º amines can be prepared by Gabriel
synthesis. aniline can not be prepared by this method because
aryl halides (C6 H5Cl) or (C6 H5 Br) do not undergo
nucleophilic substitution (ie., cleavage of C-X bond in
haloarene is quite difficult) with potassium phthalimide under
ordinary condition to given N-phenyl phthalimide.
MSA-CHEMISTRY
44. (b)
Sol.:

45. (b)
Sol.: Higher the basicity, lower is the pK b value. Since NH 3

is the weakest base, hence it has highest pK b value.

46. (d)
Sol. : C6 H5CH2 NH2 is the strongest base since the lone pair
on nitrogen is not involved in any conjugation
47. (c)
Sol. : Alcohol
48. (c)
Sol. : Reaction is done in mild basic conditions
49. (b)
Sol.:

50. (c)
Sol. :

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Biomolecules

1. Amide group is present in (a) Trisaccharide (b) Monosaccharide

(a) Lipids (b) Carbohydrates (c) Disaccharide (d) None of these
(c) Amino acids (d) Proteins 15. On heating glucose with Fehling's solution we get a precipitate
2. General formula for carbohydrates is whose colour is
(a) Cn H 2nO2n + 2 (b) Cx (H 2O)2 x (a) Yellow (b) Red (c) Black (d) White
(c) Cx (H 2O)y (d) None of these
16. Which among the following is the simplest sugar
3. Glucose gives silver mirror with Tollen's reagent. It shows the (a) Glucose (b) Cellulose (c) Starch (d) Glycogen
presence of 17. On hydrolysis, which produces only glucose
(a) An acidic group (b) An alcoholic group (a) Galactose (b) Maltose (c) Sucrose (d) None
(c) A ketonic group (d) An aldehydic group 18. The proteins which are insoluble in water are
4. When sucrose is heated with conc. HNO 3 the product is (a) Fibrous proteins (b) Globular proteins
(a) Sucrose nitrate (b) Formic acid (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Citric acid 19. Amino acids are
5. Amylopectin is (a) Liquids
(a) Water soluble (b) Volatile solids
(b) Water insoluble (c) Non-volatile crystalline compounds
(c) Forms colloidal solution with water (d) Mixture of amines and acids
(d) Both (b) and (c) 20. Proteins are hydrolysed by enzymes into
6. Maltose contains how many oxygen atoms (a) Dicarboxylic acids (b) Hydroxy acids
(a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 11 (b) 22 (c) Amino acids (d) Aromatic acids
7. Sucrose is 21. Proteins are built up of
(a) A reducing sugar (b) Not a reducing sugar (a) Dicarboxylic acids (b) Amino acids
(c) Partial reducing sugar (d) Mixed sugar (c) Alcohols (d) Hydroxy acids
8. Canesugar on hydrolysis gives 22. Which one of the following is an amino acid
(a) Glucose and maltose (b) Glucose and lactose (a) CH 3CONH 2 (b) CH 3CONHCH 3
(c) Glucose and fructose (d) Only glucose (c) CH 3 NHCHO (d) NH 2CH 2 .COOH
9. A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed to simpler forms is
called 23. Amino acids usually exist in the form of Zwitter ions. This
means that it consists of
(a) Disaccharide (b) Monosaccharide
(a) The basic group –NH 2 and the acidic group −COOH
(c) Polysaccharide (d) Trisaccharide
10. An example of a disaccharide made up of two units of the same (b) The basic group − NH 3+ and the acidic group −CO 2
monosaccharides is (c) The basic group − CO 2− and the acidic group NH 3+
(a) Sucrose (b) Maltose (c) Lactose (d) None of these
11. Which of the following pentoses will be optically active (d) No acidic or basic group
CHO CHO CHO 24. The number of essential amino acids in man is
| | |
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 18 (d) 20
HCOH HCOH HCOH
25. Which of the following is not a function of proteins
(a) Nails formation (b) Skin formation
| | |
(c) Muscle formation (d) Providing energy for metabolism
HOCH HCOH HCOH
26. Which of the following is used in our body as a fuel for muscles
| | |
and nerves and to build and repair body tissues?
HCOH HOCH HCOH (a) Cane sugar (b) Fructose (c) Proteins (d) Glucose
| | | 27. The letter D in D-glucose signifies
CH 2 OH CH 2 OH CH 2 OH (a) Dextro rotator (b) Mode of synthesis
I II III (c) Its configuration (d) Its diamagnetic nature
(a) All (b) II and III (c) I (d) II 28. The sugar present in DNA is :
(a) Glucose (b) Deoxyribose (c) Ribose (d) Fructose
12. The disaccharide present in milk is 29. Glycosidic linkage is an
(a) Maltose (b) Lactose (c) Sucrose (d) Cellobiose (a) Amide linkage (b) Ester linkage
13. Carbohydrates are used by body mainly
(c) Ether linkage (d) Acetyl linkage
(a) For obtaining vitamins (b) As source of energy
30. What is the basic formula is starch?
(c) For all its developmental needs (d) For building muscles
(a) (C6 H12 O6 ) n (b) (C6 H10O5 ) n
14. Raffinose is
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (c) C12H22O11 (d) (C6 H12O4 ) n (a) Br2 / H 2O (b) Nitric acid
(c) Alkaline solutions of iodine (d) Ammonium hydroxide
31. What are the hydrolysis products of sucrose? 45. Amino acids are classified as acidic, basic or neutral depending
(a) Fructose + Fructose (b) Glucose + Glucose upon the relative number of amino and carboxyl group in their
(c) Glucose + Galactose (d) Glucose + Fructose molecules. Which of the following are acidic?
32. Glucose ⎯Br ⎯ ⎯⎯→ Product is
2 water (i) (CH 3 ) 2 CH − CH − COOH
|
(a) Hexanoic acid (b) Gluconic acid NH 2

(c) Sacccharic acid (d) Bromohexane (ii) HOOC − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH − COOH

33. How many C-atoms are there in a pyranose ring? |
NH 2
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
34. Which of the amino acids can be synthesized in the body? (iii) H 2 N − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − COOH
(a) Alanine (b) Lysine (c) Valine (d) Histidine
(iv) HOOC − CH 2 − CH − COOH
35. Proteins are condensations polymers of |
(a)  − amino acids (b) − amino acid NH 2

(c)  − hydroxyl acids (d)  − hydroxyl acids (a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (iv)
36. Keratin, a structural protein is present in (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
(a) Hair (b) Wool (c) Silk (d) All of these 46. Which compound can exist in a dipolar (zwitter ion) structure?
37. Nucleic acids are the polymers of …………. . (a) C6 H5 CH 2 CH( N = CH 2 )COOH
(a) Nuclesides (b) Nucleoties (c) Bases (d) Sugars
(b) (CH 3 ) 2 CHCH ( NH 2 )COOH
38. The general formula of carbohydrates is
(a) Cn H 2n+1O (b) Cn H 2n O (c) C x (H 2 O) y (d) Cn (H2O)2n (c) C6 H5CONHCH2 COOH
39. The letter ‘D’ in carbohydrates signifies (d) HOOCCH 2 CH 2 COCOOH
(a) Dextrorotatory (b) Configurations
(c) Diamagnetic nature (d) Made of synthesis
47. Amide group is present in
40. Amino acid generally exists in the form of Zwitter ions. This (a) Lipids (b) Carbohydrates
means they contains
(c) Amino acids (d) Proteins
(a) Basic − NH 2 group and acidic – COOH group 48. Glucose gives silver mirror with Tollen's reagent. It shows the
+ presence of
−
(b) The basic − N H 3 group and acidic − COO Group (a) An acidic group (b) An alcoholic group
(c) Basic − NH 2 and acidic − H group
+ (c) A ketonic group (d) An aldehydic group
49. When sucrose is heated with conc. HNO 3 the product is
+
(d) Basic − COO − group and acidic − N H 3 group. (a) Sucrose nitrate (b) Formic acid
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Citric acid
41. The two functional groups present in a typical carbohydrate are 50. Maltose contains how many oxygen atoms
: (a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 11 (b) 22
(a) –CHO and –COOH (b) >C=O and –OH
(c) –OH and –CHO (d) –OH and –COOH
42. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
NH2

H2N – C – NH (CH2)3 – CH – COOH

(a) NH
HOH2C – CH – NH2
(b) COOH
NH2
CH2 – CH2 – CH – COOH

(c) COOH
NH2

(d) HOOC – CH2 – CH – COOH

43. On oxidations with a mild oxidizing agent like Br2 / H2O, the
glucose is oxidized to
(a) Saccharic acid (b) Glucaric acid
(c) Gluconic acid (d) Valeric acid
44. Which reagent is used to convert glucose into saccharic acid ?

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Biomolecules Answers

1. (d) Sol. Protein ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→

Enzyme
Amino acid
(Acidic medium in stomach)
Sol. In proteins amide group is present
(− NH − C H − C − NH − C H − C −)n 21. (b)
| || | ||
R Sol. Proteins are polymers of amino acids.
R
O  O
Amino or Amino acid → Dipeptide → Polypeptide → Protein.
peptide bond
22. (d)
2. (c)
Sol. Glycine → NH 2 − CH 2 − COOH .
Sol. Carbohydrates are hydrates of carbon. Their general
formula is C x (H 2 O)y . 23. (c)
Sol. Zwitter ion is a dipolar ion containing both a positive and
3. (d)
negative charge in the following form
Sol. Glucose + Tollen’s reagent → Gluconic acid + Ag-
NH 3+
mirror. |
4. (c) R − CH − COO −
Zwitter ion
Sol. Sucrose ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯→ Oxalic acid.
conc. HNO3
The basic group CO 2− and acidic group NH 3+ .
5. (b)
Sol. Amylopectin is not soluble in water. 24. (b)
6. (c) Sol. The amino acids which can’t be synthesised by human
Sol. C12 H 22 O11 body so they are essential to take from diet. They are 10 in
M altose
number.
7. (b) 25. (d)
Sol. Sucrose is not a reducing sugar. Sol. Protein is a body building substance not energy
8. (c) Giving substance.
Sol. C12 H 22 O11 + H 2 O → C 6 H 12 O 6 + C 6 H 12 O 6 26. (c)
Cane sugar Glucose Fructose
Sol. Protein is used in our body as a fuel for muscles and
9. (b)
Sol. Monosaccharide cannot be hydrolysed to simple forms. nerves and to build and repair body tissues.
10. (b) 27. (c)
Sol. D is relative configuration, assigned to
Sol. Maltose ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯→ glucose + glucose.
Hydrolysis
D – glyceraldehyde.
M altase

11. (a) 28. (b)

Sol. All are optically active. Sol. Deoxyribose is present in DNA and Ribose is present in
RNA.
12. (b) 29. (c)
Sol. Lactose is present in milk (Glucose + Galactose). Sol.
13. (b)
Sol. Carbohydrates are rich source of energy.
14. (a)
Sol. Raffinose (C18 H 32 O16 ) is a trisaccharide
C 18 H 32 O 16 + H 2 O → C 6 H 12 O 6 + C 6 H 12 O 6 + C 6 H 12 O 6
D glucose D fructose D mannose 30. (b)
15. (b) Sol. The formula of starch is (C6 H10 O5 ) n
Sol. Glucose + Fehling solution → Gluconic acid + Cu 2 O
(Red ppt)
31. (d)
Sol.
16. (a)
Sol. Glucose is a monosaccharide while others are C12 H 22 O11 + H 2 O ⎯Invertase
⎯⎯ ⎯→ C 6 H12 O 6 + C 6 H12 O 6
Sucrose Glu cos e Fructose
polysaccharide. So glucose is the simplest sugar.
32. (b)
17. (b)
Sol. C12 H 22 O11 + H 2 O ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯→ C 6 H 12 O6 + C 6 H 12 O6 CHO COOH
Hydrolysis
M altose Glucose Glucose
| |
18. (a)
Sol. Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water. Sol. (CHON) 4 ⎯⎯ ⎯→ (CHOH) 4
⎯
Br 2 water

19. (c) | |
Sol. Amino acids are non volatile crystalline compound.
CH 2 OH CH 2 OH
20. (c) Gluconic acid

MSA-CHEMISTRY
33. (c)
Sol. Name is derived from pyran. 47. (d)
Sol. In proteins amide group is present
(− NH − C H − C − NH − C H − C −)
A six-membered ring, containing 5 – C atoms and 1 | || | ||
n
R O
 R  O
oxygen atom. Amino or
peptide bond
34. (a)
Sol. Except alanine, all amino acids are essential amino acids 48. (d)
which cannot be synthesized in the body and must be obtained Sol. Glucose + Tollen’s reagent → Gluconic acid + Ag-
through diet. mirror.
35. (a) 49. (c)
Sol.  − amino acids Sol. Sucrose ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯→ Oxalic acid.
conc. HNO3

36. (d) 50. (c)

Sol. Keratin is a fibrous protein present in hair, wool, silk and Sol. C12 H 22 O11
M altose
muscles.
37. (b)
Sol. Nucleic acids are long chain polymers of nucleotides
hence, are also called polynucleotides.
38. (c)
Sol. The general formula of carbohydrates is C x ( H 2 O) y ,
where x and y are integers.
39. (b)
Sol. The letter ‘D’ or ‘L’ before the name of any compound
indicate the relative configurations of a particular
stereoisomer.
40. (d)
Sol. Zwitter ion contains both +ve and –ve charge. Proton of –
COOH group is transferred to the − NH 2 group. − NH 3+
group is acidic since it can donate a proton and − COO − group
is basic since it can accept a proton.

