Sure, here's a quiz about catheterization:

1. What is the primary purpose of catheterization?

a) To administer medications directly into the bloodstream
b) To monitor blood pressure continuously
c) To drain urine from the bladder
d) To measure oxygen saturation levels

2. Which type of catheter is commonly used for short-term urinary drainage?

a) Foley catheter
b) Suprapubic catheter
c) Condom catheter
d) Intermittent catheter

3. What is the most significant risk associated with indwelling urinary catheters?
a) Urinary tract infections
b) Blood clots
c) Kidney stones
d) Bladder cancer

4. Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of catheterization?

a) Hematuria (blood in the urine)
b) Urinary retention
c) Urethral injury
d) Decreased risk of urinary tract infections

5. How often should catheter care be performed to prevent urinary tract infections?
a) Once a day
b) Twice a week
c) Every four hours
d) As needed

6. Which of the following is NOT a step in the proper technique for catheter insertion?
a) Cleaning the urethral area with antiseptic solution
b) Using sterile gloves during insertion
c) Applying lubricant to the catheter before insertion
d) Reusing the same catheter for multiple insertions

7. When should a catheter be removed?

a) Only when the patient requests it
b) When the patient is transferred to a different unit
c) As soon as it is no longer medically necessary
d) After it has been in place for at least 14 days

8. Which of the following is a sign of catheter-related complications?

a) Decreased urine output
 b) Increased urine output
c) Clear urine color
d) No discomfort during urination

Answers:
1. c) To drain urine from the bladder
2. a) Foley catheter
3. a) Urinary tract infections
4. d) Decreased risk of urinary tract infections
5. c) Every four hours
6. d) Reusing the same catheter for multiple insertions
7. c) As soon as it is no longer medically necessary
8. a) Decreased urine output
Certainly! Here's a 50-question multiple-choice quiz on blood transfusions:

1. What is a blood transfusion?

a) The process of donating blood
b) The process of receiving blood or blood products into one's circulation
c) The process of testing blood for compatibility
d) The process of filtering blood for contaminants

2. Who is credited with performing the first successful blood transfusion?

a) William Harvey
b) William Hewson
c) James Blundell
d) Karl Landsteiner

3. What are the main components of blood?

a) Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
b) Plasma, hemoglobin, and antigens
c) Hemoglobin, antibodies, and electrolytes
d) Plasma, red blood cells, and platelets

4. Which blood component is primarily responsible for carrying oxygen?

a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Plasma

5. What is the most common type of blood transfusion?

a) Whole blood transfusion
b) Platelet transfusion
c) Plasma transfusion
d) Packed red blood cell transfusion

6. What is the Rh factor in blood typing?

 a) A type of white blood cell
b) An antigen found on red blood cells
c) A type of plasma protein
d) A genetic marker for blood type

7. How many major blood groups are there in the ABO blood group system?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

8. What are the four main blood types in the ABO blood group system?
a) A, B, O, AB
b) X, Y, Z, W
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) C, D, E, F

9. What blood type is considered the universal donor?

a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O

10. What blood type is considered the universal recipient?

a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O

11. What is cross-matching in blood transfusions?

a) Matching the blood type of the donor and recipient
b) Testing for compatibility between donor and recipient blood
c) Analyzing blood for infectious diseases
d) Determining the volume of blood needed for transfusion

12. What is the purpose of cross-matching?

a) To ensure the blood is free of contaminants
b) To determine the Rh factor of the blood
c) To prevent transfusion reactions
d) To identify the blood type of the donor

13. What are the potential risks of blood transfusions?

a) Infection, allergic reactions, and transfusion reactions
b) Fever, fatigue, and dizziness
c) Bruising, swelling, and redness at the injection site
d) Blood clots, anemia, and high blood pressure
14. What is a blood transfusion reaction?
a) A positive outcome of a blood transfusion
b) A negative response to a blood transfusion
c) A routine side effect of a blood transfusion
d) A symptom of an underlying medical condition

15. What are the symptoms of a blood transfusion reaction?

a) Fever, chills, shortness of breath
b) Headache, nausea, dizziness
c) Itching, rash, swelling
d) All of the above

