Master Stroke Booklet Final 091220

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MASTER STROKE
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SBILD AKOLA
STUDY MATERIAL FOR PROMOTION EXAMINATIONS
2021-22
COMPILED BY
MADHUSUDAN CITEWAR
C. M, FACULTY SBILD AKOLA
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PO 2019 ASSESSMENT TEST [Type text] Page PO1
PREFACE
MESSAGE FROM CHIEF GENERAL MANAGER & HEAD (STU)
“Intelligence without ambition is a bird without wings.”

- Salvador Dali
Dear Colleagues,
There are numerous objectives in each of our lives and for most of us professional
success figures amongst one of the primary objectives. However, continuous learning is
the lifeblood of all career related aspirations and even job safety. In a world where nearly
all the information is at our fingertips, the barriers to learning are gone and STU has
been privileged to support SBIians in this digital transformation through a series
ingenious learning solutions - webinars, e-panel discussions, digitalized eRBCs, blended
learning and innovative courseware designed in-house & hosted on edX.
To support experiential learning, we have come out with offbeat initiatives like real-life
case study base quizzes through the online ‘Case Study Discussion Board’, realistic
information on grass-root operational issues through ‘Anweshan’ e-compendium of
research, daily current affairs quiz- ‘My Quest Today’ and micro-help documents through
ask SBI. All this ensures that learning never stops in SBI and SBILD, Akola has added
to this array of skilling options available to employees through its booklet ‘Master Stroke’
Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 2
While ‘Master Stroke’ has been designed as an aid for those employees who want
more- more challenges, more opportunities and are ready to move to the next step
professionally, I am sanguine that the booklet will be of immense value to not only
promotional aspirants but all employees who desire to be in sync with the dynamic trends
in the Bank.
I compliment the Team SBILD Akola for designing this e-booklet as a tool for enriching
employee knowledge, under the guidance of their Director Shri Milind V Desai.
I also extend my best wishes to all the promotional aspirants and am sure, they
will make the best use of the booklet and succeed in their endeavours.
With Best Wishes,

M. Jayashree Reddy
CGM & Head (STU)

FOREWORD
From the Desk of the Chief General Manager
It brings me extreme pleasure in introducing the new initiative of SBILD Akola

“MASTER STROKE”, for the benefit of candidates appearing for the various
Promotional Examinations for the Promotion year 2021-22.
I am hopeful that this Book will enrich the knowledge of our Bank Staff and will also
help the aspirants in their Promotional Examinations. Read the book and attempt
your masterstroke in the upcoming promotional examinations.
The Global Economy in General and our Bank in particular is going through rapid
changes in recent times. It is of utmost importance for all prospective candidates to
keep themselves abreast with the latest information. Every attempt has been made by
the author, to provide the most relevant and latest information in this guide.
I compliment Shri Madhusudan P Citewar for this great and valuable initiative.
I wish you all the best in your future endeavours.
DEEPAK KUMAR LALLA

Chief General Manager
Local Head Office, Maharashtra

FOREWORD
From the Desk of the DGM & CDO
I am delighted to introduce the “MASTER STROKE”, by Shri Madhusudan P Citewar, a

publication which strives to benefit the aspirants in preparing for promotional
examinations and to benefit the readers across the Bank in updating their knowledge.
The Book has been prepared keeping in view the various exam patterns and presents the
comprehensive information relevant from point of view of Bank’s promotional examinations.
"Master Stroke" primarily seeks to address the lacunae of finding the best right
resources while preparing for the promotion examinations.
I am sure you will benefit immensely from this Book not only in your upcoming Promotional
examinations but also in refreshing your job knowledge. I am hopeful that this book will help
you achieve your desired goals in the Banking Career.
I wish you all the success in your future endeavours.
ALOK KUMAR CHATURVEDI

Deputy General Manager & CirDO
Local Head Office
Maharashtra

FOREWARD
From the Desk of Director
It is a matter of great pleasure for me & my team while bringing out a booklet specially prepared
for promotion aspirants in various scales.
The Booklet is titled “MASTER STROKE” & prepared by Shri. Madhusudan Citewar C.M (Trg)
SBILD Akola.
I sincerely thank Madam M. Jayashree Reddy, CGM (STU) and the entire Team STU for
their motivation and encouragement. I also thank CGM (Maharashtra Circle) Shri. Deepak
kumar Lalla for his encouragement for this effort, I also thank DGM & CDO Maharashtra
Circle, Shri. Alok kumar Chaturvedi and his team for their support and valuable
suggestions. I am sure the booklet will be quite helpful to our staff members, aspiring to
climb the ladders within Bank.
I am confident it will also be of help to those who are right now not opting for promotions, but
they want to keep themselves updated.
My compliments to Shri. Madhusudan Citewar who has done a splendid job for the benefit of
our staff members by literally burning overnight candles while preparing the booklet.
All users are sincerely requested to get benefited by this work & to bring to our notice any
inadvertent mistakes, errors.
With Best Wishes to all!
Milind V Desai,
Director, SBILD Akola
Mobile: 9850967486

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
I am feeling very happy and privileged in launching maiden booklet “MASTER STROKE”
updated up to 04.12.2020. I am sure and confident this booklet will help all candidates
aspiring for promotion examinations-Clerical to JMGS-I, Clerical to Trainee Officers,
JMGS-I to MMGS-II, MMGS-II to MMGS-III examinations.
Utmost care has been taken to prepare this booklet error-free, however, readers may refer the
relevant instructions of the Bank for more clarifications. Please refer to Banks Circular
guidelines, in case of any clarification as this Book does not substitute any instructions of the
Bank.
I take this opportunity to thank Madam M. Jayashree Reddy CGM (STU) and team STU
for their motivation. I also thank CGM Maharashtra Circle Shri. Deepak kumar Lalla for
his encouragement, DGM&CDO Maharashtra circle Shri. Alok kumar Chaturvedi and
AGM Team L and D Maharashtra for their valuable inputs & guidance in this regard.
I acknowledge my deep gratitude towards my Director, DGM (B&O), Regional Managers

Nagpur Module, Faculty colleagues, HR Functionaries, and seniors and last my family
members for motivating me to complete this project in time.
Special thanks to ATIs and STU Manuals and upto date monthly changes made it
possible to prepare this Master Stroke for the benefit of our Staff.
MADHUSUDAN CITEWAR
Chief Manager, Faculty
SBILD Akola

PROMOTION YEAR 2020-21
SCHEDULE OF EXAMINATION
PROMOTION EXERCISE EXAMINATION DATE SESSION

A. General Cadre
1 Clerical to JMGS-I 03.01.2021 (Sunday) Afternoon
(T.O Channel)
2 09.01.2021 (2nd Morning

MMGS-II to MMGS-III Saturday)
3 09.01.2021 (2nd Afternoon
Clerical to JMGS-I Saturday)
4 24.01.2021 (Sunday) Afternoon
JMGS-I to MMGS-II
B. Special Cadre
1 JMGS-I to MMGS-II
24.01.2021 (Sunday) Morning
MMGS-II to MMGS-III
2

Trainee officers Examination Revised Pattern as per Circular No. CDO/P&HRD-
IR/111/2011-12 Dated 19.03.2012
ANNEXURE-A
Particulars No. of Marks
Questions
SECTION: I (Qualifying marks 65% For General & 60% For
SC/STs) Duration 120 Minutes
General Awareness about Banking Environment, KYC, Legal 20 10
Issues
20 20
General Banking, handling of customer grievances and
Preventive Vigilance (The test will contain passages relating to
practical day-to-day situations in branches/offices, about 10-15
lines with 5 objective questions on each passage to identify the
best option)
Knowledge about products & services of our Bank including 20 20
retail finance, our associates & subsidiaries and of other banks.
(focus on USPs of our products & services) and Financial
Inclusion.
Knowledge of CBS and other IT products in use in the Bank 20 15
and IT related security concerns.
Alternate Channel products 20 10
Latest Financial results, performance indicators of the Bank 20 5
and Productivity & profitability related concerns of the Bank,
Organisational Structure and History
SECTION: II (Qualifying marks 50% For General & 45% For

SC/STs):: Duration 30 Minutes
Writing Essay on banking related topics (250 words) ( For 1 out of 3 20
evaluating comprehension skill and communication skill).
TOTAL (Overall qualifying marks 65% For General & 60% For 121 100
SC/STs):: Duration 150 Minutes

B-Merit Channel & Normal cum Seniority Channel Examination Pattern as per
Circular No. CDO/P&HRD-IR/111/2011-12 Dated 19.03.2012
Particulars
General Banking, KYC, Legal Issues, System & Procedures in 50 25
our Bank
CBS & Computer Awareness, computer security related 20 15
questions
Products & Services of the Bank, Associates & Subsidiaries, 30 15
Other banks, Alternate Channel & IT Products, Financial
Inclusion.
Latest Financial results, performance indicators of the Bank and 10 5
productivity & profitability related concerns of the Bank
Objective type questions on practical problems in general 10 20
banking
General Awareness 10 10
Organisational Structure & Policy guidelines of the Bank 10 10
TOTAL [ Duration 150 minutes] 140 100

Annexure-I
STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER FOR PROMOTION TO MMGS-II as per

Circular No CDO/P&HRD-CM/1/2012 - 13 Wednesday, April 04,2012
Sr.NO OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS No. of Marks per Max. Time

Questions Questions Marks
Section-I
a1 Product Features- 20 0.50 10
a2 Deposit/Liability
20 0.50 10
Product Features- Adv./Assets
B IT Channels, Payment 10 0.50 5
Solutions, Transaction products
etc. and questions on other
new initiatives
C Systems and Procedure in 20 0.50 10
branches and CPCs (both
System & Manual),
Organisational Structure and 120
questions related to HR area Minutes
D Forex/Treasury/IB 5 0.50 2.50
E Government Business, Cross 15 0.50 7.50
Selling Products and Financial
Inclusion
F Laws relevant to Banks 15 0.50 7.50
G Macro- economic Environment/ 10 0.50 5
General Awareness
H Pre sanction/ post sanction 15 0.50 7.50
processes & NPA management
in Loans and Advances
I English Language 20 0.50 10
Comprehension
Sub Total 150 75

Annexure-II
STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER FOR PROMOTION TO MMGS-III as per

Circular No CDO/P&HRD-CM/1/2012 - 13 Wednesday, April 04,2012
Sr.NO OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS No. of Marks per Max. Time

Questions Questions Marks
Section-I
a1 Product Features-Deposit/Liability 15 0.50 7.50
a2
Product Features- Adv./Assets 15 0.50 7.50
B IT Channels, Payment Solutions, 10 0.50 5
Transaction products etc. and
questions on other new initiatives
C Systems and Procedure in 20 0.50 10
branches and CPCs (both System
& Manual), Organisational 100
Structure and questions related to
Minutes
HR area
D Forex/Treasury/IB 5 0.50 2.50
E Government Business, Cross 15 0.50 7.50
Selling Products and Financial
Inclusion
F Laws relevant to Banks 15 0.50 7.50
G Macro- economic Environment/ 10 0.50 5
General Awareness
H Pre sanction/ post sanction 15 0.50 7.50
processes & NPA management in
Loans and Advances
I Supervisory Role and 10 0.50 5.00
Responsibilities
J Data Interpretation 10 0.50 5.00
Sub Total 140 70
II Descriptive Questions
1 Rationale 4(out of 6) 2 8
2 For & Against 4(out of 6) 2 8
3 Situational Analysis 2(out of 3) 3 6
4 Comprehension 1(out of 4) 1 4 60
5 Business Correspondence 1(out of 2) 4 4 Minutes
Total Descriptive 30
Grand Total 100

INDEX
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
S.NO TOPICS PAGE NO
1 SBI HISTORY, ORGANISATION, POLICY 14-25

GUIDELINES
2 TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENTS 26-53
3 GENERAL BANKING-LIABILITY PRODUCTS 54-74
4 GEBERAL BANKING- 75-104
KYC/AML/TDS/NOMINATIONS/GOVERNMENT
BUSINESS/CASH DEPARTMENT/RFIA AUDIT
5 GENERAL BANKING-MISC TOPICS 105-128
6 ADVANCES- SME PRODUCTS 129-156
7 ADVANCES-SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURE 157-176
8 ADVANCES-HOME LOANS 177-199
9 ADVANCES- P SEGMENT OTHER THAN REH 200-222
10 ADVANCES-AGRICULTURE SEGMENT 223-250
11 FIMM CHANNEL 251-258
12 NPA MANAGEMENT 259-283
DESCRIPTIVE
14 RATIONALES 285-300
15 FOR AND AGAINST 301-313
16 SITUATINAL ANALYSIS 314-323
17 ENGLISH COMPREHENSION 324-348

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SBI HISTORY,
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ORGANISATION,
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POLICY GUIDELINES
SBI HISTORY, ORGANISATION, LOAN POLICY GUIDELINES
1. Imperial Bank of India was renamed as State Bank of India on
a. 01.01.1955 b. 01.07.1955
c. 01.04.1949. d. 01.04.1934
2. With the recommendations of ________through passing of an Act in parliament, Imperial Bank of

India was renamed as State Bank of India on 1st July 1955
a. RBI recommendations
b. Tarapore Committee
c. Narsimham Committee
d. All India Rural Credit Survey Committee (Gorawala Committee)
3. SBI ‘s Corporate Office located at
a. Mumbai b. Chennai
c. Kolkata d. Hyderabad
4. Corporate Centre is headed by
a. Managing Director b. Chief Executive Officer
c. Chairman d. Governor
5. Circles are headed by
a. Managing Director b. Deputy Managing Director
c. General Manager d. Chief General Manager

6. Corporate Head Chairman is supported in functioning by ---MDs & ------DMDs
a) 3,6 b) 4,10 c) 2,12 d) 4,14
7. FI&MM Vertical is located at ---and is headed by –
a. Mumbai, Managing Director b. Mumbai, Chairman
c. New Delhi, Deputy Managing Director d New Delhi, Chief General Manager
8. CENMAC (Central Office Management Committee) of our Bank consists of…
a. Chairman, MDs, DMDs b. Chairman, MDs
c. Finance Secretary, Chairman, MDs d. Chairman, MDs, DMDs, CGMs
9. Circle Management Committee (CMC) is headed by …
a. Deputy Managing Director b. General Manager
c. Chief General Manager d. Chief Financial Officer
10. Executive Committee of the Central Board (ECCB) is headed by …
a. Managing Director b. Chairman
c. Deputy Governor of RBI d. Finance Secretary
11. Which of the following is one of the correct Business Group in our Bank ?
a. Retail & Digital Banking Group
b. Corporate Banking Group
c. Retail Banking Group
d. Risk Management Group

12.Which of the following is the newly introduced vertical in our Bank ?
a. Retail & Digital Banking Group
b. FIMM
c. SARG
d. Risk Management Group
13. Which of the following is one of the correct Business Groups in our Bank?
a. Information Technology
b. Risk Focused Internal Audit
c. Risk, IT & Subsidiaries
d. Commercial Clients Group
14. CGM (Circle) reports to……
a. MD (Corporate Banking)
b. MD (National Banking)
c. MD (Retail & Digital Banking)
d. DMD & CDO
15. Chief Ethics Officer reports to……
a. DGM &CDO b. DGM &CFO
c. Chief Vigilance Officer d. CGM & Chief Strategy Officer
16. MD (Stressed Assets Resolution Group) reports to ….
a. Chief Ethics Officer b. Chairman
c. Chief Vigilance Officer d. CGM & Chief Strategy Officer

17. Which of the following business groups is not led by a Managing Director?
a. Corporate &Global Banking Group b. National Banking Group
c. R&DBG d. Risk, IT, and Subsidiaries
18. Strategic Training Unit (STU) headed by
a. Deputy Managing Director b. Chief General Manager
c. Chief Ethical Officer d. Chairman
19. Cross Selling Department is a part of
a. NBG b. R&DBG c. CCG d. PBBU
20.Cross Selling Department is renamed as…
a. Customer Value Enhancement Business Unit (CVE-BU)
b. Customer Satisfaction Business unit (CS-BU)
c. Customer value Business unit (CV-BU)
d. Retail Business unit (RBU)
21. R&DBG Branches would be handling all retail loans up to…
a. Rs.10 crores b. Rs.25 crores c. Rs.50 crores d. Rs.100 crores
22. Commercial Client Group will handle proposals from…
a. Rs.25 crores b. Rs.50 crores c. Rs.100 cores d. Rs.500 crores

23. SME Business unit works under which vertical?
a. Retail & Digital Banking b. Corporate & Global Banking
c. Small and Medium Enterprises d. Commercial Business Group
24. Number of customers as per 2019-20 Annual Report of our Bank
a. 32.32 Crore b. 44.89 Crore
c. 52.52 Crore d. 43.43 Crore
25. Total Number of Domestic (in India) Branches as on March 2020?
b. 22414 b. 22141
c. 24171 d. 25141
26. As on 31.03.2020 International Banking Group (IBG) has ____number of foreign offices
a. 132 b. 137 c. 198 d. 233
27. We have How many Foreign Banking Subsidiaries
a. 5 b7 c. 8 d. 10
28.Total deposits as at the end of financial year 31.03.2020 stand at___
a. Rs 18,08,780.50 crores b. Rs 37,19,386.49 crores
c. Rs 25,76,793.15 crores d. RS 37,30,722.89 crores
29. Total advances as at the end of financial year 31.03.2020 stand at_
a. Rs 23,25,290 crores b. Rs23,94,409 crores
c. Rs32,09,829 crores d. RS 24,63,700 crores

30.What is the Market share of SBI in case of deposits is as on 31.03.2020 is
a. 22.84% b. 23.70% c. 27.33% d. 31.15%
31. What is the market share of SBI in case of advances as on 31.03.2020 is
a. 18.00% b. 19.69% c. 21% d. 23.50%
32. What is the Market Share of Home Loans
a. About 16.63% b. About 30.62%
c. About 32.80% d. About 38.12%
33. what is the Market Share of Auto Loans?
a. About 31.12% b. About 32.93%
c. About 35.52% d. About 39.98%
34. What is the Percentage of Gross NPA, as on 31.03.2020?
a. 6.15% b. 6.73% c. 9.91% d. 11.12%
35. What is the Gross NPA of the Bank as on 31.03.2020 in crores?
a. 129797 b. 205497
c. 236926 d. 149092
36. What is the Percentage of Net NPA as on 31.03.2020?
a. 3.15% b. 2.23% ` c. 4.80% d. 5.56%

37. During the F.Y 2019-20, a provision of Rs. ___ Cr was made for NPAs.
a. 52350 b. 42776 c. 48882 d. 66689
38. During the 2019-20, total recoveries in AUCA are ____ Cr.
a. 8657 b. 7793 c. 9250 d. 9884
39. As on 31.03.2020 Banks Home loan market share increased -% over 31.03.2019
a. 13.85% b. 12.75% c. 14.15% d. 15.75%
40. Bank’s Home Loan Portfolio for FY 2019-20 was __% of our Bank’s domestic advances.
a. 22.66% b. 25.25% c. 35.15% d.26.11%
41. Our home loan market share is ___% amongst all scheduled commercial banks.
a. 28.12 % b. 33.45% c. 30.62% d. 38.44%
42. Total Assets of the Bank as on 31.03.2020 (in Crores)?
a. 39,51,394 b. 44,15,358 c. 36,78,572 d. 31,88,1102
43. Operating result during FY 2019-20 (in Crores)?
a. 71,119 b. 61,216 c. 88,331 d. 59,574
44. Net profit for the year ended 31.03.2020 is
a Rs 862 cr b. Rs 9051 cr c. Rs 4848 cr d. Rs 14,488 cr

45 Profit for Employee as on March 2020 (in thousands)?
a) Rs.211 b. Rs.431.50 c. Rs.578.98 d. Rs.1100
46 During the F.Y 2019-20, what is our Expenses to Income ratio?
a. 18.50 b. 37.15 c. 52.46 d. 33.95
47 What is the provision coverage ratio as the end of FY 2020?
a. 68.15% b. 64.62% c. 83.62% d. 82.62%
48.Total number of ATMs and ADWMs (CDM & Cash Recycler) in our Bank as on March 2020.
a. 57,441 b. 58,555 c. 59774 d. 68,232
49. What is our Banks Capital Adequacy Ratio as on 31.03.2020
a. 12.69% b) 13.06% c. 14.16% d. 13.60%
50. The total number of registered users of YONO as on 31.03.2020-
a. 3.05 Cr b. 2.10 Cr c. 1.95 Cr d. 2.12 C
51. For increasing YONO Registration recently Bank launched a campaign name
a. Mission 33 Million b. Million 33
c. Mission 33 d. YONO Carnival
52. Share of Transactions on Alternative Channels.
a. 91% b. 87% 93% 81%

53. As on 31.03.2020, total number of BC outlets in SBI is
a. 53.303 b. 55,338 c. 64,575 d. 61,102
54. As on 31.03.2020, our market share in number of POS machines
a. 13.43% b. 19.10% c. 15.95% d. 22.33%
55. Our Bank has been awarded during 2018-19 with
a. The Best digital transaction Bank by the Asian Banker
b. The best Payment Bank in India by The Asian Banker
c. The Best CMP Cash Management Bank in India by Corporate Treasurer
d. All of above
56. SBI Life Insurance is a joint venture between the State Bank of India and
a. BNP Paribas b. GE Capital
c. IAG Australia d. Society General
57. SBI General Insurance company is a joint venture of SBI with
a. Cardiff b. Society General
c. General Insurance Company d. Insurance Australia Group
58. BPR is introduced as per the recommendations of
a. Rangarajan Committee
b. Narasimham Committee
c. Mckinsey& Co
d) Goiporia Committee

59. SBI Custodial Services Pvt. Ltd is established in joint venture with
a. BNP Paribas b. Banca America
c. Society General, France d. FNS, Australia
60. SBI Cards and Payment services Ltd. Is a joint venture with
a. BNP Paribas b. IAG Australia
c. GE Capital d. Banca America

ANSWERS (SBI History, Organisation, Policy Guidelines)
1. b 2.d 3.a 4.c 5.d 6.d 7.c 8.a 9.c 10.b
11.a 12.b 13.d 14.c 15.a 16.b 17.b 18. b 19.b 20.a
21.c 22.b 23.a 24.b 25.b 26.d 27.d 28. b 29.a 30.a
31. b 32.b 33.b 34.a 35.d 36.b 37.b 38. c 39.a 40.a
41. c 42.a 43.b 44.d 45.c 46.a 47.c 48. b 49.b 50.d
51. a 52.a 53.d 54.a 55.b 56.a 57.d 58. c 59.c 60. c

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TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENTS
TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS
1. YONO is part of
a. Project Lotus b. Project Vijay
c. Project CASA d. Project anywhere
2. The following is not mandatory for opening account by YONO
a. Voter Id Card
b. PAN/ Form 60
c. Nomination
d. Customer visit to branch for biometric verification
3. What is the minimum data speed required on mobile for accessing YONO app?
a. 256 KBPS b. 512 KBPS
c. 1 MBPS d. 2 MBPS
4. What is the URL to access the YONO through web portal?
a. www.yonosbi.in
b. www.yono.com
c. www.yonosbi.com
d. www.sbiyono.sbi

5. Mr.A wants to open Digital SB account through YONO. Which of the following is not mandatory for
this purpose?
a. He should be literate
b. Age should be 18 years and above
c. He should have mobile number
d. He should have email address
6 What is the version of Mobil phone Mr.A can install YONO on his mobile?
a. Yes, it can be installed in all types of smart phone
b. Yes, it can be installed on any phone
c. Maximum operating system requirement in case of android phone is version 5.0 above
d. Maximum operating system requirement in case of android phone is version 7.0 above
7. Mr.A wants to open an account jointly with his wife through SBI YONO. He is permitted to do so.
a. Yes, he can open joint account with his wife with mandate as anyone or survivor.
b. Yes, he can open joint account with his wife with mandate as either-or survivor.
c. Yes, he can open joint account with his wife with mandate as former or survivor.
d. No, joint account cannot be opened through YONO
8. Minimum capability requirement in CBS for a maker in YONO branch interface to do customer
registration to Senior Assistant.
a. 1 and above b. 2 and above
c. 3 and above d. 5 and above
9. In YONO to support the customer through chat bot application the new initiative that is developed?
a. SIRI b. AI c. SIA d. No such support

10. “SIA”, chat bot in YONO stands for
a. State Bank Intellectual Assistant
b. State Bank Intelligent Associates
c. State Bank India Assistant
d. State Bank Intelligent Assistant
11. What is the address for website login of YONO?
a. https://sbiyono.sbi
b. https://www.yonosbi.co.in
c. https://yonosbi.com
d. https://www.yono.sbi
12. Dedicated email support on YONO?
a. feedback.yono@sbi.co.in
b. yonosupport@sbi.co.in
c. yono@sbi.co.in
d. support.yono@sbi.co.in
13. What is the YONO customer care contact number?
a. 1800 111 101
b. 1800 113 211
c. 1800 114 211
d. 1800 425 360

14. How can raise a complaint in YONO?
a. Accounts
b. YONO Pay
c. Service request
d. Get in touch
15. How can Track a complaint in YONO?
a. Accounts
b. YONO Pay
c. Service request
d. Get in touch
16. What is the maximum amount that can be deposited in Tax Saver Fixed Deposit on YONO?
a. Rs.100000 b. Rs.125000
c. No Such limit d. Rs.150000
17. What is the maximum period for which Tax saving Deposit can be made?
a. 3 years b. 5 years
c. 10 years d. 2 years
18. What is the minimum lock in period under Tax Saving Deposit up to which the deposit cannot be
closed?

19. Which of the following is mandatory for opening of Tax Saver Fixed Deposit in YONO?
a. PAN in CIF
b. NO Such mandatory requirement
c. E-mail id in CIF
d. Age of the customer should be less than 60
20. What is the maximum loan amount to avail overdraft against deposit through YONO?
a. Rs. 5 crores
b. Rs. 50 lacs
c. Rs. 1 crore
d. No such limit it depends upon deposit amount and margin.
21. What is the minimum loan amount to avail overdraft against deposit through YONO?
a. 5000 b. 10000
c. 15000 d. 25000
22. If the e-TDR of Mr. A is having residual maturity period of less than 1 year whether overdraft facility
is permitted through YONO.
a. No, minimum residual tenor for maturity of fixed deposit should be 12 months
b. Yes, he can avail OD through YONO nay tome before maturity
c Yes, minimum residual tenor for maturity of fixed deposit should be 6 month only.
d. No, minimum residual tenor for maturity of fixed deposit should be 6 months.
23. What will be the margin required if Mr. A had opened e-STDR not e-TDR?
a. 10% b. 20% c. 25% d. 15%

24. Whether Mr. A can avail an overdraft of Rs. 90000 against e-TDR of Rs.1.00 lac through YONO
a. No, to avail overdraft against e-TDR, he must visit the home branch of e-TDR no such facility in
YONO
b. Yes, he can avail OD through YONO up to Rs.90000 (with 90% margin)
c. No, he can avail OD through YONO up to Rs.80000 (with 80% margin) d. No, he can avail OD
through YONO up to Rs.75000 (with75% margin)
d. No, he can avail OD through YONO up to Rs.75000 (with75% margin)
25. Customer can login in YONO app by
a INB credentials ` b 6-digit MPIN
c Both (a) & (b) d None of the above
26. In YONO a user can view the transaction details there will be maximum…. transaction or last 6
months of transactions which ever is more?
a 149 b 159
c 169 d 179
27. “My Dream” feature in YONO platform creates which type of deposit in the background?
a Recurring Deposit b Fixed Deposit
c Tax Saver Fixed Deposit d None of the above
28. Who all are eligible to open accounts through YONO?
a Individual, Literate, Resident of India and above 18 years of age
b Individual resident with any age
c Individual resident with below 18 years of age
d None of the above

29. What is DAC
a Document Archived Centre b Document Archival Centre
c Documentation Archived Centre d None of the above
30. Products & Services of which joint venture is not available on Financial Superstore.
a SBI Life Insurance Company Limited
b SBI Capital Markets Limited
c SBI General Insurance Company Limited
d SBI Cards & Payment Services Private Limited
31.What is the full form of OMP in YONO?
a. Offline Marketplace b. Offline Market program
c. Online market program d. Online Marketplace
32. What is the name of Project under which the YONO was developed?
a. Project Lotus b. Project Vivek
c. Project Digital d. Project Samadhan
33. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of YONO CDK?
a. Enhanced customer experience as time required to submit cheques will drastically reduce
b. Reduction in queues in front of CDKs
c. Customers will migrate to CDKs for deposit of cheques
d. Reduction in time taken for cheque realization due to CDK

34. While using YONO for submitting cheques through smart CDK which one of the following is
automatically populated?
a. Cheque number b. Cheque amount
c. Account number d. Date of the
35. In case of any query or dispute regarding cheque deposited in smart CDK through YONO, the
customer should …
a. Contact the link branch mentioned in the receipt
b. Customer can raise the query through YONO
c. Customer should contact the home branch
d. Customer should contact the clearing CPC
36. If the cheques are deposited in smart CDK through YONO, which of the following statement is
correct?
a. Physical verification of the cheque is not necessary
b. Physical verification of the cheque is to be done as per the laid down procedure
c. Customer is responsible for the genuineness of the cheque
d. Physical verification of the cheque will depend on the size of the branch
37.How the customer will remember the reference number generated while entering the details of
cheque in YONO?
a. Customer must note it down
b. An SMS is sent to the registered mobile number
c. Customer need not remember, it is not needed
d. An email is sent by CBS

38. Which of the following is the feature in YONO regarding deposit of cheque in smart CDK?
a. An email is sent by CBS
b. For cheque deposit the customer may use CDK
c. YONO may be accessed for entering data for deposit of cheque in smart CDK
d. YONO does not have the facility of data entry relating to cheque deposit
39.What is the expansion of CDK in smart CDK?
a. Cheque Deposit Kiosk b. Cash Deposit Kiosk
c. Clearing Data-entry Kiosk d. Customer Dialogue Kiosk
40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the reference number generated
through YONO in respect of cheque deposit in smart CDK?
a. Once the batch of cheques is processed in smart CDK the reference number generated in YONO
app by the customer cannot be used again
b. The reference number can be used in case of any mistake
c. The same reference number is valid for one month for one customer
d. The same reference number is valid for one day/24 hours
41. Which of the following is correct after the cheques are deposited in smart CDK using the facility
available in YONO?
a. Customer is given a receipt giving the details of cheque deposited
b. Customer gets an SMS with details of cheques deposited in the registered mobile number
c. Customer will get a pop up in YONO
d. The details of cheque deposit are sent through by email

42. When all the cheques are entered in smart CDK the data is sent to
a. The branch server b. CTS software
c. CDC Belapur d. NFS site
43. The customer has entered the cheque details in YONO app under smart CDK option and generated
reference number. What is the validity of this reference number for depositing cheque in CDK?
a. 30 days b. 15 days
b. c. 20 days d. 25 days
44. Whether PDCs are accepted in CDK?
a. NO b. YES
c. Cant Say d. None
45. Under which option in YONO smart cheque deposit facility is available?
a. Other services b. requests
c. service request d. account services
46. Which of the following cheques are accepted in CDK?
a. Stale Cheque b. PDCs
c. CTS Compliant Cheques d. Any of the above
47. What is the maximum loan limit for agri gold loan in YONO Krishi?
a. 25,00,000 b. 20,00,000
c. 15,00,000 d. 10,00,000

48. Customer is trying to apply for agri Gold Loan on YONO Krishi. Which of the following is not a pre-
requisite for the same?
a. Customer is literate, age 18 years and above.
b. Customer is KYC compliant.
c. Aadhar details are available in CBS.
d. PAN Availability in CBS.
49. Mr. Ramana has generated a reference number using YONO Krishi for availing Agri Gold Loan 1
week back but due to his busy farm activities, he has come to branch today. What is the validity of this
reference number?
c. 7 days d. 30 days.
50. What is YONO Cash?
a. It is card less cash withdrawal facility from SBI ATMs for YONO users.
b. Minimum Rs.500/- and multiples of Rs. 500/-. Maximum amount of Rs. 20000/- per transaction and
maximum of Rs. 20000/- per day can be withdrawn.
c. The customer can withdraw the cash by visiting SBI ATM with the previously created a six-digit
YONO Cash PIN & reference number received as SMS.
d. All of the above
51.What is the validity period of YONO Cash request?
a. 60 minutes b. 120 minutes
c. 30 minutes d. 240 minutes

52. What is the name of the functionality developed by the Bank which enable customers withdraw
cash from selected ATMs/Recyclers without using their debit card?
a. Contactless card b. EMV enabled card
c. YONO Cash d. SBI Fast
53. What is the minimum withdrawal permitted in YONO Cash?
a. 100 b. 500
c. 1000 d. 10000
54. What is the maximum ceiling for daily withdrawal through YONO Cash?
a. 2000 b. 5000
c. 10000 d. 20000
55. Which of the following App customer cannot access through pre login section of YONO Lite?
a. Bharath QR b. YONO SBI
c. e-Locker d. SBI Samadhan
56. What is the maximum per transaction limit for funds transfer using Quick transfer?
a. Rs.25000/- per transaction b. Rs.15000/- per transaction
c. Rs.5000/- per transaction d. Rs.10000/- per transaction
57. Which of the following is not available in YONO Lite?
a. Detailed account information b. Funds transfer within self-accounts
c. Quick transfer to unregistered beneficiaries d. Closure of loan account

58. Which of the following CINB facility can be enabled through CBS?
a. Khata Plus b. Khata
c. Vyapaar d. Vistaar
59.Number of variants of CINB are?
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 6
60. Which of the following CINB facility can be enabled through CBS?
a. Khata Plus b. Khata
c. Vyapaar d. Vistaar
61. Which of the following CINB variants has the transaction rights?
a. Khata plus b. Khata
c. Saral d. All of them
62.What are the mandatory roles to be created for CINB Saral?
a. Administrator
b. Maker
c. Checker
d. No roles are required it is single user product.
63. CINB can be provided to
a) Individual customers b) Corporate customers
c) A & B d) None

64. What is the software used to gather and monitor customer business leads
a. LMS b. CRM c. LOS d. CMS
65. Which of the following is not a benefit of CRM?
a. Attract more customers and helps to retain the existing customers.
b. Improved internal communication
c. Improved customer satisfaction.
d. Increased complaint resolution time
66. Who will do the role mapping for users in branch in CRM?
a. CRM nodal officer b. Field officer
c. Branch Manager d. Admin at LHO
67. Which is not the pre-requisites for BHIM SBI Pay in the following options?
a. Mobile - Android 4.2 and above
b. Mobile number present in the android handset should be registered in Bank account
c. Valid AADHAAR No.
d. Details of debit card linked to the account required for UPI PIN set up
68. What is the maximum transaction limit per day on BHIM SBI Pay?
a. Rs.10000/- b. Rs.100000/-
c. No such limit d. Rs.50000/-

69. Which option is not true for BHIM SBI Pay?
a. Virtual Payment Address (VPA) is compulsory
b. Account number & IFSC Code is one of the payment options
c. QR Code is one of the payment options
d. MMID is one of the payment options
70. The customer is having 11 different accounts in different banks. What is the maximum number of
accounts can be mapped in BHIM SBI Pay?
a. 1 b. 5
c. 10 d. No such limit
71. Which of the following does not required for creating UPI Pin in BHIM SBI Pay?
a. Enter the last 6 digits of your Debit Card & expiry date
b. Enter 10-digit mobile no. registered in the account
c. In case of a Maestro card, no need to enter expiry date
d. Separate UPIN must be set for each of the linked accounts
72.Which is not the pre-requisites for GOOGLE PAY APP in the following options?
a. Mobile - Android 5.0 and above
b. Mobile number present in the android handset should be registered in Bank account
c. Valid AADHAAR No.
d. Details of debit card linked to the account required for UPI PIN set up

73.Which of the following not true about GOOGLE PAY?
a. Funds transfer through MMID
b. Account number & IFSC Code is one of the payment options
c. QR Code is one of the payment options
d. Quick transfer of money with nearby G-Pay users using audio
74.What is the maximum transaction limit per day on GOOGLE PAY?
a. Rs.10000/- b. Rs.100000/-
c. No such limit d. Rs.50000/-
75. Which of the following is not true about Pre-requisites by merchant for Bharath QR?
a. Smart mobile phone b. Account with SBI
c. QR code Scanner d. data connection
76. Which of the following are not the benefits of Bharath QR to the bank?
a. CASA balances
b. Merchant discount rate
c. It has no CAPEX and less OPEX
d. Monthly rental
77. The information which is not stored in dynamic QR code?
a. Merchant ID b. Terminal ID
c. Merchant Address d. Amount.

78.What is SBI FASTag?
a. An initiative to digitize toll transactions at toll plazas
b. Initiative to collect Toll Tax electronically
c. An effort to curtail Time for payment of Toll Tax at Plaza
d. All options are correct.
79.The Technology that is used in SBI FASTag to read the Tag is
a QUORUM b RFID
c NETC d NPCI
80. As per NHAI, number of categories of vehicles for the purpose of toll payment is…?
a. 5 b. 6
c. 7 d. 8
81. The acronym of “CORE' is
a Centralised Operations Response Engine
b Centralised Online Real-time Environment
c Centralised Online Response Environment
d Centralised Offsite Response team
82. The Disaster recovery site is located at ___ for CBS and INB
A Chennai b Hyderabad
c Bangalore d Mumbai

83. The Disaster recovery site is located at ___ for ATM
a Chennai b Hyderabad
c) Bangalore d Mumbai
84. Mini statement generated through ATM has _____ number of transactions
a6 b8 c 10 d 12
85.GPRS stands for
a General Packet Radio Service b General packet Reuter Service
c General Packet Radio System d General Packet Reuter System
86. ADS stand for
a Active Directory System b Active Dialling Service
c Active Directory Service d Active Dialling System
87. Acronym for PPK is
a Pre-Printed Kit b Pre-Processed Kit
c Pre-Projected Kit d Personal Printed Kit
88. What is the maximum number of times a customer can make deposits through CDM in a day?
a3 b5
c Unlimited d2

89.The maximum number of currency notes that can be deposited in CDM
a 100 b 200
c 300 d 500
90. The single transaction limit can deposit in CDM is……
a. Rs.49000.00 b Rs.50000.00
c. Rs.49900.00 d Rs.25000.00
91 CDM accepts the under mentioned currency notes for deposit of cash
a. Rs.500.00 b. Rs.100.00
c. Rs.2000.00 d All the above
92.CINB can be provided to
a Individual customers b Corporate customers
cA&B d None
93. Cash can be deposited in our CDM of customer having …
a SBI accounts only b SBI and all PSB a/c holders only
c All Banks a/c holders d none of the above
94 Acronym of CVV is _____ in card?
a Card Verification Value b Current verification vault 24
c Current value verification d None of these

95. IFSC stand for
a Indian Financial System Code b Indian Financial Service Code
c Indian Financial Solutions Code d Indian Financial System Circular
96 State Bank Virtual Card is meant for
a Cash Withdrawal at ATMs b Non-Home transactions
c Online purchases d None of these
97 Maximum period of validity of virtual Card is____
a 48 hours b 10 days
c 24 hours d 5 years
98 Maximum number of transactions that can be done using the State Bank Virtual Card are
a Only 1 transaction b 5 transactions in a month
c 5 transactions in a day d Any number of transactions
99.B@ncs24 software is procured from
a Financial Network Services (FNS) , Australia
b Comlink, USA
c China Systems, Taiwan
d Oracle
100. FTP in CBS refers to
a. File Transfer Protocol b. Fixed Term Product
c. Fixed Transfer protocol d. None of the above

101. Which company has developed Active Directory Services?
a. Infosys b. Oracle
c. Microsoft d. System Networks Ltd.
102. The time limit for resolution of customer complaints regarding failed ATM transaction by issuing
bank is ----of receipt of the complaint?
a. 12 days b. 12 working days
c. 7 days d. 7 working days
103. The setting up of ATMs was recommended by
a. Goiporia committee b. Saraf Committee
c. Narasimham committee d. Rangarajan committee
104. Purpose of Finance One software is
a Maintains BGL b Maintains Database
c Maintains Trade finance d Maintains CGL
105. What is a Check Digit?
a. it is used for checking the balance in the account
b. it is the number used by Finance one for EOD
c. it is the internal server reconciliation mechanism for Yearend processing
d. it is used by the system to verify the correctness of the Customer/ Account number.

