Ten English Tests 2024 + Key

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2024
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO SỐ 01 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ, Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ, tên thí sinh: ........................................................................... Số báo danh:……………………………………………

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 1: Tony and Phillips are talking about social networking sites.
- Tony: “I believe that there are some dangers of using social networking sites.”
- Phillips: “________. They can expose us to identity theft.”
A. I quite agree B. That’s not true
C. I don’t go along with you D. No, I don’t think so
Question 2: - Jack: "Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?" - Jill: “______”
A. Yes, you're a good friend B. Yes, I'd love to. Thanks
C. Do you think I would? D. It is a waste of time. Thank you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 3: The 2024 Hyundai Kona will be one of ________ cars with over-the-air updates.
A. more affordable B. the most affordable C. as affordable as D. so affordable
Question 4: “The helicopter then flew ______ past a fishing boat, plunged into the water and exploded,” fishermen said.
A. close B. closing C. closely D. closure
Question 5: He handed over a brown envelope _________ a hundred-dollar bills.
A. contained B. contains C. to contain D. containing
Question 6: Ocean Cleanup removes 200,000 kilograms of plastic from _____ Pacific Ocean.
A. Ø (no article) B. an C. the D. a
Question 7: Tristan Thompson secretly proposed to Khloé Kardashian in December 2020 — but she ______.
A. woke him up B. called him up
C. let him down D. turned him down
Question 8: This house _________ by my grandfather in 1970.
A. was built B. has built C. built D. was build
Question 9: He promised _______ us the package by 6 P.M.
A. sending B. send C. to sending D. to send
Question 10: This room isn’t large enough, _______?
A. isn’t it B. hasn’t it C. does it D. is it
Question 11: Remember to wash all cooking _______ before preparing any dishes.
A. gadgets B. utensils C. devices D. applications
Question 12: My mother _______ the clothes to dry outside when it suddenly started to rain.
A. was hanging B. will hang C. hangs D. is hanging
Question 13: Tina is a highly accomplished linguist; her great _______ for languages really amazes me.
A. resource B. facility C. amenity D. convenience
Question 14: Thanh won’t go home _______.
A. after she had completed the report B. since she completed the report
C. when she completed the report D. until she has completed the report
Question 15: My brother really _______ pride in his achievement at university.
A. keeps B. takes C. makes D. catches
Question 16: Hoang is excited _______ the school field trip tomorrow.
A. at B. to C. about D. on
Question 17: A lot of fans are disappointed to find that their idols have _______ of clay when they are caught doing something
embarrassing.
A. mouth B. weight C. teeth D. feet
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. city B. ocean C. musician D. special
Question 19: A. night B. mile C. life D. ski
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. interview B. recognise C. motivate D. entertain
Question 21: A. temple B. household C. account D. farmer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word
in each of the following questions.
Question 22: It’s such a complex situation that simple actions cannot be effective.
A. typical B. clear C. supportive D. difficult
Question 23: The city council has recently launched a new campaign to cut car emissions.
A. start B. reduce C. follow D. find
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Although we tried to persuade him to change the marketing strategy, he dug his heels in
and didn’t accept our proposal.
A. refused to change his ideas B. decided to invest more
C. denied what he had done D. was willing to change his mind
Question 25: James wishes he would be more confident when speaking in front of a large group of people.
A. certain B. relaxed C. nervous D. frightening
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
We tend to associate computer games with young people, and it is true the majority of gamers are young. (26) _______,
a group from Sweden is showing that reaching the age of retirement doesn’t mean that you stop having fun. With an average
age over 60, the Silver Snipers are the oldest team to take part in professional gaming competition. And don’t be (27) ______
by their elderly. They take their playing very seriously!
Although they don’t enjoy much success in terms of winning trophies, they get enormous (28) _______ from taking
part. They have a website, and (29) _______ loyal supporters who cheer them on. They even have a professional coach (30)
______ helps improve their performance. But their main ambition is to show that gaming is for everyone, old and young!
(Adapted from Formula by Sheila Dignen and Jacky Newbrook)
Question 26: A. Moreover B. Even though C. However D. Hence
Question 27: A. disabled B. discouraged C. disobeyed D. disrupted
Question 28: A. achievement B. realisation C. prosperity D. satisfaction
Question 29: A. every B. a little C. many D. Others
Question 30: A. whose B. where C. who D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The Plastiki looks similar to many other boats in Sydney harbour. It’s eighteen metres long, six metres wide and it weighs
about twelve thousand kilogrammes. It carries a crew of six people and has an average speed of five knots. However, once you
get near to the Plastiki you realise there’s a big difference. It’s made of twelve thousand five hundred re-used plastic bottles.
David de Rothschild is an environmentalist who has crossed Antarctica and explored the Ecuadorian Amazon. One day he was
reading some information about all the plastic in the seas and oceans. He couldn’t believe what he was reading. For example,
humans throw away four out of every five plastic bottles they use, and plastic rubbish causes about eighty per cent of the
pollution in the sea. In addition, scientists think that around one million seabirds die every year from plastic pollution. De
Rothschild decided he wanted to help fight pollution in the sea. To help more people understand the problem, he started
building a boat made of plastic bottles.
As well as building the boat with recycled plastic, it was important for him to make the boat environmentally friendly and user-
friendly. The boat uses renewable energy such as wind power and solar energy. The crew can make meals with vegetables
from the small garden at the back of the boat. They can take a break from work and get some exercise by using the special
exercise bicycle. The energy from the bike provides power for the boat’s computers. And if anyone needs to take a shower, the
boat’s shower uses saltwater from the sea.
(Adapted from Life by John Hughes, Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett)
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. An Extraordinary Man B. Life at Sea
C. The Problem of Plastic Bottles D. A Boat with a Difference
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Question 32: The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. scientists B. humans C. plastic bottles D. seas and oceans
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, De Rothschild was shocked when he ________.
A. travelled between Antarctica and the Ecuadorian Amazon
B. read some information about plastic at seas and oceans
C. participated in an environmental campaign
D. built his first plastic boat
Question 34: The word fight in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. compete B. divide C. compare D. tackle
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about the Plastiki, according to the passage?
A. It has a totally different appearance when compared to other boats.
B. It was made of plastic and other materials which are hard to decompose.
C. Daily life activities aren’t interrupted when living on the boat.
D. Clean water exists in abundance on the boat.
each of the questions from 36 to 42.
For Sean O’Brien, it was just an ordinary night out with friends. He knew that people sometimes mocked him for being
overweight, and he was usually able to shrug it off. But this time, as well as laughing at him in person, someone decided to
publicly fat-shame him by posting a video of him dancing online, with a hurtful comment. Sean was completely unaware of it,
but the post about him was shared widely, and it prompted a wave of abuse from immature Internet trolls.
However, as well as the cyberbullies, other people were watching. A group of women in California, who were campaigning to
encourage people to have a positive body image whatever their size, decided to take action. They put out a message on Twitter,
inviting Sean on an all-expenses- paid trip from London to Los Angeles, to meet and dance with them. When Sean’s friends
first told him about the search for ‘dancing man’, he figured it was a bit of nonsense which would soon blow over, and decided
not to bother doing anything about it.
But the movement got bigger and bigger. Sean rethought his decision, made contact, and the women - all 1,700 of them - started
raising money to throw him an extra-special party in LA. He went to the party in California. Sean had assumed that just a few
people would turn up, but he realised his mistake as soon as he saw over 1,000 people queuing to get into the nightclub! Sean
danced all night and the story of how he and the women’s group in California took a stance against cyberbullying was reported
around the world. As a result of the event, some of the women set up Dance Free Movement, an online forum where anyone
who felt they had been bullied or victimised could receive support. The ‘dancing man’ himself has become a fundraiser for
several anti-bullying charities.
Sean commented in an interview at the time that he was amazed that something which started out so badly, had become such
a positive movement. He said that he had actually never really thought about the people who posted the original images,
concluding that they must have their own insecurities, to put the spotlight on someone else so maliciously. Sean certainly had
the last laugh. We are often told that the best idea is not to give bullies any attention, but it may be that the best way to deal
with cyberbullying is to act as these women did and be brave enough to make it clear that we are uncomfortable with this kind
of behaviour, that we disagree with what is being said and that bullying is completely unacceptable.
(Adapted from High Note by Rachael Roberts and Caroline Krantz)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. An Inspirational Story of a Disabled Man B. Negative Impacts of Cyberbullying on Teenagers
C. The Dancing Man Has the Last Laugh D. Online Bullies Have Been Silenced!
Question 37: The word prompted in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. triggered B. terminated C. compared D. discouraged
Question 38: According to paragraph 1, Sean O’Brien didn’t realise that ________.
A. he was teased by some of his acquaintances for being overweight
B. he was laughed by some Internet users for his awkward behaviour
C. he became a victim of body shaming on the Internet
D. his dance video was leaked by his casual friends
Question 39: The word them in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Sean’s friends B. women C. expenses D. cyberbullies
Question 40: The phrase blow over in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. become a controversial topic B. incite intense hatred
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C. gradually become less strong D. provide genuine pleasure
Question 41: Which of the following is true about Sean O’Brien according to the passage?
A. He wasn’t required to pay any costs to join the dance party in California.
B. He wasn’t taken aback by the number of people joining his dance party.
C. He accepted the offer by a group of women in California without hesitation.
D. He established an online forum for those who got cyberbullied like him.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most Internet users now enjoy hiding their identities online.
B. Sean wasn’t brave enough to raise his voice against cyberbullies.
C. Sean’s case is rather different from other cases of cyberbullying.
D. It was nothing new for Sean to be ridiculed for his weight.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Question 43: The Internet connection is slow. I can’t send this message to my tutor.
A. Provided that the Internet connection is slow, I can’t send this message to my tutor.
B. If the Internet connection hadn’t been slow, I could have sent this message to my tutor.
C. Unless the Internet connection is slow, I can send this message to my tutor.
D. If the Internet weren’t slow, I could send this message to my tutor.
Question 44: Ngoc’s personal information was leaked. She was aware of the danger of the Internet.
A. No sooner had Ngoc realised that the Internet was dangerous than her personal information was leaked.
B. Only after Ngoc’s personal information had been leaked did she realise how dangerous the Internet was.
C. Not until Ngoc’s personal information had been leaked was she aware of the benefit of the Internet.
D. Hardly had Ngoc’s personal information been leaked when she realised how beneficial the Internet was.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: This new technology is becoming very popular because they enable computers to read coded messages.
A B C D
Question 46: The reigning champion followed a punishable exercise regime so as to defend his title at his next tournament.
A B C D
Question 47: Both Mary and I haven’t attended the senior prom two weeks ago.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 48: You’re permitted to use calculators in the exam room.
A. You mustn’t use calculators in the exam room.
B. You can use calculators in the exam room.
C. You needn’t use calculators in the exam room.
D. You should use calculators in the exam room.
Question 49: The last time I called her was five years ago.
A. I haven’t called her for five years. B. I have called her for five years.
C. I called her for five years. D. I didn’t call her five years ago.
Question 50: “I have stolen documents to sell online since last year” Lien said.
A. Lien said that she had stolen documents to sell online since last year.
B. Lien said that she stolen documents to sell online since last year.
C. Lien said that she had stolen documents to sell online since the previous year.
D. Lien said that she stole documents to sell online since the previous year.
--- THE END ---
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Họ, tên thí sinh: ........................................................................... Số báo danh:…………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wife B. advice C. downside D. barista
Question 2. A. connect B. certain C. complain D. cookie
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. visit B. survive C. enact D. expand
Question 4. A. vaccinate B. understand C. organize D. celebrate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. The girl ______ next to me at Martin’s birthday party was talkative.
A. was sitting B. sitting C. to sit D. sat
Question 6. Many young people say that recycling is _______ way to protect the environment.
A. better B. the best C. the better D. best
Question 7. John will marry her ______________________.
A. by the time he got the promotion B. after he had got the promotion
C. as soon as he gets the promotion D. when he got the promotion
Question 8. This festival will be a chance for businesses throughout the country and abroad to contribute _______ the
improvement of Vietnamese coffee’s position.
A. with B. at C. from D. to
Question 9. They will use public transport instead of their own vehicles, _______?
A. doesn’t they B. won’t they C. didn’t they D. wasn’t they
Question 10. This company has exported 24 tons of durian to Japan by ____ sea and several tons of the fruit by air.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
Question 11. I assure that you will surely get 12% ____ yearly if you put your saving money in my bank.
A. profit B. income C. interest D. money
Question 12. He invited his girlfriend at seven o'clock, but she didn't ______ until 8.00.
A. break in B. carry out C. show up D. fill in
Question 13. Ha Long Bay has become a fascinating tourist _______ in the North of Vietnam.
A. attract B. attractive C. attractively D. attraction
Question 14. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but he _______ to the occasion
wonderfully.
A. rose B. raised C. fell D. faced
Question 15. When the old man returned, the young volunteers__________ in his house.
A. were cleaning B. was cleaning C. clean D. cleaned
Question 16. I know that you job is not going well, but don’t worry, things will be better soon. Every cloud has a
________ lining.
A. silver B. golden C. bronze D. shining
Question 17. If any cheating is detected, the person’s exam ______.
A. will reject B. will be rejected C. reject D. was rejecting
Question 18. Jane would never forget ______ first prize in such a prestigious competition.
A. winning B. to win C. win D. to winning
Question 19. We should organise different activities to ______ people's awareness of the need to protect endangered
animals.
A. make B. raise C. increase D. rise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20. Laura and her friend, Lilly, are in a coffee shop.
Laura: Would you like to have some orange juice? Lilly: “______. I’m not thirsty now.”