16. How are blood transfusion reactions classified?

a) By severity and type of symptoms
b) By age and gender of the recipient
c) By the volume of blood transfused
d) By the type of blood product used

17. What is hemolytic transfusion reaction?

a) A reaction caused by a mismatch in blood types
b) A reaction caused by a virus transmitted through blood
c) A reaction caused by an allergic response to blood products
d) A reaction caused by excessive bleeding during a transfusion

18. How is hemolytic transfusion reaction treated?

a) With antihistamines
b) With antibiotics
c) With corticosteroids
d) With immediate discontinuation of the transfusion and supportive care

19. What is transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)?

a) A type of infection transmitted through blood transfusions
b) A severe allergic reaction to blood products
c) A reaction characterized by sudden respiratory distress after a transfusion
d) A condition where the blood fails to clot properly after transfusion

20. What are the symptoms of TRALI?

a) Fever, chills, headache
b) Chest pain, difficulty breathing, rapid heart rate
c) Itching, rash, hives
d) Fatigue, weakness, dizziness

21. What is transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)?

a) A condition where blood fails to circulate properly after transfusion
b) A condition where the blood vessels constrict during transfusion
 c) A reaction characterized by sudden drops in blood pressure after transfusion
d) A condition where fluid overload occurs during or after a transfusion

22. How is TACO treated?

a) With diuretics
b) With antihypertensive medication
c) With blood thinners
d) With immediate cessation of the transfusion and supportive care

23. What is febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)?

a) A reaction characterized by fever, but not involving red blood cell destruction
b) A reaction characterized by sudden drops in blood pressure
c) A severe allergic reaction to blood products
d) A reaction characterized by sudden respiratory distress

24. What is allergic transfusion reaction?

a) A reaction characterized by an immune response to plasma proteins in donor blood
b) A reaction characterized by an immune response to red blood cells in donor blood
c) A reaction characterized by excessive bleeding during a transfusion
d) A reaction characterized by sudden respiratory distress

25. How is allergic transfusion reaction treated?

a) With antihistamines
b) With antibiotics
c) With corticosteroids
d) With immediate discontinuation of the transfusion and supportive care

26. What is transfusion-transmitted infection?

a) A reaction characterized by an immune response to bacteria in donor blood
b) A reaction characterized by an immune response to viruses in donor blood
c) A reaction characterized by an immune response to fungi in donor blood
d) A reaction characterized by an immune response to parasites in donor blood

27. What are some common transfusion-transmitted infections?

a) HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C
b) Influenza, pneumonia, tuberculosis
c) Malaria, dengue fever, Zika virus
d) E. coli, salmonella, streptococcus

28. How can transfusion

-transmitted infections be prevented?

a) Through screening of donated blood
b) Through sterilization of blood products
c) Through leukoreduction
d) Through irradiation of blood
29. What is autologous blood transfusion?
a) A transfusion where the donor and recipient are the same person
b) A transfusion where blood is donated by a family member
c) A transfusion where blood is donated by a volunteer donor
d) A transfusion where blood is donated by a paid donor

30. What is directed blood donation?

a) A transfusion where blood is donated anonymously
b) A transfusion where blood is donated by a specific person for a specific recipient
c) A transfusion where blood is donated by a family member
d) A transfusion where blood is donated by a volunteer donor

31. What are the advantages of autologous blood transfusion?

a) Reduced risk of transfusion reactions
b) Increased availability of blood products
c) Lower cost of blood transfusions
d) Faster recovery times for recipients

32. What is intraoperative blood salvage?

a) The process of salvaging blood lost during surgery for reuse in the same patient
b) The process of salvaging blood lost during surgery for use in other patients
c) The process of salvaging blood from a deceased donor for use in surgeries
d) The process of salvaging blood from a living donor for use in surgeries

33. What is apheresis?

a) The process of separating blood components using a machine
b) The process of mixing different blood types
c) The process of storing blood for transfusion
d) The process of administering blood to a patient

34. How is apheresis used in blood transfusions?

a) To collect specific blood components from a donor
b) To test for compatibility between donor and recipient blood
c) To prevent transfusion reactions
d) To identify the blood type of the donor

35. What are the benefits of apheresis?

a) It allows for targeted collection of specific blood components
b) It reduces the risk of transfusion reactions
c) It increases the availability of blood products
d) All of the above

