NAPOLE, KATHERINE M.

BSMT 3-1
Seamanship 7
Prelim

Activity 1: Multiple Choice: TIDE and CURRENT

1. In certain areas of the S. Pacific, tides occur almost at the same time each day due to the
influence by the:
a. Sunc. Planets in conjunction
b. Moon d. Regression of the nodes
2. The amount that a current travels in one hour is termed as:
a. Set b. Flood
c. Drif d. Ebb
3. Tides having higher lows and lower highs occur when:
a. The moon is at its maximum north declination c. The sun and the moo are in opposition
b. The sun and the moon are in conjunction d. The moon is at first and last quarter
4. When two consecutive high or low waters are d large difference in heights, they are called:
a. Diurnal tides c. Mixed tides
b. Semi-diurnal tides d. Tropic tides
5. When there are small differences between the heights of two successive high or low tides,
they are called:
a. Diurnal b. Semi-diurnal
c. Solar d. Mixed
6. A tide is called diurnal when:
a. Only ore high and one low water occurs in a lunar day
b. The high tide is higher and low tide is lower than normal
c. The high tide and low tide are six burs apart
d. Two high tides occur during a lunar day
7. Tropic tides arc caused by:
a. Moon being at its maximum declination North or South
b. Moon crossing the equator
c. Sun and moon arc in line
d. Sun and moon are at quadrature with the Earth
8. Tropic tides arc caused by:
a. Opposition with the earth and sun
c. Quadrature with the earth and sun
b. Conjunction with the earth and sun
d. Apogee
9. Spring tides a tide that have higher highs and lower lows occur when the moon is at:
a. Opposition or in junction with the earth and sun c. Apogee
b. Quadrature with the earth and sun d. Perigee
10. Mean low water is correctly defined as the average height of:
a. the two daily low tides c. all low, waters
b. the high and low tides d. the lower low tides
11.Although, tide tables list the times and heights of tides at a specific locale, these can be
altered by: I. onshore winds tending to rise the level of tides II low atmospheric pressure causing
tides o be higher than normal
a. I only b. II only
c. both I and II d. neither I nor II
11. The diurnal inequality of tides is caused by:
a. the moon being at perigee c. changing weather conditions
b. the declination of the moon d. the moon being at apogee

12. In certain areas of the world, there is ofen a slight fall of the tide during the middle of
the high water period. The practical effect is to create a longer period of a stand at high
water. This special feature is called:
a. double high water c. apogean tide
b. perigean tide d. bore

13. When a strong current sets over an irregular bosom, or meets an opposing current,
which of the following may occur?
a. Tide rips b. bore
c. ebb current d. slack water
14. The period at high or low water during which there is no change in the height of the water is
called:
a. range of the tide c. stand of the tide
b. plane of the tide d. reversing of tide
15. "Stand of the tide" is that time when:
a. the vertical rise or fall of the tide has stopped c. tidal current is at maximum
b. slack waters occur d. the actual depth of water equals the charted
depth
16. What does the term 'tide" refers to?
a. Horizontal movement of the water c. mixing tendency of the water
b. Vertical movement of the water d. salinity content of the water
17. The range of tide is the:
a. distance the tide moves out from the shore
c. difference between the heights of high and low tides
b. duration of time between high and low tide
d. maximum depth of the water at high tide
18. How many high waters usually occur each day on the East coast of the United States?
a. one b. two c. three d. four
19. Currents refer to the:
a. Vertical movement of the water c. density changes in the water
b. Horizontal movement of the water d. none of the above
20. The set of the current is the:
a. speed of the current at a particular time
c. direction from which the current flows
b. maximum speed of the current
d. direction to which the current flows
21. Set of the current is:
a. velocity in knots c. estimated current
b. Direction from where it flows d. direction towards where it flows
22. Which of the following describes ebb current?
a. horizontal movement of water away from the land following low tide
b. horizontal movement of water towards the land following low tide
c. horizontal movement of water away from land following high tide
d. horizontal movement of water towards the land following high tide
23. The movement of water away from shore or downstream is called what type of current?
a. reversing b. ebb c. flood d. slack
24. Slack water occur when there is:
a. no horizontal motion of the water c. a weak ebb or flood current
b. no vertical motion of the water d. neither a vertical nor a horizontal motion
25. The velocity of a rotary tidal current will increase when the moon is:
a. New b. full c. at perigee d. all of the above
26. The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts is:
a. mean high water b. half-tide level
c. mean sea level d. mean low water
27. The shoreline shown on nautical charts of waters subject of large tidal fluctuations is
usually the line of mean
a. Lower low water b. high water
c. low water d. tide level
28. Which of the following statements regarding currents is/are correct? I. In general, the
speed of tidal currents is less along straight coasts than indented coasts. II. Stronger sets
toward or away from the shore can be expected when passing a straight coast than an
indented one.
a. I only b. II only c. both I and II d. neither I nor II
29. Regarding tides and currents, which of the following is/are correct?
I. The time of slack water does not generally coincide with the time of high or low water. II. The
time of maximum velocity d the current does not usually coincide with the time of the most rapid
change in the vertical height of the tide.
a. I only b. II only c. both land II d. neither l nor II
30. The vertical distance between trough and crest of a wave is called:
a. rise b. magnitude c. range d. height
31. Priming of the tide occurs:
a. at times of new and full moon c. between first quarter and full moon
b. between new and first quarter d. between third quarter and new moon
32. Lagging of the tide occurs:
a. between first quarter and full moon
c. between full moon and third quarter
b. between new and first quarter
d. noon and earth are at quadrature
33. An important lunar cycle affecting the tidal cycle is called the nodal period. How long is this
cycle?
a. 16 days b. 19 years c. 6 years d. 18 months
34. The average height of the surface of the sea tor all stages of the tide over the 19-year
period is called:
a. means low water b. mean high water c. mean sea level d. half-tide level
35. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is:
a. given in the table 3 of the tide tables c. mean low water
b. the highest possible level d. the same as that used for the charts of the locality
36. The interval of the average elapse time from the meridian transit of the moon until the
next high tide is called the:
a. Harmonic constant c. Establishment of the port
b. Tide cycle d. Half-tide level 38. Which of the ff. is a reference
38. Datum used for determining the depth of water as shown on an East Coast chart?
a. Half-tide level b. Mean high water
c. Mean low water d. Mean Sea level
39. The term 'flood current" refers to that time when the water level is:
a. moving towards the land c. not changing
b. falling d. falling because of a rapid change in the wind
40. How many slack tidal current usually occur each day?
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. Four
41. In a river subject to tidal currents the best time to dock a ship without the assistance of tugs
is:
a. when the slack water and stand coincide c. at stand
b. at high water d. at slack water.
42. Charted depth is the:
a. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
b. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom plus the height of tide
c. Average height of water over a specified period of time
d. Average height of all low waters at a place
43. When utilizing a Pacific Coast chart, the reference plane of sounding is:
a. mean low water springs c. mean lower low water
b. mean low water d. lowest normal low water
44. We drif and set of tidal stream, river and ocean currents refer to the:
a. Position & area of the current
b. Speed & direction toward which the current flow
c. Type & characteristic of the current's flow
d. None of the above
45. The velocity of a rotary tide current will be decreased when the moon is:
a. at apogee b. at perigee
c. New d. Full
46. The datum of soundings for the Atlantic Coast of the United States, new in 1988 is:
a. mean low water c. mean high water spring
b. mean lower low water d. mean high water
47. Which of the following is the correct definition of height of the tide?
a. The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water at any time
b. The vertical difference between the heights of low and high water
c. The vertical difference of datum plane and ocean bottom
d. The vertical distance from the surface of the water to the ocean floor
48. Mean high water is the average height of:
a. the higher high-water c. the lower of the daily tides
b. the lower high water d. all high waters
49. Which statement is true concerning apogean tides?
a. They occur only at quadrature
b. They occur when the moon is nearest to the earth
c. They caused diurnal tides to become mixed
d. They have decreased from normal
50. The class of tide that prevails in the greatest number of important harbors in the Atlantic
Coast is:
a. spring b. mixed
c. diurnal d. semidiurnal
 Activity of Part 2 - Multiple Choice: METEOROLOGY (WEATTIER ELEMENTS)