41. (c)
Sol. In a typical carbohydrate –CHO and –OH groups are
present.
42. (a)
Sol. Since in (A) the number of amino groups is more than that
of carboxylic groups. Therefore it is basic.
43. (c)
Sol. CH 2 OH(CHOH) 4 CHO ⎯⎯ ⎯
⎯ →
2 2 Br / H O
[O]

CH 2 OH(CHOH) 4 .COOH
Gluconic acid

44. (b)
Sol. With strong oxidizing agent like concentrated nitric acid,
the primary alcoholic group is oxidized to carboxyl group to
form saccharic acid.
CH 2 OH(CHOH) 4 CHO + 3[O] ⎯NHO
⎯⎯3 →
Oxidation

HOOC (CHOH) 4 COOH

Saccharicacid

45. (a)
Sol. Amino acid which contain one - NH 2 group and
two –COOH group are acidic in nature.
46. (b)
Sol.  − Amino acids exist as zwitter ion.
(CH 3 ) 2 CH − CH− COOH → (CH 3 ) 2 CH − CH − COO −
| |
NH 2 + NH 3
Zwitter ion

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Polymer Chemistry Level-1

1. ‘Cis-1, 4-polyisoprene’ is (c) CH 3 − Cl (d) CH 3 − CHCl 2

(a) Thermoplastic (b) Thermosetting plastic 19. The monomers used in the production of nylon-66 are
(c) Elastic (rubber) (d) Resin (a) Hexamethylene diamine and ethylene glycol
2. Among the following a natural polymer is (b) Adipic acid and ethylene glycol
(a) Cellulose (b) PVC (c) Teflon (d) Polyethylene
(c) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
3. Which of the following is a natural polymer
(d) Dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol
(a) Polyester (b) Glyptal (c) Starch (d) Nylon-6
20. Teflon is a polymer of the monomer or Teflon is obtained by
4. Which is a naturally occuring polymer
the polymerisation of
(a) Polythene (b) PVC (c) Acetic acid (d) Protein (a) Monofluoroethene (b) Difluoroethenen
5. Which of the following polymer is an example of fibre
(c) Trifluoroethene (d) Tetrafluoroethene
(a) Silk (b) Dacron (c) Nylon-66 (d) All of these
21. Which polymer is formed by chloroethene
6. Natural rubber is which type of polymer
(a) Teflon (b) Polyethene (c) PVC (d) Nylon
(a) Condensation polymer (b) Addition polymer
22. The compound used in the manufacture of terylene is
(c) Co-ordination polymer (d) None of these (a) Ethylene (b) Vinyl chloride
7. Polyethylene is
(c) Ethylene glycol (d) Adipic acid
(a) Random copolymer (b) Homo polymer
23. Discovery of 'nylon' is associated with
(c) Alternate copolymer (d) Crosslinked copolymer
(a) Newyork and London (b) Newyork and Longuet
8. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer
(c) Nyholm and London (d) None of these
(a) Cellulose (b) Polythene
24. Triethyl aluminium titanium chloride used in plastic industry
(c) Polyvinyl chloride (d) Nylon-6 is a
9. Polythene is (a) Vulcaniser (b) Plasticiser
(a) Thermoplastic (b) Thermosetting
(c) Ziegler-Natta catalyst (d) Telomer
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 25. Neoprene, a synthetic rubber contains which of the following
10. Bakelites are element besides C and H
(a) Rubber (b) Rayon (c) Resins (d) Plasticisers (a) N (b) O (c) Cl (d) F
11. Which of the following is synthetic rubber
(a) Buna-S (b) Neoprene
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
12. Which of the following is not an example of natural polymer
(a) Wool (b) Silk (c) Leather (d) Nylon
13. Nylon-66 is a
(a) Natural polymer (b) Condensation polymer
(c) Addition polymer (d) Substitution polymer
14. Which of the following is not a natural polymer
(a) Cellulose (b) Protein
(c) PVC (d) Nucleic acid
15. When condensation product of hexamethylenediamine and
adipic acid is heated to 553 K (80 o C) in an atmosphere of
nitrogen for about 4-5 hours, the product obtained is
(a) Solid polymer of nylon 66
(b) Liquid polymer of nylon 66
(c) Gaseous polymer of nylon 66
(d) Liquid polymer of nylon 6
16. Which of the following can be polymerised to polythene
(a) Ethylene (b) Ethylene chlorohydrins
(c) Ethyl acetate (d) Ethylmethyl ketone
17. Polypropylene can be obtained by polymerisation of
(a) CH  CH (b) CH 2 = CH 2
(c) CH 3 − CH = CH 2 (d) CH 3 − C  CH
18. PVC is obtained by polymerization of
(a) CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − Cl (b) CH 2 = CH − Cl

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Polymer Answers

1. (c) nHOOC − (CH 2 )4 − COOH ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯→

Polymerisa tion
− nH 2 O
Sol. Natural rubber is the only addition polymer of nature and
is known as Cis − 1, 4 − polyisoprene. [− HN − (CH 2 )6 − NHCO − (CH 2 )4 − CO −]n
Nylon

2. (a) 16. (a)

Sol. It is present in the cell wall of plant. Sol. n CH 2 = CH 2 → (−CH 2 − CH 2 −)n
Ethylene Polythene
3. (c)
Sol. Starch is a natural polymer and other are synthetic. 17. (c)
4. (d) Sol. nCH 3 – CH = CH 2 → (− CH 2 − CH −)n
Sol. Protein is a natural polymer of  − amino acids. Propene |
CH 3
5. (d) Polypropylene
Sol. Silk is protein fibre. Dacron is polyester fibre and 18. (b)
Nylon-66 is polyamide fibre. Sol. n(CH 2 = CH − Cl) → (−CH 2 − CH −)n
|
6. (b) Vinyl chloride
Cl
Sol. Natural rubber is addition polymer of isoprene ( PVC )

(2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene) 19. (c)

Sol. Adipic acid (HOOC − (CH 2 )4 − COOH ) and
Hexamethylene diamine (NH 2 − (CH 2 )6 − NH 2 )
20. (d)
Sol. Tetrafluoroethene (CF2 = CF2 ).
21. (c)
7. (b) Sol. Generally chloroethene (vinyl chloride) formed PVC
Sol. Polyethylene is a homopolymer polyvinyle chloride.
n CH 2 = CH 2 →(−CH 2 − CH 2 )n 22. (c)
8. (a) Sol. Terylene is a polymer of ethylene glycol and terephthalic
Sol. Cellulose is the natural fibre which are acid.
biodegradable polymer rest are synthetic polymer which are 23. (a)
Sol. Nylon was simultaneously discovered in New york and
not biodegradable.
9. (a) London.
Sol. Thermoplastic are those which becomes soft on heating 24. (c)
Sol. Ziegler-Natta catalyst (C2 H 5 )3 Al + TiCl4
and can be remoulded again.
10. (c) 25. (c)
Sol. Resins are amorphous organic solids or semisolids which Sol.
usually have a typical lustre and are often transparent or n(CH 2 = C − CH = CH 2 ) →
|
 
translucent. Cl  
11. (c)
Chloropren e  CH 2 − C = CH − CH 2 
 | 
Sol. Buna-S and Neoprene both are synthetic rubber.  
 Cl n
12. (d) Neoprene

Sol. Nylon is a synthetic polymer.

13. (b)
Sol. Nylon-66 is manufactured by the condensation
polymerization of adipic acid and hexamethy lenediamine
with the lose of H 2O as steam.
14. (c)
Sol. PVC is a synthetic polymer made by vinylchloride.
15. (b)
Sol. The condensation polymerisation of hexamethylene
diamine and adipic acid is done in solution form by interface
technique. In this liquid nylon polymer is obtained.
n . H 2 N − (CH 2 )6 − NH 2

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Polymer Chemistry

1. Which of the following is fully fluorinated polymer 18. Which of the following is a biodegradable synthetic polymer?
(a) PVC (b) Thiokol (c) Teflon (d) Neoprene (a) Aliphatic polyesters (b) PHBV
2. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with (c) Nylon – 2- nylon -6 (d) All of these
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3 COCH3 19. The monomers of biodegradable polymer, nylon 2-nylon 6 are
(c) HCHO (d) (CH2OH)2 (a) Glycine + adipic acid (b) Glycol + phthalic acid
(c) Phenol + urea (d) Glycine + amino caproic acid
3. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of :
20. Which of the following polymers, need atleast one diene
(a) H2C = CH - CH = CH2 and H5C6 - CH = CH2 monomer for their preparation ?
(b) H2C = CH - CN and H2C = CH - CH = CH2 (a) Dacron (b) Novolac (c) Neoprene (d) Teflon

(c) H2C = CH - CN and H2C = CH - 21. The process of vulcanisation makes rubber
(d) H2C = CH - CH2 and H2C = CH - CH = CH2 (a) Soluble in water (b) Elastic (c) Hard (d) Soft
22. Orlon is a polymer of
4. Nylon -66 is made by using
(a) Styrene (b) Tetrafluoro ethylene
(a) Phenol (b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Vinyl chloride (d) Acrylonitrile
(c) Adipic acid (d) Succinic acid
23. Caprolactam is the monomer of
5. Polymer which has amide linkage is
(a) Nylon-6 (b) Glyptal (c) P.T.F.E. (d) Melamine
(a) Nylon -66 (b) Terylene (c) Teflon (d) Bakelite
24. Neoprene is a polymer of
6. Ziegler-Natta catalyst is (a) Propene (b) Vinyl chloride
(a) K[PtCl3(C2 H4)] (b) (Ph 3 P)3RhCl
(c) Chloroprene (d) Butadiene
(c) Al2(C2H5)6 + TiCl4 (d) Fe(C5H5)2 25. Which one of the following in used to make 'non-stick'
7. Bakelite is an example of cookware
(a) Elastomer (b) Fibre (a) PVC (b) Polystyrene
(c) Thermoplastic (d) Thermosetting (c) Polyethylene terephthalate (d) Polytetrafluoroethylene
8. The S in buna –S refers to 26. Nylone 66 is
(a) Sulphur (b) Styrene (c) Sodium (d) Salicylate (a) Polyamide (b) Polyester (c) Polystyrene (d) Polyvinyl
9. Heating rubber with sulphur is known as 27. Isoprene is a valuable substance for making
(a) Galvanisation (b) Bessemerisation (a) Propene (b) Liquid fuel (c) Synthetic rubber (d) Petrol
(c) Vulcanisation (d) Sulphonation 28. Teflon is a polymer of
10. Dacron is an example of (a) Tetrafluoro ethane (b) Tetrafluro propene
(a) Polyamides (b) Polypropenes (c) Difluorodichloro ethane (d) Difluoro ethane
(c) Polyacrylonitrile (d) Polyesters (e) Trifluoro ethane
11. Which of the following is a homopolymer? 29. In elastomer, intermolecular forces are
(a) Bakelite (b) Nylon 6,6 (c) Neoprene (d) Buna-S (a) Nil (b) Weak (c) Strong (d) Very strong
12. Synthetic polymer prepared by using caprolactam is known as 30. Which of the following polymer has ester linkage
(a) Terylene (b) Teflon (c) Nylon-6 (d) Neoprene (a) Nylon-66 (b) PVC (c) Terylene (d) SBR
13. Polymer which has amide linkage is 31. Nylon threads are made up of
(a) Nylon -6,6 (b) Terylene (c) Teflon (d) Bakelite (a) Polyvinyl polymer (b) Polyester polymer
14. The commercial name of polyacrylonitrile is (c) Polyamide polymer (d) Polyethylene polymer
(a) Dacron (b) Orlon (acrilan) (c) PVC (d) Bakelite. 32. Which of the following is a polyamide?
15. Which of the following polymers does not involve cross (a) Bakelite (b) Terylene (c) Nylon-66 (d) Teflon
linkages?
(a) Vulcanised rubber (b) Bakelite 33. Which of the following contains isoprene unit?
(c) Melamine (d) Teflon (a) Natural rubber (b) Polyethylene
16. Composition of Ziegler-Natta catalyst is (c) Nylon – 66 (d) Dacron
(a) (Et 3 )3 Al.TiCl 2 (b) (Me)3 Al.TiCl 2 34. Which of the following is not true for thermoplastic polymers?
(a) Thermoplastic are linear polymers.
(c) (Et)3 Al.TiCl 4 (d) ( Et ) 3 Al.PtCl 4 (b) They soften and melt on heating
17. In vulcanizations of rubber (c) Molten polymer can be remoulded into any shape.
(a) Sulphur reacts to form a new compound (d) They have cross- linkages which break on heating.
(b) Sulphur cross-links are introduced 35. Which of the following is not a characteristic of thermosetting
(c) Sulphur forms a very thin protective layer over rubber polymers ?
(d) All statement are correct (a) Linear of slightly branched long chain polymers.
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (b) Heavily branched and cross- linked polymers. (a) 3 – hydroxybutanoic acid + 3- hydroxypentanoic acid
(c) Become infusible on moulding (b) 2 – hydroxybutanoic acid + 2- hydroxypropanoic acid
(d) Cannot be remoulded or reused on heating (c) 3- chlorobutanoic acid + 3 – chloropentanoic acid.
36. Which of the following are thermoplastic polymers.? (d) 2- chlorobutanoic acid + 3- methylpentanoic acid.
(a) Polythene, urea-formaldehyde, polyvinyls. 44. The correct structure of monomers of buna-S is
(b) Bakelite, polythene, polystyrene. (a)
(c) Polythene, polystyrene, polyvinyls
(d) Urea-formaldehyde, polystyrene, Bakelite
37. Nylon 6, 6 is obtained by condensation polymerization of.
(a) Adipic acid and ethylene glycol
(b) CH 3 − CH − CH = CH 2 + CH 2 = CH − CN
(b) Adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine |
CH3
(c) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol.
(d) Adipic acid and phenol. (c)
38. Natural rubber is a polymer of
(a) 1,1 – dimethylbutadiene (b) 2, - methyl -1, 3 – butadiene
(c) 2- chlorobuta – 1, 3- diene(d) 2- chlorobut -2-ene.
39. Which of the following represent chloroprene, the monomer of (d)
neoprene?
(a) CH 2 = CH − CH− = CH 2Cl
(b) CH 2 = C − CH = CHCl
|
CH3

