1.

A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible

metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common
metastasis sites for cancer cells?

A Reproductive tract
B White blood cells (WBCs)
C Colon
D Liver

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is complaining of tingling in her hands
and fingers. The nurse knows this is a sign of what electrolyte imbalance?

A Hyponatremia
B Hypernatremia
C Hypocalcemia
D Hypercalcemia

3. The nurse is assessing a patient with a respiratory problem. Which is most

reflective of an early adaptation to hypoxia?
1. Apnea
2. Cyanosis
3. Restlessness
4. Dysrhythmias
4. The nurse would instruct the client to eat which of the following foods to
obtain the best supply of vitamin B12?

A. Whole grains
B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Meats and dairy products
D. Broccoli and Brussels sprouts
5. Insulin given intravenously.
Human Regular Insulin

6. The cyanosis that accompanies bacterial pneumonia is primarily caused by

which of the following?
A. Decreased cardiac output.
B. Pleural effusion.
C. Inadequate peripheral circulation.
 D. Decreased oxygenation of the blood.

7. A 79-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of

bacterial pneumonia. While obtaining the client's health history, the nurse learns that
the client has osteoarthritis, follows a vegetarian diet, and is very concerned with
cleanliness. Which of the following would most likely be a predisposing factor for the
diagnosis of pneumonia?
A. Age.
B. Osteoarthritis.
C. Vegetarian diet.
D. Daily bathing.

8. Jasmine suffered from IV infiltration. Upon the assessment of the nurse, the
skin is blanched on the IV site, edematous 1-6 inches in any direction, cool to touch and
is painful. what is the Infitration scale of this patient?
a.1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

9. The nurse is teaching a client how to manage a nosebleed. Which of the

following instructions would be appropriate to give the client?
■ 1. "Tilt your head backward and pinch your nose."
■ 2. "Lie down flat and place an ice compress over the bridge of the nose."
■ 3. "Blow your nose gently with your neck flexed."
■ 4. "Sit down, lean forward, and pinch the soft portion of your nose."

10. A client with allergic rhinitis is instructed on the correct technique for using
an intranasal inhaler. Which of the following statements would demonstrate to the
nurse that the client understands the instructions?
• 1. "I should limit the use of the inhaler to early morning and bedtime use."
• 2. "It is important to not shake the canister because that can damage the spray
device."
• 3. "I should hold one nostril closed while I insert the spray into the other nostril."
• 4. "The inhaler tip is inserted into the nostril and pointed toward the inside nostril
wall."

11. Stacy is diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) and beginning
chemotherapy. Stacy’s mother states to the nurse that it is hard to see Stacy with no
hair. The best response for the nurse is:
A “Stacy looks very nice wearing a hat”.
B. “This is only temporary; Stacy will re-grow new hair in 3-6 months, but may be
different in texture”.
C “You should not worry about her hair, just be glad that she is alive”.
D “Yes it is upsetting. But try to cover up your feelings when you are with her or else
she may be upset”.

12. Instructions for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) would
include information about which of the following blood dyscrasias?
A. Essential thrombocytopenia
B. Von Willebrand’s disease
C. Dressler’s syndrome
D. Polycythemia

13. The most common early sign of kidney disease is: A. Sodium retention B.
Elevated BUN level C. Development of metabolic acidosis D. Inability to dilute or
concentrate urine Answer: B

14. The client diagnosed with a pituitary tumor developed syndrome of

inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which interventions should the nurse
implement?
1. Assess for dehydration and monitor blood glucose levels.
2. Assess for nausea and vomiting and weigh daily.
3. Monitor potassium levels and encourage fluid intake.
4. Administer vasopressin IV and conduct a fluid deprivation test.
15. A client with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest x-ray. For which
of the following reasons is this done?
A. To confirm the diagnosis
B. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed
C. To determine the extent of the lesions
D. To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection
If the lesions are large enough, the chest x-ray will show their presence in the lungs.
Sputum culture confirms the diagnosis. There can be false-positive and false-negative
skin test results. A chest x-ray can't determine if this is a primary or secondary
infection.