1. Which cloud is composed entirely of ice crystals?

a. Stratus b. cirrus
c. nimbostratus d. stratocumulus
2. Clouds are classified according to their:
a. location in a front c. size
b. moisture d. altitude and how they are formed
3. A thin whitish high cloud popularly known as “mare’s tales" is:
a. stratus b. altostratus
c. cirrostratus d. cumulus
4. A cloud of marked vertical development, ofen anvil-shaped would be classified as:
a. cirrus b. cirrocumulus
c. altocumulus d. cumulonimbus
5. If the sky was clear with the exception of a few cumulus clouds, it would indicate:
a. rain b. hurricane
c. fair weather d. fog setting in
6. Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky and are
responsible for a large percentage of precipitation in the temperate latitudes are:
a. altostratus b. altocumulus
c. cirrostratus d. cirrocumulus
7. Altostratus clouds are defined as:
a. high clouds b. middle clouds
c. low clouds d. vertical development clouds
8. Which of the following cloud types is normally associated with thunderstorms:
a. cirrus b. stratus
c. cumulus d. cumulonimbus
9. Clouds that form as small flaky or scaly globular masses covering either small or large
portions of the sky and are nearly always white are:
a. cirrus b. cirrostratus
c. altostratus d. cirrocumulus
10. A low uniform layer of cloud resembling as fog, but not resting on the ground is:
a. cumulus b. nimbus
c. stratus d. cirrus
11. The bases of middle clouds are located at latitude of between:
a. 3,000 to 6,500 feet c. 10,000 to 35,000 feet
b. 6,500 to 20,000 feet d. 20,000 feet and above
13. What type of clouds are associated with a cold front?
a. altostratus and fructo-cumulus c. Cirrus and cirrostratus
b. cumulus and cumulonimbus d. altostratus and cirrus
14. The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediately vicinity of a ship at sea
would be accompanied by:
a. rain and poor visibility c. high winds and rising sea
b. dropping barometric pressure d. severe thunderstorms
15. Which of the following clouds commonly produce a halo around the sun or moon?
a. cirrostratus b. cirrocumulus c. altostratus d. altocumulus
16. An 'atoll cloud" forming over an island due to heating of the land during daytime would
be what type?
a. Cirrus b. cumulus
c. stratus d. nimbus
17. Clouds that have significance to mariners are:
a. four b. six c. eight d. ten
18. The form of clouds ofen known as” mackerel sky" which is generally associated with fair
weather is:
a cirrocumulus b. nimbostratus c. cumulonimbus d. stratus
19. Warm air mass will generally have:
a. turbulence within the mass c. heavy precipitation
b. st2ratiform clouds d. good visibility
20. Which of the following list of clouds are from the highest to the lowest in the sky?
a. altostratus, cirrostratus, stratus b. cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus
c. stratus, cirrostratus, altostratus d. altostratus, stratus, cirrostratus
21. High clouds are those having a mean lower level of:
a. above 20,000 feet c. 3,000 to 6,500 feet
b. 6,500 to 20,000 feet d. below 3,000 feet
22. Low clouds have a lower level of:
a. below 20,000 feet c. below 10,000 feet
b. below 5,500 feet d. below 15,000 feet
23. The fog most commonly encountered at sea is called?
a. frontal fog b. advection fog
c. conduction fog d. radiation fog
24. The leading edge of an air mass is called:
a. Lapse rate b. a front c. an isobar d. an isallobar
25. Which condition will occur afer a cold front pass?
a. Stratus clouds form c. humidity decreases
b. Pressure decreases d. temperature rises
26. Which of the following is/are responsible for the production of advection fog? I. A cold
air mass moving over a warm sea surface mixing with the warmer air prevailing there. II. A
warm moist air moving over a cold sea surface, becoming chilled by contact.
a. II only b. I only c. both I and II d. neither I nor II
27. Fog forms when the air:
a. temperature is equal to or is below the dew point temperature
b. is 50% water saturated
c. is 90% water saturated
d. temperature is greater than dew point temperature
28. Fog will occur when:
a. an extremely cold air from shore passes over much warmer water
b. warm dry air from shore passes over cooler water
c. warm ocean water evaporates into hot air
d. cool rain passes through a warm air mass
29. On a working copy of a weather map, a stationary front is represented by what
color line?
a red c. alternating red and blue
b. blue d. Purple
30. A warm front is represented by what color line?
a. blue b. red c. purple d. alternating red and blue
31. A cold front is represented by what color line?
a. Red b. blue c. purple d. alternating red and blue
32. An occluded front is represented by what color line?
a. red b. blue c. purple d. alternating red and blue
33. When a warm air mass is adjacent to a cold air mass, the separation line between the two is
called;
a. front b. isobar c. isotherm d. equipotential line
34. Brief, violent showers frequently accompanied by thunder and lightning are usually associated
with:
a. passage of a warm front b. passage of a cold front
c. winds shifing counter clockwise in the N.
hemisphere d stationary high pressure
35. On the approach of a warm front, barometric pressure:
a. falls b. is steady c. is uncertain d. rises
36. Fog is commonly associated with a/an:
a. lack of frontal activity c. low pressure area
b. anticyclone d. warm front at night
37. A boundary between two air masses is a/an:
a. front b. continent
c. isobar d. lapse rate
38. Which condition would most likely result in fog?
a. warm moist air blowing over cold water c. warm moist air blowing over warm water
b. dew point falling below air temperature d. airborne dust particles
39. A warm front is generally indicated by:
a. thunderstorms of short duration c. dry air with clear visibility
b. steady precipitation d. high clouds of the cirrus type
40. The frost smoke or sea smoke is expected when:
a. the land is of different temperature than the sea
b. a warm water current encounters cold air
c. cold air takes the place of warm air
d. a warm air mass move in
41. An occluded front is caused by a/an:
a. low pressure area c. area of calm air
b. high pressure area d. cold front overtaking a warm front
42. When a cold air mass and a warm air mass meet and there is no horizontal motion of either
mass, it is called a/an:
a. cold front b. occluded front
c. stationary front d. warm front
43. When crossing a front, isobars tend to:
a. change from smooth curves within the air mass to sharp bends at the front.
b. change from sharp bends within the air mass to smooth curves at the front.
c. pass smoothly across the front with no change.
d become closer together at the front and pass through in straight lines.
44. When a warm air mass overtakes a retreating cold air mass, the contact surface is called:
a. warm front b. cold front c. stationary front d. occluded front
45. When the cold air mass displaces warm air, you have a/an:
a. cold b. warm front c. occluded front d. stationary
46. Afer the passage of an old front, the visibility:
a. does not change b. improves rapidly c. improves slightly d. becomes poor
47. A frontal thunderstorm is caused by:
a. pronounced local heating c. a warm air mass rising over a cold air mass
b. wind being pushed up a mountain d. a cold air mass decreasing over warm air mass
48. Which of the following weather changes accompanies the passage of a cold front
in the N. Hemisphere?
a. a line of cumulonimbus clouds b. steady precipitation
c. wind shifs from northeast clockwise to southwest d. falling barometric pressure
49. Which is true concerning the speed of fronts?
a. cold front moves slower than warm front
b. cold front and warm front moves with equal speed
c. cold front moves faster than warm front
d. Cold front moves faster than occluded front
50. A series of brief showers accompanied by strong, shifing winds may occur along or some
distance ahead of a/an:
a. cyclone b. upper front c. cold front d. occluded
front.
 Activity 3- Multiple Choice: MARINE LAWS and SHIP BUSINESS

1, In time charter, the Master is particularly concerned with:

