Sample Question Bank

Kannada Sangha Pune’s
KAVERI COLLEGE OF ARTS, SCIENCE AND

COMMERCE, PUNE
Recognized by State Government and Permanently Affiliated to Savitribai Phule Pune
University, Pune | Recognized u/s 2(f) and 12(B) of the UGC Act, 1956
| Unaided and Minority Status (Linguistic)
NAAC ACCREDITED ‘B++’ GRADE (CGPA 2.99)
BBA Admission 2024

(Includes BBA, BBA International Business and BBA Computer Application)
CET Guidance and Sample Questions (Series I)

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Kannada Sangha Pune’s Kaveri College of Arts, Science and Commerce, Pune
ABOUT KAVERI COLLEGE OF ARTS, SCIENCE AND COMMERCE
Kaveri College of Arts, Science and Commerce, Ganesh Nagar, Erandwane, Pune,
Permanently Affiliated with Savitribai Phule Pune University, Pune, was established in the
year 2004 with three-year under graduate B.Com. degree program by the Kannada Sangha,
Pune. The college is recognised under Sections 2(f) and 12 (B) of UGC Act, 1956. It is a
Permanently Non-Aided Linguistic Minority (Kannada) College. The college runs seven
undergraduate and two post graduate courses.
Courses Offered
BBA BBA BBA

International Business HR/Finance/Marketing Computer Application
AICTE Approved AICTE Approved AICTE Approved
B. Com. B.A. B.Sc

English/Economics (Computer Science)
/Psychology
M. Com. M.Sc
(Computer Science)
Initiatives for holistic development

• Employability Skill Programme
• BBA Club
• Kaveri Kautilyas (the Economics Club)
• Kolors of Kaveri (the Arts Club)
• Techies Club
• Commerce Horizon
• Cultural Activities
• Personality Development Workshops,
• Debate and Elocution,
• National Service Scheme (NSS)
• Science Association
• Placement Assistance and Vocational Guidance
Courses Offered: BBA, BBA(C(1), BBA(IB), BCom, BA, BSc(CS), MSc(CS), MCom
About BBA, BBA(IB) and BBA(CA)

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with English as passing subject and has secured 40% marks at 12th Std. OR Three
Years Diploma Course after S.S.C. i.e. 10th Standard of Board of Technical
Education conducted by Government of Maharashtra or its equivalent OR Two
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conducted by Government of Maharashtra or its equivalent OR MCVC
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ABOUT CET
Eligibility for Appearing MAH-BBA-CET 2024

• Passed 10 + 2 (HSC) or its equivalent examination (As per the AICTE APH 2024 -
2027)
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Practice Questions
English Language
List of common synonyms with meanings-

1. Peculiar (strange) 26. Redolent (fragrant)
2. Serendipitous (fortunate) 27. Resplendent (glorious)
3. Ebullient (enthusiastic) 28. Sagacious (wise)
4. Mellifluous (smooth) 29. Salubrious (healthy)
5. Luminous (bright) 30. Sempiternal (eternal)
6. Quixotic (idealistic) 31. Tintinnabulation (ringing)
7. Mellisonant (sweet-sounding) 32. Verisimilitude (appearance of truth)
8. Scrumptious (delicious) 33. Vicissitude (change)
9. Halcyon (calm) 34. Mellifluous (harmonious)
10. Petrichor (the smell of rain) 35. Iridescent (shimmering)
11. Sonorous (resonant) 36. Aesthete (one who appreciates beauty)
12. Effervescent (bubbly) 37. Ambrosial (delicious)
13. Mellifluent (flowing smoothly) 38. Bucolic (rustic)
14. Ephemeral (fleeting) 39. Cynosure (center of attention)
15. Ethereal (delicate) 40. Denouement (resolution)
16. Susurrus (whispering) 41. Echelon (level)
17. Labyrinthine (complicated) 42. Facetious (humorous)
18. Elysian (heavenly) 43. Harbinger (omen)
19. Incandescent (glowing) 44. Incantation (enchantment)
20. Ineffable (indescribable) 45. Lachrymose (tearful)
21. Lissome (graceful) 46. Mellifluous (musical)
22. Pulchritudinous (beautiful) 47. Nefarious (wicked)
23. Mellifluous (melodic) 48. Obfuscate (confuse)
24. Phantasmagoric (fantastic) 49. Panacea (cure-all)
25. Quintessential (most typical) 50. Querulous (complaining)
b) Antonyms
Forming antonyms can vary depending on the language and the specific words involved, but
here are some general rules and patterns:
● Prefixes: Many antonyms are formed by adding prefixes to words. Common prefixes
that create antonyms include:
"Un-" (e.g., happy - unhappy)
"In-" or "Im-" (e.g., possible - impossible)
"Dis-" (e.g., agree - disagree)
"Non-" (e.g., fiction - nonfiction)
"Anti-" (e.g., clockwise – counter clockwise)
● Suffixes: Some antonyms are formed by adding suffixes to words. Common suffixes
include:
"-less" (e.g., fearless - fearful)
"-ful" (e.g., careful - careless)
"-able" (e.g., acceptable - unacceptable)
"-ment" (e.g., content - discontent)
● Changing Word Forms: Antonyms can also be formed by changing the form of a
word. For example:
Verb to Verb: (e.g., build - destroy)
Noun to Noun: (e.g., friend - enemy)
Adjective to Adjective: (e.g., happy - sad)
● Opposite Meaning: Sometimes, antonyms are simply words with opposite meanings
that are not formed by affixes or changes in word form. These pairs are learned through
exposure and context.
● Word Families: Understanding word families and their relationships can help in
identifying antonyms. For example, knowing that "heat" belongs to the same word
family as "hot" and "warm" can help you identify "cold" as its antonym.
● Irregular Forms: Some antonyms have irregular formations and don't follow consistent
patterns. These pairs are typically learned through memorization and exposure.
While these are general rules, it's important to remember that not all words have clear-cut
antonyms, and some antonyms may have multiple forms or variations. Additionally, the context
in which a word is used can sometimes affect its antonym. As you encounter more words and
their antonyms, you'll become better at recognizing patterns and forming associations between
words with opposite meanings.
List of antonyms:
1. Abate - Intensify 26. Precarious - Secure
2. Acquiesce - Resist 27. Prosaic - Poetic
3. Advantageous - Detrimental 28. Prudent - Reckless
4. Alleviate - Aggravate 29. Reticent - Vocal
5. Amiable - Hostile 30. Sagacious - Foolish
6. Ascend - Descend 31. Serene - Turbulent
7. Benign - Malignant 32. Solitary - Sociable
8. Benevolent - Malevolent 33. Subtle - Obvious
9. Bountiful - Scant 34. Superfluous - Essential
10. Complacent - Anxious 35. Surreptitious - Open
11. Concise - Wordy 36. Tenacious - Weak
12. Content - Discontent 37. Tranquil - Chaotic
13. Diligent - Negligent 38. Unassuming - Pretentious
14. Discreet - Overt 39. Understated - Exaggerated
15. Ephemeral - Eternal 40. Unruly - Well-behaved
16. Fortuitous - Deliberate 41. Vacillate - Decide
17. Frugal - Lavish 42. Vicarious - Direct
18. Incessant - Intermittent 43. Vindictive - Forgiving
19. Innocuous - Harmful 44. Vulnerable - Invulnerable
20. Lethargic - Energetic 45. Whimsical - Serious
21. Magnanimous - Mean-spirited 46. Zealous - Apathetic
22. Mundane - Extraordinary 47. Inconspicuous - Noticeable
23. Oblivious - Aware 48. Inscrutable - Transparent
24. Obstinate - Flexible 49. Exacerbate - Alleviate
25. Pernicious - Beneficial 50. Conventional - Unconventional
These words should provide a good range of opposites, though the difficulty of antonyms can
vary depending on context and familiarity with the terms.
By incorporating these strategies into your learning routine, you can gradually expand your
repertoire of synonyms and become more adept at using them effectively in your writing and
speech.
Idioms along with their meanings
1. A dime a dozen : Something common and easy to find.

2. Actions speak louder than words : What someone does is more important than what
they say.
3. Bite the bullet : To endure a painful or difficult situation.
4. Break the ice : To initiate conversation or alleviate tension in a social setting.
5. Cost an arm and a leg : Very expensive.
6. Cry over spilled milk : To lament or dwell on something that has already happened and
cannot be changed.
7. Cut to the chase : To get to the main point without wasting time.
8. Don't cry over spilled milk : Don't worry about something that has already happened
and cannot be changed.
9. Down the drain : Wasted or lost completely.
10. Drop in the bucket : A small and insignificant amount compared to what is needed or
expected.
11. Fish out of water : Someone who feels uncomfortable or out of place in a particular
situation.
12. Get cold feet : To become nervous or hesitant, especially before doing something
important.
13. Hit the nail on the head : To describe something accurately or to do something exactly
right.
14. In the heat of the moment : Acting impulsively or without thinking due to strong
emotions.
15. Jump on the bandwagon : To join a popular trend or activity.
16. Kick the bucket : To die.
17. Let the cat out of the bag : To reveal a secret.
18. Miss the boat : To miss an opportunity.
19. Out of the blue : Something unexpected or surprising.
20. Piece of cake : Something very easy to do.
21. Rain on someone's parade : To spoil someone's plans or happiness.
22. Raining cats and dogs : Heavy rain.
23. Read between the lines : To understand the hidden meaning or implication.
24. Speak of the devil : Used when someone mentioned in conversation unexpectedly
appears.
25. Spill the beans : To reveal a secret.
26. Steal someone's thunder : To take credit for someone else's achievements or ideas.
27. Take with a grain of salt : To be skeptical about something or not take it too seriously.
28. The ball is in your court : It's your turn to take action or make a decision.
29. The early bird catches the worm : Those who act promptly and decisively will succeed.
30. Throw in the towel : To give up or surrender.
31. Under the weather : Feeling sick or unwell.
32. Up in the air : Uncertain or undecided.
33. When pigs fly : Something that will never happen.
34. Wild goose chase : A futile or hopeless pursuit.
35. You can't judge a book by its cover : You shouldn't judge someone or something based
solely on appearance.
36. Zip your lip : To be quiet or stop talking.
37. Burning the midnight oil : Working late into the night.
38. Cat's out of the bag : The secret has been revealed.
39. Curiosity killed the cat : Being too nosy or inquisitive can lead to trouble.
40. Don't count your chickens before they hatch : Don't make plans based on something
that hasn't happened yet.
41. Don't put all your eggs in one basket : Don't rely on a single plan or option.
42. Every cloud has a silver lining : There's something positive in every negative situation.
43. Fit as a fiddle : In good health.
44. Hold your horses : Be patient or wait.
45. It's raining cats and dogs : It's raining heavily.
46. Like a fish out of water : Feeling uncomfortable or out of place.
47. Once in a blue moon : Very rarely.
48. Saved by the bell : Saved from a difficult situation by a timely intervention.
49. The elephant in the room : An obvious problem or issue that everyone is ignoring.
50. Time flies when you're having fun : Time seems to pass quickly when you're enjoying
yourself.
These idioms are commonly used in English-speaking contexts and understanding them can
greatly enhance your ability to comprehend informal language and communicate effectively.
Grammar
a) Parts of Speech
1. Noun: A noun is a word that names a person, place, thing, or idea.
- Examples: cat, table, London, happiness
2. Pronoun: A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun in a sentence.

- Examples: he, she, it, they, me, you
3. Verb: A verb is a word that expresses an action, occurrence, or state of being.

- Examples: run, eat, sleep, is, was
4. Adjective: An adjective is a word that describes or modifies a noun or pronoun

by providing more information about its qualities or characteristics.
- Examples: big, happy, beautiful, delicious
5. Adverb: An adverb is a word that modifies a verb, adjective, or other adverb by

providing information about how, when, where, or to what extent something
happens.
- Examples: quickly, slowly, often, very
6. Preposition: A preposition is a word that shows the relationship between a noun

(or pronoun) and other words in a sentence, indicating location, direction, time,
or manner.
- Examples: in, on, at, to, with
7. Conjunction: A conjunction is a word that connects words, phrases, or clauses

in a sentence.
- Examples: and, but, or, so, because
8. Interjection: An interjection is a word or phrase that expresses strong emotion

or sudden feeling and is usually followed by an exclamation point.
- Examples: wow, oh, ouch, hey
These parts of speech play different roles in constructing sentences and conveying meaning in
the English language. Understanding their functions and how they work together is essential
for effective communication.
Simple, Compound, and Complex sentences

1. Simple Sentence :
- A simple sentence consists of one independent clause, which contains
a subject and a predicate (verb).
- Example: "She sings."
- In this sentence, "She" is the subject, and "sings" is the verb. There are
no dependent clauses or additional phrases.
1. She walked to the store.
2. The sun rose above the horizon.
3. He ran swiftly down the street.
4. Birds chirped in the trees.
5. The waves crashed against the shore.
6. The wind howled through the night.
7. Flowers bloomed in the garden.
8. Children played in the park.
9. The clock ticked steadily on the wall.
10. The cat purred contentedly on the windowsill.
2. Compound Sentence :
- A compound sentence consists of two or more independent clauses
joined by a coordinating conjunction (such as and, but, or) or a
semicolon (;).
- Example: "She sings, and he dances."
- This sentence consists of two independent clauses: "She sings" and
"he dances." They are joined by the coordinating conjunction "and."
1. She loves to read novels, but he prefers watching movies.

2. The sky turned dark, and thunder rumbled in the distance.
3. They went to the beach for a picnic, yet they forgot to bring sunscreen.
4. Sarah baked a cake for the party, and John made some sandwiches.
5. The dog barked loudly, so the neighbors complained to the owner.
6. The teacher gave us a lot of homework, yet we managed to finish it on time.
7. He wanted to go hiking, but she suggested going to the museum instead.
8. The concert was canceled due to the storm, so they decided to have a movie
night at home.
9. She practiced piano for hours, and her skills improved significantly.
10. The children played in the park, and their laughter echoed through the trees.
3. Complex Sentence :
- A complex sentence consists of one independent clause and at least
one dependent clause, which cannot stand alone as a complete
sentence.
- Example: "Because she loves music, she sings."
- In this sentence, "she sings" is the independent clause, and "Because
she loves music" is the dependent clause. The dependent clause begins
with the subordinating conjunction "because," indicating the reason or
cause for the action in the independent clause.
1. While she loves to read novels, he prefers watching movies.
2. As the sky turned dark, thunder rumbled in the distance.
3. Although they went to the beach for a picnic, they forgot to bring sunscreen.
4. After Sarah baked a cake for the party, John made some sandwiches.
5. When the dog barked loudly, the neighbors complained to the owner.
6. Despite the teacher giving us a lot of homework, we managed to finish it on
time.
7. Although he wanted to go hiking, she suggested going to the museum instead.
8. Since the concert was canceled due to the storm, they decided to have a movie
night at home.
9. After she practiced piano for hours, her skills improved significantly.
10. While the children played in the park, their laughter echoed through the trees.
Active/Passive Voice
Active and passive voice are two different ways of constructing sentences, depending on
whether the subject performs the action (active voice) or receives the action (passive voice).
Let's explore both:
1. Active Voice :
i. In active voice, the subject of the sentence performs the action expressed
by the verb. It is the most common and straightforward way of
constructing sentences.
ii. Example: "The cat (subject) chased (verb) the mouse (object)."
iii. In this sentence, "the cat" is the subject performing the action of
"chasing" the mouse.
2. Passive Voice :
iv. In passive voice, the subject of the sentence receives the action
expressed by the verb. The focus is on what is being acted upon rather
than who is performing the action.
v. Example: "The mouse (subject) was chased (verb) by the cat (agent)."
vi. In this sentence, "the mouse" is the subject receiving the action of being
"chased" by the cat. The agent performing the action ("the cat") is
introduced with the preposition "by," but it is optional and can be
omitted.
Key differences between active and passive voice:

- Active voice emphasizes the doer of the action, making the sentence clearer and more
direct.
- Passive voice emphasizes the action itself or the recipient of the action, often obscuring
the doer or making it less important.
- Active voice is generally preferred in most cases for its clarity and directness, but
passive voice can be useful in certain contexts, such as when the doer of the action is
unknown or less important than the action itself.
It's important to choose the appropriate voice based on the context and intended emphasis of
the sentence.
Direct/Indirect
Reported speech, also known as indirect speech, is used to convey what someone else has said
without quoting them directly. When reporting speech, you change the original speaker's words
to fit into your own sentence structure while maintaining the meaning and tense of the original
statement. Here's how reported speech works:
1. Changing Pronouns and Verb Tenses:

a. If the reporting verb (the verb used to introduce the reported speech) is in the
past tense, you generally need to change the tense of the verbs in the reported
speech to reflect the shift in time.
b. Pronouns may also change to reflect the perspective of the speaker.
Example: Direct speech: "He said, 'I am going to the store.'"
Reported speech: He said (past tense) that he was going (past continuous) to the store.
2. Changing Time and Place Expressions:

a. Time and place expressions may need to be adjusted to reflect the current
context.
Example: Direct speech: "She said, 'I will meet you here tomorrow.'"
Reported speech: She said (past tense) that she would meet (future in the past) me
there the next day.
3. Reporting Verbs:
a. Choose appropriate reporting verbs (e.g., said, told, asked, explained) based on
the context and the speaker's intention.
Example: Direct speech: "She said, 'I like chocolate.'"
Reported speech: She admitted (appropriate reporting verb) that she liked chocolate.
4. Punctuation:
a. Punctuation may need to be adjusted depending on how the reported speech is
integrated into the sentence.
Example: Direct speech: "He said, 'I'm leaving.'"
Reported speech: He announced that he was leaving.
5. Indirect Questions:
a. When reporting questions, the word order typically changes from a question to
a statement.
Example: Direct speech: "She asked, 'What time is it?'"
Reported speech: She asked what time it was.
6. Maintaining Meaning:
a. Ensure that the reported speech accurately conveys the intended meaning of the
original statement, even if the wording is changed.
Example: Direct speech: "He said, 'I have never been to Paris.'"
Reported speech: He stated that he had never visited Paris.
Examples of reported speech:
1. Direct speech: "She said, 'I am going to the party.'"

Reported speech: She said that she was going to the party.
2. Direct speech: "He said, 'I will call you later.'"

Reported speech: He said that he would call me later.
3. Direct speech: "They asked, 'What time does the movie start?'"
Reported speech: They asked what time the movie started.
4. Direct speech: "She said, 'I have finished my homework.'"

Reported speech: She said that she had finished her homework.
5. Direct speech: "He said, 'I love pizza.'"

Reported speech: He said that he loved pizza.
6. Direct speech: "She said, 'He is coming with us.'"

Reported speech: She said that he was coming with them.
7. Direct speech: "He asked, 'Can you help me with this?''"

Reported speech: He asked if I could help him with that.
8. Direct speech: "She said, 'I don't like coffee.'"

Reported speech: She said that she didn't like coffee.
9. Direct speech: "He said, 'I won't be able to make it tomorrow.'"

Reported speech: He said that he wouldn't be able to make it the next day.
10. Direct speech: "They said, 'We have already seen that movie.'"
Reported speech: They said that they had already seen that movie.
These examples demonstrate how reported speech is used to convey what someone else said
in a different context or time, often requiring adjustments to verb tense, pronouns, and word
order.
Practice Test
1. Which of the following sentences is correctly punctuated?

(1) Everyone has special skills; some use them very well.
(2) Everyone has special skills some use them very well.
(3) Everyone has special skills; and, some people use them very well.
(4) Everyone has special skills, and, some people use them very well.
2. Give one word for- ‘One who possesses many talents.

(1) Wisdom (2) Exceptional (3) Versatile (4) Smart
3. Which part of the sentence has error? – She doesn’t speak of either German or French.
(1) doesn’t (2) of (3) either (4) or
4. Correct the sentence grammatically. She went to gym despite of her illness.
(1) to (2) of (3) went (4) none of the options
5. Rearrange to make meaningful word- egbindinatl

(1) television (2) dining table (3) door step (4) telephone
6. Give antonym of- cameo

(1) trinket (2) plan (3) gem (4) carved
7. Given below are five parts of the sentence. You are required to make a
meaningful sentence.
a. left b. the c. House d. He e. Suddenly
(1) deabc (2) abced (3) abcde (4) deacb
8. Find the correctly spelt word.

(1) Recommendation (2) Rocomendation
(3) Recommendation (4) discommendation’s
9. Give meaning – Bolt from the blue

(1) shares the bad news (2) complete surprise
(3) thundering (4) no idea
10. When the Principal entered the class, a student………. on the blackboard.
(1) wrote (2) was writing (3) is writing (4) writes
11. Give synonym for the word – Obsolete

(1) absolute (2) outdated (3) obsessed (4) oblique
12. Convert into active voice- The application has been sent by her.
(1) She sent the application (2) She has sent the application
(3) She will send the application (4) She had sent the application
13. In each of the following questions four words are given, of which two words are most
nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the
same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination.
(1) Jeopardise (2) extravagant (3) exorbitant (4) indigenous
14. Determine which of these words fits well in the sentences. If none of these words fits well,
mark your answer as none of these.
The problem is that there is no good way to________ data from the hundreds of millions
of establishments.
(1) Cluster (2) Array (3) Collect (4) None of these
15. Find the correctly spelt word-

(1) subsided (2) subdided (3) subsidid (4) susdided
16. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
Admittance was refused to him by the airport security.
(1) The airport security is refusing him admittance.
(2) The airport security has refused him admittance.
(3) The airport security had refused him admittance.
(4) The airport security refused him admittance.
17. Neither money nor power _______ needed to get selected for the Olympics.
(1) are (2) is (3) was (4) were
18. A person who does not believe in the existence of God:

(1) Theist (2) Heretic (3) Atheist (4) Fanatic
19. This chair is very light. Even a small boy…………… lift it.
(1) can (2) could (3) must (4) Should
20. Do you think that flying an aeroplane is a _______ experience?

(1) terrified (2) terrifying (3) terrify (4) terror
21. Oreo said, ‘Alright, yes, you were right and I was wrong.’
(1) Oreo admitted that I had been right and he had been wrong.
(2) Oreo admitted that I was right and he was wrong.
(3) Oreo admitted that I have been right and he has been wrong.
(4) Oreo said that yes you were right and I was wrong.
22. ______ is a branch of drama that treats in a serious and dignified style the sorrowful
or terrible events encountered or caused by a heroic individual.
(1) Lyric (2) Tragedies (3) Comedies (4) Satires
23. Pete promised to take out picture but didn't keep his word.
(1) give (2) bring (3) photograph (4) paint
24. We took the book last week and now we must give it back.
(1) Copy (2) Hard (3) Return (4) Revise
25. Due to the long lapse of time, I could not recognize my old friend.
(1) Movement (2) Duration (3) Passage (4) Delay
26. Choose the correct antonym of the given word: Conducive

(1) Helpful (2) Contributory (3) Useless (4) Favourable
27. The cashier wiped the nose of his employer by presenting false bills.
(1) doomed (2) abused (3) cheated (4) slapped
28. Give synonym- abandon

(1) renounce (2) avoid (3) admit (4) surrender
29. Give synonym- complicate

(1) confuse (2) lucid (3) easy (4) angry
30. Select the proper prefix for – Editor

(1) Joint (2) Sub (3) bye (4) bi
31. The pilot was __________ injured, he died within half an hour.
(1) seriously (2) fatally (3) fatefully (4) vitally
32. The punch made the boxer in pain.

(1) wince (2) gape (3) grumble (4) fumble
33. Since one cannot read every book, one should be content with making a
selection.
(1) normal (2) standard (3) moderate (4) judicious
34. Satish was with a natural talent for music.

