SOUNDAR’S IAS ACADEMY

9790936303 / 9500330169
UPSC CSAT – TEST 5 – LEVEL 2
1. A, B and C are four cities. City B is to the north of painted and to those with exactly two sides
A. City C is to the east of City A. The distances AB Painted?
and AC are 5 km and 12 km respectively. The (a) 1 : 2 :3 (b) 3 : 6 : 8
shortest distance (in km) between the locations B (c) 1 : 3 : 4 (d) 1 : 3 : 3
and C is:
7. 20. A solid cube of 3 cm side, painted on all its
(a) 60 (b) 13
faces, is cut up into small cubes of 1 cm side. How
(c) 17 (d) 7
many of the small cubes will have exactly two
2. A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point painted faces?
‘O’ on the ground in the direction of north-east (a) 12 (b) 8
and reaches a point ‘A’ after traveling a distance (c) 6 (d) 4
of 5km. Then, from the point ‘A’ he moves to point
8. In a chess competition involving some boys and
‘B’ in the direction of north-west. Let the distance
girls of a school, every student had to play exactly
AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person away
one game with every other student. It was found
from the starting point ‘O’?
that in 300 games both the players were girls, and
(a) 7 km (b) 13 km
in 210 games both were boys. The number of
(c) 17 km (d) 11 km
games in which one player was a boy and the
3. A rectangular lawn 60 x 40m2 has two roads each other was a girl is
5m wide running between the park. One is (a) 510 (b) 525
parallel to length and another is parallel to width. (c) 540 (d) 420
Cost of gravelling is 60 paise/m2. Find the total
9. In how many ways a man can travel from A to B
cost of gravelling?
such that, he travels always towards B (only
(a) Rs. 285 (b) Rs.300
rightwards and downwards) The positions of A
(c) Rs. 240 (d) Rs. 340
and B in a crossroads street is given below.
4. A playground is in the shape of a rectangle. A sum (a) 55 (b) 64
of Rs.1,000 was spent to make the ground usable (c) 70 (d) 40
at the rate of 25 paise per sq. m. The breadth of
the ground is 50 m. If the length of the ground is
increased by 20 m, what will be the expenditure
in rupees at the same rate per sq.m.?
(a) Rs. 1200 (b) Rs. 300
(c) Rs. 250 (d) Rs. 125
5. A ladder 15 m long reaches a window which is 9
m above the ground on one side of a street.
Keeping its foot at the same point, the ladder is 10. N persons stand on the circumference of a circle
turned to the other side of the street to reach a at distinct points. Each possible pair of persons,
window 12 m high. Find the width of the street. not standing next to each other, sings a two-
(a) 24 m (b) 27 m minute song one pair after the other. If the total
(c) 21 m (d) 36 m time taken for singing is 70 minutes, what is N?
(a) 35 (b)10
6. A cube of the side 4 cm is painted on all 6 faces (c) 9 (d) None of the above
with the same colour. It is then broken up into
smaller cubes, each of side 1 cm. What is the 11. Which day is 10th October, 2027?
proportion of the number of cubes with no paint (a) Sunday (b) Monday
to the number of cubes with exactly one face (c) Tuesday (d) Saturday
 PASSAGE -1
Coral reefs are one of the most fragile,
biologically complex, and diverse marine
ecosystems on Earth. This ecosystem is one of the
fascinating paradoxes of the biosphere: how do
clear, and thus nutrient-poor, waters support such
prolific and productive communities? Part of the
answer lies within the tissues of the corals
themselves. Symbiotic cells of algae known as
zooxanthellae carry out photosynthesis using the
metabolic wastes of the coral thereby producing
food for themselves, for their corals, hosts, and
even for other members of the reef community.
This symbiotic process allows organisms in the
reef community to use sparse nutrient resources
efficiently.
Unfortunately for coral reefs, however, a
variety of human activities are causing worldwide
degradation of shallow marine habitats by adding
nutrients to the water. Agriculture, slash-and-
burn land clearing, sewage disposal and
manufacturing that creates waste by-products all
increase nutrient loads in these waters. Typical
symptoms of reef decline are destabilized
herbivore populations and an increasing
abundance of algae and filter-feeding animals.
Declines in reef communities are consistent with
observations that nutrient input is increasing in
direct proportion to growing human populations,
thereby threatening reef communities sensitive
to subtle changes in nutrient input to their
waters.