A. It doesn't matter. B. Yes, please.
C. I like it. D. No, thanks.
Question 21. Anna and Minh are talking about whether family members should share the housework.
Minh: " Do you guys think that teenagers should do housework?
Anna: " ______ teenagers as well as other members of the family should share the housework.”
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A. I don’t agree B. That’s wrong
C. I’m not sure D. I strong believe that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. His parents’ reassurances did nothing to diminish his anxiety when the final examination was coming
very soon.
A. sadness B. boredom C. apprehension D. confidence
Question 23. He's a very good worker but he's sometimes a bit slow on the uptake. You have to explain everything
twice.
A. hear things easily B. understand things easily
C. understand things with difficulty D. hard of hearing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
Question 24. Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent action is taken.
A. vanishing B. damaging C. polluting D. destroying
Question 25. Tertiary education is really for people who want formal learning in order to get an academic degree
A. Primary education B. Higher education
C. Physical education D. early education
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. It is compulsory for you to help her finish that project.
A. You shouldn’t help her finish that project.
B. You would help her finish that project.
C. You must help her finish that project.
D. You needn’t help her finish that project.
Question 27. The last time I went on a picnic with my family was six months ago.
A. I didn’t go on a picnic with my family for six months.
B. I haven’t gone on a picnic with my family for six months.
C. I have gone on a picnic with my family for six months.
D. I went on a picnic with my family for six months.
Question 28. “What did you do last night?” the policeman asked the woman.
A. The policeman asked the woman what had she done the night before.
B. The policeman asked the woman what did she do the night before.
C. The policeman asked the woman what she did the night before.
D. The policeman asked the woman what she had done the night before.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Last week Peter concentrates on completing project on ASEAN and was able to submit it on time.
A B C D
Question 30. Using the new software, parents will be able to keep track of his children’s behaviour on the
A B C D
Internet.
Question 31. People suppose that the adventure of ChatGPT will have negative impacts on how college
A B C
students write essays.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 32. They didn’t have breakfast. They were very hungry.
A. If they had breakfast, they wouldn’t be very hungry.
B. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn’t be very hungry.
C. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn’t have been very hungry.
D. If they had breakfast, they would have been very hungry.
Question 33. I spoke to my sister. Then, I knew what she had experienced.
A. Having known what my sister had experienced, I spoke to her.
B. Only after I had known what my sister had experienced did I speak to her.
C. But for what my sister had experienced, I wouldn’t have spoken to her.
D. Hardly had I spoken to my sister when I knew what she had experienced.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
Experts estimate that over 50% of the global population currently lives in cities, and by 2050, this percentage is
expected to reach 70%. Megacities, defined as cities with over 10 million people, are becoming more common, and the
concept of mega-regions, interconnected clusters of megacities, is also gaining prominence. These megacities often face
challenges in accurately determining their population due to unclear boundaries and the inclusion of surrounding areas.
Examples of megacities include Sao Paulo, New York, and Tokyo, which is the largest megacity in the world.
China boasts the largest mega-region, consisting of megacities like Hong Kong, Shenzhen, and Guangzhou.
However, mega-regions can span multiple countries, as seen in West Africa, where Nigeria, Benin, Togo, and Ghana
form a mega-region. These mega-regions hold significant economic power, with 66% of global economic activity and
85% of new technological and scientific advancements occurring within the 40 largest mega-regions. Despite this, less
than 20% of the global population resides in these mega-regions.
In summary, urbanization continues to rise globally, with a majority of people living in cities. Megacities and
mega-regions are becoming more prevalent, driving economic growth and technological advancements on a large scale.
Question 34. The word “prevalent” in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. popular B. successful C. modern D. famous
Question 35. The word “which” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. Sao Paulo B. Tokyo C. New York D. megacities
Question 36. Why it is hard to find the population living in megacities?
A. People are born every day.
B. The suburbs grow too quickly.
C. More people move to the cities.
D. Defining the border of the city is hard.
Question 37. Which of the following is NOT true about mega-regions according to the passage?
A. Most new ideas in science and technology come from them.
B. One-third of the world’s population lives in them.
C. There is a mega-region in Africa.
D. Two-thirds of the world’s economic activity happens in them.
Question 38. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Growing Cities and Regions
B. Problems with Too Many People
C. Good Things about Living in Cities
D. The City with the Highest Population
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each the numbered blanks.
This article discusses the Roles of ICT, Information communication technologies, in education. ICTs are making
dynamic changes in society as well as influencing (39) _______ aspects of life. Even though ICTs play significant roles
in representing equalization strategy for developing countries, the reality of the digital divide, which is the gap between
those people having access to, and control technology and those people (40) _______ do not make a huge difference in
the use of ICTs. This means that the introduction and integration of ICTs at different levels and various types of
education is the most challenging undertaking. Failure to (41) _______ the challenges would mean a further widening
of the knowledge gap and deepening of existing economic and social inequalities among the developed and the
developing countries. (42) _______, the purpose of this review article is to discuss the benefits of ICT use in education,
in the enhancement of student learning and experiences of some countries in order to encourage policy makers, school
administrators, and teachers to pay (43) _______ so as to integrate this technology in their education systems.
Question 39. A. every B. each C. all D. much
Question 40. A. whose B. which C. who D. when
Question 41. A. handle B. control C. take D. make
Question 42. A. On the contrary B. However C. Therefore D. Yet
Question 43. A. role B. effort C. ability D. attention
to each of the questions.
When General O. O. Howard assumed his duties as commissioner of the Freedmen's Bureau on May 12, 1865, he
faced no problem more difficult than that of affording freedmen legal protection. Despite the fact that the war had dealt
a death blow to slavery, the legal status that blacks would occupy as free men was uncertain when the war ended.
In the pre-war period, Southern state law has discriminated against free blacks, providing harsher criminal
punishment for them than for whites, denying them the right to testify against whites, and severely restricting their
liberty in numerous ways. In the war's aftermath, Southern whites, rapidly able to gain control of their state and local
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governments under President Andrew Johnson's program of reconstruction, stood ready to apply this discriminatory law
to the freedmen. Nor was the problem of affording freedmen legal protection limited to shielding them from
enforcement of discriminatory state law.
In the post-war period, Southern whites, fearful of the consequences of liberation, resorted to violence on a massive
scale in order to maintain their dominance over blacks. And in the face of this violence, Southern state law enforcement
and judicial officials generally proved to be either unwilling or unable to bring to justice whites who had committed
acts of violence against freedmen. Moreover, the problem of protecting black workers against immoral employers also
confronted Howard and his subordinates.
Although the Freedmen's Bureau Act authorized them to lease and ultimately to sell abandoned land to freedmen,
Andrew Johnson's policy prevented Bureau officials from using that authority to make blacks landowners.
Consequently, in order to support themselves, most freedmen found it necessary to work for whites as plantation and
farm laborers. And given impoverished planters' inability to pay laborers in cash at the end of each month, most black
laborers had little choice but to agree to work for planters for an entire year and to receive their pay, in either cash or a
share of the crop, at the end of the year. In this situation, white employers, many of whom were eager to pay their
workers as little as possible, had numerous opportunities to deny freedmen’s right.
Question 44. The word “unwilling” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. unsuitable B. thankless C. disgraceful D. reluctant
Question 45. The word “their” in the passage refers to _______.
A. law enforcement official B. blacks
C. Southern whites D. judicial officials
Question 46. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. The Freedmen's Bureau ultimately proved a success because it was able to guarantee freedmen Southern plantation
and farm owners.
B. Freedmen were, in many ways, still slaves after the war because of their economic dependence on plantation and
farm owners.
C. President Johnson's actions were guided by a desire to win the respect and loyalty of the Southern control
freedmen.
D. Because Southerners had no resort to the judicial system, they employed violence as a means to private ownership
of land.
Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that Southern whites who committed violence against
freedmen ________.
A. generally went unpunished.
B. were often law enforcement officials.
C. tried to reinstate slavery into the law.
D. were motivated by hate and anger.
Question 48. According to the passage, President Johnson's program of reconstruction _______.
A. had as it primary goal the legal protection of freedmen from discrimination.
B. did not prevent Southerners form recovering their political power in government.
C. condemned slavery but failed to take any action to destroy it.
D. supported the South's criminal punishment of freedmen.
Question 49. The world “shielding” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. exposing B. punishing C. protecting D. stopping
Question 50. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The need to protect freedmen from discriminatory laws.
B. The violence freedmen endured and the economic plights they faced.
C. General O. O. Howard's attempts to ensure economic equality for freedmen.
D. The problems facing the Freedmen's Bureau.
--- THE END ---
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Họ, tên thí sinh: ........................................................................... Số báo danh:…………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
Question 1: Mary: “Would you mind lending me your pen?” - John: “_________”
A. Yes, here it is B. Not at all C. No problem D. That would be great!
Question 2: Clara and Ben are discussing women and men in society.
Clara: “As I know, women often drive more carefully than men.” Ben: “_________”
A. Yes, please B. Absolutely C. What nonsense D. Never mind
questions.
Question 3: Your English is improving considerably. It’s getting_______.
A. well and better B. good and good C. good and better D. better and better
Question 4: The water is __________. You can’t drink it.
A. pollution B. pollutant C. polluted D. polluting
Question 5: The MV titled “There’s No One At All” _______ on YouTube was taken offline for containing “negative,
non – educational message”.
A. is released B. to release C. releasing D. released
Question 6: Earth is _______ third planet from the Sun in our solar system.
A. no article B. the C. a D. an
Question 7: She didn’t enjoy her first year at college because she failed to _____ her new friends.
A. come in for B. look down on C. go down with D. get on with
Question 8: She_______ by her mother last weekend.
A. punished B. had punished C. was punished D. was punishing
Question 9: He warned _______ too far.
A. her not to go B. her do not go C. her did not go D. she did not go
Question 10: Peter barely returns to his hometown, _______?
A. doesn’t he B. hasn’t he C. does he D. has he
Question 11: Upon _______the destination, a number of personnel is expected to change their reservations and proceed
to Hawaii.
A. coming B. reaching C. going D. arriving
Question 12: Sam and Richard ______ at the shopping mall when they met their former teacher.
A. have shopped B. shopped C. were shopping D. are shopping
Question 13: On January 23rd, the President of Germany Frank-Walter Steinmeier and his wife Elke Büdenbender
________ a visit to Hanoi, commencing their first state visit to Vietnam in their new capacity.
A. made B. gave C. paid D. returned
Question 14: ________, I will pick you up soon.
A. When you arrived at the airport B. Until you will arrive the airport
C. As soon as you arrive at the airport D. After you are arriving at the airport
Question 15: As a poet, I think she ______ comparison with the greatest this century.
A. stands B. makes C. leads D. matches.
Question 16: Jmicheal’s friends insist that he stay _______ their house when he visits Tokyo next month.
A. on B. at C. with D. in
Question 17: If you’re looking for a fabulous vacation that doesn’t _______, I’d highly recommend camping in
Colorado.
A. break the bank B. break a leg C. keep your chin up D. throw in the towel
Question 18: A. thankful B. therefore C. everything D. lengthy
Question 19: A. middle B. mile C. kind D. time
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. resurrect B. understand C. estimate D. comprehend
Question 21: A. install B. support C. predict D. manage
1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Our environment is being threatened and the animals is being endangered.
A. endangered B. made C. done D. varied
Question 23: More intelligent machines are straying into areas where we never envisaged they would go.
A. prepared B. encouraged C. experienced D. imagined
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 24: He was disqualified from the competition for using drugs.
A. eligible B. invalidated C. prohibited D. weakened
Question 25: If you need me, just call me. I can come at the drop of a hat.
A. immediately B. reluctantly C. instantly D. occasionally
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Truong My Lan has denied she ordered her driver to deliver a(n) (26)_______ VND 108 trillion ($4.38 billion) and
$14.7 million in cash from Saigon Commercial Bank to her company and home.
The Van Thinh Phat chairwoman has been charged with instructing Bui Van Dung to (27) ______ the money
between Feb. 26 and Sep. 12, 2022, to the company on Tran Hung Dao Street and Sherwood Building on Pasteur Street
(28)_______ she lived, both in HCMC’s District 1. She told the People’s Court of Ho Chi Minh City Monday that (29)
______ the money was indeed taken to those locations, it was not on her orders. Sherwood Building is not home but an
office, she said. Data from SCB shows that by the time of Lan’s arrest in October 2022, she and her accomplices had
obtained 1,283 (30)______ worth VND483 trillion from the bank. She is also accused of fraud and money laundering,
but she will be tried separately for those crimes.
(Adapted from Vnexpress)
Question 26: A. number of B. lots of C. plenty of D. amount of
Question 27: A. transport B. carry C. take D. ship
Question 28: A. which B. where C. who D. when
Question 29: A. although B. while C. if D. as soon as
Question 30: A. funds B. credits C. loans D. finances
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
What do hurricanes mean for dolphins?
Hurricanes are typically associated with loss of life, loss of property and economic devastation. Hurricane Katrina,
which blew through the gulf coast of North America in 2005, brought all those things and more. It also brought lots of
baby dolphins. Hurricanes tend to be related to increased strandings of marine mammals, so why might a hurricane be
associated with more dolphins, rather than fewer?
Scientist Lance J. Miller reasoned that there were probably several related phenomena that, combined, could explain
the apparent increase. Firstly, after a female dolphin loses her calf, she can give birth again much sooner than if her calf
had matured to adulthood. “If a large number of calves perished as a result of Hurricane Katrina, this would allow for a
greater percentage of females to become reproductively active the following year.” By itself, this didn't seem to
adequately explain the increase in dolphin calves. Something else was going on. That something was distinctively
human.