(1) given (2) found (3) endowed (4) entrusted
35. If greater security measures had been taken, the tragedy might have been___ .
Removed (2) repeated (3) restrained (4) averted
36. The students were asked to the words given in the two columns.
(1) Fill (2) Correspond (3) Match (4) Equal
37. To send an unwanted person out of the country

(1) Exclude (2) Ostracize (3) Deport (4) Expatriate
38. Which language gave the English word ‘bandicoot’?

(1) Marathi (2) Punjabi (3) Tamil (4) Telegu
39. What is breeding, hatching and rearing of fish in a controlled condition called?
(1) Apiculture (2) Pisciculture (3) Horticulture (4) Sericulture
40. Fill in the blanks with appropriate preposition. Mani has a mania_________ keeping the
room neat.
(1) Of (2) For (3) With (4) And
41. The government took necessary steps to avert the calamity. Give meaning of the
underlined word.
(1) Disaster (2) Defeat (3) Development (4) Dogma
42. A synonym for ‘troubleshooter’ is -

(1) Trouble maker (2) Peace maker (3) Trouble (4) Shooter
43. A vote of _________- are proposed at the end of the meeting.

(1) Thanks were (2) Thanks was (3) Thank was (4) Thank you
44. She has a good_________ over famous foreign languages.

(1) Control (2) Command (3) Fluency (4) Talk
45. A funny imitation of a poem is called _____________.

(1) Caricature (2) Parody (3) Stanza (4) Cartoon
46. A person who does not believe in existence of God.

(1) Heretic (2) Fanatic (3) Theist (4) Atheist
47. One who has compulsive desire to steal is a -

(1) Thief ( 2) Plagiarist (3) Poacher (4) Kleptomaniac
48. Give antonym for- Radiate

(1) Absorb (2) Tarnish (3) Cool ( 4) Shine
49. How long do you think Mr. Mani knew Mr. Parth?
(1) Knows (2) Has known ( 3) Know (4) Will know
50. To turn over a new leaf

(1) To change completely one’s course of action.
(2) To shift attention to new problems after having studied the old ones thoroughly.
(3) To cover up one’s fault by wearing new marks.
(4) To change the old habits and adopt new ones.
51. Synonym for abundant

(1) Scarce (2) Plentiful (3) Limited (4) Sparse
52. Synonym for vivid :

(1) Dull (2) Faint (3) Bright (4) Hazy
53. Synonym for enormous :

(1) Tiny (2) Immense (3) Small (4) Minute
54. Synonym for quaint :

(1) Modern (2) Strange (3) Familiar (4) Charming
55. Synonym for hilarious :

(1) Serious (2) Funny (3) Boring (4) Sad
56. Synonym for precise :

(1) Accurate (2) Vague (3) Indefinite (4) Ambiguous
57. Synonym for exquisite :
(1) Plain (2) Elegant (3) Simple (4) Ordinary
58. Synonym for obscure :

(1) Clear (2) Uncertain (3) Visible (4) Bright
59. Synonym for fascinating :

(1) Tedious (2) Dull (3) Engaging (4) Monotonous
60. Synonym for zealous :

(1) Apathetic (2) Indifferent (3) Enthusiastic (4) Disinterested
61. Antonym for expand :

(1) Contract (2) Enlarge (3) Extend (4) Inflate
62. Antonym for brave :

(1) Fearless (2) Bold (3) Cowardly (4) Courageous
63. Antonym for vast :

(1) Wide (2) Huge (3) Narrow (4) Extensive
64. Antonym for elevate :

(1) Raise (2) Lower (3) Heighten (4) Enhance
65. Antonym for transparent :

(1) Opaque (2) Clear (3) Translucent (4) See-through
66. Antonym for innocent :

(1) Guilty (2) Pure (3) Naive (4) Blameless
67. Antonym for generous :

(1) Greedy (2) Charitable (3) Altruistic (4) Liberal
68. Antonym for flexible :

(1) Rigid (2) Adaptable (3) Pliable (4) Supple
69. Antonym for fragile :

(1) Strong (2) Delicate (3) Brittle (4) Vulnerable
70. Antonym for harsh :

(1) Gentle (2) Severe (3) Rough (4) Cruel
English Sentence Completion and Grammar

71. The politician's speech was so ___________ that it failed to convince anyone.
(1) Persuasive (2) Compelling (3) Incoherent (4) Captivating
72. Despite the heavy rain, the hikers continued their journey with ___________
determination.
(1) Unwavering (2) Tentative (3) Uncertain (4) Indecisive
73. The novel's plot was so ___________ that readers couldn't predict the ending.
(1) Transparent (2) Obvious (3) Opaque (4) Evident
74. The students' enthusiasm for the project was ___________ by the teacher's
encouragement.
(1) Dampened (2) Encouraged (3) Ignited (4) Suppressed
75. The chef's ___________ use of spices gave the dish a unique flavor.
(1) Subtle (2) Blatant (3) Obvious (4) Evident
76. The company's ___________ growth in profits over the past year impressed investors.
(1) Modest (2) Stagnant (3) Dramatic (4) Stable
77. The marathon runner's ___________ training regimen helped him achieve his personal
best.
(1) Rigorous (2) Casual (3) Relaxed (4) Moderate
78. The detective's ___________ investigation finally led to the capture of the criminal.
(1) Meticulous (2) Careless (3) Haphazard (4) Sloppy
79. Choose the correct sentence:

(1) He don't like coffee. (2) He doesn't like coffee.
(3) He not like coffee. (4) He isn't like coffee
80. Select the sentence with the correct subject-verb agreement:

(1) The team plays good today. (2) The team play good today.
(3) The team plays well today. (4) The team playing well today
81. Which sentence is punctuated correctly?

(1) My favorite colors are blue green and yellow.
(2) My favorite colors are blue, green, and yellow.
(3) My favorite colors are blue green, and yellow.
(4) My favorite colors are, blue, green, and yellow
82. Choose the correct use of the apostrophe:

(1) The students book's are on the desk.
(2) The student's books are on the desk.
(3) The students' books are on the desk.
(4) The student books are on the desk.
83. Which sentence is grammatically correct?
(1) I seen him yesterday at the park.
(2) I saw him yesterday at the park.
(3) I seed him yesterday at the park.
(4) I have seen him yesterday at the park.
84. Choose the correct sentence structure:
(1) The cat black is. (2) The black cat is.
(3) The is black cat. (4) Black cat the is.
85. Identify the sentence with the correct use of capitalization:

(1) i love to read books. (2) I love to read books.
(3) i Love to read books. (4) I Love to read books.
86. Which sentence is grammatically incorrect?

(1) She has went to the store. (2) She went to the store.
(3) She had gone to the store. (4) She goes to the store.
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer

No. No. No.
1 1 2 3 3 2
4 3 5 2 6 4
7 1 8 1 9 2
10 2 11 2 12 1
13 2,3 14 3 15 1
16 4 17 2 18 3
19 3 20 4 21 1
22 2 23 3 24 3
25 2 26 3 27 3
28 1 29 1 30 2
31 2 32 1 33 4
34 3 35 4 36 3
37 3 38 4 39 2
40 2 41 1 42 2
43 2 44 2 45 2
46 4 47 4 48 1
49 2 50 4 51 2
52 3 53 2 54 4
55 2 56 1 57 2
58 2 59 3 60 3
61 1 62 3 63 3
64 2 65 1 66 1
67 1 68 1 69 1
70 1 71 3 72 1
73 3 74 3 75 1
76 3 77 1 78 1
79 2 80 3 81 2
82 3 83 2 84 2
85 2 86 1
Comprehension
i. Preview the Passage: Before reading the passage, quickly skim through it to get
an overview of the topic, main ideas, and any headings or subheadings. This can
help you focus your attention and prepare your mind for what you are about to read.
ii. Read Actively: Read the passage actively, engaging with the text by asking
questions, making predictions, and summarizing key points as you go. Highlight or
underline important information and any details that seem relevant to the questions
you're trying to answer.
iii. Break Down Complex Sentences: If you come across long or complex sentences,
break them down into smaller parts to better understand their meaning. Pay
attention to the subject, verb, and object in each sentence to grasp the relationships
between different elements.
iv. Identify Main Ideas: Look for the main idea or central theme of the passage. This
can usually be found in the topic sentence of each paragraph or in the opening and
closing paragraphs of the passage. Understanding the main idea can help you focus
on what's most important and relevant.
v. Look for Keywords and Phrases: Pay attention to key words and phrases that are
likely to contain the information you need to answer the questions. These may
include names, dates, locations, or specific terms related to the topic of the passage.
vi. Use Context Clues: Use context clues within the passage to help you understand
the meanings of unfamiliar words or phrases. Look for surrounding words or
phrases that provide hints about the meaning of the word in question.
vii. Refer Back to the Passage: When answering questions, refer back to the passage
to find evidence to support your answers. Avoid relying solely on your memory,
and instead, locate specific details or quotes from the text that directly relate to the
questions.
viii. Eliminate Distractions: Minimize distractions and create a conducive

environment for reading and comprehension. Find a quiet space free from noise or
interruptions where you can focus your attention on the passage and the questions.
ix. Practice Active Recall: After reading the passage, try to summarize the main ideas
in your own words. This helps reinforce your understanding and retention of the
information.
x. Review and Reflect: After answering the questions, take some time to review your
responses and reflect on how well you understood the passage. Identify any areas
where you may need to improve and consider what strategies worked best for you.
Practice Test Based on Passage

Title: "The Importance of Sleep"
In today's fast-paced world, the value of a good night's sleep cannot be overstated. Sleep plays
a crucial role in maintaining both physical and mental health. It is during sleep that the body
repairs tissues, synthesizes hormones, and consolidates memories. Adequate sleep is essential
for proper cognitive function, mood regulation, and overall well-being.
However, many individuals neglect the importance of sleep, often sacrificing it in favor of
work, social activities, or screen time. This lack of sleep, known as sleep deprivation, can have
detrimental effects on one's health. Chronic sleep deprivation has been linked to an increased
risk of obesity, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and mental health disorders such as depression
and anxiety.
To prioritize sleep, it is important to establish healthy sleep habits, also known as sleep hygiene.
This includes maintaining a consistent sleep schedule, creating a relaxing bedtime routine, and
creating a comfortable sleep environment free from distractions. By making sleep a priority,
individuals can reap the numerous benefits it offers for both their physical and mental well-
being.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?

(1) Sleep is essential for physical and mental health.
(2) Sleep deprivation leads to increased social activities.
(3) Sleep is only important for cognitive function.
(4) Sleep has no impact on overall well-being.
2. According to the passage, what happens during sleep?

(1) The body repairs tissues.
(2) The body stops functioning.
(3) Hormones are not synthesized.
(4) Memories are forgotten.
3. What are the consequences of chronic sleep deprivation mentioned in the passage?
(1) Decreased risk of obesity.
(2) Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease.
(3) Increased risk of mental health disorders.
(4) Improved cognitive function.
4. How can individuals prioritize sleep according to the passage?

(1) By maintaining a consistent sleep schedule.
(2) By increasing screen time before bedtime.
(3) By consuming caffeine before bedtime.
(4) By engaging in stimulating activities before bedtime.
5. What term is used to describe the lack of sleep?

(1) Sleep enhancement.
(2) Sleep improvement.
(3) Sleep deprivation.
(4) Sleep fulfillment.
6. In the sentence "It is during sleep that the body repairs tissues, synthesizes hormones, and
consolidates memories," what is the function of the word "it"?
(1) Subject (2) Object (3) Preposition (4) Pronoun
7. Which of the following is an example of parallelism in the passage?

(1) "Adequate sleep is essential for proper cognitive function."
(2) "To prioritize sleep, it is important to establish healthy sleep habits."
(3) "Creating a relaxing bedtime routine and a comfortable sleep environment."
(4) "This includes maintaining a consistent sleep schedule."
8. In the sentence "However, many individuals neglect the importance of sleep," what part of
speech is "However"?
(1) Adjective (2) Adverb (3) Conjunction (4) Interjection
9. Which sentence uses the correct subject-verb agreement?

(1) "Sleep plays a crucial role in maintaining both physical and mental health."
(2) "Sleeps play a crucial role in maintaining both physical and mental health."
(3) "Sleep play a crucial role in maintaining both physical and mental health."
(4) "Sleeping play a crucial role in maintaining both physical and mental health."
10. What type of sentence is "By making sleep a priority, individuals can reap the numerous
benefits it offers for both their physical and mental well-being"?
(1) Declarative (2) Interrogative (3) Imperative (4) Conditional
These grammar questions test various aspects such as pronouns, parallelism,

conjunctions, subject-verb agreement, and sentence types within the passage.
11. Which word is a synonym for "overstated" as used in the passage?

(1) Exaggerated (2) Underestimated (3) Understated (4) Minimized
12. Which word is a synonym for "crucial" as used in the passage?

(1) Insignificant (2) 2) Vital (3) 3) Trivial (4) Minor
13. Which word is a synonym for "adequate" as used in the passage?

(1) Abundant (2) Insufficient (3) Suitable (4) Excessive
14. Which word is a synonym for "prioritize" as used in the passage?

(1) Neglect (2) Minimize (3) Focus (4) Avoid
15. Which word is a synonym for "detrimental" as used in the passage?

(1) Beneficial (2) Advantageous (3) Harmful (4) Favourable
These synonym questions assess vocabulary comprehension by requiring the reader to

identify words with similar meanings to those used in the passage.
16. Which word is an antonym for "fast-paced" as used in the passage?

(1) Leisurely (2) Hectic (3) Swift (4) Rapid
17. Which word is an antonym for "neglect" as used in the passage?

(1) Disregard (2) Overlook (3) Prioritize (4) Ignore
18. Which word is an antonym for "essential" as used in the passage?

(1) Crucial (2) Optional (3) Necessary (4) Important
19. Which word is an antonym for "chronic" as used in the passage?

(1) Acute (2) Severe (3) Persistent (4) Prolonged
20. Which word is an antonym for "detrimental" as used in the passage?

(1) Beneficial (2) Harmful (3) Adverse (4) Detracting
21. Which part of the sentence contains an error?

"Sleep plays a crucial role in maintaining both physical and mental health."
(1) "plays a crucial role"
(2) "in maintaining"
(3) "both physical and mental health"
(4) No error

"To prioritize sleep, it is important to establish healthy sleep habits."
(1) To prioritize sleep,"
(2) "it is important to establish"
(3) "healthy sleep habits."
(4) No error

"By making sleep a priority, individuals can reap the numerous benefits it offers for both their
physical and mental well-being."
(1) "By making sleep a priority,"
(2) "individuals can reap"
(3) "the numerous benefits it offers"
(4) No error

"Chronic sleep deprivation has been linked to an increased risk of obesity, diabetes,
cardiovascular disease, and mental health disorders such as depression and anxiety."
(1) "has been linked to"
(2) "an increased risk of"
(3) "mental health disorders such as"
(4) No error

"However, many individuals neglect the importance of sleep, often sacrificing it in favor of
work, social activities, or screen time."
(1) "However,"
(2) "many individuals neglect"
(3) "in favor of work, social activities, or screen time."
(4) No error
26. Sleep plays a _______ role in maintaining both physical and mental health.
(1) Trivial (2) vital (3) minor (4) redundant
27. Adequate sleep is essential for proper cognitive function, mood regulation, and overall
_______.
(1) distress (2) impairment (3) well-being (4) chaos
28. Chronic sleep deprivation has been linked to an increased risk of obesity, diabetes,
cardiovascular disease, and mental health disorders such as _______ and anxiety.
(1) euphoria (2) insomnia (3) depression (4) stress
29. To prioritize sleep, it is important to establish healthy sleep habits, also known as sleep
_______.
(1) deprivation (2) enhancement (3) hygiene (4) deficiency
30. By making sleep a priority, individuals can reap the numerous benefits it offers for both
their physical and mental _______.
(1) instability (2) disorder (3) well-being (4) disarray
31. Sleep deprivation can have _______ effects on one's health.

(1) advantageous (2) detrimental (3) beneficial (4) insignificant
32. Many individuals _______ the importance of sleep.

(1) recognize (2) disregard (3) minimize (4) overlook
33. Chronic sleep deprivation has been linked to an increased risk of obesity, diabetes,
cardiovascular disease, and _______ health disorders.
(1) neurological (2) psychological (3) physiological (4) pathological
34. To prioritize sleep, it is important to establish healthy sleep _______.

(1) cycles (2) routines (3) patterns (4) regimes
35. By making sleep a priority, individuals can reap the numerous benefits it offers for both
their physical and mental _______.
(1) harmony (2) stability (3) well-being (4) tranquility

No. No. No.
1 1 2 1 3 3
4 1 5 3 6 4
7 3 8 3 9 1
10 3 11 1 12 2
13 3 14 3 15 3
16 1 17 3 18 2
19 1 20 1 21 4
22 4 23 4 24 4
25 4 26 2 27 3
28 3 29 3 30 3
31 2 32 2 33 2
34 2 35 3
Title: "Exploring the Wilderness"
The wilderness beckons with its untamed beauty, a realm where nature's raw magnificence
unfolds in every corner. Towering trees stand sentinel over meandering rivers, while rugged
mountains pierce the sky with their majestic peaks. In this vast expanse of wilderness, one can
discover solitude amidst the cacophony of life, finding solace in the tranquil embrace of nature.
Venturing into the wilderness requires preparation and respect for its formidable power. Trails
wind through dense forests, offering glimpses of elusive wildlife and echoing with the
symphony of birdsong. Yet, beneath the allure lies the inherent risks of the unknown –
treacherous terrain, unpredictable weather, and encounters with untamed creatures.
However, for those who dare to tread its paths, the wilderness offers a sanctuary for the soul, a
place where the spirit of adventure thrives and the echoes of ancient forests whisper secrets of
the earth's untold wonders.
1. In the phrase "nature's raw magnificence unfolds," what part of speech is "unfolds"?
(1) Noun (2) Verb (3) Adjective (4) Adverb
2. Which sentence contains a subject-verb agreement error?

(1) "Trails wind through dense forests."
(2) "The wilderness beckons with its untamed beauty."
(3) "Towering trees stand sentinel over meandering rivers."
(4) "Encounters with untamed creatures can be thrilling."
3. What type of phrase is "with its untamed beauty" in the sentence "The wilderness beckons
with its untamed beauty"?
(1) Adverbial phrase (2) Prepositional phrase (3) Gerund phrase (4) Participial phrase
4. Which sentence contains an incorrect use of a pronoun?

(1) "In this vast expanse of wilderness, one can discover solitude."
(2) "Yet, beneath the allure lies the inherent risks of the unknown."
(3) "Venturing into the wilderness requires preparation and respect for its formidable
power."
(4) "For those who dare to tread its paths, the wilderness offers a sanctuary for the soul."
5. Which sentence contains a misplaced modifier?

(1) "Venturing into the wilderness requires preparation and respect for its formidable
power."
(2) "In this vast expanse of wilderness, one can discover solitude."
(3) "However, for those who dare to tread its paths, the wilderness offers a sanctuary for
the soul."
(4) "Yet, beneath the allure lies the inherent risks of the unknown."
6. In the phrase "trails wind through dense forests," what is the function of "through dense
forests"?
(1) Adverbial phrase (2) Prepositional phrase (3) Gerund phrase (4) Participial phrase
7. Which phrase means "to take risks"?

(1) "Venturing into" (2) "Solace in" (3) "Echoes of" (4) "Embrace of"
8. What does the phrase "rugged mountains pierce the sky" imply?
(1) The mountains are smooth and gentle.
(2) The mountains are tall and jagged.
(3) The mountains are flat and featureless.
(4) The mountains are rounded and soft.
9. Which phrase refers to finding comfort or peace?

(1) "Glimpses of" (2) "Whisper secrets of" (3) "Solace in" (4) Symphony of"
10. What does the phrase "echoes of ancient forests" suggest?

(1) The forests are young and newly formed.
(2) The forests are quiet and still.
(3) The forests are old and full of history.
(4) The forests are vast and expansive.
11. What does the phrase "stand sentinel over" mean in the context of the passage?
(1) To guard or protect (2) To move swiftly
(3) To hide from view (4) To destroy
12. What does the expression "beckons with" imply in the passage?
(1) To repel (2) To call or attract (3) To push away (4) To criticize
13. In the phrase "venturing into the wilderness," what does "venturing into" mean?
(1) To exit quickly (2) To explore cautiously
(3) To remain stationary (4) To avoid completely
14. What does the phrase "whisper secrets of" suggest?

(1) To share openly (2) To conceal information
(3) To tell lies (4) To reveal hidden knowledge
15. What does the expression "find solace in" mean?

(1) To feel scared (2) To seek refuge or comfort
(3) To ignore completely (4) To cause distress
16. Venturing into the wilderness requires preparation and _______ for its formidable power.
(1) respect (2) fear (3) understanding (4) disregard
17. Trails wind through dense forests, offering glimpses of elusive wildlife and echoing with
the _______ of birdsong.
(1) silence (2) cacophony (3) tranquility (4) stillness
18. Yet, beneath the allure lies the inherent risks of the _______.
(1) familiar (2) ordinary (3) known (4) unknown
19. In this vast expanse of wilderness, one can discover solitude amidst the _______ of life.
(1) calmness (2) tranquility (3) chaos (4) serenity
20. However, for those who dare to tread its paths, the wilderness offers a sanctuary for the
soul, a place where the spirit of adventure thrives and the _______ of ancient forests whisper
secrets of the earth's untold wonders.
(1) silence (2) echoes (3) stillness (4) whispers
21. What is a synonym for "majestic" as used in the passage?

(1) Small (2) Grand (3) Ordinary (4) Minor
22. What is a synonym for "solitude" as used in the passage?

(1) Crowdedness (2) Seclusion (3) Bustle (4) Commotion
23. What is a synonym for "tranquil" as used in the passage?

(1) Chaotic (2) Hectic (3) Serene (4) Noisy
24. What is a synonym for "treacherous" as used in the passage?

(1) Safe (2) Dangerous (3) Secure (4) Stable
25. What is a synonym for "sanctuary" as used in the passage?

(1) Prison (2) Shelter (3) Desert (4) Chaos
26. What is an antonym for "majestic" as used in the passage?

(1) Small (2) Grand (3) Ordinary (4) Minor
27. What is an antonym for "solitude" as used in the passage?

(1) Crowdedness (2) Seclusion (3) Bustle (4) Commotion
28. What is an antonym for "tranquil" as used in the passage?

(1) Chaotic (2) Hectic (3) Serene (4) Noisy
29. What is an antonym for "treacherous" as used in the passage?

(1) Safe (2) Dangerous (3) Secure (4) Stable
30. What is an antonym for "sanctuary" as used in the passage?

(1) Prison (2) Shelter (3) Desert (4) Chaos
31. Rewrite the following sentence to correct the subject-verb agreement error: "The wildlife
in the wilderness has adapted to survive harsh conditions."
(1) "The wildlife in the wilderness has adapted to survive harsh conditions."
(2) "The wildlife in the wilderness have adapted to survive harsh conditions."
(3) "The wildlife in the wilderness had adapted to survive harsh conditions."
(4) "The wildlife in the wilderness was adapted to survive harsh conditions."
32. Which sentence uses correct punctuation?

(1) "Hiking through the mountains I spotted a family of deer"
(2) "Hiking, through the mountains I spotted a family of deer."
(3) “Hiking through the mountains, I spotted a family of deer."
(4) "Hiking through the mountains, I spotted a family of deer."
33. Which sentence is correctly structured in the passive voice?

(1) "I explored the hidden trails deep in the forest."
(2) "The hidden trails deep in the forest I explored."
(3) "The hidden trails in the forest explored me deeply."
(4) "Explored by me, the hidden trails deep in the forest."
34. Which sentence contains a dangling modifier?

(1) "Running through the meadow, the trees appeared majestic."
(2) "The trees appeared majestic, running through the meadow."
(3) "Running through the meadow, I saw the majestic trees."
(4) "Running through the meadow, majestic trees caught my eye."
35. Which sentence correctly uses parallel structure?