a Lay time, dispatch money & demurrage c. Requisition, provision & dry dock
b. Cash advance, crew list, medical report d. Demurrage, seniority bonus & charterer
bonus
2. The, vessel's "DE ratting certificate" is always issued by:
a. National Cargo Bureau c. Coastguards
b. Health quarantine officer d. Environmental Protection Agency
3. The term applied to lose woods or other similar materials used in the ship's hold to protect
the cargo is the:
a Stanchions b. Stingers c. Dunnage d. Wooden planks
4. Before sailing for a foreign port, what documents must you get?
a Clearance for free pratique b. Clearance from customs for cargo loaded
c. Clearance or official permission to depart on voyage d Clearance from immigration
5. The distance between the upper edge of the deck line and the edge of the respective load line:
a. Tropical load line c. Winter free board
b. Statutory free board d. Summer load line
6. Authority to assign load lines in the Philippines is issued by:
a. Bureau of Veritas c. American Bureau of Shipping
b. Lloyds of London d. Philippine Coast Guard / MARINA
7. A list of all articles acquired abroad by the crew. It is appended to the list of ship stores and
gives the name of the crew, the description of the article and the cost value:
a. Bill of lading c. Store list b. Crew Manifest d. Crew Custom Declaration
8. A document served by the Master to the Charterers informing them that the vessel is
ready to load according to the terms outlined in the Charter Party:
a. Notice of Readiness c. Dispatch Advise b. Arrival Notice
9. At present, international load lines assigned to vessels complies with the
convention of: a. 1966 b. 1960 c. 1980 d. 1990
10. Which of the ff. best indicates how many tons of cargo a vessel can carry?
a. bale cubic b. deadweight c. loaded displacement d. gross
tonnage
11.The ship's register indicates all of the ff. except:
a. vessel's identity b. vessel's owner c. vessel's nationality d. vessel's last port of call
12. A declaration made under oath by the master before a notary public, consul or
magistrate with regards to cargo apparent loss or damage:
a. marine protest b. marine inquiry c. affidavit of loss d. mate's receipt
13. A parcel ticket is a document issued for valuable goods of small bulk, normally carried in
a strong room. Such goods pay:
a. ad valorem freight c. forwarder's freight b. special cargo freight d. terminus freight
14. On a voyage charter party, when the charterer loads or discharge his cargo in less time
than the number of days allowed, he earns:
a. demurrage b. dispatch money c. overtime d. lay days
15. Bill of Lading would be which of the ff.:
a. a contract c. a negotiable instrument b. a receipt d. all of these
16. The charter party that does not specify the kind of cargo or port of destination is:
a. fixed charter b. blind charter c. open charter d. time charter

17. Sea trade which is not confined to any particular route or harbor which operates to all or any
port is:
a. voyage charter b. tramping c. time charter d. ocean route
18. In the regulation, the changeover of manual to automatic steering should be done only by:
a. the AB on duty c. the order of the master b. the officer of the day d. the second officer
19. If during her voyage a ship sustains an accident to hull, or machinery, or if she is aground
and re- floated even though the damage is so slight, that there appears to be no reason why
she could not continue on her voyage, the master should on arrival at the next port arrange for
a survey and to obtain a: a. certificate of clearance c. certificate of service
b. certificate of insurance d. certificate of seaworthiness
20. A detailed statement of a vessel's cargo which includes all data regarding the shipper,
consignee and Cargo quantity.
a. cargo manifest b. cargo list c. bill of lading d. mate's receipt
21. The period during which a vessel is detained until free from any contagious diseases among
the crew is:
a. Detention b. fumigation c. demurrage d. quarantine
22. The load line disc according to Regulation 5 of the International load line convention of
1966, should have an outside diameter of:
a. 300mm b. 150mm c. 200mm d.280mm
23.Monies paid by the shipowner to the charterer for lay time saved is:
a. Claims c. demurrage b. dispatch d. savings
24. Certificates issued under SOLAS convention of 1974 as amended are:
a. Statutory certificates c. radio telephony certificates
b. Construction certificates d. safety certificates
25. Monies paid by the charterer for cargo which otherwise could have been loaded but was not:
a. dead freight b. barratry c. penalty d. dispatch
26. Afer clearing a definite U.S. port, you received a radiogram to proceed to port other than
the one cleared for. The Customs Officers at the new port you are bound for must be notified
of diversion:
a. immediately upon arrival within port limit b. 24 hrs. in advance of arrival at port limits
c. before you arrive within the port limits d. 48 hrs. in advance of arrival at port limits
27. If the charterer or consignee detains the ship beyond the agreed no. of lay days or where
the lay days are indeterminate, detains her for unreasonable time, he will be in breach of the
charter-party so that the shipowner will be entitled to:
a overtime b. demurrage c. dispatch d. lay days
28. A charter term wherein a sum is payable to the shipowner when the charterer has failed
to load a full and complete cargo in accordance with the provision of the contract:
a. Maritime lien b. Deadweight c. Dead freight d. Dispatch money
29. In the MARFOL 73/78, the allowable affluent which could be thrown overboard at sea via
oil-water separator is:
a. 20ppm b. 15ppm c. 100ppm d. 50ppm
30. Classification society is not issuing which document?
a. load line certificate c. register of cargo gears
b. safety equipment certificate d. deratings certificate.
31. The absence without leave of a member of the crew or failing to join the ship in due
time afer signing an agreement to proceed at sea:
a. termination of contract c. A.W.O.L.
b. repatriation d. desertion.
32. A letter given by the shipper to the shipowner when goods put on board are not in good
condition, holding the shipowner harmless in respect of any claim the consignee may claim is:
a. Letter of reprisal c. letter of indemnity b. Letter of assurance d. letter of marque

33. A charter where the vessel is leased to another person or company for a definite period
where he operates the vessel as though it is one of his own fleets is:
a. time charter b. voyage charter c. demise charter d. open charter
34. Afer making certain that the count, description and apparent condition of cargo
with the mate's receipt, who will sign for the Bill of lading?
a. chief officer b. supercargo c. master d. officer on duty
35. This expression describes the no. of days allowed by a charter party for loading and
discharging of cargo:
a. lay days c. weather working days
b. running days d. working days
36. If your vessel has inward foreign cargo but none for discharge at the first port of
entry in the Philippines, it will be necessary to make up which of the ff. manifest?
a. outward manifest c. proforma manifest
b. Inward foreign manifest d. traveling manifest
37. When a vessel broke down, aground or had sustained any damage which prevents cargo
operations Therefore causing delay to the sailing of the vessel, she is "off-hire". Off-hire is most
likely mentioned in:
a. voyage charter b. time charter
c. lease charter d. bareboat charter
38. A seaman's book is also called as:
a. service record book c. passport
b. identity book d. continuous discharge book
39. Bill of Lading, Charter Party, Special Agreement and Parcel tickets are convenient
forms of documents embodied in:
a. Contract of Affreightment c. Damage and Repair Report
b. Notice of readiness d. Berth terms
40. A Bill of Lading which does not contain a qualification clause in the B/L as to apparent
good order and condition of cargo:
a. shipped B/L b. clean B/L
c. through B/L d. clause B/L
41. International code for ships complying with the carriage of dangerous chemicals in bulk:
a. RCH code c. IMO resolution A-614
b. ILO convention 147 d. IBC code
42. Detention of a vessel by the charterer or receiver of the cargo in loading and unloading
beyond lay days allowed in the charter Party is:
a. Lay days b. dispatch c. demurrage d. overtime.
43. Carrier required to exercise extraordinary diligence are called:
a. common carrier b. private carrier
c. bulk carrier d. container carrier
44. When the consignee fails to accept the goods at the port of discharge and there is no fault
or omission on the part of the shipowner, the expense of carrying the goods back o the
shipper is known as:
a. dead freight b. advance freight c. lumpsum freight d. back freight
45. The exercise practiced by the crew in swinging out, lowering and handling of ship's lifeboat:
a. Abandon ship drill b. station drill c. fire drill d. boat drill
46. When the vessel violates the oil pollution act who may be held responsible?
a. duty officer b. master c. oiler no.1 d. chief engineer
47. International set of rules on carriage of goods and the use of Bill of lading:
a. Hague- Visby rule c. York-Antwerp rule
b. Hamburg rule d. U.N. rule
48. Laws dealing with maritime agreements and those governing relationship of private
entities or individuals:
a. Maritime law c. private maritime law b. public maritime law d. none of these

49. A disc 12" in diameter marked amidships below the deck line and a horizontal line 18" long,
1" wide, the upper edge of which passes through the center of the disc:
a. Free board marks b. loading marks
c. propeller marks d. draf marks
50. A ban on dumping of plastic such as fishing nets or garbage into the sea is a regulation of:
a. COLREGS b. MARPOL c. IMO d. SOLAS.
Activity 4 – Multiple Choice: COLLISTION REGULATIONS