When Hurricane Katrina blew through the gulf, the local shrimping, crabbing and fishing industries were ravaged.
In Mississippi, according to one estimate, 87% of commercial fishing vessels were damaged or destroyed. This meanta
decrease in the amount of seafood brought into shore, of nearly 15%. Despite the common notion that dolphins enjoy
playing in the wakes created by boats, there is plenty of evidence that dolphins actually avoid them. Miller deduced that,
with a reduction in the number of boats in the water, both commercial and recreational, dolphins may have been able
to spend more time eating, and less time travelling or diving in an effort to avoid boats.
(Adapted from https://www.accuweather.com)
Question 31: The passage is mainly about _____________.
A. The devastating impacts of Hurricane Katrina on the Gulf Coast.
B. The connection between hurricanes and the increase in dolphin calves.
C. The economic consequences of damaged fishing industries after Hurricane Katrina.
D. The avoidance behavior of dolphins towards boats in the water.
Question 32: The word "It" in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
A. Hurricane Katrina
B. Loss of life, property, and economic devastation
C. Increase in dolphin calves
D. Hurricanes in general
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Question 33: When do dolphins reproduce again after Hurricane Katrina?
A. Immediately after Hurricane Katrina.
B. After losing their calves due to Hurricane Katrina.
C. The following year after Hurricane Katrina.
D. There is no specific information about the timing of reproduction after Hurricane Katrina.
Question 34: The word recreational in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. Enjoyable B. Competitive C. Leisure D. Professional
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Hurricane Katrina resulted in a decrease in the number of dolphins in the Gulf Coast.
B. The destruction of fishing industries after Hurricane Katrina had no impact on dolphin populations.
C. Dolphins enjoy playing in the wakes created by boats.
D. The reduction in boat activity after Hurricane Katrina allowed dolphins more time for feeding.
Plastic bags are used by everybody. From a vegetable vendor to a designer store, everyone seems to use them. Even
though they are one of the modern conveniences that we seem to be unable to do without, they are responsible for
causing pollution, killing wildlife, and using up the precious resources of the Earth. But, most of us are blissfully
unaware of the repercussions that are occurring and will take place in the future because of the plastic bags.
Every once in a while, the government passes out an order banning store owners from providing plastic bags to
customers for carrying their purchases, with little lasting effect. Plastic bags are very popular with both retailers as well
as consumers because they are cheap, strong, lightweight, functional, as well as a hygienic means of carrying food as
well as other goods. About a hundred billion plastic bags are used every year in the U.S. alone. And then, when one
considers the huge economies and populations of India, China, Europe, and other parts of the world, the numbers can
be staggering. The problem is further exacerbated by the developed countries shipping off their plastic waste to
developing countries like India.
Once they are used, most bags go into landfills. Each year, more and more bags are ending up littering the environment.
Once they become litter, plastic bags find their way into our waterways, parks, beaches, and streets. And, if they are
burned, they infuse the air with toxic fumes. About 100,000 animals, such as dolphins, turtles, whales, penguins are
killed every year due to these bags. Many animals ingest plastic bags, mistaking them for food, and therefore, die. And
worse, the ingested plastic bag remains intact even after the death and decomposition of the animal. Thus, it lies around
in the landscape where another victim may ingest it. One of the worst environmental effects is that they are non-
biodegradable. The decomposition takes about 400 years. No one will live so long to witness the decomposition of
plastic!
Thus, save the environment for the future generations as well as animals. Petroleum products are diminishing and getting
more expensive by the day, since we have used this nonrenewable resource increasingly. And to make plastic, about 60-
100 million barrels of oil are needed every year around the world. Surely, this precious resource should not be wasted
on producing plastic bags, should it? Petroleum is vital for our modern way of life. It is necessary for our energy
requirements - for our factories, transportation, heating, lighting, and so on. Without viable alternative sources of energy
yet on the horizon, if the supply of petroleum were to be turned off, it would lead to practically the entire world grinding
to a halt. So, what can be done? A tote bag can make a good substitute for carrying groceries and the shopping. You can
keep the big with the cashier, and then put your purchases into it instead of the usual plastic bag. Recycling the bags
you already have is another good idea. These can come into use for various purposes, like holding your garbage, instead
of purchasing new ones. While governments may be working out ways to lessen the impact of plastic bags on the
environment; however, each of us should shoulder some of the responsibility for this problem, which ultimately harms
us. Plastics are not only non-biodegradable, but are one of the major pollutants of the sea. For a clean and green
environment, try to use alternatives to plastic whenever and wherever possible. Cut down your use of plastic, and do
your bit to save our planet.
(Source: https://www.nbcnews.com/)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. The Expensive and Diminishing Petroleum Products: A Call for Action
B. The Vital Role of Petroleum in Modern Life and the Need for Alternatives
C. Plastic Bags: A Major Environmental Concern and the Importance of Reduction
D. Recycling and Reusing Plastic Bags: A Step towards a Cleaner Planet
Question 37: The word repercussions in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. Consequences B. Solutions C. Benefits D. Explanations
Question 38: According to second paragraph, what is NOT TRUE about plastic bags?
A. Plastic bags are a major pollutant of the sea.
B. Plastic bags are non-biodegradable.
C. Plastic bags have a minimal impact on the environment.
D. Plastic bags contribute to environmental harm.
Question 39: The plastic bags have negative effects, EXCEPT________.
3
A. Contributing to pollution of the sea
B. Being non-biodegradable
C. Increasing the cost of petroleum products
D. Harming the environment
Question 40: The word “intact” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. dangerous B. broken C. undamaged D. harmful
Question 41: What does the word “it” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. a good substitude B. the shopping C. the bag D. the cashier
Question 42: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that _______.
A. Tote bags are more expensive than plastic bags.
B. Recycling plastic bags is the only solution to the plastic waste problem.
C. Governments are solely responsible for finding alternatives to plastic bags.
D. The passage encourages reducing the use of plastic bags and promoting recycling as a solution to the plastic
waste issue.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Richard really wants to attend the Mid - Autumn festival. He doesn’t have any friends here.
A. Provided that Richard has some friends here, he can’t attend the Mid - Autumn festival.
B. If only Richard had some friends here, he could attend the Mid - Autumn festival.
C. If Richard had some friends here, he could have attended the Mid - Autumn festival.
D. Richard wishes he had some friends here so that he could attend the Mid - Autumn festival.
Question 44: Mr. Lam got married with a beautiful woman. He realized that his wife is a single – mom.
A. Only after Mr. Lam had got married with a beautiful woman did he realize that his wife is a single – mom.
B. Were Mr. Lam to get married with a beautiful woman, he would realize that his wife is a single – mom.
C. Had Mr. Lam got married with a beautiful woman, he would have realized that his wife is a single – mom.
D. Not until he realized that his wife is a single – mom did Mr. Lam get married with a beautiful woman.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 45: All workers must wear protective clothing to protect himself when working on a construction site.
A B C D
Question 46: Many students didn’t go to school by bus since last year.
A B C D
Question 47: The boys will enter this place at distinct time to meet the senior elders from various tribes in Africa who
A B C D
will be seated inside.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
Question 48: The students are required to be quiet during the English test.
A. The students must be quiet during the English test.
B. The students need to be quiet during the English test.
C. The students may be quiet during the English test.
D. The students shouldn’t be quiet during the English test.
Question 49: She started working as a teacher in this school 3 years ago.
A. She didn’t work as a teacher in this school 3 years ago.
B. She last had worked as a teacher in this school 3 years ago.
C. She has started working as a teacher in this school for 3 years.
D. She has been working as a teacher in this school for 3 years.
Question 50: “When did you go shopping in this city?” Linda said
A. Linda asked when I had gone shopping in this city.
B. Linda asked when had I gone shopping in that city.
C. Linda asked when I had gone shopping in that city.
D. Linda asked when I have gone shopping in this city.
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Question 1. Firefighters are called out last night to the hotel which was burning at around midnight.
A B C D
Question 2. Children sometimes become angry when he can’t do anything they want.
A B C D
Question 3. This new smartphone offers features comparative to those of high-end models at a fraction of the price.
A B C D
Question 4. Our new house is located only a stone’s throw from the beach, allowing us to easily enjoy the sun and surf
whenever we want.
A. a short distance away B. within close proximity
C. a long way D. near
Question 5. Regular exercise can enhance your overall physical health and well-being.
A. strengthen B. diminish C. boost D. improve
Question 6. She found it difficult to forgive heartless people who abused animals.
A. kind-hearted B. cruel C. warm-hearted D. humane
Question 7. Does the name John Smith ring a bell to you? I think he might have been at the party last week.
A. familiar B. strange C. similar D. difficult
to each of the questions.
People who are suffering burnout - the feeling of always being tired because they have been working too hard –
always discover some ways to recover from it. They start to reconstruct their lifestyle: in just a short period of time,
they may quit their job, move to another country, or end a relationship. Then, they successfully recover. However,
according to Stela Salminen, a doctoral candidate at the University of Jyvaskyla, Finland, this is not always the case.
Dramatic lifestyle changes might be beneficial for some people, but in her own research Salminen has found one
factor which truly unites those who recover: realising that they are in control. For a small study in 2015, she interviewed
12 burnout sufferers. Researchers assessed participants to determine the severity of their burnout at the time of the study
and seven months later. Their scores were then compared to what they said to look for patterns. The analysis revealed
that those who recovered successfully experienced a revelation that they are in charge of their own wellbeing.
Salminen explains that if burnout sufferers believe that they can influence their environment, they usually take the
necessary steps to reverse the factors which got them there in the first place. This might include things like improving
sleep habits, since this is one of the best ways to reset when you're stressed, or drawing clear lines between work and
non-work time. "People who have a sense of agency take steps in the workplace, make changes in their families; they
take care of themselves, and they're more aware of their own limitations," she says.
One way to achieve this feeling of self-control is to attend slightly scary sounding "burnout rehabilitation
programmes". These can come in many different forms - such as luxury retreats and basic online courses - but broadly
they involve some kind of cognitive therapy to help people re-frame their experiences in a more productive way. Another
is to gain control of another aspect of your life, such as by taking up a creative hobby or exercising more often. The late
famous painting instructor Bob Ross often emphasised this, advising viewers that "If you don’t like it, change it. It’s
your world."
Another important predictor of recovery from burnout is a healthy life. "Family relationships, one's overall health -
these tend to influence people who have gone through burnout and are on the path to recovery," says Salminen. "Finding
emotional support seems to be the first step towards recovery," says Salminen. "It can come from many different places
- occupational health care like a psychologist, it can be support from family members, or support from colleagues." By
verifying your experiences, these people can help to improve your motivation and how you see yourself, and regardless
of what happens in your journey to recovery, this can only be good.
Question 8. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Sudden life changes always help people recover from burnout.
B. A doctoral candidate emphasizes the importance of changing lifestyle in recovering burnout.
C. Does burnout recovery always require radical life changes?
D. How the feeling of having control helps people deal with burnout
Question 9. The word "reconstruct" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
1
A. swiftly move B. completely change
C. slowly resurrect D. gradually adapt
Question 10. The word "verifying" in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by ____.
A. ignoring B. discouraging C. confirming D. emphasizing
Question 11. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to ____.
A. researchers B. participants C. scores D. patterns
Question 12. According to Stela Salminen's research, what is the key factor for successful recovery from burnout?
A. Changing jobs frequently
B. Moving to another country
C. Ending relationships abruptly
D. Realizing one is in control of their well-being
Question 13. Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The sense of having control is the key factor that all stories of burnout recovery involve.
B. Improving their sleeping habits is considered the most effective way to reset when they’re stressed.
C. The frequency of exercising is one of the aspects of a person's life that can be controlled.
D. The first step to recover from burnout seems to be paying attention to mental health.
Question 14. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Salminen’s small study in 2015 involved comparing burnout scores before and after lifestyle changes.
B. Seeking emotional support from various sources seems to be the first step towards recovery.
C. The advice of the popular painting instructor Bob Ross has had a positive impact on many people.
D. Prioritizing work over personal health may be an effective way to recover from burnout.
questions.
Question 15. I’ve always wanted to be a ________ and take pictures of exotic places.
A. photogenic B. photograph C. photographer D. photography
Question 16. Michael _______ so fast when the police stopped him.
A. was driving B. drove C. is driving D. drives
Question 17. We regret ___ passengers that all flights have been cancelled due to bad weather.
A. to inform B. to informing C. inform D. informing
Question 18. It can’t be denied that ChatGPT becomes ________ AI tool.
A. more powerful B. most powerful C. the most powerful D. the more powerful
Question 19. I’m not sure if the book has over 100 pages. That is just a(n) ______ guess.
A. typical B. accurate C. approximate D. precise
Question 20. In this place, the temperature usually drops below zero ____ night.
A. to B. from C. with D. at
Question 21. On the morning of her wedding day, the bride was a bag of_____, feeling a mixture of excitement and
worry as she prepared to walk down the aisle.
A. stress B. nerves C. anxiety D. tension
Question 22. Victoria has been in ____ spirits ever since she got in to Cambridge University.
A. high B. long C. large D. strong
Question 23. ______________________, he will return to his hometown.
A. Until Martin finished the project
B. As soon as Martin has finished the project
C. When Martin had finished the project
D. By the time Martin finished the project
Question 24. I’m interested in learning how to play ___ guitar; music has always been a great love of mine.
A. the B. a C. an D. Ø
Question 25. She wants to take up swimming to improve her physical strength, _______?
A. does she B. doesn’t she C. isn’t she D. is she
Question 26. The house _____ by the workers in just three months.