12. The passage is primarily concerned with:
(A) describing the effects of human activities on
algae in coral reefs
(B) explaining how human activities are posing a
threat to coral reef communities
(C) discussing the process by which coral reefs
deteriorate in nutrient-poor waters
(D) explaining how coral reefs produce food for
themselves
13. The author refers to “filter-feeding animals” (line
25) in order to
(A) provide an example of a characteristic sign of
reef deterioration
(B) explain how reef communities acquire
sustenance for survival
(C) identify a factor that helps herbivore
populations thrive
(D) indicate a cause of decreasing nutrient input
in waters that reefs inhabit
14. It can be inferred from the passage that the
author describes coral reef communities as
paradoxical most likely for which of the following
reasons?
(A) They are thriving even though human
activities have depleted the nutrients in their
environment.
(B) They are able to survive in spite of an
overabundance of algae inhabiting their waters.
(C) They are able to survive in an environment
with limited food resources.
(D) Their metabolic wastes contribute to the
degradation of the waters that they inhabit.
PASSAGE-2
A meteor stream is composed of dust
particles that have been ejected from a parent
comet at a variety of velocities. These particles
follow the same orbit as the parent comet, but
due to their differing velocities they slowly gain on
or fall behind the disintegrating comet until a
shroud of dust surrounds the entire cometary
orbit. Astronomers have hypothesized that a
meteor stream should broaden with time as the
dust particles' individual orbits are perturbed by
planetary gravitational fields. A recent computer-
modeling experiment tested this hypothesis by
tracking the influence of planetary gravitation
over a projected 5,000-year period on the
positions of a group of hypothetical dust particles.
In the model, the particles were randomly
distributed throughout a computer simulation of
the orbit of an actual meteor stream, the
Geminid. The researcher found, as expected, that
the computer-model stream broadened with
time. Conventional theories, however, predicted
that the distribution of particles would be
increasingly dense toward the center of a meteor
stream. Surprisingly, the computer-model meteor
stream gradually came to resemble a thick-
walled, hollow pipe.
Whenever the Earth passes through a
meteor stream, a meteor shower occurs. Moving
at a little over 1,500,000 miles per day around its
orbit, the Earth would take, on average, just over
a day to cross the hollow, computer-model
Geminid stream if the stream were 5,000 years
old. Two brief periods of peak meteor activity
during the shower would be observed, one as the
Earth entered the thick-walled "pipe" and one as
it exited. There is no reason why the Earth should
always pass through the stream's exact center, so
the time interval between the two bursts of
activity would vary from one year to the next.
 Has the predicted twin-peaked activity Directions for the following 3 (three) items :
been observed for the actual yearly Geminid Rotated positions of a single solid are shown
meteor shower? The Geminid data between 1970 below. The various faces of the solid are marked
and 1979 shows just such a bifurcation, a with different symbols like dots, cross and line.
secondary burst of meteor activity being clearly Answer the three items that follow the given
visible at an average of 19 hours (1,200,000 miles) figures.
after the first burst. The time intervals between
the bursts suggest the actual Geminid stream is
about 3,000 years old.
15. The primary focus of the passage is on which of
the following?
(A) Comparing two scientific theories and
contrasting the predictions that each would make 20. What is the symbol on the face opposite to that
concerning a natural phenomenon containing a single dot?
(B) Describing a new theoretical model and noting (a) Four dots (b) Three dots
that it explains the nature of observations made (c) Two dots (d) Cross
of a particular natural phenomenon
(C) Evaluating the results of a particular scientific 21. What is the symbol on the face opposite to that
experiment and suggesting further areas for containing two dots?
research (a) Single dot (b) Three dots
(D) Explaining how two different natural (c) Four dots (d) Line
phenomena are related and demonstrating a way 22. What is the symbol on the face opposite to that
to measure them containing the cross?
(a) Single dot (b) Two dots
16. The author states that the research described in (c) Line (d) Four dots
the first paragraph was undertaken in order to
(A) determine the age of an actual meteor stream 23. A cylindrical bucket of height 36 cm and radius 21
(B) identify the various structural features of cm is filled with sand. The bucket is emptied on
meteor streams the ground and conical heap of sand is formed the
(C) explore the nature of a particularly interesting height of the conical is 12 cm. The radius of the
meteor stream heap at the base is
(D) test the hypothesis that meteor streams (a) 56 cm (b) 63 cm
become broader as they age (c) 21 cm (d) 42 cm
24. A well 20 m in diameter is dug 14 m deep and the
17. There are 12 towns grouped into four zones with earth taken out is spread all around it to a width
three towns per zone. It is intended to connect of 5 m to form an embankment. The height of the
the towns with telephone lines such that every embankment is:
two towns are connected with three direct lines if (a) 11.2 m (b) 12 m
they belong to the same zone, and with only one (c) 10 m (d) 12.6 m
direct line otherwise. How many direct telephone
lines are required? 25. Let A and B be two solid spheres such that the
(a)72 (b)90 surface area of B is 300% higher than the surface
(c)96 (d)144 area of A. The volume of A is found to be k% lower
than the volume of B. The value of k must be
18. In how many ways two small squares can be (a) 70% (b) 75%
selected from a chess board, such that the two (c) 94% (d) 87.5%
squares are adjacent, but not diagonal?