106. CBS de-activates a teller when he /she does not log in to system for ____ many days continuously
a. 7 days b 15 days
c. 21 days d. 30 days
107. The software used by ATM Switch Centre, Belapur for running of ATMs is
a Base 20 b Base 24
c Bank 24 d Bank 20
108. Who will be the authority to issue Advance value of the Gold
a) Precious Metals Department-CC Mumbai
b) PBBU LHO
c) ABU Corporate Centre
d) SBI Website
109. The eligible customers under YONO PAPL are intimated through which mode
a. SMS
b. e-mail
c. Push intimation through YONO app
d. All the above are correct options
110. How the eligibility of the customers is assessed under YONO PAPL?
a. Branch staff scrutinize the income documents and recommend
b. Staff have to apply online and CPCs will assess the eligibility
c. The eligible customers are pre-selected by analytic engine
d. None of the above options is correct

111. If any customer is eligible for two loan products i.e. Xpress Credit and PAPL what will be the
process under YONO App
a. Customer can avail both the loans simultaneously
b. Customer can avail only one loan, which loan limit is lower
c. Customer can avail only one loan, which loan limit is higher
d. Both the loans will be cancelled
112. The loan account under YONO PAXC will be opened automatically by the system under which
branch?
a. Customer’s Home Branch where the CIF is maintained
b. Any branch as per customer’s choice
c. Branch in which the salary/income account is maintained
d. None of the options is correct
113. Can a customer avail a second PAPX?
a. Yes, if the EMI/NMI criteria permits
b. No. At any given point of time only one PAPX loan can be availed
c. Existing PAPX account is closed automatically and New loan is provided
d. None of the options is correct
114. How Long the offer of PAXC is available for the customer?
a. Customer has to avail within 15 days from the notification
b. Customer has to avail within 30 days
c. Customer has to avail PAXC within the calendar quarter in which the offer is made
d. Customer has to avail PAXC with the following calendar quarter in which the offer is made.

115. On YONO App/Portal, what is the maximum amount offered under PAPL for Pre Approved
Personal Loan
a. Rs.25000/- b. Rs.50000/- c. Rs.100000/- d. Rs.200000/
116. What is the maximum period of loan for which PAPL is sanctioned?
a. 6 months b. 12 moths c. 24 months d. 26 months
117. What is the minimum loan amount of PAPL in YONO?
a. No Minimum b. Rs.20000 c. Rs.25000 d. Rs.30000
118. Which of the following is not mandatory for an applicant to be eligible for PAPL through YONO?
a. Account should be KYC compliant.
b. PAN is compulsory
c. The SB account should have at least one credit every month.
d. Customer must be CSP account holder
119. On YONO App/Portal for Pre-Approved Personal Loan, do I have to visit the Branch for applying
the loan.
a. Single Visit Required.
b. Two times requires for documentation and disbursement.
c. Whenever requires for application, documentation and disbursement.
d. No visit is required; this loan is made available to you through YONO

120. Insta Pension Loan is a new product under Pension Loan in YONO platform. Which among the
following is incorrect?
a. Minimum existing Pension Loan Limit of Rs 1 lac
b. Minimum residual maturity of Pension Loan - 1 year
c. Satisfactory repayment record for the last 1 year
d. Maximum loan limit is 2,50,000/-
121. Validity of Insta Pension Loan is
a. Within calendar quarter from the offer
b. After the calendar quarter from the offer
c. Within one month from the offer
d. Within two months from the offer
122. Which of the following document customer need to upload while availing PAPL in YONO?
a. KYC documents b. Income proof
c. Photograph d. No need to upload any document.
123. What is the maximum period of loan for which pre-approved pension loan is sanctioned.?
a. 60 months b. 12 months c. 24 months d. 36 months
124. What is the maximum age before which the pre-approved pension loan (PAPNL) has to be
completely repaid?
a. 70 years b. 75 years c. 68 years d. 72 years

125. Which of the following is not correct about maximum loan limit under pre-approved pension loan
through YONO?
a. Restricted to 18 times net monthly pension. b. Subject to EMI/NMP ≤ 50%
c. Maximum limit is Rs.300000 d. Maximum limit is Rs.250000
126.What is the maximum age up to which customer is eligible for Pre-approved pension loan
(PAPNL)?
a. Age should be less than 66 years b. Age should be less than 65 years
c. Age should be less than 68 years d. Age should be less than 72 years
127. What is the minimum loan amount under Pre-approved pension Loan (PAPNL)?
a. 10000 b. 15000 c. 25000 d. 20000
128. Which of the following facility not available in IRCTC booking in YONO?
a. Book train tickets b. Book Tatkal Tickets
c. File TDR d. All the options are available
129. Mr. X has already availed a Agri Gold loan from the branch. Whether he is eligible to apply for
second agri gold loan through YONO Krishi?
a. No, he cannot apply.
b. Yes. If he has less than 5 agri gold loan accounts live in CBS.
c. Yes. If he has less than 2 agri gold loan accounts live in CBS.
d. Yes. If he has less than 3 agri gold loan accounts live in CBS.
130. What is the maximum loan limit for agri gold loan in YONO Krishi?
a. Rs.25 lakhs b. Rs.20 lakhs c. Rs.15 lakhs d. Rs.10 lakhs

ANSWERS TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENS
1. a 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. d 8. a 9. c 10. d
11. c 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. a
21. d 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. b
31. d 32. a 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. a
41. a 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. c 47. a 48. d 49. b 50. d
51. d 52. c 53. b 54. d 55. d 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. d 60. b
61. c 62. d 63. b 64. b 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. b 69. d 70. d
71. b 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. d 77. c 78. d 79. b 80. c
81. a 82. a 83. b 84. c 85. a 86. c 87. a 88. c 89. b 90. c
91. d 92. b 93. a 94. a 95. a 96. c 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. a
101.c 102.d 103.d 104.d 105.d 106. a 107.b 108.a 109. d 110. c
111. c 112. c 113.b 114.c 115.d 116.b 117.b 118.d 119.d 120.d
121.c 122.d 123.a 124.a 125.d 126.a 127.c 128.d 129.b 130.a

OLA__SBILD_AKOLA__SBILD_AKO
KOLA__SBILD_AKOLA__SBILD_AKOLA_
GENERAL BANKING
_SBILD_AKOLA__SBILD_AKOLA__SBIL
D_AKOLA__SBILKOLA__SBILD_AKOLA_
LIABILITY PRODUCTS __SBILD
_SBILD_AKOLA__SBILD_AKOLA__SBIL
D_AKOLA__SBILD_AKOLA__SBILD_AKO
AKOLA__SBILD_AKOLA__SBILD_AKOL
A__SBILD_AKOLA_hjklzxcvbnmqwerty
GENERAL BANKING (LIABILITY PRODUCTS)
1. CIF in CBS denotes
a Customer Information Facility
b Customer Information File
c Customer Information Folder
d None
2. What is the Monthly Average Balance applicable for SB a/cs opened in Metro Branches?
a Rs.1,000/- b Rs.2,000/- c Rs.3,000/- d Rs.5,000/-
3. The account holder cannot withdraw an amount less than Rs. from SB A/c
a 10/- b 1/- c 50/- d 100/-
4. The account holder cannot deposit in cash less than Rs…………is in SB account.
a. Rs.100/- b. Rs.50/- c. Rs.10/- d. Rs.200/-
5. What is the Monthly Average Balance applicable for SB a/cs opened in Rural Branches?
a Rs.1,000/- b Rs.2,000/- c Rs.3,000/- d Rs.5,000/-
6. If a customer feels that the services rendered by the branch are not satisfactory, he can close his SB
account within ----- and the SB account closure charges are waived
a 14 days b 15 days c 30 days d 18 days

7. Which of the following are called low cost deposits/CASA:
a TDR b STDR
c PPF Account d Savings & Current Accounts
8. In case of transfer of account from one branch to another, the customer can submit proof of address
within a period of
a. One Week b 1 month
c. 6 months d. Should be submitted immediately
9. Which of the following is available free of cost for SB accounts?
a. SMS Alert b INB Facility
c. ATM Card d None of these
10. A Small account shall remain operational initially for a period of
a 6 months b 9 months
c 12 months d 24 months
11. Liberalized KYC is available for
a Small Account b Basic Savings Account
c Salary Account d None
12. Small Account can be allowed for a Maximum period of
a 12 Months b 24 months
c. 6 Months
d. 12 Months which can be extended upto 24 months if proof of KYC process shown

13. Maximum Balance that is allowed in Small Deposit Account is
a Rs.10,000/- b Rs.50,000/-
c Rs.1,00,000/- d None of the above
14. Main purpose of Introduction of Small & Basic Savings Account
a Financial Inclusion b Direct Cash Transfer
c Both a & b d None
15. Maximum Balance that can be allowed in Small Account
a Rs 50000/ b Rs 100000/
c Rs 25000/ d None
16. What is the Maximum balance and Total amount of credits in a year for a small deposit account (
for simplified KYC)
a. Rs. 50,000 & Rs.1,00,000 respectively
b. Rs. 100,000 & Rs.2,00,000 respectively
c. Rs. 200,000 & Rs.1,00,000 respectively
d. Rs. 25,000 & Rs. 75,000 respectively
17. The total no of withdrawals allowed in Small and Basic Savings account
a 5 withdrawals per month including ATM transactions
b 4 withdrawals per month excluding ATM transactions
c 5 withdrawals per month including ATM transactions
d 4 withdrawals per month including ATM transactions.

18. Interest on SB account is paid
a At Monthly Intervals b At Quarterly Intervals
c At Half Yearly Intervals d. At Annual Intervals
19. What is the age limit for opening Pehla Kadam
a. Minors of 10 years and above
b .Minors of any age
c . Minors upto 10 years of age
d . None
20. When the savings bank account is treated as dormant/inoperative?
a. When there are no withdrawals for a period of 12 months
b. When there are no transactions for a period of 24 months
c. When there are no deposits for a period of 12 months
d. None of these
21. Minimum MAB to be maintained in a Current Account
a Rs 10000/- for all segments
b Rs 20000/ in all the areas
c Rs 2500/- in Rural Areas and Rs 5000/- in other areas
d None of these
22. Current account is not opened in the name of
a Minor b Illiterate
c Insolvent d All of these

23. Minimum period for which a TDR can be issued
a 7 days b 1 month c 6 months d 1 year
24. Minimum amount for which a TDR can be issued
a Rs.100 b Rs.500 c Rs.1,000 d Any amount
25. Minimum period for which a STDR can be issued
a. 7 days b. 1 month c. 6 months d 1 year
26. Term Deposits for more than 10 years can be opened in the following circumstances
a Beneficiary is a New born Girl child
b Funding by the Govt
c Not to exceed 18 years from the date of birth of the girl child
d All the above
27. Minimum monthly amount for which a RD can be accepted
a Rs.10 b Rs.50
c Rs.100 d Rs.1,000
28. The minimum amount of deposit in a SBI Tax Savings Scheme, 2006 in a financial year is?
a Rs.1,000 b Rs.500
c Rs.10,000 d Rs.250

29. The maximum amount of deposit in a SBI Tax Savings Scheme, 2006 in a financial year is?
a Rs. 50,000/- b Rs. 2,00,000/-
c Rs. 1,00,000/- d Rs. 1,50,000/-
30. What is the minimum and maximum tenure of SBI Tax Saving Scheme, 2006?
a. Minimum 5 years and Maximum 10 years
b. Minimum 3 years and Maximum 10 years
c. Minimum 1 years and Maximum 5 years
d. None of the above
31. What is the lock in period for pre-mature withdrawal in respect of SBI Tax Saving Scheme, 2006
a. 1 year b. 2 years
32. What is the maximum period of deposit in SBI Flexi Deposit Account?
a 1 year b 3 years
c 5 years d 7 years
33. What is the Monthly Average Balance applicable for Gold Current Account?
a Rs.10,000/- b Rs.1,00,000/-
c Rs.5,00,000/- d Rs.10,00,000/-
34. What is the Monthly Average Balance applicable for Surabhi Current Account?
a Rs.10,000/- b Rs.1,00,000/-
c Rs.5,00,000/- d Rs.10,00,000/-

35. To provide fee collection facility for institutions through our CBS platform, SBI introduced _____
a. Power Jyoti Account
b. SURABHI Account
c. MOD Account
d. CLTD account
36. What is the Monthly Average Balance applicable for Power Jyothi Current Account?
a Rs.10,000/- b Rs.50,000/-
c Rs.1,00,000/- d Rs.5,00,000/-
37. Minimum deposit in the PPF account is Rs in a financial year
a 250/- b 500/-
c 1000/- d None of the above
38. How many nominees can be accepted for PPF account?
a Only one b Two
c One or more persons. d None of these
39. The PPF scheme can be extended after 15 years:
a One 5 year term
b Two 5 year term
c In five years block with no limit on number of extensions
d None of these

40. Maximum deposit in the PPF account is Rs financial year
a 50,000/- b 1,00,000/-
c 1,50,000/- d None of these
41. What is the minimum amount of deposit for “Sukanya Samriddhi Account”?
a Rs.500/- b Rs.250/-
c Rs.1,000/- d None of these
42. What is the minimum and maximum age of a girl child at the time of opening of account under
“Sukanya Samriddhi Account”?
a Minimum age: 3Years& Maximum age: 10Years
b Minimum age: 3 Years & Maximum age: 12 Years
c Minimum age: 0 (Newborn) & Maximum age: 12 Years
d Minimum age: 0 (Newborn) & Maximum age: 10 Years
43. Who will decide rate of interest for deposits under SCSS, 2004?
a RBI b Ministry of Finance, GOI
c Individual banks d IBA
44. What is the maximum amount that can be invested under SCSS?
a Rs.5,00,000 b Rs.10,00,000
c Rs.15,00,000 d None of the above
45. SB Accounts not operated are classified as Inoperative after the stipulated time since last operation.
a 6 months b 12 months
c 24 months d 36 months
46. Amount in unclaimed deposits account will be transferred to
a Overdue deposits a/c
b Sundry deposits a/c
c DEAF a/c
d None
47. Expand DEAF Scheme
a Depositors Education and Awareness Fund Scheme
b Defaulters Education & Awareness Fund Scheme
c Depositors Education and Awakening Fund Scheme
48. Which of the following cannot open Saving Bank account?
a Illiterate Person
b Municipal Corporations or Committees
c Pardanashin womens
d Minor
49. Minors who can adhere to uniform signature and are not less than ten years old can open sb
accounts in their single name and maintain therein a maximum balance of
a Rs. 100,000/- b Rs. 500,000/-
c Rs. 10,00,000/- d Rs. 300,000/-
50. What is the min. and max. Period for which MOD can be accepted?
a 1 and 5 years b 6 Months and 120 Months
c 7 days and 10 years d None of the above

51. The type of deposit that can be opened in MODS
a TDR b STDR
c Either a or b d None of the above
52. Corporate Liquid Term Deposit can be accepted for amounts of
a Min Rs.50000 and in multiples of Rs.5000
b Min Rs.100000 and in multiples of Rs.10000
c Both a and b are true
d None of the above
53. Savings Plus is the combination of
a SB and MODS b SB and CLTD
c Current account and MODS d None of these
54. Which of the following are not true in respect of Savings Plus ?
a Min. balance Rs.5000
b Deposits matured will be rolled over unless indicated otherwise
c TDS is applicable for MODS created
d None of these
55. Which of the following are true in respect of Savings Plus account
a No overdraft will be allowed against SBI MOD Deposits
b Deposits cannot be accepted as margin for any NF business
c Both are true
d None of the above are true

56. What is the minimum Threshold Balance for Auto sweep in SB Plus
a Rs 15000/- b Rs 25000/- c Rs 35000/- d Rs 10000/
57. What is the Minimum Sweep Amount in SB Plus
a Rs 10000/- b Rs 5000/-
c Rs 1000/- d Rs 20000/-
58. Which of the following are true in case of Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme
a Objective is to provide differential interest rate to Senior Citizens
b Min. 7 days and Max. 10 years
c Min. Rs.10000 and in multiples of Rs.1000
d All of these
59. What is the default business model followed while breaking TDR/STDRs under MODS
a FIFO
b LIFO
c Either A OR B
d None
60. Which of the following are not true in respect of Capgains Plus Scheme
a Parking of capital gains for a max period of 3 years
b Min Rs.1000 in SB a/c and Min Rs.5000 in TD Account
c Deposit can neither be accepted as margin nor as collateral
d None of these

61. Amount withdrawn from deposits under Capgain Plus to be utilized within
a 30 days b 60 days
c 90 days d None of the above
62. What are the variants available under Corporate Salary Package
a Silver & Gold b Diamond
c Platinum d All of the above
63. What is the eligibility criteria for opening salary accounts under Corporate Salary Package
a There is no stipulation regarding minimum number of employees in the Corporate for a CSP tie up
b Any Corporate/Institution can be considered for tie up under Salary Package. Apart from Companies
(Public, private, listed, unlisted) non-individual customers i.e. proprietorship firm, partnership firm, trust,
society, club is also to be treated as Corporate for this purpose
c Both a & b
d None of the above
64. The deposit scheme available in the bank that offers both higher interest and tax benefits u/s 80 C
a Cap Gain Plus b MODS
c SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 d None of the above
65. Relationship between banker and customer in case of deposit account is
a Lender-Depositor
b Debtor -Creditor
c Licensor-Licensee
d Creditor – Debtor

66. Deposits of Rs. .and above are classified as Bulk Deposits.
a. Rs.15 lacs and above
b. Rs.1 crore and above
c. Deposits obtained from bulk customers
67. Unclaimed Deposit Account is one where there are no transactions for over a period of
a. 2 years b 5 years
c 10 years d None
68. Under Capital Gains Scheme, the time allowed for Purchase of Readymade residential property
from the proceeds by selling any other capital asset is
a 1 year b. 2 years
b 3 years d 5 years
69. What is the salary quantum For Gold category of CSP account
a Rs 20000 to Rs 50000
b Rs 20000 to Rs 30000
c Rs 20000 to Rs 100000
d Rs 20000 to Rs 40000
70. What is the salary quantum for Platinum category stipulated under CSP
a Rs 20000-50000
b Rs 5000/-20000
c Rs 50000-100000
d Above Rs 100000
71.Which of the following is not a variant available under Corporate Salary Package
a. Silver b. Bronze
c. Gold d. Platinum
72. How many types of fee can be collected through a single challan under Power Jyothi Scheme
a5 b 10 c8 d 15
73. Maximum period for which FCNB deposits can be accepted is
a 1 year b 3 years
c 5 years d 10 years
74.Foreign Students coming to India for Studies can open what type of account.
a. NRE account b. NRO account
c. Ordinary Resident account d. None
75. A depositor can nominate how many persons for his deposit account
a One b Two
c Three d Any Number
76. Maximum amount of overdraft that can be permitted in SB a/c is ( PMJDY)
a Rs.5000/- b Rs2000/-
c Rs1000/- d None

77. The number of nominees that can be nominated by PPF & SCSS depositors
a One b Two
c More than one d Three
78. Annuity Deposit is which type …
a. Demand deposit account
b. Recurring deposit account
c. Term deposit account
d. None of these
79. SBI Flexi Deposit is a ……
a. Term Deposit Account
b. Special Term Deposit Account
c. Recurring Deposit (Variable Deposit) Account
d. None of these
80. The purpose of SBI Flexi Deposit is……………
a. To earn flexible rate of interest
b. To deposit flexible amount over a period of time
c. Long term deposit to earn attractive rate of interest with flexibility in choosing deposit amount
d. None of these
81. What is the minimum period of deposit in SBI Flexi Deposit Account?
a. 3 years b. 1 year

82. What is the maximum period of deposit in SBI Flexi Deposit Account?
83. What is the minimum and maximum tenure of SBI Tax Savings Scheme ?
a Minimum 5 years and Maximum 10 years
b Minimum 3 years and Maximum 10 years
c Minimum 1 year and Maximum 5 years
d None
84. What is the minimum deposit in SBI Tax Savings Scheme?
a. Rs.10000/- b. Rs.1000/-
c. Rs.25000/- d. None of these
85. What is the lock in period for allowing pre-mature withdrawal in respect of SBI Tax Savings
Scheme?
a 3 years b 2 years
c 1 year d 5 years
86. Type of account opened under SBI Tax Savings Scheme is ………
a. Savings Bank Account
b. Recurring Deposit Account
c. TD/STD account
d. None of these

87. The tenure of Time deposits is limited to a maximum of 120 months. This stipulation is given by…
a. RBI b. IBA
c. Based on the instructions of individual Banks d. None of the above
88. In CBS, all the product codes are containing _________ digits
a. 4-digit b. 6 digit
c. 8-digit d. 16 digit
89. The following is not mandatory for opening account by YONO
a. Aadhar b. PAN/ Form 60
c. Nomination d. Customer visit to branch for biometric verification
90. If the KYC Compliance is not done in the existing accounts, the account will be blocked after
a. Notice is to be issued with a response time of 3 months to the account holder
b. Sending Reminder after 3 months of the first notice
c. After six months, If the customer does not respond to both (a) & (b)
d. Bank has no right to block transactions.
91.Salary range for the employees eligible for the variant CSP-Lite is
a. Rs 10000/- - Rs 25,000/-
b. Rs 50000/- - Rs 1,00,000/-
c. Rs 50000/- - Rs 75,000/-
d. Rs 5000/- - Rs 10,000/

92. SBI Mingle is a/ an
a. Missed Call Banking
b. Cash Management Product App
c. Social Banking App
d. Multi Facet INB Utility
93. What is the current R.O.I of current account
a. No interest is allowed b. 2.75% c. 4.0% d. None of the above
94. A partnership letter should be obtained from the partnership firm at the time of account opening, in
the format of
a. COS 35 b. COS 36 c. COS 37 d. COS 38
95. A Joint Hindu Family letter should be obtained for HUF account at the time of account opening, in
the format of
a. COS 35 b. COS 36 c. COS 37 d. COS 38
96. Which of the following documents to be obtained at the time of account opening for a Company?
a. A board resolution to open the account
b. Certificate of incorporation
c. Memorandum and articles of association
d. All the above

97. Which of the following documents to be obtained at the time of account opening for a society?
a. Resolution of managing body
b. Copy of byelaws
c. Certificate of registration
d. All the above
98. Minimum balance under normal current account?
a. Rs.5000/- b Rs.20000/- c. Rs.2000/- d. Rs.10000/-
99.What is the MAB to be maintained in a Platinum Current Account?
a. Rs.10,00,000/- MAB
b. Rs.2,00,000/- MAB
c. Rs.1,00,000/- QAB
d. Rs.5,00,000/- MAB
100. Photo embossed ATM card will be given to
a. Pehla Kadam accounts
b. Pehli Udaan
c. All SB Accounts
d. Both a & b above.

ANSWERS (GENERAL BANKING LIABILITY PRODUCTS)
1.b 2.c 3.c 4.c 5.a 6.a 7.d 8.c 9.b 10.c
11.a 12.d 13.b 14.c 15.a 16.a 17.d 18.b 19.b 20.b
21.a 22.d 23.a 24.c 25.c 26.d 27.c 28.a 29.d 30.a
31.d 32.d 33.b 34.a 35.a 36.b 37.b 38.c 39.c 40.c
41.a 42.d 43.b 44.c 45.c 46.c 47.a 48.d 49.c 50.a
51.c 52.b 53.a 54.d 55.c 56.c 57.a 58.d 59.b 60.d
61.b 62.d 63.c 64.c 65.b 66.b 67.c 68.b 69.a 70.d
71.b 72.b 73.a 74.b 75.a 76.a 77.c 78.c 79.c 80.c
81.d 82.d 83.a 84.b 85.d 86.c 87.b 88.c 89.d 90.c
91.d 92.c 93.a 94.c 95.d 96.d 97.d 98.d 99.a 100.d

GENERAL BANKING
(KYC, TDS, NOMINATIONS,
GOVERNMENT BUSINESS
CASH DEPARTMENT,
RFIA AUDIT)
GENERAL BANKING (KYC/AML)
1.Who introduced KYC Norms

a Govt of India b IBA
c RBI d None
2. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 came into force w.e.f.
a.1st July 2005 b. 1st May 2005
c. 1st August 2005 d. 1st December 2005
3. … can be used to launder the proceeds of fraud schemes (e.g. phishing and identity theft) by
criminals.
a. Money Monkeys b. Money Mules
c. Money Moles d. All of the above
4. Money launderers use the …. for cleaning “dirty money” obtained from criminal activities with the
objective of hiding/disguising its source.
a. Transfer system b. Postal system
c. Banking system d. None of the above
5. KYC compliance and fraud prevention day observes on

a.1st Aug b. 1st Oct
c. 1st Dec d. 1ST Sept
6. CDD stands for…

a. Customer Duty Delegation b. Customer Due Diligence
c. Consumer Due Diligence d. None of above

7. Which of the following documents is a requirement in case of opening partnership firms account?
a. Partnership deed b. A copy of Resolution
c. Partnership letter d. (a) & (c) both
8. What is the full form of CIP?

a. Career Internal Program
b. Customer Investigation Procedure
c. Customer Identification Procedure
9. PMLA refers to ……………….

a. Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002
b. Preventive Measures in Loans & Advances
c. Prevention & Monitoring of Lapses in Accounts
d. None of these
10.Money Laundering is defined under ___ of PML Act of 2002.

a. Section 2 b. Section 3
c. Section 4 d. Section 13
11. The Financial Intelligence Unit-India was set up by the Government of India in
a. 2003 b. 2002
c. 2004 d. 1997

12. What is the full form of STR
a. Strategic Transaction reports
b. Strategic Transmission reports
c. Suspicious Transaction reports
d. Suspicious Transfer reports
13. The principal officer of the Bank designated for monitoring of anti-money laundering transactions is
a. General Manager (Network)
b. Chief General Manager of the circle
c. Dy. General Manager (AML/CFT)
d. General Manager (AML/CFT)
14. What is TBML?

a. Trade Based Money Laundering
b. Transaction Based Money Laundering
c. Terrorism Based Money Laundering
15. Risk categorization of Salary Package a/cs of all Govt Depts are …….
a. Low b. Medium
c. High d) None of the above
16. KYC is
a. a Onetime process b. To be carried out every 5 years
c. To be carried out every 10 years d. An ongoing process

17. Banks should maintain records of prescribed transaction for a period of …..from the date of
transactions
a. Ten years b. Five years
c. One year d. None of the above
18. List of all banned organization is circulated to all Banks by…………………..

a. SBI b. RBI
c. GOI d. CBI
19. Under Which type of risk are the Dormant/ Inoperative accounts categorized ?
a. Low risk b. Medium Risk
c. High Risk d. None of the above
20. The period of review for KYC in case of Low Risk category of customers is …..
21.Time intervals for periodic updation of KYC for existing high-risk customers
c. 8 years d.10 years
22. All inoperative accounts may be classified as

a. No Risk b. High Risk
c. Medium Risk d. Low Risk

23. The transaction criteria for classification of an Individual account under High Risk is
a. Annual summations Above 50 lacs
b. Annual summations Above 1 crore
c. Annual summations Above 2 crore
d. Annual summations Above 5 crore
24. The transaction criteria for classification of an Individual account under Low Risk is
a. Annual summations below 5 lacs
b. Annual summations below 10 lacs
c. Annual summations below 25 lacs
d. Annual summations below 50 lacs
25. The transaction criteria for classification of a Non-Individual account under Low Risk is
a. Annual summations below 1 crore
b. Annual summations below 2 crores
c. Annual summations below 75 lacs
d. Annual summations below 50 lacs
26. The transaction criteria for classification of a Non-Individual account under High Risk is
a. Annual summations above 1 crore
b. Annual summations above 2 crores
c. Annual summations above 5crores
d. Annual summations above 10 crores

27. Which of the account will be classified under Medium Risk Category
a. Individual account with annual summations above 50 lacs but below 2 crore
b. All Inoperative accounts
c. All new account for first 6 months
d. All the above
28. Which of the following is not the key element of KYC Policy?
a Customer Management b Risk Management
c Monitoring of Transactions d Customer Acceptance Policy
29. “Customer” has been defined under

a. RBI Act
b. Banking Regulation Act
c. Indian Contract Act
d. KYC Guidelines
30. Our Bank has set up “AML/CFT” Cell (Earlier known as KYC AML Cell) at
a. Mumbai b. Kolkata
c. Jaipur d. Chennai
31. “AML/CFT” Cell is headed by a who is designated as the Principal Officer of the Bank under PML
Act, 2002
a General Manager b Deputy General Manager
c Assistant General Manager d Chief General Manager

32. FATF (Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering) has its Headquarters at
a Brussels b Paris
c London d New Delhi
33. “AML/CFT” Cell will analyze its alerts on transactions handled across the bank with the help of the
software
a MLOCK b AMLOCK
c AMLUCK d None of these
34.The AMLOCK software used for identifying the suspected transactions is acquired from
a. M/S TCS b. M/s 3i-Infotech Ltd
c. M/s Wipro services d. M/s Infosys
35. AML/CFT monitors cash transactions of Rs. (including those which are integrally connected) and
generate reports.
a 5 lacs b Above 5 lacs
c 10 lacs d Above 10 lacs
36. Cash Transaction Report for the whole Bank is submitted by Banking Operation Department to
a Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU India) b RBI
c CBI d Government of India
37. As per the AML Act. All documents pertaining to customers 'KYC compliance and transactions need
to be preserved, after cessation of relationship for years
c.10 years d. None of the above

38 Cash Transaction Reports (CTRs) are required to be compiled by branches and submitted to
Controllers for onward transmission to FIU-IND at intervals.
a. Weekly b. Fortnightly
c. Monthly d. Quarterly
39. NPA Loan Accounts are classified as

a. Low Risk b. Medium Risk
c. High Risk d. Depends on Risk Grade
40 UAPA means
a. Unusual Activities Prevention Act
b. Un suspect ful Activities Protection Act
c. Unlawful Activities Prevention Act
d. Unauthorized Activities Prevention Act
41.The three consecutive stages of money laundering are

a. Integration, Placement and Layering
b. Placement, Layering and Integration
c. Laying, Integration and Placement
42. Which is not one of the three stages of money laundering?

a. Integration b. Placement
c. Laying d. None of the above

43.CFT stands for…
a. Control the financial terrorism
b. Control the financial Transactions
c. Combating the financial transfers
d. Combating the financing of terrorism
44 What is the threshold limit applicable under KYC guidelines in case of salaried individuals?
a. Equal to 3 months’ salary
b. Equal to 1-month salary
c. Equal to 3 months turnover
d. Equal to 1-month turnover
45 What is the threshold limit applicable under KYC guidelines in case of a business enterprise?
a. Equal to 3 months’ salary
b. Equal to 1 month salary
c. Equal to 3 months turnover
d. Equal to 1 month turnover
46. What is CKYCR

a. Central Know your Customer Registry.
b. Centralized Know your Customer Register.
c. Central Know your Customer Register.

47. Following accounts are covered under CKYC
a. All Types of Deposit accounts
b. Loan accounts
c. Letter of credit, Bank Guarantee
d. All of the remove
GOVERNMENT BUSINESS
48. SBI handles Govt. Business as agent of RBI as per
a. Sec 45 of RBI Act b. Sec 32 of SBI Act
c. Both a & b d. None of these
49.Expand OLTAS
a Open Line Tax Accounting System
b Online Tax Accounting System
c Online Tax Accounting System
d Online Tax Audit system
50. Expand CBDT

a Central Board of Direct Taxes b Chief Board of Direct Taxes
c Common Board of Direct Taxes d Chairman of Direct Taxes
51.Find the incorrect one regarding Government Business

a It yields highest commission
b It is risk free - NO NPAs
c Attracts capital adequacy norms
d None of the above

52 What is the Government commission per transaction for Pension Payments?
a Rs.12/- b Rs.40/- c Rs.50/- d Rs.75/-
53 What is the Government commission per transaction for e-receipts?

a Rs.5/- b Rs.9/-
c Rs.12/- d None of the above
54 The number of transactions eligible for payment of agency commission should not exceed per
pensioner per year.
a 12 b 14 c 16 d 24
55 What is the Government commission per transaction for physical receipts?

a Rs.12/- b Rs.40/- c Rs.50/- d Rs.75/-
56 Agency banks are required to submit their claims for agency commission in the prescribed format
to in respect of Central government transactions.
a CDC Belapur b CBS Chennai
c CAS Nagpur d None of the above
57 What is the Government commission per transaction for debits other than pension payments?
a 5 paise per Rs.100/- b 6.5 paise per Rs.100/-
c 6 paise per Rs.100/- d 9 paise per Rs.100/-
58. Interest paid on PPF Account on?
a. 31 January b On 31st March
c. 31 December d None of the above

59. Expand GBSS
a Government Business Software Solution
b Government Business Software
c GAD Business Software System
d None of these
60. Bank has created Government Banking Unit (GBU) in the year 2006 and GBU located at
a. Mumbai b. Kolkata
c. New Delhi d. Hyderabad
61. Government Draft are issued

a. on 50% concession b. At Par
c. on Full charges d. as per BM instructions
62. What does CIN stand for?

a. Customer Identification Number
b. Computer Identification Number
c. Charge Identification Number
d. Challan Identification Number
63. What is the full form of TRACES?

a. Tax Reconciliation, Analysis and Correction Enabling System
b. Tax Deduction at Source Recovery, Analysis and Correction Enabling System
c. Tax Deduction at Source Reconciliation, Analysis and Correction Enabling System
d. Tax Recovery, Analysis and Correction Enabling System

64. SBI provides cash management services (CMP) to Corporate Clients under the brand name of SBI
a. SBI FASTag b. SBI F.A.S.T
c. SBI YONO d. SBI Quick
65. What is the full form of F.A.S.T?

a. Funds Available in Shortest Time
b. Funds Available in Simple Trade
c. Finance Available in Shortest Time
d. Finance Available in Simple Trade
66.Minimum amount of transaction in RTGS

a. Rs. 2 lacs b. Rs.1 lac c. Rs.5 lacs d. Rs.10 lacs
TDS
67. Up to what amount, TDS is not applicable on interest on deposit, for other than senior citizen?
a. 10000 b. 30000 c. 40000 d. 50000
68. Up to what amount, TDS is exempted in case of rent (in a financial year)?
a. 180000 b. 200000 c. 240000 d. 250000
69. TDS will be deducted at the rate of -------on acquisition of immovable property from a resident
transferor (other than rural agriculture land) equal to or more than Rs. 50,00,000/-.
a. 1% b. 2% c. 5% d. 10%
70. GSTIN has how many digit?

a. 10 b. 15 c. 17 d. 19

71. What is the GST % for Banking Services?
a. 12 b. 15 c. 18 d. 24
72.The Bank has to deduct tax on cash withdrawals made by any person from one or more accounts
maintained by the person through all channels during a Financial Year introduced by Government w.e.f.
a. 01.04.2020 b. 01.07.2020 c. 31.03.2020 d. 30.09.2020
73. Under which section the Bank has to deduct tax on cash withdrawals made by any person from one
or more accounts maintained by the person through all channels during a Financial Year
a. 194 N of IT Act b194 E of IT Act
c. 194 A of IT Act d. 194 C of IT Act
NOMINATIONS
74. How many nominees can be made in an individual deposit account?