A. was building B. built C. was built D. building
Question 27. Unfortunately, the parties were unable to ______ an agreement about how to cut down on the noise
pollution in the area.
A. pay B. take C. reach D. have
Question 28. That book, _______ by a famous author, has become a bestseller.
A. to write B. writing C. written D. was written
Question 29. You can always ____ Sarah to come through in times of need; she's incredibly reliable.
A. work on B. take on C. count on D. put on
2
Question 30. Janet and Lucy are talking about the global warming.
- Janet: “In my opinion, we should plant more trees in our school to reduce the carbon footprint.”
- Lucy: “______________. They’ll also give us more shade.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more. B. What rubbish!
C. You’re wrong. D. Yes, I like it.
Question 31. Mai is talking with Nam about his new trainers.
- Mai: "How fashionable a pair of trainers you have!” - Nam: "_________________."
A. I know it's fashionable.
B. Thanks for your compliment.
C. Do you want to know where I bought them?
D. Yes, of course.
Question 32. A. apply B. ancient C. attract D. about
Question 33. A. chance B. match C. machine D. challenge
questions.
Question 34. Peter didn’t revise the lessons carefully. He couldn’t pass the final exam.
A. If Peter didn’t revise the lessons carefully, he could pass the final exam.
B. If Peter had revised the lessons carefully, he could have passed the final exam.
C. If Peter hadn’t revised the lessons carefully, he could have passed the final exam.
D. If Peter revised the lessons carefully, he could pass the final exam
Question 35. There has been a sharp rise in the level of noise pollution. The authorities are being urgedto take firm
actions against this problem.
A. Sharply though the level of noise pollution has increased, the authorities are being urged to takefirm measures.
B. It is the firm actions on the authorities’ part that have led to a sharp rise in the level of noise pollution.
C. So sharply has the level of noise pollution increased that the authorities are being urged to take firm measures.
D. Hardly had the level of noise pollution risen sharply when the authorities were urged to take firmactions.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each the numbered blanks.
When Ruckstaetter - a professor of counseling at Covenant Theological Seminary in St. Louis -started
researching apologies in graduate school, he found perplexingly (36) ____ studies focusing on apologies from parents
to children. He surveyed 327 parents and found that those (37) ____ regularly apologized to their children reported
stronger attachment bonds.
Apologizing is hard. “It can feel like death,” Ruckstaetter says. If you’ve hurt a child with your words or actions,
don’t (38) ___ the resulting distress. Embrace guilt, a feeling that contains within it a (39) ____ of wrongdoing that can
prompt prosocial behavior. “Move into your guilt and say, “I was wrong”, Ruckstaetter says. Notice if your response
feels more like shame, which often results in withdrawal rather than apology. Shame might show as internal dialogue
that says, “I’m bad,” or “I’m unworthy,” (40) ____ guilt tends to arise with more specificity: “I feel bad for saying those
mean things.”
Question 36. A. few B. each C. little D. another
Question 37. A. who B. whom C. where D. which
Question 38. A. realize B. appreciate C. ignore D. urge
Question 39. A. recognition B. illness C. confusion D. embarrassment
Question 40. A. therefore B. whereas C. and D. so
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 41. A. divide B. happen C. commit D. refer
Question 42. A. remember B. develop C. introduce D. consider
Question 43. She is not allowed to meet her children until the operation has finished.
A. She may not meet her children until the operation has finished.
B. She needn’t meet her children until the operation has finished.
C. She mustn’t meet her children until the operation has finished.
3
D. She shouldn’t meet her children until the operation has finished.
Question 44. The teacher told the students: “You’ll have a grammar test tomorrow.”
A. The teacher told the students that they will have a grammar test tomorrow.
B. The teacher told the students that they would have a grammar test tomorrow.
C. The teacher told the students that they would have a grammar test the next day.
D. The teacher told the students that they will have a grammar test the next day.
Question 45. The last time I attended a concert with my friends was last year.
A. I haven’t attended a concert with my friends since last year.
B. I attended a concert with my friends since last year.
C. I have attended concert with my friends for last year.
D. I didn’t attend a concert with my friends last year.
Smoking is one of the biggest causes of death and illness in the UK. Every year around 78,000 people in the UK die
from smoking and many more live with smoking-related illnesses. It increases your risk of developing more than 50
serious health conditions. Some may be fatal, and others can cause irreversible long-term damage to your health. You
can become ill if you smoke yourself or if people around you smoke (passive smoking). Smoking causes around 7 out
of every 10 cases of lung cancer (70%). It also causes cancer in many other parts of the body, including the throat or
voice box (larynx). Moreover, smoking damages your heart and your blood circulation, increasing your risk of
developing conditions such as coronary heart disease and heart attack. Breathing in secondhand smoke, also known as
passive smoking, increases your risk of getting the same health conditions as smokers. For example, if you have never
smoked but you have a spouse who smokes, your risk of developing lung cancer increases by about a quarter. Babies
and children are particularly vulnerable to the effects of secondhand smoke. A child who’s exposed to passive smoke is
at increased risk of developing chest infection, meningitis, persistent cough and, if they have asthma, their symptoms
will get worse.
(Source:“https://experience.arcgis.com)
Question 46. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Smoking is very harmful to health.
B. Smoking is common in the UK.
C. Men smoke more than women.
D. Secondhand smoke has bad effects on children.
Question 47. What of the following has the closest meaning to the word “irreversible”?
A. unrecoverable B. accessible C. dispensable D. understandable
Question 48. The word “they” in the passage refers to ______.
A. effects B. babies and children
C. health conditions D. symptoms
Question 49. What health conditions does smoking cause?
A. cancer B. heart attack
C. coronary heart disease D. All of them
Question 50. What following disease a child exposed to passive smoke is NOT at increased risk of?
A. meningitis B. persistent cough C. chest infection D. diarrhea
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Question 1. Many students in our school are very happy with their volunteer trip in Ha Giang last month.
A B C D
Question 2. Mi and Ngan would like to have her own house in the future.
A B C D
Question 3. It’s a very permissible school where the children are given permission to do whatever they want.
A B C D
Question 4. If no specific measures are taken, all species including human race will soon vanish.
A. disappear B. appear C. attacked D. devastate
Question 5. A chronic lack of sleep may make US irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D. miserable
Question 6. Parents regard facial and vocal expressions as indicators of how a baby is feeling.
A. read B. translate C. display D. consider
Question 7. I know you think the scholarship is in the bag, but don’t get your hopes up too high .
A.unsuccess B. success C. failure D.excellence
each of the questions.
Certainly no creature in the sea is odder than the common sea cucumber. All living creature, especially human beings,
have their peculiarities, but everything about the little sea cucumber seems unusual. What else can be said about a bizarre
animal that, among other eccentricities, eats mud, feeds almost continuously day and night but can live without eating for
long periods, and can be poisonous but is considered supremely edible by gourmets?
For some fifty million years, despite all its eccentricities, the sea cucumber has subsisted on its diet of mud. It is
adaptable enough to live attached to rocks by its tube feet, under rocks in shallow water, or on the surface of mud flats.
Common in cool water on both Atlantic and Pacific shores, it has the ability to such up mud or sand and digest whatever
nutrients are present.
Sea cucumbers come in a variety of colors, ranging from black to reddish-brown to sand-color and nearly white. One
form even has vivid purple tentacle. Usually the creatures are cucumber-shaped-hence their name-and because they are
typically rock inhabitants, this shape, combine with flexibility, enables them to squeeze into crevices where they are safe
from predators and ocean currents.
Although they have voracious appetites, eating day and night, sea cucumbers have the capacity to become quiescent
and live at a low metabolic rate-feeding sparingly or not at all for long periods, so that the marine organisms that provide
their food have a chance to multiply. If it were not for this faculty, they would devour all the food available in a short time
and would probably starve themselves out of existence.
But the most spectacular thing about the sea cucumber is the way it defends itself. Its major enemies are fish and crabs,
when attacked, it squirts all its internal organs into the water. It also casts off attached structures such as tentacles. The sea
cucumber will eviscerate and regenerate itself if it is attached or even touched; it will do the same if the surrounding water
temperature is too high or if the water becomes too polluted.
Question 8 : Which of the following can be the best title of the passage?
A. Places where the sea cucumber can be found
B. The reason for the sea cucumber’s name
C. How to identify the sea cucumber
D. What makes the sea cucumber unusual
Question 9: According to the passage, why is the shape of sea cucumbers important?
A. It makes them attractive to fish
B. It helps them to protect themselves from danger.
C. It helps them to digest their food.
D. It makes it easier for them to move through the mud.
Question 10: The word “bizarre” is closest meaning to
A. rare B. simple C. marine D. odd
Question 11: The phrase “casts off” is closest in meaning to
A. gets rid of B. grows again C. grabs D. uses as a weapon
1
Question 12: The word it in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. the surface of mud flats B. the sea cucumber
C. its diet of mud D. its eccentricities
Question 13: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the sea cucumber according to the passage?
A. Living at a low metabolic rate
B. Eviscerating and regenerating itself if it is attached or even touched
C. Devouring all available food in a short time
D. Having only one form and color
Question 14: What can be inferred about the defense mechanisms of the sea cucumber?
A. They are very sensitive to surrounding stimuli.
B. They are almost useless.
C. They are similar to those of most sea creatures.
D. They require group cooperation.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 15. Tet holiday is _______ Vietnamese traditional festival that he's ever attended.
A. the most interesting B. more interesting C. so interesting as D. the more interesting
Question 16. In Vietnam, children begin their primary _______ at the age of six.
A. educational B. educationally C. educate D. education
Question 17. I’m showing you how bad he is , ________his mood swings .
A.included B. including C. to include D. is included
Question 18. There’s going to have a concert held in ____city center next month .
A.a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 19. The rescue services are still trying to ________ the fires.
A. go through B. come out C. put out D. go off
Question 20. Twenty civilians ________ in the bomb explosion.
A. killed B. be killed C. were killed D. was killed
Question 21. She doesn’t mean _____ him from doing that .
A.to prevent B. preventing C.prevented D. prevent
Question 22. This house is not safe, ________?
A. isn’t this B. isn’t it C. is it D. is this
Question 23. It’s not easy to apply to the university that has a very selective ______policy.
A.permissions B. admissions C. acceptance D. agreement
Question 24. When his mother called, he ______to the office.
A.was being driven B. being driven C. was driven D. was driving
Question 25. She makes a big _______ from selling waste material to textile companies.
A. profit B. interest C. bargain D. benefit
Question 26. We'll send you an email of confirmation _______.
A. after we had made our final decision. B. before we made our final decision.
C. while we were making our final decision. D. as soon as we make our final decision.
Question 27. She ________ a list of what to do so as not to forget anything.
A. fell B. made C. saw D. carried
Question 28. It’s difficult ____him to let go of hurt.
A.from B. to C. for D. on
Question 29. I think he will pay you back your money when ____fly.
A.birds B. cats C. cocks D. pigs
Question 30. Nam and James are talking about their school days.
- Nam: “I think school days are the best time of our lives.”
- James: “____________. We had sweet memories together then.”
A. Absolutely B. I’m afraid so C. That’s nonsense D. I doubt it
Question 31. Bill and Duong are in a coffee shop.
- Bill: “Can I get you another drink.” - Duong: “____________”
A. No, it isn’t B. Not just now C. No, I’ll think it over D. Forget it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 32. A. culture B. institution C. student D. university
Question 33. A. career B. cough C. scene D. calculator
2
questions.
Question 34. He cheated on his girlfriend . She broke up with him .
A.If he had cheated on his girlfriend , she wouldn’t have broken up with him .
B.If he hadn’t cheated on his girlfriend , she wouldn’t have broken up with him .
C.If he cheated on his girlfriend, she wouldn’t have broken up with him.
D.If he hadn’t cheated on his girlfriend , she wouldn’t broke up with him.
Question 35. They left the concert hall. The fire alarm went off right afterwards.
A. They left the concert hall just as the fire alarm went off.
B. The fire alarm had gone off before they left the concert hall.
C. They were leaving the concert hall when the fire alarm went off.
D. No sooner had they left the concert hall than the fire alarm went off.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each
the numbered blanks.
HERE ARE THE TIPS THAT HELP SUCCESS IN YOUR JOB INTERVIEW
Always arrive early. If you do not know (36) _______ the organization is located, call for exact directions in
advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away
and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your
resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone
you encounter with respect. Be pleasant to everyone as soon as you walk in the door. Wear a professional business suit.
This point should be emphasized enough. First (37) ______ are extremely important in the interview process. Women
should not wear too (38) ________ jewelry or make up. Men should (39) ________ flashy suits or wearing too much
perfume. It is also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business
environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. (40) _______ you can never be overdressed
if you are wearing a tailored suit.
(Addapted from https://www.thebalancecareers.com)
Question 36: A. who B. where C. whom D. which
Question 37: A. attendances B. attentions C. impressions D. pressures
Question 38: A. many B. much C. few D. some
Question 39: A. avoid B. suggest C. enjoy D. mind
Question 40: A. when B. regardless C. moreover D. therefore
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 41. A. respect B. marry C. depend D. predict
Question 42. A. apartment B. benefit C. argument D. vacancy
Question 43. Smoking is not allowed in public places such as: hospitals, schools.
A. You needn’t smoke in public places such as: hospitals, schools.
B. You mustn’t smoke in public places such as: hospitals, schools.
C. You don’t smoke in public places such as: hospitals, schools.
D. You may smoke in public places such as: hospitals, schools.
Question 44. “We met each other yesterday ,” said He.
A.He said that they have met each other the day before.
B.He said that we had met each other the day before.