(a) 112 B) 49 26. A spherical lead ball of radius 10cm is melted and
(c) 98 (d) 56 small lead balls of radius 5 mm are made. The
total number of possible small lead balls is: (Take
19. Number System A = {2, 5, 8, 11 … upto 20 terms} 22
𝜋 = 7)
B ={5, 12, 19, 26 .. upto 20 term} If S = A ∪B, how
(a) 800 (b) 2000
many elements are there in S?
(c) 6400 (d) 8000
(a)37 (b)38
(c)39 (d)35
 PASSAGE - 3
Women's grassroots activism and their
vision of a new civic consciousness lay at the heart
of social reform in the United States throughout
the Progressive Era, the period between the
depression of 1893 and America's entry into the
Second World War. Though largely
disenfranchised except for school elections, white
middle-class women reformers won a variety of
victories, notably in the improvement of working
conditions, especially for women and children.
Ironically, though, child labor legislation pitted
women of different classes against one another.
To the reformers, child labor and industrial home
work were equally inhumane practices that
should be outlawed, but, as a number of women
historians have recently observed, working-class
mothers did not always share this view. Given the
precarious finances of working-class families and
the necessity of pooling the wages of as many
family members as possible, working-class
families viewed the passage and enforcement of
stringent child labor statutes as a personal
economic disaster and made strenuous efforts to
circumvent child labor laws. Yet reformers rarely
understood this resistance in terms of the
desperate economic situation of working-class
families, interpreting it instead as evidence of
poor parenting. This is not to dispute women
reformers' perception of child labor as a terribly
exploitative practice, but their understanding of
child labor and their legislative solutions for
ending it failed to take account of the economic
needs of working-class families.
27. The primary purpose of the passage is to
A) explain why women reformers of the
Progressive Era failed to achieve their goals
B) discuss the origins of child labor laws in the late
nineteenth and early twentieth centuries
C) compare the living conditions of working-class
and middle-class women in the Progressive Era
D) discuss an oversight on the part of women
reformers of the Progressive Era
PASSAGE -4
A recent report from the International
Energy Agency (IEA) on international oil supplies
indicates that oil prices could increase to over
$100 a barrel because of the global energy
shortage. The International Energy Agency, an
organization representing the 26 nations of the
Organization for Economic Cooperation and
Development (OECD), is generally considered a
reliable indicator of international energy supplies.
In a distinct change from its former reports, the
IEA has suggested in its recent report that world
governments need to make urgent revisions on
energy-related policies if a global energy crisis is
to be avoided.
According to the report, the reason for
the IEA's warning is its anticipation that economic
progress will increase global energy demands by
about 50% in the next fifteen years. The majority
of this demand is expected to come from China
and India, which will be accountable for over 60
percent of carbon emissions, the chief reason for
global warming, by 2030. Another reason stated
for the IEA’s cautionary notice is that the number
of oil suppliers is steadily decreasing. Since oil
deposits in the North Sea region will soon be
exhausted, countries supplying oil will be limited
to those in the Gulf of Persia.
The government can address this
imminent crisis through just one policy change. A
team of Harvard analysts has predicted that if oil
production is considerably expanded, oil prices
could fall in the next decade. The team maintains
that if previously under-utilized sources of oil are
harnessed and more funding is provided for the
setting up of new local refineries, the impending
crisis could be avoided.
28. According to the passage, the International
Energy Agency agrees over which of the
following?
A. Members of the OECD will have primary access
to oil supplies.
B. There is no other reliable indicator of
international energy supplies.
C. Steps can be taken to avert an energy crisis on
a worldwide level.
D. Some countries with increased demand for oil
will escalate the issue of global warming by 60%.
PASSAGE-5
Analysis of prehistoric air trapped in tiny
bubbles beneath the polar ice sheets and of the
composition of ice surrounding those bubbles
suggests a correlation between carbon dioxide
levels in the Earth’s atmosphere and global
temperature over the last 160,000 years.