(1) "To explore the wilderness, you need courage, patience, and to be prepared."
(2) "To explore the wilderness, you need courage, patience, and preparation."
(3) "To explore the wilderness, you need courage, patience, and preparedness."
(4) "To explore the wilderness, you need courage, patience, and prepare."
36. Choose the sentence with correct comma usage.

(1) "Hiking in the mountains I enjoyed the fresh air and stunning views."
(2) "Hiking in the mountains, I enjoyed the fresh air and stunning views."
(3) "Hiking in the mountains I enjoyed, the fresh air and stunning views."
(4) "Hiking, in the mountains, I enjoyed, the fresh air and stunning views."
37. Rewrite the following sentence to correct the run-on error: "The river flowed swiftly, it was
a breathtaking sight."
(1) "The river flowed swiftly, it was a breathtaking sight."
(2) "The river flowed swiftly, and it was a breathtaking sight."
(3) "The river flowed swiftly it was a breathtaking sight."
(4) "The river flowed swiftly, was a breathtaking sight."
38. Which sentence is correctly punctuated?

(1) "Before embarking on the journey, proper preparation is crucial."
(2) "Before embarking on the journey proper preparation is crucial."
(3) "Before embarking on the journey; proper preparation is crucial."
(4) "Before embarking on the journey, proper preparation, is crucial."
39. Rewrite the following sentence to correct the misplaced modifier: "Trekking through the
wilderness, the stunning views of the mountains took my breath away."
(1) "Trekking through the wilderness, my breath was taken away by the stunning views of
the mountains."
(2) "Trekking through the wilderness, I was taken away by the stunning views of the
mountains."
(3) "The stunning views of the mountains took my breath away trekking through the
wilderness."
(4) "Trekking through the wilderness, took my breath away the stunning views of the
mountains."

No. No. No.
1 2 2 1 3 2
4 3 5 4 6 2
7 1 8 2 9 3
10 3 11 1 12 2
13 2 14 4 15 2
16 1 17 2 18 4
19 3 20 2 21 2
22 2 23 3 24 2
25 2 26 1 27 1
28 1 29 1 30 4
31 1 32 3 33 4
34 1 35 3 36 2
37 2 38 1 39 2
Computer Basics
Practice Test
1. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
(1) System Unit. (2) CPU.
(3) Mainframe. (4) Platform.
2. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a
means by which users can interact with the computer.
(1) The Platform (2) The Operating System
(3) Application Software (4) The Motherboard
3. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of Nano Structures to build devices
on an extremely small scale.
(1) Nanotechnology (2) Micro-technology
(3) Computer forensics (4) Artificial intelligence
4. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a

(1) Network. (2) Mainframe. (3) Super Computer. (4) Client.
5. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:

(1) Application software. (2) System software.
(3) Operating system software. (4) Platform software.
6. Which one is not an examples of input devices:

(1) Scanner. (2) Mouse. (3) Keyboard. (4) Printer.
7. A string of eight 0's Or 1's is called a:

(1) Megabyte. (2) Byte. (3) Kilobyte. (4) Gigabyte.
8. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the
actual print of the picture is considered
(1) Data. (2) Output (3) Input. (4) Process
9. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an
example of a law enforcement specialty called:
(1) Robotics. (2) Simulation.
(3) Computer forensics (4) Animation.
10. The states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or
it must be null.
(1) Entity integrity rule (2) Referential integrity constraint
(3) Action assertion (4) Composite attribute
11. An applet
(1) Is an interpreted program that runs on the client
(2) Tracks the number of visitors to a Website
(3) Is a compiled program that usually runs on the client
(4) Collects data from visitors to a Website
12. A sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it
resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk other master boot record of a hard disk.
(1) System virus (2) Trojan horse virus (3) File virus (4) None of these
13. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

(1) Simply parity check (2) Check sum
(3) Two-dimensional parity check (4) CRC
14. A result of a computer virus can NOT lead to .

(1) Disk Crash (2) Mother Board Crash
(3) Corruption of program (4) Deletion of files
15. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model
(1) Transport (2) Network
(3) Data Link & Physical (4) All of these
16. Which of the following does NOT describe a data warehouse?

(1) Subject-oriented (2) Integrated
(3) Time-variant (4) Updateable
17. Which of the following is TRUE ?

(1) Logical design is software-dependent
(2) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location
(3) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model
(4) Logical design is software independent
18. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-

(1) HTTP (2) Browser (3) WWW (4) B2B
19. The software tools that enable a user to interact with a computer for specific purposes are
known as—
(1) Hardware (2) Networked Software (3) Shareware (4)Applications
20. A………shares hardware, software, and data among authorized users.

(1) network (2) protocol (3) hyperlink (4) transmitter
21. Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language; however, the
human readable version of a program is called—
(1) cache (2) instruction set (3) source code (4) word size
22. In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th
paragraph is—
(1) copy and paste (2) copy, cut and paste
(3) cut, copy and paste (4) cut and paste
23. Which of the following is not a function of the control unit ?

(1) Read instructions (2) Execute instructions
(3) Interpret instructions (4) Direct operations
24. Software for organizing storage and retrieval of information is a(n)—

(1) operating system (2) database
(3) database program (4) data warehouse
25. A set of step-by-step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a(n)—

(1) algorithm (2) hardware program
(3) software bug (4) firmware program
26. Which of the following is not true about RAM ?

(1) RAM is a temporary storage area
(2) RAM is the same as hard disk storage
(3) RAM is volatile
(4) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off
27. The main directory of a disk is called the………directory.

(1) root (2) sub (3) folder (4) network
28. The physical arrangement of elements on a page is referred to as a document’s……

(1) features (2) format (3) pagination (4) grid
29. =SUM (B1 : B8) is an example of a ______ in excel

(1) function (2) formula (3) cell address (4) value
30. Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only ?
(1) Floppy disk (2) Magnetic disk (3) Magnetic tape (4) Optical disk
31. Compilers and translators are one form of—

(1) ROM (2) RAM (3) Hard disk (4) Software
32. Data representation is based on the………number system, which uses two numbers to
represent all data.
(1) binary (2) biometric (3) bicentennial (4) byte
33. The most common input devices include—

(1) Monitor and keyboard (2) Monitor and mouse
(3) Mouse and keyboard (4) Printer and mouse
34. www means—

(1) world wide wonder (2) world wide wizard
(3) world wide web (4) wide world web
35. _______ processing is used when a large mail-order company accumulates orders and
processes them together in one large set.
(1) Batch (2) Online (3) Real-time (4) Group
36. What is the difference between a CD- ROM and a CD-RW ?

(1) They are the same—just two different terms used by different manufacturers
(2) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot
(3) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from
(4) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW
37. Holding the mouse button down while moving an object or text is known as—
(1) Moving (2) Dragging (3) Dropping (4) Highlighting
38. A………is a collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of records in a table.
(1) spreadsheet (2) presentation (3) database (4) web page
39. The………primarily take(s) care of the behind-the-scenes details and manage(s) the
hardware.
(1) operating system (2) application software
(3) peripheral devices (4) hard disk
40. A……is a professionally designed ‘empty’ document that can be adapted to the user’s
needs.
(1) file (2) guide (3) template (4) user guide file
41. A group of 8 bits is known as a ______

(1) Byte (2) Kilobyte (3) Binary digit (4) Megabit
42. The hardware device commonly referred to as the ‘brain’ of the computer is the—
(1) RAM chip (2) Data input (3) CPU (4) Secondary storage
43. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet called ?

(1) Column (2) Value (3) Address (4) Cell
44. __________ are often delivered to a PC through an e-mail attachment and are often
designed to do harm.
(1) Viruses (2) Spam (3) Portals (4) Email messages
45. What is the storage area for e-mail messages called ?

(1) A folder (2) A directory (3) A mailbox (4) The hard disk
46. A desktop computer is also known as a ___________

(1) Palm Pilot (2) PC (3) Laptop (4) Mainframe
47. When a file contains instructions that can be carried out by the computer, it is often called
a(n) ……file.
(1) data (2) information (3) executable (4) application
48. Documents converted to……can be published to the Web.

(1) a.doc file (2) http (3) machine language (4) HTML
49. If a user needs information instantly available to the CPU, it should be stored—
(1) on a CD (2) in secondary storage (3) in the CPU (4) in RAM
50. To what temporary area can you store text and other data, and later paste them to another
location ?
(1) The clipboard (2) ROM (3) CD-ROM (4) The hard disk
51. In a spreadsheet, a………is a number you will use in a calculation.

(1) label (2) cell (3) field (4) value
52. After slide-directed time, if you want to move ahead automatically, click in……check box
in transition of this slide group in tab of animations—
(1) Transition timer (2) Automatically opter
(3) Transition opter (4) Automatic timer
53. All are included in removable media except the following_________

(1) CD-ROMs (2) Diskette (3) DVDs (4) Hard disk drive
54. If you open some menu and then decide that you do not want to select some option, then
click the menu title again or press the…… key to layout the menu.
(1) shift (2) tab (3) escape (4) F1
55. Using the……process, it is easy to change the name of the file.

(1) transforming (2) crash (3) renaming (4) retagging
56. _____ view shows that how will content on printed page, along with footer and margin
header, appear.
(1) Draft (2) Full screen reading (3) Outline (4) Page layout
57. Using __________, the text can be entered and edited very efficiently.
(1) spreadsheet (2) typewriter
(3) word processing programme (4) desktop publishing programme
58. Other folders, named subfolders, can remain in the folders while creating hierarchical
structure ________
(1) Mini folder (2) Teard folder (3) Subfolders (4) Object
59. By using slide ____, the characteristics of the fonts of all the slides in presentation, can be
changed.
(1) theme (2) icon (3) master (4) style
60. Straight and Uniform margins on both the sides indicate that there is ____ in the
document.
(1) full justification (2) full alignment
(3) left justification (4) right justification
61. Among the typical computer programming languages used today, the following is not
included in ___________
(1) C++ (2) JAVA (3) Visual Basic.NET (4) Machine language
62. In table in excel, there are typical labels alongwith……

(1) Letters (2) Numbers (3) Names (4) Formulae
63. ________ makes available the commands to righten the software. Instructions are translated
step-by-step and executed by the processor so that some objective can be achieved or some
problem can be solved.
(1) Software patch (2) Al language
(3) Presentation language (4) Programming language
64. As you create documents, graphs and pictures your computer holds the data in—
(1) Restore file (2) Backup drive (3) Clip board (4) Memory
65. Which of the following terms is used for the form in which the word will appear on the
page ?
(1) Text formatting (2) Character formatting
(3) Point size (4) Type face
66. ________ helps to capture the raw data and enter into the computer system.
(1) CPU (2) Integrated circuit (3) Input device (4) Motherboard
67. The following are included in the world programme Title Bar, Ribbon, Status Bar,
Views, Document workspace.
(1) Window (2) Browser (3) Explorer (4) Website
68. Key combination that lets you toggle between open windows
(1) ALT+SHIFT+TAB (2) ALT+CTRL+TAB
(3) ALT+CTRL (4) ALT+TAB
69. When more than one window is open, to switch to the next window _______ is the
key combination
(1) CTRL+F5 (2) CTRL+F6 (3) CTRL+F7 (4) CTRL+F8
70. To select or unselect one word to the right

(1) CTRL+SHIFT (2) CTRL+SHIFT+Down Arrow
(3) CTRL+SHIFT+Right Arrow (4) None of the above
71. To maximize or restore a selected window

(1) CTRL+F7 (2) CTRL+F10 (3) CTRL+F8 (4) CTRL+F9
72. To Copy a picture of the selected window to the clipboard

(1) ALT+TAB (2) ALT+Print Screen
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above
73. _______ is the key to close a selected drop- down list; cancel a comm-and and close a
dialog box
(1) TAB (2) SHIFT (3) ESC (4) None of the above
74. ___________ is the key we use to run the selected command

(1) SHIFT (2) TAB (3) ENTER (4) CTRL
75. _______ is the functional key to display save as box

(1) F5 (2) F6 (3) F9 (4) F12
76. _______ is the combination of keys to switch between the last four places that you have
edited
(1) ALT+CTRL+Z (2) ALT+CTRL+Y
(3) ALT+TAB+Z (4) ALT+SHIFT+Z
77. To delete one word to the right

(1) CTRL+SHIFT (2) CTRL+TAB (3) CTRL+DEL (4) CTRL+Z
78. _______ is the combination of keys we use to hide rows

(1) CTRL+9 (2) CTRL+8 (3) CTRL+7 (4) CTRL+6
79. To hide the columns ________ is the functional key

(1) CTRL+3 (2) CTRL+2 (3) CTRL+1 (4) CTRL+0
80. _________ is the shortcut key to delete cells, rows or columns

(1) CTRL+ Minus Sign (2) CTRL+ Plus Sign
(3) CTRL+ Star Sign (4) CTRL+ Greater than Sign
81. To insert cells, rows or columns, the keyboard shortcut key is _________
(1) CTRL+ Minus Sign (2) CTRL+SHIFT+ Plus Sign
(3) CTRL+ Star Sign (4) CTRL+ Greater than Sign
82. _________ is the keyboard shortcut key to insert auto sum

(1) ALT (2) ALT= (3) ALT+ (4) ALT-
83. _________ is the shortcut key to move to the next worksheet

(1) CTRL+Pagedown (2) CTRL+Pageup
(3) CTRL+Right arrow (4) CTRL+Left arrow
84. _______ is the shortcut key to move to the previous worksheet

(1) CTRL+Pagedown (2) CTRL+Pageup
(3) CTRL+Right arrow (4) CTRL+Left arrow
85. _________ key is used to select row

(1) SHIFT+TAB (2) SHIFT+ Spacebar
(3) CTRL+ Spacebar (4) SHIFT+ Enter
86. _______ key is used to select column

(1) SHIFT+TAB (2) SHIFT+ Spacebar
(3) CTRL+ Spacebar (4) SHIFT+ Enter
87. ________ is the key to exit from excel

(1) ALT+F2 (2) ALT+F3 (3) ALT+F4 (4) ALT+F5
88. A device, which is not connected to CPU, is called as ---

(1) On-line device (2) Off-line device
(3) Device (4) None of the above
89. What is the other name for programmed chip?

(1) RAM (2) ROM (3) LSIC (4) None of the above
90. On-line real time systems become popular in ______________ generation

(1) First Generation (2) Second Generation
(3) Third Generation (4) Fourth Generation
91. RAM is an example of

(1) Secondary memory (2) Primary memory
92. Magnetic disk is an example of

(1) Secondary memory (2) Primary memory
93. Each memory cell has a unique number, assigned to it is called as the _____ of the
cell
(1) Address (2) Register (3) Number (4) None of the above
94. RAM is also called as

(1) Read/Write Memory (2) Long Memory
(3) Permanent Memory (4) None of the above
95. The secondary storage memory is also called as

(1) Auxiliary Memory (2) Attractive Memory
(3) Chip Memory (4) None of the above
96. In a network, the computer that stores the files and process the data is named as
(1) Server (2) Terminal (3) Modem (4) All of the above
97. Viruses are called that because

(1) They are viruses (2) They can copy themselves and spread
98. Which of the can't spread virus

(1) An e-mail with attachment (2) A plain text mail
(3) Downloading files over the web (4) None of the above
99. There is a new anti-virus software update available, when it is downloaded to your
computer
(1) Everyday (2) Only in the night
(3) When you next switch on your computer (4) All of the above
100. Numbers are stored and transmitted inside a computer in

(1) Binary form (2) ASCII code form
(3) Alphabets form (4) Numerical form
Q. no Ans Q. no Ans Q. no Ans Q. no Ans Q. no Ans

1 1 2 2 3 1 4 1 5 1
6 4 7 2 8 2 9 3 10 1
11 2 12 4 13 2 14 2 15 4
16 4 17 1 18 1 19 4 20 1
21 3 22 4 23 4 24 3 25 1
26 2 27 1 28 2 29 2 30 2
31 4 32 1 33 3 34 3 35 1
36 3 37 2 38 3 39 1 40 3
41 1 42 3 43 4 44 1 45 3
46 2 47 3 48 4 49 2 50 1
51 4 52 2 53 4 54 3 55 3
56 4 57 4 58 3 59 2 60 1
61 4 62 2 63 3 64 4 65 1
66 3 67 1 68 1 69 2 70 3
71 2 72 2 73 3 74 3 75 4
76 1 77 3 78 1 79 4 80 1
81 2 82 2 83 1 84 2 85 2
86 3 87 3 88 2 89 2 90 3
91 2 92 1 93 1 94 1 95 1
96 1 97 2 98 2 99 3 100 2
General Knowledge and Awareness

1) Which Union Ministry launched the ‘National Action Plan to Combat Desertification and
Land Degradation Through Forestry Interventions’?
1) Ministry of Power
2) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
3) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
4 Ministry of Coal
2) World Bank approved 100 million USD loan for implementation of State Capability and
Resilient Growth Program of which state?
1) Odisha 2) Kerala 3) Goa 4) Gujarat
3) Lumpy Skin Disease’ causes high fever in which type of species?

1) Cattle 2) Poultry 3) Fish 4) Human Beings
4) What is the primary objective of the ‘Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity
and Equality’ launched by India at the World Economic Forum?
1) Educational Innovation
2) Women’s Empowerment and Gender Equality
3) Environmental Sustainability
4) Economic development
5) Which state government has recently launched ‘Road Safety Force’ to prevent road
accidents?
1) Punjab 2) Haryana 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Rajasthan
6) Dr. Radhakrishnan Committee, recently seen in the news, is related to which one of the
following reforms?
1) Agricultural Reforms 2) Tax Reforms
3) Educational Reforms 4) Banking Reforms
7) Poshan Utsav, recently seen in the news, is organized by which ministry?

1) Ministry of Agriculture
2) Ministry of Rural Development
3) Ministry of Women and Child Development
4) Ministry of Defence
8) Which institution introduced the ‘AI/ML-based Finger Minutiae Record – Finger Image
Record (FMR-FIR)’?
1) RBI 2) UIDAI 3) NITI Aayog 4) Ministry of Finance
9) Protean EGov Technologies has partnered with which firm, to make credit services more
accessible and affordable nationwide using ONDC?
1) PayNearby 2) Google 3) Paytm 4) PhonePe
10) One Week One Lab programme is organised by which institution in India?
1) CSIR 2) ISRO 3) DRDO 4) BARC
11) Which country hosted the 2024 Summer Olympics?

1) Japan 2) United States 3) France 4) Brazil
12) Who won the Wimbledon Men's Singles title in 2023?

1) Roger Federer 2) Rafael Nadal 3) Novak Djokovic 4) Andy Murray
13) Who won the 2023 ICC Men's Cricket World Cup?
1) Australia 2) India 3) England 4) New Zealand
14) Which country hosted the 2023 Rugby World Cup?

1) South Africa 2) New Zealand 3) Australia 4) France
15) Who is the current FIFA Women's World Cup champion as of 2024?
1) United States 2) Germany 3) Japan 4) Norway
16)Who won the Formula 1 World Championship in 2023?

1) Lewis Hamilton 2) Max Verstappen 3) Sebastian Vettel 4) Fernando Alonso
17) Which sport is often referred to as "The Beautiful Game"?

1) Basketball 2) Soccer 3) Baseball 4) Tennis
18) In which sport are the terms "birdie" and "eagle" commonly used?
1) Golf 2) Swimming 3) Cricket 4) Rugby
19) What is the primary objective in basketball?

1) Score goals 2) Score touchdowns 3) Score runs 4) Score baskets
20) How many players are there in a standard baseball team on the field?
1) 9 2) 11 3) 7 4) 5
21) Which of the following sports is played with a racket and shuttlecock?
1) Badminton 2) Table tennis 3) Volleyball 4) Squash
22) Which sport involves throwing a heavy metal ball as far as possible?
1) Javelin throw 2) Shot put 3) Discus throw 4) Hammer throw
23) In which sport are terms like "touchdown" and "field goal" used?
1) American football 2) Soccer 3) Ice hockey 4) Tennis
24) What is the primary objective in volleyball?

1) Score touchdowns 2) Score goals
3) Score runs 4) Score points by hitting the ball over the net
25) Which country’s researchers have taken pictures of ‘Upward Lightning’ phenomenon?
1) India 2) USA 3) Israel 4) Brazil
26) ‘Proba-3 Mission’, which will be launched aboard ISRO’s PSLV, is associated with which
space agency?
1) NASA 2) ESA 3) JAXA 4) CNSA
27) Indian Institute of Petroleum, a CSIR lab, is located in which state/UT?

1) West Bengal 2) Uttarakhand 3) Gujarat 4) Maharashtra
28) Who among the following has a right to attend the Lok Sabha session though he is not a
member?
1) Chief Justice 2) Auditor General 3) Vice President 4) Attorney General
29)What is the scientific name of human?

1) Rana Tigrina 2) Homosepian 3) Felis Catus 4) Rattus
30) Which one of the following is the deepest river of the india
1) Ganga 2) Brahmaputra 3) Yamuna 4) None of these
31)What is the State Song of Maharashtra?

1) Maharashtra Devabhumi Matribhumi
2) Sana Leibak Maharashtra
3) Jai Jai Maharashtra Maza
4) Bande Utkala Janani
32)Who was the first Prime Minister of Bombay before Independence?

1) Balasaheb Gangadhar Kher
2) Morarji Ranchhodji Desai
3) Yashwantrao Balwantrao Chavan
4) Marotrao Shambshio Kannamwar
33) The coastal areas of which of the following oceans is called “Ring of Fire”?
1) Atlantic ocean 2) Pacific ocean 3) Indian ocean 4) Arctic ocean
34) Which country won the 2024 ICC Under-19 World Cup?
1) Australia 2) India 3) South Africa 4) New Zealand
35) Which one of the following discipline is not awarded by noble prize?
1) Literature 2) Economics 3) Physics 4) Computer Science
36) When was G20 established?

1) 1995 2) 1999 3) 1985 4) 2000
37)The interest rate policy is a component of

1) Monetary policy 2) Direct control 3) Trade policy 4) None of these
38) What is the name of the lander of Chandrayaan 3?

1) Pragyaan 2) Vikram 3) Ritu 4) Dhruv
39) Geet Govind is a famous creation of ……

1) Bana Bhatt 2) Kalidas 3) Jayadev 4) Bharat Muni
40) Who among the following can remove the governor of a state from office?
1) Legislative Assembly 2) Parliament 3) President 4) Supreme Court
41) Which category will be affected by NEP 2023?

1) Only teachers
2) Only students pursuing UG and Higher Education
3) Both teachers and students pursuing UG and Higher Education
4) Only students pursuing PG courses
42) How many members are there in Padma Vibhushan winners 2024
1) 5 2)7 3)10 4)21
43) The Raman Effect is concerned with the:

1) Reflection of light 2) Refraction of light
3) Scattering of light 4) Absorption of light
44) Where was the first summit of G20 held?

1) USA 2) Britain 3) Canada 4) France
45)Which Indian cricketer scored the fastest century in the ODI World Cup, in 62 balls?
1) Rohit Sharma 2)Virat Kohli 3)K.L. Rahul 4) Ravindra Jadeja
46)Match the Following

Name Place
1)ICAR-National Research Centre for Grapes a)Bhubaneswar
2)ICAR-Central Institute of Cotton Research b)Bhopal
3)ICAR- Indian Institute of Water Management c)Pune
4) ICAR-Central Institute of Agricultural Engineering d)Nagpur
1) 1-a ,2-b,3-c,4-d 2) 1-d, 2-b,3-c,4-a

3) 1-c, 2-d,3-a,4-b 4) 1-c, 2-b,3-a,4-d
47) Who wrote the National Anthem?