1, The signal by sound given by a vessel who wants to alter course to port is:
a. 2 long blasts b. 2 short blasts c. 1 short blast d. all of these
2. When 2 power-driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal course, so as
to involve risk of collision. each should:
a. reduce speed c. stops her engine b. alter course to starboard d. alter course to port
3. A vessel constrained by her draf shall exhibit during the day:
a. a black cylinder c. 3 black balls b. 2 black balls in a vertical lined d. 2 cones, apex
together
4. Under international rule:
a. vessels dead in the water shall turn off range lights
b. vessels less than 150 f need not carry an afer-range light
c. all vessels must carry an afer light
d. vessels over 65 f must carry both range lights from sunset to sunrise
5. The giving way vessel, or the one of 2 vessels which is directed by the rules to keep clear of
the other is termed:
a. crossing vessel c. overtaking vessel
b. burdened vessel d. vessel meeting end on
6. A sailing vessel of 40 f. or more in length, underway makes her fog signal on a:
a. gong c. bell b. whistle d. horn
7. When navigating in a fairway during the daytime you observe a vessel showing 2 black
balls in a vertical line. The vessel is:
a. dredging c. at anchor b. not under command d. fishing
8. A vessel proceeding along the course of a narrow channel shall keep as near to the outer
limit of the channel which lies on her:
a. Starboard b. inboard side c. outboard side d. port
9. What signal should be made by an overtaken vessel in answer to 1 or 2 blasts signal from
a vessel which is overtaking her?
a. 3 prolonged blasts b. 1 prolonged blast
c. 2 prolonged blasts followed by 1 short blast d. none of these
10. A basket day signal is displayed by:
a. vessels less than 65 f in length engaged in fishing c. cable layers
b. vessels more than 65 f in length engaged in fishing d. dredgers
11. Vessels observed by radar, under the de is:
a. deemed not to be in sight c. deemed to be in sight
b. deemed to be underway d. deemed to be dangerous

12. When 2 power-driven vessels are crossing, so as to involve risk of collision, who has the right
of way?
a. the vessel which has the other on her starboard side
b. the vessel which sounded her whistle first
c. the vessel which has the other on her port side
d. the vessel which gave out her distress call

13. When ship bells are used as fog signals, what is the duration of the rapid ringing?
a. 15 seconds b. 2 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 5 seconds
14. How ofen are power-driven vessels underway in foggy weather required to give
sound for fog signals?
a. at interval not exceeding 3 minutes c. at interval not exceeding 5 minutes
b. at interval not exceeding 60 seconds d. at interval not exceeding 2 minutes
15. At night you see a red light and masthead lights of a vessel at your stbd. bow. What is your
action?
a. stops the engine c. alter course to port
b. alter course to stbd d. maintains course and speed
17. You are proceeding toward a wide channel and you sight a vessel showing an all-round white
light on the bow and on the stern, together with 2 all-round red lights in a vertical line
amidships. Her lights indicate that the vessel is:
a. a mine sweeper c. aground b. a trawler d. dredging
18. Rule 35 states that a pilot vessel when engaged in pilotage duty in addition to the signals,
sound four short blasts. Rule 35 contains:
a. Exemption b. distress signals c. sound signals on restricted visibility
19. That one of 2 vessels approaching each other so as to involve risk of collision, which is
directed by the Rules to keep her course and speed?
a. meeting vessel b. burdened vessel c. crossing vessel d. privileged vessel.
20. The vessel is underway when:
a. she is aground c. she is made fast to shore
b. she is at anchor d. none of these
21. During foggy weather, you heard a fog signal at intervals of not more than 1 minute, 3
blasts in succession, namely 1 prolonged blast followed by 2 short blasts. This means that
the vessel is:
a. not under command c. towing b. engaged in fishing d. all of these
22. Rule 10 states that a vessel using traffic separation scheme shall: I. proceed in the
appropriate traffic lane in the general direction of traffic flow for that lane II. so far as
practicable, use traffic separation line or leave a traffic lane as she may do so III. normally join or
leave a traffic lane at the termination of the lane
a. I and III only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II and III
23. The arc of visibility of the sidelight is:
a. 125 deg b. 22.5 deg c. 112.5 deg d. 90 deg
24. When the ship is not under command, your best action would be:
a. approach her c. keeps clear of her b. sounds the ship's whistle d. stops your engine
25. In what 2 situations at sea may a privileged vessel use 5 short rapid blasts provided by the
Rules to call the attention of the burdened vessel to its obligation to keep clear:
a. in the head on and overtaking situation c. in the crossing and overtaking situation
b. in the crossing and head on situation d. all of these
26. Every power-driven vessel which is under sail and not under power is considered to be:
a. a sailing vessel c. a dead vessel b. A power-driven vessel d. a vessel underway
27. On hearing the fog signals of another vessel close ahead, what signal should be sounded by
a power- driven vessel which has revered engine and actually has stern way?
a. 3 short blasts c. 5 short rapid blasts
b. 1 prolonged blast at intervals of not more than 2 minutes. d. none of these
28. When the Rule on Lights prescribed 2 or 3 lights carried in a vertical line, in a vessel more
than 20 meters in length the lights should be spaced:
a. not less than 2 meters above the gunwale c. not less than 2 meters apart
b. 1-meter apart d. none of these
29. Vessel towing astern when length of tow exceeds 200 meters shows:
a. basket b. red ball c. black ball d. black diamond
30. When is a power-driven vessel required to carry an additional masthead light?

a. when she is towing another vessel c. when she is 50m or more in length
b. When she is not under command d. none of these.
31. The rules concerning lights shall be complied with:
a. Under all weather c. during sunset
b. when it is raining d. when the vessel is underway
32. In Annex I of the Rules on shapes, balls, cones or cylinders should be colored:
a. Green b. white c. red d. black
33. What does it mean when a vessel exhibits 3 all-round red lights in a vertical position?
a. not under command c. vessel drifing
b. constrained by her draf d. vessel dredging
34. A vessel constrained by her draf shall exhibit during the day:
a. 2 black balls c. a black cylinder b. 3 black balls d. 2 cones with apex together
35. You sight a vessel showing a green light over a white light. This would indicate:
a. Engaged in under water operation c. surveying b. trawling d. fishing with nets
36. Stern light means a white light placed as nearly as practicable at the stern showing an
unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of:
a. 90 deg b. 125 deg c. 135 deg d. 225 deg
37. In fog, a power-driven vessel hearing forward of the beam another vessel, the position of
which is not ascertained shall so far as the circumstances of the case admit:
a. put the engines to standby c. reduces to half-speed
b. reduces to low-speed d. stops her engines
38. The rules for preventing collisions at sea is applicable:
a. in rivers and lakes c. in all navigable waters
b. in the high seas only d. none of these
39. The word vessel in the Rules includes: I. every description of water craf II. non-
displacement craf and seaplane III. craf used or capable of being used as a means of
transportation in the water
a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III
40. The term "engaged in fishing" includes:
a. vessels trawling c. both of these
b. all vessels fishing d. none of these
41. Whistle signals to denote course change must be sounded:
a. when the vessels are in sight of one another
b. in fog
c. every time you alter course
d. none of these
42. The term 'power-driven" means any vessel propelled by:
a. diesel b. turbo electric c. steam d. machinery
43. The word "visible" when applied to lights means:
a. visible on dark nights with a clear atmosphere to naked eye
b. visible at daylight
c. visible during fog
44. When a vessel exhibits a black ball forward where it can best be seen, it signifies:
a. a vessel drifing c. a vessel aground
b. a vessel in distress d. a vessel at anchor
45. The arc of visibility of a ship's masthead light is:
a. 225 deg b. 115 deg c. 22.5 deg d. 115 deg

46. Approaching port you hear 3 strokes of the bell followed by ringing of the be ll. 3
strokes of the hell followed by a gong, this would indicate:
a. a fishing vessel c. a vessel at anchor
b. a vessel not under command d. a vessel aground
47. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall exhibit in addition to her running lights:
a. 3 all-round lights, red-white-red in a vertical line
b. 2 red lights
c. green over white light
d. red over white light
48. A vessel in the high seas that is not under command shall display what day signals?
a. 2 black balls b. 2 red balls
c. 3 black balls d. red ball
49. If you blow your whistle 3 short blasts, you mean:
a. your ship is ready to leave c. you are calling a pilot
b. you are on astern propulsion d. none of these
50. What fog signal is sounded by a vessel being towed?
a. 1 long and 3 short blasts c. 2 long and 1 short blasts
b. ringing of bell d. 2 short blasts.