Estimates of global temperature at the time air in
the bubbles was trapped rely on measuring the
relative abundances of hydrogen and its heavier
isotope, deuterium, in the ice surrounding the
bubbles. When global temperatures are relatively
low, water containing deuterium tends to
 condense and precipitate before reaching the
poles; thus, ice deposited at the poles when the
global temperature was cooler contained
relatively less deuterium than ice deposited at
warmer global temperatures. Estimates of global
temperature based on this information,
combined with analysis of the carbon dioxide
content of air trapped in ice deep beneath the
polar surface, suggest that during periods of
postglacial warming carbon dioxide in the Earth’s
atmosphere increased by approximately 40
percent.
29. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned
with doing which of the following?
(A) Describing a new method of estimating
decreases in global temperature that have
occurred over the last 160,000 years
(B) Describing a method of analysis that provides
information regarding the relation between the
carbon dioxide content of the Earth’s atmosphere
and global temperature
(C) Presenting information that suggests that
global temperature has increased over the last
160,000 years
(D) Describing the kinds of information that can
be gleaned from a careful analysis of the contents
of sheets
Passage - 9
What climate change will undeniably do
is cause of amplify events that hasten the
reduction of resources. Competition over these
diminishing resources would ensue in the form of
political or even violent conflict. Resource based
conflicts have rarely been overt and are thus
difficult to isolate. Instead they take on veneers
that appear more politically palatable. Conflicts
over resources like water are often cloaked in the
guise of identity or ideology.
30. What does the above passage imply?
(a) Resource-based conflicts are always politically
motivated.
(b) There are no political solutions to resolve
environmental and resource-based conflicts.
(c) Environmental issues contribute to resource
stresses and political conflicts
(d) Political conflicts based on identity or ideology
cannot be resolved.
Passage - 10
The man who is perpetually hesitating
which of the two things he will do first, will do
neither. The man who resolves, but suffers his
resolution to be changed by the first counter-
suggestion of a friend—who fluctuates from
opinion to opinion and veers from plan to plan-
can never accomplish anything. He will at best be
stationary and probably retrograde in all. It is only
the man who first consults wisely, then resolves
firmly and then executes his purpose with
inflexible perseverance, undismayed by those
petty difficulties which daunt a weaker spirit—
that can advance to eminence in any line.
31. The keynote that seems to be emerging from the
passage is that
(a) we should first consult wisely and then resolve
firmly
(b) we should reject suggestions of friends and
remain unchanged
(c) we should always remain broad-minded
(d) we should be resolute and achievement-
oriented
32. P, Q and R are three towns. The distance between
P and Q is 60 km. whereas the distance between
P and R is 80 km. Q is in the west of P and R is in
the South of P. what is the distance between Q
and R?
(a) 140 km (b) 130 km
(c) 110 km (d) 100 km
33. AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being
the point where the base of the trunk touches the
ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been
broken at C which is at a height of 12 meters,
broken part is partially attached to the vertical
portion of the trunk at C. If the end of the broken
part B touches the ground at D which is at a
distance of 5 meters from A, then the original
height of the trunk is:
(a) 20m (b) 25m
(c) 30m (d) 35m
34. A person walks 12 km due north, then 15 km due
east, after that 19km due west and then 15km
due south. How far is the from the starting point?
(a) 5 km (b) 9km
(c) 37km (d) 61km
35. Two friends X and Y start running and they run
together for 50 m in the same direction and reach
a point. X turns right and runs 60 m, while Y turns
left and runs 40 m. Then X turns left and runs 50
m and stops, while Y turns right and runs 50 m and
then stops. How far are the two friends form
other now?
(a) 100 m (b) 90 m
(c) 60 m (d) 50 m
36. The circumference of a circular ground is 88 m. A 42. A dice is thrown for five times successively. What
strip of land, 3 m wide, inside and along is the probability to get the number 4 for three
circumference of the ground is to be leveled. times?
What is the budget expenditure if the leveling 25 250
(a) 65 (b) 65
cost is Rs. 7 per sq m? 125 10
(a) Rs. 1480 (b) Rs.1500 (c) 64
(d) 65
(c) Rs. 1400 (d) Rs.1650 43. A student has to pass in all five subjects to clear
th
37. A cylinder is filled to 4/5 of volume. It is then an examination. What is the probability that a
tilted so that the level of water coincides with one student not clearing that examination?
