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1. A father presents to the emergency department with his 4-year-old son.

The father explains that his son


had a fever, so he gave the child baby aspirin to decrease the fever and it has not worked. What should
concern the nurse about a 4-year-old receiving aspirin?
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a. Aspirin has the potential to cause gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding in children.
b. Aspirin has the potential to cause ringing in the ears in children.
c. Aspirin has the potential to cause Reye’s syndrome in children.

d. Aspirin has the potential to cause hyperglycemia in children.

2. Urinary retention may occur with high doses of ________________ drugs.


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a. Dopaminegic
b. Norepinehrine

c. Acetylcholine
d. Adrenergic
Correct answer
d. Adrenergic

3. Which drug group acts on the brainstem and medulla to stimulate respiration?
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a. Triptan
b. Analeptic
c. Amphetamine
d. Anorexiant

Correct answer
b. Analeptic

4. A condition that occurs when the normal flora is disturbed during antibiotic therapy is known as:
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a. Organ toxicity
b. Superinfection
c. Allergic reaction
d. Hypersensitivity

Correct answer
b. Superinfection

5. A patient has reached the lowest level of his blood counts secondary to chemotherapy. Which nursing
diagnosis is the most appropriate
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a. Risk for infection
b. Risk for malnutrition
c. Risk for dehydration
d. Risk for cardiac failure

Correct answer
a. Risk for infection

6. The actions of sympatholytics include: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)


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a. Decreased blood pressure
b. Decreased heart rate

c. Constricted bronchioles

d. Increased blood sugar

7. The nurse is planning teaching regarding antigout drug. What information should be included? (SELECT
ALL THAT APPLY).
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a. Avoid direct sunlight.

b. Increase fluid intake

c. Avoid alcoholic beverages

d. Include large doses of vitamin C supplements

e. Avoid foods high in purines

f. Take the drug with food

Correct answer
b. Increase fluid intake
c. Avoid alcoholic beverages
e. Avoid foods high in purines
f. Take the drug with food

8. A patient with a complicated medical history including hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and arthritis calls
the health care provider’s office to speak with the nurse about “all of these bruises I have all of a sudden.”
Which potential drug interaction should concern the nurse with these symptoms.
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a. Sulfasalazine and acetaminophen

b. Meloxicam and amlodipine


c. Aspirin and warfarin
d. Tolmetin and propranolol
Correct answer
c. Aspirin and warfarin

9. What priority health teaching should the nurse include for the patient who has just started a course of
INH? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
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a. Body fluids including urine and tears may turn a brownish-orange color.

b. Fluid intake should be restricted.

c. Daily weighs should be monitored.


d. The patient may need to take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) supplements.

e. Alcohol should be avoided.

Correct answer
d. The patient may need to take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) supplements.
e. Alcohol should be avoided.

10. The action of adrenergic agonists include all of the following: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
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a. Increased blood pressure

b. Constricted bronchioles

c. Dilated pupils

d. Increased blood sugar


Correct answer
a. Increased blood pressure
c. Dilated pupils
d. Increased blood sugar

11. Rapid IV infusion of echinocandins can cause _____________________ reactions.


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a. dopamine - mediated

b. nigstamine - mediated
c. histamine - mediated
Correct answer
c. histamine - mediated

12. Drug absorption is the movement of the drug into the _____ after______.
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a. Cells, administration
b. Bloodstream, administration

13. Cell membranes contain ______ that enhance drug actions.


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a. Membrane

b. Receptor
Correct answer
b. Receptor

14. Which drug form is most rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract?
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a. Capsule
b. Sublingual

c. Suspension
d. Tablet
Correct answer
c. Suspension

15. Disintegration of enteric-coated tablets occurs in the:


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a. Colon

b. Liver
c. Small intestine
d. Stomach
Correct answer
c. Small intestine
16. Which statement places the four process of PHARMACOKINETICs in the correct sequence:
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a. Absorption, metabolism, distribution, excretion

b. Distribution, absorption, metabolism, excretion


c. Distribution, metabolism, absorption, excretion
d. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
Correct answer
d. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

17. Which is the best description of a drug’s serum HALF-LIFE?


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a. The time required for half of a drug dose to be absorbed
b. The time required after absorption for half of the drug to be eliminated

c. The time required for a drug to be totally effective


d. The time required for half of the drug dose to be completely distributed

18. Order: Benadryl (diphenhydramine) 25 mg, po, q6h, PRN.Available: Benadryl 12.5 mg / 5 ml How
many ml would you give?
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a. 5
b. 15

c. 12
d. 10
Correct answer
d. 10

19. Order: Biaxin (clarithromycin) 0.25 g. po, bid.Available: 125mg/5mL(Be sure to convert because the
stock is in mg and the order is in g.)How many ml would you give?
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a. 17
b. 20
c. 10