Activity 5- Multiple Choice: TRIM AND STABTLITY

1. Free board is a measure of:
a. The amount of reserve buoyancy c. Both a and b
b. The initial stability of the vessel d. Neither a nor b
2. What factor has the greatest effect on the value of free surface correction?
a. Length of the tank b. Width of the tank
c. Draf of vessel d. S.G. of liquid
3. A vessel going from salt water to fresh water would:
a. Decrease her draf c. Remains the same
b. Decrease her free board d. None of these
4. All of the following characteristics concerning a large GM are correct except:
a. There is a greater tendency to synchronize. c. A fast period of roll.
b. There is a less safety in case of flooding. d. Racking stress is increased.
5.The most effective way to limit free surface effects would be to increase the number of:
a. Bulkheads c. Either a or b b. Longitudinal bulkheads d. Neither a nor b
6. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to:
a. Width of space only c. Both a and b
b. Length of space only d. Neither a nor b
7. When a weight is shifed down, which of the following takes place?
a. The height of CB decreases c. Metacentric height increases
b. The height of CG increases d. The height of metacenter
increase
8.The amount of free board affects the:
a. Amount of reserve buoyancy of the vessel c. Both a and b
b. Range of stability of a vessel d. Neither a nor b
9. Free communication effects in flooding can be removed to most advantage if:
a. Completely flood off center deep tanks c. If fore peak is flooded completely
b. Ballast wing double bottom tanks d. If high center tank is flooded
10. Change of trim can be calculated by:
a. Dividing the rimming moment by TPI c. Either a or b
b. Dividing the trimming moment by MTI d. Neither a nor b
11. The situation expected of a vessel with large GM will:
a. Have less tendency to synchronize rolling c. Have more resistance to listing
b. Ride more comfortably d. Less likely to have cargo shif
12. If the trim and KG of the ship will remain but free surface correction for the fuel oil is
reduced, what happens to the GM?
a. Unchanged b. Increases c. Decrease d. Either b or c
13. How can you improve the initial stability of your vessel?
a. By filling double bottom tanks c. By removing loose water
b. By adding weight belo d.any of the above
14.How would you make the rolling of a stiff vessel
comfortable?
a. Add weight in the center line of the lower hold
b. Ballast peak tanks
c. Concentrate weight on upper wing tween deck
d. Move weights lower
15. Under which circumstances may a metacentric height be considered an indication of a
vessel's stability?
a. For large angle of inclination c. For all angle of inclination
b. For small angle of inclination d. In no case
16. GM is the measure of:
a. The amount of reserve buoyancy. c. Both a and b
b. The initial stability of the vessel. d. Neither a nor b
17. At any given draf, the TPI of a vessel can be found by dividing the area of
waterplane by: a. 420 b. 460 c. 120 d.240
18. If additional weight is added above the center of gravity, the vessel will:
a. Reduce righting moments c. Increase GM
b. Reduce reserve buoyancy d. All of the above
19. How much volume of sea water will increase the vessel's displacement by 1 ton?
a. 500 ltrs b. 35 cu. f. c. 64 cu. f. d.100 gals'
20. Which does not affect the correction for free surface?
a. Tank width b. Tank length c. S.G. of the liquid d. Registered tonnage
21. The volume of all watertight enclosed spaces above water line is called:
a. Reserve buoyancy b. Freeboard
c. Free surface d. Marginal stability
22. Your vessel wishes to maintain her draf from salt water to fresh water, you should:
a. Discharge ballast b. Take in ballast c. Do nothing d. None of the above
23. Transverse stability may be increased by:
a. Ballasting deep tanks c. Both a and b
b. Cradling the booms d. Neither a nor b
24. Your vessel is very stiff. Which of the following would you consider in order to give her
an easier ride?
a. DE ballast deep and double bottom tanks c. Both a and b
b. Cradle the booms d. Neither a nor b
25. In regards to the center of buoyancy, which of the following statements is correct?
a. It moves toward the low side of an inclined vessel.
b. It moves toward the high side of an inclined vessel.
c. It is located in the same position regardless of displacement'
d. It is the measure of metacentric height.

26. Which of the following is the reason that GM is a valid measure of only initial stability?
a. The metacenter does not remain in the same position for large angles of inclination.
b. The center of gravity shifs due to inclination'
c. The center of gravity shifs above the metacenter as the vessel is inclined
27. Which of the following will increase the height of center of buoyancy of your vessel?
a. Discharging weight from lower decks b. Loading weight in upper decks
c. Shifing weight from lower to upper decks d. Shifing weight from upper to lower decks
28. Which of the following will increase the positive stability of your vessel?
a. Loading weights on deck c. Shifing weights from upper to lower deck
b. Discharging weights from lower decks d. Shifing weights from lower to upper decks
29. The center of gravity of a vessel will shif away from a cargo that is being handled in
which of the following cases?
a. When loading weight into the vessel c. When shifing weight fore and af
b. When discharging weight from a vessel d. When shifing weight vertically
30. All of the following are true concerning a stiff ship except:
a. There is a large concentration of weight down.
b. There is a risk that cargo could go adrif.
c. There is a large GM.
d. There is a small GM.
31. The value of KM at any draf may be taken from the:
a. Building plans of the ship c. Trim tables
b. Hydrostatic Properties Table d. Stability letter
32. The KM for a vessel may be determined by:
a. Adding the KB and BM c. Subtracting the KB from BM
b. Adding the GM and KB d. Subtracting GM from KB
33. The normal tendency for a loaded tanker is to:
c. Be stiff b. Hog c. Sag d. Have a permanent list
d. 34. Which of the following describes a STIFF vessel?
a. Small GM c. Has an unusually high center of gravity
b. Pitches heavily d. Short rolling period
35. Which of the following describes a TENDER vessel?
a. Large GM c. Has a very low center of gravity
b. Long rolling period d. Has a good transverse stability
36. The point to which the G may rise and still permits the vessel to have a positive stability is the:
a. Metacenter b. Metacentric point
c. Metacentric radius d. Tipping center
37. The distance between the waterline and the main deck of a vessel is the:
a. Freeboard b. Draf c. Plimsol mark d. Markings
38. The term "Deadweight" is:
a. The weight of the vessel in light condition
b. The total internal volume of the vessel
c. Cargo carrying capacity of a vessel including water, bunkers and stores
d. Amount of water the vessel displaces
39. The term "Deadweight" refers to the cargo carrying capacity, fuel, water and stores measured
in:
a. Long tons and limited by the deck line b. Short tons and limited by governing load line
c. Short tons and limited by the free board d. Long tons and limited by the governing load
lin

40. A change in trim may be simply defined as:

a. The change in difference between forward and af draf
b. The sum of free communication and free surface
c. The moment of inertia of the ship's water
plane d Rolling and listing

41. If a weight is shifed from the deck to the hold, which of the following will take place?
a. GM increases b. KB increases c. KG increases d. KM increases
42. Which of the following describes the TPI?
a. Tons needed to change the mean draf one inch at a certain draf
b. Tons needed to trim the vessel by one foot at a certain draf
c. Tons needed to trim the vessel by one inch at a certain draf
43. The stabilogauge can be used to indicate:
a. Initial stability
c. Height of center of buoyancy
b. Height of metacenter
d. The drafs fwd and af

44. Flooding of any compartment in a ship that results in serious loss of reserve buoyancy will
always:
a. Increase the trim c. Cause serious list
b. Increase ship stability d. Decrease heeling moment
45 The vertical shif of weight to a position above the vessel center of gravity will:
a. Increase reserve buoyancy c. Decrease KG
b. Decrease the righting moments d. Increase KM
46. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is:
a. l-ow in the vessel b. Completely empty c. Completely full d. Slack
47. The most important figure in the calculation of free surface for a tank carrying liquid is:
a. Depth b. Length c. Displacement d. Breadth
48. For a tanker, the most important consideration is the:
a. GM b. VCG c. LCG d. Stress on the hull
49. The amount of free board the vessel has will affect its:
a. Initial stability c. Stability at large angle of inclination
b. Free surface d. Permeability
50. If a vessel has a list but maintain a regular rolling period, the vessel has:
a. Center of gravity is off the center line c. Unsymmetrical weight distribution
b. Negative GM d. List that can be corrected by reducing KM