C.He said that they met each other yesterday.
D.He said that they had met each other the day before.
Question 45. The last time I went to the museum was a year ago.
A. I have not been to the museum for a year.
B. A year ago, I often went to the museum.
C. My going to the museum lasted a year.
D. At last I went to the museum after a year.
Since the early eighties, we have been only too aware of the devastating effects of large-scale environmental
pollution. Such pollution is generally the result of poor government planning in many developing nations or the
shortsighted, selfish policies of the already industrialized countries, which encourage a minority of the world’s
population to squander the majority of its natural resources.
While events such as the deforestation of the Amazon jungle or the nuclear disaster in Chernobyl continue to receive
high media exposure, as do acts of environmental sabotage, it must be remembered that not all pollution is on this grand
scale. A large proportion of the world's pollution has its source much closer to home. The recent spillage of crude oil
3
from an oil tanker accidentally discharging its cargo straight into Sydney not only caused serious damage to the harbor
foreshores but also created severely toxic fumes which hung over the suburbs for days and left the angry residents
wondering how such a disaster could have been allowed to happen.
Avoiding pollution can be a fulltime job. Try not to inhale traffic fumes; keep away from Chemical plants and
building-sites; wear a mask when cycling. It is enough to make you want to stay at home. But that, according to a
growing body of scientific evidence, would also be a bad idea. Research shows that levels of pollutants such as hazardous
gases, particulate matter and other chemical 'nasties’ are usually higher indoors than out, even in the most polluted
cities. Since the average American spends 18 hours indoors for every hour outside, it looks as though many
environmentalists may be attacking the wrong target.
Question 46: The best title for this passage could be
A. the devastating effects of environmental pollution in some areas.
B. environmental pollution as a result of poor policies.
C. indoor pollution.
D. deforestation of the Amazon jungle.
Question 47: Which statement about Sydney harbor is probably TRUE according to the passage?
A. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a ship refueling in the harbor.
B. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a tanker pumping oil into the sea.
C. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a collision between two oil tankers.
D. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a deliberate act of sabotage.
Question 48: The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to _____?
A. spillage B. crude oil C. an oil tanker D. pollution
Question 49: In the 3rd paragraph, the writer suggests that _____.
A. people should avoid working in cities
B. Americans spend too little time outdoors
C. hazardous gases are concentrated in industrial suburbs
D. there are several ways to avoid city pollution
Question 50: The word "nasties" in paragraph 3 means _____.
A. dirty B. kind C. composition D. dangerous
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Question 1: - “Would you like to order now?” - “______________________.”
A. Yes, of course B. Yes, a regular pizza, please
C. No, no. Noodles is better D. No, he wouldn’t
Question 2: Sarah and Tim are discussing about the importance of a long and healthy style.
Tim: “I believe that adopting a long and healthy style is essential for overall well – being.”
Sarah: “______________________.”
A. I can’t agree with you more B. Really?
C. No way D. I don’t think so
questions.
Question 3: I think _______ job I could have is being a teacher.
A. the better B. the best C. better D. the most good
Question 4: ______ are substances or waste materials that are harmful to the environment and human.
A. Pollution B. Pollutedly C. Pollute D. Pollutants
Question 5: Blackpool Tower, ________ on the Eiffel Tower, is a very well-known landmark.
A. modelled B. modelling C. being modelled D. to model
Question 6: My favorite subject is ________ chemistry.
A. a B. no article C. the D. B & C are correct
Question 7: Did you hear a millionaire who ________ his entire fortune to charity.
A. make out B. gave away C. bank on D. come by
Question 8: Remember _______ the flowers before going outside. It’s two days since I planted it.
A. to water B. watering C. water D. not to water
Question 9: Let’s watch new that DVD you bought today, _______?
A. do you B. don’t they C. don’t we D. shall we
Question 10: Using renewable energy sources is a sustainable way to ________ carbon emissions.
A. decrease B. enhance C. mitigate D. intensify
Question 11: I won’t give you a test_________.
A. until you do some revision B. as soon as you will do some revision
C. when you are doing some revision D. after you had done some revision
Question 12: Last week, my grandma had to ________ her doctor’s appointment due to unexpected traffic.
A. have B. make C. break D. do
Question 13: She ________ her research project diligently while her colleagues were conducting experiments.
A. is undertaking B. undertakes C. was undertaking D. undertook
Question 14: Many new job opportunities ________ by the advancements in technology.
A. are created B. have created C. created D. had been created
Question 15: Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new _______.
A. principles B. training C. development D. behaviors
Question 16: Do you think they should ban people ________ smoking in public places and outdoor space in
kindergartens, schools?
A. from B. in C. with D. of
Question 17: Although a deal has been agreed, it is not yet ________.
A. chip in B. cut and dried C. cut it fine D. have cold feet
Question 18: A. Machine B. Chemist C. Chemistry D. Christmas
Question 19: A. justice B. campus C. culture D. brush
Question 20: A. tablet B. media C. social D. subscribe
Question 21: A. computer B. completion C. magazine D. connection
Question 22: The association of downtown with the harbor evokes the origin of American cities via great sailing
ships plying oceanic trading routes.
A. intensifies B. conjures C. reminds D. worsens
Question 23: Since he moved to a small town outside the city, he has commuted every single day.
A. traveled by plane B. drive to work
C. took a lift to work D. traveled a long way to and from work
Question 24: Good communicators can speak and write clearly and succinctly.
A. logically B. long-windedly C. placidly D. frequently
Question 25: The moment the inspector walked into the room, he immediately noticed how spick and span it was.
A. cluttered B. spotless C. neat D. organized
HEARING IN COLOUR
A number of scientists around the world are now investigating a phenomenon called synaesthesia that may
affect as (26) _______ as one in 2,000 people. The name derives from the Greek words for together and perception
and means that some people’s senses work in combination. For example, some people see colour (27) _______ they
hear particular sounds. Similarly, a smell or taste may be perceived as a reaction to information received from the
eyes. However, the most common form of synaesthesia occurs among people associate certain letters or words with
colours. Scientists at Cambridge University conducted experiments to determine whether this is actually a product
of mental activity or if some individuals are just utterly (28) ________. They discovered that synaesthetes, people
who experience synaesthesia, practically associate the same letters or words with the same colours. Brain scans
revealed unusual activity in the brain when subjects were listening to words, suggesting that it is a physical
condition. The most plausible explanation is that synaesthetes have slightly different connections between the areas
of the brain (29) _______ control their senses Synesthesia is not a medical problem, however, and synaesthetes
often benefit from an unusually good memory, probably because they have extra information to help them (30)
_______ things like names and numbers.
(Adapted from Master Mind Use of English)
Question 26: A. many B. much C. few D. a number of
Question 27: A. if B. when C. until D. after
Question 28: A. imaginable B. imaginative C. unusual D. practical
Question 29: A. whom B. whose C. who D. which
Question 30: A. recall B. remind C. react D. reminisce
People think children should play sports. Sports are fun, and children stay healthy while playing with others.
However, playing sports can have negative effects on children. It may produce feelings of poor self-esteem or
aggressive behavior in some children. According to research on kids and sports, 40 million kids play sports in the
US. Of these, 18 million say they have been yelled at or called names while playing sports. This leaves many
children with a bad impression of sports. They think sports are just too aggressive.
Many researchers believe adults, especially parents and coaches, are the main cause of too much aggression in
children's sports. They believe children copy aggressive 10 adult behavior. This behavior is then further reinforced
through both positive and negative feedback. Parents and coaches are powerful teachers because children usually
look up to them. Often these adults behave aggressively themselves, sending children the message that winning is
everything. At children's sporting events, parents may yell insults at other players or cheer when their child behaves
aggressively. As well, children may be taught that hurting other players is acceptable, or they may be pushed to
continue playing even when they are injured. In addition, the media makes violence seem exciting. Children watch
adult sports games and see violent behavior replayed over and over on television.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 2)
Question 31: The passage is mainly about _________.
A. The benefits of sports for children
B. The negative effects of sports on children
C. Aggressive behavior in children's sports
D. The role of adults in shaping children’s behavior in sports
Question 32: The word It in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
A. Playing sports B. Negative effects on children
C. Poor self-esteem D. Aggressive behavior
Question 33: Which is described as the main cause of more aggressive playing?
A. Adults B. Children with low grades in school
C. New rules in sports D. Other players
Question 34: The word reinforced in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. ignored B. punished C. discouraged D. strengthened
Question 35: According to the passage, all of the followings are true EXCEPT __________.
A. Playing sports can have negative effects on children.
B. Adults, including parents and coaches, can contribute to aggressive behavior in children's sports.
C. Children often look up to their parents and coaches as powerful role models.
D. The media portrays violence in sports as boring.
Formal training programs are often readily available in large companies, meaning there are more opportunities
to develop and grow. Thanks to the breadth of roles available in large corporations, you’re more likely to be able
to make sideways moves and try different roles, as well as having more opportunities for promotion thanks to the
volume of roles. At large companies like Mondelez, there are online learning platforms that make it easy for
employees to improve any chosen skill. From virtual workshops to e-learning, the easy-access education is all at
your fingertips. The great thing about this training is that you can be in control.
A larger company means a larger pool of talent, and big companies typically attract the best of the best. This
means that you’ll have the opportunity to learn from people who are experts in their field, which is great for your
professional and personal development.
Generally, the larger a company is, the more diverse it will be. Diversity in the workplace is beneficial from
both a professional perspective, in that you’ll meet a broad range of people with hugely varied skillsets, and from
a personal perspective, in that there’s a large pool of people to make friends with and socialize with. Whatever your
interests, you’re sure to find someone with similar hobbies.
With such a large and diverse community at your fingertips, there are plenty of opportunities for networking
in large companies. This is beneficial if you’re interested in changing roles internally, and it’s also beneficial when
the time comes for you to uproot and move to a new company and a new role. Your sprawling network is likely to
have friends and ex-colleagues in companies that you’re interested in moving to, so it’s a useful starting point when
it comes to researching and reaching out to potential employers. Your dedicated hard work and impressive breadth
of skills will help you gain those glowing references that will put you ahead of the game.
Large companies often have extra perks for employees, from subsidized gym memberships to book clubs and
social events. While these shouldn’t be the driving force behind where you choose to work, they do contribute to
the overall experience and your day-to-day life in the workplace.
Large companies can also support you outside of work. Many companies will offer schemes that allow you to
work from home and work flexible hours, so whether you’re a working parent, have a pet at home, a long commute
or lots of after-work commitments, large companies will respect that and allow you to tailor your work to suit your
life outside the office. Importantly, many large companies also offer mental health support; developing mental
health policies and training mental health first aiders, and the effects of these are likely to extend outside the office.
(Adapted from www.mondelezinternational.com)
Question 36: What is the best title of the passage?
A. The advantages of working in a large company
B. The benefits of a diverse workplace
C. Opportunities for growth in large corporations
D. Balancing work and life in a large company
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. employers encourage employees to study and master skills.
B. employees only support taking online courses.
C. employees play important roles.
D. employees have many chances to be trained, which helps them improve themselves.
Question 38: When working in big companies, you work with the best people who __________.
A. are professors in the field they work. B. are specialists in the field they work.
C. are your tutors whenever you want. D. help you with the difficult tasks.
Question 39: What does the word “pool” refer to?
A. employees B. person C. firm D. agency
Question 40: What can the phrase “put you the head of the game” be replaced by?
A. help you become the best game player
B. let you be the best
C. get you to come to the destination first
D. make you understand the work
Question 41: What does the word “these” refer to?
A. gym memberships B. book clubs
C. the perks D. special events
Question 42: What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. Large companies concern employees’ lives and health.
B. Large companies are good places to treat mental problems.
C. They get good health care services in large companies.
D. Large companies usually fix the working hours and don’t allow employees to raise pets.
Question 43: Peter didn’t prepare well for his interview. As a result, he failed it.
A. Had Peter prepared well for his interview, he wouldn’t have failed it.
B. Only after Peter prepared prepare well for his interview, he would have failed it.
C. Not until he failed it did Peter prepare well for his interview.
D. No sooner Peter had prepared well for his interview than he wouldn’t have failed it.
Question 44: Linda didn’t get me a birthday present, which is why I didn’t get her one.
A. If Linda hadn’t got me a birthday present, I would have got her one.
B. If Linda had got me a birthday present, I would have got her one.
C. If Linda hadn’t got me a birthday present, I would get her one.
D. If Linda had got me a birthday present, I wouldn’t have got her one.
Question 45: My sister and I’m never allowed to chew gum when we were young.
A B C D
Question 46: James is not successful at his school projects because he didn’t prepare well for it.
A B C D
Question 47: The professor's lecture on quantum physics was disrupted by the continual interruptions
A B
from the rowdy students, which made it difficult for the other attendees to fully comprehend the complex concepts.
C D
Question 48: It’s stupid of you to waste time on social networks.
A. You shouldn’t waste time on social networks. B. You may not waste time on social networks.
C. You won’t waste time on social networks. D. You might not waste time on social networks.
Question 49: The last time I met him was 5 years ago.
A. I last met him was 5 years ago. B. I haven’t met him for 5 years.
C. I have met him 5 years ago D. I didn’t meet him 5 years ago.
Question 50: “I conducted a comprehensive survey two years ago.” said Sue
A. Sue told that she had conducted a survey two years ago.
B. Sue said that she conducted a survey two years before.
C. Sue said that she had conducted a survey two years before.
D. Sue said I had had conducted a survey two years before.
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Question 1: - “Why don’t we have a picnic this weekend?” - “_______________________________.”
A. That’s a good idea B. No, thanks
C. I’m leaving now D. I don’t care
Question 2: Lan and Hoa are discussing about life in the future.
