THINK NEET | THINK IIB

Cont. No. 7304567567, 7304730730, 7261960000, 7972123533, 9421473208, 9156710417

Biology - 90 Chemistry - 45 Physics - 45

Mark Group NEET 2020 Date : 15/03/2020
720 PCB PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 Time : 3 Hours
Question Booklet Version Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. No

11 (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet) 0
This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-2019 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and verified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

General Instruction
01. This questions booklet contains 180 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Physics [Question No. : 1-45]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,
1/4th MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
02. Chemistry [Question No : 46-90]; 4(FOUR) marks for each correct response,
1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
03. Biology [Question No : 91-180]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,
1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
04. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination.
05. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
06. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct
entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care
should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No.
and NEET-2019 Roll no. accurately. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
07. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question.
08. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this  for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball point pen only.
09. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.
11. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the
Answer Sheet.
12. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over Answer sheet is to be returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the
candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet and Answer Sheet.
13. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.

Test Syllabus
Biology : NCERT Unit - I
Chemistry : Periodic Table + s-Block
Physics : Units and Measurement + Motion in a Straight Line + Motion in a Plane
 Section ‘A’ : Biology
01. Select the group of animals in which jointed (1) A - swimming; B-comb plates; C-radula; D-
appandages are found? excretion; E-defense
(1) Limulus, Apis and Laccifer (2) A-defense; B-radula; C-comb plates; D-excretion;
(2) Limulus, Neries and Laccifer E-swimming
(3) Locust, Filarialworm and Snail (3) A-defense; B-radula; C-comb plates; D-swimming;
(4) Apis, Laccifer and Unio E-excretion
02. Which of the following option is correct regarding (4) A-protection; B-parapodia; C-visceral mass; D-
animal kingdom? locomotion; E-excretion
07. Identify the given animal and choose the correct option.
Phylum Symmetry Example Characteric
property
(1) Cocelentrata Bilateral Hydra Aquatic,
Marine
(2) Annelida Bilateral Ancylostama Hooks and (1) The skin is tough, containing minute placoid scales
Suckers (2) It has four pairs of gills which are covered by air
present
(3) Platyhelminthes Bilateral Planaria High
bladder
3
regeneration (3) Fertilisation is external and is oviparous
capacity (4) Mouth is located venternal and is oviparous
(4) Mollusca Radial Octopus Aquatic 08. Some animals are given in the list below
Asterias, Pila, Echinus, Antedon, Pinctada,
03. Which of the following is correct Cucumaria, Octopus, Loligo, Ophiura, Dentalium.
(1) Macropus - Ear pinna, body hairs, 4 chambered How many animals among these are related to the

Date :-15/03/2020
heart second largest phylum of animals?
(2) Pavo - Long bones ossified, hind limbs modified (1) Two (2) Three
to wings (3) Four (4) Five
(3) Ichthyophis - Covering on eyelids, Scales present 09. Sharks do not have
(4) Limulus - Chitinous exoskeleton, tube feet (1) Teeth (2) Claspers
04. How many characters in the list given below are true (3) Air bladder (4) Ventral mouth
regarding echinodermata. 10. Chelone is commonly known as
I. Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles. (1) Garden lizard (2) Tortoise
II. Mostly marine. (3) Flying lizard (4) Turtle
III. Larva are radially symmetrical. 11. When any plane passing through the central axis of
IV. Fertilisation is generally external. the body divides the organism into two identical halves,
V. Mouth is on dorsal side and anus on ventral side. the organism is called
VI. Excretory organ is present (1) Radially symmetrical
VII. Development is indirect (2) Bilaterally symmetrical
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Asymmetrical
(3) Four (4) Five (4) Metamerically segmented
05. The scales found on sharks are known as 12. Flying mammal is
(1) Placoid scales (1) Ornithorhynchus
(2) Ganoid scales (2) Macropus
(3) Ptenoid scales (3) Pteropus
(4) None of the above : Sharks don’t have scales (4) Dolphin
06. Organ Phylum Function 13. Birds have bipedal locomotion as it
Parapodia Annelida A (1) Increases rate of locomotion
B Ctenophora Locomotion (2) Spare fore limbs for flight
C Mollusca Rasping organ (3) Reduces weight
Malpighian tubules Arthropoda D (4) Has no fore limbs
Cnidoblasts Coelenterata E 14. Evidence for the reptilian origin of birds is the
From the above table find out the missing organ or occurrence of
function - A, B, C, D and E respectively. (1) Scales (2) Beak
(3) Feathers (4) Hairs
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 2 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
15. Column I Column II
25. Select the total number of lizards from the following.
A. Testudo I. Tortoise Chelone, Calotes, Chameleon, Crocodilus,
B. Calotes II. Garden lizard Hemidactylum, Columba, Neophron
C. Alligator III. Wall lizard (1) 2 (2) 3
D. Hemidactylus IV. Alligator (3) 4 (4) 5
The correct matching is 26. Which of the following organism’s growth is
(1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV synonymous with reproduction?
(2) A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III (1) Unicellular algae (2) Amoeba
(3) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV (3) Bacteria (4) All of these
(4) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I 27. Mark the correct statement.
16. Common trait among reptiles, fishes and amphibia is (1) The growth in living organisms is from inside
(1) Gill covered by operculum (2) Plants grow only up to a certain age
(2) Scales (3) Only living organisms grow
(3) Laying eggs (4) All of these
(4) Aquatic habitat 28. The growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive
17. Assertion : Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates. events in
Reason : Body cavity in these organisms is not lined (1) Plants only
with mesoderm (2) Animals only
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and reason (3) Higher animals and plants
is the correct explanation of the assertion. (4) Lower organisms
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is 29. Which of the following statements is false?
not the correct explanation of the assertion. (1) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. metabolism
(4) If Assertion is false but Reason is false.

