MOCK‐CET PHYSICS PAPER‐1

2
1. Rotational kinetic energy of a body is given by the equation
2
where I is moment of inertia and ω angular velocity of the body. The
dimensional formula of I using the above equation is
1).ML2T0 2). ML2T1 3). M2L1T1 4). MLT

2. If L, C and R represent inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively,

then which of the following does not have the dimension of the frequency?
1). 2). 3). 4).
√

3. A truck of mass 0.5 Ton is moving with a speed of 6 ms‐1. Sand is poured
at the rate of 10 Kg per minute. How much force is needed to keep it
moving with the same speed?

1) 1N 2) 50N 3) 500 N 4) 3 N

4. A horizontal force F is applied on a block of weight W to hold against a

vertical wall. The minimum value of force needed to hold the block if the co‐
efficient of friction of the surface is

1) 2) 3) 4) W

5. A bird is inside a wire cage hung from a spring balance. The spring balance
reading is R1 when the bird is flying and R2 when it is at rest inside the cage.
Which of the following is correct?

1) R1>>>R2 2) R1>R2 3) R1<R2 4)R1=R2

6. An ideal heat engine gives out heat at 770C to have a 30% of efficiency. The
temperature of the source is

1) 2690c 2)7730c 3) 6730c 4) 2270c

7. In an auditorium absorption co‐efficient of an open window is

1) zero 2) infinity 3) unity 4) 0.5

8. An optical medium has refractive index 2.0. The value of speed of light in
that medium is approximately equal to

1) 6X108 ms‐1 2) 1.5X108 ms‐1 3) 1.5X10‐8 ms‐1 4) 3X108 ms‐1

9. First law of thermodynamics is a special case of

1) law of conservation of energy 2) Boyle’s law

3) law of conservation of mass 4) Charles law

10. A ray of light passes from glass of refractive index 1.6 to air. The angle of
incidence for which the angle of refraction is twice that of the angle of
incidence is

1)sin 2) sin 3) cos 4) cos

11. Two waves having the intensities in the ratio of 9:1 produce interference.
The ratio of maximum intensities to minimum intensities is

1) 9:1 2) 4:1 3) 2:1 4) 5:4

12. Two sodium lamps are used to produce sustained interference. Which of
the following is correct?

1) They cannot produce

2) they can produce

3) they can produce if the intensity of light is less

4) they can produce if the intensity of light is more

13. In which of the following cases no force exerted by a magnetic field on a

charge?

1) moving along curved path 2) moving with constant velocity

3) at rest 4) moving in a circle

14. In a step up transformer the turn ratio is 3:2. A battery of emf 4.5 V is
connected across the primary. The voltage developed in the secondary is

1) 3 V 2) 4.5 V 3) 1.5 V 4) zero

15. The core of the transformer is laminated to avoid loss of energy due to

1) heating 2) hysteresis 3) eddy current 4) flux leakage

16. A binary full adder circuit consists of

1) two half adders

2) two half adders and one AND gate

3) two NAND gates

4) two half adders and one OR gate

17. In a transistor emitter‐base junction and collector‐base junctions are

respectively

1) forward and reverse biased 2) reverse and forward biased

3) forward and forward biased 4) reverse and reverse biased

18. When both the source of sound and observer approach each other with a
speed equal to half the velocity of sound, the change in frequency of sound
as detected by the observer is

1) zero 2) 50% 3) 200% 4) 25%

19. Mass number A of a nucleus whose radius is 3.9 fermi is

1) 10 2) 39 3) 17 4) 27

20. A ball of mass 0.2 Kg falls under gravity from a height of 10 m with an
initial velocity. It collides with the floor and looses 50% of its energy and
then rises back to the same height. The value of its initial velocity is

1) 14 ms‐1 2) 7 ms‐1 3) 24 ms‐1 4) 2.5 ms‐1

21.An object is kept on the table. The angle between the action of the object
on the table and the weight of the object is

1) 2700 2) 00 3) 900 4) 1800

22. Water rises up to a height ‘h’ in a capillary tube of certain diameter. When
this is replaced by a tube of half the diameter, then water eill rise to a height
of

1) 3h 2) 4h 3) h 4) 2h

23. In the pressure cooker the cooking is faster because the increase of vapour
pressure

1) increases latent heat 2) decreases latent heat

3) increases boiling point 4) decreases boiling point

24. A water fall is 84 m high. Assuming that half of the kinetic energy of the
falling water is converted into heat, the rise in temperature of water is
(assume g = 10ms‐2)

1) 0.10c 2) 100c 3) 0.20c 4) 0.30c

25. Y = 0.5 sin 2π (0.01x ‐3t) represents a wave equation, where x & y are in
meter and t in seconds. The speed of the wave in ms‐1 is given by

1) 300 2) 33.3 3) 330.3 4) 30

26. In simple harmonic motion the particle is

1) always accelerated 3) alternately accelerated or retarded

2) always retarded 4) neither accelerated nor retarded

27. A ray of light undergoes a deviation of 300 when incident on a equilateral

prism of refractive index √2 . The angle made by the ray inside the prism
with the base of the prism is

1) 300 2) 00 3) 600 4) 450

28. Two lenses of power +12 and ‐2 dioptre are placed in contact. The effective
focal length of the combination is

1) 0.1 m 2) 0.125 m 3) 0.083 m 4) 0.166 m

29. Laser diode is

1) Forward biased p‐n junction LED in which energy of the emitted photon is
more than the energy gap

2) Forward biased p‐n junction LED in which the energy of the emitted photon
is equal to the energy gap

3) Reverse biased p‐n junction LED in which the energy of the emitted photon
is equal to the energy gap

4) Reverse biased p‐n junction LED in which the energy of the emitted photon
is more than the energy gap

30. A radio‐active element has a decay constant of 1.1 X 10‐9 s‐1, then its half
life in seconds is

1) 0.63 X 108 2) 6.3 X 108 3) 6.3 X 10‐8 4) 5.5 X 108

31. The electrons emitted from nucleus during ‐ decay originates from

1) inner orbit of atom 2) free electrons existing in nucleus

3) photon escaping from the nucleus 4) decay of a neutron in a nucleus.