1) Rabindranath Tagore 2) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
3) Jawaharlal Nehru 4)Bhagat Singh
48) Who was the first chairman of air india

1) JRD Tata 2) Partap Singh kairon 3) Jawaharlal Nehru 4)None of these
49) Which organ of UNO is considered as world parliament?

1) General Assembly 2) Security Council
3) International Court of Justice 4)None of these
50) The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was
1) Nargis Dutt 2)Shabana Azmi 3) Madhubala 4) Meena Kumari
51)The SENSEX is also known as

1 )BSE 10 2) BSE 30 3)NSE 10 4)NSE 30
52) Who is the India’s first woman President?

1)Sonia Gandhi 2)Droupadi Murmu 3)Pratibha Patil 4)None of these
53) Who among the following can remove the governor of a state from office?
1) Legislative Assembly 2) Parliament 3) President 4) Supreme Court
54) The World Consumer Day was observed on

1) March 11, 1983 2) Jan 15, 1983 3) March 15, 1981 4) March 15, 1983
55) The Nobel Prize in Literature is awarded annually in which city?

1) Stockholm 2) Oslo 3) Geneva 4) Paris
56) The first electric railway was opened

1) 1925 2)1878 3)1990 4)1880
57) The first women to climb Mount Everest Everest was

1) Karoline Mikkelson 2) Junko Taibei
3) Valentina Tereshkova 4)None of the above
58) Where is the Headquarters of International monetary Fund located?

1) Geneva 2) Washington 3) London 4) Paris
59) What is the meaning of G20?

1) Grand 20 nations 2) Great 20 countries
3) Group of 20 4) None of the above
60) Which cricketer scored the fastest ODI World Cup hundred in 40 balls?
1) Virat Kohli 2) Rohit Sharma
3) Glenn Maxwell 4) David Warner
61)How many Padma Awards 2024 were given in 2024?

1) 100 2)123 3) 132 4)133
62) Who is the Current the Chief Justice of India

1) Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud 2) Uday Umesh Lalit
3)Ranjan Gogoi 4) Yogesh Kumar Sabharwal
63)Where did the national tribal dance fest Tribal fest 2023 take place?
1) Jamshedpur,Jharkhand. 2) Cuttack, Odisha
3) Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh 4) Raipur, Chattisgarh
64) Which of the following is not a state tax?

1) Profession Tax 2) Sales Tax 3) Wealth Tax 4)Land Tax
65) What are the three categories of Padma awards?

1) Padma Vibhushan 2) Padma Bhushan 3) Padma Shri 4)All of these
66) One rupee notes and coins are issued by the

1) Finance Ministry 2) Reserve Bank of India
3) Commerce Ministry 4) Nationalised Banks
67)Nisha Dahia, who was seen in the news, plays which sports?
1)Cricket 2)Hockey 3)Wrestling 4)Hockey
68)The term Balance of payments refer to

1) Difference between imports and exports
2) Difference between assets and liabilities
3) Difference between internal trade and external trade
4) Difference between internal debt and external debt
69) Who composed the song Vande Mataram?

1) Rabindranath Tagore 2) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
3) Alluri Sitaram Raju 4) Baba Ramchandra
70) Who was the first woman to receive a Nobel Prize?

1) Mother Teresa 2) Marie Curie 3) Margaret Thatcher 4) Rosa Parks
71) What type of energy is stored in a rechargeable battery?

1) Mechanical 2) Chemical 3) Nuclear 4) Electrical
72 Which communication technology allows information to be transmitted wirelessly over

short distances?
1) Bluetooth 2) Microwave 3) Fiber optic 4) Satellite
73) Which city is the host of the world’s first Women’s Kabaddi League?
1) Chennai 2) Dubai 3) Pune 4) Dhaka
74) Who was the first non Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna?
1) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan 2) Nelson Mandela
3) Mother Teresa 4) Dalai Lama
75) The major immediate source of energy for humans is

1) Carbohydrates 2) Fats 3) Proteins 4) Vitamins
76) The most active stock exchange of India is at

1) New Delhi 2) Mumbai 3) Chennai 4) Kolkata
77) What is the name of the telescope recently launched to study early galaxies?
1) James Webb Space Telescope 2) Hubble Space Telescope
3) Kepler Space Telescope 4) Spitzer Space Telescope
78) Kalachakra ceremony is associated with which religion?

1)Buddhism 2)Jainism 3)Islam 4)Hinduism
79)Who is known as the Rocket Women of Chandrayaan 3?

1) Ritu Karidhal 2) Kalpana Kalahasti 3) Nandini Harinath 4) Tessy Thomas
80) What is the primary objective of Chandrayaan 3?

1) Search for the possibility of human settlement on the moon
2) To study the moon’s atmosphere and temperature
3) To look for water residues on the moon's surface
4) To make a soft landing on the south pole region of the moon
81) How long will the UG degree program last according to NEP 2023?
1) 2 years 2) 3 years 3) 4 years 4) 5 years
82)FIFA World Cup 2026 will be hosted by which one of the following countries?
1) Canada, Mexico, and the United States 3) Italy and France
2) Spain and Russia 4) Africa, Europe and South America
83) Which of the following cities is organizing the recent G20 summit going to be held in
2023?
1) Brisbane 2) Osaka 3) Antalya 4) India
84) What is the theme of the G20 summit happening in India?

1) Shaping an Interconnected World 2) Fighting poverty with rigidity
3) "One Earth-One Family-One Future". 4) Making the world together
85)Who has got the Padma Shri awards 2024 in Sport?

1) Shri Uday Vishwanath Deshpande 2) Ms. Prema Dhanraj
3) Shri Manohar Krishana Dole 4)None
86) Biotic environment includes -

1) Producers 2)Consumers 3) Decomposers 4) All of the above
87) Vermicomposting is done by –

1) Fungus 2) Bacteria 3) Worms 4) Animals
88) Who is known as the Father of Indian Space Program?

1) Vikrama Sarabhai 2) SatishDhawan 3) APJ Kalam 4) CV Raman
89) Who is known as the architect of PARAM series super computers?

1) Vijay P Bhatkar 2) S Ramani 3) SP Mudur 4) None of the above
90) Which one is the first IIT established in India

1) IIT Kharagpur 2) IIT Mumbai 3) IIT Chennai 4) IIT Kanpur
91) Which day is celebrated as National Mathematics Day in India as a respect to S

Ramanujan
1)17 January 2) 13 March 3) 30 August 4) 22 December
92) Indian-American scientist HarGobind Khorana won the Nobel Prize for his
contribution in
1) Physics 2) Chemistry 3) Genetics 4) Mathematics
93) Who is founder of Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore?

1) Sir A.G. Bourne 2) CV Raman 3) Vikram Sarabhai 4) Jamsetji Tata
94) Who is the president of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
1) President of India 2) Vice-President of India
3) Prime Minister of India 4) Union Minister of Science and Technology
95) India's first mission to Moon Chandrayaan-1 was launched from the site
1) Wheeler Island 2) Balasore 3) Sriharikota 4) None of the above
96) Which one is India's First Indigenous Satellite Launch Vehicle

1) PSLV 2) ASLV 3) GSLV 4) SLV-3
97 Who was the first chairman of Indian Space Research Organisation(ISRO)

1) K Kasturirangan 2) Vikram Sarabhai 3) SatishDhawan 4) Homi J Bhabha
98) Who is known as the father of indian nuclear programme

1) APJ Abdul Kalam 2) Raja Ramanna 3) Homi J Bhabha 4) Vikram Sarabhai
99) Which scientist formulated 'The Theory of Evolution'

1) Charles Darwin 2) Isaac Newton 3) Aristotle 4) Alexander Fleming
100) When the Nobel prizes were first awarded

1)1900 2)1901 3) 1907 4) 1896
Que. Ans Que. Ans Que. Ans Que. Ans Que. Ans.
1 3 21 1 41 3 61 3 81 3
2 1 22 2 42 1 62 1 82 1
3 1 23 1 43 3 63 1 83 4
4 2 24 4 44 1 64 3 84 3
5 1 25 4 45 3 65 4 85 1
6 3 26 2 46 3 66 1 86 4
7 3 27 2 47 1 67 3 87 3
8 2 28 4 48 1 68 1 88 1
9 1 29 2 49 1 69 2 89 4
10 1 30 2 50 1 70 2 90 1
11 3 31 3 51 2 71 2 91 4
12 3 32 1 52 3 72 1 92 3
13 4 33 2 53 3 73 2 93 4
14 4 34 1 54 4 74 1 94 3
15 1 35 2 55 1 75 1 95 3
16 2 36 2 56 1 76 2 96 4
17 2 37 1 57 2 77 1 97 2
18 1 38 2 58 2 78 1 98 3
19 4 39 3 59 3 79 1 99 1
20 1 40 3 60 3 80 4 100 2
Visual Reasoning
1) Find the next figure which will continue the pattern
Problem figures:
Answer figures:
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

Problem figures;
Answer figures;
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 5

Problem figures
Answer figures
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4

Problem Figures
Answer figures
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Problem figures
Answer figures
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 1 (4) 2

Problem Figures
Answer Figures
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 1

Problem figures
Answer Figures
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 1

Problem Figures
Answer Figures
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

Problem Figure
Answer figure
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
Problem Figure
Answer figure
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
Problem Figure
Answer figure
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 2

No. No. No.
1 2 2 2 3 1
4 2 5 1 6 1
7 3 8 4 9 1
10 2 11 1
Arithmetic Reasoning
Arithmetic Reasoning is the ability to understand and solve mathematical problems using basic
arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division. This skill
involves the application of logic, critical thinking, and problem-solving techniques to perform
calculations and analyze numerical relationships.
Basic formulas
Arithmetic reasoning often involves using basic formulas to solve problems. Here's a list of
some common arithmetic formulas that can be helpful:
1. Addition: a + b = c
2. Subtraction: a - b = c
3. Multiplication: a * b = c
4. Division: a / b = c
5. Average: (a + b + c + ... + n) / n
6. Percentage: (part/whole) * 100
7. Ratio: a: b
8. Proportion: a / b = c / d
9. Distance: Speed * Time
10. Speed: Distance / Time
11. Time: Distance / Speed
12. Simple Interest: I = P * R * T / 100 (where I = interest, P = principal, R = rate, and T =
time)
13. Compound Interest: A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)
(where A = amount, P = principal, r = annual interest rate, n = number of times interest
is compounded per year, and t = time in years)
14. Profit or Loss: Profit = Selling Price - Cost Price (Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price)
15. Percent Increase or Decrease: (New Value - Old Value) / Old Value * 100
16. Fractions:
o Addition: a/b + c/d = (ad + bc) / bd
o Subtraction: a/b - c/d = (ad - bc) / bd
o Multiplication: (a/b) * (c/d) = (a * c) / (b * d)
o Division: (a/b) ÷ (c/d) = (a * d) / (b * c)
17. Decimal to Fraction: To convert a decimal to a fraction, write the decimal as the
numerator and the denominator as a power of 10 based on the number of decimal places.
Then, simplify the fraction.
18. Fraction to Decimal: Divide the numerator by the denominator.
19. Fraction to Percentage: (Fraction) * 100
20. Percentage to Fraction: (Percentage) / 100
21. Percentage to Decimal: (Percentage) / 100
22. Decimal to Percentage: (Decimal) * 100
23. Weighted Average: (w1 * x1 + w2 * x2 + ... + wn * xn) / (w1 + w2 + ... + wn)
24. Least Common Multiple (LCM): The smallest multiple that is exactly divisible by each
of the numbers.
25. Greatest Common Divisor (GCD): The largest number that divides two or more
numbers without leaving a remainder.
26. Prime Numbers: A number greater than 1 that has only two factors: 1 and itself.
27. Factors: The numbers that can be multiplied together to get the original number.
28. Square of a Number: a² = a * a
29. Cube of a Number: a³ = a * a * a
30. Square Root: √a is the number that, when multiplied by itself, equals a.
31. Cube Root: ∛a is the number that, when multiplied by itself three times, equals a.
32. Permutations: nPr = n! / (n - r)!, where n is the total number of elements and r is the
number of elements chosen.
33. Combinations: nCr = n! / [r!(n - r)!], where n is the total number of elements and r is
the number of elements chosen.
Arithmetic Reasoning Tips and Tricks

Solving arithmetic reasoning questions can be made easier by following a step-by-step
approach. Here are some arithmetic reasoning tricks and tips to help you tackle these problems
more effectively:
1. Read the question carefully: Make sure you thoroughly understand the problem
statement of the arithmetic reasoning question and identify the information given, as
well as what you need to find out.
2. Break down the problem: Simplify complex arithmetic problems by breaking them into
smaller, more manageable parts. Identify the underlying concepts and relationships
between the given data.
3. Choose the right formula or method: Based on the information and relationships
identified, select the appropriate arithmetic formula or method to solve the problem.
4. Organize the data: Arrange the given data and any additional information you've
deduced in a structured way. This can be in the form of a table, diagram, or equation.
5. Perform calculations: Apply the chosen arithmetic formula or method and carry out the
necessary calculations. Keep track of units, if applicable, and ensure the accuracy of
your calculations.
6. Check your work: Verify the accuracy of your calculations and ensure that your answer
makes logical sense in the context of the problem. If necessary, retrace your steps and
identify any errors.
7. Simplify the answer: If required, simplify your answer by expressing it in the most
appropriate format, such as a fraction, decimal, or percentage.
8. Review the question: Go back to the problem statement and ensure your answer
addresses what was asked. If the question has multiple parts, make sure you've
addressed all aspects.
Number Series Reasoning
What is Missing Number Reasoning?

Missing number reasoning involves questions where candidates need to find a missing
number in a given series. Important topics that come under missing number reasoning
are Puzzle, Series, Analogy, Order and Ranking and so on.
Types of Missing Number Reasoning

Let us see the various types of questions that may come in the Missing Number Reasoning
section one by one from below.
1. Reasoning Analogy
Analogy is a topic of Logical Reasoning where the two things are compared and
conclusions are drawn based on their similarities. A question consists of words related
to each other based on some logic will be given, and candidates will need to find a word
or paid words analogous to those given in the question.
2. Reasoning Puzzle
Puzzle reasoning is all about analyzing the given data, arranging them in given order,
and marking the correct answer. This section requires candidates to analyze the given
piece of information, pick the information that is important, and leave out the
information that is not required in solving the given set of questions.
3. Number Series
Number Series refers to a sequence of numbers following some pattern. Candidates
need to find the missing or wrong number in the provided series. There may be some
questions where one of the terms in the given series will be incorrect, and candidates
need to find out that term of the series by identifying the pattern involved in the
formation of the series.
4. Order & Ranking
Order and Ranking broadly deals with the problems related to the arrangement of
persons or objects in ascending or descending order based on different parameters like
height, weight, merit, position, and so on. Determining the position of a person or object
in a row or queue and the problems related to the time sequence test, wherein candidates
need to find out a particular day based on the given conditions.
How to Solve Question Based on Missing Number Reasoning – Know all Tips and Tricks
Candidates can find various tips and tricks from below for solving the questions related to the
Missing Number Reasoning section.
Tip # 1: Many students face difficulties in solving missing number problems because they
don’t understand the question’s sequence properly. So try to figure out the sequence properly
to draw the correct answer.
Tip # 2: Candidates can learn how to solve missing number problems with different equations
and examples. Try to solve these missing number problems and increase the mental ability
along with the confidence.
Tip # 3: Practice mock tests and quizzes as much as possible to get well versed with all the
topics and their question patterns to score well in the missing number reasoning section.
Question 1: 67 : 76 :: 42: ? Question 5: 8, 64, 216, ?, 1000

Solution: 67 + 9 = 76 Solution: The solution of the series is as
Similarly, 42 + 9 = 51, follows.
Hence, 51 will replace the question mark. 2^3=8
4 ^ 3 = 64
Question 2: 71 : 42 :: 98 : ? 6 ^ 3 = 216
Solution: 71 – 29 = 42 8 ^ 3 = 512
Similar, 98 – 29 = 69 10 ^ 3 = 1000
Hence, 69 will replace the question mark. Hence, the correct answer is 512.
Question 3: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ?, 51 Question 6: 2, 29, 4, 25, 6, ?, 8, 17

Solution: The solution of the series is as Solution: The solution of the series is as
follows. follows.
3+3=6 2+2=4
6 + 5 = 11 4+2=6
11 + 7 = 18 6+2 =8
18 + 9 = 27 Similarly,
27 +11 = 38 29 – 4 = 25
38 + 13 = 51 25 – 4 = 21
Hence, the correct answer is 38. 21 – 4 = 17
Hence, the correct answer is 21.
Question 4: 49, 121, 169, ?, 361
Solution: The solution of the series is as
follows. Question 7: 5, 7, 21, 55, ?, 215
7^ 2 = 49 Solution:
11^ 2 = 121 5 + ( 2 ^ 2 – 2) = 7
13 ^ 2 = 169 7 + ( 4 ^ 2 – 2) = 21
17 ^ 2 = 289 21 + ( 6 ^ 2 – 2) = 55
19 ^ 2 = 361 55 + ( 8 ^ 2 – 2) = 117
Hence, the correct answer is 289. 117 + ( 10 ^ 2 – 2) = 215
Hence, the correct answer is 117.
Practice Test :
1. In the following series, choose the number that can replace the question mark (?).
1, 2, 8, 33, 148, ?
A. 265 B. 465 C. 565 D. 765
4, 6, 11, 24, 51, 130, ?
A. 289 B. 241 C. 277 D. 298
1, 2, 3, 8, 15, ?, 105, 384
A. 54 B. 68 C. 72 D. 48
4. Select the missing number from the given series in the following question.
67, 46, 24, 1, –23, ?
A. –48 B. –38 C. –46 D. –50
242, 288, ?, 392, 450
A. 338 B. 375 C. 316 D. 324
189, 532, 316, ?, 377
A. 384 B. 291 C. 441 D. 405
7. Choose the alternatives that best replace the question mark (?) in the given figure.
A.13 B. 15 C. 17 D.19
8. Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given figure.
A.48 B.52 C.55 D.58
9. Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given figure.
A.639 B.542 C.529 D.641
10. Which one will replace the question mark (?)
A.30 B.32 C.34 D.36

Answers:
1 D 2 A 3 D 4 A 5 A
6 C 7 B 8 D 9 C 10 B
Average
Definition
The average is defined as the mean value which is equal to the ratio of the sum of the number
of a given set of values to the total number of values present in the set.
Average Formulas:
The formula to find the average of given numbers or values is very easy. We just have to add
all the numbers and then divide the result by the number of values given. Hence, the average
formula in Maths is given as follows:
𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒𝑠
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 =
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒𝑠
Quick Tips and Tricks:
1) Average of n natural numbers = (n + 1) / 2

2) Average of even numbers = (n + 1)
3) If value of each term increases/decreases by x, then the average of the group also
increases/decreases by a.
4) If we know average of two groups individually, then the average of combined group
cannot be determined.
5) In Arithmetic Progression, if number of terms are
i) Odd – Average is the middle term.
ii) Even – Average is the average of two middle terms.
6) Numericals on Age:
i) When new member is added in the group/family.
Case A: If average age increases

Age of new member added = Given previous average + ( Increase in
average after new member is added x Total members including new
member)
Case B: If average age decreases

Age of new member added = Given previous average - ( Decrease in
member)
ii) If a person is replaced by another person in a group
Case A: If average age is increased, then

Age of new member = Age of separated member + (Increase in average
after new member is added x Total members including new member)
Case B: If average age is decreased, then

Age of new member added = Age of separated member – (Decrease in
member)
Average Questions and Solutions

Type 1: Average of Numbers
Examples:
Q 1. Find the average of all numbers between 5 and 49 which are divisible by 5.
a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35
Correct Option: (b)
The numbers divisible by 5 are: 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45.
Sum of Quantities (5 + 10 + 15 + 20 + 25 + 30 + 35 + 40 + 45) 225
Average = = = = 25
Number of Quantities 9 9
Q 2. The average of 11 numbers is 30. If the average of first six numbers is 17.5 and that of last six
is 42.5, then what is the sixth number?
a. 30 b. 36 c. 45 d. 47
Correct Option : (a)
Given: Average of 11 numbers = 30
Step 1: Calculate total of 11 numbers by multiplying it by average value 30 = 11 x 30 = 330

Step 2: Calculate total of first six members by multiplying it by average value 17.5 = 17.5 x 6 = 105
Step 3: Calculate total of last six members by multiplying it by average value 42.5 = 42.5 x 6 = 255
Therefore, we can find sixth number by adding value of first six and last six numbers and subtracting it
from
the total value of 11 numbers.
Sixth number =(105 + 255)- 330 = 30
Q 3. The average of 15 numbers is 15. If the average of first five numbers is 14 and that of other 9
numbers is 16, then find the middle number.
a. 12 b. 11 c. 10 d. 9
Correct Option: (b)
Given: Average of 15 numbers = 15, Average of 5 numbers = 14, Average of 9 numbers = 16

Total Numbers
Average =
No. of Numbers
Total Numbers
15 =
15
Therefore, total numbers = 15 x 15 = 225
Middle number = (Total numbers) – [(Average of 5 num x no of num) + ( Average of 9 num x no of

num)]
= (225) – [(14 x 5) + (16 x 9)]
= (225) – [214]
= 11
Therefore, the middle number is 11
Q 4. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. Find the largest of these numbers.
a. 28 b. 30 c. 32 d. 34
Correct Option: (b)
Consider the consecutive even numbers as : x, (x + 2), (x + 4) and (x+ 6)

Sum of Quantities
Average =
Number of Quantities
x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) (4x + 12)
= = = 27
4 4
Simplifying we get, x = 24
Therefore, Largest number = (x + 6) = (24 + 6) = 30
Smallest number = 24
Type 2: Average of weight / age / marks of two or more groups / classes.