16. A chest x-ray should a client's lungs to be clear. His Mantoux test is positive,
with a 10mm if induration. His previous test was negative. These test results are
possible because:

A. He had TB in the past and no longer has it.

B. He was successfully treated for TB, but skin tests always stay positive.
C. He's a "seroconverter", meaning the TB has gotten to his bloodstream.
D. He's a "tuberculin converter," which means he has been infected with TB
since his last skin test.

tuberculin converter's skin test will be positive, meaning he has been exposed to
an infected with TB and now has a cell-mediated immune response to the skin
test. The client's blood and x-ray results may stay negative. It doesn't mean the
infection has advanced to the active stage. Because his x-ray is negative, he
should be monitored every 6 months to see if he develops changes in his x-ray
or pulmonary examination. Being a seroconverter doesn't mean the TB has
gotten into his bloodstream; it means it can be detected by a blood test.

17. 15. A client who is HIV+ has had a PPD skin test. The nurse notes a 7-mm
area of induration at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the results as:

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Inconclusive
D. The need for repeat testing.
The client with HIV+ status is considered to have positive results on PPD skin
test with an area greater than 5-mm of induration. The client with HIV is
immunosuppressed, making a smaller area of induration positive for this type of client.
 17. A nurse is teaching a client with TB about dietary elements that should be
increased in the diet. The nurse suggests that the client increase intake of:

A. Meats and citrus fruits

B. Grains and broccoli
C. Eggs and spinach
D. Potatoes and fish
The nurse teaches the client with TB to increase intake of protein, iron, and vitamin C.

18. Which of the following symptoms is common in clients with TB?

A. Weight loss
B. Increased appetite
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Mental status changes
TB typically produces anorexia and weight loss. Other signs and symptoms may include
fatigue, low-grade fever, and night sweats.

19. Which of the following is significant data to gather from a client who has
been diagnosed with pneumonia? Select all that apply.

1. Quality of breath sounds.

2. Presence of bowel sounds.
3. Occurence of chest pain.
4. Amount of peripheral edema.
5. Color of nail beds.
A respiratory assessment, which includes auscultating breath sounds and
assessing the color of the nail beds, is a priority for clients with pneumonia. Assessing
for the presence of chest pain is also an important respiratory assessment as chest pain
can interfere with the client's ability to breathe deeply. Auscultating bowel sounds and
assessing for peripheral edema may be appropriate assessments, but these are not
priority assessments for the client with pneumonia.

20. 5) The nurse is teaching the client about breast self-examination. Which
observation should the client be taught to recognize when doing the examination for
detection of breast cancer?
A. tender, movable lump
B. pain on breast self-examination
C. round, well-defined lump
 D. dimpling of the breast tissue

 21.
The nurse is teaching the client about breast self-examination. Which
observation should the client be taught to recognize when doing the
examination for detection of breast cancer?
o A.
Tender, movable lump
o B.
Pain on breast self-examination
o C.
Round, well-defined lump
o D.
Dimpling of the breast tissue

25. 3. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has
diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he’s impotent
and says he’s concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client’s care,
the most appropriate intervention would be to:
A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.
B. Provide time for privacy.
C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.

26. Which physiological response is often associated with surgery-related stress?

A. Bronchial constriction.
B. Decreased cortisol levels.
C. Peripheral vasodilation.
D. Sodium and water retention.

27. A 78-year-old patient is scheduled for transition to home after treatment for
heart disease. The patient's spouse, who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease,
plans to care for the patient at home. The spouse says that their grown children, who
live nearby, will help. The best approach to discharge planning is to:
A. arrange nursing home placement for the couple.
B. consult the spouse's healthcare provider about the spouse's ability to care for the
patient.
C. contact the children to ascertain their commitment to help.
D. discuss community resources with the spouse and offer to make referrals.