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
75. The form used to make a nomination in case of Article in Safe Custody _.
a. Form DA1 b. Form DA 2
c) Form SC 1 d. Form SC 2
76. In case of joint hirers “E or S” of a safe deposit locker, nomination shall be made in favour of?
a) Nomination is permitted up to one nominee
b) Nomination is permitted up to two nominees
c) Nomination is not permitted even for single nominee
d) Nomination is permitted to any number of nominees

77. No Sureties are required for claims if the Balances in the accounts are up to and inclusive of Rs. _
a. Rs.1,00,000/- b. Rs.3,00,000/-
c. Rs.5,00,000/- d. Rs.10,00,000/-
78. In respect of accounts with nomination facility, at the time of deceased claim settlement where the
nominee is literate, the claim form is to be witnessed by______
a. Magistrate
b. Central or state Govt. officer
c. An officer of a Bank or two persons of good standing and integrity
d. Waived
79. An Indian Muslim Male having a savings account has died intestate. There is no Nomination in the
account. The legal heirs have to be identified under the indemnity cum affidavit method. Which of the
following is not a legal heir in this case?
a. Wife/Wives b. Son(s) /Daughter (s)
c. Mother / Father d. Brother (s) / Sister (s)
80. An Indian Christian having and of Rs. 2.00 lacs has died intestate and without nomination. The legal
heirs have claimed the FD by way of premature payment. The legal heirs need to be identified. Who
among the following is not a legal heir in this case?
a. Spouse b. Son (s)
c. Father d. Daughter (s)

CASH DEPARTMENT PROCEDURE
81. Currency held by non-chest branches of SBI is the property of?
a. Govt of India b. SBI
c. RBI d. None of these
82. Strong Room fitness certificate has to be renewed once in ?
a. Once in two months b. A quarter
c. Once in a year d. Six months
83. The size of the 2000/- bank note is
a. 66x166 mm b. 66x156 mm
c. 66x176 mm d. 66x200 mm
84. Excess cash found in the cash balance of a SWO has to be credited to ?
a. Suspense account b Charges account
c. Sundry Deposit account d. Commission account
85. The deposit and withdrawal of Cash Box in/from Vault under IBCH will be entered in
a. Cash Receipt / Delivery Register b. Cash officer’s jotting book
c. Cash box receipt Delivery Register d. None of these
86. Cash held in the cash box overnight, will be treated as ?
a. Sundry balance b. Petty cash balance
c. Branch Cash balance d. None of these

87. Specific gravity of pure gold is ?
a. 18.1 b. 20.1
c. 19.3 d. None of these
88. Cash officer is responsible for ______ while sanctioning gold loan ?
a. Purity b. Weight
c. Value d. All the above
89. Gold ornaments of deceased borrower pending their settlement will have to be kept in
a Joint custody b Safe Deposit Articles
c In a separate locker d) None of these
90. Vault Register will always be kept in ?
a. Accountant’s Hand Safe b. Strong Room
c. With Cash Officer d. None of these
91. Minimum Transaction that can be made to currency chest ?
a. Rs 1 lakh & multiples of Rs 1 lakh only
b. Rs 1 lakh & in multiples of Rs 50,000 there of
c. Rs 50,000 & multiples of Rs 50,000
d. None of these
92. Currency Chest is the property of ?
a Government of India b SBI
c Reserve Bank of India d None of the above

93. Small Coin Depot consists of ?
a. All coins b. Coins upto Rs. 1/-
c. Coins below Re. 1/- d. Coins upto Rs. 5/-
94. Small Coin Depot (SCD) is the property of ?
a. SBI b. RBI c.) Govt. of India d. None of these
95. Rs 1/- notes are issued by ?
a. Govt of India b RBI c. IBA d. None of these
96. Min. withdrawal / deposits in SCD ?
a. Rs 100/- & multiples of Rs 50/- b. Rs 500/- & multiples of Rs 50/-
c. Rs 1000/- & multiples of 100/- d. None of these
97. Small coin depot transactions are to be reported to ?
a. Zonal Office b. RBI
c. FSLO d. None of these
98. Clean Note Policy (CNP) is governed by ?
a Sec 35 of Indian Currency Act b. Sec 35 A of B.R Act
c. Sec 35 A of RBI Act d. None of these
99. Relationship between RBI & SBI in case of currency chests is
a. Principal & Agent b. Bailor & Bailee
c. Agent & Principal d. None of these

100. Person preparing the note packet is responsible for both quality & quantity upto
a Rs 100/- b. Rs 200/- c Rs 2000/- d. Rs 500/-
101. IBCH overnight cash retention limit is ?
a. Rs 2 lakh b. Rs 5 lakh c. Rs 1 lakh d. None of these
102. In Branch Cash Handling (IBCH) is applicable to ?
a. Metro branches b. Non currency chest branches
c. All branches d. Currency chest branches
103. For Rs 500/- & Rs 2000/- person preparing the note packet is responsible for ?
a. Quantity only b. Quality only c. Both quality & quantity d. None of these
104. Balances in Currency Chest have to be verified by an official other than the joint custodians once
in ?
a. Once in two months b. Half year
c. Quarter d. Once in a year
105. The difference between day’s total withdrawals and day’s total deposits in the chest is ?
a. Treasury Transfer b. Cash Transfer
c. Currency Transfer d. None of these
106. The certificate of chest balance as on ____ is submitted to RBI by the Chest branch
a. 31st March b. 31st May c. 30th June d. 31st Dec
107. In a soiled note remittance to RBI if more than ___% of notes is found to be issuable notes, then
entire remittance will be returned by RBI at sending bank’s cost ?
a. 10 b. 5 c. 20 d. None of these

108. Name the of the Register to record exchange of Cash between SWOs in Cash Dept.?
a. Cash Transfer Register b. Cash Receipts Delivery Register
c. Cash Officer’s Jotting Book d. Cash Transaction Register
109. What type of insurance cover is obtained for Cash Remittances?
a. Comprehensive insurance cover b. Fidelity Insurance cover
c. Transit Insurance cover d. None of these
110. As per the latest instructions of the RBI, FIR has to be lodged in case of Fake Currency notes, if
the no. of notes is ?
a. 4 b. 5 or more c. 3 d. 2
111. Which of the following is true when remittance is sent from one currency chest to another currency
chest?
a. Branch Cash Balance is credited, and RBI’s Account is debited
b. Branch Cash Balance is debited, and RBI’s Account is credited
c. No Entry is passed
d. None of these
112. Charges towards police escorts, transport etc. for chest to chest remittances of treasure is ?
a. Borne by Bank b. Paid by RBI
c. Paid initially by Bank, then reimbursed by RBI d. None of these
113. Repository is part of ?
a. Branch Cash Balance b. Currency Chest
c. Small Coin Depot d. None of these

114. Fidelity insurance cover for single window operator is obtained for ?
a. Rs 1 Lakh b. Rs 2 Lakh c. Rs 5 lakh d. Rs 8 Lakh
115. Who will be responsible for tampered bundles / note packets kept in the vault ?
a. Cash-in-Charge alone b. Joint Custodian of Vault
c. Accountant alone d. Branch Head alone
116. In respect of soiled notes bundles prepared for remittance to RBI, who is/are responsible for
Quality & Quantity of notes in the bundle ?
a. Person preparing the bundle b. Cash-in-charge
c. Accountant d. Joint Custodian
117. Ceiling for petty cash expense is ?
a. Rs.100/- b. Rs.200/- c. Rs.250/- d. Rs.500/-
118. Petty Cash should be checked by ____________ at _____________ interval
a. BM, Monthly Irregular b. Accountant, Regular
c. RM, Monthly d. BM, Fortnightly
119. Which of the following is not true regarding In- Branch Cash Handling Process ?
a. Size of the aluminum box should be 14”X11”X4” size
b. Each SWO/Asstt. Cash is provided with an aluminum box having Overnight cash retention limit of
Rs 1.00 lakh
c. Every day, in the beginning, Cash-in-Charge verifies the contents of Cash box based on system
generated random list
d. This process will reduce the time spent by the Cash Officer/Cashier in- charge /SWO /Assistant
(Cash) in handing over and receiving cash at the beginning/ close of the day

120. One Re coin is issued under _______ act
a. Coinage Act, 1906 b. RBI
c. SBI d. BR Act
121. Safe deposit receipt relating to deposit of duplicate keys is entered in BD register and the safe
deposit receipt is held by __
a. Accountant outside the strong room b. Accountant inside the strong room
c. BM outside the strong room d. BM inside the strong room
122. Currency Notes are printed at ?
a. Nasik, Dewas, Mysore & Salboni b. Nasik, Pune, Indore & Kanpur
c. Nasik, Pune, Dehradun &Mysore d. Nasik, Hissar, Salboni & Pune
123. How many angular bleed lines in 2000/- note in left- and right-hand site in raised print?
a. 7 b. 5 c. 6 d. 4
124. The Controller of the branches will arrange for periodical cash verification of Hand Balance
Branches ____ ?
a. At half yearly interval by the Branch Managers of nearby branches
b. By the Branch Manager of the Branch
c. No need for verification
125. The coverage of cash-in transit insurance will be limited to _____?
a. The cash retention limit of the branch. b. Upto 50,00,000/-
c. Upto 49,00,000/- d. None of the above

126. While sending Soiled Note Remittance to RBI, remittance should sent in multiples of ________?
a. Rs.100000/- b.Rs.50000/-
c. Rs.500/- d. None of the above
127. What is Shrink Wrapping in Cash Department?
a. While sending soiled remittance to RBI Wrapping 1000 pieces in a bundle instead of packing 10
packets of 100 pieces in a bundle
b. While sending soiled remittance to RBI packing 10 packets of 100 pieces in a bundle
c. Both a and b
128. While sending Soiled Note Remittance to RBI, remittance should sent in multiples of ________?
a. Rs.100000/- b.Rs.50000/-
c. Rs.500/- d. None of the above
129. Currency Chest/ Repository branches fall under which of the following risk categories?
a. Low Risk b. No Risk c. Medium Risk d. High Risk
130. The BGL A/c No.98903 in CBS is
a. Branch Cash Balance A/c b. Teller Cash Balance A/c
c. Currency Transfer A/c d. Bin Balance A/c
131.The BGL A/c No.98912 in CBS is
a. Branch Cash Balance A/c b. Teller Cash Balance A/c
c. Currency Transfer A/c d. Bin Balance A/c

132 The basic colour of new 2000/- series note is
a. Pink b. Red c. Magenta d. Stone gray
133. The basic colour of new 500/- series note is
a. Pink b. Red c. Magenta d. Stone gray
134 The dimension of new 500/- series note is
a. 66 mmx160mm b. 66mmx170mm
c. 66mmx150mm d. 66mmx140mm
135 The coins of denomination______ and below are now uncurrent coins
a. Rs.1 and below b. Rs.50 ps and below
c. Rs.25 ps and below d. Rs.10 ps and below.
136. In case of exchange of soiled notes at currency chest branches, Banks should exchange notes
per person upto _____ notes and value of Rs.____ per day free of charge over the counter.
a. 50 notes and Rs.10000 b. 20 notes and Rs.5000
b. 10 notes and Rs.10000 d. 20 notes and Rs.10000
137. The CDC report of the difference between CGL Cash and BGL cash is
a. Glcntr b. Glcash c. Glcomp d. Gldiff
138 The CGL number for CASH is
a. 1260505001 b. 1204505001 c. 5108505001 d. 5108505002

139. ICCOMS stands for
a. Integrated Computerised Currency Operations and Management System
b. Integrated Computerised Central Operations and Management System
c. Integrated Computerised Chest Operations and Management System
d. Integrated Currency Chest Operations and Management System
RFIA AUDIT
140. Under the revamped audit system, the final rating is given separately for each broad parameter.
What does the first letter denote?
a. CRM b. ORM c. FEMA d. External Compliance
141. What is the maximum penalty for false compliance in CRM and ORM
a. 50 and 50 b. 20 and 30 c. 30 and 50 d. 30 and 30
142. In the revamped audit system, what are the minimum and maximum gap between two audits of a
branch under normal circumstances?
a. 6 and 18 months b. 9 and 20 months
c. 9 and 18 months d. 9 and 21 months
143. Expand RBOSA

a. Risk-based off-site audit
b. Revenue based off-site audit
c. Risk-based onsite audit
d. Revenue based onsite audit

144. Expand RADAR
a. Risk-based application for dynamic assessment of risk
b. Remote application for dynamic assessment of risk
c. Remote app for dynamic assessment of risk
d. Risk based application for data assessment of risk
145. Self-Audit is required to be carried out at …………intervals?

a. Quarterly b. Monthly c. Half Yearly d. Yearly
146. A score of …... (Out of total ORM-RFIA score of 1000) has been assigned to the ORM area under
Offsite Audit under RBOSA/RADAR?
a. 305 b. 145 c. 410 d. 260
147. Which of the following is not one of the risk parameters in RFIA?
a. Credit Risk Management b. Market Risk Management
c. Operational Risk Management d. External Compliance
148. All Credit Auditable Accounts are subjected to Credit Audit within a period of ___months?
a. 12 b. 15 c. 18 d.21
149. The periodicity of Credit Audit will be prioritized based on the _________ of the Credit Auditable
Account?
a. Location b. Type of branch
c. Risk profile d. Amount

150. OTMS has been introduced in the Bank for ………?
a. Monitoring of Transactions in Staff Accounts
b. Monitoring of Transactions passing through CBS
c. Monitoring of Transactions in income accounts
d. Helping legal auditors
151. You are conducting Compliance Audit at a branch/unit. What are the minimum and maximum
penal provisions for submitting false compliance under OTMS?
a. With a minimum of 20 and a maximum of 100 marks are awarded
b. No penalty
c. With a minimum of 50, a maximum of 100 marks are awarded
d. With a min. of 20 maximum of 50 marks are awarded
152. The rectification of irregularities in RADAR is to be--------

a. Done in the source system b. Done at RBO
c. Reported to RBO d. Done by AO
153. What does ACB rating mean in RFIA?

a. A rating in CRM, C in FEMA, B in ORM
b. A rating in ORM, C in CRM, B in FEMA
c. A rating in FEMA, C in CRM, B in ORM
d. A rating in CRM, C in ORM, B in FEMA
154. What is the maximum negative score for recurring income leakage
a. 10 b. 15 c. 25 d. None of the above
155. How many outlier statuses are there in outlier model

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. None of these
156. For which of the following negative scores are not awarded
a. False compliance in RADAR b. Reduction in score since last RFIA
c. Deviation in External Compliance d. Frauds
157. Maximum penalty for giving false compliance certificates in the rectification of irregularities in RFIA
is marks
a. 20 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70
158. What is present rating system in RFIA audit

a. A, B C, D
b. WC, MC, AC, UC
c. No rating
d. Both a & b
159. Outlier score is followed for conducting trigger-based audit. As per Outlier module, higher the
score of branches,
a. Higher the risk
b. Lower the risk
c. No such criteria
d. All branches are eligible for trigger-based audit
160. The new parameter included in RFIA for onsite audit of the branch i.e. CSM. .Here CSM stands
for?
a. Customer service meter
b. Consumer satisfaction meter
c. Customer Satisfaction Metric
d. Credit service manager

ANSWERS (KYC/AML, TDS, NOMINATIONS, GOVT BUSINESS, CASH
DEPARTMENT, RFIA AUDIT)
1. b 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. b
11. c 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. b 19. b 20. b
21. a 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. b 26. b 27. d 28. a 29. b 30. c
31. a 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. c
41. b 42. c 43. d 44.a 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. c 49. b 50. a
51. c 52. d 53. b 54. b 55. b 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. a 60. c
61. b 62. d 63. c 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. a 70. b
71. c 72. b 73. a 74. a 75. c 76. c 77. c 78. c 79. d 80. c
81. b 82. c 83. a 84. c 85. c 86. c 87. c 88. d 89. a 90. b
91. b 92. c 93. c 94. c 95. a 96. a 97. c 98. b 99. a 100. b
101.c 102.c 103.b 104.a 105.c 106.c 107.a 108.b 109.c 110.b
111.c 112.c 113.b 114.c 115.b 116.a 117.b 118.a 119.c 120.a
121.c 122.a 123.a 124.a 125.a 126.b 127.a 128.b 129.c 130.a
131.b 132.a 133.d 134.c 135.c 136.b 137.c 138.b 139.a 140.a
141.c 142.d 143.a 144.b 145.c 146.d 147.b 148.d 149.c 150.b
151.d 152.a 153.d 154.c 155.b 156.b 157.b 158.a 159.a 160.c

GENERAL BANKING
MISCELLANEOUS
GENERAL BANKING MISCELLANEOUS
1. The following scripts like NSC and LIC policies are properly to be recorded in the ___________
register.
a. Miscellaneous Securities.
b. Branch Document Register
c. Key Register
d. Branch Managers Personal File
2. To ensure Lockers rent are recovered periodically, Service Manager to verify failed SI report between
______ dates.
a. 25th to 31st March
b.1st and 5th April.
c. 1st and 15th April.
d. 1st and 5th July
3. In a currency chest, count all the packets above Rs. 500 and ______ of the rest of the cash with clip
system.
a. 5% b.15%
c.10% d.20%
4. Balance all the cash in almirah, bins and cages by jotting down in a register and tally with ______
register.
a. Bin Register/98985
b. Joint Custody Register/98958
c. Branch Cash Balance Register/98958
d. Cash vault register/Currency Chest Register/98958.

5. In Branches, Cash in almirah to be reshuffled at least once in ______ months.
a. Every Month b. Bi-Month
c. Three months d. Six Month
6. ________ to Verify and Initial one or two items of cash in cash balance register daily.
a. Service Manager/Accountant. b. Cash Officer
c. Special Assistant d. Branch Manager
7. BCSBI is a registered entity under
a. Societies Registration Act b. RBI Act
c. NI Act d. None
8. Cash Balance by physical counting to agree with Cash Balance Register, BGL Cash balance, CGL
Cash Balance and reported to RBI in_____ platform or software.
a. ICCOMS b. e-Kuber (for chest branches).
c. CBS d .Cubic Tree
9. Service Manager to verify the surrendered/unrented locker keys and _________ officer to hold the
unrented locker keys.
a. Other officer. (Who is not holding Locker Master Keys).
b. Cash Officer
c. Branch Manager
d. Single Window Operator

10. Payment in due course is defined under
a. section 1 of NI Act b section 11 of NI Act
c. Section 10 of Contract Act d. section 10 of NI Act
11. Denomination-wise balance in the cash drawer should tally with physical cash balance and balance
in BGL account No. ________.
a. 98903. (Branch Cash Balance- BGL Account).
b. 98533
c. 98534
d. 98572
12. ------------ is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and
systems or from external events.
a. Credit Risk b. Management Risk
c. External Risk d. Operational risk.
13. The AML/CFT Department is headed by
a. AGM (AML/CFT)
b. DGM (AML/CFT)
c. GM (AML/CFT)
d. CGM (AML/CFT)
14. The existing system of OVVR is providing the facility of online verification of vouchers on the
a. T day. (Same day). b. T+1 day
c. T+2 day d. T+3 day

15. A Shell company is :
a. A company in a foreign country
b. A company in a shell
c. A company that exist on paper only and has no physical existence
d. An offshore Company
16. Full form OFAC is?
a. Office of Foreign Asset Control b. Office of Foreign Accounts Control
c. Offshore and Foreign Accounts Control d. Offshore and Foreign Assets Control
17. Bank issued latest Cheque Collection Policy in the year ___.
a. 2015 b. 2016
c. 2017 d.2018
18. Cheque Truncation System (CTS) is presently working at _____ grids.
a. Three grids viz., Northern grid in Delhi, Southern Grid in Chennai and Western grid in Mumbai.
b. Two grids viz- Northern grid in Kolkatta, Southern grid in Hyderabad
c. Three grids viz., Northern grid in Kolakatta, Southern Grid in Bengaluru and Western grid in
Ahmedabad
19. ______ is considered as Courtesy amount.
a. Amount in words b. Amount in figures.
c. Both d. None

20. List of Banned Persons/Entities is circulated by -----
a. SBI b. RBI c. FATF d. IBA.
21. Cheques deposited at branches and in Drop box within branch premises, before the specified cut
off time, will be sent for clearance on _____ day, for which clearance period will be ______ working
day/s.
a. Same day; T+1 working day.
b. Next day; T+2 working days.
c. Same Day; T+2 working day
d. Next day; T+1 working days.
22. CRS stands for?
a. Common Reporting System
b. Common Reporting Standard
c. Country Reporting System
d. Country Reporting Structure
23. Periodic updation of KYC is done for a customer. It is at least once in 10 years for
a. Low Risk Customers
b. Medium Risk Customers
c. High Risk Customers
d. All Customers
24.Which of the following is not one of the stages of Money Laundering
a. Placement b. Integration
c. Layering d. Structure

25. Expand URRBCH.
a. Uniform Rules & Regulations for Bankers’ Clearing Houses.
b. Unified Rules & Regulations for Bankers Cheque Houses
c. Uniform Regulations & Rules for Bankers’ Clearing Houses
d. Unified Regulations & Rules for Bankers Clearing Houses
26.A special cap of Rs. ____ lakhs is applicable for branches manned with single officer for passing
MCC, irrespective of the limit mentioned on the cheque.
a. 5 lakhs. b. 1 lakh
c. 2 lakh d. 10 lahs
27.What is the maximum transfer transactions at Non home Branches for SB account and HNI/NRI
Cheques.
a. Rs. 10 Lakhs and Rs. 50 Lakhs respectively.
b. Rs.50 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs respectively
c. Rs.5 lakhs and Rs.10 lakhs respectively
d. Rs.25 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs respectively
28.Which TAN No. is to be used for TDS relating to payment made outside the four streams (CBS,
VPS, HRMS, and CPPC)
a. MUMS86151C b. MUMS86152D
c. MUMS86153E d. MUMS86154F
29. National Financial Switch (NFS) is located at and is maintained by
a. Mumbai, RBI b. Mumbai, NPCI
c. Hyderabad, IDRBT d. Kolkatta, SBIL

30. What is Management Letter in RFIA
a. It indicates the staff strength of a branch
b. It describes the customer Service of the branch
c. It highlights crucial issues of concern
d. It is the confidential report on the various functionaries at the branch
31. What is the maximum cash payment limit per day for SME and KCC accounts at Non Home
Branches?
a. Rs. 1 lakh for self. b. Rs.2 lakh for self
c. Rs.5 lakh for self d. Rs.10 lakh for self
32. What is the third-party maximum cash payment for Super Senior Citizens accounts at Non Home
Branches?
a. Rs. 10,000 b. Rs.25000
c. Rs.50000 d. Rs.100000
33.All cheques above _______ be subjected to fugitive ink / water droplet test to ascertain the
genuineness of the instrument.
a. Rs.50000 b. Rs.100000
c. Rs.10000 d. Rs. 25,000.
34.All cheques above ______ be subjected to ultraviolet lamp test to ascertain the genuineness of the
instrument. A stamp confirming such verification ________ should be affixed on back of the cheque.
a. Rs.50000/- ; UV Lamp verified. b. Rs.100000/- ; UV Lamp verified
c. Rs. 500000/- ; UV Lamp verified d. Rs.1000000/- ; UV Lamp verified

35. Customer to be contacted over phone/mobile number registered with the Bank before making
payment of cheque for amount of _______ and above.
a. Rs. 50000/- b. Rs.1 lakh
c. Rs. 2 lakhs. d. Rs. 5 lakhs
36. Passing for payment of high value cheques of ________ and above will be physically authorised
by two officials.
a. Rs.5 lakhs b. Rs.10 lakhs
c. Rs. 25 lakhs. d. Rs.50 lakhs
37. New branches are eligible for RFIA in ---months
a. 12 b. 24 c. 15 d.18
38. If cheque book is not delivered to the customer and received at the branch, it will be destroyed by
the branch after waiting for _____ months in the presence of Joint Custodians.
a. 1 month b. 3 months c .2 Months. d. 6 months
39. Advance value of Gold can be ascertained from
a. Borrower
b. Local Goldsmith
c. National Dailies
d. Precious Metal Department, CC, Mumbai
40. Which of the following is not used for assessed the purity of Gold
a. Touch Stone b. Nitric Acid
c. Sulphuric Acid d. Specific Gravity Method

41. RFIA Inspector points out that the gold ornaments have not been kept in FBR safe. What is FBR.
a. First Banking Reserve b. Fire and Burglary resistant
c. First Bank by RBI d. None of the above
42. One of the branch ftp is ftp:// A.B.C.D, where A is ____, B is ____, C is ____ and D is ____.
a. A is Network Number
b. B is CAP (City Aggregation Point)
c. C is LAN (Local Area Network) or Locator Number and
d. D is Server Number (33 or 34).
43. Which of the following is not comes under Government Business
a. PPF b. Sukanya Samridhi Scheme
c. Pension Accounts d. Pahli Kadam Pahli Udaan
44. Full form of VPS
a. Vendor Procurement System b. Vendor Purchase System
c. Vendor Payment Set d. Vendor Payment System
45. Which of the following is not one of the risk parameters in RFIA
a. Credit Risk Management
b. Market Risk Management
c. Operational Risk Management
d. External Compliance

46. Expand “EJ” Log in terms ATM
a. Electronic Journal b. Electrical Journal
c. Expelled Journal d. Evacuation Journal
47.The writing off of the obsolete stationery should be done well before the exercise of Annual Stock
Taking so that these items are not included in the closing stock as on _________ date
a. 31st December b. 28th February
c. 31st January. d. 31st March
48. DRP stands for --- and review periodicity—
a. Deterrent and Retaliation Plan, Quarterly
b. Deterrent and Resurrection Plan. Yearly
c. Disaster Retribution Plan. Half yearly
d. Disaster Recovery Plan, Yearly
49. Which types of guns are provided to the guards at branches to properly discharge their duties?
a. AK-47 b. Assault Rifles c. DBBL guns d. SBBL guns
50. The Certificate of Chest balance obtained as on.
a. 31st March b. 31st May c. 30th June d. 31st December
a. 256 KBPS b. 512 KBPS c. 1 MBPS d. 2 MBPS

52. To open Digital SB account through YONO. Which of the following is not mandatory for this
purpose?
a. He should be literate
b. Age should be 18 years and above
c. He should have mobile number
d. He should have email address
53. What is the version of Mobil phone required to install YONO App in Mobile?
a. It can be installed in all types of smart phone
b. It can be installed on any phone
c. Maximum operating system requirement in case of android phone is version 5.0 above
d. Maximum operating system requirement in case of android phone is version 7.0 above
54. Mr. X wants to open an account jointly with his wife Y through SBI YONO. He is permitted to do so?
a. Yes, he can open joint account with his wife with mandate as anyone or survivor.
b. Yes, he can open joint account with his wife with mandate as either-or survivor.
c. Yes, he can open joint account with his wife with mandate as former or survivor.
d. No, joint account cannot be opened through YONO
a. www.yonosbi.in
b. www.yono.com
c. www.yonosbi.com
d. www.sbiyono.sbi

56. In YONO to support the customer through chat bot application the new initiative that is developed?
a. SIRI b. AI c. SIA d. No such support
a. feedback.yono@sbi.co.in
b. yonosupport@sbi.co.in
c. yono@sbi.co.in
d. support.yono@sbi.co.in
a. 1800 111 101
b. 1800 113 211
c. 1800 114 211
d. 1800 425 360
59. How can raise a complaint in YONO?
a. Accounts b. YONO Pay
c. Service request d. Get in touch
60. How can Track a complaint in YONO?
a. Accounts b. YONO Pay
c. Service request d. Get in touch

61. What is the maximum amount that can be deposited in Tax Saver Fixed Deposit on YONO?
a. Rs.100000 b. Rs.125000 c. No Such limit d. Rs.150000
62. What is the maximum period for which Tax saving Deposit can be made?
63. Which of the following is mandatory for opening of Tax Saver Fixed Deposit in YONO?
a. PAN in CIF
b. NO Such mandatory requirement
c. E-mail id in CIF
d. Age of the customer should be less than 60
64. What is the maximum loan amount to avail overdraft against deposit through YONO?
a. Rs. 5 crores b. Rs. 50 lacs
c. Rs. 1 crore d. No such limit it depends upon deposit amount and margin
65. If Mr. X approached with e-TDR having residual maturity period of less than 1 year whether overdraft
facility is permitted through YONO.
a. No, minimum residual tenor for maturity of fixed deposit should be 12 months
b. Yes, he can avail OD through YONO nay tome before maturity
c Yes, minimum residual tenor for maturity of fixed deposit should be 6 month only.
d. No, minimum residual tenor for maturity of fixed deposit should be 6 months.
66. Number of variants of CINB are?
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 6

67. The Technology that is used in SBI FASTag to read the Tag is
a. QUORUM b. RFID
c. NETC d. NPCI
68. As per NHAI, number of categories of vehicles for the purpose of toll payment is…?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
69. Ms. Urjha can contribute Rs. 12000/- every month to achieve her financial goal. Which product
would you suggest?
a. Every month TDR/STDR can be created for a period of 10 years
b. The equal contribution of amount of Rs. 12000/- can be deposited in Recurring Deposit Account
c. The SB Account can be mapped to MODs account and system will take care for the excess amount
70. In the area of handling customer complaints, our Bank aims at “-------------” (SDS) from the existing
TAT of T+1 for at least ---% of the complaints received.
a) Same Day Solutions, 60%
b) Solutions Diary System, 50%
c) Same Day Systems, 50%
d) Systems of Daily Solutions, 60%
71. The bank has taken several initiatives to inculcate a risk culture through imparting training both
classroom and e-learning and conducting ------- exercise across the branches.
a. Self Audit b. Concurrent Audit
c. Risk Control Self-Assessment (RCSA) d. Statutory Audit

72. Receipt of Duplicate keys safe deposited at ------- should be kept in custody of ----- and recorded in
-------------
a) RBO, BM, BD register
b) Nearest Branch, Accountant, Branch key Register
c) Nearest Branch, Branch Manager, B D Register
d) Branch Vault, Branch Manager, BD Register
73. Reconciliation of GLIF entries in cash are to be done through
a) GLCNTR report b) Audit BGL report
c) GL COMP d) GL Finance one report
74. Disaster Management Plan should be reviewed
a) Every quarterly b) Every Half Yearly
c) Yearly d) Whenever branch incumbency change
75. BM should ensure that a disaster recovery plan for his Branch is
a) Approved
b) Approved by the controller
c) Approved by the controller and made available
d) Approved and ready for implementation
76. As per sec. 20 (1) of Banking Regulation Act, no advance can be granted by a Bank against …
a) Its own shares, as it tantamount to a reduction in capital
b) Deposits of other banks
c) Partly paid shares
d) Shares having locking period

77. What is PSS Act?
a) The Product & Services Settlement Act, 2008
b) The Personal Syndication & Settlement Act, 2008
c) The Payment Services and Settlement Act, 2008
d) The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
78. What is the range of scores for the branch / unit rated "B" under RFIA?
a) 700-849 b) 725-849
c) 700-825 d) 650-724
79. What is Integrity under Information Security?
a. information is accessible only to those authorized to have access
b. safeguarding the accuracy and completeness of information and processing methods
c. ensuring that authorized users have access to information and associated assets as per commitment
when required
d. All of the above
80. Information Security is all about to ensure … … … … …
a) Confidentiality b) Integrity
c) Availability d) All are correct
81. Why is it suggested to use the “Virtual Keyboard” on the login screen for entering credential of
INB…
a) It is easy to use by mouse b) To avoid key hits being recorded
c) To avoid skimming d) To avoid any Phishing attack

82. Non-Face to Face, customers are classified as
a) High Risk b) Medium Risk
c) Low Risk d) No account to be opened
83. The min transaction in Currency Chest is Rs .......- & in multiples of Rs ./- thereafter.
a) 50,000, 25,000 b) 1, 00,000. 50,000
c) 50,000, 50,000 d) 1, 00,000, 25,000
84. Small Coin Depot is the property of....
a) State Bank of India b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Government of India d) Central Bank of India
85. All remittances exceeding Rs 100 lacs, whether carried by cash van or hired vehicle, should be
accompanied by ........... (Non-CAC linked).
a) Minimum one-armed escort b) Police escort
c) Two-armed guards d) Three armed guards
86. A Succession certificate granted by a District Court is valid----
a) Within the district
b) Throughout the state
c) Throughout the country
d) Throughout the country if the amount does not exceed Rs. 10,000 outside the state.
87. Nomination for safe custody and safe deposit articles is available under----
a) Sec 45ZA of BR Act b) Sec 45ZB of BR Act
c) Sec 45ZC of BR Act d) Sec 45ZD of BR act

88. Once the accounts are opened at the branch, the physical documents and forms are required to be
……
a. Sent to Liabilities Central Processing Centre (LCPC)
b. Sent to Documents Archival Centre (DAC)
c. Retained at the branch.
d. Sent to Project Lotus Department.
89. Customers not having a smart phone can use the following facility on his Mobile to know account
details and transfer funds …
a.*99# facility b. BHIM Aadhar Pay
c. BHIM SBI Pay d. State Bank Collect
90. Cheques drawn on branches of other banks located at State Capitals/Major “A” class Cities/other
locations will be collected within _____________ days respectively
a) 7/10/14 b) 7/8/12
c) 5/10/14 d) 7/10/21
91. Locking Up arrangement should be kept in
a) Branch key register
b) Handing over/taking over register
c) Branch Document
d) BM’s personal file
92. While on duty an armed guard should hold … …. Number of cartridges
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20

93. Dishonour of Electronic Funds Transfer due to insufficiency of funds has been dealt with under
section no… … … … of PSS Act, 2007.
a) Section 25 b) Section 135
c) Section 136 d) Section 137
94. Negotiation is completed by … … … only in the case of bearer instrument.
a) Endorsement b) Delivery
c) Endorsement & Delivery d) Endorsement with authentication
95. The analytics-based Outlier Model is named as
a) RBOSA b) MODOARPS
c) RADAR d) RFIA
96. One of the conditions for priortisation of branches for audit is that date of next audit will not be more
than …Months from the date of previous audit?
a) 24 b) 21 c) 18 d) 15
97. A score of … ... (out of total ORM-RFIA score) has been assigned to the ORM area of Offsite Audit
under RBOSA?
a) 200 b) 220
c) 260 d) 145-305
98. A score of ….to … (Out of total CRM-RFIA score, depending on the percentage of exposure) has
been assigned to the CRM area of Offsite Audit under RBOSA?
a) 145-220 b) 220-305
c) 260-540 d) 145-305

99. Under revamped audit system, impact of Category - II fraud on risk rating and scoring is …?
a) Negative marks of 50 will be awarded, which may or may not entail downgrade of Risk Rating
depending on the score
b) Negative marks of 25 will be awarded, which may or may not entail downgrade of Risk Rating
c) Negative marks of 100 will be awarded, which may or may not entail downgrade of Risk Rating
d) No impact on auditee unit as there is no fault on the part of auditee unit.
100. Every new Desktop / PC / Windows Server deployed in the Bank must be brought under…
a) Active Directory Services & Anti-Virus Protection
b) Anti-Virus Protection only
c) Active Directory Services only
d) Licensed MSOffice software
101. Who can get information under RTI Act.
a. Individual only
b. Association of Persons
c. Partnership Firms
d. All of the above
102. RBI conducts Statutory Audit of the Banks under Section 35 of –Act
a. RBI Act 1934 b. BR Act 1949
c. NI Act 1881 d. Indian Contact Act 187

103. What is the expansion of VPIS?
a. Valuable paper invention system
b. Valuable paper inventory system
c. Value paper inventory system
104. IN CBS if the branch is having cash difference then the same will appear in which of the following
reports?
a. GLCOMP
b. GLCNTR
c. List of Suspense Account
d. Cash Difference Report
105. What does B@ncs24 mean?
a. Bank’s Automation and Network Connecting Software for 24 hours
b. Bank’s Accounting and Network Connecting Software for 24 hours
c. Bank’s Accounting and Network Control Software for 24 hours
d. Bank’s Automation and Networking Control System for 24 hours
106. What is cheque truncation system?
a. To keep all cheques in a box
b. A special courier system for dispatch of cheques
c. To return the cheques to customers after processing
d. Processing of cheques based on electronic image

107.In BSBD Account, which is not permitted
a. Withdrawals up to 4 in a month including ATM Transactions
b. Issue of Cheque book
c. Deposits more than 4 in a month
d. KYC Compliancy
108. Internal Audit functions should be accountable to----
a. DMD, IAD
b. Chairman
c. The Board or its Audit Committee
d. Ministry of Finance
109. ________ is an internal mechanism to its staff for reporting any unethical practice or behavior or
violation of service rules in the Bank?
a. Preventive Vigilance Committee
b. Proactive Risk Management Cell
c. Whistle Blower Policy
d. RTI
110. Which of the following Bank is not a part of Imperial Bank
a. Bank of Bengal b. Bank of Nizam
c. Bank of Bombay d. Bank of Madras

ANSWERS-General Banking (Miscellaneous)
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. d
11. a 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. b
21. a 22. b 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. c
31. a 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. c
41. b 42. -- 43. d 44.d 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. d 49. c 50. c
51. c 52.d 53.c 54.d 55.c 56.c 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. c
61. d 62. c 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. d 67. b 68. c 69.b 70. a
71. c 72. c 73. c 74. c 75. d 76. a 77. d 78. b 79. c 80. d
81. b 82. a 83. b 84. c 85. b 86. c 87. c 88. b 89. a 90. a
91. c 92.b 93. a 94. b 95. c 96. b 97. c 98. d 99. a 100. a
101.d 102.b 103.b 104.a 105.d 106.d 107.b 108.c 109.c 110.b

ADVANCES-I
(SME PRODUCTS)
ADVANCES-I (SME PRODUCTS)
1. Mr. X having Stationery shop and requested loan under SME Credit Card for small borrower. The
Maximum quantum of loan that can be sanctioned to Mr.X under SME Credit Card is
a. Rs.5.00 lacs b. Rs.10 lacs c. Rs.15 lacs d. Rs.50 lacs
2. The Maximum age criteria stipulated to a chief/key promoter under SME Credit Card
a. 60 Years b. 65 Years c. 70 Years d. No Max age limit
3. The minimum percentage of score, an applicant/unit should get to be eligible for availing finance
under SME Credit Card
a. 60% b. 50% c.70% d. No such criteria
4. Under SME Credit Card Scheme, in case of composite Loan, only the Term loan component is
repayable in installments up to a maximum period of
a.10 years b. 7 years c.6 years d.5 years
5. Under SME Credit Card Scheme, Working Capital Assessment for Professional & Self Employed is
based on (Example- Doctors, Chartered Accountants etc.)
a. 20% of their annual turn over
b. 25% of their annual turn over
c. 50% of their Gross Income as per IT Returns
d. 100% of their Gross Income as per IT Returns
6. The Term Loan component in SMECC should be repayable in a maximum of __years in suitable
installments.
a. 5 Years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 3 Years

7. To qualify under SME credit card scheme the unit/borrower should score __ Marks
a. 60 Marks b. 50 Marks c. 36 Marks d.40 Marks
8. The working capital limit sanctioned under SME credit card is valid for _ subject to annual review
a. 5 Years b. 1 Years c. 3 Years d. 2 Years
9. In SME Credit Card Scheme, the working capital component should be reviewed every year. If the
unit is not routing the transactions through the account and the credit summation is less than 50% of
the projected turnover. If the credit summation is less than 50%, then
a. Advance must call off immediately
b. letter must be sent to the unit requesting them to route through the sale proceeds
c. A repayment schedule should be fixed for the out standings in Suitable monthly installments
d. Borrower to be asked to close the account without further delay
10. The submission of details of stock statement to units for loans under SME Credit Card is
a. Once in a year as on 28th February b. Once in a month
c. Once in Six months d. Once in a Quarter
11. Mr. A approached the Bank and sought information regarding SME Smart Score with branch
officials. What is the Minimum and Maximum quantum of finance if unit is dealing with manufacturing
under SME Smart Score Scheme?
a. Min-Rs.5.00 lac , Max-Rs.50.00 lacs
b. Min-Rs.10.00 lacs, Max-Rs.50.00 lacs
c. Min->Rs.10.00 lacs, Max-<Rs.50.00 lacs
d. Min->Rs.10.00 lacs, Max-<Rs.25.00 lacs

12 What is the Minimum and Maximum quantum of finance if unit engaged in Trading and Services
under SME Smart Score scheme.
a. Min-Rs.5.00 lac , Max-Rs.50.00 lacs
b. Min-Rs.10.00 lacs, Max-Rs.50.00 lacs
c. Min->Rs.10.00 lacs, Max-<Rs.25.00 lacs
d. Min->Rs.10.00 lacs, Max-<Rs.50.00 lacs
13. The quantum for working capital loan for units engaged in MSME Units under SME Smart Score
scheme is assessed as __% of annual projected turnover subject to a maximum of <Rs.50.00 lacs.
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d.25%
14. The quantum for working capital loan for units engaged for MSME Units under SME Smart Score
scheme if the unit doing maximum transactions through digital mode is assessed as __% of annual
turnover subject to a maximum of <Rs.50 lacs.?
a. 30% b. 15% c. 20% d.25%
15. The quantum of finance for Term loans, under SME Smart Score scheme, is __ % of project cost.
a. 67% b. 70% c. 75% d.80%
16. Under SME Smart Score scheme the Working Capital loans can be sanctioned for _ years subject
to annual review, specifying the limit requirement for each year.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d.5

17. To be eligible under the SME Smart Score scheme, the age of the chief promoter/executive should
be having minimum and maximum years of age.
a. 18 to 65 b. 18 to 67
c. 21 to 70 d. 21 to 70
18. Under SME Smart Score scheme, to be eligible for loan, the applicant must obtain a minimum
overall score of 60% with a minimum of _ % under each sub-head like Personal details, Business details
and collateral details
a. 36 b. 40 c. 50 d.60
19. Maximum repayment period allowed of the term loan sanctioned under SME Smart Score scheme
is
a. Not more than 7 years including moratorium not exceeding 6 months
b. Not more than 5 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 6 months
c. Not more than 5 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 3 months
d. Not more than 7 years excluding moratorium not exceeding 3 months
20. In SME Smart Score scheme the maximum score awarded for Personal details, Business details
and Collateral conditions are -----, ----- & -------
a. 15, 25 & 10 b. 30, 50 & 20
c. 60,100 & 40 d. 70, 20 & 10
21. What type of loan sanctioned under Simplified Small Business Loans (SSBL?)
a. Term Loan b. Cash Credit
c. Both 1 and 2 above d. Dropline Overdraft

22. What is the minimum loan amount under Simplified Small Business Loans (SSBL?)
a. Rs. 5 lakhs b. Rs.10 lakhs c. Rs.25 lakhs d.>Rs.10 lakhs
23. What is the Maximum loan amount under Simplified Small Business Loans (SSBL?)
a. Rs.25 lakhs b. <Rs.25 lakhs c. Rs.50 lakhs d.Rs.100 lakhs
24. What is the maximum repayment period under Simplified Small Business Loans (SSBL?)
a. 12 months to 48 months b. 12 months to 60 months
c. 6 months to 48 months d. 6 months to 60 months
25. What are the eligibility norms to avail the loan under Simplified Small Business Loans (SSBL)?
a. Existing business for at least 5 years in the same location
b. Current Account holder of any bank for at least 2 years
c. Minimum average balance of above Rs.1 lakh in the last 1 year
d. Unit is situated within a radius of 5 KM from the financing Branch
e. All the above
26. For availing finance under SSBL how many years existing business in the same area/locality
a. 10 Years b. 5 Years c. 3 Years d. No stipulation
27. Which of the following is true to get finance under SSBL?
a. Unit is situated within a radius of 25 km from the financing branch
b. Unit is situated with n a radius of 15 km from the financing branch
c. Unit is situated within a radius of 10 km from the financing branch
d. Unit is situated within a radius of 5 km from the financing branch

28. Which of the following is true to get finance under SSBL?
a. Current account holder at any Bank for at least 5 years
b. Current account holder at any Bank for at least 3 years
c. Current account holder at any Bank for at least 2 years
d. Current account holder at any Bank for at least 1 years
29. How much percentage of Collateral security is required to get financial support under SSBL?
a. 100% b. 60% c. 50% d. 40%
30. Turn Around Time (TAT) prescribed under SSBL after submission of application with required
documents
a. 5 Days b.7 Days c.10 Days d.14 Days
31. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan what type of facilities sanctioned as per the requirement of unit.
a. Dropline Overdraft b. Cash Credit
c. Non-Fund Based d. All of these
32. Minimum loan amount that may be sanctioned to all eligible borrowers under ―SBI Asset Backed
Loan is
a. Rs.10.00 lac b. > Rs.10.00 lacs
c. Rs.25.00 lacs d. Rs.50.00 lacs
33. Maximum loan amount that may be sanctioned to all eligible borrowers under ―SBI Asset Backed
Loan is
a. Rs.5.00 Cr b. Rs.10.00 Cr
c. Rs.20.00 Cr d. Rs.100.00 Cr

34. Property that is going to be mortgaged under SBI Asset Backed Loan needs to be within a radius
of how many KM from the Branch, wherein account is maintained
a. 10 km b.20 km c. 25 km d. 5 km
35. Drop-line Overdraft Limits may be sanctioned under SBI Asset Backed Loan for the period of
minimum 12 months to maximum … with either Equated Reduction in limit or customized reduction in
limit depending upon the cash accruals from the unit.
36. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan maximum permissible amount against the securities i.e. LTV ratio
is stipulated is …. of the realizable value of the property
a. 50 % b. 60 % c. 70 % d. 75 %
37. Fresh valuation of property under SBI Asset Backed Loan is to be carried out every…. and any
shortfall must be topped up.
a. 3 Years b. 2 Years c. 4 Years d. 5 Years
38. Submission of Stock Statements i.e. Quarterly Operational Data (QOD) under SBI Asset Backed
Loan to be obtained at intervals
a. Monthly b. Quarterly c. Half Yearly d. Yearly
39. In ABL inspection of Property and Activity/Unit to be carried out once in ---
40. Title Investigation Report (TIR) should be obtained from two different panel advocates in case of
loan amount exceeds--- in ABL Scheme
a. Rs.10.00 Lacs b. Rs.25.00 lacs c. Rs.50.00 lacs d. Rs.100.00 lacs

41. Healthcare Business Loan (earlier Doctor plus loan) can be given to the Doctors
a. MBBS/BDS/BHMS b. Homeopathy
c. Naturopathy d. all
42. What type of facility available in Doctor Plus (Healthcare Business)?
a. Term Loan b. Cash Credit c. both a & b above d. Drop line OD
43. Minimum loan amount sanctioned under Healthcare Business (Doctor Plus)
a. Rs.10.00 lacs b. Rs.5.00 lacs c. >Rs.10.00 lac d. No ceiling
44. The maximum loan amount sanctioned under Healthcare Business (Doctor Plus)
a. Rs.5.00 Cr b.Rs.10.00 Cr
c. Rs.20.00 Cr d. No Maximum limit
45. Margin amount prescribed in Healthcare Business loan in case of Term Loan is
a.10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
46. Maximum repayment period allowed under Healthcare Business Loan scheme is
a. 10 Years including moratorium of 12 months
b. 5 Years including moratorium of 12 months
c. 7 years including max moratorium period of 6 months
d. 7 years including max moratorium period of 12 months
47. Inspection Frequency under Healthcare Business loan scheme