(c) CH 2 = C− CH = CH 2 45. Match the column I with Column II and mark the appropriate
|
Cl choice.
(d) CH 2 = C − C CH = CH 2 Column I Column II
| |
CH3 Cl (A) PVC (i) Rubber
40. Match the polymers given in column I with the monomers in (B) Condensation polymer (ii) Thermoplastic
column II and mark the appropriate choice. (C) Polysaccharide (iii) Dacron
Column I Column II (D) Elastomer (iv) Natural polymer
(A) (i) Ethylene glycol (a) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
H H O
| | ||
−( N− (CH 2 ) 6 − N− C − (CH 2 ) 4 − C−) +terephthalic acid
(b) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (iii)
(c) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii)
(B) O H (ii) Urea+ formaldehyde
|| | (d) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii)
−( C− (CH 2 ) 5 − N−
) 46. Match the column I with Column II and mark the appropriate
choice.
(C) (iii) Hexam
Ethylenediamine Column I Column II
+ adipic acid (A) Buna-S (i) Thermosetting
(D) −( NH − CO − NH − (CH2 −) (iv) Caprolactam
(B) Polyamides (ii) Fibres
n
(C) Polyvinyls (iii) Elastomers
(a) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv) (D) Urea-formaldehyde (iv) Thermoplastic
(b) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii) (a) (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii)
(c) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv) (b) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)
(d) (A) → (iv), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (i) (c) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
41. Which of the following sets contains only addition (d) (A) → (i), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii)
homopolymers ? 47. Match the column I With column II and mark the appropriate
(a) Polythen, natural rubber, cellulose choice.
(b) Nylon, polyester, melamine resin Column I Column II
(c) Teflon, Bakelite, orlon (A) Natural polymer (i) Rayon
(d) Neoprene, PVC, polythene (B) Addition (ii) Bakelite
42. Buna – N is used in making oil seals and tank lining, etc. (C) Copolymer (iii) Silk
Because (D) Semi-synthetic polymer (iv) Neoprene
(a) It is resistant to the actions of lubricating oil and organic (a) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (iii)
solvents (b) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
(b) It is more elastic than natural rubber (c) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)
(c) It can be stretched twice its length
(d) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii)
(d) It does not melt at high temperature.
48. Which of the following polymers is not correctly matched?
43. Synthetic biopolymer, PHBV is made up of the following
(a) Formation of Dacron Step growth
monomers.
MSA-CHEMISTRY
 polymerization
(b) Formation of Step growth
polytetrafluoroethene polymerization
(c) Formation of Chain growth
Polythene polymerisation in
presence of
(d) Formation of Chain growth
Polyacrylonitrile polymerization in
presence of peroxide
49. Novolac on heating with formaldehyde undergoes ……. to
form an infusible solid mass called …….. .
(a) Polymerisation , melamine (b) Vulcanisations, resin
(c) Cross – linking, Bakelite (d) Condensation, polystyrene
50. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate
choice.
Column I Column II
(Polymers) (Monomers)
(A) Raincoats, hand (i) PHBV
Bags
(B) Laminated sheets (ii) PVC
(C) Television cabinets (iii) Urea-formaldehyde
resin
(D) Orthopaedic (iv) Polystyrene
(a) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)
(b) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii)
(c) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(d) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii)

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
Polymers Answers

1. (c)
Sol.

Neoprene :
13. (a)
Sol. Nylon -6,6
Teflon :
14. (b)
Thiokol : Sol. Polyacrylonitrile is known as orlon.
CN
|
nCH2 = CHCN → −( CH 2 − CH−
)n
PVC : 15. (d)
Sol. Teflon is an additions linear polymer of tetrafluoroethene.
2. (c)
Sol. Bakelite is polymer of phenol and formaldehyde. nCF2 = CF2 ⎯Catalyst
⎯⎯→ −[CF2 − CF2 ]−n
High Pr essure
3. (b)
Sol. Buna-N is copolymer of 16. (c)
Sol. Ziegler-Natta catalyst is triethylalluminium and titanium
CH2 = CH - CN and CH2 = CH - CH = CH2 .
tetrachloride used in the polymerizations of ethane to get high
4. (c) density polyethene.
Sol. The monomer of Nylon - 66 are adipic acid and
17. (b)
hexamethylene diamine. Sol. In vulcanizations of rubber, sulphur forms cross-links to
5. (a) make rubber more elastic.
Sol. Nylon - 66 has amide linkage.
18. (d)
6. (c) Sol. All are the example of biodegradable polymers.
Sol. Ziegler Natta Catalyst is Al2 (C2 H5 )6 + TiCI 4 19. (d)
7. (d) Sol. It is a copolymer of glycine (H 2 N − CH 2 − COOH)
Sol. Bakelite is a thermosetting polymers which is heavily
and amino caproic acid [ H 2 N (CN 2 ) 5 COOH ]
cross- linked and cannot be softened or reused on heating.
8. (b) 20. (c)
Sol. Butadiene + Styrene ⎯ ⎯→ Buna –S
21. (c)
9. (c) Sol.
Sol. The process of heating rubber with 5% of sulphur is known
as vulcanizations. Sulphur acts as cross-linking agent.

22. (d)
Sol. Acrylonitrile is a hard, horny and high melting material.
It is used in the manufacture of oron and Acrilan fibres which
are used for making clothes, carpets and blankets.
10. (d)
Sol. Dacron is an example of polysters. It is prepared by 23. (a)
Sol.
heating a mixture of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid.
11. (c)
Sol. Neoprene is made up of single monomer species i.e.,
chloroprene.
12. (c)
Sol. 24. (c)

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 Sol. n (CH 2 = C − CH = CH 2 ) → (−CH 2 − C = CH − CH 2 −)n 553K
| |
nHOOC (CH 2 ) 4 COOH + nH 2 N − (CH 2 ) 6 − NH 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
Cl Cl High
Chloropren e Neoprene
Pr essure
25. (d)
Sol. Teflon has great chemical inertness and high thermal −[CO − (CH 2 ) 4 − CONH − (CH 2 ) 6 NH−
]
stability, hence used for making non-stick utensils. For this 38. (b)
purpose, a thin layer of Teflon is coated on the inner side of Sol. Natural rubber is a polymer of isoprene of 2 – methyl -1,3-
the vessel. butadiene
26. (a)
Sol. All the nylons are polyamides.
27. (c)
Sol. Rubber is a polymer of isoprene. Its chemical formula is
(C5 H 8 )n .
28. (a)
Sol. 39. (c)
nCF2 = CF2 ⎯⎯→ [−CF2 − CF2 −]n Sol. nCH 2 = − CH = CH 2 ⎯Polymerisa
⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→
tions
C
Tetrafluor o ethane Teflon |
Cl
29. (b) Chloroprene
Sol. Polymer chains in elastomer are held together by weak
[ CH 2 − C = CH − CH 2 −] n
intermolecular forces eg. Vulacanised rubber. Neoprene
30. (c) 40. (b)
Sol. Terylene has ester linkage. It is the polymer of ethylene Sol. (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii)
glycol with terephthalic acid. It is used in textile industry.
41. (d)
Sol. Neoprene is made from chloroprene, PVC is from vinyl
chloride and polyethene is from ethane monomer.
42. (a)
Sol. It is resistant to the actions of lubricating oil and organic
31. (c) solvents
Sol. Nylon threads are polyamides. They are the condensation 43. (a)
Sol.
polymers of diamines and dibasic acids.
32. (c)
Sol. Polymers havig amide linkages are known as polyamides.
n(H2N –(CH2)6 – NH2) + n (HOOC –(CH2 )4 – COOH)
hexamethlene diamine adipic acid

44. (c)
Sol. Buna-S or styrene butadiene rubber is a copolymer of
butadiene and styrene.
33. (a)
Sol. Natural rubber contains isoprene unit.
34. (d)
Sol. Thermoplastics do not have any cross-linkages hence they
are soft and can be remoulded after heating.
35. (a)
Sol. Thermosetting polymer are highly branched and cross-
linked.
36. (c) 45. (a)
Sol. Bakelite and urea-formaldehyde are thermosetting Sol. (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
polymers while polythene, polystyrene and polyvinyls are 46. (c)
thermoplastics. Sol. (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
37. (b) 47. (b)
Sol. Nylon 6,6 is prepared by condensations polymer-risation Sol. (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
of adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine. 48. (b)
Sol. Polytetrafluoroethene (teflon) is a chain growth polymer
formed by polymerizations of tetrafluoroethene in presence of
persulphate catalyst.
49. (c)
Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh
 Sol. Novolac on heating with formaldehyde undergoes cross-
linking to form Bakelite.
50. (d)
Sol. Glyptal is used in manufacture of paints and lacquers.

Chemistry By Jagdish Wagh

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XII - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Marks : 50

01) Which is fulfilling the needs of the present B) benzene hydrochloride

generation without compromising the ability of C) butyl hexachloride
future generations to meet their needs? D) none of the above
A) Sustainability
B) Green chemistry 10) ______ is often referred to as the universal
C) Recycling solvent and is a preferred green solvent.
D) Life Cycle Assessment A) Water
B) Methanol
02) Which of the following is   isomer of BHC? C) Benzene
A) Chloroform D) Ethyl Acetate
B) DDT
C) Chlorobenzene 11) For Hydrogenation of oil (Hardening), the
D) Lindane catalyst used is ......
A) Nickel
03) Green chemistry can reduce all but _____ is B) Cobalt
essential. C) Platinum
A) Risk and Hazard D) Mo/Fe
B) Cost
C) Awareness 12) Which is the most important property of
D) Waste nanomaterial?
A) Force
04) FTIR stands for ........ B) Friction
A) scanning electron microscopy C) Temperature
B) UV-spectroscopy D) Pressure
C) Fourier Transform infrared spectroscopy
D) transmission electron microscopy 13) Carbon nanotubes are made up of .........
sheets with nano-sized diameter and they have
05) Shortly after mid-night in 1984, a reaction ........ strength.
caused poisonous methyl isocyanate gas to leak A) gold, high
from a factory in which city, causing 3,700 deaths? B) graphite, high
A) Bhopal C) graphite, low
B) Hinkley D) silver, high
C) Siberia
D) Calcutta 14) Nanotechnology, also known as
A) microphysics
06) DDT stands for ....... B) atomic engineering
A) diphenyldichloromethane C) small technology
B) dichlorodiethyl toluene D) carbon engineering
C) dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane
D) none of the above 15) Green Chemistry reduces the ______ and
protects the environment.
07) Green chemistry reduces the use of _________ A) pollution
A) liquid fuels B) water
B) energy C) air
C) gaseous fuels D) temperature
D) solid fuels
16) Fabrics are extensively made out of nano
08) Usually, the renewable feedstock is made from materials like ___________
....... A) carbon nano tubes
A) mines B) fullerenes
B) fossile fuels C) mega tubes
C) agricultural products D) polymers
D) crude oil
17) BHC is used as ......
09) BHC stands for ....... A) an enzyme
A) benzene hexachloride B) a steroid

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

C) an insecticide A) two-dimensional
D) a catalyst B) one-dimensional
C) three-dimensional
18) Which ‘green’ chemical is used in household D) zero-dimensional
cleaners to remove stains and is also a favorite
dressing on salads? 27) The concept of Green chemistry was coined by
A) Vinegar (acetic acid) ......
B) Citric acid A) Nario Taniguchi
C) Water B) Born Haber
D) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) C) Richard FEynman
D) Paul T. Anastas
19) Who was a co-founder of the worldwide green
chemistry movement and the first director of the 28) Green chemistry is useful in controlling .....
Green Chemistry Institute, now part of ACS? A) green house effect
A) Albert Einstein B) accidents in chemical reactions
B) Joseph Breen C) global warming
C) John Warner D) all of the above
D) Paul Anastas
29) Because of _________ tensile strength some of
20) Industrial catalysts should have _________ the nano materials are used in air crafts.
surface area. A) high
A) low B) low
B) high C) moderate
C) moderate D) no
D) no
30) What is the aim of Green chemistry?
21) LDPE (Low Density Polyethylene) is recycled to A) Design chemical products and process that
make ........ maximize profits
A) brooms, battery cables B) Design safer chemical products and processes
B) carpet, furniture that reduce or eliminate the use and generation of
C) floor tiles, envelopes hazardous substances
D) custom-made products C) Utilize non-renewable energy
D) Design chemical products and processes that
22) ____________ is the application of work most efficiently
nanotechnology to food science and technology.
A) Food safety and biosecurity 31) The development that meets the needs of
B) Agriculture present without compromising the ability of future
C) Product development generations to meet their own need is known as
D) All of the above ......
A) True development
23) Green chemistry applies across the which area B) Sustainable development
of a chemical products? C) Continuous development
A) Life cycle D) Irrational development
B) Efficiency
C) Uses 32) Which of the following is an excellent ‘green’
D) Properties solvent as well as a greenhouse gas?
A) CFCs
24) Which of the following is NOT a hazardous B) Methanol
solvent? C) Carbon monoxide
A) CHCl3 D) Carbon Dioxide
B) H2O
33) Which of the following is an example of green
C) CCl4 chemistry?
D) CH2Cl2 A) A product made on Earth Day
B) Recycled carpet
25) The use of solar power is covered within Green C) A sublimation reaction
Chemistry Principle 6, identify it. D) Bio-plastics
A) Atom economy
B) Design for energy efficiency 34) After the use of chemicals, we must
C) Less hazardous synthesis properly______ them.
D) Design benign chemicals A) use
B) store
26) Nanomaterial having two dimensions in C) dispose
nanoscale is termed as ....... D) reuse

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

A) costly
35) XRD stands for ...... B) harmful
A) UV-spectroscopy C) easy
B) X-ray diffraction D) hard
C) scanning tunneling microscopy
D) scanning electron microscopy 45) 1 nanometre is equal to _______ cm.
A) 10 
8
36) Recently, in water purifier .......... are used as
B) 10 
9
highly effective bacterial disinfectant.
A) gold C) 10 
7
B) silver
D) 10 
6
C) fumed silica
D) graphite
46) The following substances are safer for the use
37) Which is the first listed of the 12 Principles of in chemical processes .......
Green Chemistry? A) volatile
A) Prevent waste B) gaseous
B) Catalysis C) non-volatile liquids and solids
C) Benign solvents D) explosive
D) Atom economy
47) In the manufacture of H2SO4 by contact
38) Good atom economy means ......... process, the cataylst used is ........
A) more waste A) Cobalt
B) lesser waste B) Nickel
C) less number of products C) Mo/Fe
D) less useful products D) Platinised asbestos

39) Nanotubes are the examples of ....... 48) The pollution caused by nano-technology is
A) three-dimensional nano structure known as .......
B) one-dimensional nano structure A) soil pollution
C) two-dimensional nano structure B) air pollution
D) zero-dimensional nano structure C) nano pollution
D) water pollution
40) ________ are among the 12 Principles of Green
Chemistry? 49) ZWT in green chemistry stands for ........
A) Use only new solvents A) zero wod technology
B) Design commercially viable products B) zero weight technology
C) Use catalysts, not stoichiometric reagents C) zero waste technology
D) Re-use waste D) none of the above

41) According to the green chemistry, the chemical 50) In Fischer-Tropsch process for the synthesis of
involved in the production must be ________ gasoline, the catalyst used is ........
A) non toxic A) Mo/Fe
B) highly toxic B) Nickel
C) toxic C) Platinised asbestos
D) produces the toxic by products D) Co/Fe

42) In organic synthesis the use of protecting or

blocking group ......... its atom economy.
A) does not affect
B) decreases
C) increases
D) none of the above

43) Now a days, keeping energy efficiency in mind,

a new heating system used in chemical synthesis is
......
A) microwave heating
B) direct heating
C) electric arc heating
D) high temperature and pressure heating

44) The principles of green chemistry include the

eliminating the treatments which is

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XII - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Marks : 50
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: A) Sustainability

22) Ans: D) All of the above
02) Ans: D) Lindane Sol: The application of nanotechnology to food
science and technology are agriculture, food safety
03) Ans: C) Awareness and biosecurity, product development, food
processing and ingredient technologies.
04) Ans: C) Fourier Transform infrared
spectroscopy 23) Ans: A) Life cycle
Sol: Green chemistry applies across the life cycle of
05) Ans: A) Bhopal a chemical product such as design, manufacture
and use. It says that manufacturing should be
06) Ans: C) dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane done without any pollution.