1 31
half edge of its bottom and top edge of the (a) (b)
2 32
opposite side. In the process, 30 litre of the water 1 5
(c) 32 (d) 16
is spilled. What is the volume of the cylinder?
(a) 600 lit (b) 300 lit Passage - 11
(c) 540 lit (d) 480 lit During the summer in the Arctic Ocean,
38. In a sweet stall, laddus are arranged like a sea ice has been melting earlier and faster, and
pyramid, 1 laddu at top layer, 3 laddus at 2nd layer, the winter freeze has been coming later. In the
6 laddus at 3rd layer, 10 laddus at 4th layer and so last three decades, the extent of summer ice has
on. How many laddus are there if that laddu- declined by about 30 per cent. The lengthening
pyramid has 12 layers? period of summer melt threatens to undermine
the whole Arctic food web, atop which stand
polar bears.
44. Which among the following is the most crucial
message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) Climate change has caused Arctic summer to
be short but temperature to be high
(b) Polar bears can be shifted to the South Pole to
ensure their survival
(a) 360 (b) 364 (c) Without the presence of polar bears, the food
(c) 1278 (d) 1440 chains in Arctic region will disappear
39. 125 identical cubes are cut from a big cube and all (d) Climate change poses a threat to the survival
the smaller cubes are arranged in a row to form a of polar bears
long cuboid. What is the percentage increase in
the total surface area of the cuboid over the total Passage - 12
surface area of the cube? Why do people prefer open defecation
1 2 and not want toilets or, if they have them, only
(a) 234 3 (b) 184 3
use them sometimes? Recent research has shown
2 2
(c) 150 3 (d) 234 3 two critical elements: ideas of purity and
pollution, and not wanting pits or septic tanks to
40. 3 digits are chosen at random from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, fill because they have to be emptied. These are
7,8 and 9 without repeating any digit. What is the the issues that nobody wants to talk about, but if
probability that their product is odd? we want to eradicate the practice of open
2 5
(a) (b) 108 defection, they have to be confronted and dealt
3
5 8 properly.
(c) 42 (d) 42
45. Which among the following is the most crucial
𝐴 message conveyed by the above passage?
41. Set A = {2,4,6,8,10,12}, Set B = {1,3,5,7,9,11}. 𝐵 is
(a) The ideas of purity and pollutions are so deep-
a fraction, such that A is any element from set A rooted that they cannot be removed from the
and B is any element from set B. What is the minds of the people
𝐴
probability that 𝐵 is a proper fraction? (b) People have to perceive toilet use and pit-
5 4 emptying as clean and not polluting
(a) 12 (b) 9
7 1 (c) People cannot change their old habits
(c) 12 (d) 3 (d) People have neither civic sense nor sense of
privacy
 Passage - 13
In the last two decades, the world’s gross
domestic product (GDP) has increased 50
percent, whereas inclusive wealth has increased
by a mere 6 percent. In recent decades, GDP-
driven economic performance, has only harmed
inclusive wealth like human capital; and natural
capital like forests, land and water. While the
world’s human capital which stands at 57 percent
of total inclusive wealth grew by only 8 percent,
the natural which is 23 percent of total inclusive
wealth declined by 30 per cent worldwide in the
last two decades.
46. Which of the following is the most crucial
inference from the above passage?
(a) More emphasis should be laid on the
development of natural capital
(b) The growth driven by GDP only is neither
desirable nor sustainable
(c) The economic performance of the countries of
the world is not satisfactory
(d) The world needs more human capital under
the present circumstances
Passage - 14
By 2020, when the global economy is
expected to run short of 56 million young people,
India, with its youth surplus of 47 million, could
fill the gap. It is in this context that labour reforms
are often cited as the way to unlock double-digit
growth in India. In 2014, India’s labour force was
estimated to be about 40 per cent of the
population, but 93 per cent of this force was in
unorganized sector. Over the last decade, the
compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of
employment has slowed to 0.5 per cent, with
about 14 million jobs created during last year
when the labour force increased by about 15
million.
47. Which of the following is the most rational
inference from the above passage?
(a) India must control its population growth so as
to reduce its unemployment rate
(b) Labour reforms are required in India to make
optimum use of its vast labour force
productively
(c) India is poised to achieve the double-digit
growth very soon
(d) India is capable of supplying skilled young
people to oil countries
Passage - 15
The very first lesson that should be taught
to us when are old enough to understand it, is
that complete freedom from the obligation to
work is unnatural, and ought to be illegal, as we
can escape our share of the burden of work only
by throwing it on someone else’s shoulders.