36. What is the difference between packed red blood cells (PRBCs) and whole blood
transfusion?
a) PRBCs contain only red blood cells, while whole blood contains all blood components
 b) PRBCs contain plasma, while whole blood does not
c) Whole blood is only used in emergencies, while PRBCs are used for chronic conditions
d) Whole blood is only used for certain blood types, while PRBCs can be used for any blood
type

37. What is platelet transfusion used for?

a) To increase red blood cell count
b) To increase platelet count
c) To increase white blood cell count
d) To increase plasma volume

38. What is plasma transfusion used for?

a) To increase red blood cell count
b) To increase platelet count
c) To increase white blood cell count
d) To increase plasma volume

39. What is cryoprecipitate transfusion used for?

a) To increase red blood cell count
b) To increase platelet count
c) To increase clotting factors
d) To increase plasma volume

40. What is irradiated blood?

a) Blood exposed to radiation to kill pathogens
b) Blood treated with antibiotics
c) Blood filtered to remove contaminants
d) Blood tested for compatibility

41. When is irradiated blood used?

a) For patients with weakened immune systems
b) For patients with high blood pressure
c) For patients with low hemoglobin levels
d) For patients with low platelet counts

42. What is leukoreduction?

a) The removal of white blood cells from donated blood
b) The removal of red blood cells from donated blood
c) The removal of platelets from donated blood
d) The removal of plasma from donated blood

43. Why is leukoreduction performed?

a) To decrease the risk of transfusion reactions
b) To increase the shelf life of blood products
c) To decrease the cost of blood transfusions
d) To increase the volume of blood available for transfusion
44. What is the maximum storage duration for packed red blood cells?
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 28 days
d) 35 days

45. How is blood typing performed?

a) Through a physical examination
b) Through a laboratory test
c) Through a questionnaire
d) Through a medical history review

46. What is the Coombs test?

a) A test to determine blood type
b) A test to detect antibodies on red blood cells
c) A test to measure hemoglobin levels
d) A test to detect infectious diseases

47. What is the purpose of the Coombs test in blood transfusions?

a) To determine blood type
b) To detect antibodies on red blood cells
c) To measure hemoglobin levels
d) To detect infectious diseases

48. What are some alternative strategies to blood transfusions?

a) Intraoperative blood salvage, apheresis, autologous blood transfusion
b) Bloodletting, blood thinners, blood volume expanders
c) Leukoreduction, irradiation, directed blood donation
d) Platelet transfusion, plasma transfusion, cryoprecipitate transfusion

49. What are the ethical considerations surrounding blood transfusions?

a) Religious beliefs, informed consent, patient autonomy
b) Blood compatibility, blood safety, blood storage
c) Blood shortages, blood donations, blood substitutes
d) Blood transfusion reactions, blood transfusion policies, blood transfusion costs

50. Which of the following is NOT a potential risk of blood transfusions?

a) Infection
b) Allergic reactions
c) Enhanced immune response
d) Increased blood volume
Certainly! Here's the answer key for the multiple-choice quiz on blood transfusions:

1. b) The process of receiving blood or blood products into one's circulation

2. c) James Blundell
3. a) Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
4. a) Red blood cells
5. d) Packed red blood cell transfusion
6. b) An antigen found on red blood cells
7. b) 3
8. a) A, B, O, AB
9. d) O
10. c) AB
11. b) Testing for compatibility between donor and recipient blood
12. c) To prevent transfusion reactions
13. a) Infection, allergic reactions, and transfusion reactions
14. b) A negative response to a blood transfusion
15. d) All of the above
16. a) By severity and type of symptoms
17. a) A reaction caused by a mismatch in blood types
18. d) With immediate discontinuation of the transfusion and supportive care
19. c) A reaction characterized by sudden respiratory distress after a transfusion
20. b) Chest pain, difficulty breathing, rapid heart rate
21. d) A condition where fluid overload occurs during or after a transfusion
22. a) With diuretics
23. a) A reaction characterized by fever, but not involving red blood cell destruction
24. a) A reaction characterized by an immune response to plasma proteins in donor blood
25. a) With antihistamines
26. b) A reaction characterized by an immune response to viruses in donor blood
27. a) HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C
28. a) Through screening of donated blood
29. a) A transfusion where the donor and recipient are the same person
30. b) A transfusion where blood is donated by a specific person for a specific recipient
31. a) Reduced risk of transfusion reactions
32. a) The process of separating blood components using a machine
33. a) To collect specific blood components from a donor
34. d) All of the above
35. a) PRBCs contain only red blood cells, while whole blood contains all blood components
36. b) To increase platelet count
37. d) To increase plasma volume
38. c) To increase clotting factors
39. a) Blood exposed to radiation to kill pathogens
40. a) For patients with weakened immune systems
41. a) The removal of white blood cells from donated blood
42. a) To decrease the risk of transfusion reactions
43. c) 28 days
44. b) Through a laboratory test
45. b) A test to detect antibodies on red blood cells
46. d) Intraoperative blood salvage, apheresis, autologous blood transfusion
47. a) Religious beliefs, informed consent, patient autonomy
48. c) Enhanced immune response
Quiz: Medication Administration