07) Ans: B) energy 24) Ans: B) H2O

Sol: Green chemistry reduces the use of the energy. Sol: H2O
The less consumption of energy also reduces the
cost of production. Thus, the product will be
25) Ans: B) Design for energy efficiency
available at low costs.
26) Ans: B) one-dimensional
08) Ans: C) agricultural products
27) Ans: D) Paul T. Anastas
09) Ans: A) benzene hexachloride
28) Ans: D) all of the above
10) Ans: A) Water
29) Ans: A) high
11) Ans: A) Nickel
Sol: Because of the high tensile strength some of
the nano materials are used in air crafts. One of
12) Ans: B) Friction
them is carbon nano tubes. They are used in the
air crafts.
13) Ans: B) graphite, high
30) Ans: B) Design safer chemical products and
14) Ans: B) atomic engineering
processes that reduce or eliminate the use and
generation of hazardous substances
15) Ans: A) pollution
Sol: Green chemistry reduces the pollution and
31) Ans: B) Sustainable development
protects the environment. By green synthesis, the
Sol: Sustainable development
products that are non-hazards to the nature are
produced. Thus, no pollution takes place.
32) Ans: D) Carbon Dioxide
16) Ans: B) fullerenes
Sol: Fabrics are extensively made out of nano
33) Ans: D) Bio-plastics
materials like fullerenes.
34) Ans: C) dispose
17) Ans: C) an insecticide
Sol: After the use of chemicals, we must properly
dispose them. The empty chemical containers
18) Ans: A) Vinegar (acetic acid)
should not be reused because they are toxic and if
they are not disposed properly, they create the
19) Ans: D) Paul Anastas
environmental pollution.
20) Ans: B) high
35) Ans: B) X-ray diffraction
Sol: Industrial catalysts should have the high
surface area and they should also have the
36) Ans: B) silver
capacity to attach any material to their surface.
37) Ans: A) Prevent waste
21) Ans: C) floor tiles, envelopes

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

38) Ans: B) lesser waste

39) Ans: B) one-dimensional nano structure

40) Ans: C) Use catalysts, not stoichiometric

reagents

41) Ans: A) non toxic

Sol: As per the green chemistry, the chemical
involved in the production must be nontoxic.

42) Ans: B) decreases

43) Ans: A) microwave heating

44) Ans: A) costly

Sol: The principles of green chemistry include the
eliminating of costly treatments and it makes the
reactions with less cost and no toxic materials.

Ans: C) 10 
7
45)
Sol: 10 
7

46) Ans: C) non-volatile liquids and solids

Sol: non-volatile liquids and solids

47) Ans: D) Platinised asbestos

48) Ans: C) nano pollution

49) Ans: C) zero waste technology

50) Ans: D) Co/Fe

Sol:

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 01 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Marks : 25

01) The law of ______ shows that irrespective of the D) 6  1022

source, pure sample of water always yields 88.89%
mass of oxygen and 11.11% mass of hydrogen. 09) Number of atoms in 558.5 g Fe (at. mass
A) constant volume 55.85) is _______.
B) conservation of mass A) 6.023  1023
C) multiple proportions B) Half of 8g
D) constant composition C) 5  6.023  1023
D) Twice than 60 gm C
02) Chemical equation is balanced as per the law
of ________. 10) If 27 gm of Al (at mass=27) will react with
A) multiple proportion oxygen which is equal to ______.
B) reciprocal proportion A) 24 g
C) definite proportion B) 40 g
D) conservation of mass C) 8 g
D) 10 g
03) What are the number of atoms present in 2.8
litres of diatomic gas at STP? 11) What would be the mass of oxygen gas which
A) 15  1022 occupies 5.6 litres at STP?
B) 3.01  1023 A) The gram atomic mass of oxygen
B) Double the gram atomic mass of oxygen
C) 6.023  1023
C) One -fourth of the gram atomic mass of oxygen
D) 7.5  1022 D) Half of the gram atomic mass of oxygen.

04) What is the SI unit of temperature? 12) Chemistry which deals with the study of
A) Kelvin chemical substance used to prevent, cure the
B) Dalton various disease in living things which is called as
C) 0 F _____.
D) 0 C A) Biotechnology
B) Phyto chemistry
05) _____ is heaviest. C) Bio chemistry
A) 2mol water D) Medicinal chemistry
B) 2mol carbon dioxide
13) Determine the number of moles of H2 in 0.224
C) 25g mercury
lit of hydrogen gas at STP.
D) 3.012  1023 molecules of oxygen A) 0.001
B) 0.1
06) Dalton's atomic theory states that, ______ is the C) 1
smallest particle in which matter could exist. D) 0.01
A) a molecule
B) an atom 14) ________ these pair of compounds helps to
C) a proton illustrate law of multiple proportions.
D) an electron A) Water and heavy water
B) Magnesium hydroxide and magnesium oxide
07) One mole of sucrose (C12H22O11)=_________ C) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
atoms. D) Sodium chloride and sodium bromide
A) 45  6.023  1023 atoms/mole
B) 4  6.023  1023 atom/mole 15) What is the number of Na atoms in 46g of Na
C) 4  6.023  1023 atom/mole (atomic weight of Na  23 )?
D) 5  6.62  1023 atoms/mole
A) 1
B) 2
08) What is the number of oxygen atoms in 4.4g
C) 6.023  1023
of CO2 ?
D) 12.046  1023
A) 1.2  1023
B) 6  1023 16) How many number of atoms of helium in 100
C) 12  1023 amu of helium (atomic wt. of helium is 4)?

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

A) 25 D) A sample of air is heated at constant pressure

B) 100 when its volume increases but there is no change
C) 50 in mass
D) 100  6  10-23
25) The given number of atoms of Cr and O are
17) Which of the following branch of chemistry that 4.8  1010 and 9.6  1010 respectively. Which of the
deals with the study of chemical reactions in living following is its empirical formula?
things? A) CrO2
A) Biochemistry B) Cr2O4
B) Industrial chemistry C) Cr2O3
C) Biotechnology D) Cr3O
D) Geochemistry

18) ______ moles of helium gas occupy 22.4 lit at

300C and 1 atm.
A) 0.9
B) 0.11
C) 1.11
D) 1

19) What is the mass of 112 cm3 of NH3 gas at

STP?
A) 80.500g
B) 0.850g
C) 8.500g
D) 0.085g

20) What is the mass of 1  1022 molecules of

CuSO4 .5H2O ?
A) 4.144g
B) 8.288g
C) 5.295g
D) 2.648g

21) Volume of a gas at STP is given as 1.12  10-7cc

then, determine the number of molecules in it.
A) 3.01  1012
B) 3.01  1020
C) 3.01  1024
D) 3.01  1023

22) Dalton states that atom is _______.

A) composed of tiny particles
B) composed of different small atom
C) composed of different molecules
D) composed of indivisible unit particle

23) ______ represents the smallest quantity.

A) 1230 ng
B) 1.230  106 kg
C) 1.230  104 g
D) 1.230  104 g

24) _______ is the best example of law of

conservation of mass.
A) 6 g water is completely converted into steam
B) 6 g carbon with 16 g of oxygen to form 22 g of
CO2
C) 6 g of carbon is heated in vacuum, there is no
change in mass

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 01 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: D) constant composition 60  6.023  1023 atm

 60 g=5 moles=5  6.023  1023 atoms
02) Ans: D) conservation of mass
Sol: During the chemical change mass remain 10) Ans: A) 24 g
unchanged. Sol: 4Al+3O2  2Al2O3
4  27 3  32
03) Ans: A) 15  1022
Sol: Number of molecules of gas at STP 11) Ans: D) Half of the gram atomic mass of
oxygen.
6.023  1023  2.8
  7.5  1022 Sol: 22.4L at STP = 32g of oxygen
22.4
Diatomic gases contain two atoms per molecule. 32 of oxygen
So, 5.6L at STP   5.6  8g
Therefore, number of atoms = 2  number of 22.4
molecules  2  7.5  1022  15  1022 atoms. 1
  Gram atomic mass of oxygen
2
04) Ans: A) Kelvin
12) Ans: D) Medicinal chemistry
05) Ans: B) 2mol carbon dioxide
Sol: Mass of mercury = 25g 13) Ans: D) 0.01
Sol: 22.4 lit=1 mole
Mass of 2 mol of carbon dioxide
0.224 lit=?  0.01
CO2   2  44  88 g
Mass of 2 mol of water H2O  2  18  36 g 14) Ans: C) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
Mass of 3.012  1023
15) Ans: D) 12.046  1023
molecule of oxygen  O2  Sol: 23g of
Mass Mass
Number of mole=  0.5  Na=6.023  1023 atoms
32 32
46
Therefore, mass = 16g  46 g of Na   6.023  1023 atoms
23
06) Ans: B) an atom  12.046  1023 atoms

07) Ans: A) 45  6.023  1023 atoms/mole 16) Ans: A) 25

Sol: 1 mole of sucrose contains 6.023  1023 Sol: 1 amu=1.66  10-24
molecules
100 amu=100  1.66  10-24
 1 molecule of sucrose has 45 atoms
 6.023  1023 molecular of sucrose has No of atoms of substance
45  6.023  1023 atoms/mole wt. of substance
  6.023  1023  atomicity
No. of gm moles
08) Ans: A) 1.2  1023
100  1.66  1024
Sol: 44g of CO2 contain  6.023  1023   6.023  1023  1  25
4
molecules of
CO2
17) Ans: A) Biochemistry
6.023  1023
 4.4g of CO2 will contain   4.4
44 18) Ans: A) 0.9
 6.023  1022 molecules of CO2 PV 1  22.7
Sol: Mole of helium= = =0.9
1 molecule of CO2 contains two oxygen atoms. RT 0.082  303
 6.023  1022 molecules of CO2 will contain
19) Ans: D) 0.085g
 1.2  1023 oxygen atoms
Sol: Mass of 22400cm3 of NH3  17g
09) Ans: C) 5  6.023  1023 17  112
Mass of 112cm3 of NH3   0.085g
Sol: 558.5 g Fe  10 moles 22400

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

20) Ans: A) 4.144g

Sol: Mass of
1022 molecules of CuSO4. 5H2O
 number of moles  molecular weight
1022
  249.5  4.14 g
6.023  1023

21) Ans: A) 3.01  1012

Sol: 22400 cc of gas at STP has 6  1023
molecules
Therefore, 1.12  107 of a gas at STP
6  1023  1.12  107
  0.03  1014  3  1012
22400

22) Ans: D) composed of indivisible unit particle

23) Ans: A) 1230 ng

Sol: (a) 1230 ng  1230  109 g  1.230  106 g
(b) 1.230  104 g
(c) 1.230  106 kg  1.230  106  103 g
 1.230  103 g
(d)
1.230  104 g  1.230  104  106 g  1.230  102 g
Therefore, 1230ng is the smallest quantity.

24) Ans: B) 6 g carbon with 16 g of oxygen to

form 22 g of CO2
Sol: 6g of C g+16g oxy.  22 gm of CO2
22 g  22 gm
Total mass of the reactants  Total mass of the
products.