32. A beam of light strikes a piece of glass at an angle of incidence 600 . The
reflected beam is completely plane polarised. The refractive index of glass is

√
1) √3 2) 3) 4)
√

33. The transverse nature of light is shown by

1) interference 2) diffraction 3) refraction 4) polarisation

34. In young’s double slit experiment the separation between the slits is halved
and the distance between the slit and the screen is doubled. The fringe
width

1) decreases by one fourth 2) increases four times

3) doubled 4) halved
35. Which of the following phenomena cannot produce colours with white
light?

1) dispersion 2) interference

3) diffraction 4) polarisation

36. Electric lines of force about a positive point charge are

1) circular and clockwise 2) circular and anti clockwise

3) radially inwards 4) radially out wards

37. A given charge is situated at a certain distance from an electric dipole in

the end‐on position experiences a force ‘F’ . If the distance of the charge is
doubled the force acting on the charge will be

1) 2F 2) F/2 3) F/8 4) F/4

38. In order to obtain a time constant of 10 seconds in an RC circuit containing

a resistance of 500 , the capacity of the capacitor should be

1) 2 2) 5 3) 2mF 4) 5mF

39. If n, e, , & m represents electron density, charge, relaxation time and mass
of the electron respectively then the resistance of the wire of length and
area of cross section A is given by

1) 2) 3) 4)
40. A 50 V battery is connected across 10Ω resistor. If the current in the circuit
is 4.5 A the net resistance of the battery is

1) zero 2) 0.5Ω 3) 1.1 4) 5Ω

41. A magnetic dipole is placed in two perpendicular magnetic fields &

is in equilibrium making an angle with , then

1) B = B0 2) B cos = Bo sin

3) B = Bo tan 4) B sin = Bo cos

42. A coil of 0.1 m X 0.1 m area having 50 turns is making 50 rps in a

magnetic field of induction 2T. The peak value of induced emf is

approximately

1) 110 V 2) 220 V 3) 314 V 4) 628 V

43. A suspended coil galvanometer has 1000 number of turns, area

3 X 10‐4 m2 is kept in a magnetic field of strength one tesla is carrying a

Current of one micro ampere. The deflecting couple is

1) 6 X 10‐7Nm 2) 6 X 10‐6Nm 3) 3 X 10‐7Nm 4) 3 X 10‐6

44. In a series L C R circuit the AC voltage across resistance is 5V, inductance

20 V and capacitance is 20 V. The AC voltage applied to the circuit is

1)45 V 2) 5 V 3) 20 V 4) 40 V

45. If the wave length of photon and proton are same then which of the

Following property is same for the both

1)momentum 2)energy 3)frequency 4)velocity

46. A generator produces a voltage that is given by V=240 sin 38 πt, where

Where t in seconds. The frequency and rms voltages respectively are

1)38 Hz, 240 V 2)19 Hz, 240 V

3) 38 Hz, 120√2 4) 19 Hz, 120√2 V

47. Two resistors have effective resistance of 30Ω when they are in series

20/3 when in parallel. Then the values of the resistors are

1)25, 5 2) 10, 20 3) 18, 12 4) 21, 9

48. A photo electron is accelerated through 3.2 V. The energy gained by it is

1)3.2 e V 2) 3.2 J 3) 3.2 X 10‐19 e V 4) 3.2 X 10‐19 J

49. If the distance of 500 W lamp is increased from a photo cell, the saturated

Current ‘I’ in the photo cell varies with distance ‘d’ as

1) 2) 3) 4)

50. Who proposed that the orbits of electron in the atom are elliptical

1)Rutherford 2) Thomson 3) Bohr 4) Somerfield

51. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 e V. The energy needed

To ionise hydrogen atom from its second excited state is

1)1.51e V 2) 3.4 eV 3) 13.6 eV 4) 12.1 eV

52. To which logic gate the following truth table corresponds ?

X Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
1) AND 2) OR 3) NOR 4) NAND

53. Two masses of 4 gram and 9 gram are moving with equal kinetic energies.

The ratio of the magnitude of their linear momenta is

1)2/3 2) 3/2 3) 4/9 4) 9/4

54. A bridge is in the form of an arc of radius 4.9 m. The maximum speed at

Which a car can move without leaving the ground at highest point is

(Assume g = 10 ms‐2)

1)7 m s‐1 2) 4.9 m s‐1 3) 49 m s‐1 4) 0.7 m s‐1‐

55. A rectangular board weighing 5 Kg is supported by two strings run from its

Upper corners to a nail on the wall. If each string makes 450 angle with

The vertical, the tension in each is

1)5/√2 2) 10/√2 3) 5√2 4) 10√2

56. Which of the following materials may be used for manufacturing of

Polaroids?

1)calcite 2) tourmaline

3)quinine iodo sulphate 4) quartz

57. Seven capacitors each of capacitance 2 micro farads are to be connected

in a configuration to obtain a capacitance of (10/11) micro farad. Which

of the following is correct?

1) 2)

3) 4)
58. The current in the following circuit is

1) 3.7 A 2) 1.7 A

3) 1.3 A 4) 1 A

59. If 10% of the main current is to be passed through the moving coil

galvanometer of resistance 99 ohm then the required shunt resistance is

1) 9.9 Ω 2) 10 Ω 3) 11 Ω 4) 9 Ω

60. 100 gram of ice is mixed with 100 gram of water at 1000 C . The final

temperature of the mixture is

1)300 C 2) 400 C 3) 200 C 4) 100 C

***********************
 SOLUTIONS WITH ANSWERS
FOR MOCK‐CET PHYSICS PAPER 1

1.E =ML2T0
Answer: (1)

2. we have f has no dimension of frequency

√

Answer: (3)

3.

Answer: (1)

4. Let F be the normal reaction, then

Answer : (1)

5. R1<R2 because flying bird will get its weight shared by air

Answer : (3)

6. .

0.7 T1 = 350 therefore

.