1. What is the recommended technique for administering eye drops?

A) Hold the dropper 2-3 cm above the conjunctival sac.
B) Place the dropper directly on the cornea.
C) Hold the dropper 1-2 cm above the conjunctival sac.
D) Administer the drops while the patient's eyes are closed.

2. Which of the following is NOT a method for administering medication topically?

A) Skin applications
B) Nasal spray
C) Ear instillation
D) Suppositories

3. How should a patient be positioned for ear instillation?

A) Prone position
B) Sitting upright with the head tilted to the side
C) Supine position
D) Standing with the head tilted back

4. What should be done before administering medication through inhalation using a spacer
device?
A) Have the patient inhale deeply before exhaling.
B) Close the mouth around the mouthpiece without exhaling.
C) Instruct the patient to exhale completely before inhaling.
D) Shake the inhaler vigorously before use.

5. Which of the following is NOT a method of medication administration through the skin?
A) Use of gloves or applicators
B) Thickness of application
C) Transdermal patch
D) Inhalation

Answer Key:
1. C) Hold the dropper 1-2 cm above the conjunctival sac.
2. B) Nasal spray
3. B) Sitting upright with the head tilted to the side
4. C) Instruct the patient to exhale completely before inhaling.
5. D) Inhalation
Quiz: Advanced Oxygen Administration for Nurses

1. Which of the following is NOT a method of oxygen delivery?

A) Nasal cannula
B) Simple face mask
C) Oxygen tent
D) Oral administration
2. What is the primary advantage of using a high-flow nasal cannula over a standard nasal
cannula for oxygen delivery?
A) Increased comfort for the patient
B) Higher oxygen concentration
C) Reduced risk of nasal dryness and irritation
D) Ability to deliver higher flow rates and FiO2 levels

3. Which of the following oxygen delivery devices is suitable for delivering precise FiO2 levels,
typically ranging from 24% to 100%?
A) Venturi mask
B) Partial rebreather mask
C) Non-rebreather mask
D) Tracheostomy collar

4. What is the recommended flow rate range for oxygen administration via a Venturi mask?
A) 1-2 L/min
B) 4-6 L/min
C) 8-10 L/min
D) 12-15 L/min

5. In which scenario would the use of a non-rebreather mask be contraindicated?

A) Patient experiencing acute respiratory distress
B) Patient requiring high FiO2 levels
C) Patient with a history of carbon dioxide retention
D) Patient undergoing postoperative monitoring

Answer Key:
1. D) Oral administration
2. D) Ability to deliver higher flow rates and FiO2 levels
3. A) Venturi mask
4. B) 4-6 L/min
5. C) Patient with a history of carbon dioxide retention
Quiz: Advanced GI/GU (Gastrointestinal/Genitourinary) Nursing

1. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of gastrointestinal bleeding?