25) Ans: A) CrO2

Sol: Ratio of atoms of Cr and O
= 4.8  1010 : 9.6  1010=1:2
Empirical formula=CrO2

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 04 Structure of Atom Marks : 25

01) Which of the following is incorrect regarding to B) 2

isotope 17Cl35 and 17Cl37? C) 6
A) Both have 17 protons D) 12
B) Both shows same chemical properties
C) Both have 17 electrons 09) The number of neutrons present in the nucleus
D) Both have 18 neutrons of an atom of element 60
24 X are _____.
A) 87
02) The electron identified by quantum number n
B) 30
&l
C) 27
(i) n=4, l=1 (ii) n=4, l=0
D) 33
(iii) n=3, l=2 (iv) n=3, l=1
can be placed in which of the following order of
10) How many electrons which can be
increasing energy from the lowest to highest?
accommodated in an orbital?
A) (iii)<(i)<(iv)<(iv)
A) 3
B) (iv)<(ii)<(iii)<(i)
B) 1
C) (i)<(iii)<(ii)<(iv)
C) 2
D) (ii)<(iv)<(i)<(iii)
D) 4
03) What will be the maximum number of
h
electrons for azimuthal quantum number l=3? 11) What is the unit of equation   ?
A) 2 mv
B) 4 kg 2 m2s 2
C) 6 A)
kg m2 s 1
D) 0
kg m2s-1
B)
04) The value of azimuthal quantum number l=2 kg ms 1
represent which of the following orbital?
A) p-orbital kg ms2
C)
B) f-orbital ms 1
C) d-orbital kg ms-3
D) s-orbital D)
kg m
05) The ________ are determined by Azimuthal
quantum number. 12) Cathode rays are made up of _______.
A) spin A) neutral particles
B) angular momentum of orbitals B) positively charged particles
C) size C) electromagnetic rays
D) orientation D) negatively charged particles

06) What is the mass of an electron? 13) Which block contains the element having
A) 9.109  10-19 kg electronic configuration [Kr]
B) 9.109  10-31 kg 4d104f14,5s25p65d1,6s2?
C) 9.109  10-28 kg A) d-block
D) 9.109  10-26 kg B) f-block
C) p-block
07) How many wave number of the line in Balmer D) s-block
series that associated with drop of electron from 3rd
orbit? Given that:(R=109676 cm-1) 14) Dalton's atomic theory states that, an atom
A) 15230 m-1 _______.
B) 1523m-1 A) contains protons and electrons
C) 1523 cm-1 B) contains neutrons, protons and electrons
D) 15230 cm-1 C) cannot be subdivided
D) can be further subdivided
08) What is the maximum number of electrons in
an atom with l=2 and n=3? 15) _____ are the possible sub-shell in n=3 energy
A) 10 shell.
A) s only
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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

B) s, p, d, f
C) s, p, d 24) When RH=109678 cm-1, _______ is the shortest
D) s, p wavelength in hydrogen spectrum of lyman series.
A) 911.7 A°
16) What will be the de-Broglie wavelength of a B) 1127.30 A°
particle having momentum of 3.3  10-24 kg ms-1 if C) 1215.65 A°
the Planck's constant h=6.6  10-34 Js? D) 1002.7 A°
0
A) 0.5 A 25) _______ shows the correct relationship between
0
wavelength and momentum of particles.
B) 0.02 A
P
0 A) h 
C) 500 A 
0 h
D) 2 A B)  
P
h
17) When the electronic configuration of M3+ ion is C) P 
2,8,15 and its atomic mass number is 58, then P
_____ neutrons would be in its nucleus. h
D) P 
A) 34 m
B) 42
C) 32
D) 31

18) 14 14
6 C and 7 N can be classified as ______.
A) isotones
B) isobars
C) isoelectronic
D) isotopes

19) Who state that, In an atom no two electrons

can have the same set for all quantum numbers?
A) Avogadro
B) Dalton
C) Hund
D) Pauli

20) Which of the following series gives transition

from n=4, 5, 6, to n=3 in H spectrum?
A) Pfund series
B) Paschen series
C) Lyman series
D) Balmer series

21) 2p orbital have ______.

A) n=2, l=0
B) n=1, l=0
C) n=1, l=2
D) n=2, l=1

22) Which of the following sets of quantum

numbers that represents the highest energy of an
atom?
A) n=3, l=2, m=1, s=+1/2
B) n=3, l=1, m=1, s=+1/2
C) n=3, l=0, m=0, s=+1/2
D) n=4, l=0, m=0, s=+1/2

23) Heisenberg uncertainty principle rules out the

exact simultaneous measurement of _____ and
______.
A) Probability and intensity
B) Position and velocity
C) Charge, density and radius
D) Energy and velocity
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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 04 Structure of Atom Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: D) Both have 18 neutrons

Sol: 17Cl35 have 18 neutrons (35 -17)=18 0
And 17Cl37 have 20 neutrons (37-17)=20 16) Ans: D) 2 A
Sol:
02) Ans: B) (iv)<(ii)<(iii)<(i) h 6.6  1034 Js 0
Sol: Lower is (n+1), lower is energy level; also if   24 1
 2  1010 m  2 A
mv 3.3  10 kg ms
(n+1) is same, lower is n, lower is energy level.

03) Ans: B) 4 17) Ans: D) 31

Sol: Number of electrons in a subshell is (4l+2).
18) Ans: B) isobars
04) Ans: C) d-orbital
Sol: l=2 represent 'd' orbital. 19) Ans: D) Pauli

05) Ans: B) angular momentum of orbitals 20) Ans: B) Paschen series

h
Sol: Angular momentum  l  1 21) Ans: D) n=2, l=1
2 Sol: For 2p orbital n=2, l=0.
06) Ans: B) 9.109  10-31 kg 22) Ans: A) n=3, l=2, m=1, s=+1/2
Sol: 9.109  10-31 kg Sol: Highest (n+1) values gives maximum energy.
07) Ans: D) 15230 cm-1 23) Ans: B) Position and velocity
  1 1  1 1
Sol:   R  2  2   109676    24) Ans: A) 911.7 A°
n  4 9
 1 n2  Sol: The shortest wavelength in hydrogen spectrum
 5  1 of lyman series is given by formula,
 109676    1523.7cm
 36  R R 109678
1/   H 2
 2H 
n 1 1
08) Ans: A) 10   9.117  106 cm

09) Ans: D) 33  911.7  1010 m  911.7 A

Sol: Number of neutrons= A-Z=60-27=33
h
10) Ans: C) 2 25) Ans: B)  
P
Sol: We know that the correct relationship between
kg m2s-1 wavelength and momentums
11) Ans: B)
kg ms 1 h
= which is given by de-Broglie equation.
p
kg m2s-1
Sol:
kg ms 1

12) Ans: D) negatively charged particles

Sol: Cathode rays consist of moving electrons
which carry -ve charge.

13) Ans: B) f-block

Sol: This element is Lu it has 71 electrons and last
electron enter in 4f-sub shell hence it is 'f' block
element.

14) Ans: C) cannot be subdivided

15) Ans: C) s, p, d
Sol: For n=3, l=0, 1, 2, (s, p, d)
JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)
 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 05 Chemical Bonding Marks : 25

01) Match the following. 08) In which one of the following the octet rule is
observed?
A) PCl5
B) CO2
C) SF6
D) BCl3

A)  A    iv  , B   i  , C   iii  , D  ii  09) The total number of electron that takes part in
forming bonds in N2 is
B)  A    iii  , B   i  , C  iv  , D  ii 
A) 10
C)  A    ii  , B   iii  , C  i  , D  iv  B) 6
D)  A    i  , B   iii  , C  ii  , D  iv  C) 4
D) 2
02) PCl5 exists but NCl5 does not because
10) What is the shape of CIF3 molecule?
A) nitrogen is highly inert. A) T-shaped
B) nitrogen atom is much smaller. B) Trigonal bi-pyramidal
C) NCl5 is unstable. C) Pyramidal
D) nitrogen has no vacant d-orbitals. D) Triangular planar

03) What is the bond energy of H2 molecule? 11) Amongst the following which is the bond of
A) 920 KJ mol-1 maximum polarity?
B) 416KJ mol-1 A) C-F
C) 438KJ mol-1 B) C-O
D) 430 KJ mol-1 C) C-N
D) C-H
04) Of the following compounds, the one having a
linear structure is 12) How many number of  bonds are in
A) H2O Naphthalene?
B) C2H2 A) 5
B) 3
C) CH4 C) 6
D) NH2 D) 4

05) What is the favourable condition for formation 13) Identify the compound which shows the Lewis
of ionic bond? dot formula for CO2 .
A) Low E.A .. ..
B) Low lattice energy A) : O :: C :: O :
C) High I.P .. ..
B) : O :: C : O :
D) Low charge on cation ..
.. .. ..
06) What is the formal charge on the central C) : O : C :: O :
..
oxygen atom in O3 molecule? .. ..
A) -2 D) : O : C : O :
.. ..
B) -1
C) +1 14) ______ has the highest ionic character.
D) 0 A) BeCl2
B) BaCl2
07) _______ is the example of incomplete octet. C) CaCl2
A) SF6 D) MgCl2
B) PH3
C) BF3 15) Both sp2 and sp3 hybrid carbons are present in
D) PCl5 compound ______.
A) H2C=CH2

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

B) H3C-CH-CH3 24) The bond angle in ammonia molecule is

C) H3C-CH3 A) 109o28
D) HC  CH
B) 106o 45
16) _______ contains maximum number of C) 93o3
unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular D) 91o8
orbitals.
A) O22 25) The molecular orbital configuration of a
 diatomic molecule is
B) O2  2p2
  1s2  1s2  2s2  2s2  2p2x {  2p2y
C) O2 z

D) O2 Its bond order is

A) 1
17) ________ is T-shaped. B) 2
A) BCl3 C) 2.5
D) 3
B) BeF2
C) NH3
D) ClF3

18) The percentage of s- character in the hybrid

oribitals sp, sp2 and sp3 followswhich one of the
following pattern?
A) sp3  sp2  sp
B) sp  sp2  sp3
C) sp  sp2  sp3
D) sp  sp2  sp3

19) ______ contains maximum number of electrons

in the antibonding molecular orbitals.
A) O22-
B) O2-
C) O2+
D) O2

20) The ______ structures is expected to have 3

bond pairs and 1 lone pair.
A) pyramidal
B) octahedral
C) trigonal planar
D) tetrahedral

21) The formation of ionic bond is an example of

_______.
A) oxidation reaction
B) reduction reaction
C) disproportionation
D) redox reaction

22) ______ molecules has non-zero dipole moment.

A) CO2
B) SO2
C) BF3
D) PCl5

23) Fajan's rule states that ionic character

increases for _______.
A) small cation and large charge on cation
B) large cation and no charge on cation
C) large cation and small anion
D) small cation and small charge on cation

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 05 Chemical Bonding Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: B) 07) Ans: C) BF3

 A    iii  , B   i  , C  iv  , D  ii 
08) Ans: B) CO2
Sol: In C2H2 , C undergoes, sp
.. ..
hybridisation. H  C  C  H Sol: CO2 , O  C  O or
3 2 .. ..
In SF6 undergoes sp d hybridisation.

In the given compound the atoms are combined by

sharing of valence electrons in order to have an
octet in their valence shells.
In SO2 S undergoes sp2
09) Ans: B) 6
hybridisation Sol: Nitrogen forms a triple bond as N  N , in
which 6 electrons take part.

10) Ans: A) T-shaped

Sol: F3 has 5 electron pairs i.e. 2 lone pairs and 3
In IF7 I undergoes sp3d3 hybridisation. bond pairs Repulsion is minimum when it has
T-shaped structure.

11) Ans: A) C-F

Sol: Polarity is due to electronegativity difference
between bonded atoms. Hence C-F is more polar.

12) Ans: A) 5
02) Ans: D) nitrogen has no vacant d-orbitals.
Sol: Nitrogen does not have vacant 'd'-orbitals,
hence it can't have +5 oxidation state means the Sol:
reason PCl5 exists but NCl5 does not. There is 5  bonds.

.. ..
03) Ans: C) 438KJ mol-1 13) Ans: A) : O :: C :: O :
.. .. .. ..
04) Ans: B) C2H2 Sol: : O :: C :: O :  : O  C  O :
Sol: C2H2 possesses a linear structure as carbons
14) Ans: B) BaCl2
are sp-hybridized and lies at 180o .
Sol: Out of all the listed alkaline earth metal
cation, Ba2+ is the largest and hence according to
05) Ans: D) Low charge on cation the Fajans rule BaCl2 has the highest ionic
Sol: Low charge on cation is favourable. character.
06) Ans: C) +1 15) Ans: B) H3C-CH-CH3
Sol: Here, the Lewis dot structure of O3 is sp3 sp2 sp2 sp3
Sol: H3 C  CH  CH CH3

16) Ans: A) O22

Formal charge on central oxygen
atom Sol: O2=KK [  (2s)]2 [  *(2s)]2 [  (2Pz)]2 [  (2Px)]2
1 [  (2Py)2][  *(2Px)]1[  *(2Py)]1
= valence electrons- bonding electrons Number of e- in the antibonding molecular
2
orbitals=4.
- non - bonding electrons
We will have, in O22  6, in O2  5 and O2  3
1
6  6  2  1
2 17) Ans: D) ClF3

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

Sol: ClF3 has sp3d hybridization with two lone

pairs of electron on central Cl-atom.

18) Ans: B) sp  sp2  sp3

Sol: Percentage of s- character decreases as
sp 50%   sp2  33.3%   sp3  25%  .

19) Ans: A) O22-

Sol: O2=KK[  (2s)]2[  *(2s)]2[  (2Ps20]2
[  (2s)]2[  (2Ps)]2[  *(2Px)]1[  *(2Ps)]1
Number of electrons in the antibonding MO=4.
We will have in O22-=6 in O2-=5 and O2+=3.

20) Ans: A) pyramidal

21) Ans: D) redox reaction

Sol: During formation of ionic bond both loss and
gain of electron takes place.

22) Ans: B) SO2

Sol: SO2 being a bent molecule has non zero dipole
moment.

23) Ans: C) large cation and small anion

24) Ans: B) 106o 45

Sol: In NH3 , sp3 -hybridization is present but
bond angle is 106o 45 as Nitrogen has lone pair of
electron as per VSEPR theory due to bp-lp
repulsion, bond angle decreases from 109o 45 to
106o 45 .