28. Mr Lim suffered in respiratory paralysis due to hypermagnesemia, which of

the following level of magnesium will result to respiratory paralysis.
A. 5-10 mEq/L
B. 10-15 mEq/L
C. 15-20 mEq/L
D. 0.5 mEq/L
29. A patient's family does not know the patient's end-of-life care preferences,
but assumes that they know what is best for the patient under the circumstances. This
assumption reflects:
justice.
paternalism.
pragmatism.
veracity.
30. For a patient with Crohn's disease, the medical-surgical nurse recommends a
diet that is: high in fiber, and low in protein and calories.
high in fiber, and low in protein and calories.
high in potassium.
low in fiber, and high in protein and calories.
low in potassium.

31. To prepare a patient on the unit for a bronchoscopic procedure, the medical-
surgical nurse administers the IV sedative. The nurse then instructs the licensed
practical/vocational nurse to:
A. educate the patient about the pending procedure.
B. give the patient small sips of water only.
C. measure the patient's blood pressure and pulse readings.
D. take the patient to the bathroom one more time.
31. An elderly client with pneumonia may appear with which of the following
symptoms first?
A. Altered mental status and dehydration
B. Fever and chills
C. Hemoptysis and dyspnea
D. Pleuritic chest pain and cough

32. The most common, preventable complication of abdominal surgery is:

 A. atelectasis.
B. fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
C. thrombophlebitis.
D. urinary retention.

33. Which clinical manifestation would lead the nurse to suspect that a client is
experience hypermagnesemia?
A. Muscle pain and acute rhabdomyolysis.
B. Hot, flushed skin and diaphoresis.
C. Soft-tissue calcification and hyperreflexia.
D. Increased respiratory rate and depth.
34. A client is diagnosed w metabolic acidosis, which would the nurse expect the
health care provider to order?
A. Potassium
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Serum sodium level
D. Bronchodilator
- a base used to treat documented metabolic acidosis
35. Alexander has hypotonic FVE; which if the following findings would the nurse
expect to assess in the patient?
A. poor skin turgor and increased thirst
B. weight gain and thirst
C. interstitial edema and hypertension
D. hypotension and pitting edema
36. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) have been prescribed for a client with
TB. A nurse reviews the medical record of the client. Which of the following, if noted in
the client’s history, would require physician notification?
A. Heart disease
B. Allergy to penicillin
C. Hepatitis B
D. Rheumatic fever
37. A client was infected with TB 10 years ago but never developed the disease.
He’s now being treated for cancer. The client begins to develop signs of TB. This is
known as which of the following types of infection?
A. Active infection
B. Primary infection
C. Superinfection
D. Tertiary infection
38. The nurse is teaching a client who has been diagnosed with TB how to avoid
spreading the disease to family members. Which statement(s) by the client indicate(s)
that he has understood the nurse’s instructions? Select all that apply.
A. “I will need to dispose of my old clothing when I return home.”
B. “I should always cover my mouth and nose when sneezing.”
C. “It is important that I isolate myself from family when possible.”
D. “I should use paper tissues to cough in and dispose of them properly.”
E. “I can use regular plates and utensils whenever I eat.

39. A client has active TB. Which of the following symptoms will he exhibit?
A.) Chest and lower back pain
B.) Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis
C) Fever of more than 104*F and nausea
D) Headache and photophobia B
40. Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for TB?
A. Chest x-ray
B. Mantoux test
C. Sputum culture
D. Tuberculin test C.
41. A client has a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. The nurse correctly
interprets this reaction to mean that the client has: 1. Active tuberculosis. 2. Had
contact with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 3. Developed a resistance to tubercle bacilli.
4. Developed passive immunity to tuberculosis. B

42. The public health nurse is providing fol-up care to a client with TB who does
not regularly take his medication. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for
this client?
A. Ask the client's spouse to supervise the daily administration of the medications.
B. Visit the clinic weekly to ask him whether he is taking his medications regularly.
C. Notify the physician of the client's non-compliance and request a different
prescription.
D. Remind the client that TB can be fatal if not taken properly.