Date :-15/03/2020
(2) Interactions among the molecular components of
18. Which of the following is not a true amphibian animal? the organelles results into properties of cell
(1) Salamander (2) Toad organelles.
(3) Tortoise (4) Frog (3) Properties of cellular organelles are present in the
19. All vertebrates possess
molecular constituents of the organelles
(1) Renal portal system
(4) Cellular organization of the body is the defining
(2) Dorsal hollow central nervous system
feature of life forms
(3) Four-chambered ventral heart
30. Which two points are known as the twin characteristics
(4) Unpaired Pharyngeal gill slits
of growth?
20. Which one of the following animals possesses nerve
(1) Increase in the mass
cells but no nerves?
(1) Hydra (2) Tapeworm (2) Metabolism
(3) Earthworm (4) Frog’s tadpole (3) Increase in the number
21. Point out a non-parasite from the following (4) Both (1) & (3)
(1) Tapeworm (2) Mosquito 31. Metabolic reactions take place
(3) Leech (4) Sea Anemone (1) In vitro
22. The special character of coelenterates is (2) In vivo
(1) Polymorphism (2) Nematocysts (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Flame cells (4) Hermaphroditism (4) Only in unicellular organisms
23. Given below are the four matching of an animal and 32. Organisms that can sense and response to
kind of respiratory organ. environmental cues?
A. Ants - Trachea (1) Eukaryotes only
B. Scorpion - Book lung (2) Prokaryotes only
C. Shark - Pharyngeal gills (3) Both (1) and (2)
D. Dolphin - Skin (4) Those with a well-developed neuroendocrine
The correct matchings are system
(1) C and D (2) A and D 33. All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit
(3) A, B and C (4) B and D (1) Reproduction
24. Pneumatic bones are present in (2) Growth by increase in mass only
(1) Corvus (2) Neophron (3) Metabolism
(3) Pavo (4) All of these (4) Self-consciousness
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 3 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
34. In Mangifera indica Linn. The term ‘Linn’ stands for 44. Kingdom Protista contains
(1) Latin (2) Lower organism (1) Blue green algae
(3) Linnaeus (4) Lamarck (2) Fungi
35. As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number (3) Unicellular eukaryotes
of common characteristics goes on .......... (4) All of these
(1) Increasing (2) Decreasing 45. Phylogeny refers to
(3) Remains same (4) None of these (1) Morphology
36. A museum has a collection of (2) Physiology
(1) Preserved plants (3) Reproduction
(2) Preserved animals (4) Evolutionary relationship
(3) Skeleton of animals 46. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
(4) All of these bacteria?
37. The keys are based on contrasting characters generally
A. It is grouped under five categories on the basis of
in pairs called
shape.
(1) Duplex (2) Couplet
B. It can live in hot spring, deep ocean, snow and
(3) Dimer (4) All of these
desert.
38. Which of the following is incorrect about keys?
(1) Key is a taxonomical aid used for identification of C. It can live as a parasite.
plants and animals based on the similarities and D. It possess simple behaviour and complex structure.
dissimilarities (1) A and B only (2) A and D only
(2) Separate taxonomic keys are required for each (3) B and C only (4) C and D only
taxonomic category, such as family, genus and 47. The most extensive metabolic diversity is found in
species for identification purposes (1) Protozoan (2) Amphibian
(3) Keys are generally analytical in nature (3) Bacteria (4) Fungi
(4) A key is another taxonomical aid used for 48. Which of the following statements is true about