Lan: “I strongly agree that robots will help us do housework well. Hoa:“___________________________.”
A. It is very kind of you to say so B. I’m sorry to hear that
C. It doesn’t matter at all D. There’s no doubt about that.
questions.
Question 3: Frank’s wallet is ________ in his entire collection.
A. the most cheap B. the expensivest C. the most expensive D. the cheaper
Question 4: Players who are not in ________ of the ball are prohibited from impeding the opponent's movements.
A. possessive B. possessively C. possession D. possesser
Question 5: Fifth grader Nguyen Minh Duc, _______ the test on August 13, scored 8.0 in listening and speaking,
7.0 in reading and 6.5 in writing.
A. taking B. to take C. to be taken D. take
Question 6: I had left my key in ________ kitchen, I would like you to get for me.
A. no article B. the C. a D. B & C are correct
Question 7: Paul’s grandfather still hasn’t really ________ the death of his grandmother.
A. got over B. taken after C. gone off D. looked after
Question 8: I didn’t regret________ a gap year before entering university.
A. stake B. to take C. taking D. to taking
Question 9: There are a lot of professors attending the video conference, _______?
A. are they B. are there C. aren’t they D. aren’t there
Question 10: She thinks this is a ________ problem. Her laptop screen is out of working.
A. hardware B. software C. device D. equipment
Question 11: We will complete all of tasks _________.
A. as soon as she will come B. as soon as she comes
C. as soon as she came D. as soon as she had come
Question 12: At the memorial ceremony, everyone stood in silence and ________ respect to the soldiers who
sacrificed their lives in the war.
A. paid B. got C. made D. took
Question 13: When she came back her house, she found that her son ________ doing housework.
A. did B. was doing C. is doing D. does
Question 14: That bridge ________ by city officials since last year.
A. monitored B. has monitored C. was monitored D. has been monitored
Question 15: Sam attempted to ________ her thoughts prior to responding to my inquiry.
A. install B. gather C. order D. give
Question 16: The concert is anticipated to attract a large audience, so it is advisable to book the tickets ____advance.
A. in B. at C. with D. on
Question 17: It appears that Peter will forget his lost wallet. I suppose he is ________.
A. a hot potato B. a lost cause C. bucket down D. at heart
Question 18: A. hide B. kill C. give D. pick
Question 19: A. choice B. chore C. child D. chemist
Question 20: A. effort B. actor C. talent D. success
Question 21: A. dramatic B. expensive C. comfortable D. dependent
Question 22: In Phu Quoc island, visitors may see and do a lot for an affordable cost.
A. costive B. exorbitant C. reasonable D. stingy
Question 23: I thoroughly cleaned my room before guests arrived.
A. superficially B. hastily C. carelessly D. completely
Question 24: Despite facing numerous challenges, the resilient individual managed to hang in there despite the
hurricane.
A. stop B. continue C. try D. endure
Question 25: Many young people often grow more plants in order that they can absorb more carbon dioxide from
the air.
A. affect B. release C. uptake D. consume
In today's business world, companies often pay other (26) ________ to perform certain tasks or even
whole projects in order to save money or time. This practice is known as outsourcing and is
common in several (27) ________, particularly information technology, customer services and market
research. Outsourcing is not a new phenomenon. It has been occuring in the manufacturing sector for decades, but
the 1990s saw a huge expansion in outsourcing in the service sector. Advances in the Internet and communications
technology made it possible to assign routine tasks to workers in countries such as India, (28) ________ has the
largest educated English-speaking population in the world. Another benefit is the 12-hour time difference between
India and the United States, which means that a job that is submitted at the end of America’s working day arrives
in India early in the morning, and can be completed (29) ________ the American company opens for business again
the next day.
In (30)________ cases work is outsourced overseas,which results in financial gains as salaries are often
considerably lower, not to mention the savings made by not maintaining office space.
(Adapted from Master Mind)
Question 26: A. boards B. assets C. firms D. boats
Question 27: A. fields B. aspects C. duties D. levels
Question 28: A. where B. when C. which D. who
Question 29: A. before B. during C. if D. though
Question 30: A. little B. another C. a lot D. many
Every year, the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) conducts a fascinating survey to determine which cities
around the world provide “the best or worst living conditions”. It uses factors such as climate, transport, education,
safety, and recreational facilities for around 140 world cities. It gives scores for each, and then ranks the cities in
order - from the ‘best’ to the worst’.
This year all of the top ten cities came from either Canada, Australia, or Western Europe. Vancouver, Canada
had the highest score, which means it is the most ‘liveable’city. Two other Canadian cities, Toronto (4th place) and
Calgary (5th), were also in the top five. In second place was Vienna (Austria) followed by Melbourne (Australia).
The final two cities in the top ten were Adelaide (Australia) in 9th place and Auckland (New Zealand) in 10th. At
the bottom of the list were the cities with the most difficult or dangerous living conditions.
The city with the lowest score was Harare, Zimbabwe, in 140th place. Some other African cities, such as Lagos,
Nigeria, also did badly. This could be because of climate, or the political situation in these countries. In the middle
of the list came big cosmopolitan cities with their transport and crime problems. These included Paris (17th),
London (54th), and New York (56th). The Japanese cities of Osaka and Tokyo did better, however. These cities
(both in the top twenty) also had the biggest scores in Asia along with Singapore and Hong Kong.
(Adapted from Headway Academic Skills)
Question 31: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. The best city in the world to live and work
B. Top cities for quality life
C. Annual survey ranks best cities for living and working
D. Canada, Australia, and Western Europe are the best cities to live and work
Question 32: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
A. the city B. the survey C. EIU D. living condition
Question 33: According to the passage, which cities were ranked comparable to Hong Kong and Singapore?
A. Paris and Tokyo B. Tokyo and London C. Tokyo and Osaka D. London and Nigeria
Question 34: The word cosmopolitan in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. urban B. provincial C. parochia D. rural
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned, according to the passage?
A. Climate, transport, education, safety, and recreational facilities are factors to evaluate the best cities.
B. Paris, London and New York are liveable cities in the world.
C. Some other poorly ranked African cities like Lagos, Nigeria.
D. Osaka and Tokyo had the biggest scores in Asia along with Singapore and Hong Kong.
In recent times developing commercial revenues has become more challenging for airports due to a combination
of factors, such as increased competition from Internet shopping, restrictions on certain sales, such as tobacco, and
new security procedures that have had an impact on the dwell time of passengers. Moreover, the global economic
downturn has caused a reduction in passenger numbers while those that are travelling generally have less money to
spend. This has meant that the share of revenue from non-aeronautical revenues actually peaked at 54% at the turn
of the century and has subsequently declined slightly. Meanwhile, the pressures to control the level of aeronautical
revenues are as strong as ever due to the poor financial health of many airlines and the rapid rise of the low-cost
carrier sector.
Some of the more obvious solutions to growing commercial revenues, such as extending the merchandising space
or expanding the variety of shopping opportunities, have already been tried to their limit at many airports. A more
radical solution is to find new sources of commercial revenue within the terminal, and this has been explored by
many airports over the last decade or so. As a result, many terminals are now much more than just shopping malls
and offer an array of entertainment, leisure, and beauty and wellness facilities. At this stage of facilities provision,
the airport also has the possibility of taking on the role of the final destination rather than merely a facilitator of
access.
At the same time, airports have been developing and expanding the range of services that they provide
specifically for the business traveller in the terminal. This includes offering business centres that supply support
services, meeting or conference rooms and other space for special events. Within this context, Jarach (2001)
discusses how dedicated meetings facilities located within the terminal and managed directly by the airport operator
may be regarded as an expansion of the concept of airline lounges or as a way to reconvert abandoned or underused
areas of terminal buildings. Previously it was primarily airport
hotels and other facilities offered in the surrounding area of the airport that had the potential to take on this role and
become active as a business space (McNeill, 2009).
(Adapted from IELTS Official Cambridge Guide)
Question 36: What is the best title of the passage?
A. A reduction in passenger numbers for shopping at commercial revenues.
B. Airports and commercial revenues.
C. Challenges and strategies for commercial revenues at airports.
D. Airports should develop and expand the range of services.
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The revenue from non-aeronautical revenues actually peaked at the turn of the century and decreased
considerably.
B. The sector of budget airlines or affordable air travel increased rapidly.
C. Airports have been exploring new sources of commercial revenue within the terminal like array of entertainment,
leisure, and beauty and wellness facilities.
D. Airports supply support services, meeting or conference rooms and other space for special events.
Question 38: To grow in commercial revenues at the airports, they_________.
A. provide shopping online services, meeting or conference rooms and other space for special events.
B. extend the merchandising space or expand shopping opportunities have already been maximized at many airports.
C. abandon or underuse areas of terminal buildings.
D. create more active business spaces.
Question 39: What does the word “revenues” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. income B. expenses C. costs D. debts
Question 40: What does the word “facilities” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. constrains B. limitations C. restrictions D. equipment
Question 41: What does the word “they” in the third paragraph refer to?
A. services B. airports C. travellers D. centres
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the reading passage?
A. A reduction of commercial revenues is a serious problem.
B. The effects of expanding the range of services are still contrersial
C. Several effective strategies to raise airport commercial revenue.
D. Widening shopping malls and services at the airport is not necessary.
Question 43: Charles had successfully completed the high school program at his school. He was awarded a valuable
scholarship by the institution.
A. No sooner had Charles successfully completed the high school program at his school than he was awarded a
valuable scholarship by the institution.
B. Only after Charles was awarded a valuable scholarship by the institution did he successfully complete the high
school program at his school.
C. Not until Charles was awarded a valuable scholarship by the institution did he successfully complete the high
school program at his school.
D. Had it not been for Charles’s successful completion the high school program at his school, he would have been
awarded a valuable scholarship by the institution.
Question 44: Jane had some school projects to do last month. She couldn’t attend her brother’s wedding.
A. If Jane hadn’t some school projects to do last month, she could attend her brother’s wedding.
B. If Jane had had some school projects to do last month, she couldn’t have attended her brother’s wedding.
C. If Jane hadn’t had any school projects to do last month, she could have attended her brother’s wedding.
D. If Jane didn’t have any school projects to do last month, she could attend her brother’s wedding.
Question 45: My sister haven’t got the job she expected because she didn't have the right qualifications
A B C
two years ago.
D
Question 46: Even though camels and elephants could not fly, it had other abilities like running.
A B C D
Question 47: The investigation revealed farther evidence of his involvement.
A B C D
Question 48: It’s a good idea for him to practice English skills with his spouse every single day.
A. He must practice English skills with his spouse every single day.
B. He should practice English skills with his spouse every single day.
C. He can practice English skills with his spouse every single day.
D. He will practice English skills with his spouse every single day.
Question 49: It started to rain in the early morning and it is still raining.
A. It has been raining in the early morning.
B. It has been raining for the early morning.
C. It has been raining at the early morning.
D. It has been raining since the early morning.
Question 50: My friend will be taken to the hospital due to his accident.” said the man
A. The man said his friend would be taken to the hospital due to his accident.
B. The man said his friend would take to the hospital due to his accident.
C. The man said my friend will be taken to the hospital due to his accident.
D. The man said his friend will be taken to the hospital due to his accident.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Tom and Susan are talking about their plan to help disadvantaged children.
- Tom: "Why don't we send disadvantaged children in the remote and mountainous areas some textbooks and warm clothes?"
- Susan: "_________”
A. I'm sorry to hear that. B. No, they are not available.
C. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! D. You should agree with us.
Question 2. The teacher is discussing the cyberbullying with Jack.
- Jack: "Cyberbullying has serious effects on not only a person's mental health but also his well-being."
- Teacher: “ ______. We have to prevent it as soon as possible.”
A. I don’t think so B. I don’t agree C. That's a good point D. What nonsense
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 3. Chocolates and flowers are by far _______ presents for mothers on Mother’s Day in the UK.
A. more popular B. the more popular C. less popular D. the most popular
Question 4. I think that up to now there has not been a real _______ between men and women.
A. equality B. equal C. equalize D. equally
Question 5. A child's application code and the consultant's Zalo phone number are sent to parents upon registration, _______
them to access Zalo and register personal data.
A. is enabled B. enabling C. to enable D. enabled
th
Question 6. _______ fifth-grade pupil died of suspected food poisoning on April 5 , 2024 in Nha Trang.
A. The B. An C. A D. x (No article)
Question 7. As Joe's roommate, I find him a fairly nice fellow, even if at times it is not easy to _______ his noisy behavior.
A. put up with B. look up to C. get on with D. catch up with
Question 8. The candy _______ by a student from the school at a general grocery store yesterday.
A. purchased B. was purchasing C. was purchased D. is purchased
Question 9. They remember _______ an unforgettable party for their grandparents' anniversary.
A. throw B. to throw C. throwing D. thrown
Question 10. People can never feel fulfilled by following someone else's dreams, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. can’t they D. can they
Question 11. The growth in employment and wages gives consumers some spending _______ to absorb the higher cost of
energy.
A. energy B. force C. ability D. power
Question 12. I _______ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. walk C. am walking D. walked
Question 13. Our group _______ a new method to carry out the survey into teenagers’ attitudes towards online learning.
A. recruited B. employed C. occupied D. engaged
Question 14. ________, she will buy her parents a new TV set.
A. When she receives her salary B. Once she received her salary
C. Until she received her salary D. After she had received her salary
Question 15. I am sure your sister will _______ you a sympathetic ear when you explain the
situation to her.
A. pay B. lend C. borrow D. take
Question 16. People are sometimes sick _______ the Internet users' group arguments in online forums.