Examples:
Q 5. There are two batches A and B of a class. Batch A consists of 36 students and batch B consists
of
44 students. Find the average weight of whole class, if average weight of batch A is 40 kg and that
of
batch B is 35 kg.
a. 29.23 kg b. 32.56 kg c. 35.66 kg d. 37.25 kg
Correct Option : (d)
Given: Average weight of batch A = 40 kg , average weight of batch B = 35 kg

1) First find the total weight of all students
- Weight of batch A = (36 x 40) = 1440
- Weight of batch B = (44 x 35) = 1540
Total weight of all students = (1440 + 1540) = 2980 kg
2) Find average weight of whole class

(Batch A + Batch B) students = (36 + 44) = 80 students
Total weight of all the students 2980
Average Weight = = = 37.25 kg
No. of Students 80
Q 6. In a school, average marks of three batches of 40, 50 and 60 students respectively is 45, 55 and
70. Find the average marks of all the students.
a. 54.78 b. 55.23 c. 50.36 d. 58.33
Correct Option: (d)
We know,
Sum of Quantities
Average =
Here,
Number of quantities = Number of students in each batch
As average marks of students are given, calculate total marks of each batch first. So total marks for
Batch 1 = (40 x 45) = 1800
Batch 2 = (50 x 55) = 2750
Batch 3 = (60 x 70) = 4200
Sum of marks = (1800 + 2750 + 4200) = 8750
Therefore,
(Sum of Works) (8750)
Required Average = = = 58.33
(Total No. of Students in each batch) (40 + 50 + 60)
Type 3: Change in average when one entry is added/replaced.
Examples:
Q 7. The average age of a class of 29 students is 20 years. If the age of teacher is included, then the
average increases by 3 months. Find the age of the teacher.
a. 25. 2 years b. 27.5 years c. 29 years d. 31.5 years
Correct Option: (b)
Sum of Quantities
Average =
1) First calculate total age of 40 students

Total age of 29 students = ( Average age x No. of students)
= (20 x 29) = 580 years
81
2) Average age of 29 students + 1 teacher = 20 years + 3 months = years
4
81
3) Finally, total age of 29 students + 1 teacher = x 30 = 607.5 years
4
Therefore, age of teacher = (Total age of 30 members - Total age of 29 students) = (607.5 – 580) = 27.5
years
Q 8. 2 years ago, the average age of a family of 5 members was 16 years. After a baby is born, the
average age of family is the same today. Find the present age of the baby.
a. 4 years b. 6 years c. 8 years d. 8 ½ years
Correct Option: (b)
Hint: (1) First find total age of 5 members 2 years ago (2) Present age of 5 members (3) Total age of 6
members
(4) Age of baby = Total age of 6 members - Present age of 5 members
We know that,
Sum of Quantities
Average =
1) First calculate total age of 5 members 2 years ago = (Average age of 5 members x number of
members)
First calculate total age of 5 members 2 years ago = (16 x 5) = 80 years
2) Calculate the present age of 5 members
2 years ago, their total age was 80 years. Present age can be calculated as follows:
Present age of 5 members = [80 + (2 x 5)] = 90 years
3) Calculate total age of 6 members considering baby = (16 x 6 ) = 96 years
4) Age of baby = (96 – 90) = 6 years
Type 4 : Change in average when one entry is entered wrong.
Examples:
Q 9. John's marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. If the average marks calculated for
the whole class increased by half, then find the number of students in the class.
a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 45
Correct Option: (c)
Assume number of students in the class be x

As the average increases by half, find the total increase in marks for x students.
Total increase in marks = (x) x (1/2) = x/2
Therefore,
Total increase in marks = False value – true value
x/2 = 83 – 63
x = 40 students
Alternate solution:
Let A be average and x be number of students

1st entry
A+ 0.5= 83 / x ------- (1)
2nd entry
A = 63 / x --------- (2)
From (1) and (2), we get
83 63
A + 0.5 – A = –
x x
83 – 63
0.5 =
x
Therefore, x = 40
Q 10. The mean of 40 observations was 46. Later on it was found that an observation 38 was
wrongly taken as 33. Find the corrected value of mean.
a. 40.23 b. 42.36 c. 46.12 d. 51.23
Correct Option: (c)

Sum of Quantities
Average =
1) Sum of observations = Average x No. of observations

= 46 x 40 = 1840
2) Correct sum = Sum of observations + (38 – 33)
= 1840 + (5)
= 1845
Corrected Sum 1845
Corrected Mean Value = = = 46.125
No. of Observations 40
Type 5 : Average speed
Examples:
Q 11. A person covers a distance of 60 km from P to Q at a speed of 20 km/hr and returns from Q
to P at a speed of 30 km/hr. Find the average speed of person.
a. 22 km/hr b. 24 km/hr c. 26 km/hr d. 28.2 km/hr
Correct Option: (b)
Hint:
(2 V1 V2)
Average Speed =
(V1 + V2)
V1 and V2 are the speeds at which the person travels.

We are given, that person travels P to Q at a speed of 20 km/hr and Q to P at a speed of 30 km/hr.
V1 = 20 km/hr and V2 = 30 km/hr
Therefore,
(2 x 20 x 30) 1200
Average Speed = = = 24 km/hr
(20 + 30) 50
Q 12. An express train runs at an average speed of 27 km/hr including the time of stoppage at
stations. Another train runs at an average speed of 41 km/hr excluding the stoppage time at
stations. Find how many minutes does a train stop in 1 hour.
a. 20.52 min b. 15.23 min c. 12.50 min d. 10.75 min
Correct Option: (a)
Train 1: Travels at an average speed of 27 km/hr

Train 2: Travels at an average speed of 41 km/hr
Therefore, train 1 lags train 2 by (41 – 27) km i.e. 14 km.
Now, we have to find the time, train 2 stops in 1 hour.
We know, Speed = Distance/ Time
We know, Distance = 14 km, speed = 41 km/hr
Therefore, Time = Distance / Speed
= 14 / 41 = 0.342 hr
Answer is in minutes, hence multiply by 60

0.342 hr = 0.342 x 60 = 20.52 min
Type 6: Cricket/Scores/Innings
Q 13. A batsman makes a score of 80 runs in the 16th inning and increases average by 3. What is
his average after
16th inning?
a. 35 b. 32 c. 29 d. 25
Correct Option:(a)
Lets assume that the average after 16th inning be X.

The average after 15th inning = ( X – 3)
Therefore,
Sum of Scores
Average =
Number of Innings
Sum of scores = Average x No. of innings
Total runs made after 15th inning at average (X – 3) = 15 (X – 3)

Total runs made in 16th inning = 80
Total runs made after 16th inning at average X = 16X
Therefore,
(Total runs after 15th inning) + (Total runs in 16th inning) = (Total runs after 16th inning)
15 (X – 3) + 80 = 16 X
Solving we get,
X = 35
Q 14. In a cricket match, 6 players had an average X of their runs. Average increases by 10 runs, if
seventh player makes a score of 112 runs. What is the average of first 6 players.
a. 36 b. 39 c. 40 d. 42
Correct Option: (d)
The average of 6 players = X

Average increases by 10, when seventh player makes a score of 112 runs.
Therefore, average of 7 players = X + 10
Sum of Scores
Average = ------- (1)
Number of Players
Here, average = X, number of players = 6

Hence,
Sum of scores = 6X
Score of 7 players = (Score of 6 players + score of 7 player) = (6X + 112) ------- (2)
Total average = (X + 10) --------- (3)
Substitute (2) and (3), in (1)

(6X + 112)
(X + 10)
7
Solving we get,
X = 42
Average of first 6 players = 42
Extra Questions
Q.1: Find the average of the following set of numbers. 65, 85, 70, 90, and 105.
Solution: Given, the set of numbers is 65, 85, 70, 90, and 105.
(65 + 85 + 70 + 90 + 105)
5
415
5
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 = 83
Q.2: The sum of 10 numbers is 550. Find their average number.

Solution: Given, the sum of 10 numbers is 550.
550
10
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 = 55
Q.3: What is the average of natural numbers from 1 to 67?

Solution: Given, natural numbers 1 to 67.
𝑛+1
Average of n natural numbers = 2
Here, n = 67
67+1 68
Average = 2 = 2 = 34
Q.5: The average of 10 numbers is 23. If each number is increased by 4, what will the new
average be?
Solution: Given,
Average of 10 numbers = 23
𝑆𝑢𝑚
= 23
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠
𝑆𝑢𝑚
= 23
10
Sum of the 10 numbers = 230
If each number is increased by 4, the total increase = 4 x 10 = 40
New sum = 230 + 40 = 270
270
Therefore, the new average = 10 = 27
Practice Questions
1. The average of a non-zero number and its square is 7 times the number. The number is:
A. 13 B. 17 C. 29 D. 28
2. The average of 5 consecutive numbers is 30. The largest of these numbers is:
A. 20 B. 22 C. 32 D. 40
3. The average of seven consecutive odd numbers is 36. What is the difference between the
highest
and lowest numbers?
A. 2 B. 5 C. 12 D. Can't be
determined
4. The sum of four consecutive odd numbers is 30 more than the average of these numbers.
What
is the first of these numbers?
A. 7 B. 14 C. 17 D. Data
inadequate
5. The mean of 13, 23, 33 , 43 , 53 is :

A. 30 B. 35 C. 45 D. 70
6. The average age of 14 girls and their teacher's age is 15 years. If the teacher's age is
excluded,
the average reduces by 1. What is the teacher's age?
A. 32 years B. 30 years C. 29 years D. 35 years
7. The average marks obtained by 40 students of a class is 86. If the 5 highest marks are
removed,
the average reduces by one mark. The average marks of the top 5 students is
A. 92 B. 96 C. 93 D. 97
8. A student finds the average of 10, 2 digit numbers. If the digits of one of the numbers is
interchanged, the average increases by 3.6. The difference between the digits of the 2-digit
numbers is
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 5
9. Out of four numbers the average of the first three is 16 and that of the last three is 15. If the
last
number is 20 then the first number is
A. 23 B. 28 C. 25 D. 21
10. The average weight of 17 boxes is 92 kg. If 18 new boxes are added, the new average
increase
by 3 kg. What will be the average weight of the 18 new boxes?
A. 98.8 kg B. 97.8 kg C. 91.8 kg D. 92.8 kg
Answers:
Q. No. Ans Q. No. Ans Q. No. Ans Q. No. Ans Q. No. Ans
1 A 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 C
6 C 7 C 8 A 9 A 10 B
Directions and Distance

There are many different types of questions that are asked from the Direction and
Distance topic. Those questions are generally related to the direction and distance
between two or more persons, products or elements, etc. Thus, many different types of
questions can be formed based on the position of any person, thing, or product. In this topic,
we will discuss how the concepts of Direction and Distance work. Let us understand, it with
the help of the important rules:
There are four cardinal directions North (N), South (S), East (E), and West (W),
and the four ordinal directions (also called the intercardinal direction) North-East (NE),
North-West (NW), South-East (SE), and South -West (SW).
𝑻𝒊𝒑𝒔 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑻𝒓𝒊𝒄𝒌𝒔:

● In case a person is facing east, on taking the left he will face towards the north and on taking
the right turn he will face towards the south.
● In case a person is facing west, on taking the left he will face towards the south and on
taking the right turn he will face towards the north.
● In case a person is facing north, on taking the left he will face towards the west and on
taking the right turn he will face towards the east.
● In case a person is facing south, on taking the left he will face towards the east and on
taking the right turn he will face towards the west.
Practice Question
1. Anuj began walking back, keeping his back towards the sun. After some time, he turned left,
then right, and then back to the left. What is his current direction?
(A) South or West (B) North or West (C) North or South (D) East or West
2. Rohit took a 25-meter walk to the south. He then turned left and walked about 20 meters. He
moved 25 meters to his left after that. He moved 15 meters to his right after turning. What is
his distance from the beginning location and in which direction is he moving?
(A) 35 meters North (B) 35 meters East (C) 40 meters East (D) 60 meters East
3. A young lady leaves her home. She walks for 30 meters in a north-south direction, then 30
meters in a south-west direction. She then travels 30 meters to the south-east. She finally
returns
to her home. What direction is she heading?
(A) South-east (B) South-west (C) North-east (D) North-west
4. Deepak begins travelling directly eastward. He turns left after walking 75 meters and walks
25 meters straight. He goes to the left again and travels 40 meters straight before turning to the
left again and walking 25 meters. What is his distance from the starting point?
(A) 35 meters (B) 50 meters (C) 115 meters (D) 140 meters
5. Rita drives to the north of her lodging at A and discovers that she has driven in the incorrect
direction after 25 kilometres. She then turns right and goes 2 kilometres before turning right
and driving straight for another 25 kilometres. How far does she have to travel to get back to
the beginning point ?
A) 25 km B) 2 km C) 4km D) 40 km
6. Walk 4 kilometres north, then turn right and walk 5 kilometres. He then goes 2 kilometres
south before turning west and walking 3 kilometres before stopping. Then we walked another
3 kilometres. What is A’s starting point’s distance from him ?
A) 16 Kms B) 12 Kms C) 2 Kms D) 4 Kms
7. A father searching for his child went 90 metres east before turning right. He walked 20
metres before turning right to look for his child at his uncle’s house, which was 30 metres
away. His child was absent. He then travelled 100 metres north before meeting his child on a
street. How far away from the beginning point did the father meet his son?
A) 80 mts B) 100 mts C) 140 mts D) 260 mts
8. Ravi walks 10 metres to the south, then turns left and walks 20 metres before turning right.
He turns right after walking 20 metres and continues another 20 metres. Finally, he moves a
distance of 10 metres to the right. What is his distance from the starting point and also direction
from that starting point ?
A) 10 mts North B) 20 mts South C) 20 mts North D) 10 mts South
Answers:
Q. Q. Q. Q.
Ans Ans Ans Ans
No. No. No. No.
1 C 2 A 3 C 4 A
5 B 6 C 7 B 8 D
Calendar
A Calendar is a systematic arrangement of days, weeks, and months in a defined pattern with
which we can easily recognize the required date, month, or week of a particular day.
Points to Remember
o Day: It is the smallest unit of the calendar. A day is the 7th part of a week and it has 24
hours.
o Week: A week is a combination of 7 days such as Sunday, Monday, Tuesday,
Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday. A week is the 52nd part of a year.
o Month: A month has 28/29/30/31 days. A month is the 12th part of a year.
o Year: Year is the time taken by Earth to make one revolution around the Sun. A year
is the 100th part of a century.
o Date: In general, date is a name given to each day. Date is the 28th /29th /30th /31st
part of a month. Date is also the 365th/366th part of a years (Lunar/Leap Year)
o Century: A block of 100 years is called a century.
o Ordinary Year: An ordinary year is a year which has 365 days (52 weeks + 1 odd
day). Ordinary years are not divisible by 4.
o Leap Year: A leap year is a year which has 366 days (52 weeks + 2 days). Such years
are exactly divisible by 4.
Question 1: If 25th December 1990 is a Tuesday, then what day is 25th December, 2020?
Solution: First we need to calculate the odd days from 1990 to 2020, if we do that then we
get the odd number of days as
1+1+2+1+1+1+2+1+1+1+2+1+1+1+2+1+1+1+2+1+1+1+2+1+1+1+2+1+1+1+1 = 38 or
3 odd days. So the answer will be 3 odd days from Tuesday, which is Friday.
Question 2: What will be the day on 15th April, 2079?

Solution: We know that 2000 years have 0 odd days. 78 years have 19 leap years and 59
normal years. The number of odd days is 19 times 2+59 = 97 or 6 odd days.
From January 1 to April 15, the number of days is 31+28+31+15 = 105, and that is 0 odd
days.
Total odd days are 6, so the correct answer will be Saturday.
Question 3: If 2012, 2nd Feb. was on Wednesday, then in which year it will be repeated?
Solution: To calculate the repeat year, we need to add 28 in case of a leap year. So,
2012+28 = 2040. Hence, the correct answer will be 2040.
Question 4: What was the week's day on fourth June, 2002?

A. Tuesday
B. Sunday
C. Monday
D. Saturday
Answer : A
Explanation:-
4th.june, 2002 = (2001 years+ period from 1.1.2002 to. 4.6.2002.
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Odd days in 400 years = 0
Odd days in 1 customary years = 1
Odd days in 2001 years = (0+0+1)=1
Jan + Feb. +March +April+ May +June

(31 + 28 +31+ 30 + 31 +4 = 155 days=22 weeks +1 day = 1 odd days
Aggregate no. of odd days = (1+1) = 2

∴ required day is Tuesday.
Question 5: The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:
A. 2014
B. 2016
C. 2017
D. 2018
Explanation :-
Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards, to get the sum equal to 0 odd
days.
200 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 201
years
7 08 09 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 7
Odd Days 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1
Sum =14 odd days=0 odd day.

∴ Calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year 2007.
Practice Test :
1. If 5 November 2019 was Tuesday, then what was the day of the week on 5 December
2011?
A. Tuesday B. Sunday C. Monday D. Saturday
2. If 3rd January is Sunday, what date will be three days after the fourth Wednesday in the
month?
A. 30 B. 27 C. 26 D. 23
3. What was the week's day on seventeenth June, 1988?

A. Monday B. Tuesday C. Wednesday D. Thursday
4. What was the week's day on 28th may, 2006?

A. Thursday B. Friday C. Saturday D. Sunday
5. Which of the accompanying is not a leap year?

A. 2000 B. 700 C. 800 D. 1200
6. On 18th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the week's day on 18th Feb, 2004?
A. Tuesday B. Monday C. Sunday D. Wednesday
7. On eighth Dec, 2007 Saturday falls. What was the day of the week would it say it was on
eighth Dec, 2006?
A. Sunday B. Thursday C. Tuesday D. Friday
8. If today is Friday, then what will be the day after 363 days?
A) Sunday B) Saturday C) Thursday D) None of these
9. If the day after the 11th of March is Thursday, then what will be the last day of the month?
A) Thursday B) Wednesday C) Friday D) Tuesday
10. Republic Day of India was celebrated on Thursday in 2017. On which day it was
celebrated in 2021?
A) Tuesday B) Wednesday C) Thursday D) Friday
Q. Q. Q. Q. Q.
Ans Ans Ans Ans Ans
No. No. No. No. No.
1 C 2 A 3 D 4 D 5 B
6 C 7 D 8 C 9 D 10 A
HCF and LCM

⮚ HCF Definition:
The Highest Common Factor (HCF) of 2 or more numbers is defined as the greatest
possible number that divides both the numbers completely. For example, if “a” and “b”
are the two numbers, then the HCF of a and b, i.e, HCF (a, b) is the greatest possible
number that divides both a and b. The two most commonly used methods to find the
HCF of the given numbers are:
1) Listing Factors Method
2) Prime Factorisation Method.
Solved Examples:
1. Find the HCF of 24 and 36.
Solution:
To find HCF of 24 and 36, first list the factors of 24 and 36.
Thus, the factors of 24 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12 and 24.
The factors of 36 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, and 36.
Here, the greatest factor that is common in both the factors list is 12.
Thus, 12 is the greatest number that divides both 24 and 36 evenly.
Therefore, the HCF of 24 and 36 is 12.
2. Determine the GCF of 18 and 48.

Solution:
To find: HCF (18, 48)
The factors of 18 are 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 and 18
The factors of 48 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 16, 24 and 48.
Thus, 6 is the greatest number that divides 18 and 48 completely.
Hence, the GCF/HCF of 18 and 48 is 6.
3. Find the HCF of 135 and 225 using the prime factorization method.
Solution:
To find the HCF of 135 and 225 using the prime factorization method, follow the
below steps:
Thus, the prime factorization of 135 is 3 × 3 × 3 × 5
The prime factorization of 225 is 3 × 3 × 5 × 5.
Hence, the prime factors that is common in both the numbers is 3 × 3 × 5
Therefore, the product of prime factors of 3 × 3 × 5 is 45.
Hence, the HCF of 135 and 225 is 45.
4. What is the HCF of 408 and 1032?

Solution:
To find: HCF (408, 1032).
The prime factorization of 408 is 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 17
The prime factorization of 1032 is 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 43
Thus, the product of the prime factors of 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 is 24
Hence, the HCF of 408 and 1032 is 24.
5. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the
same remainder in each case.
Solution:
Required number = H.C.F. of (91 - 43), (183 - 91) and (183 - 43)
= H.C.F. of 48, 92 and 140 = 4.
Practice Test
1. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14.
The larger of the two numbers is:
A) 276 B) 299 C) 322 D) 345
2. Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same
remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8
3. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:
A) 9000 B) 9400 C) 9600 D) 9800
4. The product of two numbers is 4107. If the H.C.F. of these numbers is 37, then the greater
number is:
A) 111 B) 107 C) 101 D) 185
5. Three number are in the ratio of 3: 4: 5 and their L.C.M. is 2400. Their H.C.F. is:
A) 40 B) 80 C) 120 D) 200
6. The G.C.D. of 1.08, 0.36 and 0.9 is:

A) 0.03 B) 0.9 C) 0.18 D) 0.108
7. The product of two numbers is 2028 and their H.C.F. is 13. The number of such pairs is:
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
8. The greatest number which on dividing 1657 and 2037 leaves remainders 6 and 5
respectively, is:
A) 123 B) 127 C) 235 D) 305
9. The H.C.F of 9/10 , 12/25, 18/35, and 21/40 is:

A) 3/5 B) 252/5 C) 3/1400 D) 36/700
10.If the sum of two numbers is 55 and the H.C.F. and L.C.M. of these numbers are 5 and
120 respectively, then the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is equal to:
A) 55/601 B) 601/55 C) 11/120 D) 120/11
Q. Q. Q. Q. Q.
Ans Ans Ans Ans Ans
No. No. No. No. No.
1 C 2 A 3 C 4 A 5 A
6 C 7 B 8 B 9 C 10 C
⮚ LCM Definition:
The Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 2 or more given numbers is defined as the
smallest common multiple, which is found in both the numbers. The LCM of any
given number can also be found using the listing multiples method and prime
factorization method.
Solved Examples:
1.Find the LCM of 3 and 4.

Solution:
To find the LCM of 3 and 4 using the listing method, first list out the multiples of 3
and 4.
Thus, the multiples of 3 are 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, …
The multiples of 4 are 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, …
From the above list, 12 is the smallest number that is common in both the multiples
list.
Therefore, the LCM of 3 and 4 is 12.
2. What is the LCM of 6 and 8?

Solution:
To find: LCM (6, 8).
The multiples of 6 are 6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, …
The multiples of 8 are 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, ….
Thus, the smallest common multiple of 6 and 8 is 24.
3. Determine the LCM of 4 and 12 using the prime factorization method.

Solution:
To find the LCM of 4 and 12 using the prime factorisation method, follow the below
steps.
Step 1: Find the prime factorization of given numbers:
The prime factorization of 4 is 2 × 2
The prime factorization of 12 is 2 × 2 × 3.
Step 2: The LCM of given numbers is found by multiplying the product of all
factors. (Note: The common factor is included only once)
Hence, the product of prime factors = 2 × 2 × 3 = 12.
4. What is the LCM of 54 and 60?

Solution:
Thus, the product of prime factors = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 540
Hence, the LCM of 54 and 60 is 540.
5. Prove that LCM(12, 7) × HCF(12, 7) = Product(12, 7).

Solution:
Given: LCM(12, 7) × HCF(12, 7) = Product(12, 7) …(1)
6.Finding LCM (12, 7):

The multiples of 7 are 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, 42, 49, 56, 63, 70, 77, 84, 91, 98, ..
The multiples of 12 are 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96, 120, …
Hence, the LCM of 12 and 7 is 84.
7.Finding HCF (12, 7):

The factors of 7 are 1 and 7.
The factors of 12 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 12.
Hence, HCF of 12 and 7 is 1.
8.Finding Product of 12 and 7:

The product of 12 and 7 = 12 × 7 = 84.
Now, substitute the obtained values in (1), we get
84 × 1 = 84
84 = 84
Hence, LHS = RHS
Therefore, LCM(12, 7) × HCF(12, 7) = Product(12, 7) is proved.
9.Find the LCM of the fractions 2/5, 4/7 and 6/11.

Solution:
Given fractions: 2/5, 4/7 and 6/11
As we know, the formula to find the LCM of fractions is:
LCM of fractions = LCM of Numerators/HCF of Denominators .. (1)
Thus, the LCM of Numerators = LCM (2, 4, 6) = 12.
HCF of denominators = HCF (5, 7, 11) = 1
Now, substitute the values in (1), we get
LCM of fractions = 12/1 = 12
Hence, the LCM of the fractions 2/5, 4/7 and 6/11 is 12.
10.If HCF(252, 594) = 18, find LCM(252, 594).