Date :-15/03/2020
nomenclature of plants and animals based on the cyanobacteria?
similarities and dissimilarities (1) It is found in fresh water only
39. All living organisms present, past and future are linked (2) It may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous.
to one another by the sharing of the common .......... (3) They often form bloom in non-polluted fresh water
but to varying degrees. bodies.
(1) Morphological features (4) The colonies are not surrounded by gelatinous
(2) Anatomical features sheath
(3) Genetic material 49. Specialized cell of Nostoc and Anabaena fixing
(4) All of these nitrogen are known as
40. Which of the following is less general in characters as (1) Cyst (2) Heterocyst
compared to genus? (3) Oocytes (4) Cholecyst
(1) Species (2) Division 50. Select the total number of diseases from the the
(3) Class (4) Family following caused by bacteria.
41. Two kingdom classification does not distinguish
Mumps, Smallpox, Citrus canker, Cholera, Typhoid,
between
Tetanus, Sleeping sickness, Malaria
(1) Eukaryote and prokaryote
(1) 2 (2) 4
(2) Unicellular and multicellular organism
(3) 5 (4) 6
(3) Photosynthetic (green algae) and non-
photosynthetic (fungi) organism 51. Which cell organelle is found in mycoplasma?
(4) All the above (1) Plastid (2) Mitochondria
42. What is/are the criteria not used by Whittaker for (3) Ribosome (4) Golgi body
classification? 52. Which of the following is true about Gonyaulax?
(1) Cell structure (1) It releases toxin
(2) Thallus organization (2) Slow multiplication of them causes red tide.
(3) Mode of nutrition (3) It is heterotrophic
(4) Mode of reproduction (4) All of these
43. What is common to bacteria, mosses and fungus? 53. The habitat of majority of euglenoids is
(1) Mode of nutrition (1) Fresh river water
(2) Presence of cell wall (2) Fresh stagnant water
(3) Autotrophic (3) Marine water
(4) Body organization (4) All of these
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 4 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
54. Which of the following statement is incorrect about 61. Find out the correct matching
the given organism in this diagram? (1) Ustilago - Smut
(2) Puccinia - Rust
(3) Agaricus - Mushroom
(4) All of these
62. Which of the following are example of insectivorous
plants?
(1) Bladderwort (2) Venus fly trap
(3) Cuscuta (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Autotrophic in sunlight
63. Alternation of generation is seen in all except
(2) Heterotrophic in deprived sunlight
(1) Fucus (2) Sphagnum
(3) Biflagellate
(4) They are surrounded by protein rich layer known (3) Equisetum (4) Alternaria
as cell wall 64. Life cycle in plant has generally two distinct phases,
55. Select the correct statement from the following for such as the .............. sporophytic and the .........
kingdom Fungi. gametophytic that alternate with each other. This
A. They are heterotrophic. phenomenon is known as alternation of generation.
B. They show less diversity in morphology and (1) Diploid, Diploid (2) Diploid, Haploid
habitat. (3) Haploid, Diploid (4) Haploid, Haploid
C. Yeast is a unicellular fungus. 65. In virus infected plants, which of the following
D. They prefer to grow in warm and humid places. symptoms can be observed?
(1) A and D only (2) C and D only (1) Mosaic formation and stunted growth
(3) A, C and D only (4) A and B only (2) Leaf rolling and curling
56. If hyphae are continuous tube filled with (3) Yellowing and vein clearing
multinucleated cytoplasm, then it is known as (4) All of these