A. of B. to C. into D. off
Question 17. When students take a step out of their _______ zone, they need some encouragement from their teachers and
parents.
A. climate B. parking C. control D. comfort
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. come B. cake C. city D. club
Question 19. A. find B. think C. drive D. mind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in
Question 20. A. express B. happen C. employ D. reduce
Question 21. A. advantage B. candidate C. intention D. commitment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the
Question 22. Fierce storms have been hampering rescue efforts and there is now little chance of finding more survivors.
A. allowing B. preventing C. encouraging D. promoting
Question 23. With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be unique in the
solar system was strengthened.
A. outcome B. beginning C. expansion D. continuation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the
Question 24. Various programs have been designed in order to facilitate the storage and analysis of research data.
A. ease B. block C. speed D. build
Question 25. He really seems to have fallen on his feet. He got a new job and found a flat within a week of arriving in the
city.
A. have been successful B. have been satisfied
C. have been unlucky D. have been disappointed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the
numbered blanks.
Every year millions of migrants travel vast distances using borrowed money for their airfares and taking little or no cash
with them. This flow of migrant money has a huge economic and social (26) ______ on the receiving countries. It provides
cash for food, housing and necessities. It funds education and healthcare and contributes towards the upkeep of the elderly.
Extra money is sent for special events such as weddings, funerals or urgent medical procedures and (27) ______ emergencies.
(28) ______, it sometimes becomes the capital for starting up a small enterprise. A twofold benefit would be achieved by a
developing country or a large charitable society, (29) ______ sells bonds guaranteeing a return of three or four percent,
provided that the invested money is utilized for building infrastructure within that same country. Migrants would make a
financial gain and see their savings put to work in the development of their country of (30) ______.
(Adapted from ‘sending money home’ from ielts of British Council.)
Question 26. A. result B. impact C. consequence D. outcome
Question 27. A. other B. another C. much D. little
Question 28. A. However B. Moreover C. Therefore D. Although
Question 29. A. which B. who C. whose D. when
Question 30. A. derivation B. foundation C. supply D. origin
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
There is nothing to suggest that Evelyn Glennie is profoundly deaf. She insists that her deafness is irrelevant to her
musicianship, but there is no doubt that her obvious handicap has turned a remarkable career into a miraculous one.
Glennie was eight when her hearing began to fail; by twelve she had lost it completely and feared she would have to
give up the music she loved. But a doctor’s suggestion that she should become an accountant rather than follow a hopeless
musical career strengthened her will to succeed.
As it turned out, music was one of the most advantageous careers she could have chosen and is one reason why her
speech remains so extraordinarily correct, despite her deafness. Occasionally she listens to recordings by holding a cassette
player between her knees, interpreting the vibrations and the shaking movements. Her deafness is one of the reasons for her
unique style, for she cannot listen and be influenced by other performances and she has often declared that getting her
hearing back would be the worst thing that could happen to her.
As a result of her devotion to her music and her determination to succeed, she has doubled the range of works available
for percussion music in Europe and introduced instruments previously unheard of in the west. She has also asked composers
to write more than fifty new pieces of music for these instruments, and has set up a library of three hundred works for other
musicians to use.
(Adapted from Richmond FCE Practice Tests)
A. How to be a Successful Singer B. The Disadvantages of Deafness
C. Developing Musical Skills at School D. Overcoming a Severe Disability
Question 32. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. hearing B. handicap C. career D. music
Question 33. The word unique in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. special B. boring C. common D. healthy
Question 34. According to paragraph 4, Glennie has ______.
A. refused to introduce new instruments to the west
B. written over fifty new pieces of music by herself
C. established a library to support other musicians
D. given up the hope to succeed in her musical career
Question 35. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. People can easily tell that Glennie is completely deaf.
B. Glennie’s deafness turns out to be an advantage to her career.
C. Glennie wishes she could hear clearly like a normal person.
D. Glennie’s doctor encouraged her to become a musician.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
The authors noted that while other forms of pollution are decreasing, noise pollution has been increasing. This
conclusion is reinforced by the fact that there has been an increase in the number of people who have been complaining about
excessive noise in the WHO region. Populations that are exposed to high noise levels can be afflicted by other symptoms
such as: stress reactions, sleep-stage changes, and clinical symptoms like hypertension and cardiovascular diseases. All these
impacts can contribute to premature mortality. It is important to note that these adverse health problems impact all age
groups including children and adolescents. In fact, it has been reported that children who live and or study in an area afflicted
with noise pollution tend to suffer from stress, impairments in memory and attention as well as difficulty reading.
“In Western Europe, the guidelines say, traffic noise results in an annual loss of at least one million healthy years”.
Traffic noise is currently ranked second among environmental threats to public health.
The danger of noise pollution is more present to us when we are asleep. Because the human ear is so sensitive, it never
rests, it is always working, picking up and transmitting sounds for our brains to interpret. This always on working process is
where the danger lies, though you may be sleeping, sounds are still being picked up and processed. The most common side
effects of this phenomenon are sleep disturbance and tiredness, impaired memory judgment, and psychomotor skills. The
other more serious outcomes of this can be the triggering of the body’s acute stress response, which raises blood pressure
and heart rate as the body and brain go into a state of hyperarousal. According to the European Environment Agency, at least
10,000 cases of premature deaths from noise exposure occur each year, although incomplete data mean this number is
significantly underestimated.
Question 36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Noise in the WHO Region B. environmental threats
C. Increase in Noise, Increase in Risk D. Side Effects of Tiredness
Question 37. According to paragraph 2, in Western Europe, an annual loss of at least one million healthy years is resulted
from _______.
A. guidelines B. environment threats C. traffic noise D. public health
Question 38. The word premature in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. slow B. late C. quick D. early
Question 39. The word it in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. human ear B. sound C. the danger D. side effect
Question 40. The word afflicted in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assumed B. illustrated C. affected D. described
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the article as a symptom caused by exposure to high noise levels?
A. staying highly alert B. stress reactions
C. cardiovascular diseases D. hypertension
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The danger of noise pollution is less serious when we are asleep.
B. Adverse health problems impact children and adolescents only.
C. Many forms of pollution, except for noise pollution, are decreasing.
D. At least 100,000 cases of premature deaths from noise exposure occur each year.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43. Laura didn’t take part in the marathon. She was badly injured in a car accident last week.
A. Without her bad injury in a car accident last week, Laura wouldn’t have taken part in the marathon.
B. If Laura hadn’t been badly injured in a car accident last week, she would have taken part in the marathon.
C. If only Laura weren’t badly injured in a car accident last week, she could have taken part in the marathon.
D. Laura could take part in the marathon in case she were badly injured in a car accident last week.
Question 44. Peter failed the interview again. He was fully aware of the importance of making careful preparation only then.
A. No sooner had Peter fully been aware of the importance of making careful preparation than he failed the interview
again.
B. Hardly had Peter fully been aware of the importance of making careful preparation when he failed the interview again.
C. Not until Peter was fully aware of the importance of making careful preparation did he fail the interview again.
D. Only after Peter had failed the interview again was he fully aware of the importance of making careful preparation.
Question 45. Some children still face discrimination at school because of its sexual orientation
A. Some B. face C. at school D. its
Question 46. After going through a protection period that may last from several months to a year, new recruits will be offered
a long-term contract.
A. months B. protection C. contract D. recruits
Question 47. Yesterday, for the first time in his life, Mike refuses to follow his parents' advice.
A. first time B. refuses C. to follow D. advice
Question 48. They are not allowed to use our personal information for their own purposes.
A. They don’t have to use our personal information for their own purposes.
B. They can use our personal information for their own purposes.
C. They mustn’t use our personal information for their own purposes.
D. They may use our personal information for their own purposes.
Question 49. Linda last went to the university library three months ago.
A. Linda hasn’t gone to the university library for three months.
B. Linda went to the university library for three months.
C. Linda has gone to the university library for three months.
D. Linda didn’t go to the university library for three months.
Question 50. Jack told me, "I want to see this movie with my girlfriend tomorrow."
A. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with my girlfriend tomorrow.
B. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with his girlfriend tomorrow.
C. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with my girlfriend the following day.
D. Jack told me he wanted to see that movie with his girlfriend the following day.
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questions.
Question 1. We ran out of money. We came home from holiday early.
A. If we hadn’t run out of money, we would come home from holiday early.
B. If we hadn’t run out of money, we wouldn’t have come home from holiday early.
C. If we hadn’t run out of money, we wouldn’t come home from holiday early.
D. If we didn’t run out of money, we wouldn’t come home from holiday early.
Question 2. Phong had just finished the hotel management course. He started looking for a job.
A. No sooner had Phong finished the hotel management course than he started looking for a job.
B. Not until Phong started looking for a job did he finish the hotel management course.
C. Had it been for Phong’s completion of hotel management course, he would have started looking for a job.
D. Only after Phong started looking for a job did he finish the hotel management course.
questions.
Question 3. The conference brought together experts from all over ____ world to share ideas and propel
advancements in their fields.
A. a B. Ø C. an D. the
Question 4. Recent research has ____ the idea that water is only to be found on planet Earth; evidence of it has
been found on Mars.
A. approved B. disproved C. improved D. reproved
Question 5. Tickets for “Lat mat 7” _______ in the upcoming weeks.
A. will be selling B. sells C. will sell D. will be sold
Question 6. This sort of job requires good _____ and teamwork skills.
A. communicator B. communicative C. communicate D. communication
Question 7. Jack is not interested in going to university, _______?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. is he D. isn’t he
Question 8. It’s important ___ us to carry out a campaign against violence in our school.
A. of B. to C. in D. for
Question 9. You can imagine how ______ I felt when I realised I was wearing two different shoes.
A. embarrassed B. shy C. ashamed D. timid
Question 10. The students ______ grammar every day will improve their writing.
A. to practice B. practicing C. was practicing D. practiced
Question 11. If you would like to ______ a complaint, please fill in a form or speak to the manager.
A. make B. do C. pay D. take
Question 12. Eric ________ in the park when a strange man came up to him.
A. sat B. was sitting C. is sitting D. had sat
Question 13. Six people were injured when a bomb _____ near an army camp last night.
A. took off B. turned up C. went off D. put out
Question 14. Bill won’t leave the office ______________.
A. until he finishes writing his report B. when he finished writing his report
C. as soon as he had finished writing his report D. by the time he finished writing his report
Question 15. I was on the ___ of buying the cookbook when I realized that I had it already.
A. verge B. edge C. outset D. cusp
Question 16. Please don’t forget _____ the bedroom door when you go out as the cat keeps going in there.
A. closing B. to closing C. to close D. close
Question 17. I think Geoff is __________ in the class at chess.
A. worse B. more bad C. the worst D. the worse
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 18. When Eileen saw that her mother had bought the dress she wanted for herself, she was tickled pink.
A. depressed B. surprised C. proud D. pleased
Question 19. This necklace isn’t real gold - I’m sorry to have to tell you that it’s completely worthless.
A. valueless B. priceless C. invaluable D. worthy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. allow B. open C. appear D. include
Question 21. A. exciting B. terrific C. attractive D. qualified
Question 22. I last took my child to the amusement park 2 months ago.
A. I haven’t taken my child to the amusement park for 2 months.
B. I haven’t taken my child to the amusement park since 2 months.
C. I didn’t take my child to the amusement park for 2 months.
D. I took my child to the amusement park 2 months ago.
Question 23. It’s not necessary for you to fill in this part of the form.
A. You mustn’t fill in this part of the form.
B. You shouldn’t fill in this part of the form.
C. You needn’t fill in this part of the form.
D. You have to fill in this part of the form.
Question 24. Rob said: “I will have an important job interview tomorrow.”
A. Rob said he would have an important job interview tomorrow.
B. Rob said he will have an important job interview tomorrow.
C. Rob said he will have an important job interview the following day.
D. Rob said he would have an important job interview the following day.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each the numbered blanks (from 25 to 29).
Reefs form under water and can be made of coral, sand or rock. The top of the reef sits about two or three
feet below sea level. Coral reefs are found in warm, shallow, clean water and the Great Barrier Reef is the largest
coral reef of all. It (25) _____ for two thousand kilometres and forms a natural breakwater that protects the coast of
Australia from the strong waves of the South Pacific. There are (26) ___ islands on the Great Barrier Reef formed
by piled up coral and sand. They are, (27) ________, very difficult to reach as sharp coral will tear the bottom out
of a boat. One must be careful not to step on living coral as it grows very slowly, about five centimetres a year. The
Great Barrier Reef is (28) ______ to many types of fish. There are also other aquatic species (29) _______ depend
on coral to protect them.
Question 25. A. lies B. stretches C. locates D. lasts
Question 26. A. many B. much C. little D. another
Question 27. A. however B. therefore C. so D. but
Question 28. A. accommodation B. place C. house D. home
Question 29. A. what B. that C. where D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 30 to 36.
When it comes to education options for school-leavers, there are several paths to consider. One common option
is pursuing higher education at a university or college. This path typically involves obtaining a bachelor’s degree in
a chosen field of study, which can provide a solid foundation for various career opportunities. Universities and
colleges offer a wide range of academic programs, allowing school-leavers to explore their interests and specialize
in areas that align with their career aspirations.
Another option for school-leavers is vocational education and training (VET) programs. VET emphasizes
providing practical skills and knowledge that directly apply to specific industries or trades. These programs offer
hands-on training, preparing individuals for careers in fields such as healthcare, information technology,
construction, hospitality, and automotive industries. VET programs often include apprenticeships or internships,
allowing students to gain valuable work experience while studying.
For those who prefer a more experiential approach, apprenticeships can be a valuable education option.