Answer : (4)

7. Answer (3) It is unity

8. n1v1=n2v2 1X3X108 =2 X V2

Answer : (3)

9. law of conservation of energy

Answer : (1)
10. n1sini = n2sinr 1.6 X sini= 1 X sin 2i =2 sini cos i

Cos i =1.6/2 = 0.8 cos =i sin2i =1‐cos2 i = 1‐16/25 = 9/25

Sin i = 3/5 therefore i =sin‐1(3/5)

Answer : (1)

11. Intensity ratio amplitude ratio

A1 = 3 unit A2 =1 unit

At maximum Amax = A1 + A2 = 3+1 = 4

Amin = A1 – A2 = 3‐1= 2

Answer : (2)

12. Two different sources cannot produce interference

Answer : (1)

13. No force is produced on charges at rest

Answer : (3)

14. There is no d.c. output in a transformer

Answer (4)

15. To avoid eddy current loss

Answer : (3)

16. two half adders and one OR gate

Answer : (4)
17. the emitter‐base junction is forward biased and

The collector‐base junction is reverse biased

Answer : (1)

18. f f 3f

Change in frequency = 3f – f = 2f = 200%

Answer : ( 3 )

19. 3.9 X 10‐15 = 1.3 X 10‐15 A1/3

A1/3 = 3 therefore A = 33 = 27

Answer : (4)

20. Total energy before collision = kinetic energy + potential energy

= ½ mv2 + mgh

After collision = ½( ½ mv2 + mgh)

Since the ball rebounds to a height 10 m mg(10)= ½ ( ½ mv2 + mg(10))

20g‐10g =1/2 v2 V2=20 g=20 X 9.8 = 196

V √196 14

Answer : (1)

21. the action of the object on the table & the weight of the object act
downwards. Therefore the angle is 00

Answer : (2)

22.
 Answer : (4)

23. boiling point increases with increase in pressure.

Answer: (3)

24. =mc▲ ▲ = 0.1

.

Answer : (1)

25. comparing the given equation with y = A sin 2π (t/T –x/λ ) we get

f = 3 & λ = 100

v = fλ = 3 X 100 = 300

Answer : (1)

26. alternately accelerated or retarded

Answer : ( 3 )

27. n Here A = 600 n = √2 √2 sin

√

sin 45 A + D = 900 therefore D = 300

Refracted ray is parallel to the base. Therefore the angle made by the ray
inside the prism with the base is zero degree.

Answer : (2)

28. P = P1 + P2 = 12‐2 = 10 D is the effective power of the combination

Therefore f =1/P = 1/10 = 0.1 m

Answer : (1)

29. Laser diode is forward biased p‐n junction LED in which the energy of the
emitted photon is equal to the energy gap
Answer : ( 2 )
. . .
30. = .
. .

Answer : (2)

31. during ‐ decay the electron comes from the decay of a neutron in a
nucleus

Answer : ( 4 )

32. Since the reflected beam is completely plane polarised the angle of
incidence is equal to polarising angle.

At polarising angle of incidence n=tan p n = tan 600 = √3

Answer : ( 1 )

33. polarisation confirms the transverse nature of light

Answer : ( 4 )

34. β = =

Answer : (2)

35. Polarisation will not produce colours

Answer : (4)

36. The electric lines of force always originate from a +ve point
charge

Answer (4)

37. At end‐on position

F= Eq E=F/8
 Answer : (3)

38. Time constant T=RC therefore C=T/R = 10/500 = 0.002 = 2mF

Answer : (3)

39. Answer : (1)

40. Given main current I = 4.5 A V = 50 V R = 10Ω r=?

V=I(R+r) r = V/I ‐ R = 50/4.5 ‐ 10 = 11.1‐10= 1.1Ω

Answer : ( 3 )

41. If is dipole moment then

Therefore p B Sin = p B0 sin ( 90‐ ) Angle between p & Bo is (90 ‐ )

Answer : ( 4 )

42. E = n A B ω = n A B 2 f = 50 X 0.1 X 0.1 X 2 X 2X 3.14 X 50 = 314

Answer : ( 3 )

43. C = n B I A = 1000 X 1 X 1X 10‐6 X 3 X 10‐4 = 3 X 10‐7

Answer : (3)

44. Just by observation one can say that answer is (2) that is 5 V, since the

Voltage across both the inductor and capacitor is same.

= 5 20 20 = 5V

Answer : (2)

45. momentum

Answer : (1)

46. In the given equation ω = 2πf = 38 π f = 19

Vrms = 240/√2 = 120√2

 Answer : (4)

47. Given R1 + R2 = 30 and

Solving we get R1 = 10, & R2 = 20

Answer : (2)

48. 3.2 e V

Answer : (1)

49.

Answer : (4)

50. Answer : (4) Somerfield

51. For second excited state n = 3, E3 = 13.6/32 = 13.6/9 = 1.51 eV

Answer : (1)

52. Answer : (3) NOR

53. K. E

Answer : (1)

54. m V2/R = mg therefore V2 = R g = 4.9 X 10 = 49 V=7

Answer : (1)

55. T=5 X sin 450 = 5/√2

Answer : (1)

56. Answer (3) quinine iodo sulphate

57. Answer (1) 5 in parallel gives 10 micro F

10, 2, 2, in series gives (10/12 ) micro farad

58. Answer : (2)

59.Answer : (3) s 11Ω

60. Answer : (4)

Mice L + Mw (t – tice ) = Mw (tw ‐ tmixture )

Using the above formula and simplifying we get t=100 C

**************************
 MOCK TEST - 1
COMMON ENTRANCE TEST 2012
Subject: MATHEMATICS

Time: 1.10Hrs Max. Marks 60

Questions – 60

1. For any integer , the remainder obtained when is divided by 4 is

(1) 0 or 2 (2) 1 or 2 (3) 0 or 1 (4) 1 or 3

2. It is observed that 23 17 1 for some integers and . Then ,

(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3

3. The sum of all the positive divisors of 180 excluding 1 and itself is
(1) 365 (2) 456 (3) 637 (4) 526

4. If then the value of 0 is

0
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 0

5. If the value of a third order determinant is 11, then the value of the determinant
formed by the cofactors will be
(1) 11 (2) 121 (3) 1331 (4) – 11
1 1 2
6. If 2 3 1 then
1 2 3
(1) (2) 2 (3) 8 (4)

0 0
7. The Eigen values of the matrix 0 are equal x, then

(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) 0

8. If and are two unit vectors inclined at an angle θ to each other then
will be less than 1 if θ lies between
(1) 0 and ⁄2 (2) 2 ⁄3 and (3) ⁄4 and (4) ⁄3 and ⁄2

9. The 3 vectors 7 11 , 5 3 2 and 12 8 form the

sides of
(1) an equilateral triangle (2) an isosceles triangle
(3) a scalene triangle (4) a right angled triangle

10. If and then

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
11. If , and are non-coplanar vectors then

(1) 0 (2) (3) 1 (4) 3

12. Which one below is true?

(1) Every binary operation, ∗ on a set satisfies the identity axiom.
(2) Every binary operation, ∗ on a set satisfies ∗ ∗ ∗ ∗ .
(3) Every commutative binary operation is associative.
(4) Every binary operation defined on a set having exactly one element is both
commutative and associative.