Date :-15/03/2020
(1) Septate hyphae 66. Lichen is the symbiotic association between
(2) Coenocytic hyphae (1) Algae and bacteria
(3) Mycelium (2) Bacteria and fungus
(4) All of these (3) Algae and fungus
57. Sexual reproduction in fungus occurs in the following (4) Fungus and root of higher plants
sequential event, choose the correct option that is 67. Viruses are no more ‘alive’ than isolated chromosomes
properly arranged. because
A. Fusion of two nuclei called karyogamy. (1) Both require the environment of a cell to replicate
B. Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or non-
(2) They require both RNA and DNA
motile gametes.
(3) They both need food molecules
C. Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores.
(4) They both require oxygen for respiration
(1) A  B  C (2) B  A  C
68. Which one of the following statement about
(3) C  B  A (4) C  A  B
mycoplasma is wrong?
58. Kingdom Fungi is divided into various classes on the
basis of (1) They are pleomorphic
(1) Morphology of mycelium (2) They are sensitive to penicillin
(2) Made of spore formation (3) They cause disease in plants
(3) Type of fruiting bodies (4) They are also called PPLO
(4) All of these 69. Algae possessing both isogamy and anisogamy is
59. Endogenously produced spores are found in all except called
(1) Mushroom (2) Mucor (1) Chlamydomonas (2) Volvox
(3) Albugo (4) Rhizopus (3) Spirogyra (4) Fucus
60. Find the total number of fungus species belonging to 70. 50% CO2 fixation on earth is carried out by
the class ascomycetes. (1) Protista (2) Higher plants
Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor, Agaricus, (3) Algae (4) None of these
Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps, Neurospora, Alternaria, 71. Algin is secreted by
Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Ustilago, Morels, Truffles, (1) All kinds of algae
Colletotrichum, Toadstool (2) Only brown algae
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) Only red algae
(3) 9 (4) 10 (4) Both red and brown algae
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 5 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
72. Carrageen is secreted by 83. Identify A, B and C in the below diagram.
(1) All kinds of algae
(2) Only brown algae
(3) Only red algae
(4) Both red and brown algae
73. Agar is commercially obtained from
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(2) Laminaria and Spirulina
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina
(4) Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra
74. The dominance fo chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘b’, pyrenoids
and starch as stored food are found in (1) A : Fucus; B : Laminaria; C : Dictyota
(1) Members of Chlorophyceae (2) A : Laminaria; B : Dictyota; C : Fucus
(2) Members of Rhodophyceae (3) A : Laminaria; B : Fucus; C : Dictyota
(3) Members of Phaeophyceae (4) A : Dictyota; B : Fucus; C : Laminaria
(4) All of these 84. Organisms referred to as the amphibians of plant
75. Pyrenoids are located in kingdom are
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Mitochondria (1) Pteridophytes
(3) Chloroplast (4) Nucleus (2) Bryophytes
76. The algae that possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids (3) Angiosperms
and xenthophylls belongs to (4) Gymnosperms
(1) Green algae (2) Brown algae 85. The male and female sex organs of pteridophytes are
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these called

Date :-15/03/2020
77. Brown algae very in colour from ....... to various shades (1) Globule and nucule, respectively
of ......... depending upon the amount of ......... pigment (2) Antheridia and archegonia, respectively
and ........... present in them. (3) Spermatangia and oogonia, respectively
(1) Fucoxanthin, xanthophyll, blue, brown (4) Testes and ovary, respectively
(2) Blue, Brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll 86. Selaginella belongs to the class
(3) Yellow, brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll (1) Psilopsida
(4) Olive green, brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll (2) Lycopsida
78. The plant body attached to substratum in brown algae (3) Pteropsida
is (4) Sphenopsida
(1) Rhizoids (2) Multicellular hair 87. Ovules are not enclosed by the ovary wall in
(3) Holdfast (4) Roots (1) Pteridophytes
79. The arrangement of flagella in brown algae is (2) Angiosperms
(1) One and equally arranged (3) Gymnosperms
(2) Two unequal and laterally arranged (4) All of these
(3) Many flagella arranged anywhere on the body 88. Gymnosperms
(4) Depends from organism to organism (1) Are naked seed plants
80. Pyriform gametes mean (2) Have tap roots
(1) Pea-shaped gametes (3) Are heterosporous
(2) Pear-shaped gametes (4) All of these
89. In haplontic life cycle, the zygote divides by
(3) Gametes with one flagella
(1) Mitosis
(4) All of these
(2) Meiosis
81. The spores and gametes of red algae are
(3) Any of them
(1) Motile and non-motile
(4) Amitosis
(2) Both are motile
90. If sporophyte, the dominant, photosynthetic and
(3) Both non-motile
independent phase of plant represents
(4) Motile spores and non-motile gametes
(1) Haplontic
82. Air bladders are shown by
(2) Diplontic
(1) Fucus (2) Laminaria (3) Diplohaplontic life cycle
(3) Dictyota (4) All of these (4) Both (2) and (3)
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 6 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
 Section ‘B’ : Chemistry
91. Which of the following factors may be regarded as the 96. Assume total number of 112 elements, then how many
main cause of lanthanide contraction ? periods would be required in the periodic table without
1) Greater shielding of 5d-electrons by 4f-electrons separate position of lanthanides and actinides, also in
2) Poorer shielding of 5d-electrons by 4f-electrons the absence of Aufbau rule ?
3) Effective shielding of one of 4f-electrons by 1) 5 2) 6
another in the subshell 3) 7 4) 8
4) Poor shielding of one of 4f-electrons by another 97. On the basis of given part of periodic table, the incor-
in the subshell rect statement is
92. Successive (IE) values of three elements of third period
are give below
Elements (IE)t (IE)2 (IE)3
X 513 4562 6920
Y 738 1451 7733
Z 1521 2666 3931 1) C is a transuranic element
Atomic numbers of X, Y and Z respectively are
2) A is an alkaline earth metal
1) 11, 12, 13 2) 11, 12, 14
3) 11, 12, 15 4) 11, 12, 18
3) atomic number of E is 55
N0
93. atoms of X(g) are converted into X+ (g) by energy
2 4) atomic number, group number and period number
H10 of D are 72, 4 and VI, respectively