25) Ans: D) 3
Nb  Na 10  4
Sol: In this case, B.O.   3.
2 2

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 06 Redox Reaction Marks : 25

01) The compound among the following has lowest

oxidation number of chlorine is 09) In which one of the following compound,
A) HClO3 highest oxidation state of Mn is present?
B) HOCl A) KMnO4
C) HCl B) MnO2
D) HClO4 C) K2MnO4
D) Mn2O3
02) In the given equation Mg+Cl2  MgCl2, Which
undergoes reduction?
10) In this reaction 2Mg+O2  2MgO:
A) Chlorine
A) Oxygen acts as oxidising agent
B) Both magnesium and chlorine
B) Mg act as reducing agent or reductant
C) Magnesium
C) Oxygen acts as reducing agent
D) Magnesium chloride
D) Both (A) and (B)
03) What happen in oxidation?
11) ______ is a substance that goes to higher
A) No loss or gain of electron
oxidation state or number.
B) There is loss of electrons
A) A reducing agent
C) Reaction with metal
B) An oxidising agent
D) There is gain of electrons
C) Oxidant
D) A substance that reduces
04) In H2S2O8, What is the oxidation number of
sulphur?
12) Compound iodine ______ has highest oxidation
A) +7
state.
B) +6
A) KI3
C) +2
B) KIO4
D) +4
C) KI
D) IF3
05) In _____, sulphur shows +1 oxidation state.
A) S2Cl2  3
B) H2SO3 13) The reaction VO2aq   Vaq  shows ______.
C) H2S A) reduction
D) H2SO4 B) reduction half reaction
C) oxidation
 2
06) Bi  OH3  3Sn  OH3  Bi  Sn  OH2 . In the D) hydrolysis
given reaction oxidation state of bismuth changes
14) In ______, Oxidation state of nitrogen is +1.
from _____ to _____.
A) N2O
A) +6 to 0
B) N2H4
B) +3 to 0
C) NO
C) +3 to +1
D) NH2OH
D) -3 to +3
15) The oxidation number of sulphur in H2S2O8,
07) In which of the following transition metal
H2S2O4, H2S2O6 is ____, ____, ____ respectively.
complexes does the metal exhibit zero oxidation
A) +5, +4, +3
state?
B) +3, +5, +4
A) Ni(CO)4
C) +6, +3, +5
B) [Fe(H2O)6]X3
D) +3, +4, +5
C) [Fe(N2O)6]SO4
D) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
16) When substance gains electrons it is ______,
when substance loses electron it gets _______.
08) _______ is a redox reaction.
A) reduced, oxidized
A) Evaporation of H2O
B) oxidized, reduced
B) Nitrogen oxides from nitrogen and oxygen by
C) reduced, reduced
lighting
D) oxidized, oxidized
C) H2 SO4 with NaOH
D) In atmosphere, O3 from O2 by lighting

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

17) A compound contains atoms X, Y and Z. The B) +3, 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P2
oxidation number of X is +2, Y is +5 and Z is -2. C) +4, 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2
What is the possible formula of the compound? D) +2, 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P2
A) X3  Y4 Z 2
B) XYZ2
C) X3  YZ4 2
D) Y2  XZ3 2

18) The oxidation number of monoatomic ion is

equal to ______.
A) number of protons
B) change present on the ion
C) zero
D) number of outer electrons

19) Always, Oxygen has -2 oxidation number

except in ______.
A) Oxygen difluoride
B) Water
C) Peroxide
D) Both (A) and (C)

20) Oxidation number of S in SO24 , Cr in Cr2O72

and P in PO34 are ____, ____, _____ respectively.
A) -3, -5, +6
B) +3, +6, +5
C) +6, +6, +5
D) +5, +3, +6

21) What is the oxidation number of carbon in

K2C2O4?
A) -4
B) -3
C) +3
D) +4

22) The reaction 2H2O(l)  4H(aq)  O2(g)  4e is

________.
A) a redox reaction
B) a reduction reaction
C) a hydrolysis reaction
D) an oxidation reaction

23) What is the oxidation number of H in AlH 3?

A) +3
B) +1
C) -1
D) 0

24) _________ is not a redox reaction.

A) CaCO3  CaO  CO2
1
B) MnCl3  MnCl2  Cl2
2
C) O2  2H2  2H2 O
1
D) Na  H2O  NaOH  H2
2

25) Find the oxidation number and electronic

configuration of sulphur in H2SO4?
A) +6, 1S2 2S2 2P6

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 06 Redox Reaction Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: C) HCl 1

Sol: HCl :1  x  0  x  1 Sol: Oxidation state of iodine in KI3  , in Kl=-1,
3
HClO4 :1  x  8  0  x  7 in IF3 = 3 and In KIO4  7
HClO3 :1  x  6  0  x  5
HOCl :1  2  x  0  x  1 13) Ans: A) reduction
Sol: In VO2+, oxidation state of V=+4, In V3+ it is +3.
02) Ans: A) Chlorine
14) Ans: A) N2O
Sol: Charge of chlorine changes from 0 to -1
Sol: In N2O, Oxidation State of oxygen=-2
 Oxidation State of N=+1
03) Ans: B) There is loss of electrons
15) Ans: B) +3, +5, +4
04) Ans: A) +7
Sol: In H2S2O8, Oxidation State of H=+1, Oxidation
16) Ans: A) reduced, oxidized
State of O=-2,  as of sulphure=+7.
Sol: Loss of electron oxidation and gain of electron
reduction.
05) Ans: A) S2Cl2
Sol: In S2Cl2 oxidation state of Cl=-1
hence oxidation state of S=+1 17) Ans: C) X3  YZ4 2
Sol: Sum of the oxidation numbers of atoms in it,
06) Ans: B) +3 to 0 is zero.
Sol: In Bi(OH)3 oxidation state of Bi=+3, In Bi
oxidation state=0. 18) Ans: B) change present on the ion

07) Ans: A) Ni(CO)4 19) Ans: D) Both (A) and (C)

Sol: In metal carbonyls metal always has oxidation
number 0. 20) Ans: C) +6, +6, +5

08) Ans: B) Nitrogen oxides from nitrogen and 21) Ans: C) +3

oxygen by lighting Sol: In K2C2O4, Oxidation State of K=+1, Oxidation
Sol: N2+O2  2NO Oxidation number of N changes State of O=-2
from 0 to +2(oxidation) and oxidation number of O  Oxidation State of carbon=2(+1)+2(x)+4(-2)=O
changes from 0 to -2 (reduction).  2x=8-2=6  x=+3

09) Ans: A) KMnO4 22) Ans: C) a hydrolysis reaction

Sol: There is loss of electrons, hence it is
oxidation reaction.

23) Ans: C) -1

24) Ans: A) CaCO3  CaO  CO2

2  4 2 2 2  4 2
Sol: Ca C O3  Ca O  C O2
Sol: No change in oxidation number, so it cannot be a
redox reaction.
10) Ans: D) Both (A) and (B)
Sol: Mg0  Mg2+ and O20  O2- 25) Ans: A) +6, 1S2 2S2 2P6
Hence Mg is reducing agent and oxygen is oxidising Sol: The electronic configuration of sulphur in
agent. ground state is S(16)=1s22s22p63s23p4
Means it partially loses outer 6 electrons (3s 2 and
11) Ans: A) A reducing agent 3p4), Hence configuration becomes 1s 2, 2s2, 2p6.

12) Ans: B) KIO4

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 08 Elements of Group 1 and 2 Marks : 25

01) Find the the chemical formula of washing soda. C) D-Block elements
A) Na2CO3 D) Alkaline earth metals
B) Na2CO3.H2O
C) Na2CO3.7H2O 09) Which alkali metal react directly with nitrogen
D) Na2CO3.10H2O to form nitride?
A) Na
02) Which reaction does not associated with the B) Li
Solvay's process of manufacture of sodium C) Rb
Carbonate? D) K
A) NH3+H2CO3  NH4HCO3
B) 2NaHCO3  Na2CO3+H2O+CO2 10) Which is most stable oxidation state in alkaline
C) CO2+H2O  H2CO3 earth metals?
D) 2NaOH+CO2  Na2CO3+H2O A) -2
B) + 3
03) Which compound shows electronic C) +1
configuration of the most electropositive alkaline D) + 2
earth metal?
A) [Ar]4s2 11) What will obtained when quick lime is heated?
B) [He]2s2 A) CaSO4
C) [Kr]5s2 B) CaCO3
D) [Ne]3s2 C) CaO
D) Ca(OH)2
04) What will happen when excess of Na + ions
present in human system? 12) Which compound amongst LiCl, RbCl.BeCl 2
A) Anaemia and MgCl2 have greatest and the least ionic
B) High blood pressure character?
C) Diabetes A) MgCl2 and BeCl2
D) Low blood pressure B) RbCl and MgCl2
C) LiCl and RbCl
05) Choose incorrect statement about the diagonal D) RbCl and BeCl2
relationship between lithium and magnesium.
A) LiCl and MgCl2 are insoluble in ethyl alcohol 13) Which is the most reactive elements?
B) Both Li and Mg are harder than other metals in A) Ba
their respective groups B) Sr
C) Li OH and Mg(OH)2 are bases C) Mg
D) Both Li and Mg do not form super oxides are D) Be
oxygen
14) ________ electronic configuration represents
06) ______ alkali metals has highest ionisation an alkaline earth metal.
enthalpy. A) 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 , 3s1
A) Li
B) 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 , 3s2 3p2
B) Na
C) Cs C) 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 , 3s2 3p1
D) K D) 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 , 3s2
07) Why beryllium and aluminum have similar
15) Which is most reactive alkali metal with water?
properties?
A) Rb
A) They have same charge
B) K
B) They have same polarizing power
C) Na
C) They belong to same group
D) Li
D) They have similar electronic configuration
16) When NaOH is made, which gas is released at
08) Which of the following elements have largest
the cathode?
atomic radii in the respective period?
A) H2O
A) P-Block elements
B) Alkali Metals B) H2

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

C) O2 A) high first ionization potential

D) Cl2 B) high second ionisation potential
C) high electronegativity
D) high ionic radius
17) Find out correct statement about alkali metals:
A) These are highly electronegative elements and
form M
B) Electron in valance shell make these elements
electronegative
C) These elements are found in free state in nature
D) These elements contains only one electron out
side the noble gas core

18) Pick out the wrong statement about alkali

metals.
A) They are inactive elements
B) They does not found in free state in nature
C) They form M+ ions
D) All of these have only one valance electrons

19) NaOH is obtained by reacting between H2O and

which molecule in Castner Kellner method?
A) NaCl
B) Sodium amalgam
C) Na2CO3
D) Sodium Metal

20) Find the radioactive elements in the s-block.

A) Li, Mg
B) Cs, Ba
C) Li, Be
D) Fr, Ra

21) From the following which is chemical formula

of superoxide of potassium?
A) K2O
B) KO
C) KO2
D) K2O2

22) Find the number of covalent bonds formed by

beryllium.
A) 5
B) 5
C) 2
D) 3

23) ________ does not show diagonal relationship

between beryllium and aluminium.
A) Both beryllium and aluminium form polymeric
covalent hydrides.
B) Both BeO and Al2O3 are amphoteric in nature.
C) Both beryllium and aluminium form nitrides
with nitrogen which evolve NH3 with water.
D) Both metal carbonates are highly stable.

24) When barium burns in air what it will form?

A) BaO2
B) BaO
C) Ba(OH)2
D) Ba2O2

25) Sodium is not ordinarily observed in the +2

oxidation state due to its

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 08 Elements of Group 1 and 2 Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: D) Na2CO3.10H2O cathode.

02) Ans: D) 2NaOH+CO2  Na2CO3+H2O 17) Ans: D) These elements contains only one
Sol: In Solvay's process NaOH does not react with electron out side the noble gas core
CO2. Sol: Alkali metals are contains only one electron in
valance shell. Thus they are electropositive in
03) Ans: C) [Kr]5s2 nature and are highly reactive.
Sol: Amongst the elements listed, [Kr]5s2, i.e. Sr
has the biggest size and thus is the most 18) Ans: A) They are inactive elements
electropositive element. Sol: Due to presence of one electron in the valence
shell alkali metals are highly reactive.
04) Ans: B) High blood pressure
19) Ans: B) Sodium amalgam
05) Ans: A) LiCl and MgCl2 are insoluble in ethyl Sol: In Castner Kellner method NaOH is formed by
alcohol the reaction between Na(Hg) and H2O.
Sol: LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethyl alcohol.
20) Ans: D) Fr, Ra
06) Ans: A) Li
Sol: Li alkali metals has highest ionisation 21) Ans: C) KO2
enthalpy. Sol: Superoxide are denoted as MO2. Thus
chemical formula of superoxide of potassium is
07) Ans: B) They have same polarizing power KO2.

08) Ans: B) Alkali Metals 22) Ans: C) 2

Sol: Atomic radii of alkali metals are largest in Sol: Be form two covalent bonds due to presence of
respective periods. two electrons in valance shell.

09) Ans: B) Li 23) Ans: D) Both metal carbonates are highly

Sol: Only Li form nitride with nitrogen stable.
6Li + N2  2Li3N Sol: The carbonates of both the metals are
unstable.
10) Ans: D) + 2
Sol: Because of ns2 valence electronic configuration 24) Ans: B) BaO
they show stable +2 oxidation state. Sol: BaO. Alkaline earth metals combine directly
with O2 to form oxides which when further heated
11) Ans: B) CaCO3 in presence of excess of O2 form peroxides.
Sol: CaCO3  CaO+CO2 quick lime
25) Ans: B) high second ionisation potential
12) Ans: D) RbCl and BeCl2 Sol: Na  11;1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
Sol: RbCl and BeCl2 .Larger the action, more is the
After the Na  ion is formed, the next electron has
ionic character or smaller the cation greater is
to be extracted from a completely filled orbital
covalent character. (Fajan Rules)
which would require very high energy to form Na 2
13) Ans: A) Ba ion.
Thus, due to high second ionization potential it is
14) Ans: D) 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 , 3s2 not easily formed.

Sol: 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 , 3s2

15) Ans: D) Li
Sol: Reactivity of alkali metals with water decrease
down the group.