13. The total number of binary operations that can be defined on the set 0, 1 is
(1) 6 (2) 24 (3) 8 (4) 16

14. In the set of positive real numbers, , the inverse of 3 is

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 9 (4) 1⁄3

√ √
15. If 0 then
√ √
(1) (2) (3) (4)

16. The domain of 1 is

(1) – 2 0 (2) 1 2 (3) 0 2 (4) – 2 1

17. The general solution of 4 is,

( ∈ )
(1) (2) (3) (4)

18.
√ √ √ √
√ √
(1) (2) (3) (4)
√ √ √ √

√
19. For any integer , the principal argument of is
√
(1) ⁄4 (2) ⁄3 (3) 2 ⁄3 (4) ⁄6

20. If then is
(1) (2) (3) (4)

21. The angle between the tangents drawn from the origin to the circle
7 1 25 is
(1) ⁄2 (2) ⁄3 (3) ⁄4 (4) ⁄6

22. Two circles 0 and , 0

(1) touch each other internally
 (2) intersect at two points
(3) touch each other externally
(4) intersect in the first and second quadrants

23. The radical axis of the circles 4 1 and 4 4 9 is

(1) 16 5 0 (2) 2 0 (3) 16 5 (4) 2 0

24. If the line 1 touches the circle then the locus

of the point , is a circle of radius
(1) a (2)1⁄√a (3) √a (4) 1⁄a

25. The point at which the normal to the parabola , 4 makes equal angles
with the positive axes is
(1) 3, 6 (2) 1, 2 (3) 2, 4 (4) 4, 3

26. The point of intersection of the perpendicular tangents to the parabola,

12 , if slope of one of the tangents is 3⁄2 is
(1) – 3, 3⁄ 2 (2) 3, 5⁄2 (3) – 3, 5⁄2 (4) 3, 3⁄2

27. The center of the hyperbola, 2 4 θ, 3 5 θ is

(1) 3, 2 (2) 3, 2 (3) 2, 3 (4) 2, 3

28. The equation to the auxiliary circle of the ellipse 16 9 144 is

(1) 16 (2) 36
(3) 25 (4) 7

29. If and then the derivative of is

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 2

30. If and 1 then

(1) – (2) (3) (4) sec y.tan y

31. If ,0 then
√ √ √ √
(1) (2) (3) (4)

32. If , then

(1) (2) (3) (4)

33. If the line 0 is a normal to the curve 1 then

(1) 0 (2) 0, 0 (3) 1 (4) 0, 0

34. The angle between the two curves 4 and 8 at

2, 2 is . then
(1) √3⁄2 (2) 3⁄4 (3) 1⁄√2 (4) 1⁄2

35. The least perimeter of a rectangle of area 100 sq. units is

(1) 40 units (2) 50 units (3) 25 units (4) 20 units
36. If 2 –9 15 – 6, the acceleration vanishes at
(1) 1⁄2 (2) 3⁄2 (3) 2 (4) 2⁄3

37. If . 1 . 1 then , is
(1) 2, 1 (2) 1, 3 (3) 3, 1 (4) 1, 2

⁄ ⁄2 then
38. If and 0
,
(1) 1⁄3 , cos x (2) 2⁄3 , sin x (3) 1⁄3 , sin x (4) 2⁄3 , cos x

39. .
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 2

40. The area bounded by the curve, . the x-axis and the lines
0 and 2 is
(1) 2 (2) 6π (3) 4π (4)
⁄
41. If denotes the greatest integer function then
(1) 2 √2 (2) 3 √2 (3) 3 √2 (4) 2 √2
⁄
42. If and then
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) (4) 4

43. If . 1 and 1 . 1 ,
2 –1 0, then
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) (4) 2

44. The differential equation of the family of curves is

(1) (2)
(3) 1 (4) 1

45. The particular solution of the equation, cos x y , at 0, π⁄2 is

(1) y 2tan x 1 x (2) y tan x 1 x
(3) y tan x 1 x (4) y 2tan x 1 –x

46. The sum to terms of is . The value of is

. . .
(1) 23 (2) 26 (3) 25 (4) 24

47. If 5 k then 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)

48. The value of 2[ nC1 + 2{ nC2 + 2(nC3 + 2( ...+ 2.nCn ))}] = 242.
The value of n =
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 4
49. Which one below is false?
(1) ~ ~ ~ ~
(2) ~ ~
(3) ~ ~ ~
(4) ~ ~ ~

50. The set of all values of for which is a function is

| |
(1) ∈ , 0 (2) ∈ , 0
(3) ∈ , 1 (4) ∈ , 1
51. If α, β, γ, δ are the roots of x 2x 3x 4x 5 0 then ∑
(1) 2⁄5 (2) 2⁄5 (3) 2 (4) – 2

52. The medians and of the triangle with vertices 0, , 0, 0 and

, 0 are mutually perpendicular if
(1) √2 (2) √2 (3) 2√2 (4) 2 √2

53. The combined equation of the diagonals of a parallelogram is

6 16 6 31 13 28 0. Then must be
(1) a rhombus (2) a rectangle (3) a trapezium (4) a triangle

54. A point , moves under the conditions . . and

. . . If 2, 3 is a point on this locus then
(1) 1 (2) 13 (3) 5 (4) 4

55. Which of the following is false with regard to 2θ 2 θ?

(1) greatest value is 3 (2) least value is 3⁄2
(3) can be zero for some θ (4) cannot be equal to one
56. In ∆ , if – . . then
(1) (2) (3) – (4)
57. 12°. 24°. 48°. 84°
(1) 1⁄64 (2) 1⁄16 (3) 3⁄16 (4) 5⁄32