Date :-15/03/2020
N0 N 98. Correct order for electrons in outermost shell is
atoms of X(g) are converted into X+ (g) and 0
2 2 1) Ni < Pd < Pt 2) Ni = Pd = Pt
atoms of X(g) are converted into X– (g) by energy
H 20 3) Pd > Ni > Pt 4) Pd > Pt > Ni
Thus, IE and EA of X(g) atom 99. In which of the following both ions are diamagnetic in
IE) (E1) nature ?
1) H10 H10 + H 20 1) ferrous and ferric
H10 H10  H 20 2) cuprous and cupic
2)
N0 N0
3) mercurous and mercuric
3) 2H10 0
2( H  H )
1
0
1

2H10 2(H10  H10 ) 4) none of these

4)
N0 N0
100. The value of IE1, IE2, IE3 and IE4 of an atom are 7.5 eV,
94. There is repetition of properties in the periodic table 25.6 eV, 48.6 ev and 170.6 eV, respectively. The elec-
after 2, 8, 8, 18, 18 and 32 elements . This sequence is tronic configuration of the atom will be
based on 1) 1s22s22p63s1 2) 1s22s22p63s23p1
1) Aufbau rule 3) 1s22s22p63s2 3p3 4) 1s22s22p63s2
2) Pauli’s exculusion principle
3) Hund’s rule 101. Arrange Cl, F, F– and and Cl– in increasing order of
4) Avogadro’s low ionisation potential
95. The general electronic configuration of the outermost 1) F   Cl   Cl  F
and penultimate shell for a d-block element is given
by 2) Cl   F   Cl  F
( n–1) s2p6dxnsy
For a divalent cation of an element with n = 4 , x = 6 3) Cl   F   F  Cl
and y = 2, number of protons is
1) 24 2) 25 4) F   Cl   F  Cl
3) 26 4) 27
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 7 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
102. Arrange N+, O+, N and O increasing order of electron
M  ( g )  M 2 ( g )  e ................(iv)
affinity
1) N+ < O+ < N < O 2) N < O < O+ < N+ M ( g )  M 2 ( g )  2e  .................(v)
The second ionisation energy of M could be calculated
3) O < N < O+ < N+ 4) O+ < N+ < N < O
from the energy values associated with
103. In which of the following process, least energy is re- 1) i + iii + iv 2) ii – i + iii
quired ?
  
1) F ( g )  F( g )  e 2) P ( g )  P( g )  e
 3) i + v 4) v – iii

 110. The correct order of relative stability of half filled and

3) S (g )  S( g )  e 4) Cl  ( g )  Cl( g )  e
completely filled subshell is
 2 1) p3 > d5 < d10 < p6 2) d5 > p5 < d10 < p6
104. O  O ;  eg H  x
3) d5 > p3 < d10 < p6 4) p3 > d10 < d3 < p6
S   S 2 ;  eg H  y
values of x and y are, respectively 111. IE2 for an element is invariably higher than IE1 be-
1) + 800 and + 640 2) +640 and +800 cause
1) it is difficult to remove electron from cation
3) – 141 and – 300 4) – 300 and – 141 2) the size of the cation is smaller than its atoms
105. Which of the following metals give inflammable gas 3) Zeff is more for cation
with both acid and base ?
1) Na and Zn 2) Mg and Al 4) all the above