16) Ans: B) H2
Sol: When NaOH is made , H2 gas is released at

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 Matrix Science Academy
Class 11th States of Matter
No. MCQ 25
1. Which one of the following is not a unit of pressure 13. A sample of gas occupies 100 ml at 27 o C and 740 mm
(a) Newton (b) Torr (c) Pascal (d) Bar pressure. When its volume is changed to 80 ml at 740 mm
2. Pressure of a gas in a vessel can be measured by pressure, the temperature of the gas will be
(a) Barometer (b) Manometer (a) 21 .6 o C (b) 240 o C (c) − 33 o C (d) 89 .5 o C
(c) Stalgometer (d) All the above 14. Dalton's law of partial pressure will not apply to which of the
3. Which of the following exhibits the weakest intermolecular following mixture of gases.
forces. (a) H 2 and SO 2 (b) H 2 and Cl2
(a) NH 3 (b) HCl (c) He (d) H 2O
(c) H 2 and CO2 (d) CO2 and Cl2
4. If P, V, T represent pressure, volume and temperature of the
gas, the correct representation of Boyle's law is. 15. Which of the following mixtures of gases does not obey
Dalton's law of partial pressure
1
(a) V  (at constant P) (b) PV = RT (a) O 2 and CO2 (b) N 2 and O 2
T
(c) V  1 / P (at constant T) (d) PV = nRT (c) Cl2 and O 2 (d) NH 3 and HCl

5. If 20 cm 3 gas at 1 atm. is expanded to 50 cm 3 at constant T, 16. At what pressure a quantity of gas will occupy a volume of
then what is the final pressure. 60 ml , if it occupies a volume of 100 ml at a pressure of
1 1 720 mm ? (while temperature is constant) :
(a) 20  (b) 50 
50 20 (a) 700 mm (b) 800 mm (c) 100 mm (d) 1200 mm

(c) 1 
1 17. At what pressure will a quantity of gas, which occupies 100 ml
 50 (d) None of these
20 at a pressue of 720 mm , occupy a volume of 84 ml .
o
6. A 10 g of a gas at atmospheric pressure is cooled from 273 C (a) 736.18 mm (b) 820.20 mm
o (c) 784.15 mm (d) 857.14 mm
to 0 C keeping the volume constant, its pressure would
become
(a) 1/2 atm (b) 1/273 atm (c) 2 atm (d) 273 atm 18. The volume of a gas is 100 ml at 100 o C . If pressure remains
7. A certain sample of gas has a volume of 0.2 litre measured at 1 constant then at what temperature it will be about 200 ml
o o
atm. pressure and 0 C . At the same pressure but at 273 C , its (a) 200 o C (b) 473 o C (c) 746 o C (d) 50 o C
volume will be. 19. The pressure of 2 moles of an ideal gas at 546 K having volume
(a) 0.4 litres (b) 0.8 litres 44.8 L is
(c) 27.8 litres (d) 55.6 litres (a) 2 atm (b) 3 atm (c) 4 atm (d) 1 atm
20. Surface tension does not vary with.
8. 400 cm of oxygen at 27 C were cooled to − 3 C without
3 o o
(a) Temperature (b) Concentration
change in pressure. The contraction in volume will be
(c) Size of the surface (d) Vapour pressure.
(a) 40 cm 3 (b) 30 cm 3 (c) 44.4 cm 3 (d) 360 cm 3
21. The type of attractive forces between a polar molecule and a
9. In the equation of sate of an ideal gas PV = nRT , the value of non-polar molecule are
the universal gas constant would depend only on (a) Dipole-dipole forces (b) Hydrogen bonds
(a) The nature of the gas
(c) Dipole-induced dipole forces (d) Dispersion forces.
(b) The pressure of the gas
22. According to kinetic theory of gases, the collisions between
(c) The units of the measurement molecules of a gas.
(d) None of these (a) Occur in a zig-zag path
10. In the ideal gas equation, the gas constant R has the dimensions (b) Occur in a straight line
of (c) Change velocity and energy
(a) Mole-atm K–1 (b) Litre mole
(d) Result in settling dow of molecules.
(c) Litre-atm K–1 mole–1 (d) Erg K–1
23. Vapour pressure of liquid increase with
(a) Decrease in temperature (b) Increase in Temperature
11. If two moles of an ideal gas at 546 K occupy a volume of 44.8
(c) Increase in surface area. (d) Increase in volume.
litres, the pressure must be
(a) 2 atm (b) 3 atm (c) 4 atm (d) 1 atm 24. Study the figures given below and identify the type of
interaction between XY-XY molecules.
12. Correct gas equation is.
V1T2 V2 T1 P1 V1 T
(a) = (b) = 1
P1 P2 P2 V2 T2
P1T2 P2 V2 V1V2
(c) = (d) = P1 P2
V1 T2 T1T2
(a) Dipole-Induced dipole

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 (b) Dipole-Dipole
(c) Dispersion force
(d) Induced dipole-Induced dipole.

25. Two atoms X and Y are non-polar and electrically symmetrical.

What type of intermolecular forces of attraction can be

developed between them?
(a) Dipole-induced dipole forces
(b) London forces or dispersion forces
(c) Dipole-dipole forces
(d) No forces of any kind.

MSA-CHEMISTRY
 Matrix Science Academy
States of matters Key

1. (a) 14. (b)

Sol. Newton is unit of force. Sol. Because H 2 & Cl2 gases may react with each other to
2. (b) produce HCl gas hence Dalton's law is not applicable.
Sol. Barometer is used to measure atmospheric pressure of 15. (d)
mixture of gases. Staglometer is used to measure surface Sol. Because HCl & NH 3 gases may react to produce NH 4 Cl
tension. Only manometer is used to measure pressure of pure
gas. Dalton's Law is applicable for non reacting gas mixtures.
gas in a vessel.
16. (d)
3. (c) Sol. According to Boyle's law
Sol. Nobel gases has no intermolecular forces due to inertness.
P1V1 = P2 V2  P1  60 = 720  100
4. (c)
1 720  100
Sol. Boyle's law is V  at constant T P1 = = 1200 mm
P 60
5. (a) 17. (d)
Sol. At constant T , P1V1 = P2 V2 Sol. Given that: V1 = 100 ml , P1 = 720 mm , V2 = 84 ml , P2 = ?
20 By using P1V1 = P2 V2 [According to the Boyle's law]
1  20 = P2  50 ; P2 = 1
50 P1 V1 720  100
P2 = = = 857 .142
6. (a) V2 84
Sol. T1 = 273 o C = 273 + 273 o K = 546 o K Hence, P2 = 857 .14 mm
T2 = 0 C = 273 + 0 C = 273 K
o o o

P1 = 1 ; P2 = ? 18. (b)
According to Gay-Lussac’s law V1 V 100 200
Sol. = 2 i.e. =
P1 P2 PT 1  273 o K 1 T1 T2 373 K T2
=  P2 = 1 2 = atm; atm.
T1 T2 T1 546 o K 2
T2 = 746 k = 473 o C
7. (a) 19. (a)
V T T 546 o K Sol. PV = nRT , P  44 .8 = 2  0.082  546
Sol. 1 = 1  V2 = 2 V1 =  0 .2 L = 0 .4 L.
V2 T2 T1 273 o K
P = 2 atm
8. (a) 20. (c)
T2 270 o K Sol. size of the surface
Sol. V2 = .V1 = .400 cm = 360 cm
3 3
T1 300 o K 21. (c)
contraction = V1 − V2 = 400 − 360 = 40 cm 3 Sol. It is the type of force between the polar molecule and a
9. (c) non-polar molecule. Dipole of polar molecule induces dipole
Sol. The value of universal gas constant can be expressed in on the electrically neutral molecule.
different units and its value would depend only on the units of
the measurement.
10. (c)
Sol. PV = nRT
PV
R= = litre . atm. K–1 mole –1
nT

11. (a) 22. (b)

nRT 2  0 .0821  546 Sol. Particles of a gas collide in a straight line in all possible
Sol. P = = = 2 atm.
V 44 .8 l directions.
12. (b) 23. (b)
P1 V1 P2 V2 PV T Sol. Vapour pressure of a liquid increase with increase in
Sol. =  1 1 = 1
T1 T P2 V2 T2 temperature
24. (b)
13. (c)
Sol. Due to presence of a dipole in the molecule, the
P1 V1 P2 V2 PV 740 80
Sol. =  T2 = 2 2  T1 =   300 interactions between the molecules are dipole-dipole
T1 T2 P1 V1 740 100
interactions
= 240 o K = −33 o C
25. (b)
Sol. In non-polar atom, a dipole may develop momentarily. If
the atom X becomes unsymmetrical resulting in development
of instantaneous dipole for a very short time, it distorts the
electron density of Y which is close to it and dipole is induced
in the atom Y. Temporary dipoles X and Y attract each other.
This attraction is called London or dispersion force.
 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 14 Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Marks : 25

01) The IUPAC name of isopropylamine is 07) What is IUPAC name of H2C=CH-C  CH?
A) propan -2- amine A) But-1-en-3-yne
B) propan -1-amine B) Butane-1-en-3-yne
C) 2-Aminotoluene C) But-3-en-1-yne
D) ethanamine D) Butan-3-en-1-yne

02) What will be the IUPAC name of 08) The phenomenon in which atoms or groups in
CH3  CH  CH2  CH COOH ? a compound can attract electrons is known as
| |
C2H5 CH3
A) inert pair effect
B) +ve inductive effect
A) 2-Methyl-4-ethyl pentanoic acid
C) mesomerism effect
B) 4-ethyl-2-methyl pentanoic acid
D) -ve inductive effect
C) 2, 2-dimethyl pentanoic acid
D) 2, 4-dimethyl hexanoic acid
09) The series which contains nucleophiles only is;
A) BF3, AlCl3, NH3
03) In electromeric effect:
B) RCH2-, CN-, CH3CH2OH
A) Temporary transfer of  electron pair is
C) RNH2, CCl2, H-
possible D) BF3, NH2-, H2O
B) Pi electron pair is permanently transferred
C) pi electron pair undergo delocalization 10) What is hybridization of carbon atom in CH4?
D) Sigma electron pair transfer cause polarization A) sp3d
B) sp3
04) What is IUPAC name of C) sp2
CH3
| D) sp
CH3  CH2  C  CH2  CH3 ?
|
OH
11) Electrophiles are called as
A) 3-Methyl pentan-3-ol A) attack on electron rich centre to gain electron
B) 3-hydroxy hexane pair
C) 3-hydroxy-3-Methyl pentane B) neutral molecules having incomplete octet
D) All of these C) electron deficient species like cations
D) all of these
05) What is IUPAC name of
12) Which of the following does not represent
H2C  CH  CH  CH2  CH3
resonance?
| ? A) Propane
CH2  CH2  CH3 B) Benzene
A) 4-ethyl hex-1-ene C) Nitromethane
B) 3-propyl pent-1-ene D) Carbon dioxide
C) 3-ethyl hex-1-ene
D) 3-ethyl pent-1-ene 13) What is H-C-H bond angle in methane?
A) 109.5°
06) Identify heterocyclic aromatic species. B) 90°
C) 180°
D) 120°
A)
14) What is IUPAC name of
B) CH3  C H  CH2  C H  CHO ?
| |
Cl CH3

C) A) 4-Chloro-2-Methyl butanal
B) 4-chloro-2-Methyl pentanal
C) 2-aldo-4-chloro pantane
D) 2-Chloro-4-methyl butanal

15) Which group shows the +I effect?

D)
A) CH3

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

B) NO2 C) 1-chloro-1-oxo-2,3-dimethyl pentane

C) -Cl D) 3,4-dimethyl pentanoyl chloride
D) -Br
24) What is IUPAC name of
16) Hyperconjugation effect is also termed as CH3  CH  CH2  CH3 ?
|
A) no bond resonance C6H5
B) Baker-Nathan effect A) 2-phenyl butane
C) both (a) and (b) B) 3-cyclohexyal butane
D) none of these C) sec-butyl benzene
D) 2-cyclohexyl butane
17) Methyl group (CH3) represents which of the
following effect? 25) Which of the compound is containing all four
A) Mesomeric effect types of i.e. 1°, 2°,3° and 4° Carbon atoms?
B) -ve inductive effect A) 3-chloro-2,3 dimethyl pentane
C) Electromeric effect B) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
D) +ve inductive effect C) 3, 3-dimethyl pentane
D) 2, 3, 4-trimethyl pentane
18) What is IUPAC name of CH3  CH2  CH NH2 ?
|
CH3
A) 2- aminobutane
B) 2-Methyl -3- aminopropane
C) 1-Methyl-1-aminopropane
D) None of these

19) Identify correct name of

CH2  CH2  CH2  CH2  CH3
.
A) 2-cyclobutyl propane
B) 1-cyclobutyl pentane
C) 2-pentyl cyclobutane
D) 1-pentyl cyclobutane

20) How many  and  -bonds are present in

pent-4-ene- 1-yne?
A) 9, 4
B) 4, 9
C) 3, 10
D) 10, 3

21) What is IUPAC name of ?

A) 2-Chloro-3-Methylpenta-1, 4-diene
B) 3-chloro-3-Methylpenta-1, 4-diene
C) 4-chloro-3-methyl panta-1,4-diene
D) 4-chloro-3-Methylpenta-1,4-diene

22) What is the IUPAC name of

?
A) 2-methly -3-bromobutanoic acid
B) 2-bromo -3-methylbutanoic acid
C) 3-bromo-2-methylbutanic acid
D) 3-bromo- 2, 3-dimethylpropanoic acid

23) What is IUPAC name of ?

A) 2,3-demethyl pentanoyl chloride
B) 2-ethyl-3-methyl butanoyl chloride

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 14 Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: A) propan -2- amine 09) Ans: B) RCH2-, CN-, CH3CH2OH
3 2 1 Sol: RCH2-, CN- are electron rich.
C H3  CH C H3 CH3-CH2-OH is a Lewis base.
|
Sol:
NH2 10) Ans: B) sp3
Common name : Isopropylamine
IUPAC name : Propan -2- amine 11) Ans: D) all of these

02) Ans: D) 2, 4-dimethyl hexanoic acid 12) Ans: A) Propane

4 3 2 1 Sol: In saturated hydrocarbons, resonance is
Sol: CH3  C H  C H2  C H C OOH impossible.
| |
5 C2H5 CH3
2,4 dim ethyl hexanoic acid 13) Ans: A) 109.5°
Sol: Because of tetrahedral geometry
03) Ans: A) Temporary transfer of  electron pair
is possible 14) Ans: B) 4-chloro-2-Methyl pentanal
Sol: In presence of suitable reagent, electromeric 5 4 3 2 1
effect is the complete temporary transfer of  Sol: CH3  CH C H2  CH CHO
| |
electron pair on one of the bonding atoms. Cl CH3
4chloro 2methylpen tan al

04) Ans: A) 3-Methyl pentan-3-ol

CH3 15) Ans: A) CH3
5 4 3| 2 1
Sol: CH3  C H2  C  C H2  C H3 Sol: Br,  Cl and  NO2 show (-I) effect as all are
|
OH
electron attracting or withdrawing.
3Methyl ol Thus, +I effect is shown by CH3 group only. This
is electron releasing or repelling group.
05) Ans: C) 3-ethyl hex-1-ene
1 2 3 16) Ans: C) both (a) and (b)
H2 C  C H  CH  C H2  CH3
| 17) Ans: D) +ve inductive effect
Sol: Sol: Electron donating effect is exerted by CH3
C H2  C H2  C H3
4 5 6 group.
3  ethylhex  1  ene
18) Ans: A) 2- aminobutane

19) Ans: B) 1-cyclobutyl pentane

CH2  CH2  CH2  CH2  CH3
06) Ans: C) Sol:
It is selected as cycloalkyl derivative of pentane due
to side chain contains more number of carbon
atoms than carbon ring.