Nature ordains that the human race shall perish
of famine if it stops working. We cannot escape
from this tyranny. The question we have to settle
is how much leisure we can afford to allow
ourselves.
48. The main idea of the passage is that
(a) it is essential for human beings to work
(b) there should be a balance between work and
leisure
(c) working is a tyranny which we to face
(d) human’s understanding of the nature of work
is essential
49. A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours while
another watch gains 2 minutes in every 24 hours.
At a particular instant, the two watches showed
an identical time. Which of the following
statements is correct if 24-hour clock is followed?
(a) The two watches show the identical time again
on completion of 30 days
(b) The two watches show the identical time again
on completion of 90 days
(c) The two watches show the identical time again
on completion of 120 days
(d) None of the above statements is correct.
50. The angle between the hands of a clock at 6 : 50
a.m. is:
(a) Right angle (b) Straight angle
(c) Obtuse angle (d) Acute angle
51. Through how many degrees does the hour hand
in a clock move as the time changes from 3h and
12 min to 6h?
(a) 105 (b) 99
(c) 90 (d) 84
52. If we arrange the letters of the word ‘DADA’ in all
possible ways, what is the probability that vowels
will not be together in an arrangement?
3 1
(a)2 (b) 3
1 5
(c) 2 (d) 6
53. Between 6 PM and 7PM the minute hand of a
clock will be ahead of the hour hand by 3 minutes
at
(a) 6 : 15 PM (b) 6 : 18 PM
(c) 6 : 36 PM (d) 6 : 48 PM
54. There are Ten boxes numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, What is the number of cars that had none of the
8, 9, 10. Each box is to be filled up either with a options?
white ball or a black ball in such a manner that at (a)4 (b)3
least one box contains a black ball and all the (c)1 (d)2
boxed containing black balls are consecutively Passage - 16
numbered. The total number of ways in which this Climate change is likely to expose a large
can be done equals number of people to increasing environmental
(a) 45 (b) 55 risks forcing them to migrate. The international
(c) 66 (d) 72 community is yet to recognize this new category
of migrants. There is no consensus on the
55. Two black straight lines are parallel. Seven red
definition and status of climate refugees owing to
dots on one line and ten red dots on another line.
the distinct meaning the term refugees carry
How many quadrilaterals can be formed by
under international laws. There are still gaps in
connecting these red dots?
understanding how climate change will work as
(a) 960 (b) 1024
the root cause of migration. Even if there is
(c) 945 (d) 920
recognition of climate refugees, who is going to
56. In swimming pool measuring 90 m by 40 m, 150 provide protection? More emphasis has been
men take a dip. If the average displacement of given to international migration due to climate
water by a man is 8 cu m, what will be the rise in change. But there is a need to recognize the
water level? migration of such people within the countries also
1 so that their problems can be addressed properly.
(a) 30% (b) 33 %
3
1 60. Which of the following is the most rational
(c) 40 % (d) 44 11 % inference from the above passage?
57. How many times in a day are the hour hand and (a) The world will not be able to cope with large
the minute hand of a wall clock straight (i.e. the scale migration of climate refugees
angle between them is 180°) (b) We must find the ways and means to stop
(a) 20 (b) 21 further climate change
(c) 22 (d) 24 (c) Climate change will be the most important
reason for the migration of people in the future
58. A cube is painted with red color and then cut into (d) Relation between climate change and
216 small identical cubes. If two cubes are picked migration is not yet properly understood
randomly from the heap of 216 cubes, what is the
probability that both of them have exactly two Passage - 17
faces painted red? Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to
4 45
(a) 27 (b) 216 kill infesting insects. The consumption of
pesticides in some of the developed countries is
2 3
(c) 9 (d) 8 touching 3000 grams/hectare. Unfortunately,
there are reports that these compounds possess
59. A survey on a sample of 25 new cars being sold at inherent toxicities that endanger the health of the
a local auto dealer was conducted to see which of farm operators, consumers and the environment.
the three popular options – air conditioning, radio Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent in
and power windows were already installed. environment. Entering in food chain they destroy
Following were the observation of survey: the microbial diversity and cause ecological
I. 15 had air conditioning imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has resulted
II. 2 had air conditioning and power in development of resistance among insects to
windows but no radios insecticides, upsetting of balance in nature and
III. 12 had radio resurgence of treated populations. Natural pest
control using the botanical pesticides is safer to
IV. 6 had air conditioning and radio but no
the user and the environment because they break
power windows down into harmless compounds within hours or
V. 11 had power windows days in the presence of sunlight. Plants with
VI. 4 had radio and power windows pesticidal properties have been in nature for
VII. 3 had all three options millions of years without any ill or adverse effects
on the ecosystem. They are easily decomposed by
 many microbes common in most soil. They help in
the maintenance of biological diversity, of
predators and the reduction of environmental
contamination and human health hazards.