d. 15

20. Order: cimetidine (Tagamet) 600 mg, po, hs. Available: 200 mg/tabletHow many tablets would you
give?
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a. 1
b. 5

c. 3
d. 2
Correct answer
c. 3

21. Many antihypertensive drugs can cause fluid retention. To decrease body fluid, the drug group often
administered with antihypertensive drugs is:
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a. diuretics

b. direct-acting arteriolar vaasodilations


c. ACE inhibitors
d. angiotensin II-receptor blockers

22. Beta-adrenergic blockers reduce cardiac output by diminishing the sympathetic nervous system
response. With continued use of beta blockers, vascular resistance is _________ and blood pressure is
__________.
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a. increased; increased
b. increased; lowered

c. diminished; lowered
d. diminished; increased
Correct answer
c. diminished; lowered

23. What action does amlodipine have in the vasculature?


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a. Increased peripheral vascular resistance
b. Peripheral clotting

c. Thrombolysis
d. Vasodilation
Correct answer
d. Vasodilation

24. Which drug(s) is/are known to interact with levothyroxine? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
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a. Anticoagulants

b. Digitalis

c. Diuretics

d. NSIDs

e. Oral antidiabetics

Correct answer
a. Anticoagulants
b. Digitalis
e. Oral antidiabetics

25. A patient is taking prednisone for an exacerbation of arthritic knee pain. What is the usual dose of
prednisone?
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a. 0.5 – 6 mg/day

b. 5 – 60 mg/day
c. 60 – 100 mg/day
d. 100 – 125 mg/day
Correct answer
b. 5 – 60 mg/day

26. The patient has been started on prednisone for bronchitis to decrease inflammation. When is the best
time to take prednisone?
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a. Before meals
b. With meals

c. 1 hour after meals


d. At bedtime

27. Antiemetic drugs in the classes of anticholinergics and antihistamines should not be used in patients
with ________ because of the drug’s side effects.
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a. brain trauma

b. glaucoma
c. conjunctivitis
d. detached retina
Correct answer
b. glaucoma

28. A drug to alleviate nausea and vomiting, such as______, can also be used as an appetite stimulant.
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a. cathartics
b. cannabinoid

c. sodium
d. magnesium

29. It promotes a soft stool:


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a. laxatives

b. antiemetics
c. cathartics
d. anticholinergics

30. Antihistamines are H1 antagonists that have effects on the _____ muscle.
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a. striated
b. smooth
c. skeletal
d. cardiac

Correct answer
b. smooth

31. Nasal decongestants stimulate the alpha adrenergic receptors that cause_______, which can also cause
hypertension.
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a. vasodilation
b. vasoconstriction

32. Antihistamines are another group of drugs used for the relief of cold symptoms. What properties of
these drugs result in decreased secretions?
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a. Analgesic

b. Anticholinergic
c. Antitussive
d. Cholinergic
Correct answer
b. Anticholinergic

33. What is the recommended daily allowance of folic aside for pregnant woman?
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a. 100 – 400 mcg
b. 400 – 800 mcg

c. 800 – 1200 mcg


d. 1200 – 1600 mcg

34. Which is the most commonly ingested nonprescription drug for pain during pregnancy?
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a. Acetaminophen
b. Aspirin

c. Diphenhydramine
d. Ibuprofen
Correct answer
a. Acetaminophen

35. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement for the pregnant patient receiving a beta-
sympathomimetic drug?
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a. Auscultate breath sounds every 4 hours.

b. Encourage patient to sleep on her back.


c. Have atropine available as a reversal agents.
d. Monitor maternal vital signs every 5 minutes when receiving IV dose.

36. Which drug group acts on the brainstem and medulla to stimulate respiration?
0/1
a. Amphetamine

b. Analeptic
c. Anorexiant
d. Triptan
Correct answer
b. Analeptic

37. A common side effect of NSAIDs is:


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a. Tachycardia

b. Heartburn
c. Gastrointestinal distress
d. Polyuria
Correct answer
c. Gastrointestinal distress

38. The analgesic drug to give a child with a virus or flu is:
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a. Aspirin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Ibuprofen
d. Indocin

39. A patient with a complicated medical history including hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and arthritis
calls the health care provider’s office to speak with the nurse about “all of these bruises I have all of a
sudden.” Which potential drug interaction should concern the nurse with these symptoms?
1/1
a. Aspirin and warfarin

b. Sulfasalazine and acetaminophen


c. Tolmetin and propranolol
d. Meloxicam and amlodipine

40. Ibuprofen is a frequently prescribed anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic. What is a positive
aspect of this drug in relation to other NSAIDs?
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a. It tends to cause less GI irritation.

b. It may be taken between meals.


c. It has a long half-life of 20-30 hours.
d. It has no drug-drug interactions.

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