Activity 6 - Multiple Choice: ELECTRONIC NAVIGATION

1. A measure of the time that the radar indicator (PPI scope) retains images of echoes is called:
a. Pulse repetition b. resolution c. persistence d. recurrence rate
2. Radar range in fog will, generally speaking:
a. be no different c. be useless because of its inaccuracy
b. be greater than in clear weather d. be less than in clear weather
3. The radar range scale to rise in the open sea when no other vessels are around or when
there is no expectation of making a landfall is:
a. short c. maximum with periodic shifing to
medium
b. medium d. maximum
4. The magnetron is:
a. a receiving tube b. a c. a transmitting tube d. a
receiver detector
5. The most accurate position by radar fix is:
a. radar ranges and visual bearing c. radar range and radar bearing
b. the intersection of two radar bearings d. two radar ranges
6. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains constant, the ships are on:
a. opposite course b. diverging course
c. collision courses d. parallel course
7. The number of pulses transmitted per second by a radar transmitter is known as:
a. frequency of transmission c. pulse transmission
b.pulse repetition rate d. pulse
characteristics
8.What condition indicates that loud radar needs maintenance?
a. serrated range rings c. blind sector
b. multiple echoes d. indirect echoes
9. Your radar is set on a true motion display. Which of the following will not appear to move
across the PPI scope?
a. own ship marker c. echoes from a ship at anchor
b. echoes from land masses d. all of the above
10. Antenna maintenance of a radar should include:
a. painting of scanner c. cleaning window on horn
b. checking oil level d. all of the above
11. When you are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center of the screen
and 0 deg. always appears at the top of the screen, the bearings can be defined by which of
the following?
a. Magnetic b. true c. relative d. compass
12. Which component of the radar system would a returning echo strike first?
a. Magnetron b. wave guide c. receiver d. antenna
13. The microsecond of time is used in radar applications. The microsecond represents:
a. one-tenth part of a second c. one-thousandth part of a second
b. one-millionth part of a second d. one-hundredth part of a second
14. A radar display in which north is always at the top is:
a. unstabilized display c. composition display
b. stabilized display d. relative display
15. What is the name of the movable, radial guide line used b measure direction on a radar?
a. Compass rose b. cursor c. PPI d.VRM
16. The radar control used to reduce sea return at close ranges is the:
a gain control c. fast time control b. sensitivity time control d. pulse length control
17. The radar control that reduces weal echoes out to a limited distance from the ship is the:
a. sensitivity time control c. brilliance control
b. receiver gain control d. fast time constant
18. The 10 cm radar as compared to a 3 cm radar of similar specifications will:
a. be more suitable for river and harbor navigation
b. provides better range performance on low lying targets during good weather and calm seas
c. have a wider horizontal beam width
d. have more sea return during rough sea
19. In a radar, sea return is greatest:
a. ahead b. to windward c. to leeward d. astern
20. When utilizing the focus control on the radar, you would adjust
for the: a sharpest center spot c. largest possible spot
b. largest possible target image d. brightest center spot
21. A typical speed of scanner rotation is about:
a. 20 revs per minute c. 200 revs per minute
b. 5 revs per minute d. 20 revs per second
22. The difference in intensity of illumination of the radar scope between radar
images and the background of the screen is called:
a. Brightness b. contrast
c. brilliance d. focus
23. Which of the following is important in trouble shooting a faulty radar?
a. calls the radio operator c. turns down all the manual controls
b. check test meter readings d. check scanner rotation
24. The STC control enable you to:
a. cut down the sea clutter near the ship c. both of the above
b. gets better maximum range d. none of the above
25. A radar transmitter and receiver, as a unit is called:
a. A remitter c. a T/R box
b. A united radar d. a transceiver
26. Your radar has a beam width of 2 deg. The radar gyro bearing of the right tangent of an
island is 316 deg. The gyro error is 1 deg E. What true bearing should be plotted on the chart?
a.313 deg. b.314 deg. c. 316 deg. d. 317deg
.
27. Radar makes the most accurate determination of the:
a. direction of a target c. size of a target
b. distance to a target d. shape of a target
28. A radar range to a small, charted object such as a light will provide an LOP in what form?
a. straight line b. arc c. parabola d. hyperbola
29. Your radar has a beam width of 2 deg. The radar gyro bearing of the lef tangent d an
island is 056 deg. If the gyro error is 2 deg. 8., What bearing would you plot on the chart?
a.052 deg b. 056 deg c. 059 deg d. 060 deg
30. Which of the following will cause the ARPA to emit either or both a visual or audible alarm?
a. an acquired target entering into a guard zone
b. a tracked target lost for one radar scan
c. a tracked target entering your preset CPA -TCPA limits
d. Target being initially detected within a guard zone
31. You are underway at 10 knots. At 1800, you note a radar contact dead ahead at a range of
10 miles. At 1812 the contact is dead ahead at a range of 8 miles. The estimated speed of the
contact is:
a. dead in the water b. 5 knots c. 15 knots d. 10 knots
32. Which of the following ARPA data should you use in order to determine if a close quarters
situation will develop with a target vessel?
a. set and drif c. predicted TCPA b. relative track information d. initial range of acquisition
33.A radar contact will remain stationary on a relative motion radar display only when it is:
a. on the same course as your vessel c. on the same course and speed as your vessel
b. on the same speed as Your vessel d. on a reciprocal course as your vessel
34. The ARPA may swap targets when automatically racking if two targets:
a. is tracked on reciprocal bearings c. is tracked on the same bearing
b. is tracked on the same range d. passes close together
35. Which of the following would give the best radar echo?
a. the beam of a 3-masted sailing vessel with all sails set
b. a 110- foot fishing vessel with a radar reflector in its rigging
c. a 300-foot tanker, bow on
d. a 600-foot freighter, beam on
36. You have another ship overtaking you close aboard to starboard. You have three radar
targets bearing 699 deg. relative at ranges 0.5m, 1m and 1.5m. In this case the unwanted
echoes are called:
a. multiple echoes b. spoking c. indirect echoes d. side lobes
37. You are underway at 5 knots and see on your radar a contact 10 miles directly astern of
you. Twelve minutes later, the contract is 8 miles directly astern of you. what is the estimated
speed of the contact?
a. dead in the water b. 1 knot c. 10 knots d. 15 knots
38. The ability of a radar to distinguish separate targets on the same bearing but
having small differences in range is:
a. range elongation b. range resolution c. bearing resolution d. propagation
39.In a radar operation, a rapid decrease of temperature as the altitude increases would tend to
cause:
a. super-refraction c. diffusion b. sub-refraction d. attenuation
40. When radar waves are trapped in a layer of the atmosphere called a surface radio duct,
which of the following would be created?
a. increase radar ranges c. decrease of radar range
b. large loss of energy to the radio wave d. radar range would be unchanged
41. An upper layer of warm, dry air over a surface layer of cold, moist air causes which of the
following in radar operation?
a. sub-refraction c. propagation b. super-refraction d. normal refraction
42. Which of the following phenomena would be most likely to cause the radar not to pick
up a small boat at a relatively short range?
a. sub-refraction c. super-refraction b. Resolution d. persistence
43. If a radar pulse requires 180 microseconds to reach an object and to return, the
range is approximately:
a. 8 n.m b. 12,000 yards c. 30,000 yards d.15,000 yards
44. Short range resolution or pulse length will have, what kind of an effect the appearance of a
target on the radar scope?
a. target will appear longer in azimuth c. target will appear deeper in depth
b. target will appear shorter in azimuth d. target will appear shallower in depth
45. The description RACON besides an illustration on a chart would mean a:
a. Radar conspicuous beacon c. circular radio beacon
b. radar calibration beacon d. radar responder beacon
46. In radar maneuvering, it is better to make a 30 deg. course change in:
a. 3 alterations of 10 each c. 6 alterations of 5 each
b. 1 alteration of 30 d. 2 alterations of 15 each
47. Your ARPA has automatic speed inputs from the log. Due to currents, the log is indicating
a faster speed than the speed over the ground. What should you expect under these
circumstances?
a. range of initial target acquisition will be less than normal
b. target's true course vector will be in error
c. generated CPA will be less than the actual CPA
d. generated TCPA will be latter than the actual TCPA
47. Your radar indicates a target. However, there is no visible object at the point indicated. A large
mountain approx. 50 miles away on the same bearing as the target is breaking the horizon. You
should suspect the radar target is caused by:
a. a submerged submarine c. ducting b. sub-refraction d. ionosphere skip
waves
49. The maximum measurable range of a radar set depends on:
a. refraction
c. beam width
b. range resolution
d. peak power in relation o the pulse repetition rate

50. The closest point of approach of a contact m a relative motion radar nay be determined:
a. immediately when the contact is noted on radar b. only if the radar scope is watched
constantly
c. by an occasional glance at the radar d. afer the contact has been mar’: Ed at
least twice.

Activities 2-1 Oral assessment/ Blended learning

1, Explain how the Compass and Magnetism important on Earth (5 pts)

Compasses are mainly used in navigation to find direction on the earth. This
works because the Earth itself has a magnetic field which is similar to that of a bar
magnet (see the picture below). The compass needle aligns with the Earth's
magnetic field direction and points north-south. Generated by the motion of molten
iron in Earth's core, the magnetic field protects our planet from cosmic radiation
and from the charged particles emitted by our Sun. It also provides the basis for
navigation with a compass.
The magnetic compass was an important advance in navigation because it
allowed mariners to determine their direction even if clouds obscured their usual
astronomical cues such as the North Star. It uses a magnetic needle that can turn
freely so that it always points to the north pole of the Earth's magnetic field.