Botanical pesticides formulated from plants are
biodegradable and their use in crop protection is
a practical sustainable alternative.
61. On the basis of the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made:
1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in
modem agriculture.
2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture is to
ensure minimal ecological imbalance.
3. Botanical pesticides are more effective as
compared to synthetic pesticides.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
62. Which of the following statements is/are correct
regarding biopesticides?
1. They are not hazardous to human health.
2. They are persistent in environment.
3. They are essential to maintain the biodiversity
of any ecosystem.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Passage - 17
An air quality index (AQI) is a way to
combine measurements of multiple air pollutants
into a single number or rating. This index is ideally
kept constantly updated and available in different
places. The AQI is most useful when lots of
pollution data are being gathered and when
pollution levels are normally, but not always, low.
In such cases, if pollution levels spike for a few
days, the public can quickly take preventive action
(like staying indoors) in response to an air quality
warning. Unfortunately, that is not urban India.
Pollution levels in many large Indian cities are so
high that they remain well above any health or
regulatory standard for large part of the year. If
our index stays in the Red/Dangerous’ region day
after day, there is not much any one can do, other
than getting used to ignoring it.
63. Which among the following is the most logical and
rational inference that can be made from the
above passage?
(a) Our governments are not responsible enough
to keep our cities pollution free
(b) There is absolutely no need for air quality
indices in our country
(c) Air quality index is not helpful to the residents
of many of our large cities
(d) In every city, public awareness about pollution
problems should increase
Passage - 18
Productive jobs are vital for growth and a
good job is the best form of inclusion. More than
half of our population depends on agriculture, but
the experience of other countries suggests that
the number of people dependent on agriculture
will have to shrink if per capita incomes in
agriculture are to go up substantially. While
industry is creating jobs, too many such jobs are
low-productivity non-contractual jobs in the
unorganized sector, offering low incomes, little
protection, and no benefits. Service jobs are
relatively of high productivity, but employment
growth in services has been slow in recent years.
64. Which among the following is the most logical and
rational inference that can be made from the
above passage?
(a) We must create conditions for the faster
growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure
employment growth and inclusion
(b) We must shift the farm workers to the highly
productive manufacturing and service sectors to
ensure the economic growth and inclusion
(c) We must create conditions for the faster
growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture
even while improving the productivity of
agriculture
(d) We must emphasize the cultivation of high-
yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified
crops to increase the per capita income in
agriculture
65. From January 1, 2021, the price of petrol (in
Rupees per litre) on mth day of the year is 80 +
0.1m, where m = 1, 2, 3 …., 100 and thereafter
remains constant. On the other hand, the price of
diesel (in Rupees per liter) on nth day of 2021 is
69 + 0.15n for any n. On which date in the year
2021 are the prices of these two fuels equal?
(a) 21st May (b) 20th May
(c) 19th May (d) 18th May
66. Mr. ‘X’ has three children. The birthday of the first
child falls on the 5th Monday of April that of the
second one falls on the 5th Thursday of
November. On which day is the birthday of his
third child, which falls on 20th December?
(a) Monday (b) Sunday
(c) Saturday (d) Thursday
67. Consider two Statements and a Question:
Statement-1: The last day of the month is a
Wednesday
Statement-2: The third Saturday of the month was
the seventeenth day
Question: What day is the fourteenth of the given
month?
(a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the
Question
(b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the
Question
(c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
required to answer the Question
(d) Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2
alone is sufficient to answer the Question
68. How many numbers greater than 0 and less than
a million can be formed with the digits 0, 1 and 2?
(a)486 (b)1084
(c)768 (d) 729
69. Ashish is given Rs.526 in one-rupee
denominations. He has been asked to allocate
them into a number of bags such that any amount
required between Rs. 1 and R.158 can be given by
handing out a certain number of bags without
opening them. What is the minimum number of
bags required?
(a) 8 (b)10
(c) 9 (d)None of these
70. In a paper there are “n” points such that no three
points in a straight line. Let A be the total possible
number of straight line formed by connecting any
two of these n lines. B be the total possible
number of triangles formed by connecting any
three points among these n points. C be the total
possible number of quadrilaterals formed by
joining any four points among these points. And
so on,. If A + B + C + D + E+ … (n-1) terms = 120.