48. Loans sanctioned under Healthcare Business loan above Rs.2 crore to Rs.20 cr Minimum Collateral
Security (SARFAESI Property) is required is
a. 10% b. 25% c 50% d. 60%
49. Which of the following can be considered for finance under Healthcare Business loan Scheme?
a. Setting up of a clinic and purchase of an ambulance
b. Expansion/renovation etc.
c. Setting up of a Nursing home and purchase of Computers etc.
d. All of the above
50. Maximum Moratorium period that can be allowed for loans sanctioned under Healthcare Business
loan scheme is
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. Till the stabilizes of Doctors practice subject to maximum 24 months
51. CGTMSE stands for
a. Credit Guarantee Trust for Medium and Small Enterprises
b. Credit Guarantee Trust for Manufacturing and Service Enterprises
c. Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
d. Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

52. CGTMSE set up by
a. SIDBI & Govt. of India b. NABARD
c. RBI d. SIDBI
53. Guarantee fee for loan account sanctioned under CGTMSE scheme is to be paid within …. From
the date of Demand Advice Notice (DAN) generated by CGTMSE.
a. 15 Days b. 30 Days c. 45 Days d.60 Days
54. Bank is required to lodge claim with CGTMSE in respect of credit facility within a maximum period
of ...... from date of NPA, if NPA is after lock-in period in respect of the loans covered by CGTMSE
before 1st January, 2013.
a. 6 Months b. 1 Years c. Eighteen Months d. Two Years
55. For Manufacturing units Credit guarantee cover available under CGTMSE upto the limit of
a. Rs.1.00 Cr b. Rs.2.00 Cr c. Rs.5.00 Cr d. Rs.0.50 Cr
56. For Retail trading and Services units Credit guarantee cover available under CGTMSE upto the
limit of
a. Rs.0.50 Cr b. Rs.1.00 Cr c. Rs.2.00 Cr d. Rs.5.00 Cr
57. Which of the following activities are not eligible Credit guarantee covers under CGTMSE
a. Manufacturing Units
b. Trading Units
c. Service Entrepreneurs
d. Educational and Training Institutions

58. Charging Annual Guarantee fees based on ---under CGTMSE
a. Limit
b. Drawing Power
c. Outstanding loan amount of unit
59. Maximum extent of Guarantee under CGTMSE for Micro Enterprises above Rs.50 lacs to Rs.200
lacs
a. 85% amount in default subject Rs.100 lacs
b. 75% amount in default subject Rs.150 lacs
c. 50% amount in default subject Rs.100 lacs
d. 100% amount in default subject Rs.200 lacs
60. Annual Guarantee Fee so demanded would be paid by Member Lending Institution on or before
a. 31st March every year
b. 1 st April every year
c. 15th April each year
d. 30th April each year
61. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) launched on
a. 26.05.2014 b. 15.08.2014
c. 01.07.2015 d. 08.04.2015
62. Which of the following is not a category of PMMY?
a. VARUN b. TARUN c. SHISHU d. KISHOR

63. Expand MUDRA
a. Micro and Urban Development Refinancing Agency
b. Metro and Urban Development Refinancing Agency
c. Medium and Underdeveloped Rural Agency
d. Micro Units Development and Refinancing Agency
64. MUDRA is basically lending to
a. Manufacturing Sector only b. Trading Sector only
c. Services Sector only d. All the above
65. Loan Value Upto Rs.50000 is classified as
a. Sishu b. Kishor c. Tarun d. None of the above
66. Loan Value from Rs.50001 and up to Rs.5.00 lacs is classified as
67. Loan Value above Rs.5.00 lacs and up to Rs.10.00 lacs is classified as
68. The Circle will report the progress of MUDRA Loans to
a. Government of India
b. State Government
c. State Level Bankers Committee

69. All loans extended under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana should cover under
a. CGTMSE b. CGSSI
c. CGFMU d. ECLGC Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme
70. The submission of stock statement for loans under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana PMMY is
a. Once in a month b. Once in a quarter
c. Once in Six months d. Once in a year as on 31st December
71. Who are all eligible to avail the loan under Standup India Scheme?
a. SC/ST b. Women Entrepreneurs

c. Physically Handicapped d. Both 1 and 2 of above
72. What is the minimum loan amount under SUI Scheme
a. Rs.5.00 lacs b. Rs.10.00 lacs
c. Above Rs.10.00 lacs d. Rs.25.00 lacs
73. What is the maximum loan amount under SUI Scheme
c. <Rs.100.00 lacs d. Rs.100.00 lacs
74. What is the margin prescribed under SUI Scheme
a. Nil b. 10%
c. 15% d. 20%

75. What is the maximum repayment period?
a. 5 years including moratorium period of 12 months
b. 5 years excluding moratorium period of 12 months
c. 7 years including moratorium period of 18 months
d. 7 years excluding moratorium period of 18 months
76. What are the activities covered under Stand up India
a. Manufacturing, Trading and Services
b. Trading Services
c. Manufacturing and Trading
d. Manufacturing and Services
77. Purpose of Stand up India is
a. To meet all kinds of working capital needs
b. To meet all kinds of Acquisition of Fixed Assets
c. To meet all kind of credit requirement for setting up of Greenfield projects
d. All of the above
78. Type of facilities under Stand up India
a. Cash Credit b. Term loan
c. BG/LC d. Composite Loan (Working Capital /Term Loan)

79. Frequency of inspection under Stand up India
a. Monthly b. Quarterly
c. Half Yearly d. Yearly
80. Who will be the trustee of operations of CGSSI Scheme to SUI
a. Sponsored Bank
b. NABARD
c. IBA
d. NCGTC National Credit Guarantee Trust Company
81 SBI Asset-Backed Loan for Residential Housing (ABL-RH) the type of loan is...........
a. Cash Credit b. Term Loan
c. Drop line Overdraft d. All of these
82. The minimum loan amount that may be sanctioned to the eligible borrower under ―ABL –RH is
c. Rs.50.00 lacs d. Rs.100.00 lacs
83. Maximum loan amount that may be sanctioned to eligible borrower under ABL –RH in Metros is
a. Rs.50.00 Cr b. Rs.100.00 Cr
c. Rs.200.00 Cr d. Rs.500.00 Cr
84. The maximum loan amount that may be sanctioned to the eligible borrower under ABL- RH in other
centers are
a. Rs.50.00 Cr b. Rs.100.00 Cr
c. Rs.200.00 Cr d. Rs.500.00 Cr

85. LTV % of Immovable property under ABL-RH is-----% of realizable value.
a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 75%
86. Maximum Repayment period under the under ABL-RH is ----- Months
a..48 b.60 c.84 d.96
87. ABL-CRECP the type of loan is...........
a. Cash Credit b. Working Capital Demand Loan
c. Drop line Overdraft d. All of these
88. LTV % of Immovable property under ABL-CRECP is-----% of realizable value.
a. 50% b 60% c.70% d.75%
89. Limits under ―SBI Asset Backed Loan for ABL-CRECP can be sanctioned from _ _ Months to _
Months
a. 12, 96 b. 6, 84
c. 12, 72 d. 6, 96
90. Maximum loan amount that may be sanctioned to eligible borrower under ABL-CRECP in tier I
branches are ……
a. Rs.50 Cr b. Rs.100 Cr
c. Rs.200 Cr d. Rs.500 Cr
91. Under PMEGP Scheme, the maximum cost of the project admissible under manufacturing sector
is

92. Under PMEGP Scheme, the maximum cost of the project admissible under business sector is
93. Who are not eligible under PMEGP Scheme
a. Trusts b. Societies
c. SHGs d. Existing Units
94. What is the population limit for classifying as Rural Area under PMEGP Scheme
a. 5000 b.10000 c.20000 d. 50000
95. Who are not part of Special Category for the benefits of higher subsidy and lower margin under
PMEGP Scheme.
a. Ex-serviceman b. Women/North Eastern Region/Hill area/Border areas
c. Weaker Section d. SC/ST/OBC/Minorities
96.For setting up of project under PMEGP Scheme, the beneficiary should possesses at least Pass
educational qualification.
a. VII th standard b. VI th standard
c. VIII th standard d. X th standard
97. What is the lock in period for Govt. Subsidy under PMEGP Scheme
a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 1-year d.2 years

98. What is the nodal agency for implementing PMEGP Scheme at National level
a. NABARD b. RBI c. KVIC d. SIDBI
99. What is the quantum of bank finance under PMEGP
a. 95% in special category b. 90% in general category
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
100. Which of the following is not true in respect of PMEGP Scheme
a. Two loans can be considered to father and son
b. Two brothers can be given two loans
c. Only one loan considered for one family
d. Two loans can be given to husband and wife
101.Under SME Credit Plus, how much % of aggregate fund based working capital limit subject to
maximum of – can be sanctioned.
a. 10% and Rs.10 lakhs b. 10% and 25 lakhs
c. 25% and Rs. 10 lakhs d. 20% and 25 lakhs
102. SME Credit Plus can be sanctioned for which of the following purposes.
a. Repairs to machinery b. Tax Payments
c. Other Contingency d. All of the above

103. What is the stipulated age criterion for loans to Business Correspondents?
a. 21 to 65 y b. 18 to 65 y
c. 18 to 60 y d. 21 to 75 y
104. Minimum and Maximum quantum of loan to Business Correspondents?
a. Rs.10000 & Rs.100000 b. Rs.20000 & Rs. 200000
c. Rs.25000 & Rs. 250000 d. Rs.50000 & Rs. 500000
105. Minimum and Maximum quantum of loan under SBI Fleet Finance Scheme to finance new vehicles
E.g. trucks/tankers/ trailers/ tippers/buses/ luxury buses and passenger vehicles etc.
a. Min-Rs.20 lakhs; Max-Rs.10 cr
b. Min-Rs.50 lakhs; Max-Rs.10 cr
c. Min-Rs.10 lakhs; Max-Rs.10 cr
d. Min-Rs.50 lakhs; Max-Rs.50 cr
106. The nature of facility that can be sanctioned under SBI Fleet Finance Scheme
a. Cash Credit b. Dropline OD
C. Working Capital Demand Loan d. Term Loan
107. Minimum and Maximum quantum of loan under SBI Construction Equipment Loan for purchase
of new Construction Equipment’s i.e. Mining, Material Handling, earth moving etc.

108. Maximum Tenor of the loan under SBI Construction Equipment Loan
109. The nature of facility that can be considered under Lease Rental Discounting (LRD) Scheme
a. Demand Loan b. Cash Credit
c. Drop line OD d. Term Loan
110. Minimum and Maximum quantum of loan under Lease Rental Discounting (LRD) Scheme at R&
DBG Branches
111. CAG branches can sanction maximum loan upto –under LRD Scheme
a. Rs.100 crores b. Rs.250 crores
c. Rs.500 crores d. Rs.1000 crores
112. Minimum DSCR required for loans upto Rs.50 crores at R&DBG under LRD Scheme
a. 1.50 b. 1.75 c. 1.20 d. 1.10
113. Minimum DSCR required for loans above Rs.50 crores at CAG under LRD Scheme
a. 1.50 b. 1.75 c. 1.20 d. 1.10

114. Quantum of finance restricted under Stand by line of credit for working capital requirement
a. 15%; Rs.20 crores b. 10%; Rs.10 crores
c. 20%; Rs.20 crores d. 25%; Rs.10 crores
115. Minimum and Maximum quantum of loan under SBI Marble Plus Scheme
a. Min-Rs.10 lakhs; Max-Rs.50 cr b. Min-Rs.50 lakhs; Max-Rs.50 cr
c. >Min-Rs.10 lakhs; Max-Rs.10 cr d. Min-Rs.50 lakhs; Max-Rs.100 cr
116. DIFFERENTIAL RATE OF INTEREST (DRI Scheme): Family income of the borrower does not
exceed ____in Rural area and ____in Urban and SU area
a. 10000/-; 20000/- b. 15000/-; 25000/-
c. 18000/-; 24000/- d. 20000/-; 40000/-
117. What is the Maximum unit Project Cost for individual microenterprises cases _______.& The
Maximum group finance is _______ under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana- National Urban Livelihoods
Mission (DAY-NULM)
a. Rs.1 lakh; Rs.5 lakhs
b. Rs.2 lakh; Rs.10 lakhs
c. Rs.5 laks; Rs.50 lakhs
d. Rs.2 lakh; Rs.20 lakhs
118. What are the different methods available for initiation of transactions in e- DFS
a. Pull Method b. Push Method
c. Both of the above d. None of the above

119. What is the margin prescribed under e-DFS/e-VFS Scheme
a. Nil b. 5% c. 10% d. 15%
120. Which of the following scheme recently withdrawn
a. ABL b. e-DFS c. Doctor Plus d. m-DFS
121. What is the maximum loan under Artisan Credit card?
a. Rs.1 lacs b. Rs.2 lac c. Rs.5 lacs d. None of the above
122. What is the repayment period in Artisan Credit Card?
a. 36 months b. 48months c. 60months d. None of the above
123. What is the facility that can be sanctioned under Artisan Credit Card?
a. Demand loan b. Term Loan c. Cash Credit d. Any facility
124. The quantum of finance under SME Credit plus is
a. 20% of aggregate working capital limit subject to a maximum of Rs.25lacs
b. 20% of aggregate working capital limit subject to a maximum of Rs.10lacs
c. 15% of aggregate working capital limit subject to a maximum of Rs.25lacs
d. 15% of aggregate working capital limit subject to a maximum of Rs.10lacs

125. Which of the following not true about SME credit plus scheme
a. Type of facility is clean cash credit
b. Rate of interest is as applicable for working capital limits
c. Each amount of withdrawal should be repaid within 2 months and there should be a gap of 15 days
between the last date of repayment of outstanding and the next withdrawal
d. Cheque book will be issued
126. Nature of facility under SME ASSIST is ....
a. Working Capital Demand Loan
b. Cash Credit
c. Dropline Overdraft
d. All of these
127. The maximum loan amount sanctioned under SME ASSIST .........
a. 20% of the existing fund bases limits
b. 80% of the Input tax credit receivables
c. a or b whichever is higher
d. a or b whichever is lower.
128. What is the repayment period for SME ASSIST loan--
a. 6 months after a moratorium of 3 months
b. 6 months including a moratorium of 3 months
c. 9 months after a moratorium of 3 months
d. 12 months after a moratorium of 3 months.

129. The facilities available under SME Gold Loan Scheme.
a. Overdraft (OD) b. Demand Loan (DL)
c. Term Loan d. Both a and b above
130. The Minimum & Maximum loan amount in SME Gold Loan Scheme
a. Min- Rs.20000; Max-Rs.20 lakhs b. Min- Rs.50000; Max-Rs.25 lakhs
c. Min- Rs.1 lakh; Max-Rs.50 lakhs d. No-Min; No-Max
131. The minimum CRA/CUE rating required to avail under SME Gold Loan Scheme
a. SB-9/CUE-9 b. SB-10/CUE-10
c. SB-16/CUE-16 d. CRA/CUE Rating not Applicable
132. The Loan component in SME Gold loan Scheme should be repayable in a maximum of period.
a. 1 Years b. 2 years c. 5 years d. 3 Years
133. The submission of stock statement for loans under SME Gold Loans is
a. Once in a year as on 28th February b. Once in a quarter
c. Once in Six months d. Not required in SME Gold Loan
134. In SME Gold Loan Scheme inspection of the Activity/Unit to be carried out once in ---
a. Monthly b. Quarterly
c. Half Yearly d. Waived under the scheme

135. Under SBI e-DFS, the borrower/dealer will have the following advantages :
a. Low Interest Rates
b. 100% financing of Invoices
c. Flexible Collateral terms
d. All the above
136. Under e- DFS, loans will be extended to?
a. Industry Majors b. Dealers/Distributors c. Both d. Either
137. GECL renamed as GECL1.0 and scheme extended till
a. 31.03.2021
b. Till total amount of Rs.3 lakhs sanctioned under the scheme
c. Both a and b above
138. Which of the following branch is authorised to lending to Capital Market
a. Mumbai Main Branch (0300)
b. Capital Market Branch Mumbai (11777)
c. Shivsagar Estate Branch (11689)
d. Corporate Centre (3999)

139. Project Vivek was launched on
a. 08.04.2014 b. 01.07.2017
c. 08.11.2016 d. 05.08.2017
140. Digital loan product PABL recently launched on 09.07.2020. What is the full form of PABL
a. Pre-Approved Budget Loan
b. Pre-Approved Basic Loan
c. Pre-Approved Business Loan
d. Pre-Applied Budgetary Loan

ANSWERS—SME PRODUCTS
1. b 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. c 6. a 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. a
11. c 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. b
21. d 22. d 23. b 24. b 25. e 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. b
31. d 32. b 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. b
41. a 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. d 50. b
51. d 52. a 53. b 54. b 55. b 56. b 57. d 58. c 59. b 60. c
61. d 62. a 63. d 64. d 65. a 66. b 67. c 68. c 69. c 70. d
71. d 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. c 76. a 77. d 78. d 79. b 80. d
81. b 82. c 83. b 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. c 88. a 89. c 90. a
91. d 92. a 93. d 94. c 95. c 96. c 97. a 98. c 99. c 100. d
101.d 102.d 103.c 104.c 105.b 106.d 107.c 108.b 109. d 110.a
111.d 112.c 113.d 114.a 115.c 116.c 117.b 118.c 119.a 120.d
121.b 122.a 123.c 124.a 125.d 126.a 127.d 128.a 129.b 130.c
131.a 132.a 133.d 134.d 135.d 136. b 137. c 138. b 139.d 140. c

SME ADVANCES
SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES
SME ADVANCES (SYSTEMS & ADVANCES)
1. Bank is to submit Central Repository of Information on Large Credits (CRILC) main returns on
Borrower’s exposure of Rs.
a. 1 cr b. 5 cr c. 10 cr d. 50 cr
2. Bank is to submit Central Repository of Information on Large Credits (CRILC) main returns on
Borrower’s exposure of Rs. 5 Cr and above to RBI at------- interval.
a. Weekly b. Monthly
c. Bi- monthly d. Quarterly
3. CIBIL provide credit information on following segment
a. P Segment b. SIB Segment
c. Commercial Segment d. Commercial & consumer segment
4. Updating Security Interest over the property created is done in Central Electronic Registry under
__Act.
a. B R Act b. Contract Act
c. SARFAESI Act d. SBI Act
5.Who headed the working group on willful defaulters constituted in May 2001?
a. S. S. Kalia b. S. S. Kohli
c. M. Narsihaman d. S. K. Talwar
6. Right to information Act, 2005 is not applicable to CIBIL because
a. It is restricted within Banks / FIs b. CIBIL is not a public authority
c. Both A & B d. None of these

7. Collaterals such as immovable properties charged in favour of the bank should be got valued once
in ______years by appointed valuers.
a.2 b.3 c.4 d. 5
8. Which of the following are not Basel securities
a. Gold ornaments under pledge to the Bank
b. Kisan Vikas Patras / NSCs
c. Securities issued by Central & State Govt
d. Stocks hypothecated to Bank
9. Re valuation of Security is required to update in CBS
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
10. As per new definition of MSME (Atmanirbhar Bharat) Micro Enterprises in respect of Manufacturing
& Trade and Services
a. Investment < Rs.1 crore and Turnover < Rs.5 crore
b. Investment Rs.1 crore to < Rs.10 crore and Turnover Rs.5 crore to <Rs.50 crore
c. Investment Rs.10 crore to < Rs.50 crore and Turnover Rs.50 crore to <Rs.250 crore
d. Investment <= Rs.1 crore and Turnover <= Rs.5 crore
11. As per new definition of MSME (Atmanirbhar Bharat) Small Enterprises in respect of Manufacturing
& Trade and Services

12. As per new definition of MSME (Atmanirbhar Bharat) Medium Enterprises in respect of
Manufacturing & Trade and Services
13. The applicable credit conversion factor (CCF) for Financial Bank Guarantees and Performance
Bank Guarantees are……and….respectively.
a. 100 %; 50 % b. 75 %; 75 %
c. 50 %; 100 % d. 25 %; 25 %
14, Power of attorney executed abroad must be stamped within
a. 3 months b. 6 months
c. 9 months d. 12 months
15.Which accounts are covered under Credit Audit?
a. Above Rs. 20.00 crore
b. Rs. 20.00 crore and above
c. Rs. 10.00 crore and above
d. Rs. 25.00 crore and above
16. As per loan policy guidelines, takeover norms audited balance sheet should not be more than ….
months old

17. Increase in NWC means there is ...........in fund flow.
a. surplus
b. Deficit
c. There is no correlation between fund flow and NWC
d. None
18. Current ratio determines the …… position of the firm, higher the current ratio ……… is the liquidity
position of the firm.
a. profitability, not good
b. Solvency, better
c. Liquidity, better
d. None
19 TOL/TNW determines the ………. position of the firm lowers the ratio indicates ……. solvency
(capital gearing ratio).
a. Solvency, better
b. solvency, not good
c. Liquidity, good
d. None
20. Dynamic Review of internal Ratings is applicable in respect of
a. Total exposure of Rs.10 Crores & above with triggers
b. Total exposures of Rs.500 Crs& above without triggers
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None

21. CLCC Stands for
a. Circle Level Credit Committee b. Corporate Loan Credit Committee
c. Corporate Law Credit Committee d. Corporate Liquidity Credit Committee
22. ECCB Stands for
a. Executive Committee of Corporate Board
b. Executive Committee of Central Board
c. Executive Commission of Credit Board
d. Executive Chief Central Board
23. Transaction Business Unit has a special focus on
a. Trade Finance b. SCFC c. CMP d. All of the above
24. CCCCC Stands for
a. Corporate Centre Credit Committee for Control
b. Commercial Client Credit Committee for Control
c. Corporate Centre Commercial Credit Committee
d. Corporate Centre Credit Control Centre
25. RCCC Stands for
a. Regional Credit Corporate Control
b. Rural Credit Control Committee
c. Regional Corporate Credit Committee
d. Regional Commercial Credit Committee

26. Loan Policy of our Bank reviewed periodicity
a. Bi-annual b. Yearly c. Half Yearly d. Quarterly
27. Exposure means in advances
a. NFB Limit b. FB Limit
c. FB+NFB Limit d. FB+NFB+ Investments
28. CRA is applicable where total exposure is (if Score is available)
a. Rs.25 lacs and above b. Rs.50 lacs and above
c. Rs. 75 lacs and above d. Rs.100 lacs and above
29. CRA is applicable where total exposure is
a. Rs.25 lacs and above b. Rs.50 lacs and above
c. Rs. 75 lacs and above d. Rs.100 lacs and above
30. Facility Rating is applicable in respect of
a. Regular Model b. Simplified Model c. Both (a) and (b) d) None
31. Under CRA, Regular Model is applicable for exposures
a. Rs.0.25 crore to Rs.5.00 crore
b. Rs.0.50 crore to Rs.5.00 crore
c. Over Rs.5.00 crore
d. All the above

32. Under CRA, Simplified Model is applicable for exposures
a. Rs.0.50 crore to Rs.5.00 crore
b. Rs.0.10 crore to Rs.5.00 crore
c. Rs.0.25 crore to Rs.5.00 crore
d. All the above
33. Banks aggregate exposure to the capital markets should not exceed % of its net worth
a. 25% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50 %
34. As per Loan Policy, unsecured exposure is restricted to % of Banks outstanding total exposure
a. 10% b. 20% c. 40% d. 50%
35. Non-Fund Based facility not to exceed % Banks total fund based exposure
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%
36. Loan against security of shares is restricted to – per individual if the security are held in physical
form
c. Rs.25 lakhs d. Rs.100 lakhs
37. Loan against security of shares is restricted to – per individual if the security are held in Demat form
c. Rs.25 lakhs d. Rs.100 lakhs

38. Borrowers with aggregate limits of Rs.500 crores and above, Dynamic Review of internal rating has
to be carried out at – periodicity
a. Quarterly b. Half yearly c. Yearly d. Monthly
39. Working capital facilities are normally granted for a period of
a. One Year b. Two Years c. Three Years d. Five Years
40.Working Capital Facilities have to be utilized in – months from the date of sanction
a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 2 months
41. Term Loan facility should be availed – months from the date of sanction requires revalidation
42. In respect of CMA Credit Monitoring Arrangement Form I indicate
a. Operating statement
b. Analysis of balance sheet
c. Funds flow statement
d. Particulars of existing/proposed limits from the banking system
43. In respect of Credit Monitoring Arrangement (CMA), information Form II represents

44. Under Credit Monitoring Arrangement (CMA), information under Form III represents
45. Under Credit Monitoring Arrangement (CMA), information under Form IV represents
c. Comparative Statement of Current Assets (CA) and Current Liabilities (CL)
46. Under Credit Monitoring Arrangement (CMA), information under Form V represents
47. A shell company is an entity that has _____
a No active business
b usually exists only as a vehicle for another company
c Both 1 & 2 above
d None of the above

48. For loans above Rs. 1.00 Crores, how many valuation reports are to be obtained?
a1 b2
c3 d As per the discretion of the appraising officer
49. At the time of sanction of credit facilities, Valuation report should not be older than _____ months.
a3 b6 c9 d 12
50. Is a hypothecation charge created on a vehicle financed by the Bank, required to be registered on
the CERSAI Portal?
a. No, it is not required to be registered on CERSAI Portal
b. Yes, it is required to be registered on CERSAI Portal
c. It is not required to separately register the charge on CERSAI Portal provided the charge has been
registered on Vahan National Portal
d. The charge is required to be registered on Vahan National Portal and then CERSAI Portal,
separately, as non-registration of charge on CERSAI Portal vitiates the right of the Bank to enforce
security interest under SARFAESI Act, 2002
51. Gross Working Capital is better known as
a. Funds required for setting up of plant
b. Total of Balance Sheet
c. Current Asset – Net Working Capital
d. Total funds required to complete an operating cycle
52. Under Projected Annual Turnover (PAT) method as per Nayak Committee recommendations,
minimum contribution from the promoters or Net Working Capital must be equal to?
a. 5% of the Projected Annual Turnover b 5% of the total requirement
C 5% of the Total Current Assets d. 20% of the Projected Annual Turnover

53. Term Loans can be disbursed in
a. Lumpsum b. Instalments
c Both of the above d. None of the above
54. The purpose of term loan is mainly for
a. Acquisition of fixed assets
b. Acquisition of balancing equipment
c Strengthening of NWC etc
d. All the above
55. To calculate Gross DSCR, interest is added to both the numerator and denominator
a. A False b. May be c. Cannot say d. True
56. In the calculation of break even point, contribution means
a. Fixed expenses b Sales - Fixed cost
c. Sales - All cost d. Sales – Variable cost
57. In a term loan, IRR stands for
a. Interest rate of return b. Internal Reset return
c. Indian rate of return d. Internal rate of return
58. The pricing of the working capital limit of Rs 50 lacs is normally linked with
a. CRA b CUE
c. ECR d. Financial Soundness E None of the above

59. Credit Risk Assessment (CRA) to be reviewed at half yearly intervals for units having CRA
a. SB-7& below b. SB-10& below
c. SB-11& below d. SB-15& below
60. A customer is enjoying One cash credit limit, two term loan, one BG limit & one LC limit, which of
the following option is correct regarding facility rating
a. One borrower rating & one facility rating
b. One borrower rating & two facility rating
c One borrower rating & three facility rating
d. One borrower rating & five facility rating
61. For awarding facility rating, how many rating grades have been created
a. 4 b. 8 C 16 d. 12
62. CRA simplified model is applicable for all exposures from Rs 50 Lacs and up to Rs. –
a. Rs 1.00 Crores b. Rs 2.00 Crores
c .Rs 4.00 Crores d. Rs 5.00 Crores
63. Risk Assessment Models are applicable to all the following segments except
a. C & I b. Agriculture (AGL) c. SME d. Personal
64. What is the hurdle rating for New Trading/Non Trading units under CRA
a. SB-6 b. SB-8
c. SB-10 d. SB-11 E There is no hurdle rating for new Units

65. Can a BG be amended after issuance?
a. No b. Yes, with the consent of all the parties concerned
c. Yes d. Not sure
66. Deferred Payment Guarantee (DPG) is ……
a. a contract to pay the dues to the Government authorities
b. a contract to pay to the supplier the price of machinery as per the terms of contract on the due dates
if defaulted by the buyer.
c. Not at all contract
d. a contract to pay the price of raw material to the suppliers as and when asked by them
67. Can BGs with automatic renewal clause be issued by the Bank?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Can’t say
d. Yes, only to select beneficiaries such as customs authority, courts and overseas project owners in
respect of project exports
68. Maximum period for which a BG can be issued without prior administrative clearance
a. 24 months b. 18 months c. 36 months d. Any period
69. Normally, BG should not have a maturity of more than ………… years.
a. 10 b. 5 c. 3 d. 7
70. Person to whom the BG is given and who has the right to enforce it, is called
a. Applicant b. Guarantor c. Beneficiary d. Buyer

71. FFR-II is to be submitted within how many days?
a. 67 days from the end of quarter
b. 67 days from the end of half year
c. 52 days from the end of quarter
d. 52 days from the end of half year
72. As per takeover norms, the perfection of the security should be done within…….
a. 60 days of disbursement
b. 90 days of disbursement
c.120 days of disbursement
d. 30 days of disbursement
73. A legal audit is mandatory for all exposure of ……. and above
a. Rs 5.00 crs b. Rs 10.00 crs c. Rs 3.00 crs d. None
74. As per prudential exposure norms, the exposure ceiling limits in case of single borrower/
counterparty is
a. 20% of Bank’s Tier I Capital
b. 25% of Bank’s Tier I Capital
c.30% of Bank’s Tier I Capital
d. 40% of Bank’s Tier I Capital
75. As per prudential exposure norms the exposure Ceiling Limits in case of a Group of Connected
Counterparties
a.20% of Bank’s Tier I Capital b.25% of Bank’s Tier I Capital
c.30% of Bank’s Tier I Capital d. 40% of Bank’s Tier I Capital

76. Term Loans (loans with residual maturity of over three years) at any point of time should not in
aggregate exceed ……………………
a. 20% of Bank’s Tier I Capital
b.15% of Bank’s Tier I Capital
c.30% of Bank’s Tier I Capital
d.40% of the Bank’s total advances
77. Advances against……………would not be classified as NPA provided adequate margin is available.
a. Term deposits
b. NSCs, IVPs
c. surrender value of life insurance policy
d. All
78. The Letter of Arrangement for SME units is given in the form of …..
a. SME 1 b. SME 4 c. SME 5 d. SME 3
79. With regard to documentation, SME 3 refers to …
a. Agreement of Loan-cum-Hypothecation
b . Guarantee Agreement
c. Supplemental Document
d. Arrangement Letter
80. The form to be obtained for Agreement of Loan-cum-Hypothecation for SME is …

81. What is the form to be obtained with regard to confirmation of EM under SME documentation?
82. For extension of EM under SME documentation, what is the form to be used?
83. SME 9 refer to -------------- in SME Documentation.
a. Deed of further mortgage
b. Revival letter
c. Deed of mortgage
d. memorandum of extn of mortgage
84. Revival letter is obtained under SME documentation by using the form ….
85. While obtaining the SME documentation, the form used for obtaining the particulars of assets is ….
a. SME 2 A b. SME 2 c. SME 5 d. SME 3
86. What is the form used for obtaining Deed of further mortgage in SME Documentation?
87. Link letter under SME documentation is obtained by using the form …..

88. In place of SME 13, what is the form used by Branches at present?
a. Link letter
b. Arrangement letter
c. valuation report
d. Title Investigation Report
89. Charge created on Shares/ debentures?
a. Hypothecation b. Pledge c. Assignment d. None of these
90. Stock Audit is mandatory for exposure of
a. Above Rs. 5.00 crore
b. Rs. 2.00 crore and above
c. Rs. 10.00 crore and above
d. Rs. 25.00 crore and above
91. Cut of limit for identification of willful defaulters by RBI is
a. Rs.10 lakhs B. Rs.25.00 lakhs
c. Rs.50 lakhs d. Rs.100.00 lakhs
92. Legal Audit is mandatory for exposure of
a. Above Rs. 1.00 crore b. above Rs. 2.00 crore
c. above Rs.10.00 crore d. Rs. 5.00 crore and above
93. Normally, the average maturity of any term loan, including moratorium, should not exceed
a. 8 years b. 10 years c. 15 years c. 20 years

94. Under Project Vivek, CUE full form
a. Credit Underwriting Equity b. Credit Understanding Equity
c. Credit Underwriting Engine d. Credit Undernoted Engine
95. Which of the following does not come under Fraud Triangle
a. Willingness b. Opportunity c. Pressure d. Rationalisation
96. __________is an unsecured short-term promissory note issued by credit worthy companies.
a. Certificate of Deposit b. Repo
c. IBPC d. Commercial Paper
97. What is the minimum period for which a CP can be issued

a. 4 days b. 5 days c. 6 days d. 7 days
98. What is the maximum period for which a CP can be issued

99. Minimum Size of Commercial Paper is

a. Rs 5 lacs b. Rs 10 lacs c. Rs 15 lacs d. Rs 20 lacs
100. External Commercial Rating ECR is required for the exposure of

a. above Rs.5 crore b. above Rs.10 crore
c above Rs.15 crore d. above Rs.20 crore

ANSWERS (ADVANCES-SYSETMS & PROCEDURES)
1. b 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. d 9. c 10. a
11. b 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. c
21. a 22. b 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. b 27. d 28. b 29. a 30. a
31. c 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. c
41. c 42. d 43. a 44.b 45. c 46. c 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. c
51. d 52.a 53.c 54.d 55.d 56.d 57. d 58. b 59. d 60. d
61. c 62. d 63. d 64. c 65. b 66. b 67. d 68. b 69.a 70. c
71. b 72. b 73. a 74. a 75. b 76. d 77. d 78. a 79. b 80. a
81. b 82. c 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. b 88. d 89. b 90. a
91. b 92. d 93. b 94. c 95. a 96. d 97. d 98. b 99. a 100.b

ADVANCES
HOUSING LOAN -REH
ADVANCES (HOUSING LOAN-REH)
1.What is the minimum age required for the applicant to avail Home Loan under SBI Home Loan
Scheme?
2. What is the maximum age limit to liquidate the loan under SBI Home Loan Scheme?
3. What is maximum period allowed for repayment of SBI Home Loan Scheme?
a. 30 years b. 30 years or 70 years whichever is earlier
c. 35 years d. None of the above
4. Who can join as Co borrower(s) along with applicant under SBI Home Loan Scheme?
a. Parents b. Spouse
c. Children/ Siblings d. All the above
5. How many co borrowers can be allowed along with applicant under SBI Home Loan scheme?
a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 5
6. If the number of co-borrowers in a home loan is more than three, the following authority can give
relaxation provided the repayment should be made through joint account of all the borrower/co-
borrowers.
a. AGM (Branch) b. AGM (Region)
c. DBM (B&O) d. Either (a) or (b)

7. How many IT returns should be obtained for sanction of Home loans?
a. Last Two years IT returns for salaried persons
b. Last Three years IT returns for non-salaried persons
b. Last Two years IT returns for both salaried and non-salaried persons
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
8. What is the Loan to Value (LTV) ratio for Home Loan amount up to Rs.30.00 Lakhs?
a. 75% b. 80% c. 85% d. 90%
9. What is the Loan to Value (LTV) ratio for Home Loan amount above Rs.30.00 Lakhs and up to Rs.75
Lakhs?
a. 75% b. 80% c. 85% d. 90%
10. What is the Loan to Value (LTV) ratio for Home Loan amount above Rs.75.00 Lakhs?
a. 75% b. 80% c. 85% d. 90%
11. Stamp Duty, Registration Charges and Documentation Charges can be considered for calculation
LTV Ratio in Home Loan amount up to Rs._____?
a. Rs. 5.00 Lakhs b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.15.00 Lakhs d. Rs.20.00 Lakhs
12. What is the Maximum amount sanctioned under SBI Home Loan Scheme to applicants?
a. Permissible EMI/NMI ratio
b. Maximum permissible LTV ratio
c. Applied Loan amount
d. Lower of a,b,c

13. What is the EMI/NMI ratio for Net annual of Income > Rs.3.00 Lakhs & =< Rs.5.00 Lakhs?
a. 20% b. 30%
c. 55% d. 60%
a. 20% b. 30%
c. 55% d. 60%
a. 55% b. 60%
c. 65% d. 70%
16. What is the EMI/NMI ratio for Net annual of Income > Rs.10.00 Lakhs?
a. 55% b. 60%
c. 65% d. 70%
17. What is the EMI/NMI ratio for Net annual of Income > Rs.10.00 Lakhs and CIBIL Score above 750
a. 60% b. 65%
c. 70% d.75%
18. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed in home loans excluding Mega/ Integrated
township projects?
19. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed in home loans up to 7 floors?
20. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed in home loans above 7 floors but to up 14 floors?
21. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed in home loans above 14 floors but to up to 21
floors?
22. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed in home loans above 21 floors?
23. What is the validity period of Sanctioned Home Loan?

a. 3 months from date of sanction b. 4 months from date of sanction
c. 6 months from date of sanction d. 9 months from date of sanction
24. Home loan may be sanctioned for reimbursement of investment made by the borrower in house
constructed/purchased during the preceding _______ months?
25. At what places a borrower can avail home loan?

a) At the Place of construction
b) At the place of employment
c) At the place of his residence
d) Any of the above
26. Under which of the following cases two TIR (Title Investigation Report) required
a. Power of Attorney (POA) Sales b. Gift Deed
c. Third Party Property d. All of the above

27. Title Investigation Report (TVSR) of the property is required for a period of ________ years is
required, irrespective of the fact that clear and marketable title is established for Home Loan amount
above Rs.1.00 Cr
28. Title Investigation Report (Search Report) of the property is required for a period of __ years is
required, if it establishes clear and marketable title for Home Loan amount above Rs.1.00 Cr
29. Title Investigation Report (Search Report) of the property is required for a period of ___ years is
required, for Home Loans sanctioned under Builder Tie-Ups?
30. Norms regarding obtention of certified copies of Title Deeds directly from the office of the Sub-
registrar by the empaneled advocate is waived for Home Loans upto …...
a. Rs.20 lakhs b. Rs. 50 Lacs
c.Rs.75 lacs d.Rs.1 cr
31. Three type of lending decisions have been devised in Risk Scoring Model under Home Loan
scheme; they are……
a. Clear sanction, Indeterminate category, Decline
b. Clear sanction, Indeterminate category, Refer
c. Clear sanction, Indeterminate category, Reject
d. Clear sanction, Refer, Decline
32. Bank has entered tie-up arrangement with which of the following entities as our Corporate Agent
for marketing of Home Loans
a. SBICAP Securities Ltd. (SSL) b. SBI DFHI Ltd
c. SBI Infra Management Solution Pvt. Ltd d. SBI Funds Management Pvt. Ltd

33. What is the maximum amount permitted for furnishings/interior work to the cost of house/flat?
a. 150% of the cost of house/flat
b. Rs.50 Lakhs
c. Lower of a and b
d. Not permitted
34. Maximum Home Loan for Repairs of a dwelling unit per family at Metro centers with population
above 10 Lacs that comes under priority sector is
a. Rs.5.00 lakhs b. Rs. 3.00 lakhs
c. Rs.8.00 lakhs d. Rs.10.00 lakhs
35. Maximum Home Loan considered for Repairs to damaged dwelling units per family at Rural & Semi-
urban areas that comes under priority sector is…………………..
a. Rs.3.00 lakhs b. Rs. 2.00 lakhs
c. Rs.5.00 lakhs d. Rs.6.00 lakhs
36. While processing high value Home Loan proposals i.e. Home Loans of ………, two Valuation
Reports from different empaneled Valuers of the Bank should be obtained.
a. Rs.100.00 lakhs & above b. Rs.50.00 Lakhs & above
c. Rs.75.00 lakhs & above d. Rs.25.00 lakhs & above
37. Maximum loan for repairs/renovations normally does not exceed

a. Rs.5.00 lakhs b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.20.00 Lakhs d. No such limit and as per the normal eligibility under Home Loan scheme