2, Explain Compass Error and Coefficients (5 pts)

The Compass error are the Directions relative to the northerly direction along a
geographic meridian are true. In this case, true north is the reference direction. Compass
Error is the angular difference between true north and compass north (the direction north
as indicated by a magnetic compass). It is named east or west to indicate the side of the
true north on which compass north lies. Coefficient A: is a constant error which is the
same on all headings. Typically occurs when the compass is not installed with the lubber
line parallel with the fore & aft axis of the boat, or by a defective compass card. Most
often corrected by rotating the compass or by changing the compass card. A component
of magnetic compass deviation, varying with the sine function of the compass heading,
resulting from the fore-and-aft component of the craft's permanent magnetic field and
induced magnetism in unsymmetrical vertical iron forward or aft of the compass.

3, Describe the sextant errors (5 pts)

 A sextant is merely an instrument that measures the angle of a heavenly body
(star, planet, sun and moon) makes with the visible horizon or the vertical or horizontal
angle between two terrestrial objects. It derives its name from the arc at the bottom which
is one-sixth of a circle. The principles of a sextant are easy to master but its use requires
some skill and practice. Small errors make for large discrepancies in one’s position.
A good sextant is accompanied by a calibration certificate which reports the “
reading errors “ along its full graduated scale; otherwise the factory declares that the
instrument is free of errors (certifying that the error is less than +/- 9” which is negligible
for practical use). The error of perpendicularity: is produced by the index glass not being
perpendicular to the plane of the instrument. To check for this error, clamp the index bar
at about the middle of the arc, Side Error: is caused by the horizon glass not being
perpendicular to the plane of the instrument. To check for side error, by day, clamp the
index bar at zero, hold the sextant horizontally and observe the horizon through the
telescope. Index Error: is caused by the index glass and the horizon glass not being
parallel to each other, when the index bar is at zero. The error of collimation is due to the
axis of the telescope not being parallel to the plane of the instrument.

4, Describe the other celestial navigation instruments (5 pts)

Sextant, instrument for determining the angle between the horizon and a celestial
body such as the Sun, the Moon, or a star, used in celestial navigation to determine
latitude and longitude. The device consists of an arc of a circle, marked off in degrees,
and a movable radial arm pivoted at the centre of the circle.
The nocturnal was used to tell time by the celestial clock. One ring was set to the
date, Polaris was sighted through the hole in the center, and the arm was swung around
to align with pointer stars – those in the Big Dipper, Little Dipper, or Cassiopeia. Where
the arm crossed the marked ring, the time was read.

5, Identify all of the navigational equipment’s and uses (5 pts)

Compass (Magnetic & Gyro) NAVTEX
ECDIS Compass Rose
Marine Radar Mariner’s Astrolable
Autopilot Rudder angle Indicator
Echo Sounder Voyage data recorder
AIS Rate of turn indicator
ARPA Satellite navigation device
Sextant Quadrant
 Altimeter
Heading Indicator

6, Explain the Horizon System of Coordinates (5 pts)

The horizon system is a type of coordinate system that can be used to locate the
position of objects in the sky. So, if little Timmy is on a life raft in the middle of the ocean
awaiting rescue as his emergency beacon sends out his Earthly coordinates, he can pass
his time using the horizon system to find objects in the sky.
The horizon system is based on several important factors. One of these is called
the celestial horizon, a circular boundary between the earth and sky, located on the
celestial sphere, which divides the celestial sphere into an upper visible half and a lower
half that is not visible.
Luckily, little Timmy happens to be in the middle of the vast ocean, one of two scenarios
where the celestial horizon can be clearly seen. The other scenario would be some sort
of vast, flat plane on land.
It's important to know that the celestial horizon is measured with respect to the zenith.
Meaning, any point on the celestial horizon is 90 degrees from the zenith. The zenith is a
point in the sky that's located directly above the observer. If little Timmy looks up, straight
up, from his life raft as he prays and looks for a plane that may or may not ever come to
his rescue, he'll be looking up at the zenith.

7. Describe the Apparent Motion of the Earth (5 pts)

The rotation of the Earth on its axis causes all objects to appear to move around the sky
once each day. The apparent motion of a star to an observer which arises from the
Earth's rotation depends on the location of the observer on Earth, and the location of the
star relative to Earth's rotation axis.
Apparent motion is the appearance of real motion from a sequence of still images.
Apparent motion occurs whenever stimuli separated by time and location are actually
perceived as a single stimulus moving from one location to another.

8. Explain the tropical cyclones (5 pts)

Oceans and seas have great influence on the weather of continental
masses. A large portion of the solar energy reaching the sea-surface is expended
in the process of evaporation. These water evaporated from the sea/ocean is
carried up into the atmosphere and condenses, forming clouds from which all
forms of precipitation result. Sometimes, intense cyclonic circulations occur which
is what we call the tropical cyclones.
 Tropical cyclones are warm-core low pressure systems associated with a spiral inflow
of mass at the bottom level and spiral outflow at the top level. They always form over oceans
where sea surface temperature, also air temperatures are greater than 26°C. The air
accumulates large amounts of sensible and latent heat as it spirals towards the center. It
receives this heat from the sea and the exchange can occur rapidly, because of the large
amount of spray thrown into the air by the wind. The energy of the tropical cyclone is thus
derived from the massive liberation of the latent heat of condensation.
Tropical cyclone is defined as a non-frontal, synoptic-scale cyclone developing
over tropical and sub-tropical waters at any level and having a definitely organized
circulation. In other parts of the world, these are referred to as hurricanes, typhoons or
simply tropical cyclones depending on the region. In the North Atlantic, Eastern North
Pacific and South Pacific Ocean, they are called"hurricanes". In the bay of Bengal,
Arabian Sea and Western South Indian Ocean, the name is"cyclonic". In the eastern part
of the Southern Indian Ocean, it is "willy-willy", and in the Western North Pacific Ocean,
they are called "typhoons".
Tropical cyclones can only form over oceans of the world except in the South Atlantic
Ocean and the south eastern Pacific where a tropical cyclone could never be formed due
to the cooler sea surface temperature and higher vertical wind shears. They develop at
latitudes usually greater than 5° from the equator. They reach their greatest intensity while
located over warm tropical water. As soon as they move inland, they begin to weaken, but
often not before they have caused great destruction.
The Philippines is prone to tropical cyclones due to its geographical location which
generally produce heavy rains and flooding of large areas and also strong winds which
result in heavy casualties to human life and destructions to crops and properties. Thus, it is
of utmost importance to have sufficient knowledge on such maritime phenomena for
beneficial purposes.

9, Explain how to maneuver to avoid the storm center (5 pts)

Vessel in Path or Navigable Semicircle, wind on Port Quarter. If insufficient room to run
when in the navigable semicircle and it is not practicable to seek shelter, the ship should
heave-to with the wind on her starboard bow in the North Hemisphere or on her port bow
in the south hemisphere
The ship's bow must be kept pointing into the waves so that the vessel can plough
through them safely, which helps prevent waves from striking the ship on its sides. ...
The weight of cargo helps stabilise the ship against the waves. Ballast water alone is not
always enough to counteract the ocean's force upon the ship.
10, Identify all the clouds (5 pts)

High Clouds Low Clouds

Cirrus Cumulus
Cirrostratus Stratus
Cirrocumulus Cumulonimbus
Stratocumulus

Mid-level Clouds Special Clouds

Altocumulus Mammatus clouds
Altostratus Contrails
Nimbostratus Orographic clouds
Lenticular clouds

Research output in SEAM 7

1, What are different type of Tide and identify its meaning (10 pts)
Tide- is the rise and fall of water.

● Tidal Current or Tidal Stream- is the periodic horizontal movement of the water.

● Tidal Phenomenon- is the periodic motion of the waters of the sea due to
differences in the
attractive forces of various celestial bodies, principally the moon and the sun,
upon
different parts of the rotating earth.

● High Tide or High Water- is the maximum height reached by tide.

● Low Tide or Low Water- is the minimum level to which the tide falls.
The rate of rising and fall is not uniform. The tide begins to rise from low water
at first but at
an increasing rate until it is about halfway to HW. The rate of rising then
decreases until HW is
reached and the rise ceases. The falling tide behaves similarly.

● Stand- is the period at HW or LW during which there is no sensible change of

level of tide.

● Range- is the difference in height between consecutive high and low waters.
 ● Height of Tide- is the vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the water
surface at
any stage of the tide

● Rise of Tide- is the vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to a high
water datum.
Semi-diurnal Tide- There are two high and two low waters each tidal day with
relatively
small inequality in the high and low water heights. Tides on the Atlantic coast of
the U.S. are of this type.