Then find n.
(a) 15 (b) 10
(c) 16 (d) 7
71. There are 6 different letters and 6 correspondingly
addressed envelopes. If the letters are randomly
put in the envelopes, what is the probability that
exactly 5 letters go into the correctly addressed
envelopes?
5 1
(a) (b)
6 6
1
(c) 2 (d) None of these
Passage - 19
A Landscape-scale approach to land use
can encourage greater biodiversity outside
protected areas. During hurricane ‘Mitch’ in 1998,
farms using eco agricultural practices suffered 58
percent, 70 percent and 99 percent less damage
in Honduras, Nicaragua and Guatemala,
respectively, than farms using conventional
techniques. In Costa, vegetative windbreaks and
fencerows boosted farmers’ income from pasture
and coffee while also increasing bird diversity. Bee
pollination is more effective when agricultural
fields are closer to natural or seminatural habitat,
a finding that matters because 87 percent of the
world’s 107 leading crops depend on animal
pollinators. In Costa Rica, Nicaragua and Colombia
silvopastoral systems which integrate trees with
pastureland are improving the sustainability of
cattle production, and diversifying and increasing
farmers’ income.
72. Which among the following is the most logical and
rational inference that can be made from the
above passage?
(a) Agricultural practices that enhance
biodiversity can often increase farm output and
reduce the vulnerability to disasters
(b) All the countries of the world should be
encouraged to replace ecoagriculture with
conventional agriculture
(c) Ecoagriculture should be permitted in
protected areas without destroying the
biodiversity there
(d) The yield of food crops will be very high if
ecoagricultural practices are adopted to cultivate
them
73. In this passage, the phrase "God in man" implies
(a) God having assumed the shape of man
(b) neither fully godly nor fully human
(c) man being transformed into God
(d) the divine qualities in man
74. According to the author, "salvation" of human
beings lies in the
(a) extended trade relations
(b) spiritual transformation of life
(c) orgy of national pride
(d) wholehearted participated in political
organisations
 PASSAGE -20 Directions for Question 3 : Data is provided
It is to progress in the human sciences followed by two statements – 1 and II – both
that we must look to undo the evils which have resulting in a value. Say I and II. As your answer.
resulted from a knowledge of physical world Mark (a) If I > II
hastily and superficially acquired by population Mark (b) If I < II
unconscious of the changes in themselves that Mark (c) If I = II
the new knowledge has imperative. The road to a
Mark (d) IF nothing can be said
happier world than any known in the past lies
77. I. The probability of encountering 54 Sundays in a
open before us if atavistic destructive passions
leap year.
can be kept in leash while the necessary
II. The probability of encountering 53 Sundays in
adaptations are made. Fears are inevitable in
a non-leap year.
time, but hopes are equally rational and far more
likely to bear good fruit. We must learn to think
78. I. 20 + 21 + 22 + 23 + 24 + 25 + 26 + 27
rather less of the dangers to be avoided than of
the good that will lie within our grasp if we can II. 28
believe in it and let it dominate our thoughts.
Science, whatever unpleasant consequences it 79. I. Total number of square in all sizes in a 6 x 6
may have by the way, is in its very nature a square Grid.
liberator, a liberator of bondage to physical nature II. Total number of boxes in all sizes in a 4 x 4
and in time to come, a liberator from the weight Square Grid.
of destructive passions. We are on the threshold
35 41
of utter disaster or unprecedentely glorious 80. I. ( + )
28 48
achievement. No previous age has been fraught 43 33
II. (36 + 40)
with problems so momentous; and it is to science
that we must look to for a happy future.

75. Fears and hopes according to the author

(a) are closely linked with the life of modern man
(b) can bear fruit
(c) can yield good results
(d) are irrational

PASSAGE -21
The greatest thing this age can be proud
of is the birth of man in the conciousness of men.
In his drunken orgies of power and national pride
man may flout and jeer at it. when organised
national selfishness, racial antipathy and
commercial self seeking begin to display their ugly
deformities in all their nakedness, then comes the
time for man to know that his salvation is not in
political organisations and extended trade
relations, not in any mechanical re-arrangement
of social system but in a deeper transformation of
life, in the liberation of consciousness in love, in
the realisation of God in man
76. Which of the following is MOST SIMILAR to the
word
(a) Hatred (b) Kindness
(c) Sympathy (c) loving