Solution: We have LCM of two numbers = (Product of two numbers)/ their HCF
= (252 × 594)/18 = 8316.
Hence, LCM(252, 594) = 8316
Product of LCM and HCF of two numbers = Product of the given numbers.
LCM (a, b) × HCF (a, b) = a × b ∀ a, b ∈ R
Note: This result is applicable for two numbers only.
11.Player 1 and player 2 are running around a circular field. Player 1 takes 16
minutes to take one round, while Player 2 completes the round in 20 minutes. If
both start simultaneously and go in the same direction, after how much time will
they meet at the starting point?
Solution: Time taken by the players to meet again = LCM(16, 20)
Now 16 = 24 and 20 = 22 × 5
Therefore, LCM(16, 20) = 24 × 4 = 80
Hence, both will meet at the starting point after 80 minutes.
12.Is it possible to have two numbers whose HCF is 18 and LCM is 540?
Solution: Since HCF always divides LCM, we see that 540 is divisible by 18, 540/18
= 30.
Thus, it is possible to have two numbers.
13.Two alarm clocks ring their alarms at regular intervals of 72 seconds and 50
seconds. If they beep together at noon, at what time will they beep again for the
first time?
Solution: We find the LCM of 72 and 50.
Prime factorisation of 72 and 50,
72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
50 = 2 × 5 × 5
Therefore, the LCM of 72 and 50 = 23 × 32 × 52 = 1800
1800 seconds = 1800/60 min = 30 min
Hence, the clocks will beep again for the first time at 12:30 pm.
14.There are 56 students in section A and 58 students in section B of a class in a

school. Find the minimum number of books required for their class library so
that they can be distributed equally among the students of section A or section B.
Solution: Clearly, the number of books that are to be equally distributed should be
multiple of 56 and of 58. Thus, we have to find LCM of 56 and 58.
Now, 56 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 7
58 = 2 × 29
LCM (56, 58) = 23 × 7 × 29 = 1624.
Hence, atleast 1624 books are required in the library.
Practice Test
1. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 10 and 12 seconds
respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together?
A) 4 B) 10 C) 15 D) 18
2. The least multiple of 7, which leaves a remainder of 4, when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 is:
A) 74 B) 94 C) 184 D) 364
3. Find the lowest common multiple of 24, 36 and 40.

A) 120 B) 240 C) 360 D) 480
4. The least number which should be added to 2497 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 5,
6, 4 and 3 is:
A) 23 B) 13 C) 3 D) 33
128352
5. Reduce 238368 to its lowest terms:
A) ¾ B) 5/13 C) 7/13 D) 9/13
6. A, B and C start at the same time in the same direction to run around a circular stadium. A
completes a round in 252 seconds, B in 308 seconds and c in 198 seconds, all starting at the
same point. After what time will they again at the starting point ?
A) 26 minutes and 18 seconds B) 42 minutes and 36 seconds
C) 45 minutes D) 46 minutes and 12 seconds
7. What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 21
and 30 ?
A) 196 B) 630 C) 1260 D) 2520
8. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. is 4. Their L.C.M. is:
A) 12 B) 16 C) 24 D) 48
9. 252 can be expressed as a product of primes as:

A) 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 7 B) 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 7
C) 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 7 D) 2 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 7
10. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 48. The numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. Then sum of the
number is:
A) 28 B) 32 C) 40 D) 64
Q. Q. Q. Q. Q.
Ans Ans Ans Ans Ans
No. No. No. No. No.
1 D 2 D 3 C 4 A 5 C
6 D 7 B 8 D 9 A 10 C
Permutations and Combinations

What is Permutation?
It is a term used to understand the concept of the arrangement of things. The word
arrangement is referred if the order of things is considered.
What is Combination?
The term combination means selection of things; it is used when the order of things is not
important.
Solved Examples:
1. If 16Pr-1 : 15Pr-1 = 16 : 7 then find r.
A) 10 B) 12 C) 7 D) 8
Answer: A
Explanation: We know that nPr=n!(n−r)!
Hence 16Pr−1:15Pr−1=16:7
[16!16−(r−1)!]÷[15!15−(r−1)]=16÷7
16 ÷ (17 – r) = 16 ÷ 7
17 – r = 7
Hence r = 10.
2. In a colony, there are 55 members. Every member posts a greeting card to all the members.
How many greeting cards were posted by them?
A) 990 B) 890 C) 2970 D) 1980
Answer: C
Explanation: First player can post greeting cards to the remaining 54 players in 54
ways. Second player can post greeting card to the 54 players. Similarly, it happens
with the rest of the players. The total numbers of greeting cards posted are
54 + 54 + 54 …
54 (55times) = 54 x 55 = 2970.
3. Find the number of ways of arranging the letters of the words DANGER, so that no vowel
occupies odd place.
A) 36 B) 48 C) 144 D) 96
Answer: C
Explanation: The given word is DANGER. Number of letters is 6. Number of vowels
is 2 (i.e., A, E). Number of consonants is 4 (i.e., D,N,G,R). As the vowels cannot
occupy odd places, they can be arranged in even places. Two vowels can be arranged
in 3 even places in 3P2 ways i.e., 6. Rest of the consonants can arrange in the
remaining 4 places in 4! ways. The total number of arrangements is 6 x 4! = 144.
4. Find the number of rectangles and squares in an 8 by 8 chess board respectively.

A) 296, 204 B) 1092, 204 C) 204, 1092 D) 204, 1296
Answer: B
Explanation: Chess board consists of 9 horizontal 9 vertical lines. A rectangle can be
formed by any two horizontal and two vertical lines. Number of rectangles
= 9C2 × 9C2 = 1296. For squares there is one 8 by 8 square four 7 by 7 squares, nine 6
by 6 squares and like this
Number of squares on chess board = 12+22…..82 = 204
Only rectangles = 1296-204 = 1092.
Practice Questions:
1. If nPr = 3024 and nCr = 126 then find n and r.

A) 9, 4 B) 10, 3 C) 12, 4 D) 11, 4
2. There are 20 points in a plane, how many triangles can be formed by these points if 5 are
colinear?
A) 1130 B) 550 C) 1129 D) 1140
3. In how many ways can we select 6 people out of 10, of which a particular person is not
included?
A) 10C3 B) 9C5 C) 9C6 D) 9C4
4. Number of circular permutations of different things taken all at a time is n!.
A) True B) False
5. Is the given statement true or false? nCr= nCn-r

A) True B) False
Q. Q. Q. Q. Q.
Ans Ans Ans Ans Ans
No. No. No. No. No.
1 A 2 A 3 C 4 B 5 A
Ages
Important Formulas on "Problems on Ages" :
1. If the current age is x, then n times the age is nx.
2. If the current age is x, then age n years later/hence = x + n.
3. If the current age is x, then age n years ago = x - n.
4. The ages in a ratio a : b will be ax and bx.
5. If the current age is x then 1/ n of the age is x / n.
Solved Examples:
1.Father is aged three times more than his son Ronit. After 8 years, he would be two and a
half times of Ronit's age. After further 8 years, how many times would he be of Ronit's age?
1 3
A) 2 times B) 22 times C) 24 times D) 3 times
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let Ronit's present age be x years. Then, father's present age =(x + 3x) years =
4x years.
(4x + 8) 5 (x +
= 2 8)
8x + 16 = 5x + 40
3x = 24
x = 8.
(4x + 16) 48
Hence, required ratio = = = 2.
(x + 16) 24
2.The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the
age of the youngest child?
A) 4 years B) 8 years C) 10 years D) None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the ages of children be x, (x + 3), (x + 6), (x + 9) and (x + 12) years.
Then, x + (x + 3) + (x + 6) + (x + 9) + (x + 12) = 50
5x = 20
x = 4.
Age of the youngest child = x = 4 years.
3.A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth". If
the father's age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
A)18 years B) 14 years C) 33 years D) 38 years
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the son's present age be x years. Then, (38 - x) = x
2x = 38.
x = 19.
● Son's age 5 years back (19 - 5) = 14 years.
4.A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B and C
be 27, then how old is B?
A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let C's age be x years. Then, B's age = 2x years. A's age = (2x + 2) years.
(2x + 2) + 2x + x = 27
5x = 25
x = 5.
Hence, B's age = 2x = 10 years.
5. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence,
the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's present age in years?
A) 24 B) 27 C) 40 D) None
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the present ages of Sameer and Anand be 5x years and 4x years respectively.
5x + 3 11
Then, =
4x + 3 9
9(5x + 3) = 11(4x + 3)
45x + 27 = 44x + 33
45x - 44x = 33 - 27
x = 6.
Anand's present age = 4x = 24 years.
Practice Test :
1. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son.
The present age of his son is:
A)14years B) 18 years C) 20 years D) 22years
Answer: D
2. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal and Sagar was 6 : 5. Four years hence, the
ratio of their ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sagar's age at present?
A)16years B) 18 years C) 20 years D) None
Answer: A
3. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago, father's age
was five times the age of the son. After 6 years, son's age will be:
A)12years B) 14years C) 18 years D) 20years
Answer: D
4. At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and Deepak is 4 : 3. After 6 years, Arun's
age will be 26 years. What is the age of Deepak at present ?
A) 12years B) 15years C) 19 and half D) 21years
Answer: B
5. Sachin is younger than Rahul by 7 years. If their ages are in the respective ratio of 7 : 9,
how old is Sachin?
A) 16years B) 18years C) 28and half D) 24.5years
Answer: D
6. The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their
ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years).
A) 8, 20, 28 B) 16, 28, 36 C) 20, 35, 45 D) None
Answer: B
7. Ayesha's father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36 years old
when her brother four years younger to her was born. What is the difference between the ages
of her parents?
A) 2 years B) 4 years C) 6 years D) 8 years
Answer: C
8. Q is as much younger than R as he is older than T. If the sum of the ages of R and T is 50
years, what is definitely the difference between R and Q's age?
A) 1 years B) 2 years C) 25 years D) Data
inadequate
Answer: D
9. The age of father 10 years ago was thrice the age of his son. Ten years hence, father's age
will be twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is:
A) 5 : 2 B) 7 : 3 C) 9 : 2 D) 13 : 4
Answer: B
10. The present age of Aradhana and Aadrika is in the ratio 3:4. 5 years back, the ratio of
their ages was 2:3. What is the present age of Aradhana?
Answer: B
Square roots and cube roots

1. Square Root:
If x2 = y, we say that the square root of y is x and we write y = x.
Thus, 4 = 2, 9 = 3, 196 = 14.
2. Cube Root:
The cube root of a given number x is the number whose cube is x.
We, denote the cube root of x by x.
Thus, 8 = 2 x 2 x 2 = 2, 343 = 7 x 7 x 7 = 7 etc.
Practice Test:
1.The least perfect square, which is divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is:
A) 213444 B) 214344 C) 214434 D) 231444
Explanation:
L.C.M. of 21, 36, 66 = 2772.
Now, 2772 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 7 x 11
To make it a perfect square, it must be multiplied by 7 x 11.
So, required number = 22 x 32 x 72 x 112 = 213444
2.√1.5625
A) 1.05 B) 1.25 C) 1.45 D) 1.55
Explanation:
= 15625/10000,
= 25/16,
= √5^2/4^2,
= 5/4,
= 1.25.
3.A group of students decided to collect as many paise from each member of group as is the
number of members. If the total collection amounts to Rs. 59.29, the number of the member is
the group is:
A) 57 B) 67 C) 77 D) 87
Money collected = (59.29 x 100) paise = 5929 paise.
Number of members =√5929 =77
4. √0.0169 𝑥 ? = 1.3
A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) none of these.
Explanation:
Let √0.0169 𝑥 ? = 1.3.
Then, 0.0169x = (1.3)2 = 1.69
1.69
x= = 100
0.0169
5. How many two-digit numbers satisfy this property.: The last digit (unit's digit) of the square
of the two-digit number is 8 ?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) none of these.
Explanation:
If the units place is 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9.
Square of all number = 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81.
Then, take unit value for all squares =1, 4, 9, 6, 5, 6, 9, 4, 1.
And approx is 2, 3, 7, 8.
Speed, Time and Distance

⮚ Relationship between Speed, Time and Distance:-
Now that we are well aware of the definition of speed, distance and time let us understand
the relationship between them. It is said that an object attains motion or movement when it
changes its position with respect to any external stationary point. Speed, Time and Distance
are the three variables that represent the mathematical model of motion as, s x t = d.
o Time is directly proportional to distance. It means that speed remains constant, if we
have two vehicles moving two distances for two different time duration then the time
is directly proportional to the distance.
o Speed is directly proportional to distance. It means that time remains constant if we
have two vehicles moving two distances at two different speeds respectively.
o Speed is Inversely Proportional to time. It means that distance remains constant if we
have two vehicles moving at two different speeds and taking times respectively.
Formula for speed calculation is

𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒
o This shows us how slow or fast a target moves. It represents the distance covered
divided by the time needed to cover the distance.
o Speed is directly proportional to the given distance and inversely proportional to the
proposed time. Hence,
o 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 × 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 and
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
o 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 = 𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 Since as the speed grows the time needed will decrease and vice
versa.
Conversion of Speed, Time and Distance

The conversion of speed, time and distance into various units is given below:
o To convert a given data from km/hour to m/sec, we multiply by 5/18. As 1 km/hour =
5/18 m/sec.
o To convert a given data m/sec to km/hour, we multiply by 18/5. As 1 m/sec = 18/5
km/hour = 3.6 km/hour.
In terms of formula, we can list it as:

𝑘𝑚 5 𝑚
𝑥 ℎ𝑟 = 𝑥 × 18 𝑠𝑒𝑐
𝑚 18 𝑘𝑚
𝑥 × 𝑠𝑒𝑐 = 𝑥 × ( ℎ𝑟 )
5
Similarly, some other conversions are given below:

o 1 km/hr = 5/8 miles/hour
o 1 yard = 3 feet
o 1 kilometer= 1000 meters
o 1 mile= 1.609 kilometer
o 1 hour= 60 minutes= 3600 seconds
o 1 mile = 1760 yards
o 1 yard = 3 feet
o 1 mile = 5280 feet
⮚ Time Speed Distance Aptitude Tricks

When it comes to solving time, speed, and distance problems in aptitude tests, having
some tricks and strategies can help you solve them more efficiently. Here are a few tips
to consider:
• Use Standard Units: Make sure to convert all units to a common standard. For
example, if speed is given in kilometers per hour (km/h), convert distances to kilometers
and times to hours. This helps in avoiding unit conversion errors.
• Understand the Formulas: Familiarize yourself with the basic formulas: Speed =
Distance / Time and Distance = Speed × Time. Being comfortable with these formulas
can help you set up the problem correctly.
• Work with Ratios: Often, these problems involve ratios between speed, time, and
distance. If one of these values is constant, the others will vary inversely. Use this
concept to your advantage.
• Use Fractions: Sometimes, fractions can simplify the calculations. For example, if you
need to calculate the time taken to cover a certain distance at a given speed, see if any
fractions cancel out to simplify the calculation.
• Use Visualization: Draw diagrams or visualize the situation. Drawing a simple line to
represent the distance and using arrows to represent the speeds can help you see the
relationships more clearly.
• Use Approximations: In some cases, you can use approximations to quickly estimate
the answer. For example, if the speed is around 100 km/h and the time is around 2 hours,
you can quickly estimate that the distance covered would be roughly 200 km.
• Inverse Proportions: If the speed and time are inversely proportional (one increases
while the other decreases), consider using the product of speed and time as a constant
to solve problems.
• Practice with Sample Problems: Practice solving a variety of time, speed, and
distance problems to build your problem-solving skills and improve your speed.
• Plug and Play: If you’re given multiple values for speed, distance, or time and need to
find another value, try plugging the given values into the formula to find the unknown
value.
• Elimination Technique: If you’re given answer choices, you can often eliminate
unreasonable options based on your understanding of the problem and the given data
Applications of Speed, Time and Distance

Some of the major applications of speed, time and distance are given below:
⮚ Average Speed:
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑑
𝑇ℎ𝑒 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑 𝑏𝑦 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎 = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛
𝑑1 + 𝑑2 + 𝑑3 ⋯ 𝑑𝑛
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
𝑡1 + 𝑡2 + 𝑡3 ⋯ 𝑡𝑛
1. When the distance travelled is constant and two speed is given then:
2𝑥𝑦
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 𝑥+𝑦
where x and y are the two speeds at which the corresponding distance has been
reached.
2. When the time taken is constant average speed is calculated by the formula:
𝑥+𝑦
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 2
where x and y are the two speeds at which we covered the distance for an identical
time.
3. If the first part of any given distance is covered at a rate of v1 in time t1 and the
second part of the distance is covered at a rate v2 in time t2 then the average speed
is given by the formula:
(𝑣1𝑡1 + 𝑣2𝑡2)
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
(𝑡1 + 𝑡2)
Practice Question
1. An individual drives from one place to another at 40 km/hr and returns at 160
km/hr. If the complete time needed is 5 hours, then obtain the distance.
Solutions: Here the distance is fixed, so the time taken will be inversely
proportional to the speed. The ratio of speed is given as 40:160, i.e. 1:4.
Therefore the ratio of time taken will be 4:1.
Total time is practiced = 5 hours;
Therefore the time taken while travelling is 4 hours and returning is 1 hour.
Hence, distance = 40x 4 = 160 km.
⮚ Relative Speed
As the name suggests the idea is about the relative speed between two or more things.
The basic concept of relative speed is that the speed gets combined in the case of objects
moving in the opposite direction to one another and the speed gets subtracted for the
case when objects are moving in an identical direction.
1. For example, if two passenger trains are moving in the opposite direction with a speed
of X km per hour and Y kilometer per hour respectively. Then their relative speed is
given by the formula:
Relative speed = X + Y
2. On the other hand, if the two trains are travelling in the same direction with the speed
of X km per hour and Y kilometer per hour respectively. Then their relative speed is
given by the formula:
Relative speed = X -Y
3. For the first case time taken by the train in passing each other is given by the formula:
Relative speed = X + Y
(𝐿1 + 𝐿2)
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 =
𝑋+𝑌
4. For the second case, the time taken by the trains in crossing each other is given by the
formula:
Relative speed = X -Y
(𝐿1 + 𝐿2)
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 =
𝑋−𝑌
Here L1, L2 are the lengths of the trains respectively.
⮚ Inverse Proportionality of Speed & Time:
Speed is said to be inversely proportional to time when the distance is fixed. In
1
mathematical format, S is inversely proportional to 𝑇 when D is constant. For such a
case if the speeds are in the ratio m:n then the time taken will be in the ratio n:m.
There are two approaches to solving questions:
o Applying Inverse Proportionality
o Applying Constant Product Rule
Solved Example
1. After moving 100km, a train meets with an accident and travels at (3/4)th of the normal
speed and reaches 55 min late. Had the accident occurred 20 km further on it would have
arrived 45 min delayed. Obtain the usual Speed?
Solutions: Applying Inverse Proportionality Method

Here there are 2 cases
Case 1: accident happens at 100 km
Case 2: accident happens at 120 km
The difference between the two incidents is only for the 20 km between 100 km
and 120 km. The time difference of 10 minutes is just due to these 20 km.
3 𝑡ℎ
In case1:- 20 km between 100 km and 120 km is covered at (4) of the normal speed.
In case 2:- 20 km between 100 km and 120 km is reached at the usual speed.
So the usual time “t” taken to cover 20 km, can be found as follows. 4/3 t – t = 10
mins = > t = 30 mins, d = 20 km
so the usual speed = 20/30min = 20/0.5 = 40 km/hr
Using Constant Product Rule Method:

Let the actual time taken be equal to T.
There is a (1/4)th reduction in speed, this will result in a (1/3)rd increase in time taken
as speed and time are inversely proportional to one another.
A 1/x increment in one of the parameters will result in a 1/(x+1) reduction in the other
parameter if the parameters are inversely proportional.
The delay due to this reduction is 10 minutes
Thus 1/3 T= 10 and T=30 minutes or 0.5 hour
Also, Distance = 20 km
Thus Speed = 40 kmph
2. Ankit and Arnav have to travel from Delhi to Hyderabad in their respective vehicles. Ankit
is driving at 80 kmph while Arnav is operating at 120 kmph. Obtain the time taken by
Arnav to reach Hyderabad if Ankit takes 9 hrs.
Solutions:
As we can recognise that the distance covered is fixed in both cases, the time taken will
be inversely proportional to the speed. In the given question, the speed of Ankit and
Arnav is in a ratio of 80: 120 or 2:3.
Therefore the ratio of the time taken by Ankit to that taken by Arnav will be in the ratio
3:2. Hence if Ankit takes 9 hrs, Arnav will take 6 hrs.
3. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?
Solution
600 𝑚
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 = 5×60 (𝑠𝑒𝑐) = 2 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
18 𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
Converting m/sec to km/hr = 2 × 5 ℎ𝑟 = 7.2 ℎ𝑟
4. If he runs at a speed of 20Km/hr, how much time does Aditiya take to cover a distance of
400 meters?
Solution:
Aditya’s Speed = 20 km/hr = [ 20 × (5/18)]m/sec = 50/9 m/sec
Time taken to cover 400m = 400 ÷ 50/9 = 400× 9/50 = 72 sec = 1. 2 min
5. Rasid travels at a speed of 20 kmph from point A to point B and returns to point A at a
speed of 30 kmph. Find his overall journey’s average speed.
Solution:
Assume, Distance between A and B to be “d”
Time is taken to travel point A to B = d/ 20h.
Time is taken to travel from point B to A = d/ 30h.
Total Distance traveled by Rasid = 2d km
Average Speed= Total Distance x Total Time
Or. Average Speed= 2d / [(d/20) + (d/30)]