A) Hematemesis
B) Melena
C) Dysuria
D) Hematochezia

2. What is the primary diagnostic test used to assess the function and structure of the kidneys?
A) Complete blood count (CBC)
B) Urinalysis
C) Renal ultrasound
D) Serum creatinine test
3. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
A) Polyuria
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypotension
D) Decreased urine output

4. What is the primary goal of dietary management for patients with chronic kidney disease
(CKD)?
A) Restriction of protein intake
B) Limitation of fluid intake
C) Promotion of high-potassium foods
D) Increase in sodium consumption

5. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for a patient with

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A) Encourage the patient to lie down immediately after meals.
B) Administer antacids before meals and at bedtime.
C) Limit the intake of fiber-rich foods.
D) Avoid elevating the head of the bed during sleep.

Answer Key:
1. C) Dysuria
2. C) Renal ultrasound
3. D) Decreased urine output
4. A) Restriction of protein intake
5. B) Administer antacids before meals and at bedtime.
Quiz: Advanced Sterile Technique and Dressings

1. Which of the following is NOT a key principle of sterile technique?

A) Avoiding contamination of sterile areas and items
B) Minimizing the duration of exposure to air
C) Maintaining a sterile field above waist level
D) Using sterile gloves and sterile instruments appropriately

2. When applying a sterile dressing, what is the proper technique for removing the old dressing?
A) Gently peel the dressing away from the wound in a single motion.
B) Use forceps to lift the dressing away from the wound.
C) Apply pressure to the wound while removing the dressing.
D) Cut the dressing away from the wound using sterile scissors.

3. What is the primary purpose of a transparent film dressing?

A) To absorb wound exudate
B) To provide a barrier against microorganisms
C) To maintain a moist wound environment
D) To promote autolytic debridement
4. Which of the following wound types is best suited for the use of a hydrocolloid dressing?
A) Dry, necrotic wounds
B) Infected wounds with heavy exudate
C) Partial-thickness wounds with minimal exudate
D) Full-thickness wounds with exposed bone or tendon

5. What is the recommended method for securing a sterile dressing in place?

A) Using non-breathable tape directly on the wound
B) Applying a single layer of gauze over the dressing
C) Tying a knot in the dressing material
D) Using adhesive tape or a self-adherent wrap

Answer Key:
1. C) Maintaining a sterile field above waist level
2. A) Gently peel the dressing away from the wound in a single motion.
3. C) To maintain a moist wound environment
4. C) Partial-thickness wounds with minimal exudate
5. D) Using adhesive tape or a self-adherent wrap
Quiz: Advanced Sterile Technique and Dressings

1. Which of the following actions would compromise sterile technique during a dressing change?
A) Touching the outer surface of the sterile dressing package with sterile gloves
B) Placing the sterile dressing on a clean surface before applying it to the wound
C) Using sterile forceps to handle the sterile dressing
D) Avoiding unnecessary movements over the sterile field

2. What is the primary purpose of using a transparent film dressing?

A) To absorb wound exudate
B) To provide a moist wound environment
C) To prevent bacterial contamination
D) To allow visualization of the wound without removing the dressing

3. When applying a sterile dressing to a wound, which direction should the nurse work from?
A) From the center of the wound outward
B) From the periphery of the wound inward
C) From top to bottom
D) From bottom to top

4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ideal wound dressing?

A) Maintains a moist wound environment
B) Allows for gas exchange
C) Promotes bacterial growth
D) Protects the wound from mechanical trauma

5. When removing an old dressing, what should the nurse do with the contaminated materials?
 A) Discard them in the nearest trash bin
B) Place them in a biohazard bag for disposal
C) Reuse them if they appear clean
D) Leave them on the bedside table for disposal later

Answer Key:
1. B) Placing the sterile dressing on a clean surface before applying it to the wound
2. D) To allow visualization of the wound without removing the dressing
3. A) From the center of the wound outward
4. C) Promotes bacterial growth
5. B) Place them in a biohazard bag for disposal
Quiz: Advanced Sterile Technique and Dressings

1. What is the purpose of using sterile technique in wound care and dressing changes?
A) To prevent contamination of the wound and surrounding tissues
B) To promote granulation tissue formation
C) To accelerate wound healing
D) To minimize pain and discomfort for the patient

2. Which of the following is NOT considered a key principle of sterile technique?

A) Avoiding unnecessary movements over sterile fields
B) Keeping sterile items below waist level
C) Using sterile gloves for all wound care procedures
D) Opening sterile packages away from the body

3. When removing an old dressing from a wound, what should the nurse do to minimize the risk
of wound contamination?
A) Discard the dressing directly into a nearby trash bin.
B) Use sterile forceps or gloves to remove the dressing.
C) Place the used dressing on the patient's bedside table.
D) Rinse the wound with tap water before applying a new dressing.