● Diurnal Tide- Only a single high and single low water occur each tidal My Ex Gulf
of Mexico
(N. shore), Java Sea, Gulf of Tokin.

● Mixed Tide- Characterized by a large inequality in the high water heights, low
water heights
or in both. Ex. Pacific Coasts of the U.S.

● Spring Tides- Tides with higher high and lower low. Occur at times of new and full
noon (sun
and moon are in conjunction and at opposition with the earth).

● Neap Tides- Tides with lower high and higher low. Occur at times of first and third
quarters
(sun and moon are in quadrature with the earth).

● Solar Tide- High and low waters occur at about the same time each day due to
the sun's
effect. Examples are the areas of the S. Pacific and Indonesia.

● Double Low Water (as at Hoek Van Holland) and

● Double High Water (as at Southanpton, England) – At such places there is often
a slight fall
or rise in the middle of the high and low water period. The practical effect is to
create a longer period of stand at high or low tide
● Peregean Tide- Occurs when the moon is at the point in its orbit nearest the
earth. The
lunar semidiurnal range is increased.

● Apogean Tide- Occurs when the moon is farthest from the earth. The semidiurnal
range is
decreased.
 ● Tropic Tide- Occurs when the moon is at its maximum semi-monthly declination N
or S.
Diurnal effect is at a maximum.

● Equatorial Tide- Occurs when the moon crosses the equator. Diurnal effect is
minimum

2, In col-reg Identify the Rule 1 to rule 37 what meant by this

following rule (10 pts)
Part A - General (Rules 1-3)
Rule 1 states that the rules apply to all vessels upon the high seas and all waters
connected to the high seas and navigable by seagoing vessels.

Rule 2 covers the responsibility of the master, owner and crew to comply with the
rules.

Rule 3 includes definitions.

Part B- Steering and Sailing (Rules 4-19)

Section 1 - Conduct of vessels in any condition of visibility (Rules 4-10)

Rule 4 says the section applies in any condition of visibility.

Rule 5 requires that "every vessel shall at all times maintain a proper look-out by
sight and hearing as well as by all available means appropriate in the prevailing
circumstances and conditions so as to make a full appraisal of the situation and of
the risk of collision.

Rule 6 deals with safe speed. It requires that: "Every vessel shall at all times proceed
at a safe speed...". The Rule describes the factors which should be taken into
account in determining safe speed. Several of these refer specifically to vessels
equipped with radar.The importance of using "all available means" is further stressed
in
Rule 7 covering risk of collision, which warns that "assumptions shall not be made on
the basis of scanty information, especially scanty radar information"

Rule 8 covers action to be taken to avoid collision.

In Rule 9 a vessel proceeding along the course of a narrow channel or fairway is

obliged to keep "as near to the outer limit of the channel or fairway which lies on her
starboard side as is safe and practicable." The same Rule obliges a vessel of less
than 20 metres in length or a sailing vessel not to impede the passage of a vessel
"which can safely navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway."

The Rule also forbids ships to cross a narrow channel or fairway "if such crossing
impedes the passage of a vessel which can safely navigate only within such channel
or fairway." The meaning "not to impede" was classified by an amendment to Rule 8
in 1987. A new paragraph (f) was added, stressing that a vessel which was required
not to impede the passage of another vessel should take early action to allow
sufficient sea room for the safe passage of the other vessel. Such vessel was obliged
to fulfil this obligation also when taking avoiding action in accordance with the
steering and sailing rules when risk of collision exists.

Rule 10 of the Collision Regulations deals with the behaviour of vessels in or near
traffic separation schemes adopted by the Organization. By regulation 8 of Chapter V
(Safety of Navigation) of SOLAS, IMO is recognized as being the only organization
competent to deal with international measures concerning the routeing of ships.
The effectiveness of traffic separation schemes can be judged from a study made by
the International Association of Institutes of Navigation (IAIN) in 1981. This showed
that between 1956 and 1960 there were 60 collisions in the Strait of Dover; twenty
years later, following the introduction of traffic separation schemes, this total was cut
to only 16.

In other areas where such schemes did not exist the number of collisions rose
sharply. New traffic separation schemes are introduced regularly and existing ones
are amended when necessary to respond to changed traffic conditions. To enable
this to be done as quickly as possible the MSC has been authorized to adopt and
amend traffic separation schemes on behalf of the Organization.

Rule 10 states that ships crossing traffic lanes are required to do so "as nearly as
practicable at right angles to the general direction of traffic flow." This reduces
confusion to other ships as to the crossing vessel's intentions and course and at the
same time enables that vessel to cross the lane as quickly as possible.

Fishing vessels "shall not impede the passage of any vessel following a traffic lane"
but are not banned from fishing. This is in line with Rule 9 which states that "a vessel
engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of any other vessel navigating within
a narrow channel or fairway."In 1981 the regulations were amended. Two new
paragraphs were added to Rule 10 to exempt vessels which are restricted in their
ability to manoeuvre "when engaged in an operation for the safety of navigation in a
traffic separation scheme" or when engaged in cable laying.

In 1987 the regulations were again amended. It was stressed that Rule 10 applies to
traffic separation schemes adopted by the Organization (IMO) and does not relieve
any vessel of her obligation under any other rule. It was also to clarify that if a vessel
is obliged to cross traffic lanes it should do so as nearly as practicable at right angles
to the general direction of the traffic flow. In 1989 Regulation 10 was further amended
to clarify the vessels which may use the "inshore traffic zone."

Section II - Conduct of vessels in sight of one another (Rules 11-18)

Rule 11 says the section applies to vessels in sight of one another.

Rule 12 states action to be taken when two sailing vessels are approaching one
another.

Rule 13covers overtaking - the overtaking vessel should keep out of the way of the
vessel being overtaken.

Rule 14 deals with head-on situations. Crossing situations are covered by Rule 15
and action to be taken by the give-way vessel is laid down in Rule 16.
Rule 17 deals with the action of the stand-on vessel, including the provision that the
stand-on vessel may "take action to avoid collision by her manoeuvre alone as soon
as it becomes apparent to her that the vessel required to keep out of the way is not
taking appropriate action.

Rule 18 deals with responsibilities between vessels and includes requirements for
vessels which shall keep out of the way of others.

Section III - conduct of vessels in restricted visibility (Rule 19)

Rule 19 states every vessel should proceed at a safe speed adapted to prevailing
circumstances and restricted visibility. A vessel detecting by radar another vessel
should determine if there is risk of collision and if so take avoiding action. A vessel
hearing fog signal of another vessel should reduce speed to a minimum.

Part C Lights and Shapes (Rules 20-31)

Rule 20 states rules concerning lights apply from sunset to sunrise.Rule 21 gives
definitions.

Rule 22 covers visibility of lights - indicating that lights should be visible at minimum
ranges (in nautical miles) determined according to the type of vessel.

Rule 23 covers lights to be carried by power-driven vessels underway.

Rule 24 covers lights for vessels towing and pushing.

Rule 25 covers light requirements for sailing vessels underway and vessels under
oars.

Rule 26 covers light requirements for fishing vessels.

Rule 27 covers light requirements for vessels not under command or restricted in
their ability to manoeuvre.

Rule 28 covers light requirements for vessels constrained by their draught.

Rule 29 covers light requirements for pilot vessels.

Rule 30 covers light requirements for vessels anchored and aground.Rule 31 covers
light requirements for seaplanes

Part D - Sound and Light Signals (Rules 32-37)

Rule 32 gives definitions of whistle, short blast, and prolonged blast.

Rule 33 says vessels 12 metres or more in length should carry a whistle and a bell
and vessels 100 metres or more in length should carry in addition a gong.

Rule 34 covers manoeuvring and warning signals, using whistle or lights.

Rule 35 covers sound signals to be used in restricted visibility.

Rule 36 covers signals to be used to attract attention.

 Rule 37 covers distress signals.

3, List of Conventions/ Agreements to which Philippines is Signatory

(10 pts)
Convention Date Statu
s

15 Jul In
C029 - Forced Labour Convention, 1930 (No. 29)
2005 Force

C087 - Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to 29 Dec In

Organise Convention, 1948 (No. 87) 1953 Force

C098 - Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention, 29 Dec In

1949 (No. 98) 1953 Force

NOTE: Submit this assignment activities ON 2ND WEEK OF MARCH 2022, or BEFORE
PRELIM EXAM Late to submit on this said DATE NOT ACCEPTED.

THANK YOU…