Date :-15/03/2020
3) Mg and Be 4) Zn and Al 112. The element with Z = 120 will be an/a

106. Which of the following oxide is different than other? 1) Transition metal
1) SO2 2) Cl2O7
2) Inner transition metal
3) Pb3O4 4) Mn2O7
3) Alkaline earth metal
107. The atomic number of three elements A, B and C are a,
a + 1 and a + 2, C is an alkali metal. In the compound 4) Alkali metal
of A and C, the nature of bonding is
1) coordinate 2) covalent 113. Statement–1 : ionisation potential of Sn is less than Pb
Statement-2 : Ionisation potential is inversely propor-
3) ionic 4) metallic tional to atomic size
1) statment-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-
108. Choose the correct order of ionic radius for the fol-
2 is correct explanation for statement-1
lowing species
1) Cl– > I–> Te2–>Ar+ 2) statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
2) Te2– > I– > Cl– > Ar+
statement-1
3) I– > Te2– > Cl– > Ar+
3) statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
– – + 2–
4) I > Cl > Ar > Te
4) statement-1 is false, statement-2 true
109. Consider the following changes
114. The correct option with respect to the Pauling elec-
M ( s)  M ( g ) ............. (i)
tronegativity values of the elements is
M ( s )  M 2  ( g )  2e  .............. (ii) 1) Ga < Ge 2) Si < Al
M ( g )  M  ( g )  e .................(iii) 3) P > S 4) Te > Se

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 8 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11

115. The correct order of atomic radii is
1) Ce > Eu > Ho > N 2) N > Ce > Eu > Ho
3) Eu > Ce > Ho > N 4) Ho > N > Eu > Ce
116. Which elements out of the following do not produce
hydrogen on treatment with caustic soda ?
A(Zn) ; B(Sn) C(Mg)
D(Cu); E(Al)
1) A, E 2) C, D
3) D, E 4) B, D
117. Potassium carbonate can not be made by the solvay
process because :
1) Potassium hydrogen carbonate is unstable
2) potassium hydrogen carbonate is rather too
soluble in water to be precipitated.
3) potassium carbonate is insoluble in water
4) potassium carbonate is soluble is water
118. The compound X on heating gives a colourless gas .
The residue is dissolved in water to obtain Y. When
excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of
Y, Z is formed which on gentle heating , gives back X. 125. The alkali halide that is soluble in pyridine is
1) CaCO3 2) Na2CO3
3) CaSO4.2H2O 4) K2CO3
119. When sodium is placed in moist air, if finally changes
into
1) NaOH 2) Na2O2
3) Na2O 4) Na2CO3
120. When powered Be is heated in air, it form A and B.
Compound A give C after reductive chlorination. C
produces white fumes in presence of moisture and
forms D . Then A, B, C and D are respectively :
1) BeO, Be3N2, BeCl2, Be(OH)2
2) Be3N2 , BeO, BeCl4–2, Be(OH)2
3) BeO, Be(OH)2, Be3N2, BeCl2
4) BeO, Be3N2, Be, Be(OH)2
121. Select the incorrect choice
1) Solubility of alkaline earth metal’s carbonates,
sulphates and chromates decreases from Be to 127. Assertion (1) : Among the alkali metals, lithium, salts
Ba.
2) Solubility of alkaline earth metal’s hydroxides
is less than alkali metal hydroxides.
3) KSP of alkaline earth Metal’s oxides decreases
from Be to Ba
4) CO2 on passing in lime water turns lime water
milky.
122. Which of the following compound is consumed during
the preparation of Na2CO3 by Solvay’s Process ?
1) NH3 + CaCO3 + NaCl
2) NH4Cl + CaO + NaCl
3) CaCO3 + NaCl
4) NaCl + NH4HCO3
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01
123. Assertion : Carbonate of Be always kept in atmosphere
of CO2
Reason : BeCO3 has very low thermal stability
1) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
2) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the
Reason is not correct explanation of the
Assertion
3) If Assertion is ture but the Reason is false
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
124. Assertion : BaCO3 is more soluble in HNO3 than in
water
Reason : Carbonate is weak base and reacts with H+
from the strong acid, causting the barium salt to
dissociate
1) If both Assertion and Reason are True and
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion
2) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the
Reason is not correct explanation of the
Assertion
3) If Assertion is ture but the Reason is false
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1) NaCl 2) LiCl
Date :-15/03/2020
3) KCl 4) CsI
126. Assertion (1) Bleaching powder is a mixed salt
Reason (R) In the presence of CoCl2, bleaching pow-
der decomposes to give CaCl2 and O2.
1) both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
2) both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is incorrect
4) both A and R are incorrect
exhibit the least electrical conductance in aqueous so-
lutions.
Reason (R) : Smaller the radius of the hydrated cation,
lower is the electrical conductance in aqueous solu-
tions.
1) both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
2) both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is incorrect
4) both A and R are incorrect
9 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
128. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in 134. As we move down the group covalent character de-
water separately. Which one of the solutions will record creases, solubility increases and thermal stability in-
the highest pH? creases for which of the following ?
1) SrCl2 2) BaCl2 1) fluorides of alkali metal