58. If the arcs of same length in two circles subtend angles of 60° and 75° at their
centers, then the ratio of their radii is
(1) 1 3 (2) 3 8 (3) 5 4 (4) 5 3
. , 0
59. The function then
0, 0
(1) f is continuous at 0 (2) f is continuous only at 0
(3) f is discontinuous only at 0
(4) f is discontinuous at infinite number of points

60.
0
(1) 9⁄4 (2) 3⁄2 (3) 9⁄4 (4) 3⁄2
 MOCK TEST – 1
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
ANSWERS: COMMON ENTRANCE TEST 2012

Solutions
1.Ans(3). Here 2 or 2 1.
4 ( this is divisible by 4) or 2 1 4 4 1.
(This leaves the remainder 1 when divided by 4)

2.Ans(3). By property, and are relatively prime.

3.Ans(1).180 2 3 5 . the sum of all the positive divisors of 180 excluding

1 and itself is . . 181 7.13.6 181 365

sin sin cos

4.Ans(4). The given determinant sin 0 tan
cos z tan 0
0 sin cos
sin 0 tan 0
cos tan 0
the corresponding matrix is skew-symmetric.

5.Ans(2). Determinant of the matrix of the cofactors is same as the determinant of

the adjoint of the matrix, which is equal to 11 121. ( | |=| | )
.
6.Ans(1). = | |
Now,
| | 1. 9 2 1. 6 – 1 2. 4 3 11 5 14 2.
= .

7.Ans(3). Since the matrix is triangular the diagonal elements are the Eigen values.
By the given condition, . .

8. Ans(2). | | 2| | θ 1 1 2
2 1 2.2 . 2 .
This is less than one if .
This is when ⁄3 /2 ⁄2 2 ⁄3 /2 .

9. Ans(4). Magnitudes of the vectors are √49 121 1 √171,

√25 9 4 √38 and √144 64 1 √209.
Here 171 38 209.

10. Ans(2).
 is parallel to .

11. Ans(1). Observe that

o.
the value of the determinant corresponding to the given scalar triple product is
zero.

12. Ans(4). ‘Addition’ is a binary operation on N. Under , N has no identity

element
Under this operation, G is an abelian group. ‘subtraction’ is a binary operation on
the set Z. But a b c a b – c.
The operation ∗ defined on N by a ∗ b a b is both binary and
commutative. But this is not associative (verify this ).
If ∗ is a binary operation defined on the singleton set G a then a ∗ a a.

13. Ans(4). 2 2 16.

14. Ans(2). Here identity is 3. inverse of 3 is 3 itself.

15.Ans (1). √1 2. .

.
Similarly √1 .
( Since 0 we have, ).
√ √
√ √ –

16.Ans (3). By definition, 1 1 1. 0 2.

17.Ans(1). The given equation is 4

1 1 4 1 1
2 1 4 1
3. 1 θ .
√

√ √
18.Ans(2). and .
√ √ √ √ √ √

75° 75° 750° 750°

√ √ √ √
√
30° 30° .
 √ √ √ √ √
19.Ans(4). √3 .
√ √ √

argument .
√

20.Ans(3). .

21.Ans(1). Let and are the tangents drawn from the origin to the given
circle (draw a figure). Now, center 7, 1 and the radius 5.
Also √49 1 5√2.
If ‘2A’ is the angle between the 2 tangents then .
√ √
⁄4 2 ⁄2.

22.Ans(2). The circle, 0 has its center on the x-axis and

passes through the origin. The circle, , 0 is centered at the
origin. 2 circles intersect at two points.

23.Ans(3). 16 4 9 16 5.

24.Ans(4). Length of the perpendicular from the center to the given line,
.
√

the locus of , is .

25.Ans (2). Slope of the normal is tan 45° 1. Slope of the tangent is 1.
the required point is , , 1, 2 .

26.Ans (3). Point of intersection of the perpendicular tangents lies on the directrix,
– 3 . Equation of the tangent having slope 3⁄2 is 3⁄2

⁄
. By taking – 3 we get, 5⁄2.

27.Ans (4). 2, 3 . This is by the definition of parametric form of a parabola.

28.Ans (1). 16 9 144 1. the auxiliary circle is

16.

29.Ans (4). 2 .
the derivative of is 2.

30.Ans (3). . 1. .
.

31.Ans (2). Let sin x tan y. Then

.
2 2 2 .
⁄√ √
⁄
.
 . .
32.Ans (1). . . .

33.Ans (4). xy 1 . slope of the normal .

Now xy 1 both x and y have the same sign.
a 0, b 0 is the correct choice.

34.Ans (3). x y 4x . slope at 2, 2 is 0. Here the

tangent is parallel to the x-axis.
x y 8 . slope at 2, 2 is 1.
Therefore the angle between the curves is ( Draw the figure).
p cos .
√

35.Ans.(1). The perimeter is least when the rectangle is a square.

Area 100 length of the side is 10.
Thus the least perimeter is 4.10 40.

36.Ans.(2). 6t 18t 15 and 12t – 18. Now 12t – 18 0

t 3⁄2.

37.Ans.(1). Derivative of 1 is .
1 . 1 , 2, 1

. √
38.Ans.(4). . .
⁄

⁄ ⁄
Put . Then . . .
above integral . .
√

39.Ans.(2). . . . .

40.Ans:(3). If 0 , . is positive and if π 2π,

. is negative. the area of the region
x. sin x dx x. sin x dx
x. cos x sin x x. cos x sin x
π. cos π 2πcos 2π πcos π 4π.
⁄ √ ⁄
41.Ans:(4). 0 1 √
2
0 √2 1 2 3⁄2 2√2 2 √2.

42.Ans:(3). Put . Then . .

Also when 0, 0 and when 1, ⁄4.
⁄ ⁄ ⁄
. .
.
By taking 2 , we get, 2 .
Also when 0, 0 and ⁄4 , ⁄2.
⁄ ⁄
.

43.Ans:(2). By replacing by 1 1 – , we get,

1– . 1 .

44.Ans:(1). cos y bx .

By squaring we get, .