Or. Average Speed= 2d / [(d/20) + (d/30)]
Or. (2d) / [5d/60] = 24 kmph
6. A train 100m long is running at the speed of 30 km/h. Find the time taken by it to pass a
man standing near the railway line.
Solution:
Speed of the train [30 × (5/18)]m/sec = 25/3 m/s.
Distance covered = length of the train = 100m (because the train crossed a man)
Time taken = [100÷(25/3)]=[100× (3/25)]s= 12 sec
Practice Questions
1. A man is swimming in a stream which flows at the rate of 1.5 kmph. In a given time he can
swim twice the distance with the stream as compared to the distance he can swim against it.
Find the speed of the man.
a) 7.5 kmph
b) 9.5 kmph
c) 5.5 kmph
d) 3.5 kmph
e) 4.5 kmph
2. A man can row 6 km/h in still water. It takes 3 hours more in upstream than in the
downstream to cover same distance. If the speed of the current is 2 km/h, then find the
distance.
a) 20 km
b) 30 km
c) 38 km
d) 54 km
e) 24 km
3. A boy is walking at a speed of 10 km/h along a railway track. If he is 800 m ahead of the
train which is 400 m long and runs at a speed of 160 km/h in the same direction, then what is
the time required to pass a boy?
a) 15.2 sec
b) 18.3 sec
c) 12.5 sec
d) 28.8 sec
e) 8.6 sec
Answer: D
4. At 40% of its usual speed, a train of length L meters crosses a platform 320 meter long in
20 seconds. At its usual speed, the train crosses a pole in 4 seconds. What is the value of L?
a) 260 m
b) 320 m
c) 540 m
d) 410 m
e) 125 m
Answer: B
5. The distance between Delhi and Patna is 588 km. Train P leaves from Delhi for Patna at
speed of x km/h and at the same time Train Q leaves from Patna for Delhi at speed of (x + 9)
km/h. At the end of 12 hours, they meet each other then find the speed of the train Q.
a) 23 km/h
b) 25 km/h
c) 20 km/h
d) 27 km/h
e) 29 km/h
Answer: E
6. By walking 11/9 of his usual speed a man covers a certain distance 2 hours earlier than the
time taken by him to cover the distance at original speed. Find the time taken by him to cover
the distance with usual speed.
a) 8 hrs
b) 5 hrs
c) 6 hrs
d) 11 hrs
e) 7 hrs
Answer: D
7. Vansh drives a car 20% faster than that of Yash. Both started at the same time from
Muzaffarnagar but unfortunately Vansh’s car broke down on the way due to this he wasted 2
hour. Find the speed of the Vansh if both of them reached Delhi at the same time and the
distance between Muzaffarnagar and Delhi is 150 km
a) 24 km/h
b) 18 km/h
c) 20 km/h
d) 15 km/h
e) None of these
Answer: D
8. The speed of a ship in still water is 12 km/h more than the speed of stream and the ratio of
the speed of the ship upstream to the speed of the ship downstream is 2 : 5. Find the total
distance covered by the ship downstream in 9 hours.
a) 262 km
b) 81 km
c) 270 km
d) 144 km
e) 152 km
Answer: C
9. Rohit has some 50 paise coins, some Rs. 2 coins, some Rs. 1 coins and some Rs. 5 coins.
The value of all the coins is Rs. 50. Number of Rs. 2 coins is 5 more than the Rs. 5 coins. 50
paise coins are double in number than Rs. 1 coin. Value of 50 paise coins and Rs. 1 coins is
Rs. 26. How many Rs. 2 coins does he have?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 7
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Answer: C
10. A car travels between two cities at a speed of 60 km/hr and while returning its speed is 40
km/hr. It goes again from the 1st city to 2nd city at twice of the original speed and returns at
half of the original return speed. Find its average speed for the entire journey.
a) 55 km/hr
b) 48 km/hr
c) 50 km/hr
d) 40 km/hr
e) None of the above
Answer: D
11. There are 60 employees in a company. Now the number of employees got increased by
Due to this the expenses of the mess increased by 20 rupees per day while the average
expenditure per employee is decreased by 3 rupees. Find the original expenditure.
a) 1180 rupees
b) 1240 rupees
c) 1080 rupees
d) 1280 rupees
e) None of these
Answer: C
12. If a man runs at 9 kmph from his house, he reaches the destination 5 hours late than the
actual time and if he runs at ‘z’ kmph he reaches the destination 3 hours earlier than the
actual time. If he runs at ‘y’ kmph he reaches the destination at exact time. If (9 + z) is equal
to ‘2y’ then what is the distance of destination from his house?
a) 160km
b) 180km
c) 150km
d) 145km
e) none of these
Answer: B
13. A thief see a police van at a distance of 250 m, coming towards him at 36 km/h. Thief
takes 5 seconds to realize that there is nothing but the police is approaching him by the van
and start running away from police a 54 km/h but police realize after 10 seconds, when the
thief start running away, that he is actually a thief and gives chase at 72 km/h. How long after
thief saw police did police catchup with him?
a) 57sec
b) 48sec
c) 72sec
d) 65sec
e) 60sec
14. Distance between A and B is 1200 km. If they start moving towards each other at same
time, they will meet in 24 hrs. If A starts 10 hrs after B, then they will meet in 20 hrs. What
are their respective speeds?
a) 40 kmph, 25kmph
b) 25 kmph, 35 kmph
c) 30 kmph, 20 kmph
d) 35 kmph, 25 kmph
e) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Relative speed between A and B= 1200/24
Distance covered by (A+B) in 20 hrs = 50×20 = 1000 km
Since A starts walking after 10 hours of B.
So, Distance covered by B in 10 hrs. = 1200 – 1000 = 200 km
Speed of B = 200/10 = 20 km/hr
Speed of A = 50- 20 = 30 km/hr
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
15. A 275m long train overtakes a man walking at 9km/h, in the same direction, in 18
seconds. How much time will it take to pass a 450m long tunnel with the same speed?
a) 50.50sec
b) 65sec
c) 56.64sec
d) 40.7 sec
e) None
Answer: D
16. Three men went together for Kashi Vishwanath Temple. Their steps measure 252 cm, 280
cm and 308 cm respectively. The minimum distance, each should cover so that all can cover
the distance in complete steps is:
a) 27,680
b) 27,094
c) 27,720
d) 27,730
e) None
Answer: C
17. A car covers 1260 km in 40 hours. Calculate its average speed in meters/second?
a) 8.25 m/s
b) 8 m/s
c) 8.75 m/s
d) 8.65 m/s
e) None of these
Answer: C
18. A person covers 40% of a distance with a speed of 60 km/h and the remaining with a
speed of 40km/h. What is his average speed for the whole journey in km/h?
a) 500/11
b) 600/13
c) 500/13
d) 600/11
e) None
Answer: B
19. A man covers a distance from his house to office at 20km/hr and gets 10 min late. But if
the cover the distance at 40km/hr then the reach his office 5 min earlier. Find the distance
from his house to office.
a) 15 km
b) 18 km
c) 20 km
d) 10 km
e) None
Answer: D
20. Speed of a train is 324 km/hr. Distance travelled by the train in 198 second is –
a) 16984 meter
b) 13791meter
c) 14423meter
d) 17820meter
e) None
Answer: D
21. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 280 km/h in 14 hours. To cover the
same distance in 9 hours 48 minutes, it must travel at a speed of :
a) 300 Km/h
b) 400 Km/h
c) 450 Km/h
d) 500 Km/h
e) None
Answer: B
22. Cyclist A started his journey on cycle at 7.30 a.m. at a speed of 8 km/hr. After 30
minutes, cyclist B started from the same place but with a speed of 10 km/hr. At what time did
B overtake A?
a) 8 am
b) 10 am
c) 9 am
d) 9:30 am
e) None
Answer: B
Explanation:
A started his journey at 7.30 a.m. and B at 8 a.m.
Distance covered by A in half an hour (distance covered by a till 8 a.m.) = speed × time = 8 ×
1/2 = 4 Km
Both A and B are moving towards the same direction with the speed of 8 km/hr and 10 km/hr
respectively.
⇒Relative speed of B = 10 – 8 = 2kmph
Time taken by B to overtake A= Time taken by B (with relative speed of 2 kmph) to cover 4
km that A has covered from 7.30 am to 8 am
= 4/2= 2 hours i.e.
That means B will overtake A at (8am + 2 hrs.)= 10 a.m.
23. Q. Two persons drive towards each other from two places which are 56 km apart. The speed
of first person is 12 km/h and speed of the other is 14km/h. After how long will they be 4 km
apart if they start driving together?
a) 1 hour
b) 1 hour 30 minutes
c) 2 hours
d) 2 hours 10 minutes
e) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the two persons be 4 km apart after driving for x hours.
Therefore, 12x + 14x + 4 = 56
x = 2 hours
24. Anil goes to his office at the speed of 35 km/hr and returns to his home at the speed of 30
km/hr. If he takes total 39 hours, then what is the distance between his office and home?
a) 420 km
b) 525 km
c) 630 km
d) 210 km
e) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Given, Anil goes to office at the speed of 35 km/hr and returns to his home at 30 km/hr.
Therefore, the ratio of speed = 35 : 30 = 7 : 6
Ratio of time = 6 : 7 (reciprocal of ratio of time)
(If the distance is constant, time is reciprocal of the speed)
Sum of ratio = 6 + 7 = 13
Total time taken = 39 hours
Time taken to reach office = 39× 6/13 = 18 hours
Distance between home & office = 35×18 = 630 km
25. Speed of Deepak and Vinod are in the ratio of 19 : 12 respectively. If speed of Vinod is
84 km/hr, then what will be the speed of Deepak?
a) 114 km/hr
b) 117 km/hr
c) 126 knv/hr
d) 133 km/hr
e) None
Answer: D
Profit and Loss

⮚ Important Terms:
• Cost Price (C.P.): Price at which at an article is purchased.

• Selling Price (S.P.): Price at which at an article is sold
• Profit/Gain: The seller is said to be in profit, if selling price (S.P.) is greater than cost
price (C.P.)
• Loss: The seller is said to be in loss, if selling price (S.P.) is lesser than cost price
(C.P.)
⮚ Important Formulae:
Loss
1) Loss% = × 100
C.P.
Profit
2) Profit% = × 100
C.P.
3) When shopkeeper earns profit,
100
Cost Price = × S.P. - - - - - - (Given: Gain% and selling price of an article)
(100 + Gain%)
(100 + Gain%)
Selling Price = × C.P. - - - - - - (Given: Gain% and cost price of an article)
100
4) When shopkeeper incurs loss,

100
Cost Price = × S.P. - - - - - - (Given: Loss% and selling price of an article)
(100 - Loss%)
(100 - Loss%)
Selling Price = × C.P. - - - - - - (Given: Loss% and cost price of an article)
100
⮚ Quick Tips and Tricks

1) Profit = (S.P.) > (C.P.)
2) Loss = (S.P.) < (C.P.)
3) If profit earned by selling an article is 25 %, then S.P. = 125% of C.P.
4) If an article is sold at a loss of 30 %, then S.P. = 70 % of C.P.
5) A shopkeeper sells two similar items A and B. If A is sold at a gain of x % and B is
sold at a loss of x %, then shopkeeper always incurs a loss given by:
Common loss and 2 2
Loss% x
gain% =
=
10 10
6) A trader sells goods at cost price but uses a weight of x kg instead of y kg (false weights)
and makes profit. This profit can be calculated using the formula shown below:
True weight – False weight = Error

Error
Gain% = × 100 %
(True weight – Error)
7) If cost price of X articles is equal to selling price of Y articles, then profit can be calculated
using the formula:
a) C.P. of X = S.P. of Y
b) Number of X articles > Number of Y articles
No. of X articles – No. of Y

Profit% = articles × 100
No. of Y articles
8) If a seller makes X % above C.P. and offers a discount of Y%, then profit % or loss % can
be calculated using the formula:
X×Y
Profit or Loss% = (X – Y) –
100
9) Discount:
Discount
a) Discount% = × 100
Marked Price (M.P.)
Solved Examples:
Type 1: To find Profit/Loss or Selling Price/Cost Price.
Q 1. A shopkeeper sells an article for Rs. 200 with a loss of Rs. 20 %.

Find the cost price of the article.
a. 220
b. 250
c. 280
d. 260
Correct Option: (b)
Hint:
100
Cost Price = × S.P.
(100 – Loss%)
We are given that,

S.P. = Rs. 200 and loss = 20
100
Cost Price = × 200
(100 – 20)
100
Cost Price = × 200
80
Cost Price = Rs. 250
Q 2. A trader expects a gain of 15 % on his cost price.

If in a week his sale is of Rs. 580, then what is his profit?
a. 75.65
b. 73.26
c. 72.50
d. 70.78
Correct Option: (a)
We are given selling price = Rs. 580 and expected profit of 15 %

Therefore, we can easily solve this numerical, considering basic formulae of profit
and loss.
Let cost price = x
Selling price = C.P. + Profit
S.P. = C.P. + (15% of C.P.) ---------- (We know that profit is gained on cost price)
580 = x + (0.15 x)
580 = 1.15 x
Therefore,
x = 504.347
Cost Price = Rs. 504.35
Now, we have the cost price and hence,
Profit = S. P. – C.P. = 580 – 504.35 = Rs. 75.65
The trader gets a profit of Rs. 75.65
Alternate solution: This numerical can be easily solved using the trick specified
below. Using such tricks reduce time consumed to solve the numerical.
Hint:
100
Cost Price = × S.P.
(100 + Gain%)
100
Cost Price = × 580
(100 + 15)
100
Cost Price = × 580 = Rs. 504.35
(115)
Therefore,
Profit = C.P. – S.P.
C.P. = Rs.504. 35 and S.P. = Rs. 580
Profit = 580 – 504.35 = Rs. 75.65
The trader gets a profit of Rs. 75.65
Q 3. If a boy sells a book for Rs. 450 he gets a loss of 10 %, then find cost price.
To gain 10 %, what should be the selling price?
a. 400, 500
b. 550, 600
c. 500, 550
d. 475, 525
Correct Option: (c)
1) Find cost price
Let C.P. of book = x and S.P. = Rs. 450

S.P. of book = C.P. – (10% of C.P.)
S.P. = x – (0.10x)
450 = 0.9 x
x i.e cost price = Rs. 500
2) Find Selling Price to gain 10 %.
Now, we are asked to find selling price to gain 10% profit.
Hint:
(100 + Gain%)
Selling Price = × C.P.
100
(100 + 10)
Selling Price = × 500
100
(110)
Selling Price = × 500
100
Therefore, selling Price = Rs. 550
Q 4. A merchant sells 30 metres of cloth and gains selling price of 10 metres.

Find the gain percent.
a. 15 % b. 25 % c. 50 % d. 75%
Correct Option: (c)

Here, selling price of 10 m cloth is obtained as profit.
Profit of 10 m cloth = (S.P. of 30 m cloth) – (C.P. of 30 m cloth)
Selling price of 20 m cloth = Selling Price of 30 m of cloth
Let cost of each metre be Rs. 100.
Therefore, cost price of 20 m cloth = Rs. 2000 and S.P. of 20 m cloth = Rs. Rs. 3000
Profit of 50 % was made by the merchant.
Type 2: Calculate profit/loss If cost price of X articles is equal to selling price of Y

articles. (C.P. of X articles = S.P. of Y articles)
Q 1. S.P. of 10 candles is same as C.P. of 12 candles. Find the gain percent.
a. 11 %
b. 15 %
c. 20 %
d. 25 %
Correct Option : (c)
(Number of Y articles > Number of X articles)
Hint:
No. of X articles – No. of Y
Profit% = articles × 100
No. of Y articles
No. of X articles = 10
No. of Y articles = 12
Therefore,
Profit% 12 – 10 200
× 100 =
= 10 10
Profit % = 20 %
Q 2. The selling price of 40 apples is equal to cost price of 35 apples.

Find the profit or loss obtained.
a. Gain of 5.5 %
b. Gain of 12.5 %
c. Loss of 5.5 %
d. Loss of 12.5 %
Correct Option: (d)

Let C.P. of each apple be Re 1/-.
Therefore,
C.P. of 40 apples = Rs. 40
S.P. of 40 apples = Rs. 35
C.P. of 40 apples > S.P. of 40 apples
Loss = 40 – 35 = Rs. 5
Loss
Loss% = × 100
C.P.
5
Loss% = × 100 = 12.5%
40
Q 3. A man purchased two plots for Rs. 5,00,000. On one he gains 15 % while on the other he losses
15%. Find how much does he gain or lose in the transaction.
a. 1.5 %
b. 2 %
c. 2.25 %
d. 2.50 %
Correct Option: (c)
Q 4. A boy bought camel and carriage for Rs. 5000. He sells the camel at a gain of 20% and the
carriage at a loss of 10%. If he gains 3% on the whole, then find the cost of the camel.
a. 2170
b. 2400
c. 2315
d. 2600
Correct Option: (a)
Now, in this numerical, there is no common loss and gain %.

Hence, solve it making equations.
Let cost price of camel be x.

As cost of camel and carriage = Rs 5000
Cost of carriage = Rs. (5000 – x)
After selling camel he gains 20% and on carriage a loss of 10%. But on the whole he gains 3%.
Therefore,
20% of x – 10 % of (5000 – x) = 3 % of 5000
20 10 3
×x– × (5000 – x) = × 5000
100 100 100
x (5000 – x)
– = 150
5 10
10x (5000 – x) × 10
– = 150 × 10
5 10
2x-5000+x=1500
3x=1500+5000
x=2166.67
The cost of camel = Rs. 2166.67

Option (a) is the correct answer
Q 5. A man sells one camera A for Rs. 7500 at a gain of 20% and another camera B
for Rs. 8550 at a loss of 5 %. Find his total loss or gain%.
a. 2.7 %
b. 5.2 %
c. 4.2 %
d. 5.1 %
Correct Option: (b)
Here, we just know the selling price and the gain and loss incurred, on two cameras.
Therefore, first calculate the cost price of both the cameras, because gain or loss is calculated on the
cost price of the material.

Hint:
100
When shopkeeper earns profit, Cost Price = × S.P.
(100 + Gain%)
When shopkeeper incurs loss, Cost Price 100

× S.P.
= (100 – Loss%)
100 100
C.P. of camera A = × 7500 = × 7500 = Rs. 6250
(100 +20) 120
100 100
C.P. of camera B = × 8550 = × 8550 = Rs. 9000
(100 – 5) 95
Total C.P. = Cost of camera A + Cost of camera B

Total C.P. = 6250 + 9000 = Rs. 15250
Total S.P. = 7500 + 8550 = Rs. 16050
Selling Price > Cost Price, hence man gains during this transaction.
Gain = S.P. – C.P. = 16050 – 15250 = Rs. 800
Gain
Gain% = × 100
C.P.
Gain% 800
× 100 = 5.24%
= 15250
Type 4: Trader sells goods at cost price but uses a weight of x kg instead of y kg
(false weights) and makes profit. Calculate profit.
Q 1. A shopkeeper sells his goods at cost price but uses a weight of 970 grams for a
kg. weight. What is his gain percent?
a. 5.08 %
b. 4.23 %
c. 3.26 %
d. 3.09 %
Correct Option: (d)

Error
Gain% = × 100 %
Error = True weight – False weight

Error = 1000 – 970 = 30
Gain% = 30 × 100 %
(1000 – 30)
Gain %= 3.09%
Q 2. A dishonest shopkeeper sells his groceries using weights 10 % less than true
weights and makes a profit of 30 %. Find his total gain percentage.
a. 49.4 %
b. 44.44 %
c. 55.55 %
d. 39.88 %
Correct Option: (b)
Let the weight of the grocery bag be 1000 gm.

Now, the shopkeeper sells his grocery using weights 10 % less than true weights.
Hence, actual weight of bag = 90 % of 1000 gm = 900 gm
If each gram = Re.1, C.P. of each bag containing 900 gm = Rs. 900
The shopkeeper sells with a gain of 30 % on true C.P.
Calculate the S.P.

(100 + Gain%)
Selling Price = × C.P.
100
Therefore,
130
Selling Price = × Rs. 1000 = Rs. 13000
100
Gain = S.P. – C.P. = 1300 – 900 = Rs. 400

400
Gain% = × 100 = 44.44%
900
Q 3. A dealer sells his goods at cost price. If by using false weights he gains
4(8/23)% then find the weight he uses for 1 kg.
a. 968.53 gm
b. 992.56 gm
c. 958.34 gm
d. 950.50 gm
Correct Option: (c)

Error
Gain% = × 100 %
8
We are given that, dealer gains 4 % after selling the goods at cost price.
23
Let error be x.
8 x
4 %= × 100 %
23 (1000 – x)
10
100x
0 = %
23 (1000 – x)
(1000 – x) = 23 x
1000 = 24 x
x = 41.66
False weight = True weight – Error

False weight = 1000 – 41.66 = 958.34 gms
The false weight used by the dealer is 958.34 grams.
Type 5: Numerical on Discount and Successive discounts/profit
Q 1. After two successive discounts, a tie with a list price of Rs. 120 is available
at Rs. 90. If second discount is 9 %, what is the first discount?
a. 15.23 %
b. 13.26 %
c. 17.58 %
d. 18.53 %
Correct Option: (c)
Let first discount = x

91 % discount of (100 – x) % of 120 = 90
91 (100 – x)
× × 120 = 90
100 100
(100 – x) (90 × 100 × 100)

= 82.42
= (120 × 91)
x = (100 – 82.42) = 17.58
Therefore, first discount = 17.58 %
Q 2. Find the single discount equivalent to a series discount of 30 %, 20 % and 10 %.
a. 48.3 %
b. 49.6 %
c. 38.21 %
d. 33.33 %
Correct Option: (b)
Let marked price be Rs. 100

Therefore, selling price = 90%, 80% and 70% of Rs. 100
90 80 70
Selling Price = × × × 100 = 50.4
100 100 100
Selling Price = Rs. 50.4
Required discount = Marked Price – Selling Price

= 100 – 50.4
= 49.6 %
Q 3. A dealer marks the price of all the goods at 30 % above the cost price and assumes that he will
make a profit of 15 % if he offers a discount of 15%.
Find what will be his actual profit on sales?
a. 15 %
b. 30 %
c. 12.50 %
d. 10.50 %
Correct Option: (d)
Let cost price goods be Rs. 100

Marked price (Selling Price) marked by the shopkeeper on goods = Rs. 130
He sells the goods at a discount of 15 %
Therefore,
Selling price = 85 % of Rs. 130 = Rs. 110.50
Gain = S.P. – C.P. = 110.5 – 100 = 10.50 %
Alternate solution:
He sells the goods at a discount of 15 %
15% discount on Rs. 130 = Rs. 19.50
Selling Price = Marked Price – Discount = 130 – 19.50 = Rs. 110.50
Q 4. A manufacturer sells a pair shoes to a wholesale dealer at a profit of 20 %.

Wholesaler sells them to retailer at a profit of 25 %. The shoes are again sold to
the customer for Rs. 50.50, thereby earning a profit of 30 %.
Find the cost price of manufacturer.
a. Rs. 20.36
b. Rs. 22.90
c. Rs. 25.89
d. Rs. 30.50
Correct Option: (c)
Profit earned by manufacturer = 20 %

Profit earned by wholesaler = 25 %
Profit earned by retailer = 30%
S.P. of shoes = Rs. 50
Therefore, 130 % of 125 % of 120 % of x = 50.50
120 125 130 5050
= × × ×x=
100 100 100 100
195 5050
x=
100 100
5050 × 100
x=
195 × 100
x = 25.89
Cost price of shoes = Rs. 25.8
Probability
Probability means the possibility or chances of an event occurring or happening.
For example, when a coin is tossed, then we will get ahead or tail. It is a state of probability.
In an event, the happening probability is equal to the ratio of favourable outcomes to the total
number of possible outcomes.
It represents as,
Number of favorable outcomes