3) MgCl2 4) CaCl2 2) carbonates of alkali metals

129. Select the incorrect statement 3) sulphates of alkali earth metal

1) Cyanamide ion isoelectronic and isostructural
with CO2 4) none of these
2) Mg2C3 reacts with water to form propyne
3) CaC2 has NaCl type lattice 135. Which of the following diagrams is correct for chemi-
4) None of these cal change ?
Cl 2
130. Ca(OH)2    A Autooxidation CaCl + B
H 2O      2 1)
(dry)
Identify B ion the above reaction
1) CaOCl2 2) Ca(ClO2)2
3) Ca(OH)2 4) none
131. Sodium metal can be used for the drying of
1) ethanol 2) ammonia
2)
3) dimethyl ether 4) phenol

Date :-15/03/2020
132. Select the correct order about solubility :
1) CaCO3 > KHCO3 > NaHCO3

2) KHCO3 > NaHCO3 > CaCO3

3) NaHCO3 > KHCO3 > CaCO3 3)

4) CaCO3 > NaHCO3 > KHCO3

133. Which of the following gases has least solubility in

NaOH aq. solution ?
1) CO2 2) SO2
4)
3) H2S 4) NH3

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 10 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11

 Section ‘C’ : Physics
136. The diameter of earth is 1.28×107 m. The order 1) 4.2 1 2  2 2) 4.2  1 2  2
of its magnitude is
3) 4.2   1 2  2 4) 4.2 12  2
1) 1 2) 8
144. Which of the following is the most precise device
3) 7 4) 5
for measuring length:
137. Which of the following is not the unit of time ?
1) a vernier callipers with 20 divisions on the
1) Microsecond 2) Leap year
sliding scale
3) Lunar month 4) Parallactic second
2) a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100
138. The temperatures of two bodies measured by a
divisions on the circular scale
thermometer are t 1 = 20 oC ± 0.5 o C and 3) an optical instrument that can measure
t2 = 50°C ± 0.5oC. The temperature difference with length to within a wavelength of light
error limits is 4) a meter scale with 200 mm in 1 cm
1) 30°C ± 1oC 2) 70°C ± 0.5°C 145. Identify the one having least number of
3) 30oC ± 0.5°C 4) 70°C ± 1oC significant figures in the following:
1) 0.007 m2 2) 2.64 × 1024 kg
e2
139. The dimensions of , where e is charge, 3) 0.2370 g cm–3 4) 6.032 N m–2
4  0 hc 146. A physical quantity P is related to four
0 is electric permittivity, h is Planck’s constant observables a, b, c and d as follows:
and c is velocity of light in vacuum, are p  a 3b2 / ( c d) The percentage errors of
0 0 0 0 0
1) [M L T ] 2) [M L T ] measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4%

Date :-15/03/2020
0 0
3) [M LT ] 4) [M0L0T] and 2%, respectively. What is the maximum
140. In the radio active decay law, N  N 0 e t . percentage error in the quantity P
1) 10% 2) 11%
The dimensions of  are
3) 12% 4) 13%
1) M0L0T0 2) M0L0T–1 147. A book with many printing errors contains four
3) M0L0T 4) ML0T–1 different formulas for the displacement y of a
141. Convert 3.0 m s–2 into km h–2 particle undergoing a certain periodic motion
1) 3.9 × 104 2) 3.9 × 106 (a) y = a sin 2 t /T
3) 10.8 4) 0.83 (b) y = a sin vt
142. Convert G = 6.67 × 10 N m kg–2 into dyne cm2 g–2.
–11 2
(c) y = (a/T) sin t/a
1) 6.67×10–6 2) 6.67×10–7
(d) y =(a 2 ) (sin 2 t /T + cos 2 t /T)
3) 6.67×10–8 4) 6.67×10–9
(a = maximum displacement of the particle,
143. A calorie is a unit of heat or energy and it equals
v = speed of the particle. T = time-period of motion.)
about 4.2 J where 1 J = 1 kg m2 s–2. Suppose we Find the correct formula having dimensions.
employ a system of units in which the unit of
mass equals  kg, the unit of length equals  m, 2t
1) 2) vt
the unit of time is  s. Show that a calorie has a T

magnitude 4.2 12  2 in terms of the y vt

3) 4)
a y

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 11 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11