38. If an individual owns two singly or jointly, then the exposure for the third house onwards or purchase
of flat/residential plot will be treated under ……
a. CRE Home Loan b. SME Home Loan
c. C&I Home Loan d. Business Home Loan
39. Under Home loan Commercial Real Estate (CRE) maximum loan tenor will be ………………….
a.10 yrs b.15 yrs c.20 yrs d.25 Years
40.Minimum Loan amount in case of NRI Home Loan borrowers

a. Rs.3.00 Lakhs b. Rs.5.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.10.00 Lakhs d. No such stipulation
41. What is the LTV ratio for Loan amount above Rs.75 Lakhs under NRI Home Loan to Salaried
Customers?
a. 90% b. 80%
c. 75% d. 70%
42. What is the LTV ratio for Loan amount up to Rs.75 Lakhs under NRI Home Loan to Non- Salaried
Customers?
a. 90% b. 80%
c. 75% d. 70%
43. NRI customers may avail Home Loans from which of the following centers?
a. At the place of the proposed property/construction
b. At a centre where NRI customers is already having ongoing relationship with the branch
c. At the place of residence of India based Power of Attorney Holder or co-borrower/guarantors
d. Any of the above centers

44 Minimum Loan amount in case of SBI Realty Loan
a.Rs.3.00 Lakhs b. Rs.5.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.10.00 Lakhs d. No such stipulation
45. SBI Realty is sanctioned for the purpose of ……….

a. Purchase of Plots located outside municipal/corporation area will be permitted only in cases where
the plots are allotted/developed by Government Bodies/ Development Authorities such as DDA, HUDA,
BDA, LDA, etc
a. Purchase of Residential plot located within the municipal/ corporation area of Urban/Metro centres
with population of 1 lakh and above for construction of house.
c. For construction of house
d. Both a and b
46. SBI Reality can be sanctioned as

a. Term Loan Only b. Overdraft Only
c. TL and OD d TL/DL and OD
47. What is minimum and maximum loan amount sanctioned under SBI Realty loan?
a. Min- Rs.1.00 lakh & Max- Rs.100.00 lakhs
b. Min- Rs.5.00 lakh & Max- Rs.5 crores
c. Min- Rs.10.00 lakh & Max- Rs.10 crores
d. Min- Rs.5. lakh & Max- Rs,15 crores
48. What is maximum time stipulated for construction of house under SBI Realty Scheme?
a. 2 years from the date of first disbursement of the Loan
b. 3 years from the date of first disbursement of the Loan
c. 4 years from the date of first disbursement of the Loan
d. 5 years from the date of first disbursement of the Loan

49. How much moratorium period is allowed under SBI Realty Loan?
c. 18 months d. No moratorium period allowed
50. Maximum Loan Tenor for SBI Realty Loan

a. 60 Months b. 90 Months
c. 120 Months d. 180 Months
51. Maximum LTV Ratio in SBI Realty loan scheme

a. 50 % b. 60% c. 75% d. 90%
52. How many Title Search Reports should be required for loan above Rs.50.00 lakhs under SBI Realty
Loan scheme?
a. Only One
b. Two
c. Two before sanction of loan
d. Two i.e one before the loan is sanctioned and another before disbursement of the loan
53. What is maximum time stipulated for construction of house under SBI Realty Scheme?
a. 2 years from the date of first disbursement of the Loan
b. 3 years from the date of first disbursement of the Loan
c. 4 years from the date of first disbursement of the Loan
d. 5 years from the date of first disbursement of the Loan
54. Under which home loan variant, the borrower to avail Home Loan in the form of Overdraft facility
(reduced balancing method)?
a. SBI Real gain b. SBI Maxgain
c. SBI Home gain d. SBI Yuva gain

55. What is the minimum balance to be maintained in SB/CA to avail SBI Maxgain Loan?
a. Rs.2000/- b. Rs.3000/-
c. Rs.5000/- d. Rs.10000/-
56. What is minimum and maximum loan amount sanctioned under SBI Realty loan?
a. Min- Rs.10.00 lakh & Max- Rs.1 crore
c. Min- Rs.20.00 lakh & Max- Rs.3 crores
d. Min- Rs. 20.00 lakh & Max- Rs.10 crores
57. What are eligibility norms for Home Loan borrowers of category-01 to avail Home top up Loan?
a. All new Home Loan customers & existing Home Loan customers having less than 12 months
satisfactory repayment track record
b. Home Loan limit is more than Rs. 30 lacs
c. Market value of the property should be more than 10% of Sale agreement value at the time of Home
loan sanctioned
d. Possession of the property has either already been taken and mortgage on the property has been
created
e. All the above are correct
58. What are eligibility norms for Home Loan borrowers of category-02 to avail Home top up Loan?
a. All existing Home Loan customers with a satisfactory repayment record of at least one year.
b. possession of the house has been taken by the customer
c. valid mortgage has been created in favour of the Bank
d. All the statements are correct

59. Under category-2 of Home Top Up Loan the Minimum Home loan Limit availed should be
a More than Rs 20 lacs
b More than Rs 10 lacs
c. More than Rs 30 lacs
d) None
60. What is the minimum & maximum loan available under SBI Home Top-Up Loans for category-1
customers?
c. Min- Rs.2.00 lakh & Max- Rs.50.00 lakhs
d. Min- Rs. 5.00 lakh & Max- Rs.50.00 lakhs
61. What is the minimum & maximum loan available under SBI Home Top-Up Loans for category-2
customers?
c. Min- Rs.2.00 lakh & No Maximum
62. Extension of Mortgage need not be extended for Home Top up loan if the top up loan is
a. upto Rs 5 lacs b. upto Rs 10 lacs
c. upto Rs 20 lacs d. None

63. What is the maximum repayment period allowed under SBI Home Top Up Loan?
a. Residual tenure of Home Loan or 15 years whichever is lower
b. Residual tenure of Home Loan or 15 years whichever is higher
c. Residual tenure of Home Loan or 15 years whichever is higher subject to liquidation of loan before
borrower attains 70 years
d. Residual tenure of Home Loan or 15 years whichever is lower subject to liquidation of loan before
borrower attains 70 years
64. A borrower can avail how many loans at any point of time under SBI Home Top-up facility?
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. No such restriction
65. The Eligibility Criteria to avail Insta Home Top Up is….

a. Minimum HL Limit Rs.20.00 lacs with INB facility
b. Minimum residual tenure of Home Loan of 5 years & maintaining SB Ac linked with HL CIF
c. Satisfactory track record of 3 years or more & should not have any Home Top Up
d. No instance of HL ac slipping to RG-3 or further in the past & CIBIL score of 700 or higher
e. All are correct
66. What is the validity period of offer under Insta Home Top Up Loan?
a. 60 days from the date of activation
b. 30 days from the date of activation
c. 45 days from the date of activation
d. 90 days from the date of activation

67. Minimum and Maximum Loan amount under SBI Insta Home Top Up is…
a. 5% of Home Loan Limit, Min Rs.1.00 Lakh & Max. Rs.5.00 Lakhs
b. 10% of Home Loan Limit, Min Rs.1.00 Lakh & Max. Rs.5.00 Lakhs
c. 5% of Home Loan Limit, Min Rs.3.00 Lakh & Max. Rs.10.00 Lakhs
d. 10% of Home Loan Limit, Min Rs.3.00 Lakh & Max. Rs.5.00 Lakhs
68. What is the repayment period under Insta Home Top Up Loan?
a. 60 months, if residual maturity of underlying home loan above 60 months and up to 120 months
b. 120 months, if residual maturity of underlying home loan above 120 months
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. 5 years irrespective of underlying home loan residual maturity
69. How many Insta Home Top up loans can be availed by the home loan borrowers?
a. Only one at any point of time
b. Two Loans at any point of time
c. Second Loan can be availed one year from the opening of previous Insta home top up which may be
continued
d. All the above statements are correct
70. What is the eligibility Criteria to avail SBI Smart Home Top Up Loan….
a. Minimum Home Loan Limit of Rs. 20 lacs & Minimum residual tenure of Home Loan of 5 years
b. Satisfactory repayment and conduct for one year or more, after completion of moratorium period
c. The customer should not have any live Home Top-up or Insta Home Top-up loan & Valid equitable
mortgage should have been created in favour of Bank
d. No instance of the Home Loan account slipped to SMA (RG2) during last three months or further in
the past
e. All of the above

71. Name of the Home Loan variant offered to customer for submitting Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)
to Government agencies like MADA, HUDA, Housing Boards, Urban Development Authorities to get
allotment of house/plot?
a. Earnest Home Loan
b. Earnest Home Plus
c. Earnest Money Deposit Scheme
d. Earnest Money Dividend Scheme
72. How much loan amount can be sanctioned under Earnest Money Deposit scheme?
a. 75% of application money b. 80% of application money
c. 90% of application money d. 100% of application money
73. What is the maximum loan sanctioned under Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) Scheme?
a. Rs.15.00 Lakhs for CSP customers
b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs for others
c. Both a and b above
d. Rs.20.00 Lakhs
74. The type of facility offered under Earnest Money Deposit Scheme is
a. Term Loan b. Demand Loan
c. Overdraft d. Cash Credit
75. As per the guidelines of Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA) has launched
Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS)‘ for urban area beneficiaries in EWS/LIG category and new
CLSS (MIG I & MIG II) to acquire/construct a house or repair/extension of Kucha/Semi Pucca house is
called…….
a. Pradhan Mantri Home Yojana b. Pradhan Mantri Housing Yojana
c. Pradhan Mantri Gruh Kalyan Yojana d. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana

76. PMAY scheme is coming under the purview of which Dept.
a. Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
b. Ministry of Urban Development
c. Ministry of Finance
d. Ministry of Rural Development
77. Credit linked Interest subsidy available under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) for a tenor of
a. 15 years or actual tenor of loan whichever is lower
b. 20 years or actual tenor of loan whichever is lower
c. 25 years or actual tenor of loan whichever is lower
d. 30 years or actual tenor of loan whichever is lower
78. Home Loan product introduced for financing companies (Where the borrower is a company) for
acquiring residential units is called……
a. SBI Commercial Home Loan b. SBI Business Home Loan
c. SBI Company ‘s Home Loan d. SBI Corporate Home Loan
79. What is the minimum Loan under SBI Corporate Home Loan?
a. Rs.10.00 lakhs b. Rs.50.00 lakhs
c. Rs.1.00 crore d. Rs.2.00 crores
80. What is the LTV ratio under SBI Corporate Home Loan?
a. 60% b. 75%
c. 80% d. 90%
81. Under which segment SBI Corporate Home Loans covered?

a. SME segment b. C&I segment
c. PER segment d. Bother (a) & (b)
82. The facility of loan offered under P-LAP (Personal Loan against Property) is
a. Term Loan only b. Overdraft
c. Either a or b d. Demand Loan
83. Which of the following purposes P-LAP (Personal Loan against Property) loan not considered?
a. Expenditure on education b. Marriage
c. Healthcare d. Business Purposes
84. What is the maximum loan amount under P-LAP (Personal Loan against Property)
a. Rs.1.00 Cr at Non-BPR urban centres
b. Rs.2.00 Crs at other BPR centres
c. Rs.7.50 Crs within the Municipal Corporation areas of NCR, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Ahmedabad,
Bangalore and Hyderabad centres
d. All the above are correct
85. What is the minimum loan amount under P-LAP (Personal Loan against Property)
86. What is the income criteria under P-LAP (Personal Loan against Property)
a. NMI of Rs.15,000 or NAI of Rs.1.00 Lakhs
b. NMI of Rs.20,000 or NAI of Rs.2.40 Lakhs
c. NMI of Rs.25,000 or NAI of Rs.3.00 Lakhs

87. LTV Ratio prescribed under P-LAP
a. Up to Rs. 1 crore 65%
b. Above Rs. 1 crore 60%
c. Both of a and b above are correct
d. At par 60%
88. SBI Shaurya Home Loan offered to….

a. Defense Personnel belong to Army/Navy/Airforce
b. All CRPF
c. All BSF
d. Only Military All the above
89. SBI Privilege Home Loan is available for

a) Govt, public sector employees with pensionable service
b) Defense personnel
c) All salaried employees
d) None
90. The Minimum and Maximum Loans under SBI Privilege & SBI Shaurya Home Loans are……
a. Rs.5.00 Lakhs & Rs.25.00 Crs
b. Rs.10.00 Lakhs & Rs.25.00 Crs
c. Rs. 5.00 Lakhs & Rs.50.00 Crs
d. Rs.10.00 Lakhs & Rs.50.00 Crs

91. What is the maximum repayment period under SBI Privilege & SBI Shaurya Home Loan products?
a. 25 years or 70 years of age whichever is earlier
b. 30 years or 70 years of age whichever is earlier
b. 30 years or 75 years of age whichever is earlier
d. 25 years or 75 years of age whichever is earlier
92. Can SBI Privilege Home Loan and SBI Shaurya Home Loans avail with NRI as co applicant?
a. Yes b. No
c. Yes subject to NRI as guarantor d. There is no such instruction
93. Under SBI Reverse Mortgage Loan‖ the age of the first borrower should be……
a.60 Yrs b. Above 60 Yrs
c. Less than 60 Yrs d. Less than 58 Yrs
94. What is the minimum & maximum loan available under SBI Reverse Mortgage Scheme for Senior
Citizens?
c. Min- Rs.3.00 lakh & max- Rs.1.50 crore
95. What should be the minimum residual life of property in SBI Reverse Mortgage Scheme?

96. Under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the loan amount can be disbursed as lump sum amount to
___ % of the limit
a. 25% b. 40%
c. 50% d. 60%
97. In the case of the death of the borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the outstanding
will be liquidated by….
a. Becomes/Declared as Banks property
b. Selling of the House
b. Legal heirs can settle the loan
d. Both (b) or (c)
98. In case of the death of the borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the legal heirs will be
allowed to repay the loan within a period of
c. 6 months d. None of the above
99. The minimum Limit should Sanctioned under SBI PAL (Pre-Approved Limit) ….
100. The Validity period of SBI PAL (Pre-Approved Limit) is ….

a. 1-month b. 2 months

101. Which new Home Loan product has recently been introduced for wealth management customer?
a. SBI Wealth Home Loan
b. SBI High Net worth Home Loan
c. SBI Exclusif Home Loan
d. SBI Naya Wealth Home Loan
102. Which Home Loan product offered to Salaried employees having age of 21 years and above but
below 45 years is called …….
a. SBI Yuva Loan b. SBI Easy Loan
c. SBI Young Home Loan b. SBI Flexipay Home Loan
103. What is the minimum Loan amount sanctioned under SBI Flexipay Home Loan?
c. Rs.20.00 Lakhs d. None of the above
104. How much loan that a home loan borrower gets under Flexipay Home Loan?
a. 1.2 times the loan quantum calculated as per normal EMI/NMI ratio method
b. Eligibility is same as Normal Home Loan
c. 1.2 times the loan quantum calculated as per normal EMI/NMI ratio method
d. 1.5 times the loan quantum calculated as per normal EMI/NMI ratio method
e. None of the above
105. What is the minimum and maximum loan tenor of SBI Flexipay Home Loan?
a. Min-10 years & Max-30 years b. Min-15 years & Max-30 years
c. Min-20 years & Max-30 years d. Min-25 years & Max-30 years

106. Bank has launched a New Home Loan product to meet shortfall in funds for purchase a new
home/flat is….
a. SBI Help Home Loan b. SBI GAP Home Loan
c. SBI Bridge Home Loan d. SBI Hope Home Loan
107 . What is the minimum and maximum loan under SBI Bridge Home Loan?
a. Rs.10.00 lakhs & Rs.1 Crore b. Rs.15.00 lakhs & Rs.1 Crore
c. Rs.20.00 lakhs & Rs.1 Crore d. Rs.20.00 lakhs & Rs.2 Crores
108. What is the maximum repayment period allowed under Bridge Home Loan
109. What the periodicity for registration of property in CERSAI (Central Electronic Registry) after
creation of mortgage?
c. 21 days d. 30 days
110. CERSAI has been established as a company under

a. Section 20(1) of the SARFAESI Act
b. Section 201 of BR Act
c. Section 20(1) of Companies Act
d. Section 201 of Companies Act

ANSWERS (Home Loans REH)
1. a 2.c 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. a
11. b 12. d 13. c 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. b
21. c 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. d 27. d 28. d 29. d 30. d
31. a 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. a
41. b 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. d 49. d 50. c
51. b 52. d 53.d 54. b 55. c 56. c 57. e 58. d 59. c 60. c
61. c 62. a 63. c 64. b 65. e 66. b 67. a 68. c 69. a 70. e
71. c 72. d 73. c 74. b 75. d 76. a 77. d 78. d 79. b 80. b
81. d 82. a 83. d 84. d 85. a 86. c 87. c 88. a 89. a 90. d
91. b 92. b 93. b 94. c 95. c 96. c 97. d 98. c 99. a 100. c
101.c 102.b 103.c 104.c 105.d 106.c 107.d 108.a 109.d 110. a

ADVANCES P-SEGMENT
OTHER THAN REH
ADVANCES(P-SEGMENT)
1. What is the minimum and maximum age required for availing SBI Car Loan?
a. 18-60 years b. 21-60 years c. 21-67 years d. 21-70 years
2. Car loan must be fully repaid before the borrower attains the age of:
a. 60 years. b 65 years c. 70 years d. 75 years
3. Minimum Net Annual Income required for salaried applicant for availing SBI car loan?
a 120000/- b. 200000/- c. 250000/- d. 300000/-
4. Minimum Net Annual Income required for Professionals, self-employed, businessmen, Net Profit/
Gross Taxable Income per annum as per I T Return should be _____
a. 1,00,000/- b. 2,00,000/- c. 3,00,000/- d. 4,00,000/-
5.The minimum Net Annual Income of Agriculturists applicant and/or co-applicant if any, together for
car loan should be
a. 1,00,000/- b. 2,00,000/- c. 3,00,000/- d. 4,00,000/-
6. The Net Annual Income of an agriculturist car loan applicant will be arrived at based on ---
a. Nature of activity b. Land holding & cropping pattern
c. Yield d. All the above
7. The maximum amount that can be granted to a salaried person is restricted to ------- times of Net
Monthly Income under our SBI car loan
a. 24 b. 30 c. 36 d. 48

8. The maximum car loan amount that can be sanctioned to Self Employed, Professionals and
businessmen etc, is restricted to --------- times of Net Annual Income/Net Profit/Gross Taxable Income
a. 2 b. 2.50 c. 3 d. 4
9. The maximum car loan amount that can be sanctioned to agriculturists is restricted to ___ times of
Net Annual Income
a. 2 times NAI b. 4 times of NAI c. 2.5 times NAI d. 3 times of NAI
10. To avail a car loan applicant having a Net Annual Income up to Rs.5 lacs, then EMI/NMI ratio should
not exceed_______
a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 75%
11.To avail a car loan applicant having a Net Annual Income above Rs.5 lacs and up to Rs.10 lacs,
then EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______
a. 55% b. 60% c. 65% d. 70%
12. To avail a car loan applicant having a Net Annual Income above Rs.10 lacs, then EMI/NMI ratio
should not exceed_______
a. 50% b. 60% c. 65% d. 70%
13. The margin for a car loan on On road Price of the vehicle would be _____ other than CSP customers
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 25%
14. The margin for a car loan on ― On road Price of the vehicle for salary package customers would
be _____
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 25%

15. What is the minimum and maximum loan amount in our SBI car loan?
a. Min- No limit; Max-No limit
b) Min-Rs.1.00 lakh; Max- 85% or 90% (for CSP accounts) of on-road price, subject to 100% ex-
showroom price of the vehicle.
c. Min-No ceiling; Max-80% or 90% (for CSP accounts) of on-road price, subject to 100% ex-showroom
price of the vehicle.
d. Min-No ceiling; Max-on road price of the vehicle.
e. Both b and c above
16. What is the minimum and maximum repayment period allowed for a car loan?
a. 3 years & 7 years b. 5 years & 8 years
c. 2 years & 7 years d. 3 years & 8 years
17. Under Car Loan reimbursement will be made for the cars purchased out of own funds, but not more
than………. old.
c. 12 months d. Reimbursement is not permitted
18. As per bank guidelines the registration of vehicle should completed within how many days from the
date of disbursement.
19. What is the Penalty for Non-Registration /Non-Hypothecation of Vehicle - If the borrower fails to get
the vehicle registered, with hypothecation charge in favour of the Bank, within 120 days?
a. Rs.500+GST b. Rs.1000+GST
c. Rs.5000+GST d. Rs.2500+GST

20. Which mode of disbursement is correct in case of car loans?
a. Through RTGS/NEFT if dealer maintain their account with other banks.
b. Direct credit into dealer ‘s account if dealer maintains their account with us
c. Disbursement through Draft/Bankers Cheque
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
21. How many co-applicants can be considered along with applicant in case of car loan?
a. Only 1 b. 2 only c. Maximum 3 d. Maximum 4
22. What is the amount for which accessories can be included in the project cost of Car Loan
a. 5% of the ex-show room price b. Rs.50000/-
c. Lower of a or b d. Only a
23. Minimum CIBIL score required for Business, Professional & Self-employed category for availing
Car Loan?
a. 600 b. 650 c. 700 d. 750
24. What is the Car loan ceiling, where operating units have to obtain Credit Information Reports from
two Credit Information Companies for the Car Loan.
a. Limit above Rs.3.00 Lakhs b. Limit above Rs.4.00 Lakhs
c. Limit above Rs.5.00 Lakhs d. No such instructions

25. Which of the following entities has been appointed as our Corporate Agent for marketing of our
Auto Loans and related products?
a. SBI Securities Ltd (SBISL) b. SBI Funds Management Ltd (SBIFML)
c. SBI Global Factors Ltd (SBIGFL) d. SBI CAP Securities Ltd (SSL)
26. Which of the secondary CIC report to be verified in case of above R.5.00 lakhs Car Loans
a. CIBIL (Primary) b. Experian
c. CRIF d. Equifax
27. Migration of the auto loan documents to respective BPR Centres RACPCs/RASMECCs to be
affected within _________ from the date of disbursement for effective monitoring.
28. EMI of the Car Loan may be reduced on request of customer one time in its tenure, if the account
is a Standard Asset and the loan outstanding is at least…..and the interest rate reduction is of 1% or
more.
a. Rs. 2.00 Lacs b. Rs. 3.00 Lacs c. Rs. 4.00 Lacs d. Rs. 5.00 Lacs
29. RTO Forms used for registration of Motor Vehicle is
a. Form 20 b. Form 29
c. Form 34 d. Form 30
30. RTO Forms used for Termination of hypothecation agreement
a. Form 20 b. Form 29
c. Form 34 d. Form 35

31. Maximum TAT Turn Around Time prescribed in Auto Loans sanctioning.
a. 1 Day b. 2 Days c. 5 Days d. 15 Days
32. The periodicity of verifying registration details of a vehicle/car in Vahan.co.in website within in
a. 30 days from disbursement
b. re- check the hypothecation details every time when account slips to NPA
c. 60 days from disbursement
d. Both (a) & (b)
33. What is the minimum NMI/NAI of the guarantor under NRI car loan scheme?
a. $ 500 NMI or $ 5000 NAI b. $ 1000 NMI or $ 12000 NAI
c. $ 1200 NMI or $12000 NAI d. $1500 NMI or 18000 NAI
34. How the eligible Loan amount is calculated under NRI car loan?
a. 6 times NMI or 0.5 times NAI b. 12 times NMI OR 1 time NAI
c. 18 times NMI or 1.5 times NAI d. 24 times NMI or 2 times NAI
35. Loyalty car loan is applicable to home loan borrowers who regularly have repayment history after
moratorium
a. 1 year b. 5 years c. 2 years d. 3 years
36. How much loan amount will be sanctioned under Loyalty car Loan scheme?
a. 100% of ex showroom price b. 100% of on road price
c. 85% of ex showroom price d. 85% of on road price

37.Extension of EM not required for loans upto Rs. _____ under Loyalty Car Loan Scheme
a. Rs.10 lacs b. Rs.3 lacs c. Rs.5 lacs d. Rs.7 lacs
38. Minimum and Maximum age required to borrowers under the SBI Assured Car Loan Scheme
a. Min-18 years Max-65 years b. Min-18 years Max-67 years
c. Min-18 years Max-No limit d. Min-18 years Max-70 years
39. Minimum and Maximum amount of loan under the SBI Assured Car Loan Scheme
a. Min-2.00 lacs Max-10.00 lacs b. Min-1.00 Lac Max-25.00 lacs
c. Min-2.00 lacs Max-No limit (100% Fixed Deposit) d. No Min & No Max
40. In which of the Car loan variant proof of IT return is not required
a. SBI Loyalty Car Loan b. SBI Lite Car Loan Scheme
c. SBI Assured Car Loan Scheme d. SBI Car Loan Scheme
41. What is the maximum loan sanctioned under the SBI Lite Car Loan scheme
a. Rs.4.00 lacs b. Rs.5.00 lacs c. Rs.10.00 lacs d. Rs.3.00 lacs
42. What will be the tenor of the loan offered under the SBI Lite Car Loan scheme
a. Max-3 years b. Max-5 years
c. Max-7 years d. No Maximum

43. What will be the condition regarding margin payment under the SBI Lite Car Loan scheme
a. Min 10% margin should be deposited in the account
b. Min 15% margin should be deposited in the account
c. Min 20% margin should be deposited in the account
d. Min 25% margin should be deposited in the account
44. How should the Pre-sanction survey be conducted under the SBI Lite Car Loan scheme?
a. Pre-sanction Survey of Residence conducted by Bank Official
b. Pre-sanction Survey of Workplace to be conducted by Bank Official
c. Pre-sanction Survey of Residence and Workplace to be conducted by Bank Official
d. Pre sanction inspection waived
45. What is the minimum and maximum loan amount in a certified pre-owned car loan scheme?
a. Min- No limit; Max-No limit b. Min-3 lakhs; Max-10 lakhs
c. Min-1 lakh; Max-5 lakhs d. Min-5 lakhs; Max- 15 lakhs
46. LTV Ratio stipulated in in a certified pre-owned car loan scheme
a. 75% b. 60% c. 80% d. 100%
47. The Minimum and Maximum Loan Amount under Two-Wheeler Loan Scheme…
a. Min Rs. 10,000/-, Max : 2 lakhs b. Min Rs. 25,000/-, Max : 2.50 lakhs
c. Min Rs.30000/-; Max-3 lakhs d. sMin-Rs.50000/-; Maxx-5 lakhs
48. How much Minimum loan amount considered in Super bike two-wheeler Scheme
a. Rs.1 lakh b. Rs. 2 lakh c. Rs.2.50 lakh d. Rs.3 lakh

49. How much maximum repayment is allowed under Super Bike Loan Scheme?
a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 6 years d. s 7 years
50. Our Educational loans cannot be sanctioned for pursuing
a. Pilot training courses India b. Diploma Courses in India
b. Distance Education courses d. Nursing Courses in India
51. Which of these education loan variants offers maximum loan amount
a. SBI Student loan b. SBI Scholar loan
c. SBI Global Ed-vantage loan d. SBI Skill Loan
52. What is the maximum loan eligibility under Educational loan scheme?
a. Rs.10 lacs for studies in India; Rs.20 lacs for studies abroad& Rs.30 lakhs for Medical courses in
India
b. Rs.15 lacs for studies in India & Rs.30 lacs for studies abroad & Rs.40 lakhs for Medical courses in
India
c. Rs.20 lacs for studies in India & Rs.40 lacs for studies abroad & Rs.50 lakhs for Medical courses in
India
53. What is the margin the borrower has to bring for Education loans of above Rs.4.00 lakhs?
a) Studies in India: 10% Studies abroad: 15%
b) Studies in India: 5% Studies abroad: 15%
c) Studies in India: 10% Studies abroad: 15%
d) None of the above

54. What is the total repayment term period under SBI student loan?
a. 7 years+ Course period
b. 15 years + Course period + 6 months job searching period
c. 15 years + 18 months moratorium
d. 12 years + Course Period
55. What is the security for loan above Rs. 7.5 lakhs under SBI student loan?
a. Tangible collateral security. b. Co-obligation of parents
c. TPG d. Both a) & b
56.Cost of a two-wheeler upto Rs. ____can be included in the expenses considered eligible for finance
where the loan amount is secured by a suitable third party guarantee and/or tangible collateral security.
a. 35,000/- b. 50,000/- a. 1,00,000/- d. None of the above
57. Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, maximum loan, for List AA, A, B and C category institutes are --
-Respectively.
a. Rs40lacs, Rs30lacs, Rs20 lacs and Rs.10 lacs
b. Rs 30 lacs, Rs20lacs, Rs 10 lacs and Rs.7.5 lacs
c. Rs25lacs, Rs20lacs, Rs 15lacs and Rs.10 lacs
d. Rs40lacs, Rs30lacs, Rs20 lacs and Rs.30 lacs
58. Maximum repayment period under SBI Scholar Loan?
a. Upto 10 years excluding moratorium b. Upto 15 years excluding moratorium
c. Upto 12 years excluding moratorium d. Upto 15 years including moratorium

59. Minimum & Maximum Loan under SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan….
a. Rs.10.00 Lakhs & Rs.1.00 Cr
b. Rs.20.00 Lakhs & Rs.1.00 Cr
c. Rs.20.00 Lakhs & Rs.1.50 Crs
d. Rs.7.50 Lakhs & Rs.1.50 Crs
60. What is the margin arrangement by borrower under SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan….
a. 5% in each disbursement
b. 10% in each disbursement
c. 15% in each disbursement
d. No Margin
61. What are the security stipulation in SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan….
a. Land /Building at 110% of loan limit
b. 100% of loan amount for liquid securities
c. Either of (a) or (b)
62. What is the maximum repayment period allowed under SBI Global Ed-vantage Loan….
a. 10 years excluding moratorium
b. 12 years excluding moratorium
c. 15 years excluding moratorium
d. 20 years including moratorium

63. Which of variants of education loan products is specially designed for pursuing skill development
courses?
a. SBI Vocational Education Scheme
b. SBI Skill Development & Training Scheme
c. SBI Skill Loan Scheme
d. No such scheme
64. Minimum and maximum ceiling of loan Under SBI SKILL Loan scheme
a. Min-Rs 1,00,000/- & Max-Rs.2,50,000
b. Min-Rs 25,000/- & Max-Rs.1,50,000
c. Min-Rs 5,000/- & Max-Rs.1,50,000
d. Min-Rs 50,000/- & Max- Rs.1,50,000
65. The margin to be contributed by borrower under SBI SKILL Loan scheme is
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. NIL
66. For upto what ceiling Credit Guarantee Scheme CGFSEL available in our Education loan schemes
a. Rs.4.00 lakhs b. Rs.7.50 lakhs c. Rs.10.00 lakhs d. Rs. 20.00 lakhs
67. The portal introduced by Government of India in Education Loan is
a. Vijaya laxmi portal
b. Vidya laxmi portal
c. Vijaya vahini portal
d. Vidya Saraswati portal

68. What is the education loan limit that can be classified as priority sector advance for studies abroad?
a. Rs.10.00 lakhs b. Rs.15.00 lakhs c. Rs.20.00 lakhs d. Rs.25.00 lakhs
69. Central Sector Subsidy Scheme of Govt. of India provides subsidy to be eligible from weaker
sections in their annual family income is as under
a. More than Rs.4.50 lakh
b. More than Rs.7.50 lakh
c. More than Rs.5.00 laks
d. All weaker section families eligible
70. Minimum NMI for sanction of Xpress Credit Loan?
a. Rs.7,000/- b. Rs.10,000/- c. Rs.12,500/- d. Rs.15,000/-
71. Minimum & Maximum loan under Xpress Credit through Term Loan facility
a. Rs.24,000/- & Rs.15 lacs b. Rs.25,000/- & Rs.15 lacs
c. Rs.25,000/- & Rs.20 lacs d. Rs.50,000/- & Rs.20 lacs
72. Minimum & Maximum loan under Xpress Credit through Overdraft facility
a. Rs.2 lacs & Rs.15 lacs b. Rs.5 lacs & Rs.15 lacs
c. Rs.5 lacs & Rs.20 lacs d. Rs.5 lacs & Rs.25 lacs
73. What is the maximum repayment period allowed under new Xpress Credit Loan scheme ….
a. 48 months b. 60 months c. 72 months d.84 months

74. What is the income range to get financial assistant under new Xpress Lite Scheme?
a. Rs.5000/- b. Rs.7,500/-
c. Rs.10,000/- d. Rs.7,000/- to Rs.14,999/-
75. Name the product of Xpress Credit Loan where maintaining salary account is not mandatory
a. Xpress loan under RMP b. Xpress Lite
c. Xpress Elite d. Xpress Power
76. Minimum & Maximum loan under Xpress Lite Scheme
a. Rs.24,000/- & Rs.1.50 lacs b. Rs.25,000/- & Rs.1.50 lacs
c. Rs.25,000/- & Rs.1.80 lacs d. Rs.50,000/- & Rs.2.00 lacs
77. What is the maximum repayment period allowed under Xpress Credit Lite scheme ….
c. 36 months d 48 months
78. What is the type of loan facility in Xpress Credit Lite Scheme
a. Term loan b. Overdraft
c. Demand loan d. Dropline overdraft
79. The minimum Nets Monthly Income (NMI) of the employee to avail Loan under Xpress Elite should
be….
a. Rs.50,000 b. Rs.60,000 c. Rs.75,000 d. Rs.1,00,000

80. What is the Minimum and Maximum Loan under Xpress Elite Product?
a. Rs.3.00 Lakhs & Rs.20.00 Lakhs
b. Rs.4.00 Lakhs & Rs.20.00 Lakhs
c. Rs.5.00 Lakhs & Rs.20.00 Lakhs
d. Rs.3.00 Lakhs & Rs.15.00 Lakhs
81. What is the EMI/NMI ratio under Xpress Elite loan scheme ?
a. 40 % b. 50 % c. 60 % d. 55 %
82. Sum of how many EMI is recovered upfront in loans under RMP product?
a. 2 EMIs b. 3 EMIs c. 4 EMIs d. 6 EMIs.
83. Which type of additional account is opened when loan is granted under RMP?
a. Debt Reserved DL b. Debt Reserved OD
c. Debt reserved C/A d. Debt Reserved SB A/C
84. As per the eligibility norms for loans to the employees of private school, the school must be how
many years old?
a. 5 years old b. 10 years old c. 15 years old d. 20 years old
85. As per the eligibility norms for loans to the employees of private school, the school must have
relation with SBI for how many years?

86. How many times of NMI (Maximum) considered for Loan under RMP ?
a. 12 times b. 18 times c. 24 times d. 30 times.
87. Two CIC reports are required if the loans under Xpress Credit is more than—lacs
a. Rs. 3.00 lacs b. Rs. 4.00 lacs c. Rs. 5.00 lacs d. Rs. 10.00 lacs
88. How many months’ salary credit from Bank account statement must be verified for Xpress credit
Loan
a. 2 months b.3 months c. 5 months d. 6 months
89. For availing Pension loan maximum age should not exceed both Pensioner & Family pensioner?
a. 70 years of age b. 72 years of age
c. 76 years of age d. None of these
90. Minimum loan amount under Pension loan for Pensioners & Family pensioners?
a. Rs.24,000/- b. Rs.25,000/- c. Rs.50,000/- d.Rs.1,00,000/-
91. What is the maximum loan amount under Pension loan scheme for pensioners?
a. 18 months Pension b. Maximum Rs.14 lacs
c. Both a and b of the above d. None of the above
92. What is the maximum loan amount under Pension loan scheme for Family pensioners?
a. 18 months Pension b. Maximum Rs.5 lacs
c. Both a and b of the above d) None of the above

93. What is the maximum age limit at the time of full repayment for Pensioners & Family pensioners?
a. 76 years b. 78 years c. 80 years d. None of the above
94. ___ % margin should be met by pensioner while availing a pension loan?
a. 15% b.10% c. 5% d. No margin
95. Maximum repayment period under Jai Jawan Pension Loan is?
96. What is the maximum EMI/NMP under Jai Jawan Pension Loan?
a. 40 % b. 50 % c. 33 % d. 60%
97. What is the LTV ratio prescribed for Gold Loans by RBI
a. 60% b. 70% c. 75% d. 90%
a. Precious Metals Department-CC Mumbai b. PBBU LHO
c. ABU Corporate Centre d. SBI Website
99. What is the maximum amount of loan under SBI Gold Scheme?
a. Rs. 10.00 lac b. Rs. 15.00 lac c. Rs. 20.00 lac d. Rs.25.00 lac
100. Minimum age limit for sanction of Personal Gold Loan?
a. 18 years & above b. 21 years & above
c. 25 years & above d. None of these

101. Maximum repayment period under Personal Gold Loan?
a. 36 months b. 12 months c. 30 months d. None of these
102. Margin under Personal Gold Loan Scheme?
a. 30% b. 65% c. 25% d. None of these
103 Margin under SBI Bullet Repayment Gold Loan Scheme?
a. 35% b. 65% c. 25% d. None of these
104. Maximum repayment period under SBI Bullet Repayment Gold Loan Scheme?
a. 12 months b. 24 months c. 30 months d. None of these
105. What is the minimum RSM score for gold loan sanction?
a. 30 & above b. 31 & above c. 32 & above d. 33 & above
106. Gold loan can be given for specially minted gold coin(s) sold by Bank. What is the maximum
permissible weight per customer?
a. 30 grams b. 40 grams c. 50 grams d. 60 grams
107. Which of the following is not a method of testing of gold ornaments purity?
a. Touch stone method b. Nitric acid test
c. Specific gravity test d. Sulfuric acid test.