45.Ans:(4). Put . Then 1 .

1 2.

. . By integrating we get,
v 2tan x c x y 2tan x c .
When 0 and ⁄2 we get 1.
Thus the particular solution is y 2tan x 1 – x.

46. Ans(4). term .

The sum to terms is
…

1 . 1 1
1 25 24.

47. Ans(3). 5 .

48.Ans(2). 2[ nC1 + 2{ nC2 + 2(nC3 + 2( ...+ 2.nCn ))}]

= nC1.2 + nC2.22 + nC3.23 + ... + nCn.2n
n
= 1 2 C0 = 3n – 1. Now 3n – 1 = 242 3n = 243 n = 5.

49.Ans(1). ~ ~
~ ~
~ ~ .

50.Ans(2). f(x) is defined only when |x| x 0.

This is when |x| x. x 0.
α α
51.Ans(3). ∑ ∑ . ∑α 2 ∑ αβ 2 2.3 .
βγδ αβγδ αβγδ

52.Ans(1). Here D (a⁄2 , 0 ) and E (a⁄2, b⁄2 ).

⁄
Now slopes of AD and BE are ⁄
and ⁄
.
⁄
Product of the slopes 1 ⁄
1 a 2b √2b.
53.Ans(1). The lines represented by the given equation are perpendicular
(here 0). diagonals are perpendicular.

54.Ans(2). By squaring and adding the equations we get .

The point 2, 3 lies on the locus. 2 3 13.

55.Ans(4). 2θ 2 θ 2 θ 1 2 θ
2 θ 1 2 cos θ .

The greatest value is 2 1 3 and least value is .

Since 3 2 cos θ The expression can be zero or one for

some .

56.Ans(3). By using the half angle formulae for and we

establish that – . – . .

57.Ans(2). sin 12°.sin24°.sin48°.sin84°

(sin 12°.sin 72°.sin48°).( sin24°.sin36°. sin84°)
°. °
. sin 3 12° . .(sin 3(24°)) .
°. °
(Note : sinθ.sin( 60° + θ).sin( 60° θ ) = . sin3θ )

58.Ans(3). By using the formula we conclude that .

lim lim lim lim

59. Ans(1). f x . sin x . sin
x 0 x 0 x 0 x 0
0.( a real number) 0 f(0).

60. Ans(4).
0 0
log 9 log 4 9⁄4 .
0
 MOCK CET PAPER (BIOLOGY) 1
1. Which of the following statements is true ?
1) Both DNA and RNA have a single polynucleotide chain
2) Thymine occurs in both DNA and RNA
3) DNA and RNA occur both inside and outside the nucleus
4) Uracil is present in DNA

2. ‘Die Naturalichen Pflazenfamilien’ was written by

1) Linnaeus 2) Hutchinson
3) Engler and Prantl 4) De Candolle

3. Rise in sea level is due to

1) Acid rain 2) Green house effect
3) Ozone layer depletion 4) Nuclear winter

4. Kranz anatomy is found in

1) Stem of C4 plants 2) Stems of C3 plants
3) Leaves of C4 plants 4) Leaves of C3 plants

5. How many energy rich bonds are found in ATP ?

1) One 2) Two
3) Three 4) Four

6. Differentiation of root is controlled by

1) High auxin to cytokinin ratio 2) High cytokinin to auxin ratio
3) High ABA to cytokinin ratio 4) High auxin to ABA ratio

7. Which of the following statement is correct ?

1) Blood antigens are found on the cell membrane of RBCs and antibodies in the plasma
2) Blood antibodies are found on the cell membrane of RBCs and antigens in the plasma
3) Both blood antibodies and antigens are found on the cell membrane of RBCs
4) Both blood antibodies and antigens are found in the plasma

8. Match the following:

Column I Column II
A. Ascospore p. Diatom
B. Endospore q. Agaricus
C. Auxospore r. Bacteria
D. Basidiospore. s. Yeast
t. Nephrolepis
1) A=s; B=p; C=r; D=q 2) A=s; B=r; C=p; D=q
3) A=s; B=t; C=p; D=q 4) A=s; B=p; C=t; D=q

9. The extra structure that provides nutrition to the embryo is

1) Umbilicus 2) Placenta
3) Amnion 4) Chorion

10. Fruits and vegetables are kept in a refrigerator to maintain their flavour and taste by
1) Decreasing the rate of respiration
2) Increasing the rate of respiration
3) Inactivating enzymes involved in photosynthesis
4) Preventing degradation of chlorophyll

1
11. Pick the correct answer with respect to statements ‘A’ and ‘B’.
Statement A: In plants, roots and fruits function as sinks.
Statement B: In plants, leaves function as source.
1) Statement ‘A’ is correct 2) Statement ’B’ is correct
3) Both statements are correct 4) Both the statements are incorrect

12. VNTR stands for

1) Variable number of thymine repeats 2) Variable number of transcription repeat
3) Variable nucleotide tandem repeats 4) Variable number of tandem repeats

13. During the beating of the heart, in which region will the highest pressure develop ?
1) left atrium 2) left ventricle
3) pulmonary artery 4) right ventricle

14. Sertoli cells are found

1) between the seminiferous tubules 2) within the seminiferous tubules
3) inside the fallopian tube 4) in the ovary

15. Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus are found in the

1) intestinal wall 2) heart wall
3) Glisson’s capsule 4) Epithelial lining of the gut

16. This is also known as discontinuous variation

1) mutation 2) genetic drift
3) gene flow 4) isolation

17. Parts of the T.S. of monocot leaf have been indicated by alphabets. Choose the answer
where alphabets correctly indicate the parts.

1) A=epidermis; B=motor cell; C=bundle sheath; D=metaxylem; E=protoxylem

2) A=epidermis; B=bundle sheath; C=metaxylem; D=protoxylem; E=motor cell
3) A=epidermis; B=motor cell; C=metaxylem; D=bundle sheath; E=protoxylem
4) A=epidermis; B=bundle sheath; C=motor cell; D=metaxylem; E=protoxylem

18. Super ovulation in a cow is achieved by the use of

1) LTH 2) FSH
3) LH 4) FSH and LH

19. Capacitance of sperms takes place in

1) Seminiferous tubules 2) Epididymis
3) Vas deference 4) Uterus
2
20. Phosphodiester bonds occur in
1) a nucleoside 2) a nucleotide
3) both (1) and (2) 4) a polynucleotide

21. In the following diagram different parts have been indicated by alphabets. Choose the
answer with the correct combination of parts and alphabets.