4. Which type of dressing is commonly used for wounds with moderate to heavy exudate to
maintain a moist wound environment?
A) Hydrocolloid dressing
B) Alginate dressing
C) Transparent film dressing
D) Gauze dressing

5. What is the primary advantage of using a transparent film dressing for wound care?
A) Provides absorption of wound exudate
B) Allows visualization of the wound without removing the dressing
C) Promotes autolytic debridement of necrotic tissue
D) Minimizes the risk of maceration to surrounding skin

Answer Key:
1. A) To prevent contamination of the wound and surrounding tissues
2. C) Using sterile gloves for all wound care procedures
3. B) Use sterile forceps or gloves to remove the dressing.
4. B) Alginate dressing
5. B) Allows visualization of the wound without removing the dressing
Quiz: Advanced Tracheostomy Care and Suctioning

1. What is the primary purpose of tracheostomy care?

A) To prevent infection around the stoma site
B) To maintain patency of the tracheostomy tube
C) To promote granulation tissue formation
D) To minimize patient discomfort during breathing

2. Which of the following steps is NOT included in routine tracheostomy care?

A) Suctioning the tracheostomy tube as needed
B) Changing the tracheostomy tube daily
C) Cleaning the stoma site and surrounding skin
D) Assessing the tracheostomy tube for proper placement and function

3. When suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy tube, what is the maximum recommended
suction pressure (in mmHg) to minimize the risk of mucosal trauma?
A) 80-100 mmHg
B) 120-150 mmHg
C) 180-200 mmHg
D) 220-240 mmHg

4. Which of the following is an appropriate technique for ensuring proper tracheostomy tube
placement during suctioning?
A) Advance the suction catheter until resistance is felt.
B) Apply continuous suction while inserting the catheter.
C) Rotate the catheter 360 degrees while withdrawing it.
D) Monitor oxygen saturation continuously during suctioning.

5. What is the recommended frequency for changing the inner cannula of a tracheostomy tube in
patients with a high risk of mucus plugging or secretion buildup?
A) Every 24 hours
B) Every 48-72 hours
C) Once a week
D) Only when visibly soiled or obstructed

Answer Key:
1. B) To maintain patency of the tracheostomy tube
2. B) Changing the tracheostomy tube daily
3. A) 80-100 mmHg
4. D) Monitor oxygen saturation continuously during suctioning.
5. B) Every 48-72 hours
Quiz: Advanced Tracheostomy Care and Suctioning

1. What is the primary purpose of performing tracheostomy care?

A) To prevent infection around the tracheostomy site
B) To remove secretions and debris from the tracheostomy tube
C) To adjust the position of the tracheostomy tube in the airway
D) To administer medication directly into the tracheostomy tube

2. When performing tracheostomy suctioning, what is the maximum duration for applying
suction to prevent hypoxia?
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds

3. Which of the following techniques is NOT recommended during tracheostomy suctioning to

minimize the risk of trauma to the airway?
A) Applying suction continuously while inserting the catheter
B) Using a catheter size that matches the diameter of the tracheostomy tube
C) Limiting suction pressure to less than 120 mmHg
D) Hyperoxygenating the patient before and after suctioning

4. What should the nurse do if resistance is encountered while advancing the suction catheter
during tracheostomy suctioning?
A) Apply more suction pressure to clear the obstruction.
B) Rotate the suction catheter while gently advancing it.
C) Withdraw the catheter and try again with a larger diameter catheter.
D) Remove the tracheostomy tube and reinsert it.

5. Which of the following is a potential complication of inadequate humidification during

tracheostomy care?
A) Tracheal stenosis
B) Tracheomalacia
C) Tracheoesophageal fistula
D) Tracheoinnominate fistula

Answer Key:
1. B) To remove secretions and debris from the tracheostomy tube
2. B) 10 seconds
3. A) Applying suction continuously while inserting the catheter
4. B) Rotate the suction catheter while gently advancing it.
5. A) Tracheal stenosis