Apprenticeships combine on-the-job training with classroom instruction, allowing school-leavers to earn while they
learn. They provide a unique opportunity to gain practical skills and industry-specific knowledge directly from
professionals in the field. Apprenticeships are available in a variety of industries, such as construction, culinary arts,
electrical work, and healthcare.
Ultimately, the choice of education option for school-leavers depends on individual interests, goals, and
learning preferences. Whether it’s pursuing higher education at a university, enrolling in a vocational program, or
embarking on an apprenticeship, each path offers distinct advantages and can lead to rewarding career paths. It's
important for school-leavers to explore and evaluate these options carefully to make an informed decision that aligns
with their aspirations and sets them on a path to success.
(Adapted from Education Week)
A. Making Informed Decisions: How to Choose the Right Education Path for School-Leavers
B. Mapping Future Careers: Exploring Opportunities for School-Leavers
C. Exploring Various Education Options for School-Leavers
D. Navigating Pathways after School: Education Options for Postgraduate
Question 31. According to the passage, the common path after leaving school for students is ________.
A. VET programs B. internship
C. tertiary education D. apprenticeship
Question 32. The word "align with” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. match with B. deal with C. come up with D. go with
Question 33. The word "emphasize" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. highlight B. italicize C. understate D. strengthen
Question 34. The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to ________ .
A. school-leavers B. aspirations C. options D. decisions
Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Pursuing higher education at a university or college typically involves obtaining a bachelor’s degree.
B. Vocational education and training (VET) programs focus on providing practical skills and knowledge for
specific industries or trades.
C. School-leavers have the opportunity to specialize in areas aligned with their career aspirations through
university or college education.
D. Apprenticeships do not offer any classroom instruction and are solely based on on-the-job training. Question
36. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. Vocational education and training (VET) programs are more beneficial for school-leavers than pursuing a
university degree.
B. Considering individual interests and career aspirations when choosing an education option for school-leavers
is important.
C. School-leavers should prioritize earning potential when choosing an education option.
D. Apprenticeships provide a more practical learning experience compared to higher education.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 37 to 41.
Independence and personal choice are considered as a high value on Australians place. Therefore, rather than
telling students exactly what to do, teachers and course tutors give them a few different options and suggest they
pick the one that works best for them. They also expect students to take charge if things don't go as planned and
to find help and support on their own.
Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions rather than believing there is one truth. This means
that in an educational setting, students will be expected to form their own opinions and defend the reasons for that
point of view and the evidence for it.
Australians are uncomfortable with disparity in social status and therefore admire the concept of treating
everyone equally. An example of this is how the majority of Australian adults address each other by their first
names. This emphasis on equality results in Australians feeling uneasy about taking things too seriously and being
willing to make jokes about themselves.
Australians believe that life should have a balance between work and leisure time. As a consequence, some
students may be critical of others who they perceive as doing nothing but study. Australian notions of privacy
mean that areas such as financial matters, appearance and relationships are only discussed with close friends. While
people may volunteer such information, they may resent someone actually asking them unless the friendship is
firmly established. Even then, it is considered very impolite to ask someone what they earn.
(Source: Complete IELTS Student Book by Guy Brook Hart and Vanessa Jakeman)
Question 37. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to .
A. teachers and course tutors B. options
C. Australians D. students
Question 38. The word disparity in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. difference B. independence C. similarity D. equality
Question 39. In paragraph 4, why some students are criticize of others who do nothing but study?
A. they think that life should have a balance between work and leisure time.
B. they want some more privacy.
C. they don’t want others to study better than them.
D. they prefer equality in education.
Question 40. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Students in Australia will be not expected to form their own opinions.
B. Asking someone what they earn is considered fairly discourteous.
C. A teacher or course tutor will not tell students what to do.
D. Australians usually don’t accept many other opinions.
Question 41. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Education in Australia
B. Balancing Work and Leisure in Australia
C. Australian culture
D. Australians and their privacy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 42. When I lived in this city, I usually shop for groceries at this supermarket.
A B C D
Question 43. We provide the best seats for our attendees, guaranteed to showcase minimum discomfort.
A B C D
Question 44. The dog loves to play fetch in the park and goes for a walk with their owner.
A B C D
Question 45. Almost all the pupils at this school come from privileged backgrounds as only the most affluent
parents can afford to pay the huge fees.
A. wealthy B. well off C. disabled D. penniless
Question 46. She was born in an impoverished family. It was a life full of pain and suffering.
A. distress B. misfortune C. discomfort D. pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 47. A. future B. intend C. table D. teacher
Question 48. A. come B. comic C. money D. enough
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 49. Charlotte and Dave are talking about online learning.
- Charlotte: “I think online learning won’t be effective if students have problems with Internet.”
- Dave: “_________________________”
A. You can say that again. B. No, it’s not true.
C. You’re wrong. D. Really?
Question 50. Ben and Hien are in the school canteen.
- Ben: "_____________________?” - Hien: "No, thanks. I’m not thirsty."
A. Do you want to eat anything B. Do you like orange juice
C. What drink do you like D. Would you like something to drink
--- THE END ---
Họ, tên thí sinh: ...........................................................................
Số báo danh: ................................................................................
Question 1: Mason invited his friend , Duong, to have dinner out that night and Duong accepted.
- Mason : “ Shall we eat out tonight ? “ - Duong : “_____________________”
A. That’s acceptable. B.That’s a great idea.
C. You are welcome. D. It’s kind of you to invite.
Question 2: Van is going shopping with her sister .
-Van : “ What do you think of fashion ? “ -Hanh: “_______________________ “
A. I am crazy about it. B. Of course the fashion show is excellent.
C. Well, it’s beyond my expectation. D. It’s none of my business.
questions.
Question 3: The use of details is _________ method of developing a controlling idea, and almost all students
employ this method.
A. less common B. more common C. most common D. the most common
Question 4: Opera singer Maria Calass was known for her _________, powerful voice.
A. intensity B. intensify C. intense D. intensely
Question 5: Psychological violence is so dangerous, __________ to unexpected consequences.
A. leading B. to lead C.led D. is led
Question 6: There is great disparity between the rich and _________ poor in India.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question7: You will have to _________ your holiday next week if you are too ill to travel.
A. call off B. cut down C. take out D. take on
Question 8: The farmer’s crops ___________ seriously by floods last year .
A. ruined B. being ruined C. were ruined D. have ruined
Question 9: David regrets _________ love to her sooner because they are no longer together.
A. to speak B. not speaking C. not to speak D. no speaking
Question 10: People don’t like the way she shows off,_______?
A. don’t they B. do they C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 11: His ________ of the school regulations really can’t be ignored any longer.
A. unfamiliarity B. carelessness C. disregard D. inattention
Question 12: When the baby woke up and cried, they _________ dinner in the kitchen.
A. is cooking B. was cooking C. were cooking D. cooked
Question 13: The music show last night left a deep __________ on all audience.
A. impression B. feeling C. influence D. fancy
Question 14: I will tell you the truth, ___________ .
A. until he reveal his secret to me B. When he revealed his secret to me
C. as soon as he reveals his secret to me D. After he had revealed his secret to me
Question 15: Most young people want to _________ an independent life without being influenced by anyone.
A. lay B. put C. lead D. bring
Question 16: It was difficult_________me to guess what his reaction to the news would be.
A. in B. to C. of D. for
Question 17: Making friends at the new job was easy as _________ for him.
A. cake B. candy C. pie D. ice
Question 18: A. broad B. load C. road D. boat
Question 19: A. cabbage B. couch C. coin D. ceiling
Question 20: A. novel B. village C. surprise D. physics
Question 21: A. interview B. concentrate C. comfortable D. technology
Question 22: I didn’t think her comments were appropriate at that time.
A. unsuitable B. suitable C. incorrect D. comfortable
Question 23: He wasn't able to manage with the stresses and strains of the job.
A. cope B. succeed C. ask D. require
Question 24: The International Organizations are going to work in a temporary way in that country.
A. permanent B. stable C. complicated D. difficult
Question 25: I’m sure they wanted us to stay for dinner. They received us with open arms.
A. welcome B. greet C. reject D. reply
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in (26) _________ cities worldwide. It has been
noticed that the difference in temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon occurs in both winner
and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt
roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through
the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (27) _________occur in the morning rather than,
as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (28) _________ it is not uncommon
to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls or large buildings. In Singapore, the government has (29)
_________ to transform it into a “city within a garden” and, in 2006, they held an international competition calling
for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18 “Supertrees” –
metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is (30) _________ to
exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect
rainwater, making them truly self- sufficient.
(Adapted from “The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS” by
Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)
Question 26: A. a few B. much C. any D. many
Question 27: A. where B. which C. when D. what
Question 28: A. but B. for C. and D. or
Question 29: A. committed B. pledged C. confessed D. required
Question 30: A. house B. land C. place D. home
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the purpose of an
application is to attract an employer’s attention and persuade him or her to grant you an interview. To do this, the
letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what you want from the job.
Like a resume, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your skills
and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is likely to be
very effective. While the resume must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to interpret and
expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific job, and it should emphasise your
strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both yourself and the
company.
The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be modest. It should be
neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for sympathy. It should never express
dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving
your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires that you
mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them “negotiable.” However, when you go on an
interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate both your field
and, if possible, the particular company. You don’t want to ask for less than you deserve or more than is reasonable.
(Adapted from “Select Readings – Intermediate” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 31. The passage is mainly about_______?
A. Things to avoid during a job interview.
B. Advice on how to find a good job.
C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application.
D. Differences between a resume and a letter of application.
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ___________.
A. advertise a product to attract more customers.
B. present what he/she wants from the job.
C. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview.
D. get further information about the company.
Question 33: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. the resume. B. the letter of application. C. an opportunity. D. your work.
Question 34: The word “explicitly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______________.
A. clearly. B. slightly. C. quickly. D. shortly.
Question 35: According to the passage, all of the following are true about a letter of application, EXCEPT ?
A. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
B. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific job.
C. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant’s resume.
D. It should never express the applicant’s dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums,
fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it's highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of
sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give
children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behaviour and fair play aren't
the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behaviour are reasonable ways of getting
what you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous
fame and wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad
behaviour.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss attitudes and
behaviour with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player swearing at the referee, they
can get the child's opinion on that behaviour and discuss whether a player's skill is more important than their
behaviour. Ask what the child thinks the player's contribution to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team
game on their own, so it's important for members to work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behaviour from players, think
it's amusing or even consider it's a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players get away with a clear
foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on the game. Look too at the
reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace or scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents
can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to remind children that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure
they accentuate too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players have, not just
with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made by such
players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point out to a
child that the well-behaved sportspeople don't gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can stress
how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when not
playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the antics
of the badly behaved but often more publicised players.
(Adapted from "New English File - Advanced" by Will Maddox)
Question 36: Which of the following can be the best title of the passage?
A. The Importance Of Team Spirit In Sport
B. The Influence Of Model Sportspeople On Children
C. Moral Lessons For Children From Watching Sports
D. Different Attitudes Toward Bad Behaviour In Sport
Question 37: The word "bolstered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. inspired B. represented C. energised D. reinforced
Question 38: According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to think that ______.
A. it is an acceptable way to win the game
B. it is necessary in almost any game
C. it brings about undesirable results
D. it is disadvantageous to all concerned
Question 39: The word "accentuate" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ______.
A. highlight B. embolden C. consolidate D. actualise
Question 40: The word "They" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. children B. spectators C. teammates D. parents
Question 41: Which of the following about sport is NOT TRUE in the passage?
A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
B. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media.
C. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.
D. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople's wrongdoings than on their good deeds.
B. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing.
C. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams' budgets than others.
D. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.
Question 43: He didn’t pick her up from school on time. She was angry with him.
A. If he picked her up from school on time, she would be angry with him.
B. If he had picked her up from school on time, she wouldn’t have been angry with him.
C. If he had picked her up from school on time, she wouldn’t be angry with him.
D. If he hadn’t picked her up from school on time, she wouldn’t be angry with him.
Question 44: We arrived at the cinema. Then we realized our tickets were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our tickets were still at home than we arrived at the cinema.
B. Not until we arrived at the cinema that we realized that our tickets were still at home.
C. Only after we had arrived at the cinema did we realize that our tickets were at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the cinema than we realized that our tickets were still at home.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 45: All students in our school are always required to wash his hand before having lunch every day.
A. in B. are C. wash D. his
Question 46: The treatment for people addictive to tranquillizers includes training in stress management and
relaxation techniques.
A. treatment B. addictive C. includes D. relaxation
Question 47: He didn’t even close the door before he goes out yesterday.
A. didn’t B. close C. goes D. out
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
Question 48: We are not permitted to enter the factory after 5 p.m without authorization.
A. We won't enter the factory after 5 p.m without authorization.
B. We needn't enter the factory after 5 p.m without authorization.
C. Visitors wouldn't enter the factory after 5 p.m without authorization.
D. Visitors mustn't enter the factory after 5 p.m without authorization.
Question 49: The last time I heard this song was 10 years ago.
A. It has been 10 years when I have heard this song.
B. I didn’t hear this song since 10 years .
C. I haven’t heard this song for 10 years.
D. It is 10 years when I have heard this song.
Question 50: He told me: “You used to be a very special person in my heart “.
A. He told me that I had used to be a very special person in his heart.
B. He told me that you had used to be a very special person in his heart.
C. He told me that I used to be a very special person in his heart.
D. He told me that you used to be a very special person in his heart.
---THE END---

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2024

Họ, tên thí sinh: ........................................................................... Số báo danh:……………………………………………

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