108. Insurance of gold ornaments against which the Bank has sanctioned loan is to be arranged. The
insurance cost is borne by ______.
a. Borrower b. Bank
c. Borrower and Bank in 50- 50 ratio d. It is optional
109. Under which scheme of Gold loan, the limit is sanctioned by way of Overdraft limit with cheque
book facility?
a. SBI Personal Gold Loan
b. SBI Personal Liquid Gold Loan
c. SBI Gold Loan- Bullet repayment scheme
d. No such scheme is available
110.Which of the following is not the variant of our Reality Gold Loan?
a. SBI Reality Bullet Repayment Gold Loan
b. SBI Reality Liquid Gold Loan
c. SBI reality EMI Gold Loan
d. SBI Reality Gold Loan Lite
111. What is the minimum and maximum loan amount in the SBI Reality Gold Loan ?
a. Min: Rs.50000, Max: Rs.20 lacs b. Min: Rs.50000, Max: Rs.25 lacs
c. Min: Rs.100000, Max: Rs.25 lacs d. Min: 10000, Max: Rs.10.00 lacs
112.What is the minimum loan amount under the scheme of online loan against share?
a. Rs. 10000/- b. Rs. 20000/- c. Rs. 25000/- d. Rs. 50000/-

113. What are the other additional benefits if any available to borrower in our SBI Reality Gold Loan
products?
a. Nil Margins
b. No Minimum/Maximum CIBIL Score stipulation
c. Interest charged will be eligible for Tax benefits under section 24B & repayment under section 80C
of IT Act 1961
114. What proof to be taken and kept with record, if realty gold loan is sanctioned for the purpose of
margin money of housing loan?
a. Agreement to sale b. Home loan arrangement letter
c. Copy of TIR d. copy of Valuation report
115. What is the security for loan against Life Insurance Policy?
a. Sum assured of life Insurance Policy
b. Surrender value of Life Insurance Policy
c. Intrinsic value of Life insurance policy
d. Sum total of premium paid up to the date.
116. Charge created on Life Insurance Policy?
a. Hypothecation b. Pledge c. Assignment d. None of these
117.Which is the name of product launched recently for purchase of consumer durables by debit card
swapping?
a. Online EMI b. POS EMI
c. Debit card swapping EMI d. online purchase EMI

118. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned against security of shares is
a. Rs.5 lacs
b. 20 lacs in demat form and 10 lacs for physical shares
c. 50 lacs
d. No limit
119.What is the margin prescribed for advances against shares granted for the purpose of acquiring
new shares?
a. 50% b. 40% c. 33 1/3% d.75%
120. How much % of face value and accrued interests of an NSC can be sanctioned as loan
a. 50% b 60% c. 75% d. 85%

ANSWERS (P Segment)
1. c
11. b
2. c
12. c
3. d
13. c
4. c
14. b
5. d
15. e
6. d
16. a
7. d
17. d
8. d
18. c
9. d
19. d
10. a
20. d
21. a 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. b 27. b 28. d 29. a 30. d
31. b 32. d 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. c 40. b
41. a 42. b 43. d 44.c 45. b 46. c 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. c
51. c 52. a 53. b 54. c 55. d 56. b 57. d 58. b 59. d 60. b
61. c 62. c 63. c 64. d 65. d 66. b 67. a 68. a 69.a 70. d
71. c 72. c 73. c 74.d 75. c 76. c 77. c 78. c 79. d 80. a
81. c
91. c
82. b
92. c
83. c
93. b
84. c
94. d
85. c
95. c
86. c
96. b
87. b
97. c
88. d
98. a
89. c
99. c
90. b
100. b
101.a 102. c 103. a 104.a 105.b 106.c 107.d 108.b 109. b 110. d
111.a 112.c 113. b 114. b 115. b 116. c 117.b 118.b 119.a 120. b
ADVANCES-AGRICULTURE
AGRICULTURE
1. Target set by RBI to banks under Priority sector advances for Agri sector is:
(a) 15% of ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-balance sheet exposure, whichever is higher
(b) 18% of ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-balance sheet exposure, whichever is higher
(c) 18% of ANBC
(d) No such stipulation
2. If a domestic Banks does not achieve the target of 18% advances under Agriculture, the short fall
has to be invested in - fund managed by NABARD
a. RIDF b. DIRF
c. IRDF d. IDFR
3. Validity period of Revised KCC limit is
(a) 4 Years (b) 6 Years
(c) 2 Years (d) 5 Years
4. The limit to be increased by ----% for every successive year under Revised KCC is (2nd, 3rd, 4th
and 5th year)
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 15% (d) 25%
5. Under the Revised KCC Scheme, Maintenance expenses can be included in the overall limit to a
maximum extent of ----% of the original limit
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 15% (d) 25%

6. The scale of finance for crop loans is fixed by _________
(a) Concerned RBO (b) DLTC
(c) NABARD (d) DCC
7. If KCC loan is not repaid on due date, the interest rate will be charged/linked to_____
(a) One Year MCLR + Spread
(b) Two Year MCLR + Spread
(c) Either (a) or (b) whichever is less
(d) Will be change to 9% automatically
8. Even though KCC Limit is valid for 5 years ____
(a) Obtention of Revival Letter is not necessary as the limit is for 5 Yrs
(b) Branches to obtain Revival Letters on the 5 the year
(c) Branches to obtain Revival Letters before expiry of 3 years
(d) None of the above
9. For a KCC limit of Rs.3.00 lacs how many CIC reports are to be obtained?
(a) Only 1 report (b) 2 reports
(c) 1 internal report is required (d) CIC report is not required
10. What is the upper age criterion for sanctioning loans under Revised KCC Scheme
(a) 65 yrs (b) 70 yrs
(c) 72 yrs (d) No upper age restriction

11. Interest Subvention is available for the limits under Revised KCC is upto
(a) Rs.1.00 lacs (b) Rs.2.00 lacs
(c) Rs.3.00 lacs (d) No such Limit
12. Flexi KCC Limit is available for ___________
(a) Small Farmers (b) Larger Farmers
(c) Marginal Farmers (d) Medium Farmers
13. The minimum & maximum limit to be sanctioned under Flexi KCC Limit is ___________
(a) Rs.25,000/- to Rs.50,000 (b) Rs.10,000/- to Rs.25,000
(c) Rs.10,000/- to Rs.20,000 (d) Rs.10,000 /- to Rs.50,000
14. The Flexi Loan is repaid in_____
(a) 3 Yr. (b) 1 Yr
(c) 5 Yr. (d) As per Customer ‘s request
15. Kharif season is from___ to ____
a. April to September (b) January to June
(c) October to March (d) July to December
16 Rabi season is from ____to___
a. April to September (b) January to June
(c) October to March (d) July to December

17. Maximum limit under Revised KCC is ----- Lakhs
(a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 75 (d) No Limit
18. The applicant should be in the age group of _____ years for being eligible for PAIS
(a) 18-70 Years (b) 18-72 Years
(c) 21-75 Years (d) 21-65 Years
19. Under PAIS to KCC borrower what is the ratio of fee born by the Bank and Borrower
a.1:2 b. 2:1
c.3:1 d. 4:1
20. National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) Scheme renamed as
(a) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Urban Mission (DAY-NUM)
(b) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana- National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM)
(c) Deendayal Yojana - National Urban Mission (DY-NUM)
(d) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana- National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM)
21. Loan for Combine Harvester is available through
(a) Cash Credit (b) Demand Loan
(c) Agricultural Term Loan (d) Either (a) or (b)

22. Minimum acreage required to finance for Combine Harvester is:
(a) Min: 6 acres irrigated (dry land 10 acres)
(b) Min: 5 acres irrigated (dry land 10 acres)
(c) Min: 6 acres irrigated (dry land 15 acres)
(d) Min: 5 acres irrigated (dry land 15 acres)
23. What is the loan amount under Combine Harvester Scheme?
a Min: No Minimum; Max:Rs. 50.00 lacs
b Min: Rs.1.00 lac; Max:Rs. 20.00 lacs
c Min: Rs.10.00 lacs; Max:Rs. 20.00 lacs
d Min: No Minimum; Max:No Maximum
24. What is the margin prescribed under Combine Harvester Scheme?
a. 10% b 15%
c. 25% d 40%
25. Which of the following is true in respect of eligibility for sanction of Power Tiller Scheme
(a) Farmers or a group of not more than 3 farmers owning one acre of perennially
irrigated land or corresponding acreage of semi irrigated /dry land prescribed in the Land Ceiling Act
are
(b) Farmers owning lesser acreage than prescribed, also become eligible provided DSCR works out to
1.75 and above
c. Both are correct.

26. Collateral security to be obtained under Power Tiller Scheme is:
(a) Collateral security to be obtained for loans of above Rs.1 lac
(b) No Collateral security upto Rs.5 lac
(c) No Collateral security upto Rs.10 lac
(d) Obtention of Collateral security is waived
27 What is the repayment period for Power Tiller scheme
(a) Repayable in 5 Years in 10 half yearly installments including grace/gestation period
(b) Repayable in 5 Years in 10 half yearly installments excluding grace/gestation period
(c) Repayable in 8 Years in 16 half yearly installments including grace/gestation period
(d) Repayable in 8 Years in 16 half yearly installments excluding grace/gestation period
28. Cultivation of Poly house / Green house is:
(a) Where plants are cultivated in natural environment
(b) Where plants are cultivated in green environment
(c) Where plants are cultivated in controlled environment
29. Under Bank's new high-tech product 'Poly house/ Net house / Green house cultivation' the minimum
economic size of the unit should be _____ sq.m
(a) 500 (b) 800
(c) 1200 (d) 1000

30. Under Poly house/ Net house / Green house cultivation, the loan is to be repaid within a maximum
period of ___ months including start up period c
(a) 84 months (b) 60 months
(c) 72 months (d) 96 months
31. What is the Collateral security to be obtained under Poly house/ Net house / Green house cultivation
(a) E M of SARFAESI complaint immovable property within a radius of 25km of the branch for value
not less than 100% of the loan amount
(b) E M of any immovable property for value not less than 100% of the loan amount
(c) Either a or b
(d) No Collateral security is to be obtained
32. NHM refers to
a. National Horticulture Movement b. National Horticulture Management
c. National Housing Mission d. National Horticulture Mission
33. The Document AB 3 refers to what in agriculture advances?
(a) Hypothecation Agreement (b) Guarantee Agreement
(c) Simp Hypothecation Agreement (d) Mortgage Deed
34 Document to be obtained for conversion of Crop Loan to Term Loan
(a) AB-4 (b) AB-7
(c) AB-2 (d) AB-6

35. The Document AB 1 refers to what in agriculture advances?
(c) Simp Hypothecation Agreement (d) Mortgage Deed
36. The document AB 4 refers to what in agriculture advances
(c) Revival letter from Borrower d. Revival letter from Guarantor
37. Which type of loan is available under Agri Asset Backed Loan
(a) Over draft
(b) Dropline OD
(c) Up to Rs.50 lac – Overdraft Rs.50 lac above up to Rs.200 lac –Dropline OD
38.What is the loan amount available under Agri Asset Backed Loan?
(a) Min:Rs.5.00 lacs & Max: Rs 200 lacs
(b) Min:Rs.2.00 lacs & Max: Rs 300 lacs
(c) Min:Rs.10.00 lacs & Max: Rs 200 lacs
(d) Min:Rs.3.00 lacs & Max: Rs 200 lacs
39. What is the repayment period under Agri Asset Backed Loan
a. 12 months to 36 months (b) 12 months to 48 months
c 12 months to 60 months d. 12 months to 72 months

40. Loan amount under SBI Asset Backed Agri Loan is fixed on the basis of ____ times of annual
farm/non-farm income from all verifiable sources or ____ of the value of land/building mortgaged or
quantum of loan assessed as per need, whichever is less
a. 5; 65% b. 2; 50% c. 3; 75% d.4; 25%
41. Property mortgaged under SBI Asset Backed Agri Loan needs to be within a radius of _____ km
from the Branch, wherein loan is availed.
a. 10 b. 15
c. 25 d. 100
42. The inspection periodicity under SBI Asset Backed Agri Loan is
a. half-yearly b. monthly c. quarterly d. yearly
43. The Agri Asset Based Loan will be renewed at ______
(a) Every 2 years (b) Every 3 years
(c) Every year (d) No renewal of limit/ Review
44. What is the Collateral security to be obtained under Agri Asset Backed Loan
(a) E M of SARFAESI complaint immovable property within a radius of 25km of the branch for value
(b) E M of SARFAESI complaint immovable property within a radius of 25km of the branch for value
c. E M of any immovable property within a radius of 25km of the branch for value not less than 110%
of the loan amount
(d) Either a or b or c

45. What are the instructions in respect of end use of funds under Agri Asset Backed Loan
a. Up to Rs.10.00 lakh loan limit, self-declaration from the borrower can be accepted without insisting
for the bills /vouchers
b. Above Rs.10.00 lakh loan limit, self-declaration up to Rs.20% of the loan limit can
be taken from the borrower and for the remaining limit, branches to ensure end use of funds by
verification of assets and collection of invoices/cash receipts within one month
c. End use of funds need not be verified
d. Both a and b are correct
46.Is Agricultural Subvention applicable for Agri Asset Backed Loan?
a. Applicable for loans upto 3 lacs b. Applicable for loans upto 1 lacs
c. Yes d. No
47. What is periodicity of verification of the end use of funds under Agri Asset Backed Loan
(a) 2 months (b) 1 month
(c) 3 months (d) End use of funds need not be verified
48. Which type of loan will be sanctioned under Produced Marketing Loan(PML)
(a) Demand Loan (b) Term Loan
(c) Cash Credit (d) Both (b) & (c)
49. What is the maximum loan limit under PML
(a) Rs 25 lac. per farmer (b) Rs 10 lac. per farmer
(c) Rs 15 lac. per farmer (d) Rs 50 lac. per farmer

50 What is the maximum repayment term under PML
(c) 24 months (d) 6 months
51.Who among the following is eligible to avail Produce Marketing Loan?
(a) Who have availed crop loan from other Banks
(b) Who have not availed crop loan from any Bank
(c) Who have availed crop loan from our Bank
(d) All of these
52. What is the minimum score to be eligible under PML?
(a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 40% (d) 30%
53. How much of loan can be financed under DIR Scheme
(a) House Loan Purpose: Rs 20,000/- Other Purposes: Rs 15,000/-
(b) House Loan Purpose: Rs 25,000/- Other Purposes : Rs 20,000/-
(c) Maximum Rs.10,000/- for any purpose
(d) Maximum Rs.25,000/- for any purpose
54. What is the annual family income criteria for Rural/Urban and Semi Urban areas to become eligible
under DIR Scheme
(a) Rs.20,000/-;Rs.24,000 (b) Rs.24,000/-;Rs.30,000/-
(c) Rs.30,000/-;Rs.40,000/- (d) Rs.18,000/; Rs.24,000/-

55. What is the interest rate to be charged under DIR Scheme
(a) 2% p.a. simple interest (b) 6% p.a. simple interest
(c) 4% p.a. simple interest (d) 5% p.a. simple interest
56. What is the repayment period under DIR Scheme
a. 3 years including moratorium period
b. 4 years including moratorium period
c. 5 years including moratorium period
d. 7 years including moratorium period
57. What is the overall target to the bank to lend under DIR?
(a) 2% of the total advances of the bank as on previous year
(b) 1% of the total advances of the bank as on previous year
(c) 2% of the total advances of the bank
58. What is meant by TFO in Agri. Clinics and Agri. Business Centers?
(a) Total Farm Operations (b) Technical Feasibility Offer
(c) Technical and Financial Order (d) Total Financial Outlay
59. What are the credit facilities generally sanctioned to the Agri. Clinics and Agri. Business Centers?
(a) Cash Credit facility (b) Term Loan facility
(c) Demand Loan (d) Composite Loan

60. Nodal agency providing subsidy for loans sanctioned under Agri clinics and Agri Business Centre
(ACABC)
(a) State Rural Livelihoods Mission (SRLM)
(b) District Rural Development Agency (DRDA)
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) National Bank for Agriculture Development (NABARD)
61 Which one of the following is the objective of setting up of Agri. Clinics and Agri. Business Centres?
(a) To supplement efforts of public extension by providing services to farmers either on payment basis
or free of cost, as the case may be
(b) To create gainful self-employment opportunities to unemployed agriculture graduates and biological
science graduates with PG in agri-related courses
(c) To support agricultural development
(d) All are correct.
62 Under Agri. Clinic & Agribusiness Centre Scheme, what is the time limit for completion of project in
the ordinary course?
(c) 6 months (d) No such stipulation
63. Who provides training to beneficiaries for Agri. Clinics and Agri. Business Centers stands for?
(a) Management Administration for National Agri. Growth Empowerment
(b) National Institute for Agricultural Extension Management
(c) NABARD
(d) National Institute for General Agriculture Empowerment

64 What is the Maximum Project Cost for financing of Agri Clinic and Agri Business Centres for single
agri graduate and group of agricultural graduates respectively
(a) 20 lacs, 50 lacs (b) 25 lacs, 100 lacs
(c) 20 lacs, 100 lacs (d) 25 lacs, 50 lacs
65.Under SHG finance, KYC verification of members at the time of credit linkage is
(a) Demand Promissory Note (b) Loan application form
(c) Inter-se agreement (d) Cash Credit Agreement
66 What is the maximum limit that can be sanctioned under SHG finance
(a) Rs.5,00,000/- per Group (b) Rs.10,00,000/- per group
(c) Rs.3,00,000/- per Group (d) Rs.50,000/- per member
67 How much amount the branch can pay towards local book writer charges for newly formed SHGs
(a) Rs.25/- P.M (b) Rs.150/- P.M
(c) Rs.50/- P.M (d) Rs.100/- P.M
68.DAY-NRLM provides support to SHGs in the form of___
(a) Front-end Subsidy (b) Revolving Fund
(c) Capital Subsidy (d) Back-end Subsidy
69.How much interest subvention is available to Urban SHG under Day NRLM
(a) 3% (b) No. Only Rural SHGs are eligible
(c) 5% (d) 7%

70 What is DAY-NRLM
(a) Deenabandhu Annna Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mode
(b) Deendayal Annna Yojana-National Rural Learning Mission
(c) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission
(d) Deshbandhu Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission
71 What is the maximum Revolving Fund support available to the SHGs Under DAY-NRLM?
(a) Rs.15000/- per group (b) Rs.25000/- per group
(c) Rs.10000/- per group (d) Rs.5000/- per group
72 What is the collateral to be obtained for financing SHGs upto Rs.10.00 lacs Under DAY-NRLM?
(a) Any SARFAESI compliant property (b) Any Immovable Property
(c) NIL (d) Either a‘ or ‘b‘
73 Under DAY-NRLM, the facility to be sanctioned to SHG is
(a) Term Loan (b) Cash Credit
(c) Demand Loan (d) Either a‘ or ‘b‘
74. Agri Gold Can be sanctioned by way of
(a) Overdraft (b) Demand Loan
(c) Cash Credit (d) All the above

75 Which of the following category of customers are not eligible for sanction of Agri Gold Loan
(a) Tenant farmers (b) Oral lessees
(c) Share croppers (d) All the above
76 Loan against gold coins specially minted by SBI/e-ABs can be considered up to------- grams
(a) 20 grs (b) 20 grs
(c) 50 grs (d) Loan cannot be sanctioned against gold coins
77.Advance Value of Gold is available at
(a) PBBU, Corporate Centre
(b) Precious Metal Department, Corporate Centre
(c) ABU, Corporate Centre
(d) As per the local market Value
78. The LTV ratio to be maintained for sanction of Agri Gold Loan is
(a) 75% (b) 25%
(c) 50% (d) 35%
79. What is the minimum and maximum loan under Agri Gold Loan Scheme
(a) Min: No Minimum Max:Rs. 20.00 lacs
(b) Min: No Minimum Max:Rs. 25.00 lacs
(c) Min: Rs.10,000/- Max:Rs. 20.00 lacs
(d) Min: Rs.25,000/- Max:Rs.20.00 lacs

80. The maximum amount of Agri Gold Loans for a single borrower is
(a) Rs.15.00 lacs (b) Rs.20.00 lacs
(c) Rs.10.00 lacs (d) Rs.25.00 lacs
81 If the customer requires a gold loan over and the above thresh hold limit
(a) The borrower should be discouraged
(b) Should be referred to the next higher Authority before sanction
(c) Should take additional security
(d) Need not do anything other than sanctioning
82.Purity of gold cannot be done from which of the following
(a) Sulfuric Acid Test (b) Specific Gravity Test
(c) Touch Stone Method (d) Nitric Acid Test
83. All High value gold loan accounts with limits Rs.5 lakhs and above should be
(a) Appraised by three appraisers (b) Sanction Selectively
(c) Appraised by two appraisers (d) Should not be encouraged
84. The Gold Appraiser charges to be paid in case of Agri Gold Loan in RUSU branches is
(a) @ 0.05% to 0.10% of loan limit Min: Rs.50/- & Max: Rs.300/-
(b) @ 0.05% to 0.10% of loan limit Min: Rs.100/- & Max: Rs.600
(c) @ 0.05% to 0.10% of loan limit Min: Rs.100/- &Max: Rs.300
(d) Rs.100/- per each Gold Loan

85. What should be done with the undelivered gold ornaments after the closure of Gold Loans:
(a) Outside the safe in a separate almirah
(b) As a safe deposit article in joint custody
(c) In the single custody of joint custodian of cash
(d) In a single custody of the Manager(cash)
86. SIM- GL/1 in Agri Gold is referred to
(a) DP Note
(b) Hypothecation Agreement
(c) Application cum Appraisal
(d) Authority Letter
87. SIM- GL-8 in Agri Gold is referred to
(a) Final notice to the borrower
(b) Gold Ornaments Take Delivery Letter
(c) Witness letter in case of illiterate borrowers
(d) Memorandum in respect of Gold ornament
88. SIM- GL-9 in Agri Gold is referred to
(a) Final notice to the borrower
(b) Gold Ornaments Take Delivery Letter
(c) Witness letter in case of illiterate borrowers
(d) Memorandum in respect of Gold ornament

89. Agri Gold Loan disbursement can be made through
a. Cash b. Transfer to SB/KCC
c. any of the above d. none of the above
90. Once the LTV is breached the branch should______
a) A notice should be sent to the borrower after 10 days
(b) The loan should be recalled immediately
(c) A notice should be sent to the borrower on the same day
(d) Loan can be adjusted with the new Advance Value
91. Quantum of Agri Gold Loan is based on
a. Gross Weight of Ornaments
b. Net Weight of Ornaments
c. SOF
d. Net Weight x Advance Value or SOF whichever is less
92.How many notices sent by the branch once the LTV is breached
(a) 2 notices (b) 3 notices
(c) 5 notices (d) Single notice
93. Branches should put in a system to declare every ___________of the month for conducting monthly
auction for sale of gold ornaments to realize and recover the dues of NPA.
a. 3 rd Friday b. 15th
c. 10th d. 30th

94. No dues certificate has been waived by RBI for loans less than
a. Rs.10,000.00
b. Rs.1,00,000.00
c. Rs.2,00,000.00
d. Irrespective of the amount
95. The inspection periodicity for crop loans is
a. Half yearly b. yearly
c. Once at the time of sanction d. Twice for each crop
96. For Irregular Crop Loans, the inspection periodicity is
a. once in 6 months b. As per Crop season
c. Yearly d. Every month
97.The maximum limit amount, both short term production credit plus investment credit put together
calculated during the 5-year period is called as
a. Maximum Permissible Limit (MPL)
b. Maximum Drawal Limit (MDL)
c. Flexi KCC Limit
98. The KCC proposal can be considered good for sanction when the score as per KCC credit scoring
model is
a. Above 51 b. Above 61
c. Above 71 d. None of the above

99 The KCC proposal will not be considered for sanction if the score as per KCC credit scoring model
is less than
a. 26 b. 36 c. 46 d. 71
100.Crop insurance under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana is available to
a. All farmers growing notified crops in notified areas
b. All farmers growing any crop
c. All farmers growing notified crops in any area
d. All farmers irrespective of crop and area
101.Which committee which recommended Self Help Groups
a. Ojha committee b. Kalia Committee
c. Tarapore Committee d. Narasimham Committee
102. Service Area Approach had been recommended by the committee___
a. Ojha committee b. Rangarajan Committee
103.Simplified and uniform documents under Agri Segment are obtained now as per recommendations
of which committee
a. RV Gupta Committee b. Kalia Committee

104.The concept of weaker sections was evolved by the committee recommendation
a. Ghosh committee b. Kalia Committee
105. As per Spacing norms for wells the distance between a dug well and a bore well is ___ meters
a. 180 meters b. 200 meters
c. 215 meters d. 250 meters
106. If the exploitation of ground water is more than 90% it is termed as
a. White Block b. Grey Block
c. Dark Block d. Black Block
107.If the exploitation of ground water is between 70 – 90% it is termed as
108.If the exploitation of ground water is less than 70% it is termed as
109.D.C.B register is to be prepared every year as on:
(a) 31st May (b) 30th April
(c) 30th June (d) 31st July

110. What is DCB Register?
a. Demand, Collection and Balance Register
b. Debit, Credit and Balance Register
c. Demand Collection Book
d. District Collector Book
111. Black revolution relates to_____
(a) Cultivation of Black seeds (b) Rubber production
(c) Oil seed Cultivation (d) Forest tree production
112. White revolution relates to_____
(a) Milk production (b) Rainwater harvesting
(c) Fish farming (d) Prawn cultivation
113 Brown revolution relates to________
(a) Cocoa production (b) Rubber production
(c) Wheat production (d) Paddy production
114 Yellow revolutions relates to__________
(a) Milk production (b) Flower production
(c) Oil seed production d. Turmeric Production

115. Which of the following is one of SBI ‘s initiatives under ―Bonding with Farmers‖
(a) SBI Ka Apna Gaon (b) Apna Gaon
c) Apka Gaon (d) Hamara Gaon
116.Vermiculture relates to________
(a) Fish farming (b) Rearing of earthworms
(c) Prawn / Shrimp production (d) Forest tree cultivation
117 Sericulture relates to_________
(a) Bee keeping (b) Rubber production
(c) Rearing of Silk worms Mushroom cultivation (d) Fish Farming
118 Fungiculture relates to_______
(a) Cultivation of Fungus (b) Cultivation of Soya
(c) Cultivation of Mushrooms (d) Cultivation of Prawn
119 Moriculture relates to ________
(a) Rubber Cultivation (b) Mulberry Cultivation
(c) Flower Cultivation (d) Mushroom Cultivation
120. Olericulture relates to ____
(a) Cultivation of Soya (b) Cultivation of OIL seeds
(c) Cultivation of Silk worms (d) Cultivation of Vegetable

121 Apiculture is __cultivation
(a) Mushroom (b) Bee keeping
(c) Mulberry (d) None of these
122 Silviculture relates to_________
(a) Bee keeping (b) Sericulture
(c) Floriculture. (d) Forest tree cultivation
123 Pisciculture relates to________
(a) Rearing of silk worm (b) Food grain production
(c) Fish farming (d) Mushroom cultivation
124 Aquaculture relates to________
(a) Prawn / Shrimp production (b) Floriculture
(c) Bee keeping d) Mushroom
125.Pomology is study of
a. Fruit Crops b. Flowers
c. Vegetables d. Silkworms
126.A combination of ____________ individuals is required to form a Farmer Producer Company
a. 10 or more b. 20 or more
c. 50 or more d. 15 or more

127. The minimum amount eligible for takeover under ATL– for Allied Activities would be
a.Rs.2.00 lacs b. Rs. 5 lacs
c. Rs.10 lacs d. Rs.20 lacs
128. What are the specific target groups for conducting financial literacy camps?
a. Farmers, School Children, Senior Citizens
b. Medium and small entrepreneurs, Women
c. Both a & b
129. Farmer Producer Company’ (FPC) is a legal entity established vide provisions of which act?
a. Banking Regulation Act b. Companies Act
c. N. I Act d. RBI Act
130. Which of the following is not the reason behind significance and scope of Value Chain finance in
India?
a. Majority of the farmers are small holders
b. Agriculture system is largely rain fed
c. Productivity is much lower – access to Technology low
d) Market is well-established

ANSWERS AGRICULTURE SEGMENT
1.c 2.a 3.d 4.a 5.b 6.b 7.a 8.c 9.b 10.d
11.c 12.c 13.d 14.b 15.a 16.c 17.d 18.a 19.b 20.b
21.c 22.c 23.d 24.c 25.c 26.c 27.a 28.c 29.d 30.c
31.a 32.d 33.d 34.b 35.a 36.c 37.c 38.d 39.d 40.a
41.c 42.a 43.d 44.a 45.d 46.d 47.c 48.a 49.d 50.a
51.d 52.b 53.a 54.d 55.c 56.c 57.b 58.d 59.d 60.d
61.d 62.c 63.b 64.c 65.c 66.d 67.a 68.b 69.b 70.c
71.a 72.c 73.d 74.d 75.d 76.c 77.b 78.a 79.b 80.b
81.b 82.a 83.c 84.a 85.b 86.c 87.a 88.d 89.b 90.c
91.d 92.b 93.a 94.a 95.d 96.d 97.a 98.c 99.a 100.a
101.b 102.a 103.a 104.a 105.c 106.c 107.b 108.a 109.c 110.a
111.b 112.a 113.a 114.c 115.a 116.b 117.c 118.c 119.b 120.d
121.b 122.d 123.c 124.a 125.a 126.a 127.c 128.c 129.b 130.d

FIMM
FIMM CHANNEL
1. The vertical of FI & MF is headed by _____at CC
a. DMD b. CGM c.GM d. MD
2. Which of the following accounts have a carrying cost to the Bank?
a. Zero balance accounts b. Non-Zero balance accounts
c. BSBD accounts d. All tiny accounts
3. The business potential of the area can be ascertained from ___
a. Dist. Credit Plan b. Potential Linked Plan
c. Census of the area d. All of the above
4. What are the age criteria for Business Correspondent Facilitators?
a. There is no age restriction b. 65 years
5. What is the period of appointment of Business Correspondent Facilitators?
a. 12 months b.24 months c. 36 months d. 48 months
6. Aadhaar linking is at?
a. Account Level
b. CIF level
c. Can be either CIF level or account level
d. Customers need to give a choice for linking at CIF level or Account level

7. What is the prerequisite for implementing DBT?
a. Bank Account
b. Bank Account seeded with Aadhaar
c. Bank Account seeded with Aadhaar and Mobile Number
d. Bank Account linked with Aadhaar
8. Who will bear the cost of Passbook printer provided to a CSP?
a. Bank b. BC / CSP c. RBI d. NABARD
9. What should be the minimum specifications for internet connectivity in Kiosk?
a. 2 MBPS b. 1 MBPS c. 3 MBPS d. 5 MBPS
10. What is the maximum withdrawal from Micro ATMs by using other bank cards?
a. Rs.5000 b. Rs.10000 c. Rs.15000 d. Rs.20000
11.What is the periodicity for conducting a financial literacy camp by a rural branch?
a. Every month on last working day
b. Once in a fortnight
c. Every month on 3rd Friday
d. Monthly coinciding with the recovery camp
12.What is the maximum transaction limit under AEPS?
a. Rs.5000/- b. Rs.20000/- c. Rs.15000/- d. Rs.10000/

13. What is the full form of UIDAI?
a. Unique Identification Authority of India
b. Unique Identity Development Authority of India
c. Uniform Identification Authority of India
d. Uniform Identity Developed in India
14.In Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) PMSBY, what is the coverage for permanent
total disability?
a. Rs. 1.00 lakh b. Rs. 2.00 Lakh c. Rs. 5.00 Lakh d. Rs. 10.00 Lakh
15. What are the documents required for SBOD accounts?
a. DP Note b. DP Note Take Delivery Letter
c. Both A& B d. No document is required
16. In case of Mudra –Shishu loans-Interest subvention scheme, the interest subvention of----% is
available to all standard account’s O/S on -----
a. 3%, 28.02.2020 b. 2%, 28.02.2020
c. 3%, 31.03.2020 d. 2%, 31.03.2020
17. In case of accounts opened at CSP, who will be responsible for KYC verification for OVDs
a. DSH b. Link branch c. RBO d. CSP
18. Who creates the KO Limit?
a. Bank Admin at LHO b. Link Branch c. BC Admin d. CM (FI) at DSH

19. Who will obtain the Insurance for transit and Overnight Cash at CSP?
a. Link Branch b. DSH c. CSP/BC d. RBO (FI&MM)
20. Who appoints a Kiosk Operator?
a. Customer Service Provider
b. Business Correspondent, after approval by the Bank
c. Link Branch
d. Corporate Centre
21. Who will perform the duties of the Dist. Coordinator under FI&MM concept?
a. CM (BC Channel) at DSH
b. CM (FI Channel) at DSH
c. Desk Officer (FI Channel) DSH
d. Official from RBO(FI&MM)
22. Whether foreign remittances are permitted in SBI Tiny Special account?
a. YES b. NO c. With prior approval d. As per DSH Choice
23. What is the periodicity of CSP visits by DSH officials?
a. Once in a Week b. Once in 15 days
c. Once in a month d. Once in a Quarter
24.Individual BC provides a security deposit of Rs
a. 25000/- b. 40000/- c. 50000/- d. 100000/

25. Who will provides the policy guidelines, operational instructions, and overseas the functioning of FI
initiatives at the Bank
a. ABU dept at CC b. FI & Micro finance dept at CC
c. Outreach dept at CC d. FI & GC at GITC
26. What is IMPS?
a. Instant Payment Service
b. Indian Money Payment Service
c. Interbank Money Payment Service
d. Immediate Payment Service
27. Timings of CSP to provide financial services to customers on behalf of bank
a. 10 am to 8 pm b. 8am to 8 pm
c. 10 am to 5 pm d. 8 am to 6 pm
28. CSP should display the following boards at the kiosks. Select false statement
a. Instructions regarding Rupay cards b. Products and services available
c. Training certificate d. Fair Banking codes (BCSBI)
29. Who appoints the National BC
a. IBA b. Corporate Centre, SBI
c. RBI d. NABARD

30.What are the constraints being faced by poor people in accessing the financial markets?
a. Availability b. Accessibility
c. Affordability d. All of the above
31. How many types of BCs are in our Bank?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d.4
32. What is the commission payable to BC under Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)?
a. 75% of fees received by the Bank b. 60% of fees received by the Bank
c. 50% of fees received by the Bank d. 80% of fees received by the Bank
33. Who provides financial assistance for conducting the Financial Literacy camps?
a. GOI b) RBI c. SIDBI d. NABARD
34. What is the minimum flock size under Broiler Plus?
a. 1000 birds b. 3000 birds c. 5000 birds d. 10,000 birds
35. Which is the nodal agency for implementation of Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme
(DEDS)?
a. RBI b. NABARD c. SBI d. DRDA
36. What is India’s global position in Fisheries and in Aquaculture respectively?
a. 3 rd & 2nd b. 2nd & 1st c. 3rd & 4th d. 1 st & 2nd

37. Which scheme provides guarantee cover for Mudra loans?
a. DICGC b. CGSSI c. SBI General d. CGFMU
38. The culture of earthworms is known as ________
a. Sericulture b. Vermiculture c. Apiculture d. Earthiculture
39. How many members can be in a JLG?
a. 4 to 10 b. 5 to 15 c. 10 to 20 d. 20 t0 50
40. Which of the following not the benefit of Contract farming?
a. The quality of seeds and other inputs is guaranteed
b. The role of middleman is eliminated / reduced
c. Farmers can avail loan form Banks easily on the basis of contract
d. Farmers can get loan from Bank without interest
ANSWERS (FINANCIAL INCLUSION)
1. a 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. b
11. c 12. d 13.a 14. b 15. d 16.d 17.b 18.c 19.c 20. b
21. b 22. a 23. d 24. c 25. b 26. d 27. b 28. c 29. b 30. d
31. b 32. d 33. d 34. c 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. d

NPA MANAGEMENT
SBILD_AKOLA__SBILD_ASKOLA__SBIL
D_AKOLA__SBILD_AKOLA__SBILD_AKO
NPA MANAGEMENT
1. NPA is defined as
a. Non-Performing Asset
b. An asset, including a leased asset, becomes non performing when it ceases to generate income for
the bank
c. A & B above
d. None of these
2. A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or an advance where
a. Interest and/ or installment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than 90 days in respect
of a term loan
b. The account remains out of order, in respect of an Overdraft/Cash Credit (OD/CC)
c. The bill remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in the case of bills purchased and
discounted
d. All the Above
3. A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or an advance where, Interest and/ or installment of principal
remain overdue for a period of more than ____ in respect of a term loan.
4. A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan in Agriculture Segment where:
a. The installment of principal or interest thereon remains overdue for two crop seasons for short
duration crops
b. The installment of principal or interest thereon remains overdue for one crop season for long duration
crops
c. A & B above
d. None of these

5. Which of the following is not a NPA category?
a. Substandard Assets
b. Doubtful Assets
c. Loss Assets
d. Special Mentioned Accounts
6. What is “Out of order” status in accounts?
a. An account should be treated as 'out of order' if the outstanding balance remains continuously in
excess of the sanctioned limit/drawing power for 90 days.
b. In cases where the outstanding balance in the principal operating account is less than the sanctioned
limit/drawing power, but there are no credits continuously for 90 days or credits are not enough to cover
the interest debited during the same period, these accounts should be treated as 'out of order'.
c. A & B above
d. None of these
7. As per RBI Classification SMA-0 is a category where—
a. Principal or interest payment not overdue for more than 7 days but account showing signs of incipient
stress
b. Principal or interest payment not overdue for more than 30 days but account showing signs of
incipient stress
c. Principal or interest payment not overdue for more than 60 days but account showing signs of
incipient stress
d. Principal or interest payment not overdue for more than 90 days but account showing signs of
incipient stress

a. Principal or interest payment overdue between 61-90 days
b. Principal or interest payment overdue between 31-60 days
c. Principal or interest payment overdue between 0-30 days
d. Principal or interest payment overdue between 7-30 days
a. Principal or interest payment overdue between 61-90 days
b. Principal or interest payment overdue between 31-60 days
c. Principal or interest payment overdue between 0-30 days
d. Principal or interest payment overdue between 7-30 days
10. A substandard asset would be one
a. which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 90 days
b. which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 06 months
c. which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months
d. None of these

11. An asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained
a. Remained in the substandard category for a period of 03 months
b. Remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months
c. Security < 50% of outstanding
d. B & C above
12. A loss asset is one
a. Where loss has been identified by the bank or internal or external auditors or the RBI inspection, but
the amount has not been written off wholly.
b. Realizable value of Security < 10% of outstanding balance
c A & B above
d None of these
13. Period in which Sub standard asset turns into Doubtful-3 category is
a. NPA for a period > 12 Months < 24 Months
b. NPA for a period > 24 Months < 48 Months
c. NPA for a period > 36 months.
d. NPA for a period > 48 Months
14. Sub standard assets would attract _______ provision.
a. 10% b.15% c.25% d.30%
15. The ‘unsecured exposures’ which are identified as ‘substandard’ would attract additional provision
of percent.
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25

16. The unsecured exposures ‘which are identified as sub standard would attract - provision
a.10% b.15% c.25% d.30%
17. In Standard Asset category the provision for direct advances to agricultural and Small and Micro
Enterprises (SME) sectors is
a.5% b. 2.5% c.0.25% d.1% 9
18. In Standard Asset category the provision for advances to Commercial Real Estate – Residential
Housing Sector (CRE - RH)
a.0.75% b. 2.5% c.0.25% d.1%
19. In Standard Asset category, direct advances to commercial Real Estate (CRE) sectors attract a
provision of ….
a. 0.25 % b. 0.40 % c. 0.75 % d. 1.00 %
20. Cash credit account will become an NPA if the limit is not renewed within
a. 3 months from due date b. 6 months from due date
c. 9 months from due date d.12 months from due date
21. Appropriation of recoveries in NPAs (i.e. towards principal or interest due), as per the Bank’s extant
instructions is done in accordance with following priority.
a. Principal, Charges, Unrealized Interest, Interest
b. Unrealized Interest, Principal, Charges, Interest
c. Principal , Interest, Unrealized Interest, Charges
d. Charges, Unrealized Interest, Interest, Principal

22. What are the actions required before issuing notice under Section 13(2) of SARFAESI Act, 2002?
a. Accounts should have been identified as NPA for SARFAESI action and the loan documents
including EM documents pertaining to securities held should be legally enforceable and within the
period of limitation.
b. Assets charged to the bank should be inspected and identified.
c. Approval for issuing notice under section 13(2) of SARFAESI Act, 2002 to be obtained from the
Competent Authority depending upon the amount of total dues involved.
d. All of the above.
23. SARFAESI Act is not applicable to Accounts where amount due is less than
a. 1 lac b. 2 lac c. 3 lacs d. 5 lacs
24. Vehicle seizure under SARFAESI, value of security (value) will be.
a. Nil b. Rs.1.00 lacs c. Rs.2.00 lacs d.Rs.5.00 lacs
25. Action under SARFAESI Act, 2002 can be initiated in the following cases.
i. The account should be an NPA as per RBI guidelines.

ii. The claim amount (including accrued interest) should be for an amount not less than Rs.1.00 lac.
iii. The amount due (including interest) should be more than 20% of the principal amount and interest
thereon.
iv. Debt is not time barred under Limitation Act.
a. Only i, ii are correct
b. Only ii is correct
c. Only i, ii, iv are correct
d. All are correct

26. ‘Authorized officer’ means an officer not less than a -of a public-sector bank or equivalent, for the
purpose of SARFAESI action.
a. Chief Manager
b. Assistant General Manager
c. Manager
d. Deputy General Manager
27. Demand notice u/s 13(2) shall be issued by Authorised Officer in writing to the
Borrower(s)/Guarantor(s)/Mortgagor(s) and legal heir(s) if applicable, giving the time of __days to
discharge the liabilities.
a. 30 b. 45 c. 60 d. 15.
28. Notice issued under section 13(2) of SARFAESI Act is issued against-- property.
a. Mortgaged property
b. Hypothecated property
c. Both mortgaged and hypothecated properties
29. In how many days the borrower can file an application against the action taken by the bank under
section 13(4) SARFAESI Act 2002 for taking the possession of the secured asset:
30. Objections Raised by the Borrower under SARFAESI Act, to be replied within days
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 30

31. Bank has to issue notice through paper publication within_____ days after taking the possession of
the asset under SARFAESI Act, 2002.
32. For e-auction reserve price is to be fixed at _____value of the securities under SARFAESI Act.
a. Market value
b. Realisable value
c. Either Realisable or Market value whichever is high
d. Government Value
33. The notice for sale should be served/affixed on conspicuous part of the property at least __ days
before the conduct of e-auction under SARFAESI Act.
a. 21 b.30 b. 60 d. 45
34. Valuation report should be less than ______ months old while fixing Reserve Price for auction under
SARFAESI Act.
a. 12 b. 24 c. 18 d. 36
35. Recovery of Debts of Rs. ____lacs and above cases (inclusive of interest) must be filed with DRT.
a. 5 lacs b. 20 lacs c. 30 lacs d. 10 lacs
36. The appeal against the order of DRT is required to be filed before Appellant Tribunal (DRAT) within
a period of ____ days from the date of order.
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60
37. Where an Appeal is preferred, the Borrower / Guarantors are required to deposit with the Appellate
Tribunal, --------% of the amount of debt due as determined by the DRT so that the Appeal is entertained
by the Appellate Tribunal (DRAT).
a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. None of above

38. Original Application (OA) is to be filed in DRT immediately on approval but in any case, within a
maximum period of ---------- months from the date of approval
a.1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
39. Where the branches are not able to recover Bank‘s dues, they are required to file suits before Civil
Courts when the amount of total debt due from the borrowers is less than Rs.--------- lac.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. No ceiling
40. Lok Adalat is a forum where
a. Lok Adalat has been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
b. Award made by the Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court and is final and binding on
all parties
c. A and B above
d. None of these
41. Monetary ceiling for cases referred to Lok Adalat organized by Civil Court is
c. Rs.50.00 lacs d. No ceiling
42. The compromise amount under Lok Adalat may be agreed to be paid in monthly/quarterly
installments or depending on the income generation of the defendant. However, such repayments
should be made within a period not exceeding a total period of -------- months.
a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 60
43. Civil suit is to be filed immediately on approval but in any case, within a maximum period of ------
months from the date of approval.
a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12

44. NPAs should be migrated to SARG immediately, but in any case within a maximum period of ---
days from the date of NPA with the approval of the Controllers of the Branches
a. 60 b. 90 c. 120 d. 180
45. Which of the following statements is incorrect as regards transfer of NPAs from Branch/RACPC to
SARG?
a. NPAs should be migrated to SARG only after soft recovery measures viz. telephone calls, SMS,
Ordinary notice, personal contact, registered demand notice, legal notice, have been exhausted by the
operating units.
b. NPAs should be migrated to SARG only for hard recovery measures viz. action under SARFAESI,
filing of suits, compromise settlement, sale to ARC, declaring borrower as wilful defaulter etc.
c. Advances related fraud cases can be migrated to SARG after registration of FIR with State Police/CBI
and the work related to fraud would to be handled by the SARG, since all documentary evidence is with
SARG after migration.
d. NPAs should be migrated to SARG immediately, but in any case within a maximum period of 180
days from the date of NPA with the approval of the Controllers of the Branches.
46. NPAs with outstanding of Rs. and above shall be migrated to SAMBs
a. 1 b. 5 c 10 d. 20
47. NPAs with outstanding of Rs.--lacs and less than Rs. -- crs shall be migrated to SARBs.
a. 5, 5 b 10, 10 c 15, 15 d 20, 10
48. NPAs below Rs. -- lacs are continued to be followed up by the Branches/RACPCs…
a. 2 b5 c8 d 20

49. If the realizable value of the security is less than 10% of the outstanding the asset should be
straightaway classified as ____ asset
a. Sub-Standard b. Doubtful
c. Doubtful > 3 years d. Loss
50. Action under SARFAESI Act cannot be initiated if the amount due is less than _________ of the
principal amount and interest thereon.
a.5% b.10% c.15% d.20%
51. For calculation of NPV, the maximum estimated time to realize the securities may be taken as ----
--- years from the date of notice under section 13(2) in case of SARFAESI action.
a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. None of the above
52. A Centralized Loan Collection (LCS) has been introduced by our Bank to automate the process of
following of delinquent customers for collection and recovery of due amount in – segment loans.
a. P segment b. SME Segment
c. P & SME Segments d. Corporate
53. The Centralised Loan Collection System (LCS), follow-up can be made for –types of accounts.
a. Only live accounts in our books
b. Live accounts and accounts written off but not parked in AUCA
c. Live accounts, written off accounts and AUCA accounts
d. Only written off accounts and AUCA accounts

54. At the time of considering compromise proposal, it should be ensured that the valuation reports are
not more than ----------- months old.
a. 12 b. 24 c. 18 d. 36
55. As per the SOP on settlement of Bank’s dues through Compromise, and initial deposit of at least--
% of offer amount is obtained from the Borrower as an evidence of his intension to pursue the
compromise settlement with the Bank.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
56. Compromise Process will be initiated—the Bank has exercised its right off set of or its lien against
any deposits of borrower/guarantor lying with the Bank.
a. Before b. After
c. Before or after, depending on the case d. at the exact time when
57. In case of Compromise Settlement, the – of security charged to the Bank as also the Bank’s ability
to sell the security will be the basic factors which would decide the compromise amount.
a. Market Value b. Realisable Value
c. Distressed Value d. Govt Guidance Value
58. Normally an initial deposit of at least ------% of the offer amount may be taken from the borrower
under no lien account as an evidence of the borrower's intention to pursue the compromise settlement
with the Bank along with the compromise offer letter.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 25
59. Time line for completion of forensic audit should normally be no longer than ------month.
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. No time limit is fixed.