= ___________________________________
Total number of possible outcomes
⮚ Experiment:
o An operation which can produce some well-defined outcomes is called an
experiment.
⮚ Random Experiment:
o An experiment in which all possible outcomes are know and the exact output
cannot be predicted in advance, is called a random experiment.
o Examples:
o Rolling an unbiased dice.
o Tossing a fair coin.
o Drawing a card from a pack of well-shuffled cards.
o Picking up a ball of certain colour from a bag containing balls of different
colours.
o Details:
o When we throw a coin, then either a Head (H) or a Tail (T) appears.
o A dice is a solid cube, having 6 faces, marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 respectively.
When we throw a die, the outcome is the number that appears on its upper
face.
o A pack of cards has 52 cards.
▪It has 13 cards of each suit, name Spades, Clubs, Hearts and
Diamonds.
▪ Cards of spades and clubs are black cards.
▪ Cards of hearts and diamonds are red cards.
▪ There are 4 honours of each unit.
▪ There are Kings, Queens and Jacks. These are all called face cards.
⮚ Sample Space:
o When we perform an experiment, then the set S of all possible outcomes is
called the sample space.
o Examples:
o In tossing a coin, S = {H, T}
o If two coins are tossed, the S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}.
o In rolling a dice, we have, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.
⮚ Event:
o Any subset of a sample space is called an event.
Practice Questions
1. A coin is thrown two times What is the probability that at least one tail is obtained?
A) ¾ B) ¼ C) 1/3 D) 2/3
2.What is the probability of getting a numbered card when drawn from the pack of 52 cards?
A) 1/13 B) 1/9 C) 9/13 D) 11/13
3.There are 7 purple clips and 5 brown clips. Two clips are selected one by one without
replacement. Find the probability that the first is brown and the second is purple.
A) 1/35 B) 35/132 C) 1/132 D) 35/144
4. Find the probability of getting a sum of 8 when two dice are thrown?
A) 1/8 B) 1/5 C) ¼ D) 5/36
5. Find the probability of an honour card when a card is drawn at random from the pack of 52
cards.
A) 4/13 B) 1/3 C) 5/12 D) 7/52
6. What is the probability of a face card when a card is drawn at random from the pack of 52
cards?
A) 1/13 B) 2/13 C) 3/13 D) 4/13
7. If two dice are rolled together then find the probability as getting at least one ‘3’?
A) 11/36 B) 1/12 C) 1/36 D) 13/25
8. If a single six-sided die is rolled then find the probability of getting either 3 or 4.
A) ½ B) 1/3 C) ¼ D) 2/3
9. A container contains 1 red, 3 black, 2 pink and 4 violet gems. If a single gem is chosen at
random from the container, then find the probability that it is violet or black?
A) 1/10 B) 3/10 C) 7/10 D) 9/10
10. A jar contains 63 balls ( 1,2,3,……., 63). Two balls are picked at random from the jar one
after one and without any replacement. what is the probability that the sum of both balls drawn
is even?
A) 5/21 B) 3/23 C) 5/63 D) None of these
11. There are 30 students in a class, 15 are boys and 15 are girls. In the final exam, 5 boys and
4 girls made an A grade. If a student is chosen at random from the class, what is the probability
of choosing a girl or an ‘A grade student?
A) ¼ B) 3/10 C) 1/3 D) 2/3
12. What is the probability when a card is drawn at random from a deck of 52 cards is either
an ace or a club?
A) 2/13 B) 3/13 C) 4/13 D) 5/23
13. One card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards well shuffling. Calculate the probability that
the card will not be a king.
A) 12/13 B) 3/13 C) 7/13 D) 5/23
14.If P(A) = 7/13, P(B) = 9/13 and P(A∩B) = 4/13, find the value of P(A|B).
A) 1/9 B) 2/9 C) 3/9 D) 4/9
15. A one rupee coin and a two rupee coin are tossed once, then calculate a sample space.
A) [ HH, HT, TH, TT] B) [ HH, TT]
C) [ TH, HT] D) [HH, TH, TT]
16. There are 20 tickets numbered 1 to 20. These tickets are mixed up and then a ticket is
drawn at random. Find the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple
of 4 or 5?
A) ¼ B) 2/13 C) 8/15 D) None of these
Answers
1. Answer:- A
Sol: Sample space = [TT, TH, HT,HH]
Total number of ways = 2 × 2 = 4.
Favourite Cases = 3
P (A) = 3/4
Tricks:-
P (of getting at least one tail) = 1 – P (no head)⇒ 1 – 1/4 = 3/4
2. Answer :- C
Sol:
Total Cards = 52.
Numbered Cards = 9 (2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10) in each suit
Numbered cards in four suit = 4 ×9 = 36
P (E) = 36/52 = 9/13
3. Answer :- B
Sol: P (B) × P (P) = (5/12) x (7/11) = 35/132
4. Answer: D
Sol: Total number of ways = 6 × 6 = 36 ways.
Favorable cases = (2, 6) (6, 2) (3, 5) (5, 3) (4, 4) — 5 ways.
P (A) = 5/36 = 5/36
5. Answer :-A
Sol: Honor cards = 4 (A, J, Q, K) in each suit
Honor cards in 4 suit = 4 × 4 = 16
P (honor card) = 16/52 = 4/13
6. Answer :-C
Solution: face cards = 3 (J,Q,K) in each suit
Face cards in 4 suits = 3 × 4 = 12 Cards.
P (face Card) = 12/52 = 3/13
7. Answer :- A
Sol: Total number of ways = 6 × 6 = 36.
Probability of getting number ‘3′ at least one time
= 1 – (Probability of getting no number 4)
= 1 – (5/6) x (5/6)
= 1 – 25/36
= 11/36
8. Answer:- B
Solution:- Total outcomes = 6
Probability of getting a single number when rolled a die = 1/6
So, P(3) = 1/6 and P(4) = 1/6
Thus, the probability of getting either 3 or 4
= P(3)+P(4)
= 1/6 + 1/6
= 1/3
9. Answer :-C
Sol :- Total gems =( 1 + 3 + 2 + 4 ) = 10
probability of getting a violet gem = 4/10
Probability of getting a black gem = 3/10
Now, P ( Violet or Black) = P(violet) + P(Black)
= 4/10 + 3/10
= 7/10
10. Answer :- D
Sol.
Sum of numbers can be even if we add either two even numbers or two odd numbers.
Number of even numbers from 1 to 63 = 31
Number of odd numbers from 1 to 63 = 32
Probability of getting two even numbers = (32/63) * (31/62) = 16/63
Probability of getting two odd numbers = (31/63) * (30/62) = 5/21
P(two even numbers OR two odd numbers) = 16/63 + 5/21 = 31/63
11. Answer:- D
Sol: Here, the total number of boys = 15 and the total number of girls = 15
Also, girls getting A grade = 4 and boys getting an A grade = 5
Probability of choosing a girl = 15/30
Probability of choosing A grade student= 9/30
Now, an A-grade student chosen can be a girl.
So the probability of choosing it = 4/30
Required probability of choosing a girl or an A grade student
= 15/30 + 9/30 – 4/30
= 1/2 + 3/10 – 2/15
= 2/3
12. Answer:- C
Sol: There are 4 aces in a pack, 13 club cards and 1 ace of club card.
Now, the probability of getting an ace = 4/52
Probability of getting a club = 13/52
Probability of getting an ace of club = 1/52
Required probability of getting an ace or a club
= 4/52 + 13/52 – 1/52
= 16/52
= 4/13
13. Answer:- A
Solution:
Well-shuffling ensures equally likely outcomes.
Total king of a deck = 4
The number of favourable outcomes F= 52 – 4 = 48
The number of possible outcomes = 52
Therefore, the required probability
= 48/52 = 12/13
14. Answer :- D
Solution:
P(A|B) = P(A∩B)/P(B) = (4/13)/(9/13) = 4/9.
15. Answer:- A
Solution:
The outcomes are either Head (H) or tail(T).
Now,heads on both coins = (H,H) = HH
Tails on both coins = ( T, T) = TT
Probability of head on one rupee coin and Tail on the two rupee coins = (H, T) = HT
And Tail on one rupee coin and Head on the two rupee coin = (T, H) = TH
Thus, the sample space ,S = [HH, HT, TH, TT]
16. Answer: D
Solution:
Here, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, …., 19, 20} = 20
Multiples of 4: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20 (5 tickets)
Multiples of 5: 5, 10, 15, 20 (4 tickets)
Notice that ticket number 20 is a multiple of both 4 and 5, so we have counted it twice.
Therefore, we need to subtract one from the total count.
Total number of tickets with numbers that are multiples of 4 or 5: 5 + 4 – 1 = 8
The total number of tickets is 20, so the probability of drawing a ticket with a number that is
a multiple of 4 or 5 is:
P = 8/20 = 2/5 = 0.4
Therefore, the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 4 or 5 is
0.4 or 40%.
Arithmetic Reasoning
Exercise1
1.The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their
ages three years age ?
A) 71 years B) 72 years C) 74 years D) 77
years
2. Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three
tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 73. What are the fares for
cities B and C from A ?
A) Rs. 4, Rs. 23 B) Rs. 13, Rs. 17 C) Rs. 15, Rs. 14 D) Rs. 17, Rs.
13
3. An institute organized a fete and 1/5 of the girls and 1/8 of the boys participated in the
same. What fraction of the total number of students took part in the fete?
A) 2/13 B) 13/40 C) Data inadequate D) None of
these
4. A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs. 96 on eatables. Four
of them, however, did not turn up. As a consequence, the remaining ones had to contribute Rs.
4 each extra. The number of those who attended the picnic was
A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24
5. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, "If you give me three cards, you will
have as many as E has and if I give you three cards, you will have as many as D has." A and B
together have 10 cards more than what D and E together have. If B has two cards more than
what C has and the total number of cards be 133, how many cards does B have?
A) 22 B) 23 C) 25 D) 35
6. A pineapple costs Rs. 7 each. A watermelon costs Rs. 5 each. X spends Rs. 38 on these
fruits. The number of pineapples purchased is
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) Data inadequate
7. A woman says, "If you reverse my own age, the figures represent my husband's age. He is,
of course, senior to me and the difference between our ages is one-eleventh of their sum." The
woman's age is
A) 23 years B) 34 years C) 45 years D) none of these
8. A girl counted in the following way on the fingers of her left hand: She started by calling the
thumb 1, the index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5 and then reversed
direction calling the ring finger 6, middle finger 7 and so on. She counted upto 1994. She ended
counting on which finger?
A) Thumb B) Index finger C) Middle finger D) Ring finger
9. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee
notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes
that he has?
A) 45 B) 60 C) 75 D) 90
10. What is the product of all the numbers in the dial of a telephone?
A) 1,58,480 B) 1,59,450 C) 1,59,480 D) None of these
11. A is 3 years older to B and 3 years younger to C, while B and D are twins. How many
years older is C to D?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 6 D) 12
12. The 30 members of a club decided to play a badminton singles tournament. Every time a
member loses a game he is out of the tournament. There are no ties. What is the minimum
number of matches that must be played to determine the winner?
A) 15 B) 29 C) 61 D) none of these
13. In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The distance between the
two trees is 2 metres and a distance of one metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the
garden. The length of the garden is
A) 20m B) 22m C) 26m D) 24m
14. 12 year old Manik is three times as old as his brother Rahul. How old will Manik be when
he is twice as old as Rahul?
15. A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut each roll of equal
length into 10 pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a minute. How many rolls would be cut in
24 minutes?
A) 32 rolls B) 54 rolls C) 108 rolls D) 120 rolls
16. In a class of 60 students, the number of boys and girls participating in the annual sports is
in the ratio 3 : 2 respectively. The number of girls not participating in the sports is 5 more than
the number of boys not participating in the sports. If the number of boys participating in the
sports is 15, then how many girls are there in the class?
A) 20 B) 25 C) 30 D) Data inadequate
17.There are deer and peacocks in a zoo. By counting heads they are 80. The number of their
legs is 200. How many peacocks are there?
A) 20 B) 50 C) 30 D) 60
18. A man wears socks of two colours - Black and brown. He has altogether 20 black socks
and 20 brown socks in a drawer. Supposing he has to take out the socks in the dark, how many
must he take out to be sure that he has a matching pair?
A) 3 B) 20 C) 29 D) none of these
19. A motorist knows four different routes from Bristol to Birmingham. From Birmingham to
Sheffield he knows three different routes and from Sheffield to Carlisle he knows two different
routes. How many routes does he know from Bristol to Carlisle ?v
A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 24
20. Mac has £ 3 more than Ken, but then Ken wins on the horses and trebles his money, so that
he now has £ 2 more than the original amount of money that the two boys had between them.
How much money did Mac and Ken have between them before Ken's win?
A) 9 B) 11 C) 13 D) 15
21.In a class, there are 18 boys who are over 160 cm tall. If these constitute three-fourths of
the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class,
what is the number of girls in the class?
A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) 24
22. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times as old as
his son. The age of the son (in years) is
A) 18 B) 12 C) 15 D) 20
23. A waiter's salary consists of his salary and tips. During one week his tips were 5/4 of his
salary. What fraction of his income came from tips?
A) 4/9 B) 5/4 C) 5/8 D) 5/9
24. If you write down all the numbers from 1 to 100, then how many times do you write 3?
A) 18 B) 11 C) 21 D) 20
25. If 100 cats kill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would kill 4 mice in how many days?
A) 1days B) 4 days C) 40 days D) 100 days
26. Five bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 5, 7, 10 and 12
seconds. How many times will they toll together in one hour excluding the one at the start?
A) 7 times B) 8 times C) 9 times D) 11 times
27.A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half of the number of men. In
city Y, 10 men leave the bus and five women enter. Now, number of men and women is equal.
In the beginning, how many passengers entered the bus?
A) 15 B) 30 C) 36 D) 45
28.A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, "If you give me 3 cards, you will have
as many as I have at this moment while if D takes 5 cards from you, he will have as many as E
has." A and C together have twice as many cards as E has. B and D together also have the same
number of cards as A and C taken together. If together they have 150 cards, how many cards
has C got?
A) 28 B) 29 C) 31 D) 35
29. A farmer built a fence around his square plot. He used 27 fence poles on each side of the
square. How many poles did he need altogether?
A) 100 B) 104 C) 108 D) None of these
30.In a city, 40% of the adults are illiterate while 85% of the children are literate. If the ratio
of the adults to that of the children is 2 : 3, then what percent of the population is literate ?
A) 20% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75%
31.A is three times as old as B. C was twice-as old as A four years ago. In four years' time, A
will be 31. What are the present ages of B and C?
A) 9, 46 B) 9, 50 C) 10, 46 D) 10, 50
32. Today is Varun's birthday. One year, from today he will be twice as old as he was 12
years ago. How old is Varun today?
33. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all
sparrows but six, all pigeons but six, and all ducks but six. How many birds he had in the bag
in all?
A) 9 B) 18 C) 27 D) 36
34. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation - two ducks in
front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two ducks?
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9
35. Three friends had dinner at a restaurant. When the bill was received, Amita paid 2/3 as
much as Veena paid and Veena paid 1/2 as much as Tanya paid. What faction of the bill did
Veena pay?
A) 1/3 B) 3/11 C) 12/13 D) 5/8
36.In a class, 20% of the members own only two cars each, 40% of the remaining own three
cars each and the remaining members own only one car each. Which of the following
statements is definitely true from the given statements?
A) Only 20% of the total members own three cars each.
B) 48% of the total members own only one car each.
C) 60% of the total members own at least two cars each.
D) 80% of the total members own at least one car.
37. When Rahul was born, his father was 32 years older than his brother and his mother was
25 years older than his sister. If Rahul's brother is 6 years older than him and his mother is 3
years younger than his father, how old was Rahul's sister when he was born?
38. A certain number of horses and an equal number of men are going somewhere. Half of the
owners are on their horses' back while the remaining ones are walking along leading their
horses. If the number of legs walking on the ground is 70, how many horses are there?
A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 16
39. A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many was he left with?
A) Nil B) 8 C) 9 D) 17
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.
1 A 2 B 3 C 4 A 5 C
6 C 7 A 8 B 9 D 10 D
11 C 12 B 13 D 14 B 15 D
16 C 17 D 18 A 19 D 20 C
21 B 22 C 23 D 24 D 25 D
26 B 27 D 28 A 29 B 30 D
31 B 32 C 33 A 34 A 35 B
36 B 37 B 38 C 39 C
Exercise 2
1. The 30 members of a club decided to play a badminton singles tournament. Every time a
member loses a game he is out of the tournament. There are no ties. What is the minimum
number of matches that must be played to determine the winner?
(a) 15 (b) 29 (c) 61 (d) None of these
2.A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut each roll of equal
length into 10 pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a minute. How many rolls would be cut in
24 minutes?
(a) 32 rolls (b) 54 rolls (c) 108 rolls (d) 120 rolls
3. In a class of 60 students, the number of boys and girls participating in the annual sports is in
the ratio 3 2 respectively. The number of girls not participating in the - sports is 5 more than
the number of boys not participating in the sports. If the number of boys participating in the
sports is 15, then how many girls are there in the class?
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) Data inadequate
4. At a dinner party every two guests used a bowl of rice between them, every three guests used
a bowl of daal between them and every four used a bowl of meat between them. There were
altogether 65 dishes. How many guests were present at the party?
5. In a family each daughter has the same number of brothers as she has sisters and each son
has twice as many sisters as he has brothers. How many sons are there in the family?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
6. In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The distance between the two
trees is 2 metres and a distance of one metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden.
The length of the garden is
(a) 20m (b) 22m (c) 24m (d) 26m
7. In a family, the father took 1 /4 of the cake and he had 3 times as much as each of the other
members had. The total number of family members is
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 12
8. In three coloured boxes - Red, Green and Blue, 108 balls are placed. There are twice as many
balls in the green and red boxes combined as there are in the blue box and twice as many in the
blue box as there are in the red box. How many balls are there in the green box?
a) 18 (b) 36 (c) 45 (d) None of these
9. A, B C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, "If you give me 3 cards, you will have
as many as 1 have at this moment while if D takes 5 cards from you, he will have as many as
E has." A and C together have twice as many cards as E has B and D together also have the
same number of cards as A and C taken together. If together they have 150 cards, how many
cards has C got ?
(a) 28 (b) 29 (c) 31 (d) 35
10. A man wears socks of two colours - Black and brown. He has altogether 20 black socks
and 20 brown socks in a drawer. Supposing he has to take out the socks in the dark, how many
must he take out to be sure that he has a matching pair?
11. Nithya is Sam's Sister. Mogan is Sam’s Father. Selvan is Rajan’s Son. Rajan is Mogan s
Brother. How is Nithya related to Selvan?
a) Daughter (b) Sister (c) Cousin (d) Wife
12. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2,3 of 4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet.
If I keep 5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I have to
pack and distribute?
(a) 25 (b) 37 (c) 54 (d) 65
13. Mr. X, a mathematician, defines a number as ‘connected with 6 if it is divisible by 6 or if

the sum of its digits is 6, or if 6 is one of the digits of the number. Other numbers are all ‘not
connected with 6’. As per this definition, the number of integers from 1 to 60 (both inclusive)
which are not connected with 6 is
(a) 18 (b) 22 (c) 42 (d) 43
14. A player holds 13 cards of four suits, of which seven are black and six are red. There are
twice as many diamonds as spades and twice as many hearts as diamonds. How many clubs
does he hold?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
15. Nitin's age was equal to square of some number last year, .and the following year it would
be cube of a number. If again Nitin’s age has to be equal to the cube of some number, then for
how long he will have to wait?
(a) 10 years (b) 38 years (c) 39 years (d) 64 years
16. At the end of a business conference the ten people present all shake hands with each other
once. How many handshakes will there be altogether?
(a) 20 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 90
17. Anand, David, Karim and Mano are fans of games. Each has a different favourite game
among hockey, chess, cricket and football. David doesn't watch cricket and hockey matches.
Anand doesn't like hockey, chess and cricket. Mano doesn't watch cricket. Which is favourite
game of Karim?
(a) chess (b) cricket (c) football (d) hockey
18. David gets on the elevator at the 11th floor of a building and rides up at the rate of 57 floors
per minute. At the same time. Albert gets on an elevator at the 51st floor of the same building
and rides down at the rate of 63 floors per minute. If they continue travelling at these rates,
then at which floor will their paths cross?
(a) 19 (b) 28 (c) 30 (d) 37
19. A fibres 5 shots to B’s 3 but A kills only once in 3 shots while B kills once in 2 shots. When
B has missed 27 times, A has killed
(a) 30 birds (b) 60 birds (c) 72 birds (d) 90 birds
20. First bunch of bananas has (1/4) again as many bananas as a second bunch. If the second
bunch has 3 bananas less than the first bunch, then the number of bananas in the first bunch is
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 15
21. A boy’s age is one fourth of his father’s age. The sum of the boy’s age and his father’s age
is 35. What will be father's age after 8 years?
(a) 15 (b) 28 (c) 35 (d) 36
22. If I candle in box number 1 is placed in box number, box-2 has twice the number of candles
that box 1has. If 1 candle from box-2 is placed in box-1, the box-2 and I have the same number
of candles. How many candles were there in box 1 and box-2? Box-1 Box-2 Box-1 Box-2
(a) 5 : 3 (b) 7 : 5 (c) 6 : 4 (d) 5 : 7
23. A boat moves from a jetty towards East. After sailing for 9 nautical miles, she turns towards
right and covers another 12 nautical miles. If she wants to go back to the jetty, what is the
shortest distance now from her present position?
(a) 21 nautical miles (b) 20 nautical miles
(c) 18 nautical miles (d) 15 nautical miles
24.The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 pages is
a) 732 b) 990 c) 1098 d) 1305
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.
1 b 2 d 3 c 4 a 5 b
6 c 7 c 8 d 9 a 10 a
11 c 12 a 13 d 14 c 15 b
16 b 17 b 18 c 19 a 20 d
21 d 22 d 23 d 24 b
Logical Verbal Reasoning
1. If all cats are animals, and some animals are dogs, then which of the following
statements must be true?
(1)All dogs are cats. (2) Some cats are dogs.
(3) Some dogs are not cats. (4) All animals are cats.
2. If some students are musicians and all musicians are artists, which of the following
(1) Some students are artists. (2) All students are artists.
(3) All artists are students. (4) Some artists are not students
3. If no birds can swim, and all swimmers can fly, which of the following statements must
be true?
(1) All birds can fly. (2) Some birds can fly.
(3) No birds can fly. (4) Some swimmers can't fly
4. If all cats have tails, and some animals with tails are dogs, which of the following
statements is false?
(1) All dogs have tails. (2) Some dogs are not cats.
(3) Some animals have tails. (4) Some cats are dogs
5. If all squares are rectangles, and all rectangles have four sides, which of the following
statements is necessarily true?
(1) All squares have four sides. (2) All rectangles are squares.
(3) All squares are quadrilaterals. (4) All quadrilaterals are squares
6. If some athletes are dancers, and all dancers are flexible, which of the following
(1) Some dancers are athletes. (2) All flexible people are athletes.
(3) Some flexible people are not athletes. (4) All athletes are dancers
7. If no reptiles are mammals, and all mammals give birth to live young, which of the
following statements is necessarily true?
(1) No reptiles give birth to live young. (2) All mammals are reptiles.
(3) Some reptiles give birth to live young. (4) No mammals give birth to live young
8. If all roses are flowers, and some flowers are red, which of the following statements is
necessarily true?
(1) Some roses are red. (2) All red things are roses.
(3) No roses are red. (4) All flowers are roses
9. If some birds can sing, and all singers are birds, which of the following statements is
necessarily true?
(1) Some singers can't sing. (2) All birds can sing.
(3) No singers are birds. (4) All singing birds are singers

No. No. No.
1 2 2 1 3 3
4 2 5 1 6 3
7 1 8 1 9 2
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Shri G. M. Shetty Educational Campus, 36, Ganeshnagar, Pune-411038

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Kannada Sangha Pune’s

KAVERI COLLEGE OF ARTS, SCIENCE AND

BBA Admission 2024

CET Guidance and Sample Questions (Series I)

For more details contact

Dr. Shweta Bapat Ms. Chitra Alavani Dr. Muckta Karmarkar

Highly Qualified & Research Oriented Teaching Faculty

Well Developed Infrastructure

Voluminous Library with E – Resources

Well Developed Sports Facility

Holistic Development of Students

Enriched Curricular & Extra-Curricular Activities

Vibrant Placement Cell

Excellent Industry Institute Interaction

Visionary and Proactive Academic Leadership

ABOUT KAVERI COLLEGE OF ARTS, SCIENCE AND COMMERCE

BBA BBA BBA

B. Com. B.A. B.Sc

Initiatives for holistic development

About BBA, BBA(IB) and BBA(CA)

Eligibility for Appearing MAH-BBA-CET 2024

MAH-BBA-CET 2024 Information:

List of common synonyms with meanings-

Idioms along with their meanings

1. A dime a dozen : Something common and easy to find.

2. Pronoun: A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun in a sentence.

3. Verb: A verb is a word that expresses an action, occurrence, or state of being.

4. Adjective: An adjective is a word that describes or modifies a noun or pronoun

5. Adverb: An adverb is a word that modifies a verb, adjective, or other adverb by

6. Preposition: A preposition is a word that shows the relationship between a noun

7. Conjunction: A conjunction is a word that connects words, phrases, or clauses

- Examples: and, but, or, so, because

8. Interjection: An interjection is a word or phrase that expresses strong emotion

Simple, Compound, and Complex sentences

1. She loves to read novels, but he prefers watching movies.

Key differences between active and passive voice:

1. Changing Pronouns and Verb Tenses:

2. Changing Time and Place Expressions:

Examples of reported speech:

1. Direct speech: "She said, 'I am going to the party.'"

2. Direct speech: "He said, 'I will call you later.'"

4. Direct speech: "She said, 'I have finished my homework.'"

5. Direct speech: "He said, 'I love pizza.'"

6. Direct speech: "She said, 'He is coming with us.'"

7. Direct speech: "He asked, 'Can you help me with this?''"

8. Direct speech: "She said, 'I don't like coffee.'"

9. Direct speech: "He said, 'I won't be able to make it tomorrow.'"

1. Which of the following sentences is correctly punctuated?

2. Give one word for- ‘One who possesses many talents.

5. Rearrange to make meaningful word- egbindinatl

6. Give antonym of- cameo

8. Find the correctly spelt word.

9. Give meaning – Bolt from the blue

11. Give synonym for the word – Obsolete

15. Find the correctly spelt word-

18. A person who does not believe in the existence of God:

20. Do you think that flying an aeroplane is a _______ experience?

26. Choose the correct antonym of the given word: Conducive

28. Give synonym- abandon

29. Give synonym- complicate

30. Select the proper prefix for – Editor

32. The punch made the boxer in pain.

34. Satish was with a natural talent for music.