43. Which intervention do you plan to include with a patient who has renal
calculi?
A. Maintain bed rest
B. Increase dietary purines
C. Restrict fluids
D. Strain all urine

44. A community health nurse is conducting an educational session with

community members regarding TB. The nurse tells the group that one of the first
symptoms associated with TB is:
A. A bloody, productive cough
B. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum
C. Chest pain
D. Dyspnea
45. Which of the following methods is the best way to confirm the diagnosis of a
pneumothorax?
A. Auscultate breath sounds.
B. Have the client use an incentive spirometer.
C. Take a chest x-ray.
D. Stick a needle in the area of decreased breath sounds.
46. When caring for a patient who is hospitalized with active TB, the nurse
observes a family member who is visiting the patient. The nurse will need to intervene
if the family member:
A. Washes the hands before entering the patient's room.
B. Puts on a surgical face mask before visiting the patient.
C. Brings food from a "fast-food" restaurant to the patient.
D. Hands the patient a tissue from the box at the bedside.
47. Which of the following organisms most commonly causes community
acquired pneumonia in adults?
A. Haemiphilus influenzae
B. Klebsiella pnuemoniae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
48. A client with pneumonia develops dyspnea with a respiratory rate of 32
breaths/minute & difficulty expelling his secretions. The nurse auscultates his lung fields
& hears bronchial sounds in the lower left lobe. The nurse determines that the client
requires which of the following treatments first?
A. Antibiotics
B. Bed rest
C. Oxygen
D. Nutritional intake
49. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the client’s
cae plan during dialysis therapy?
Limit the client’s visitors
Monitor the client’s blood pressure
Pad the side rails of the bed
Keep the client NPO.
50. A client with shortness of breath has decreased to absent breath sounds on
the right side, from the apex to the base. Which of the following conditions would best
explain this?
A. Acute asthma
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
51. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic airflow limitation and notes that the
client has a "barrel chest." The nurse interprets that this client has which of the
following forms of chronic airflow limitation?
Emphysema
52. A client with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes an ileostomy. On the
first day after surgery, the nurse notes that the client's stoma appears dusky. How
should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Blood supply to the stoma has been interrupted.
B. This is a normal finding 1 day after surgery.
C. The ostomy bag should be adjusted.
D. An intestinal obstruction has occurred.
53. When instructing client on how to decrease the risk of COPD. The nurse
would emphasize which of the following behaviors?
Abstain from cigarette smoking
54. Which of the following outcomes would be appropriate for a client with COPD
who has been discharged to home?
 Which of the following outcomes would be appropriate for a client with COPD
who has been discharged to home? The client:
o A.
Promises to do pursed lip breathing at home.
o B.
States actions to reduce pain.
o C.
States that he will use oxygen via a nasal cannula at 5 L/minute.
 o D.
Agrees to call the physician if dyspnea on exertion increases.

55. Aminophylline (theophylline) is prescribed for a client with acute

bronchitis. A nurse administers the medication, knowing that the primary action of
this medication is to:

Aminophylline is a bronchodilator that directly relaxes the smooth muscles of

the bronchial airway

56. The client with tuberculosis is to be discharged home with community

health nursing follow-up. Of the following nursing interventions, which should have
the highest priority?
1. Offering the client emotional support.
2. Teaching the client about the disease and its treatment.
3. Coordinating various agency services.
4. Assessing the client's environment for sanitation.
REMEMBER…
an antimicrobialpn agent na gin gagamit permi han nurses pag care ha
infectious patients?
soap and water

ano iyo answer dd na question basta an may choices na ngada an

Chickenpox, measles, mumps ngan Malaria
chicken pox

TREATMENT OF ACUTE SINUSITIS

ANTIBIOTIC

Always remember, SINGLE MOST EFFECTIVE IN PREVENTING IN

CONTAMINATIONS, INFECTIONS, OR ACQUIRING DISEASES IS
HAND WASHING

Mayda adto didto question about poisoning, an answer ngadto 100%

oxygen