60. An award made by the Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a – court and is final and binding on
all parties.
a. District b. High Court
c. Civil d. Supreme
61. An award made by the Lok Adalat is deemed to be a
a. Decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties
b. Decree of a criminal court and is final and binding on all parties
c. Decree of a civil court and is final and binding on borrower only
d. Decree of a civil court and is final and binding on bank only
62. Monetary ceiling of cases in Lok Adalats to be organized by DRTs/DRATs
a. Below Rs 1 Cr
b. Above Rs 1 Cr
c. Irrespective of the amounts involved in the cases
d. Branches cannot participate in Lok Adalats organised by DRT/ DRATs
63. An award made by the Lok Adalat is deemed to be a – of a Civil Court and is final and binding on
all parties.
a. Recovery Certificate b. Authority Letter issued by Hon. Court for recovery proceedings
c. Decree d. All of the above

64. Branches can participate in Lok Adalats to be organized by DRTs/DRATs involving an amount up
to Rs.
a. Rs.20 lacs b. Rs.50 lacs
c. Rs.100 lacs d. Without any ceiling
65. In case of seizure of Cars/Vehicles under Auto Loan Scheme, what is the trigger point for seizure?
a. Said Car Loan account becoming NPA.
b. Dishonor of two cheques/ECS or non-payment of two consecutive installments.
c. Account has been categorized as Doubtful Assets
d. Three months from the date of NPA
66. What is the benefit of setting Bank’s dues under Compromise offer/OTS
a. Recycling of funds to the Bank
b. Economic Development of the nation
c. Eco-socio development of the nation
d. Incentive to the Branch Officials for recovery in NPA accounts.

67. The valuation report should be less than – months/year old for sale of properties for
initiating/considering under Private Treaty/SARFAESI Act 2002/Compromise Settlement.
a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 1-year d. 3 years
68. Which one of the following is not a Hard Recovery Measure available to the Bank to recover Bank
dues?
a. Filing a suit at DRT
b. Compromise Settlement
c. Proceeding for Vehicle seizure
d. Proceeding under SARFAESI Act
69. Which one of the following is not a Soft Recovery Measure
a. Filing a suit at DRT
b. Compromise Settlement
c. Settlement through Lok Adalat
d. Tele calling the customer to pay the irregular amount
70. Erosion in the value of security can be reckoned as significant when the ___________ of the
security is less than 50 per cent of the value assessed by the bank
a. Market value b. Realizable value
c. Guideline value d. Distress Value

71. If the realizable value of the security is less than 10 per cent of the outstanding the asset should be
straightaway classified as ____ asset.
a. Sub-Standard b. Doubtful
c. Doubtful > 3 years d. Loss
72. Advances guaranteed by Central Govt. would attract asset classification and provisioning norms
a. Yes
b. No
c. may be treated as NPA only when the Government repudiates its guarantee when invoked.
73. The limit fixed by the Central Vigilance Commission for reporting of cases of willful default by the
banks/FIs to RBI is
a. Rs. 5 lacs b.Rs.10 lacs c. Rs.15 lacs d. Rs.25 lacs
74. In order to prevent the access to the capital markets by the wilful defaulters, a copy of the list of
willful defaulters (non-suit filed accounts) and list of wilful defaulters (suit filed accounts) are forwarded
to SEBI by _____ and Credit Information Bureau (India) Ltd. (CIBIL) respectively.
a. RBI b. Respective Banks c. Govt. of India d. FIU
74. Asset Reconstruction Companies have been formed as per the recommendations of
a. Narasimham committee
b. Ojha committee
c. Rangarajan Committee
d. Kalia Committee

75. Minimum Capital of Asset Reconstruction Company is
a. Rs.50 lacs b. Rs.1 Crore c. Rs.2 Crores d. Rs. 5 Crores
76. A bank can approach an ARC to take over the ________assets
a. Substandard b Doubtful c. Both d. only loss asset
77. The Bank‘s policy is to ensure containment of NPAs to the least is in conformity
a. with RBI guidelines
b. with international standards
c. with IBA guidelines
d. with GOI guidelines
78. An account where the regular/ ad hoc credit limits have not been reviewed/renewed within
_______days from the due date/ date of ad hoc sanction will be treated as NPA.
a. 90 days b. 120 days c. 180 days d.240 days
79. Advances against term deposits, NSCs eligible for surrender, IVPs, KVPs and life policies need not
be treated as NPAs, provided…….
a. Interest is served within 90 days from due date
b. Adequate margin is available in the accounts
c. Security coverage is more than 75 %

80. For the purpose of guidelines on NPA classification of agricultural advances….
a. Long duration‖ crops would be crops with crop season longer than one year
b. Crops, which are not long duration crops, would be treated as short duration crops
c. Both A & B are correct
81. Stock statements relied upon by the banks for determining drawing power should not be older than
______ months.
a.1 b.2 c.3 d. 6
82. The special mention account (SMA) guidelines are issued by
a. Corporate centre of our bank b. IBA
c. RBI d. LHO
83. Time norms for submission of SAR report
84. Asset classifications of accounts under consortium should be based on
a. The record of recovery of the entire consortium
b. The record of recovery of the consortium leader
c. The record of recovery of the individual member banks and other aspects having a bearing on the
recoverability of the advances

85. The policy on income recognition has to be
a. Objective and based on the record of recovery
b. The banks should not charge and take to income account interest on any NPA
c. Both A & B
d. Only B
86. Unsecured exposure is defined as an exposure where the realisable value of the security, as
assessed by the bank/approved valuers/ Reserve Bank‘s inspecting officers, is not more than percent,
ab-initio, of the outstanding exposure
a.10 b.15 c.20 d. 25
87. Accrued interest waived in the compromise settlement is debited to
a. Charges b. P&L
c. No entry is required d. Interest A/c
88. The NPA policy lays down the following principles, which should not be kept in mind for compromise
a. to get maximum possible amount with minimum sacrifice
b. realizable value of security charged to bank
c. Location condition and marketability to the security
d. political reputation of the borrower and guarantor
89. Cut off limit for assigning forensic audit will be
a. Accounts with total limits above Rs. 50 cr under sole banking
b. Accounts with total limits above Rs.100 cr under Consortium or Multiple Banking Arrangements from
all lenders.
c. Both a and b above d. None of these

90. The limit fixed by the Central Vigilance Commission for reporting of cases of willful default by the
banks/FIs to RBI is
a. Rs. 5 lacs b.Rs.10 lacs c. Rs.15 lacs d.Rs.25 lacs
91. Who headed the working group on willful defaulters constituted in May 2001?
a. S. S. Kalia b. S. S. Kohli c. M. Narsihaman d. S. K. Talwar
92. If the claims of the Bank are not settled in full, the Bank may take some steps to locate the properties
not charged to the Bank
a. Approach Income Tax Deptt under Sec 138 of IT Act
b. Appoint private detective
c. File an application for declaration of assets on oath by the defendant
d. All of the above
93. In case of deceased borrower/guarantor, under SARFAESI
a. No action is possible
b. Section 13(2) notices should be sent to legal heirs
c. Wait for the legal heirs to come
94. In terms of revised framework of resolution of stressed assets, the Banks are required to submit
CRILC returns on Borrower’s exposure of Rs. 5 Cr and above which are in default to RBI at _____
interval.
a. Weekly b. Monthly c. Bi- monthly d. Quarterly

95. Asset classification of accounts under consortium should be based on____
a. The record of recovery of the individual member banks and other aspects having a bearing on the
recoverability of the advances
b. The record of recovery of the entire consortium
c. The record of recovery of the consortium leader
d. All the above
96. Can we consider the Compromise Offer given by the Willful Defaulter?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes, subject to Administrative Clearance from Competent Authorities
d. No, as RBI has prohibited the Banks from accepting the Compromise Offers from Willful Defaulters.
97. Stamping of NPA accounts in CBS is based on
a. Arrear Condition b. Overdue amount

c. Limit expiry d. KYC deficient
98. The Name of the website launched by the bank to track stressed assets at the branch in a
systematic manner.
a. CCDP b. Project Ganga

c. AT@M d. SBIDWP
99. In CBS environment, AT@M refers to
a. Any Time Account Maintenance

b. Alternate Transactions Maintenance
c. All transactions At monitoring
d. Asset Tracking @nd Monitoring

100. After an account is stamped as NPA by the system
a. Un realised Interest is reversed b. Further Interest application is stopped
c. Provision is calculated d. All the above
101. Before transferring an account to Recalled Assets, the IRAC status should be
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 and above
102.For NPA Home Loan Accounts, inspection should be carried out at…intervals
a. Quarterly b. Monthly
c. Half-Yearly d. Weekly
103. OTS.RINN SAMADHAN 20-21 launched 10.11.2020 is applicable the borrowers with outstanding
amount
a. Upto Rs.50 lakhs b. Upto Rs.100 lakhs
c. Upto Rs.20 crore d. Upto Rs.20 lakhs
104. OTS.RINN SAMADHAN 20-21 will be applicable upto
a. 31.03.2021 b. 31.01.2021 c. 30.06.2021 d. 01.03.2021
105. SBI OTS 2020 launched on 12.10.2020 is applicable for NPAs & AUCAs with outstanding amount
above
a. Rs.50 lakhs to Rs.50 cr b. Rs.100 lakhs to Rs.100 cr
c. Rs.20 lakhs to Rs.20 cr d. Rs.20 lakhs to Rs.50 cr

106. Restructuring of MSME Advances upto Rs.25 crores scheme extended by RBI upto 31.03.20221.
For restructuring which of the following is basic requirement
a. The borrower account should be Loss Asset as on 29.02.2020
b. The borrower account should be minimum RG-3 as on 31.03.2020
c. The borrower account should be Standard Asset as on 01.03.2020
d. The borrower account should not be even irregular as on 01.03.2020
107. New interest rate structure Extended Benchmark Lending Rate EBLR introduced wef
a. 01.07.2017 b. 01.04.2019 c. 01.10.2019 d. 01.01.2020
108. Extended Benchmark Rate will be reset at what periodicity
a. 1st day of Financial Year
b. 1st of every New Calendar Year
c. 1st of every Calendar Quarter based on prevailing RBI Repo Rate
d. Whenever RBI Repo Rate Changed
109. New Portal ERMS developed by Bank for monitoring of Exception Reports (Must See category
generated by CBS). What is the full form of ERMS
a. Emergency Reports Maintenance System b. Emergency Report Monitoring System
c. Exception Report Monitoring System d. Electoral Roll Management System
110. Under ERMS three types of Users created. Which of the following in not a user
a. Normal Users (Branch Staff with CBS Capability 7 and above
b. Controller users
c. Administrator Users d. All or correct

ANSWERS-NPA MANAGEMENT
1. c 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. a 10. c
11. d 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. a 19. d 20. b
21. d 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. a 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. c
31. c 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. c
41. b 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. c 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. d 50. d
51. a 52. a 53. c 54. a 55. a 56. b 57. b 58. a 59. a 60. c
61. a 62. c 63. c 64. d 65. b 66. a 67. c 68. b 69. a 70. b
71. d 72. b 73. d 74. a 75. c 76. b 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. c
81. b 82. c 83. b 84. c 85. c 86. a 87. c 88. d 89. c 90. d
91. b 92. d 93. b 94. a 95. a 96. c 97. a 98. c 99. d 100. d
101.d 102.c 103.d 104.b 105. d 106. c 107. c 108. c 109.c 110.d

DESCRIPTIVE
RATIONALES
RATIONALE
1. Digital Banking is the need of the hour.
To enhance customer satisfaction and convenience by several Digital channels such as

Yono, SBI Anywhere Personal, SBI Quick, BHIM Aadhaar SBI pay, etc.
To encourage customers towards alternative channels so that to reduce the crowd at the
counters and branches.
To save productive time of operating staff and ensure proper deployment towards
marketing of productive products.
To attract new generation and help to improve market share and quality of business.
To encourage cashless market and economy.
2. YONO (Project Lotus) introduced.
It is a Omni channel initiative (available on web, tabs and mobiles).
To attract new generation and help to improve market share and quality of business.
To know and assess customer need and requirement with the support of analytical
engine and send OTP alerts.
To reduce burden on existing INB Platform and also reduces the multiple apps
requirement.
To enhance customer satisfaction and convenience with omni channel app.

3. Alternate Delivery Channels are the need of the hour.
Several alternate delivery channels such as ATM, Mobile banking, Internet banking, etc.
will provide customer satisfaction and convenience.
It will decrease the crowd at the counters and give free time to branch operative staff to
sell and market products.
It will help to improve market share and quality of business.
It will help our bank to compete effectively with new forces of the market.
4. CERSAI has been introduced by government of India.
To register our charge on security.
It is a statutory requirement as per SARFAESI Provisions.
To enable smooth possession/enforcement as per SARFAESI Act provisions.
To prevent recurring frauds in case of offering same properties in different activities.
5. Pre-sanction inspection is as important as post sanction follow-up.
To know the genuine requirement, to assess need based support.
To verify KYC, due diligence existence of activity.
To share adequate knowledge in respect of available infrastructure/project as per the

prevailing market trends.
6. Repayment schedule for agricultural advances varies according to the nature

of the crops grown.
Harvesting period depends on the nature of crops grown and farmers can repay the loan
only after harvesting/marketing of the produce.
To ensure comfort to farmers by matching repayment with harvesting periods

7. Inspection to agriculture should be farmer-oriented and not farm oriented. Why?
The purpose of inspection is to develop relation and liaison with farmers.

To know the genuine needs and their requirements in modern techniques/to encourage
allied activities to increase production and income.
To ensure end use of funds.
To ensure security/ charge in favour of bank.
To ensue follow up, supervision, recovery, review/renewal.
8. KYC norms have been introduced by RBI.
To lay down norms for customer identification.

To prevent opening of benami accounts, curb tax evasion.
To prevent use of banking channels for money laundering and funding of terrorist or
other illegal activities.
To monitor suspicious transactions in accounts of existing account holders.
9. Proof of address is compulsory for opening of accounts of new customers with

the bank.
It is a part of KYC guidelines issued by RBI.

To ascertain the bonafides of a customer and ensure that benami accounts are not
opened.
To enable the Bank to contact / trace the customer in case of any problem in the conduct
of the account/transaction or in case the information is demanded by any government
and Statutory authorities
10. Payment of TDRs in cash over Rs.20,000/- is not made.
It has been instructed by IT Department under Sec.269 (T) of IT Act.

To curb illegal or benami transactions in cash.
It is a measure by the Government to make such transactions flow through banking
channels, so that it is easier to trace any violations.

11. Loans against the security of shares in demat form can be given up to Rs.20
lacs per individual, whereas if they are in physical form, the maximum amount is
Rs.10 lacs only.
Demat shares are better security for the bank as there is no risk of forged shares.
User friendly to operating staff, as the problems in physical handling is reduced.
It is easier to mark a lien in favour of the bank.
12. Loan Origination Software introduced in the Bank
Automation of our Loan process from Branch to CPC ‘s.

Better monitoring of the status of the proposals by Leveraging technology and ensure
TAT.
The processing of loans through LOS helps in risk mitigation and also it is a proper record
in the system for future needs.
13. Bank has introduced e-KYC
To reduce the risk of identity fraud, document forgery to have paperless KYC verification.
As per RBI guidelines to permit acceptance of e-KYC service as a valid process for KYC
verification under Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules,
2005.
14. In Recent days, Operational risk has gained importance.
It is as per Basel guidelines.

Due to significant growth in the banking transaction there is increase in operational risk
e.g. Inadequate/failed internal processes, people, system etc.
To strengthen the soundness and stability of system.
It is an important component of risk management system.
To avoid destruction of our image in market/competitors, and customer eye.

15. Penalty provision has been introduced in RFIA for false / delayed compliance
of OTMS alerts.
To discourage branches from submitting false / delayed compliance to OTMS alerts. To

strengthen the Internal control systems.
To follow RBI Directives.
16. All cheques of Rs. 1cr and above are required to be passed physically by 2
officials at all CCPCs and Branches.
The passing officials are required to take adequate due diligence while passing such
cheques, which includes referring to the drawee branch, drawer of the cheques and
account status of the payee at payee‘s branch and their KYC status.
During the meeting of Executives on High Value Frauds serious concern was shown on
recurrence of such high value frauds and it was decided to put a restriction on the
passing of cheques at CCPCs/Branches.
17. Nominee ‘s signature is not obtained on the nomination form
Account holder may not be inclined to let the nominee be aware of the fact of nomination.
To facilitate smooth change of nomination by the accountholder in future, if he/she so
desires.
Nominee is not a party to the contract for opening of an account, his signature is need
not required.
18. No Interest is applied on NPA accounts
NPA account ceases to generate the income for the Bank.

As per RBI directive on IRAC Norms Interest is to be reckoned on realization basis not
on accrual basis.
Bank has to pay taxes on the artificial profit if interest is applied.

19. Scoring model for Tractor Loan has been introduced.
In India there are cases agriculturist may not have minimum eligible land holding to offer
land against financing tractor, but they may have earnings from other allied agricultural
related operations.
The scoring model enables us to assess income sources and repayment capacity in
such cases.
Interest rate is linked to the risk level of the loans
20. Interest is paid to customers on delayed collection of outstation cheques.
As a measure of good customer service.
It has been recommended by Goiporia Committee on Customer Service.
To compensate the customer for the inconvenience/ loss caused to him on account of
the delay.
To make branches more conscious of the need for prompt collection of cheques and
take all precaution to avoid delays.
21.Arrangement letter, incorporate the terms and conditions of a loan should be

intimated to a borrower in writing.
As per Fair Practice Code for Lenders If not intimated to the borrower in writing and his
consent obtained, it will not be maintainable in a court of law.
The borrower can contest the same and make a complaint to the Banking Ombudsman.
To build fair image, trust, and confidence in the eyes of the customer.

22. Banking Ombudsman Scheme has been revised recently.
To enlarge the scope of the Scheme, to include plastic cards/credit card complaints,
failure to honour promises made by direct selling agents, charges for remitting lower
denomination notes / coins, etc. As per RBI directives.
To meet the demands of customers by enabling e-filing of complaints or sending

complaints by email
23. Customer Service Committee meeting is being held at the Branches at regular
intervals.
To create awareness among the staff members towards identification of customer

problems and get their feed back to improve the customer service.
It increases customer orientation of the staff members and their involvement in providing
better customer service at the Branches.
It also provides a platform for drawing strategies for marketing bank's product & services
for increasing business
24. Loan proposals are now being sent to RACPC for processing and sanction
almost all centres.
In the healthy competitive environment in Bank, branches are expected to concentrate

more on marketing of the Bank‘s products or on recovery and follow-up of loans.
Therefore, the operating staff need to be freed from the work of processing and appraisal
of loans, documentation, etc. RACPC having skilled and professionals will be dealing
with proposals in bulk, and will have better expertise Facilities for legal verification, pre-
sanction inspection, etc. are better streamlined in RACPC.
To improve turnaround time, and offer better service to customers as per their higher
expectations

25. The concept of Job Families has been introduced in our Bank.
To retain officers for a considerable length of time in certain areas of banking.
To enable them to specialize in different areas of their interest, subject to good

performance as expertise is required to counter competition.
The bank wants to build up expertise and confidence in operating staff in its different
areas of operations
26. Bank has implementing CEEP (CUSTOMER EXPERIENCE EXCELLENCE

PROJECT) at its Branches
To understand their customers‘ expectations and redesign the service delivery system
to achieve customer service excellence To improve the existing Service Delivery
Process with new concepts.
To aim at minimizing the Waiting and Processing time for each customer.
It is a Bank‘s Digital Transformation initiative.
27. LTV ratio introduced for Housing Loans, asset Backed Loan , Gold Loans
To increase the safety margin for the Bank.
To minimize loss due to defaults and to prevent slippages as per RBI Guidelines.
To ensure adequate security and borrower stake/contribution in the activity

28. BCs/ CSP have been engaged by Banks To implement Financial Inclusion.
It a cost-effective initiative to leverage the technology initiative in extending the Banking

/ Financial services to rural and interior areas.
To ensure greater financial inclusion and increasing the outreach of the banking sector
in n banking areas as per Govt / RBI guidelines
Ranagarajan Committee recommendation.
29. ABL scheme has been introduced by our Bank.
The Previous schemes TEL /SEL is not meeting the requirement of the borrowers who
need running account facility. With the comfort of adequate margin on realizable value
of property offered as collateral, the product has been structured with liberalized terms
and easy assessment. The customer friendly facility by way of overdraft with Monthly
Limit Reduction Programme.
Win- win situation to both Bank and Borrower, borrower getting incentives in the form of
lower interest, renewal not required every year, reducing processing charges etc.
30. How is e-DFS different from traditional CC limit?
It is a scheme to provide need based finance to dealers for their purchases from the
Industry Majors (Corporate) backed by a strong web based platform.
The e-DFS A/c (Inventory Funding Account) will operate on electronic platform with no
manual intervention of branches The limits will be sanctioned based on the introduction
letter/comfort letter/performance letter provided by the Industry Major for the dealer.
Risk mitigating product as against diversion of funds. Funds remitted to only Industry
Majors against inventory.

31. Cross Selling is being given enhanced importance.
In a competitive environment, Customer acquisition is very difficult and cost intensive

while cross selling costs almost zero for old customer.
It helps to retain customer and enhance customer value and provide delight to customer.
It improves brand loyalty. If customer has taken more than one product chances of
switching to another bank is reduced substantially.
It improves profitability of the Bank.
32. Staff accounts should be scrutinized by the Branch Manager periodically.
To ensure that the credits in staff account are not disproportionate to the known source
of income.
To prevent frauds and malpractices.
It is an effective preventive vigilance tool.
With a view to ensure that such accounts are conducted properly and that no
transactions of an unusual nature (involving large amounts disproportionate to known
sources of their Income) are being routed through these accounts. .
33.DEAF (Depositor Education and Awareness Fund) has been created.
Under the provisions of this facility of this FUND, the amount to the credit of any account
in India with any bank which has not been operated upon for a period of ten years or any
deposit or any amount remaining unclaimed for more than ten years shall be credited to
the Fund, within a period of three months from the expiry of the said period of ten years.
The Fund shall be utilized for promotion of depositors' interest and for such other
purposes which may be necessary for the promotion of depositors' interests as specified
by RBI from time to time.

34.Revival letters are dispensed with for standard term loan accounts.
Obtention of revival letters and balance confirmation letters consume a lot of resources.
The limitation period of three years in such loans starts from the date of default of
installment or call up of advance. Obtention of revival letters in case of regular term loans
is therefore redundant.
Productive time will be utilized in Marketing of product and also in recovery of sticky
units.
35. A Demand Draft cannot be issued payable to Bearer.
It is as per Section 31 of RBI Act, no person other than RBI or specifically authorised by
the Central Government in this regard, can issue a Bill of Exchange payable to bearer
on demand as it tantamount to issuance of Currency Notes
36. De-Duplication of Customer Information Files (CIFs) has been enabled.
RBI guidelines on KYC envisage that Bank should implement allotment of Unique
Customer Identification Code (UCIC), a relationship number, for all customers of the
Bank. It implies.
To avoid opening of multiple accounts in same Bank and also different banks.
37. Why is review/renewal exercise taken up in the case of working capital

advances?
Review/renewal of working capital advances is one of the major devices for assessing
the actual need-based credit requirements of the borrowing units (i.e., it enables the
lending banker to enhance/reduce/suitably tailor the credit limits). It is one of the major
criteria for assessing credit management in the banks also.
To ensure proper financial discipline in the unit and borrower.

38.Cash Balance should be kept minimum.
Cash balances are idle/non-performing assets and do not earn any income. Moreover,
the branch has to pay interest on cash balances to Central Office.
To keep appropriate statutory Cash Reserve Ratio with the R.B.I. Further, this increases
our profitability by optimum utilisation of resources.
39. Safe Deposit Receipt pertaining to duplicate keys of a branch is not kept in the
branch Strong Room.
In case of urgent need & loss of keys of the branch Strong Room, it would be easier to
present Safe Deposit Receipt to the other branch for taking delivery of duplicate keys
40. Cheque Truncation System is being introduced.
Capture image of cheques and restricts their physical movement.
To speed up the collections and to avoid operating expenses.
To prevent the possibility of frauds.
To minimize complaints of missing of instruments
41.Passwords of computer users should be changed frequently.
To prevent unauthorized access to the account.
Software packages do not accept the passwords those have not been changed for a
long time.
Security should be maintained in respect of passwords used by different functionaries at

the branch.

42. Bio metric authentication introduced.
Unique Individual identification of biological characteristics.
To prevent unauthorized access to the account.
Nearly impossible to forge ensures 100% accuracy.
43.Government Business has to be given a lot of importance.
No need for any outlay of funds/ capital adequacy.
It gives scope for close rapport with various Govt. Departments. It gives vital business
leads/Cross selling of various products.
It contributes to the bottom line directly by means of commission income.
44. Credit exposure norms are stipulated by banks.
The concentration credit risk is avoided.
Failure of a single advances or advance to a single group will not affect the capital
stability of bank.
It will enable availability of credit for all sector of economy.
It is a prudential control measure aimed to minimize credit risk for banks as per RBI
directives.
45. Revival Letter is obtained from borrower.
All security documents are revived as per the provisions of Indian Limitation Act 1963.
In case the documents are not renewed, the Bank cannot legally proceed against the
borrower in the event of default on the strength of the time-barred documents

46. Control Returns are sent by the branch managers to their Controllers at
stipulated periodical intervals.
Control returns are subjected to scrutiny by the controllers to ensure that the branch
manager has exercised his powers within the discretionary powers vested in him.
To ensure that the sanction of advance conforms to the laid down policies, terms,
stipulations of the bank and are in order.
This is an administrative tool to ensure that the delegated powers are exercised properly.
47. Drop Box facility has been introduced in branches for dropping of cheques by
customers.
For the convenience of customers.
TO avoiding crowd/standing at our counters in long queues, so that other customers can
transact their business easily.
Time and work saving for our frontline staff, so that they can utilize their time for attending
to other work.
It is one of the recommendations of Goiporia Committee.
48. Bank will be engaging Business Facilitators and Business correspondents.
With the twin objective of ensuring greater financial inclusion and increasing the outreach
of the Bank combined with the need to substantially increase our market share in the
rural and semi urban area. Branch banking is ruled out due to the huge cost of opening
branches and the high cost of operation. Through Business facilitator and Business
correspondent model our bank has to substantially increase our rural business base in
untapped/unbaked areas through the use of existing branch net work and new
technology combined with outsourcing.

49. Bank obtains confirmation letters in case of equitable mortgage.
It denotes voluntary deposit of the title deeds by the borrower with an intention to create
charge over it for securing the advance obtained by him.
It is evidence that there is no coercion for depositing title deeds.
50.Career Development System has been launched.
It is a tool to evaluate staff scientifically.
It is a process of motivating the performers.
It improves productivity with objectivity.
It eliminates human emotions in evaluation of performance

FOR AND AGAINST
FOR AND AGAINST
1. Pay scale of Public Sector and Private Sector banks should be equal.
For:
a. The job requirements in private and public sector banks are almost similar.
b. To stop or curtail flight of talented from one sector to another the pay scale should be uniform.
c. Experienced staff of public sector banks are shifting in the wake of offers of higher pay scales
elsewhere.
Against:
a. Security of job, terminal benefits etc. are not available in Private sector staff to the same
magnitude as to that of public sector.
b. To compensate for this, pay scale should be different.
2. Loans for purchase of consumer durables should be encouraged.
For:
a. It helps the standard of living of middle class.

b. It will boost the demand for such products, which will further accelerate the growth of
such industries.
c. Smuggled and imports will also be decreased due to home production.
d. Employment will generate.
Against:
a. Ours is now a developing county and have scarcity of resources.

b. The need of the hour is to utilize our financial resources productive purposes instead of
consumption.
c. Increased inflationary in the country.
d. Savings will be come down.

3. Rupee should not devalue further
For:
a. Devaluation of home currency shakes the confidence of public.

b. People resort to investing in hard currencies are bullion to minimize their loss.
c. Devaluation of Indian rupee makes the petroleum products costly which affects the entire
economy.
Against:
a. To make the exports attractive and import costlier devaluation is a tool in the hands of
government.
b. Devaluation also pushup the cost of smuggled items and it is a check for smuggled items.
c. Value corrections are required to maintain parity.
4.Willfull default should be treated a criminal offence.
For:
a. This will result in substantial reduction in the NPAS of bank.

b. The profitability of the bank will increase.
c. There will be recycling of blocked funds.
d. This will infuse a sense of discipline in the minds of the borrowers in regard to end use
of banks valuable resources and adhering to the repayments.
Against:
a. The current provisions of SARFAESI ACT 2002, IBC 2006, IPC, Criminal cod, etc are
sufficient to take care of cheating, forgery, breech of truth, etc.
b. If the existing lines amended the customers would be reluctant to borrow from the banks.
c. Affected credit offtake as well as business of banks.

5.Banks should resort to campus recruitment for higher positions.
For:
a. The banks profitability has been coming down in view of the competition prevailing in the
industry it is necessary to bring professionals who posses knowledge and business
growth to run the industry.
b. Employment to highly qualified youth.
c. Effectively meet competition.
Against:
a. The contribution by people of experience in the banking industry over a period of time
should not be overlooked.
b. Unhealthy competition among banks.
c. Jeopardy to small banks.
6.Banks should be exempted from the operation of the limitation Act .
For:
a. It will eliminate the need for obtaining revival letters, which is a tedious and time-
consuming task.
b. More time for staff for marketing of new business.
c. Banks claims against defaulting borrowers can be enforced at any time.
Against:
a. Legal claims should be made within a reasonable time and cannot be kept alive forever.
b. Operating staff may become complacement and may not explore the normal avenues
available for recovery.

7.Trade unions should be banned.
For:
a. The world has become highly competitive and the market become volatile.
b. Labor loss, labor market have become very rigid to suit the needs of present situation of
an emerging free market.
c. Unions have been obstructive for development changes in the areas.
Against:
a. Union is a tremendous constructive force contributing to the welfare of the workers and
containing arbitrariness/inhumanness of capitalistic.
b. Industrial climate affected social partnership of labor- capitalist should be evolved for the
smooth functioning of the society.
8.Retirement age should be reduced to 55.
For:
a. This will reduce the impact of unemployment.

b. Will provide opportunities for staff for promotion.
c. It will give opportunity for enterprising staff to start new ventures.
d. Increase productivity.
Against:
a. At the age of 55 the staff would have fully matured and would be able to use their
knowledge and skills for the benefit of the bank.
b. In Indian situation the employees will be put to hardship as most of them have to
discharge their family responsibility as parents like marriage of daughters, higher
education of children, etc.
c. Shortfall of experienced employees will affect the institute.

9.Advances to priority sector should not be compulsory for banks.
For:
a. There has been a change in the mix of economic activities consequent liberalization,
globalization.
b. Banks should finance all activities which are viable, and which add to the wellbeing
economic good of the society.
c. Forced lending to such activities will make banks finance unviable activities.
d. Target lending have always affected quality of lending.
Against:
a. Banks may shy, away from financing priority sector and instead concentrate on large
advances, trade, import exports, investments, etc.
b. This will effect employment and small sized secondary, tertiary activities in the economy.
10.Downsizing of staff should be done in banks.
For:
a. The technology advancement is making the staff strength and surplus progressively.
b. Technology absorption with atmost benefits is possible only with optimum staff.
c. Staff costs as percentage of business, profits are still high in public sector banks as
compared to foreign and private banks.
Against:
a. Frequent downsizing will demoralize the staff.

b. Staff loyalty will be jeopardized.
11.Five-day week must be introduced for banks.
For:
a. Virtually no demand from business sector on Saturdays as the financial market closed
on Saturdays.
b. No hardship to the customer as anywhere anytime banking introduced.
c. Quality of personal time for bankers will improve simultaneously productivity will improve.
Against:
a. Attract adverse criticism from customers and society.

b. Miscellaneous services like lockers and remittances get affected.

12.CRR should be abolished.
For:
a. This will release additional funds to banks.
b. Increased credit offtake.
c. Increased profitability.
Against:
a. Trust and confidence of depositor in banking industry diluted.

b. RBI loss of affective tool of regulate money supply.
c. Inflation further increased.
13.Variable pay structure should be introduced in our Bank.
For :
a. Variable pay structure will ensure reward for performance and it is a motivational tool for
the hard-working employees.
b. This would improve the performance culture of an organisation.
c. To build healthy competitive working environment.
Against :
a. Considering the varied location and opportunities of the branches of our bank,
implementation of variable pay structure will result in more discouragement among the
staff.

14. Vacation policy to be strictly followed in the Bank.
For :
a. This is method of preventive vigilance and is being advocated by the regulators.

b. This would improve the work life balance of the staff.
c. Encashment of leave salary would be saved by the bank.
Against :
a. This may result in more stress to the already overstretched staff position of branches.
b. Customer service and continuity of services may take a hit.
c. Staff may not get the benefit of leave accrual to some extent.
15. Debt waiver is destroying the rural economy.
For:
a. It cripples the agriculture credit ecosystem as the credit discipline, repayment mindset
takes a direct hit. Moreover farmers are in distress not because of the organized FIs but
more so because of the money lenders.
b. This would also be an un-necessary burden of the fiscal health of the nation.
Against:
a. Relief to farmers fighting against all odds like repeated draughts, low demand etc need
to be addressed. While industrial sector is receiving so many freebies the farm sector
should not be deprived of some relief which are far and few.
16. Our Bank should not conduct Government business.
For:
a. Branches are visited by much higher number of persons and hence, high value
Personal Banking customers do not prefer to deal with us.
Against:
a. Bank earns sizeable commission on Government business.

b. The Bank enjoys floating funds on account of Government business.
c. It enables us to have access to Government employees / officials so that our P segment
business will be increased..
17.Only Agricultural graduates should be recruited to manage rural branches.
For:
a. Agricultural graduates have the necessary knowledge and skills in the fields of
agriculture and other activities related to rural development. Hence, they can be profitably
utilized to make a deeper thrust into the rural areas.
Against :
a. Agricultural and rural development depends not merely on the knowledge of technical
aspects of Agriculture. Willingness, commitment, and managerial skills are needed. Also,
persons with different academic background are desirable for a balanced growth of
institutions.
18. Maintenance of CRR should be done away with

For:
a. CRR as a reserve is required to ensure some amount of cushion for the depositors of the
Banks who have invested money in case of need. Because of CRR and SLR a run-on
the Bank can be managed to a great extent.
Against:
a. Money in CRR is idle and earns no interest for the Bank neither is gainfully utilised, where
as Banks bear the cost of this money in form of interest paid to their depositors.
b. This is a drag on the Banks

19. Payment banks are to be promoted in big way.
For:
a. Easy availability to the un-banked areas, being operated largely on mobile platform
providing easy connectivity and ability to garner the untapped savings of the masses will
be beneficial for Financial Inclusion objective.
b. Cost effective, accessible, and user-friendly solution for the Financial Inclusion objective.
Against:
a. Restricted offerings of these banks, challenge of diversity and chance of monopoly of

large corporates are threats to this experiment.
20. CSP (Customer Service Points) are to be promoted in a big way for financial
inclusion.
For:
a. To de-congest branches and to provide banking facilities at the unbanked places where
a brick and mortar bank is not profitable, CSPs are to be promoted.
b. It is a cost effective, accessible and user-friendly solution for the Financial Inclusion
objective.
Against:
a. CSPs may pose reputational risk for the Bank if they are not being monitored and
controlled properly.

21. Inefficient staff should compulsorily be retired / retrenched.
For:
a. It improves the efficiency and profitability of the Bank as well as customer service.
b. Efficient and enthusiastic staff at lower levels will get chance to get promoted to higher
positions.
Against:
a. It affects the morale of the staff.

b. It will bring in industrial conflict.
c. Large sums may have to be paid as compensation.
22. CRR should be abolished.

For:
a. This enables the Banks to have additional funds which can be profitably utilized.
Against:
a. CRR enables the Banks to meet depositor ‘s demand for cash.

b. It is an effective tool for RBI to regulate money supply, control inflation.
23. 5-day banking should be introduced.

For:
a. Bank employees are already overburdened, and more holidays enable them to get
rejuvenated.
b. This enables them to discharge their role better in their family.
c. Transactions through alternate channels are also increasing.
Against:
a. Banking industry has emerged as an important utility service for the community and
hence, banking services should be available all the time.
b. It may be difficult for the Banks to beat the competition.

24. The nationalized Banks should be privatized. 
For:
a. Customer service has deteriorated after nationalization.

b. Under private sector, better accountability would be established.
c. Management control would also be better.
Against:
a. Priority sector and weaker sections will be affected.

b. Welfare of the employees will take back seat.
25. Banks should introduce performance-linked pay for their staff.

For:
a. This will lead to better performance by each employee.

b. There will be a great improvement in customer service and business.
c. Uniform salaries have affected the desired level of productivity.
Against:
a. Productivity will be varying depending upon the technology used, training imparted,
expertise in specific areas.
b. All working conditions are not uniform for all employees.
26. Approval by RBI for Payment Banks:

For:
a. It is a tool to promote financial inclusion.

b. The more unbanked areas will be connected by payment banks.
c. Customer will have an option to open a bank account with simplified KYC and with low
transaction cost with the help of payment bank system.
Against:
a. It is a threat to the existing Public Sector Banks CASA business.

b. It will not help to the people living in unbanked area for credit penetration. It is not a
complete banking option for financial inclusion.