1) A=variable regions; B=constant regions C=antigen binding site; D=light chain; E=heavy
chain
2) A=constant regions; B=variable regions; C=antigen binding site; D=heavy chain; E=light
chain
3) A=variable regions; B=constant regions; C=antigen binding site; D=heavy chain; E=light
chain
4) A=constant regions; B=variable regions; C=antigen binding site; D=light chain; E=heavy
chain

22. Western Ghats have come under” Hot Spot” category, because of
1) high elevation 2) constant regions
3) evergreen forest 4) high endemism

23. In a vertical section of a hydathode given bellow, parts have been indicated by
alphabets. Choose the answer where alphabets correctly indicate the parts.

3
 1) A=epithem; B=intercellular space; C=nonfunctional guard cell; D=terminal tracheary
elements
2) A=nonfunctional guard cell; B=epithem; C=terminal tracheary elements; D=intercellular
space
3) A=nonfunctional guard cell; B=epithem; C=intercellular space; D=terminal tracheary
elements
4) A=terminal tracheary elements; B=epithem; C=intercellular space; D=nonfunctional guard
cell

24. Which of the following plant components is not fermented by gastrointestinal

organisms ?
1) Lignin 2) Cellulose
3) Hemi cellulose 4) Pectin

25. Grass stem (Bamboo) elongates after initial growth due to

1) Lateral meristem 2) Secondary meristem
3) Intercalary meristem 4) Apical meristem

26. Spermatogenesis in human beings occurs at

1) Body temperature
2) Temperature lower than core body temperature
3) Temperature higher than core body temperature
4) Temperature does not play any role

27. In the diagram of vertical section of gastrula, various parts have been indicated by
alphabets. Choose the answer with the correct combination of parts and alphabets;

1) A=Chorda mesoderm; B=endoderm; C=Yolk plug; D=archenteron; E=dorsal lip;

F=ventral lip
2) A=Chorda mesoderm; B=Yolk plug; C=archenteron; D=endoderm; E=dorsal lip;
F=ventral lip
3) A=Chorda mesoderm; B=endoderm; C=archenteron; D=Yolk plug; E=dorsal lip;
F=ventral lip
4) A=Chorda mesoderm; B=endoderm; C=archenteron; D=Yolk plug; E=ventral lip;
F=dorsal lip

28. Which of the following metabolic pathways does not generate ATP ?
1) Glycolysis 2) TCA cycle
3) Fatty acid oxidation 4) Ornithine cycle
4
29. Match the following biochemical pathways and their site of occurance by selecting the
correct combination of alphabets given below;
Column I Column II
A) Hatch and slack path way p. mitochondrial matrix
B) Glycolysis q. stroma matrix
C) Krebs cycle r. granal membranes
D) Calvin cycle s. mesophyll cells
t. cell cytoplasm
1) A=s, B=t, C=r, D=q 2) A=s, B=t, C=p, D=q
3) A=s, B=t, C=q, D=r 3) A=s, B=t, C=q, D=p

30. An artery is always a vessel

1) through which blood with high concentration of oxygen flows to the tissues
2) that has blood with very high percentage of oxyhaemoglobin
3) that carries blood away from the heart
4) which carries blood for oxygenation to the lungs

31. During inspiration, the diaphragm becomes

1) flattened 2) normal
3) oblique 4) dome-shaped

32. Opium is got from

1) Thea sinensis 2) Coffea arabica
3) Oryza sativa 4) Papaver somniferum

33. Statement A: The formation of carbonic acid in RBC is faster than in the plasma.
Statement B: The RBC contains an enzyme called carbonic anhydrase.
Read the above statements and choose the correct answer given below;
1) Statement A is correct and statement B is its explanation.
2) Statement A is correct and statement B is not its explanation.
3) Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong.
4) Statement A is wrong and statement B is correct.

34. Conjunctivitis is a viral disease that affects

1) eyes 2) salivary glands
3) stomach 4) liver

35. The sequence of a cell cycle is

1) S, M, G1 and G2 2) G1, G2, S, and M
3) M, G1, G2, and S 4) G1, S, G2 and M

36. The cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by

1) Pons varoli 2) Choroid plexus
3) Medulla oblongata 4) Corpus callosum

37. Various parts of the following diagram have been indicated by alphabets. Choose the
answer in which these alphabets correctly match with the parts;

1) A=endoderm; B=mesoderm; C=ectoderm; D=gut

2) A=mesoderm; B=endoderm; C=ectoderm; D=gut
3) A=endoderm; B=ectoderm; C=mesoderm; D=gut
4) A=ectoderm; B=mesoderm; C=endoderm; D=gut

5
38. Uremia is due to
1) Excess urine in the body 2) Excess glucose in the blood
3) Excess urea in the blood 4) Excess fat in the blood

39. Persistant calyx is not seen in

1) Capsicum 2) Brinjal
3) Hibiscus 4) Periwinkle

40. ‘Gynaecomastia’ is a symptom of

1) Down’s syndrome 2) Turner’s syndrome
3) Klinefelter’s syndrome 4) Cry-du-chat syndrome

41. Parts of the section of an ovule have been indicated by

alphabets. Choose the correct answer.
1) A=integuments; B=micropyle; C=funicle; D=nucellus;
E=embryo sac; F=chalaza
2) A=funicle; B=micropyle; C=integuments; D=nucellus;
E=embryo sac; F=chalaza
3) A=funicle; B=chalaza; C=integuments; D=nucellus;
E=embryo sac; F=micropyle
4) A=funicle; B=chalaza; C=integuments; D=embryo sac;
E=nucellus; F=micropyle

42. Montreal Protocol refers to

1) Persistent organic pollutants
2) Global warming and climatic change
3) Substances that deplete the ozone
4) Biosafty of genetically modified organisms