Sol: and are non- aromatic. 20) Ans: D) 10, 3

21) Ans: A) 2-Chloro-3-Methylpenta-1, 4-diene

Cl
is an aromatic heterocyclic compound. |
Sol: CH2  C CH CH  CH2
07) Ans: A) But-1-en-3-yne |
CH3
1 2 3 4
Sol: CH2  CH C  C H
But  1  en  3  yne 22) Ans: C) 3-bromo-2-methylbutanic acid

08) Ans: D) -ve inductive effect

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

Sol:

23) Ans: A) 2,3-demethyl pentanoyl chloride

5 4 3 2 1
Sol: C H3  C H2  C H C H C Cl
| | ||
CH3 CH3 O
2,3 dim ethyl pentanoyl chloride

24) Ans: A) 2-phenyl butane

4 3 2 1
Sol: C H3  C H  C H2  C H3 2  phenyl butane.
|
C6H5

25) Ans: A) 3-chloro-2,3 dimethyl pentane

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 11 Adsorption and Colloids Marks : 25

01) Adsorbed acetic acid on activated charcoal is

A) absorber
B) adsorbed A)
C) adsorbent
D) adsorbate
B)
02) The movement of colloidal particles under the
influence of applied electric field is known as C)
A) dialysis
B) electrophoresis
C) filtration D)
D) ultra filtration
09) ________ is adsorbed greatly by activated
03) _________ is an example of associated colloid. charcoal.
A) Soap + water A) SO2
B) Protein + water B) CO2
C) Rubber + benzene
C) CO
D) As2O3  Fe  OH3 D) Water vapour

04) Freundlich adsorption isotherm is applicable at 10) Choose the correct option: Butter has the
A) low tempertature dispersion medium and dispersed phase
B) high temperature A) solid and liquid
C) high pressure B) liquid and solid
D) moderate pressure C) solid and gas
D) solid and soild
05) Fog is an example of _________ colloidal system.
A) liquid dispersed in gas 11) What is the reason for exhibits Brownian
B) gas dispersed in gas movement by the colloidal particles?
C) solid dispersed in liquid A) Fast moving of colloidal particle
D) solid dispersed in gas B) Scattering of light
C) Charge of the colloidal particle
06) Adsorption plays an important role in ______ D) Bombardment of colloidal particles to the
catalysis dispersed medium
A) Heterogeneous
B) Homogeneous 12) Match the column correctly.
C) Positive
D) Negative

07) Milk can be preserved by adding a few drops of

A) formaldehyde solution
B) formic acid solution
C) acetic acid solution
D) acetaldehyde solution
A)
08) Match the columns correctly.
B)

C)

D)

13) Liquid-liquid sole are called as

A) gels
B) emulsion

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

C) foam adsorbent is used?

D) aerosols A) Eosin
B) Activated charcoal
14) Adsorption is multilayer in which of the C) Alumina
following case? D) Zeolites
A) chemisorption
B) Physical adsorption 22) What is gel?
C) both (a) and (b) A) It is colloidal dispersion of a liquid in a solid
D) none of these B) It is colloidal dispersion of a solid in a liquid
C) It is colloidal dispersion of a gas in a liquid
15) What is the reason of Brownian movement? D) It is colloidal dispersion of a liquid in a liquid
A) Small size of molecules of dispersion medium
B) Small size of particles 23) Which process is involved in heterogeneous
C) Exchange of kinetic and potential energy catalysis?
D) Collision between molecules of dispersion A) Sorption
medium and dispersed phase B) Absorption
C) Chemisorption
16) __________ is used as catalyst to reatard the D) Compound formation in the bulk
oxidation of chloroform.
A) H2O 24) __________ an emulsifying agents helps in the
B) C2H5OH formation of o/w emulsion.
A) Long chain alcohols
C) H2SO4 B) Fatty acids
D) glycerol C) Lamp black
D) Proteins
17) Mark the correct statement in case of milk.
A) Milk is an emulsion of protein in water 25) Find out the wrong statement about
B) Milk is an emulsion of fat in water chemisorption.
C) Milk is sterlized by protein A) It involves the formation of a compound on the
D) Milk is sterlized by fat surface of the solid adsorbent
B) It first increases with increase of temperature
18) Which colloidal sol is found effective in treating and then decreases
the stomach disorder? C) It is specific in nature
A) Latex D) It is reversible in nature.
B) Milk of magnesia
C) Argyrol
D) Colloidal sulphur

19) The minimum concentration of an electrolyte in

millimoles per litre required to cause coagulation of
a sol is known as its
A) flocculation value
B) gold number
C) protective value
D) critical value

20) The curve showing the variation of pressure

with temperature for a given amount of adsorption
at constant V is known as

A) adsorption isotherm
B) adsorption isobar
C) adsorption isoster
D) adsorption isochore

21) In the separation of nobel gases, which

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 11 Adsorption and Colloids Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: D) adsorbate 18) Ans: B) Milk of magnesia

Sol: Acetic acid is adsorbate while charcoal is
adsorbent. 19) Ans: A) flocculation value

02) Ans: B) electrophoresis 20) Ans: D) adsorption isochore

03) Ans: A) Soap + water 21) Ans: B) Activated charcoal

04) Ans: D) moderate pressure 22) Ans: A) It is colloidal dispersion of a liquid in

a solid
05) Ans: A) liquid dispersed in gas
Sol: In fog, water is dispersed in gas. 23) Ans: C) Chemisorption

06) Ans: A) Heterogeneous 24) Ans: D) Proteins

07) Ans: A) formaldehyde solution 25) Ans: D) It is reversible in nature.

Sol: Formaldehyde solution (formalin)

08) Ans: B)

09) Ans: D) Water vapour

10) Ans: A) solid and liquid

Sol: solid and liquid

11) Ans: B) Scattering of light

12) Ans: D)

13) Ans: B) emulsion

Sol: In emulsion, dispersed phase and dispersion
medium are liquids.

14) Ans: B) Physical adsorption

Sol: Adsorption is multilayer in the case of physical
adsorption.

15) Ans: D) Collision between molecules of

dispersion medium and dispersed phase
Sol: Brownian movement is because of collision of
molecules dispersion medium and dispersed
phase.

16) Ans: B) C2H5OH

Sol: C2H5OH

17) Ans: A) Milk is an emulsion of protein in

water
Sol: Milk is an emulsion of fat in water.

JEE-MAIN, MHT-CET, NEET/AIPMT, MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH)

 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 15 Hydrocarbons Marks : 25

01) The reaction there is formation of _______.

2CH3Br  2Na  dry ether
 C2H6  2NaBr is A) chloroform
B) mixture of methyl chloride, methylene chloride,
example of
chloroform and carbon tetrachloride
A) Aldol condensation
C) methyl chloride
B) Wurtz reaction
D) methylene chloride
C) Reimer Tiemann reaction
D) Hoffman bromide reaction
09) 2, 3-dimethylbutane can be produced by
reaction of sodium metal on
02) Which of the following gives only one
A) isopropyl bromide
monochloroderivative?
B) butyl bromide
A) 2-methylheptane
C) ethyl bromide
B) 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethylbutane
D) isobutyl bromide
C) n-octane
D) 3-methylheptane
10) Which of the following statement is wrong? The
members of the homologous series of alkanes
03) Total _____ isomers are possible for alkane with
A) are all straight chain compounds
molecular weight 86.
B) have the general formula CnH2n+2
A) 3
C) have similar chemical properties
B) 4
D) show a regular gradation of physical properties
C) 5
D) 6
11) Which of the following represents bond line
structure of pentane?
04) What is the correct IUPAC name of the
compound? A)
B)
C)
D)
A) 2, 3-Diethylhepatane
B) 3-Methyl-4-ethylocatane 12) The number isomers possible for hexane are
C) 4-Ethyl-3-methyloctane A) 6
D) 5-Ethyl-6-methyloctane B) 4
C) 5
05) Which of the following alkane is gas at room D) 7
temperature?
A) C4H10 13) In alkanes, carbon atoms are ______
B) C17H36 hybridised.
C) C10H22 A) sp3
D) C6H14 B) sp3d
C) sp2
06) Which gas is believed to be the cause of D) sp
explosion in coal mines?
A) C3H8 14) Methane can be converted into ethane by
B) C4H10 which of the following process?
C) CH4 A) Chlorination followed by the reaction with
D) C2H6 aqueous KOH
B) Chlorination followed by the reaction with
07) Ethyl chloride can be converted into ethane by alcoholic KOH
which of the following process? C) Chlorination followed by Wrutz reaction
A) Reaction with magnesium in ether D) Chlorination followed by decarboxylation
B) Catalytic hydrogenation
C) Reduction using Zn-Cu/alcohol 15) Which of the following represents Wurtz
D) Reaction with sodium in dry ether reaction?
A) RX  2[H] 
08) If excess of chlorine reacts with methane, then

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

dry ether
B) RX  Mg   24) What is a equation for combustion of methane?
A) CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O
C) RX  KOH 
B) CH4 + O2  C + 2H2O
dry ether
D) 2RX  2Na   [O]
C) CH4  [O]  CH3OH   HCOOH
16) Which one of the following is alkane? D) 2CH4 + O2  2CH3OH
A) C4H6
B) C4H10 25) What is the decreasing order of boiling points
C) C4H11 in isomers of pentane?
D) C4H8 A) Isopentane>neopentane>n-pentane
B) Neopentane>isopentane>n-pentane
17) Find the correct order of boiling points of 2, C) n-pentane>neopentane>isopentane
2-dimethylpropane, 2-methylbutane and D) n-pentane>isopentane>neopentane
n-pentane.
A) n-pentane >2, 2-dimethylpropane >
2-methylbutane
B) n-pentane > 2-methylbutane > 2,
2-dimethylpropane
C) 2, 2-dimethylpropane > 2-methylbutane
>n-pentane
D) 2-methylbutane > n-pentane > 2,
2-dimethylpropane.

18) What we get, when Grignard reagent

(CH3MgBr) is treated with water?
A) Methyl alcohol
B) Methane
C) Ethane
D) Ethyl alcohol

19) When two isopropyl groups combine together,

which alkane is formed?
A) Neopentane
B) 3-ethylpentane
C) Hexane
D) 2, 3-dimethylbutane

20) LPG contains

A) methane
B) butane
C) ethane
D) none of the above

21) An ethyl bromide reacts with sodium in dry

ether to produce
A) butane
B) ethane
C) ethene
D) propane

22) Ethene reacts with H2/Ni to give compound A.

A reacts with bromine to give B. B reacts with
sodium in dry ether to give C. What is C?
A) CH2CH2CH2-CH3
B) CH3CH2ONa
C) CH=CH
D) CH3-CH3

23) Ethane shows conformations because of

A) free rotation of C-C bond
B) no rotation of C-H bond
C) restricted rotation of C-C bond
D) rotation of C-H bond

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY
MHT-CET-XI - New Syllabus (MH) 2022-23
Time : 30 Min Chem : 15 Hydrocarbons Marks : 25
Hints and Solutions

01) Ans: B) Wurtz reaction CHCl3  CCl4

Sol: Wurtz reaction is suitable for the preparation
of symmetrical alkanes. 09) Ans: A) isopropyl bromide
CH3  CH Br  2Na 
Dry ether

02) Ans: B) 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethylbutane |
CH3 CH3 CH3
| | Sol:
Sol: CH3  C  C  CH3 CH3  CH CH CH3  NaBr
| | | |
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
2,2,3,3  tetramethylbu tan e. All hydrogen
Only one monochloroderivative is obtained, atoms 10) Ans: A) are all straight chain compounds
are similar i.e. present on primary carbon.

03) Ans: C) 5 11) Ans: A)

Sol: Pentane contains a straight chain of 5 carbon
Sol: Molecular weight 86 represents C6H14 .
atoms.
Isomers possible of C6H14 are :
12) Ans: C) 5
(i)
13) Ans: A) sp3
Sol: All are carbon single bonds in alkanes.
(ii) Therefore, carbon atoms undergo SP3
hybridization.

(iii) 14) Ans: C) Chlorination followed by Wrutz

reaction
Cl Heat with Na in ether
CH4  2
 CH3Cl  
Methane
h  Wurtz reaction
Sol:
CH3  CH3
(iv) Ethane

dry ether
15) Ans: D) 2RX  2Na  
(v) Sol: Wurtz reaction states that reaction between
two molecules of alkyl halide and sodium to give
higher alkane.
04) Ans: C) 4-Ethyl-3-methyloctane
16) Ans: B) C4H10
Sol: It follows the general formula of alkane
CnH2n+2

17) Ans: B) n-pentane > 2-methylbutane > 2,

Sol:
2-dimethylpropane
Sol: Branching of the chain makes the molecule
05) Ans: A) C4H10
more compact and thereby decreases the surface
Sol: Alkanes upto four carbon are gases and higher
area. and the intermolecular forces become small
alkanes are liquid and next higher are solid.
in magnitude on account of branching.
Consequently, the boiling points of branched chain
06) Ans: C) CH4
alkanes are less than the straight chain isomers.
07) Ans: C) Reduction using Zn-Cu/alcohol
Zn/Ca
18) Ans: B) Methane
Sol: C2H5Cl  2[H]   C2H6  HCl
19) Ans: D) 2, 3-dimethylbutane
08) Ans: B) mixture of methyl chloride, methylene
chloride, chloroform and carbon tetrachloride
excess
Sol: CH4  Cl2   CH3Cl  CH2Cl2

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 MATRIX SCIENCE ACADEMY

CH3  CH CH CH3

| |
Sol: CH3 CH3

2,3  dim ethyl bu tan e

20) Ans: B) butane

21) Ans: A) butane

D E
Sol: 2C2H5Br  Na  CH3CH2CH2CH3  NaBr

22) Ans: A) CH2CH2CH2-CH3

Ni
Sol: CH2  CH2  H2  
Br
CH3CH3 
2
 CH3CH2Br
D E
2CH3CH2Br  2Na 
CH3CH2CH2CH3  2NaBr

23) Ans: A) free rotation of C-C bond

Sol: Because of free rotation of C-C bond, different
interconvertible spatial arrangements (rotamers)
are possible.

24) Ans: A) CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O

Sol: Methane is completely oxidized.

25) Ans: D) n-pentane>isopentane>neopentane

Sol: Straight chain alkanes have higher boiling
point than branched chain alkanes.

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