27. Career Development System has been launched:
For:
a. It is a tool to evaluate staff scientifically.

b. It is a process of motivating the performers.
c. It improves productivity with objectivity.
d. It eliminates human emotions in evaluation of performance.
Against:
a. It creates lot of ambiguity in performance appraisal.

b. It is not practical according to the organizational culture.
c. Grading of employees promotes division.
d. Compulsory retirement of officers on the pretext of performance evaluation is inhuman.

SITUATION ANALYSIS
SITUATION ANALYSIS
1. Mr. Amarendra new to bank willing to know about SBI YONO. He visited
Mahishmati branch to know some more details about SBI YONO. He is seeking
following information on SBI YONO from Mrs. Shivghami Special Assistant in the
bank.
Ans.1 MBPS
2. What is the version of Mobil phone Mr. Amarendra can install YONO on his mobile?
Ans. Maximum operating system requirement in case of android phone is version 5.0
above
3. Amarendra wants to open an account jointly with his wife Devasena through SBI
YONO. He is permitted to do so?
Ans. No, joint account cannot be opened through YONO
Ans. www.yonosbi.com
Ans. feedback.yono@sbi.co.in
Ans. 1800 111 101

7. If the customer wants avail Demand Loan against e-TDR what are the instructions
regarding maturity period through YONO.
Ans. Minimum residual tenor for maturity of e-TDR should be 6 month.
8. What is the minimum loan amount to avail overdraft against deposit through YONO?
Ans. Rs.25000
9. Whether Mr. Amarendra can avail an overdraft of Rs. 90000 against his e-TDR of
Rs.1.00 lac through YONO
Yes . No, he can avail OD through YONO up to Rs.75000 (with75% margin) .
10. Whether Mr. Amarendra can avail an overdraft of Rs. 90000 against his e-STDR of
Rs.1.00 lac through YONO
Yes . Yes, he can avail OD through YONO up to Rs.90000 (with10% margin)
2. Mr. Akshay Kumar (Aged 23), a class X drop out, has secured admission to a
Govt. Polytechnic Institute, Mumbai for a 2-year Electrical Technician course. The
total course fee for 2 years is Rs.1,25,000.00 and Mr. Kumar has approached our
Tilak Nagar Branch in Mumbai for an Education Loan of Rs.1,25,000 i.e. the entire
cost of study as he is unable to provide for any margin. Mr. Kumar has nothing to
offer has Security for the above loan as he is unemployed and wishes to set up
his own business after completing this course. Mr. Kumar is married and is living
with his parents in TT Nagar locality of Mumbai. As a Branch Manager how to
support to Mr.Kumar.
1. Is Mr. Kumar eligible for any of our Education Loan schemes for the above course? If
yes, please name the Scheme.
Ans. Yes in our SBI Skill Loan Scheme

2. What is the Min and Maximum loan eligible under the said scheme
Ans. Min-5000.00 Max-150000.00
3. What is the loan amount eligible to Mr. Kumar as per the scheme?
Ans. Total Project Cost- Rs.1.25 lacs
4. If loan is considered to Mr. Kumar what is the maximum repayment period allowed
to repay.
Ans. Maximum repayment period is 7 years
5. Is any margin arrangement required to contribute to Mr. Kumar
Anw. Margin Nil in SBI Skill Loan Scheme
3. ABC is a firm maintaining current account with one of our SBI Lanka Branch.
One day Proprietor Mr. Ravan visited branch along with 200 Grams of Gold and
demanding urgent gold loan for unforeseen expenses of his firm and with the
assurance to close the account immediately after season around January. Based
on the information as a Branch Head how to deal with the situation.
1. Under which Gold Loan variant Mr. Ravan request considered

Ana. SBI Gold Bullet Repayment
2. What is the LTV ratio prescribed for Gold Loans by RBI

Ans. LTV Ratio 75%

3. What is the margin stipulated in the present case
Ans. Margin in SBU Bullet Repayment Scheme- 35%
4. What is the Minimum & Maximum amount of loan in our gold loan variants
Anw. Min-Rs.20000.00 Max-Rs.20.00 lacs
5. Which of the following is testing method commonly use to verify genuineness of Gold
ornaments
1. Specific Gravity method 2. Touch Stone Method 3. Nitric Acid Test

Ans. Precious Metals Department-CC Mumbai.
7. hat will be the maximum tenor available in the present variant.

Ans. Maximum Repayment period in SBI Gold Bullet Repayment Scheme
4. Mr. Chanakya Gupta is a Cloth merchant, doing business on proprietorship and

he filled his IT returns with Rs. 3.00 lakhs, Rs.4.00 lakhs and Rs.6.00 lakhs
respectively for the last 3 years, Mr. Gupta approached for housing loan. You are
the Branch Manager of the branch, how to deal with the situation.
Ans. Whenever we accept the income of the applicant shown in the IT returns, it will be
scrutinized with the transactions in his account and in the present case the Income of 1st
year is Rs. 3.00 lakhs, 2nd year is Rs. 4.00 lakhs and whereas the 3rd year is Rs.6.00
lakhs that means a growth of 33% from 1st year to 2nd year and a growth of 50% from 2nd
year to 3rd year was shown, thus to accept 3rd year income of Rs.6.00 lakhs, the

sanctioning Authority is required to ascertain the reasons for such variation and then
consider latest IT Income amount to arrive on loan eligibility.
5. A telephone call is received from a local Jewelry shop informing that someone
purporting to be your customer Mr. Amitabh wants to purchase Gold worth Rs
90,000/- from the shop and has offered to make payment through cheque. You are
asked to confirm that the cheque when presented at the branch will be paid. Mr.
Amitabh is a valued customer and always maintains a very healthy balance in his
account. You are the Service Manager of the Branch and how will you respond in
this situation?
Ans. The bank has to act very carefully to avoid any breach of obligation to maintain
secrecy of customer ‘s a/c. As such, you should insist on talking to Mr. Amitabh and after
making some queries of a personal nature, should satisfy yourself that the person you
are talking to over the telephone is Mr. Amitabh .If your doubts about Mr. Amitabh‘s
identity have been fully allayed, his express consent for disclosure must be obtained and
thereafter the response to the Jewelry shop owner should be given in a very guarded
manner i.e., if the cheque is presented now and found in order in all respects, it will be
paid‘. Caution in such cases is essential as there are chances that the bank may not be
able to honor the cheque on account of ‗stop payment‘ by the a/c holder, a/c holder‘s
death, insanity, insolvency or serving of Garnishee/ Attachment order.
6. A customer of your branch misplaced a packet containing valuables in the

banking hall. The packet was found by an employee who handed it over to the
Branch Manager. The B.M kept the packet safely as per the procedures in Safe
Custody and also spent bank‘s money in trying to trace the true owner. After 6
months the true owner was traced but the B.M. refused to hand over the packet to
him until he paid the bank, the Safe Custody charges and the expenses incurred
by the branch in tracing him. Is the stand taken by B.M is tenable?

Ans. The finder of lost goods is treated as bailee of the goods and is therefore charged
with the responsibility of a bailee, besides the responsibility of making reasonable efforts
in finding the true owner.
The finder of lost goods also enjoys certain rights,
i. Right to retain the goods (Sec.168 of Indian Contract Act) until he receives
compensation for the money spent in preserving the goods and also the amount
spent in finding the true owner and,
ii. The right to sell (Sec. 169) when the owner refuses, upon demand, to pay the
lawful charges of the finder.
In the present situation Branch Manager is correct.
7.Sri and Smt Ram maintaining an E or S account. Smt Ram wants to draw a check
closing the account. She informs that her husband has lost his sanity. At the same
time the Branch manager receives a phone call from Mister Sriram that he has
quarrelled with his wife and hence her check should not be honoured. How would
you proceed in the matter as a branch manager?
Ans: A joint account is opened by two or more parties. It can be closed only be all the
parties acting together. Unless in the account opening form they have advised the bank
that the account can be closed at the request of one of them. Hence, the account cannot
be closed be Smt Ram.
Sri Ram’s Statement also lends credence to the disagreement between Smt Ram and
Sri Ram. The account holders must be advised that the account can be operated in
future only jointly be both of them. Smt Ram advised to proceed with the appointment of
a receiver for Sri Ram on the ground of his mental soundness. Discrete and independent
enquiries must also be made about the soundness of mind of Sri Ram. The obvious risk
of such enquiries and their delicate nature must be carefully born in mind.

8.Mr X handed over Rs 50,000 to the branch manager for issue of fixed deposit.
The branch manager issued a receipt under his seal but forging on it the signature
of the service manager. He misappropriated the amount on the due date Mr X was
advised that the receipt has been forged and as no entries had been made in the
books of the bank. The banks were not liable on it. Examine the banks contention.
Ans: Under the law governing master and servant(i.e employer & employee) if a fraud is
committed be the employee in the course of his masters business and if the employee
acts withing his actual or ostensible power /authority , then the master is liable for
damages vicariously.
In the instant case the branch manager has obviously acted within his capacity in
accepting the deposit. Hence, the bank is liable for the fraudulent act of the manager
provided Mr X is not a party to it.
9.A current account customer is unable to sign the check as he has suffered from
paralysis stroke his wife requesting funds urgently for the treatment it appears
that he may be able to signed with the left hand instead of the usual right hand .
Discuss the situation.
Ans: Obviously, the customer cannot sign in the manner in which the specimen is
recorded at the branch. An officer of the bank may be deputed to his place and the
customer thumb impression may be obtained on the check/withdrawal form. It should be
witnessed by two independent witnesses known to the bank. One of the witnesses may
be the wife and the second one is the bank officials themselves. In the long runup if the
customer is able to sign with the left hand then the specimen of his left-hand signature
may be obtained and kept on record. He can sign checks as per specimen signature.

10.You issued a Bank Guarantee for Rs. 3.00 lakhs. The applicant was an electrical
contractor, and the beneficiary was NTPC. The BG was invoked by NTPC by means
of a telegram/Email. Immediately you contacted the contractor who advised you
not to make payment, as he possessed the clearance certificate from NTPC. How
will you deal with such situation?
Ans: The beneficiary of the BG NTPC can invoke the guarantee any time before the
expiry period of lodgement of claims. Invocation can be done by Telex/Telegram/Email
also. It is not necessary for the beneficiary to satisfy the bank about the default or the
amount of actual loss suffered by him. The banks liability under BG is absolute,
independent, and exclusive of any other contract entered into by the applicant and the
beneficiary. It is therefore obligatory on the part of the bank to pay the beneficiary without
demur, the amount of BG on its invocation.
Otherwise the credibility of the bank will suffer. Hence, the amount has to be paid to
NTPC as per BG.
11.Mr & Mrs A are having a current account operated on E or S. Both of them are
going abroad and want to authorise their minor child to operate the account.
Discuss.
Ans: 1- A minor and act as an agent but he cannot act as a principal. Also, a minor can
draw, endorse, deliver and negotiate a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque so
as to bind all parties except himself as per section 26 of N.I Act.
2- Thus legally he can be appointed by Mr & Mrs A. We have to satisfy ourselves that
the minor has a legible and uniform signature, he is capable of understanding the
implications of bank transaction. Both Mr & Mrs A have to sign the banks standard
mandate letter.
3- However it is an established practice in banks not to accept such mandates in view of

the risk of overdrawing etc.

12.A company has been granted a loan of Rs 1 crore by your bank. The company
wishes to enhance the loan amount to the tune of of Rs 2 crore. Memorandum of
company restricts loan up to Rs100 lakhs only. Company got an export order and
wants money. You feel that if an additional loan for a temporary period of 6 months
given to the company may improve their profits and come out of sickness. What
will you do in the present situation?
Ans: I suggest the company to amend the memorandum of association enhancing the
borrowing powers of the company.
This amendment has to be carried out in the general body meeting of shareholders.
Till such time bank should not consider any enhancement in the loan limits.

ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Questions on Reading English Comprehension measure the ability to understand

analyze and apply information and concepts presented in the written form. All questions
are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the given passage.
Reading comprehension, therefore evaluates your ability to :
Understand words and statements in the given passage.
Understand the logical relationships between points and concepts in the given passage.
Draw inference from facts and statements in the given
passage.
Read the questions first before you read the passage.
Guidelines for answering the reading comprehension questions:
1. Read the question first before you read the passage.
2. Identify the type of passage you are reading.
3. Identify the core idea or the theme of the paragraph.
4. Look for the clues in the choices, normally the correct is the one which falls under the
theme.
5. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage itself.
6.Read the questions carefully, making sure that you understand what is being asked if
need better refer back to the passage for finding the answer
7. The choice may expand or extend the idea or contrast the idea running in the
paragraph,
8. Read all the alternatives very carefully without first reading all the alternatives, do not
assume that you have selected the best answer.
9. Many a times the last sentence of the paragraph can also provide a clue
10.Usually the correct choice will not deviate from the subject matter too much.

11.Don't jump to conclusions with fact questions using Roman numerals to identify
answer choices: - You will recognize this style of question as soon as you see it:
a. I only b. II only c.
d. I and II only
III only
e. II and III only
The catch is that, oftentimes, facts I and II will be presented very close to each other in
the passage, but fact III will be buried much further in the text. Take the time to review
and consider each fact on its own merits.
PASSAGE 1
Directions (1-8)- Read the following passage and answer the following questions based on the given
passage.
People who have been yearning for major economic reforms from the Narendra Modi government, it
seems, will have to wait to have their dreams come true. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on
Saturday presented the third round of stimulus measures to resuscitate the struggling economy, but
once again these have largely failed to live up to the initial hype around them. The previous two rounds
of the stimulus plan, presented at press conferences held by the Minister over the last few weeks,
focused primarily on reviving the automobile sector, boosting the confidence of foreign investors who
were spooked by the Budget announcements in July, and improving the health of dangerously fragile
state-owned banks by doing everything short of privatising them. This time around the focus has been
on helping out the underperforming export and real estate sectors through piecemeal fiscal reforms.
Among other things, Ms. Sitharaman announced a new tax refund scheme and greater priority sector
lending for the export sector to incentivise exports. It is expected that the new tax breaks to the exports
sector will cause a dent of up to 50,000 crore to the government's revenue. Further, external commercial
borrowing norms have been eased to make it easier for Indian real estate companies to tap funds from
abroad, and funds worth 110,000 crore have also been allocated to aid the completion of affordable
housing projects. With lack of demand and major supply-side stoppage being the primary issues facing
exports and real estate, it is doubtful whether the present measures will be enough to revive these
flailing sectors.
Overall, cutting across all three stimulus rounds announced till date, the government has been relying
almost entirely on providing fiscal relief, in the form of tax cuts coupled with a tiny amount of government
spending, to wade through what seems like a structural crisis in the economy. The hope seems to be
that these measures combined with a looser monetary policy stance adopted by the RBI will boost
spending and revive growth. This is, however, a far cry from what many expected from a government
that promised radical structural reforms when it rose to power in 2014. Without enacting any major
supply-side reforms like land and labour reforms that can raise potential growth, it is also hard to see
how greater spending can raise growth for very long. The government may believe that the present
slowdown, marked by five consecutive quarters of dropping growth, is merely a cyclical one. But given
the size of its victory in two consecutive elections, the government should aim higher by trying to push
through long-pending structural reforms that can raise India's growth trajectory to the next level.
Q1. What steps were taken by the government to revive the economy as per the given passage?
(1) Encouraging the foreign investors.

(II) Privatising the state owned banks.
(III) Resuscitating the automobile sector.
(a) Only (1)
(b) Only (IT)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (1) and (II)
(e) All (1), (II) and (III)
Q2. What would be the effect of the tax refund scheme as per the given passage?
(a) The products produced will be of inferior quality.
(b) The GDP of the country would be enhanced.
(c) The end users will have to bear the burden and will have to adjust accordingly.
(d) The government revenue would shrunk by huge margin.
(e) None of these
Q3. Which of the following reform(s) has/have the author advised in the passage?
(a) Holding elections with a quantified budget.
(b) Providing funds to the schemes like affordable housing.
(c) Growth can be increased drastically by implementing supply-side reforms.
(d) Both (b) and (c) (e) None of these
Q4. What can be inferred from the given passage?

(a) The stimulus incentives hold promise, but structural reforms are nowhere on the horizon
(b) Taking one step forward and two steps back undermines the legitimacy of policy change
(c) While RBI looks at how to create a broad-based debt market, it should lay the regulatory groundwork
(d) A Rs.50,000-crore package for housing, half funded by the Centre, is expected to rescue affordable
housing projects that haven't yet gone bust
(e) None of these
Q5. Which of the following facts strengthen the argument that the reforms presented by the government
won't suffice?
(a) The automobile sector and banking sector are still under huge debt. (b) The export sector is facing
an issue lack of supply.
(c) The prominent bottlenecks at the supply-side.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(e) None of these
Q6. Which of the statement(s) explain the exact meaning of the phrase "to wade through" as used in
the passage?
(1) The enemy waded through the power and yielded to them.
(II) The officials had to wade through pages of legal jargon before we could sign the contract.
(III) Wading through waist-high water is quite a workout.
(a) Only (1)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (1) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All of these
Q7. Which of the following words is most similar to the word "coupled" as given in the passage?

(a) married
(b) conjoined
(C) adjourned
(d) prorogued
(e) None of these
Q8. Which of the following words is most OPPOSITE to the word "affordable" as given in the passage?
(a) temperate
(b) exorbitant
(c) nominal
(d) subjugate
(e) None of these
ANSWERS:
Q.1.(c) Q.2.(d) Q.3.(c) Q.4.(a) Q.5.(d) Q.6.(d) Q.7.(b) Q.8.(b)
PASSAGE 2
passage.
There was a frog that lived in a shallow well. "Look how well off I am here " he told a big turtle from the
Eastem Ocean. "I can hop along the coping of the well when I go out, and rest by a crevice in the bricks
on my retum. I can wallow to my heart's content with only my head above water. or stroll ankle deep
through soft mud. No crabs or tadpoles can compare with me. I am master of the water and lord of this
shallow well. What more can a fellow ask ? Why don't you come here more often to have a good time
?"
Before the turtle from the Eastern Ocean could get his left foot into the well, however, he caught his
right claw on something So he halted and stepped back then began to describe the ocean to the frog.
“ It's more than a thousand miles across and more than ten thousand feet deep. In ancient times there
were floods nine years out of ten yet the water in the ocean never increased. And later there were
droughts seven years out of eight yet the water in the ocean never grew less. It has remained quite
constant throughout the ages. That is why I like to live in the Eastern Ocean. "
Then the frog in the shallow well was silent and felt a little abashed.
Q.1.Give a suitable title to the passage,
(1) The frog in the well.
(2) The frog
(3) The well
(4) Shallow well.
(5) None of these
Q.2.What do you understand by the phrase - I can wallow to my heart's content'?
(1) Rely on my heart's beating.
(2) Singing a song
(3) Listen to my heart.
(4) Rest on his assets.
(5) Not mentioned in the passage.
Q.3.Give a synonym for the word "Shallow"
(1) Vulnerable
(2) Perspicacious
(3) Deep
(4) Depth
(5) None of these
Q.4.Give an antonym for the word 'Abashed'.
(1) Bewildered
(2) Chagrined
(3) Crushed
(4) Proud
(5) Chased
Q.5.Where did the big turtle come from ?
(1) The Northern Ocean Ocean
(2) The Southern Ocean
(3) The Eastern
(4) The Western Ocean
(5) None of these
Q.6.What is the meaning of 'Crevice' in the passage?
(1) Cleft
(2) Vex
(3) Ditch
(4) Hill
(5) Mountain
Q. 7. What did the turtle tell the frog about 'The Ocean'?
(1) Its more than a hundred miles across and than eight thousand feet deep.
(2) Its more than a thousand miles across and m than ten thousand feet deep.
(3) The ocean is only twelve thousand feet deep
(4) The ocean is only twenty thousand feet long
(5) Not mentioned in the passage.
Q.8.Which of the following statement(s) is/are true context of the passage 2
(1) In ancient times there were floods nine years
out of ten.
(2) There were droughts seven years out of eight.

(3) A frog lived in a deep well.
(4) Both 1 & 2
(5) The frog lived in the Western Ocean.
ANSWERS:
Q.1.(4) Q.2.(4) Q.3.(5) Q.4.(4) Q.5.(3) Q.6.(1) Q.7.(2) Q.8.(4)
PASSAGE 3
passage. Some of the words are highlighted which would help you to answer some of the questions
given.
For the past 10 years, all exports of pulses have been banned This was presumably for food security
and price stability, But this export ban has hurt farmers, who couldn't take advantage of high prices. It
got worse, because when prices did shoot up, the government panicked and started importing at zero
duty. The imports didn't stop despite a record harvest When prices of food crops go up, the Central
government swings into action, clamping down on exports, bringing in zero-duty imports, imposing
stocking and storage limits, and so on. But when the opposite happens, that is when prices crash, often,
there is no corresponding reverse rescue. This is an example of the inherent urban bias in India's
agriculture policy, which persists to this day. Indeed, among all World Trade Organization members,
India is among a handful of countries with negative protection of agriculture.
Lastly, one more policy lesson is that pulses continue to be in the Agriculture Produce Marketing
Committee (APMC) Act. Thus farmers are not free to sell to any buyer they wish but must go through
the APMC.
Pulses are an important source of protein in India. Almost one-fifth of total acreage used to grow them.
They are also an important source of soil fertility since they provide nitrogen through fixation. Indeed,
a pulses plant is called a mini fertilizer factory. Pulses were part of the six technology missions created
in the 1980s (they were added to the oilseeds mission), to greatly enhance their production, use of
technology and processing. But despite the mission-mode approach, India is still not self-sufficient in
pulses production. And farmers continue to be at the mercy of nature, markets, pests and government
policies.
The story of pulses is repeated across various crops. In cashew, India's Kollam used to be the world's
capital, but has lost out to Vietnam due to its failure to adopt technology and due to excessive
government control. India pioneered the Green Revolution, but scores very poorly in the global hunger
index. The monolithic nationwide policies of promoting and procuring wheat and rice have ultimately
proved harmful to health,

nutrition and environment. Coarse cereals, the staple of most rural folk, were largely ignored by the
public distribution system, and are only now being introduced in the midday meal schemes.
Q.1.Why India's Kollam which used to be the world's capital has lost out to Vietnam in cashew?
(A) due to its failure to adopt technology
(B) due to excessive government control
(C) due to excessive usage of pesticides
(1) Both (A) and (B)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Both (A) and (C)
(4) Only (C)
(5) Only (A)
Q.2.Why are pulses an important source of soil fertility?
(1) they provide oxygen through fixation
(2) they provide halogen through fixation
(3) they provide sodium through fixation
(4) they provide nitrogen through fixation
(5) Both (1) and (3)
Q.3.Where according to the passage farmers continue to be at?
(1) the mercy of nature
(2) markets
(3) pests
(4) government policies
(5) All of the above
Q.4.What happens when prices of food crops go up according to the passage?
(1) the Central government swings into action

(2) clamping down on exports
(3) bringing in zero-duty import
(4) imposing stocking and storage limits
(5) All of the above
Q.5. Choose the most suitable title for the given passage!
(1) Enhancing the production
(2) Unshackle Indian agriculture
(3) Loan waiver to farmers
(4) Yet another reaction to policy-induced indebtedness
(5) Advantage of high prices
Q.6.Which of the following is not true according to the passage?
(1) The nationwide policies of procuring wheat and rice have proved harmful to health
(2) The nationwide policies of procuring wheat and rice have proved harmful to nutrition.
(3) The nationwide policies of procuring wheat and rice have proved harmful to environment.
(4) Coarse cereals, the staple of most rural folk, were largely ignored by the public distribution system.
(5) Coarse cereals are not only now being introduced in the midday meal schemes.
Q.7.Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.
ENHANCE
(1) subtle
(2) increase
(3) diminish
(4) fervid
(5) flourish

Q.8.Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.
FERTILITY
(1) flexibility
(2) sterility
(3) credibility
(4) ability
(5) nudity
ANSWERS:
Q.1.(1) Q.2.(4) Q.3.(5) Q.4.(5) Q.5.(2) Q.6.(5) Q.7.(3) Q.8.(2)
PASSAGE 4
given.
Frustration is a global cancer. It has spared no country. In some countries, frustration exists because
these countries are populated by 'have nots'. In other countries which are populated by 'haves'.
Frustration is among them also because they do have as far as India is concerned its education system
is breeding more and more frustration among both students and teachers. And yet no one seems too
clear about what can be done to make it more meaningful. Many reforms have been discussed length
but have come to nothing for one reason or another. The authorities are now peddling the idea of
autonomous colleges as a means of toning up teaching standards. They argue that by allowing certain
colleges to introduce their own courses, hold seminars, and above all, to evolve their own method of
assessing students, students will get a far better deal. Indeed, they make out that such colleges will
have free hand in nearly every thing except granting degrees. In theory all this sounds, attractive
enough. But there is little to show that the managements concerned are keen on such reforms. Even
today, nothing prevents a college from inviting guest speakers on specialized subjects or holding
courses in English for term vernacular students., But not a single one of those who are now clamouring
for autonomy has bothered to do so. It is no secret that colleges which may be 'Freed to an extent from
university control are highest : In Mumbai, for example, there is big cultural gulf between city colleges
and Jordon degree of autonomy, it will only heightened this disparity.
The answer to the vexed problem of declining standards in higher education does not lie in encouraging
the growth of model institutions, but in improving overall standards. This is of course easier said than
done, since more and more young people are seeking degrees. The only solution, however unpalatable
it may sound, is drastically to reduce the number of those who are admitted to colleges. Even though
there is political pressure on many state governments to build new colleges and to reserve more seats
for backward classes, it will be sheer folly to expand such facilities recklessly without giving any thought
to the quality of education imparted. If admissions are made far more selective, it will automatically
reduce the number of entrants. This should apply particularly to new colleges, many of which are little
more than degree factories. Only then can the authorities hope to bring down the teacher-student ratio
to manageable proportions. What is more, teachers should be given refresher courses every summer
vacation to brush up their knowledge. Besides, if college managements increase the library budget it
will help both staff and students a great deal. At the same time, however, it will be unfair to deny college
education to thousands of young men and women unless employers stop insisting on degrees even for
clerical jobs. For a start, why can't the Government disqualify graduates from securing certain jobs say,
Class III and IV posts? Once the degrees are delinked from jobs, at least in some important
departments it will make many young people think twice before joining college.
Q.1.The author's chief concern seems to be
(1) Frustration among students
(2) Spread of college education
(3) Standard of education.
(4) Autonomy to colleges.
(5) Delinking of degrees.
Q.2.The author's attitude is-
(1) Cynical
(2) Optimistic
(3) Critical
(4) Conservative
(5) Constructive
Q.3.What according to the passage, would be the result of granting autonomy to some colleges?
(1) The teacher student ratio will come down.
(2) Disparity between city and suburban colleges will increase.
(3) Colleges will multiply.
(4) Some colleges would start selling degrees.
(5) All of the above.

Q.4.Which of the following is the most significant feature of the scheme of autonomous colleges,
according to the passage?
(1) They can introduce new courses.
(2) They can hold seminars.
(3) They can evolve their method of assessment.
(4) They can award degrees.
(5) They can make admissions without restrictions
Q.5.To which of the following does the author give precedence?
(1) Increasing library facilities.
(2) Holding refresher courses for teachers.
(3) Abolishing reservation for backward classes
(4) Stop opening of new colleges
(5) Instituting entrance examinations.
Q.6.Where has the author slipped while making suggestions?
(1) The teacher-student ratio be brought down
(2) Improvement should not be restricted to select institutions
(3) College teachers need refresher courses.
(4) Political pressures should be withstood.
(5) None of these
Q.7.Frustration in the world is a result of which of the following?
(a) Large number of 'Haves'
(b) Large number of Have-nots'.
(c) Cancerous cells.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(5) None of these
Q.8.Which of the following is the main difficulty according to the passage, in the way of improving
standards?
(1) Paucity of library facilities.
(2) Paucity of Funds.
(3) Ever increasing number of young men wanting degrees.
(4) Grant of autonomy to colleges.
(5) Absence of refresher courses.
ANSWERS:
Q.1.(3) Q.2.(5) Q.3.(2) Q.4.(3) Q.5.(4) Q.6.(4) Q.7.(4) Q.8.(3)
PASSAGE 5
given.
The President of the USA, Barack Hussain Obama will be on his maiden visit to India. That a President
of the USA is visiting India in his first term, within the first 24 months of his tenure, undoubtedly denotes
the position India occupies in the American foreign policy calculus. It is also an indicator that the
relationship between the world's two largest democracies is on a strong footing. India and United states
politically and economically play a significant role in global arena While the US is the world's strongest
democracy, India is the largest Similarly, while the US is the world's largest economy, India is the
second fastest growing major economy. The US is India's largest export destination and also one of
the leading foreign investors in India. Further, with the Indian economy estimated to grow to 90% of the
US economy by 2050. The growing Indo -US relationship will be a decisive force shaping the contours
of the world economy in 21 century.
In a move to further improve economic relations, both countries had two rounds of exploratory talks in
the first half of the 2008 on the proposed Bilateral Investment Treaty, and decided to start formal
negotiations soon. The proposed agreement would enable certification of Indian aviation and
aeronautic products by the US authorities. Further more India and US will also be soon signing the
Totalization agreement to promote Indo-US cooperation on social security. The agreement will be
between the US social security administration and the Indian Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs. India
with more than one billion citizens is often characterized as a nascent major power and Natural Partner'
of the United States one, that many analysts view as potential
counterweight to China's growing clout.
Q.1.Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(1) India and China will also be soon signing the Totalisation Agreement
(2) The visit of the president denotes the position India occupies in American foreign policy calculus.
(3) The U.S. is India's largest export destination and also one of the leading foreign investors in India.
(4) Both 2 and 3
(5) None of these
Q.2.Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT TRUE in context to the passage for the country
'India"?
(1) India is the fastest growing major economy.
(2) India is the largest democratic country.
(3) India is characterized as a nascent major power of the U.S.
(4) India is the second fastest growing major economy.
(5) Both 1 and 4
Q.3.Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE in context to the passage?
(1) The United States plays a significant role in global arena but not India.
(2) The President of the U.S.A. is visiting India in his first term within the first 24 months of his tenure.
(3) The United States is the World's strongest democracy and India is the largest.
(4) All 1, 2 and 3
(5) Both 2 and 3

Q.4-7. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used
in the passage,
Q.4.Nascent
(1) Existing
(2) Latest
(3) Recent
(4) New
(5) Blossoming
Q.6.Maiden
(1) Latest
(2) First
(3) Last
(4) Recent
(5) Foremost
Q.7.Proposed
(1) Calculated
(2) Considered
(3) Purpose
(4) Envisage
(5) Designed
Q.7.Footing
(1) Angle
(2) View
(3) Walk
(4) Structure

(5) Period
Q.8. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in the meaning as the word ‘Characterised’
(1) Characterised
(2) Portray
(3) Felt
(4) Wanted
(5) Expected
ANSWERS:
Q.1.(4) Q.2.(1) Q.3.(5) Q.4.(5) Q.5.(2) Q.6.(2) Q.7.(1) Q.8.(1)
PASSAGE 6
given.
Comfort is now one of the causes of its own spread. It has now become a physical habit, a fashion, an
ideal to be pursued for its own sake. The more comfort is brought into the world, the more it is likely to
be valued. To those who have known comfort, discomfort is a real torture. The fashion which now
decrees the worship of comfort is quite as imperious as any other fashion. Moreover, enormous material
interests are bound up with the supply of the means of comfort. The manufacturers of furniture, of
heating apparatus, of plumbing fixtures cannot afford to let the love of comfort die. In modern
advertisements they have found a means for compelling it to live and grow.
A man of means today, who builds a house, is in general concerned primarily with the comfort of his
future residence. He will spend a great deal of money on bathrooms, heating apparatus, padded
furnishings, and having spent he will regard re his house as perfect. His counter part in an earlier age
would have been primarily concerned with the impressiveness and magnificence of his dwelling with
beauty, in a word, rather than comfort. The money our contemporary would spend on baths and central
heating would have been spent on marble staircases, frescoes, pictures and statues. I am inclined to
think that our present passion for comfort is a little exaggerated. Though I personally enjoy comfort, I
have lived most happily in houses devoid of everything that Anglo-Saxons deem indispensable,
Orientals and even South Europeans who know not comfort and live very much as our ancestors did
centuries ago seem to go on very well without our elaborate apparatus and padded luxuries However,
comfort for me has a justification: it facilitates mental life. Discomfort handicaps thought; it is difficult to
use the mind when they body is cold and aching.
Q.1.Choose the word that is SIMILAR in meaning to the phrase devoid of as used in the passage
(1) available
(2) lacking
(3) empty
(4) false
(5) deficient
Q.2. How do people manage to keep the love of comfort a live
(1) By pumping in more comfort goods in the market
(2) By sacrificing high profit on comfort goods
(3) By targeting youths in the sales campaign
(4) By appealing to the emotionality of people
(5) None of these
Q.3. What is the author's prediction about comfort?
(1) The value of comfort will increase
(2) People will value more spirituality thus reducing the value of comfort.
(3) People will desire simple lifestyle
(4) The advertisements will play down the comfort aspect of goods
(5) None of these
Q.4. What was the characteristic of affluent men of an earlier age?
(1) He used to put higher premium on comfort.
(2) He was relying much on advertisements.
(3) He believed more in simple and cheaper things.
(4) He was more qualitative in his emphasis rather than being quantitative
(5) His emphasis was on beauty.
Q.5.What change according to the author has taken place in the altitude towards comfort?

(1) It is taken for granted in the modern way of living.
(2) It has become now an ideal to be pursued for its own sake,
(3) It is now believed that discomfort handicaps thought

(4) It is thought that comfort helps body and mind to function effectively.
(5) None of these
Q.6.Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'decree' as used in the passage.
(1) order
(2) spread
(3) project
(4) attract
(5) exhibit
Q.7. Why does the author value comfort?
(1) It helps to project one's image.
(2) It helps to protect your values.
(3) It facilitates mental life.
(4) It encourages a blend of materialistic and spiritual thinking
(5) None of these
Q.8. Why would manufacturers of various devices not permit comfort to die?
(1) They want to manufacture more and more comfort goods.
(2) Manufacturers are mainly interested in creating new things.
(3) Manufacturers' emphasis is on producing beautiful things.
(4) Their prosperity is closely linked with the people's desire for comfort.
(5) None of these
ANSWERS:

Q.1.(2) Q.2.(1) Q.3.(1) Q.4.(5) Q.5.(5) Q.6.(1) Q.7.(3) Q.8.(4)
PASSAGE 7
passage.
Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a Professor of Physics. At an early
age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for learning prompted
her to continue with her studies after high school. She became disgruntled, however, when she learned
that the university in Warsaw was closed to women. Determined to receive higher education, she
defiantly left Poland and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a French university, where she earned her
master's degree and doctorate in Physics.
Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists of her day,
one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and spent many productive
years working together in the physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was
killed by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured
heartbreaking anguish. Despondently she recalled their close relationship and the joy that they had
shared in scientific research. The fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself greatly
increased her distress.
Curie's feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her husband as a
physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at the world-
famous university. In 1911 she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although
Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she never became
disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science
and to revealing the mysteries of the physical world.
Q.1. Marie had a bright mind and a ____ personality.
(A) Strong
(B) lighthearted
(C) Humorous
(D) Strange
Q.2. When she learned that she could not attend the university in Warsaw, she felt .
(A) Hopeless
(B) Annoyed

(C) Depressed
(D) Worried
Q.3. Marie ____by leaving Poland and travelling to France to enter the Sorbonne.
(A) Challenged authority
(B) Showed intelligence
(C) Behaved
(D) Was distressed
Q.4 _____she remembered their joy together.
(A) Dejectedly
(B) Worried
(C) Tearfully
(D) Happily
Q.5 Her ____ began to fade when she returned to the Sorbonne to succeed her husband.
(A) Misfortune
(B) Anger
(C) Wretchedness
(D) Disappointment
Q.6 Even though she became fatally ill from working with radium, Marie Curie was never ___.
(A) Troubled
(B) Worried
(C) Disappointed
(D) Sorrowful
ANSWERS:
Q.1.(b) Q.2.(b) Q.3.(a) Q.4.(a) Q.5.(c) Q.6.(c)

PASSAGE 8
passage.
In the sixteenth century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand Magellan led the
first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal,
but he became involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court and lost the king's favor. After he
was dismissed from service to the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V
of Spain. A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50 degrees longitude
to Spain and all the land east of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell
under Spanish authority. On September 20, 1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships. More
than a year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America in search of a
water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the
southern peninsula of South America. Finally they found the passage they sought near a latitude of 50
degrees S. Magellan named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today we know it as the Strait of
Magellan. One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were
privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained crossed the
meridian we now call the International Date Line in the early spring of 1521 after ninety-eight days on
the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of Magellan's men died of starvation and
disease. Later Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed in a
tribal battle. Only one ship and seventeen sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano
survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is
round, with no precipice at the edge.
Q.1.The sixteenth century was an age of great ___exploration.
A. cosmic
B. land
C. mental
D. common man
E. none of the above
Q.2. Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he became involved in a political ___.
A. entanglement
B. discussion
C. negotiation
D. problems
Q.3. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and Portugal according to their location on one
side or the other of an imaginary geographical line 50 degrees west of Greenwich that extends in a ___
direction.
A. north and south
B. crosswise
C. easterly
D. south east
E. north and west
Q.4. One of Magellan's ships explored the ___ of South America for a passage across the continent.
A. coastline
B. mountain range
C. physical features
D. islands
Q.5. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern ___.
A. coast
B. inland
C. body of land with water on three sides
D. border
E. answer not available
Q.6. The passage was found near 50 degrees S of ___.
A. Greenwich
B. The equator
C. Spain
D. Portugal
E. Madrid

Q.7. In the spring of 1521, the ships crossed the ___ now called the International Date Line.
A. imaginary circle passing through the poles
B. Imaginary line parallel to the equator
C. area
D. land mass
E. answer not found in article
ANSWERS:
Q.1.(b) Q.2.(a) Q.3.(a) Q.4.(c) Q.5.(c) Q.6.(b) Q.7(a)

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SBILD_AKOLA_SBILD_AKOLA_SBILD_A

MESSAGE FROM CHIEF GENERAL MANAGER & HEAD (STU)

“Intelligence without ambition is a bird without wings.”

With Best Wishes,

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 3

It brings me extreme pleasure in introducing the new initiative of SBILD Akola

I wish you all the best in your future endeavours.

DEEPAK KUMAR LALLA

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 4

I am delighted to introduce the “MASTER STROKE”, by Shri Madhusudan P Citewar, a

resources while preparing for the promotion examinations.

I wish you all the success in your future endeavours.

ALOK KUMAR CHATURVEDI

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 5

From the Desk of Director

With Best Wishes to all!

Director, SBILD Akola

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 6

I acknowledge my deep gratitude towards my Director, DGM (B&O), Regional Managers

Chief Manager, Faculty

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 7

PROMOTION EXERCISE EXAMINATION DATE SESSION

2 09.01.2021 (2nd Morning

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 8

SECTION: II (Qualifying marks 50% For General & 45% For

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 9

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 10

STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER FOR PROMOTION TO MMGS-II as per

Sr.NO OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS No. of Marks per Max. Time

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 11

STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER FOR PROMOTION TO MMGS-III as per

Sr.NO OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS No. of Marks per Max. Time

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 12

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

S.NO TOPICS PAGE NO

1 SBI HISTORY, ORGANISATION, POLICY 14-25

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 13

1. Imperial Bank of India was renamed as State Bank of India on

2. With the recommendations of ________through passing of an Act in parliament, Imperial Bank of

d. All India Rural Credit Survey Committee (Gorawala Committee)

3. SBI ‘s Corporate Office located at

4. Corporate Centre is headed by

a. Managing Director b. Chief Executive Officer

5. Circles are headed by

a. Managing Director b. Deputy Managing Director

c. General Manager d. Chief General Manager

Master Stroke_ SBILD Akola 15

a) 3,6 b) 4,10 c) 2,12 d) 4,14

7. FI&MM Vertical is located at ---and is headed by –

a. Mumbai, Managing Director b. Mumbai, Chairman

8. CENMAC (Central Office Management Committee) of our Bank consists of…

a. Chairman, MDs, DMDs b. Chairman, MDs

c. Finance Secretary, Chairman, MDs d. Chairman, MDs, DMDs, CGMs

9. Circle Management Committee (CMC) is headed by …

a. Deputy Managing Director b. General Manager

c. Chief General Manager d. Chief Financial Officer

10. Executive Committee of the Central Board (ECCB) is headed by …

a. Managing Director b. Chairman