43. Introduction of foreign gene for improving genotype is

1) Tissue culture 2) Genetic engineering
3) Protoplast fusion 4) Mutation

44. Comparison of the frequency of stomata on either side of a leaf can be determined by
1)Bell jar experiment 2) Ganong’s light screen experiment
3) Cobalt chloride experiment 4) Darwin’s photometer

45. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of

1) Protein 2) Enzyme
3) Carbohydrate 4) Vitamin D

46. All of the following occur in mitochondria except

1) Citric acid cycle 2) Glycogenolysis
3) Fatty acid oxidation 4) Electron transport chain

47. Match the respiratory organs listed under column I with animals given under column
II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets;
Column I Column II
A. Book lungs p. Cockroach
B. Trachea q. Fresh water mussel
C. Ctenidium r. Scorpion
D. Gills s. Prawn
t. Starfish

6
 1) A=q; B=p; C=r; D=s 2) A=r; B=p C=q; D=t
3) A=r; B=p; C=q; D=s 4) A=t; B=p; C=r; D=q

48. Species preservation is a---------- type of conservation.

1) In situ 2) Ex situ
3) Crop rotation 4) Agro forestry

49. Bioinformatics is an interdisciplinary branch which is concerned with the application of

1) engineering techniques in biological studies
2) chemistry in understanding the biological phenomenon
3) physics in understanding various life processes
4) information science in analysing the biological data

50. Functionall,y spinal nerves are

1) sensory 2) motor
3) mixed 4) single rooted

51. The scientific name of Zebu is

1) Gallus gallus 2) Bubalus bubalis
3) Bombyx mori 4) Bos indicus

52. The gases in the spark discharge apparatus are

1) NH3, CH4, and O2 2) O2, CO2 and NH3
3) CO2, NH3 and CH4 4) H2, CH4 and NH3

53. Collagen is a
1) Carbohydrate 2) Lipid
3) Fibrous protein 4) Globular protein

54. ‘Haemophilia’ does not occur in women, because

1) It is an autosomal recessive character
2) Women have to be homozygous which is fatal
3) They have only ‘X’ chromosome
4) They are more resistant to this disorder

55. The number of spiracles in cockroach is

1) 11 pairs 2) 10 pairs
3) 8 pairs 4) 3 pairs

56. The hyperglycemic factor is

1) insulin 2) glucagon
3) somatostatin 4) aldosterone

57. Which hormone is not produced by the pituitary gland ?

1) FSH 2) MSH
3) GH 4) ADH

58. Which is common to annelids and Arthropods ?

1) presence of sclerites 2) metamerism
3) closed type of circulatory system 4) presence of parapodia

59. Eco RI is
1) an exonuclease 2) a ligase
3) a polymerase 4) a restriction endonuclease
7
60. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
(1) Explant ------------------------ Excised plant part used for callus formation
(2) Cytokinins -------------------- Root initiation in callus
(3) Somatic embryo ------------ Embryo produced from a vegetative cell
(4) Anther culture --------------- Haploid plants
(5) Callus ------------------------- Mass of undifferentiated cells
1) 1 2) 3
3) 2 4) 4

-------

8
MOCK CET PAPER 1
ANSWER KEY
1. Ans: (2) Thymine occurs in both DNA and RNA

2. Ans: (3) Engler and Prantl

3. Ans: (2) Green house effect

4. Ans: (3) Leaves of C4 plants

5. Ans: (2) Two

6. Ans: (1) High auxin to cytokinin ratio

7. Ans: (1) Blood antigens are found on the cell membrane of RBCs and antibodies in the
plasma

8. Ans: (2) A=s; B=r; C=p; D=q

9. Ans: (2) Placenta

10. Ans: (1) Decreasing the rate of respiration

11. Ans: (3) Both statements are correct

12. Ans: (4) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats

13. Ans: (2) Left Ventricle

14. Ans: (2) Within the seminiferous tubules

15. Ans: (1) Intestinal wall

16. Ans: (1) Mutation

17. Ans: (1) A=epidermis; B=motor cell; C=bundle sheath; D=metaxylem; E=protoxylem

18. Ans(4) ESH and LH

19. Ans: (4) Uterus

20. Ans: (4) A polynucleotide

21. Ans: (1) A=variable regions; B=constant regions C=antigen binding site; D=light chain;
E=heavy chain

22. Ans: (4) High endemism

23. Ans: (3) A=nonfunctional guard cell; B=epithem; C=intercellular space; D=terminal
tracheary elements

24. Ans: (1) Lignin

25. Ans: (3) Intercalary meristem

26. Ans: (2) Temperature lower than core body temperature

27. Ans: (3) A=Chorda mesoderm; B=endoderm; C=archenteron; D=Yolk plug; E=dorsal
lip; F=ventral lip

28. Ans: (4) Ornithine cycle

29. Ans: (2) A=s, B=t, C=p, D=q

30. Ans: (3) That carries blood away from the heart

31. Ans: (1) Flattened

32. Ans: (4) Papaver somniferum

33. Ans: (1) Statement A is correct and statement B is its explanation

34. Ans: (1) Eyes

35. Ans: (4) G1, S, G2 and M

36. Ans: (2) Choroid plexus

37. Ans: (4) A=ectoderm; B=mesoderm; C=endoderm; D=gut

38. Ans: (3) Excess urea in the blood

39. Ans: (3) Hibiscus

40. Ans: (3) Klinefelter’s syndrome

41. Ans: (2) A=funicle; B=micropyle; C=integuments; D=nucellus; E=embryo sac;

F=chalaza

42. Ans: (3) Substances that deplete the ozone

43. Ans: (2) Genetic engineering

44. Ans: (3) Cobalt chloride experiment

45. Ans: (3) Carbohydrate

46. Ans: (2) Glycogenolysis

47. Ans: (3) A=r; B=p; C=q; D=s

48. Ans: (1) In situ

49. Ans: (4) Information science in analysing the biological data

50. Ans: (3) Mixed

51. Ans: (4) Bos indicus

52. Ans: (4) H2, CH4 and NH3

53. Ans: (3) Fibrous protein

54. Ans: (2) Women have to be homozygous which is fatal

55. Ans: (2) 10 pairs

56. Ans: (2) Glucagon

57. Ans: (4) ADH

58. Ans: (2) Metamerism

59. Ans: (4) A restriction endonuclease

60. Ans: (3) 2

-------