148. A famous relation in physics relates ‘moving mass’ 151. A body while moving along a straight line
m to the ‘rest mass’ mo of a particle in terms of its co vers one-third o f the distance with a
speed v and the speed of light, c. (This relation velo city v 1 , the seco nd one-third of the
first arose as a consequence of special theory of distance with a velocity v 2 and the remaining
relativity due to Albert Einstein). A boy recalls distance with a velocity v 3 . The average
the relation almost correctly but forgets where velocity is
to put the constant c.
v1v 2 v3
mo 1)
He writes: m  . Guess where to put the 3
(1  v 2 )1/2
missing c. v1  v 2  v 3
2)
mo mo 3
1) 2)
c(1 v2 )1/2 (c  v2 )1/2
2
v1v 2  v 2 v3  v 3 v1
3)
mo
3
mo
3) 4)
v 2 1/ 2 (1  c 2 v 2 )1/2 3v1v 2 v3
(1  2 ) 4)
c v1v 2  v 2 v3  v 3 v1
149. A man walking briskly in rain with speed v must 152. A particle moving in a straight line covers half the
slant his umbrella forward making an angle 0 distance with speed of 3 m/s. The other half of the
with the vertical. A student derives the following distance is covered in two equal time intervals
relation between  and v : tan  = v and checks
with speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively. The
that the relation has a correct limit: as v  0,
average speed of the particle during this motion
  0 as expected. (We are assuming there is no

Date :-15/03/2020
is
strong wind and that the rain falls vertically for
1) 4.0 m/s
a stationary man). Do you think this relation can
be correct? If not, guess the 2) 5.0 m/s
correct relation. 3) 5.5 m/s
4) 4.8 m/s
v 153. Three persons P, Q and R of same mass travel
1) tan   vu 2) tan  
u with same speed u along an equilateral triangle
1 v of side 'd' such that each one faces the other
3) tan   4) tan   always. After how much time will they meet each
u 1
other ?
150. lt is a well known fact that during a total solar
1) d/u seconds
eclipse the disc of the moon almost completely
covers the disc of the Sun. From this fact 2) 2 d/3 u seconds
determine the approximate diameter of the
3) 2d/u 3 seconds
moon.
Earth-Moon distance = 3.84 × 108 m 4) d/ 3 u seconds
Sun-Earth distance = 1.496 × 1011 m
Sun’s diameter = 1.39 × 109 m
1) 2567 km 2) 35671 km
3) 3567 km 4) 356.7 km

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 12 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11

154. A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its 160. Read each statement below carefully for a
coordinate x varies with time t according to the particle in one-dimensional motion. Identify
equation, x = (2 – 5 t + 6 t2) m. The initial velocity the false statment
of the particle is 1) with zero speed at an instant may have
1) – 5 ms–1 2) – 3 ms–1
non-zero acceleration at that instant
3) 6 ms–1 4) 3 ms–1
2) with zero speed may have non-zero
155. Displacement (x) of a particle is related to time
velocity,
(t) as x = at + bt2 – ct3 where a, b and c are
constants of the motion. The velocity of the particle 3) with constant speed must have zero
when its acceleration is zero is given by acceleration,
4) with positive value of acceleration must be
b2 b2 speeding up.
1) a 2) a 
c 2c 161. A man walks on a straight road from his home
b2 b2 to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km h–1.
3) a 4) a  Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and
3c 4c
156. An athlete completes one round of a circular walks back with a speed of 7.5 km h–1. What is
track of radius r in 30 seconds. What will be the average speed of the man over the interval
the distance and his displacement at the end of time 0 to 30 min.
of 2 minutes 15 seconds ? 1) 6 km h–1 2) 5 km h–1
–1
1) 8r, zero 2) 9r, 2r 3) 50 km h 4) 60 km h–1
3) 9r, 2 r,, 4) 8r, 2 r 162. Look at the graphs carefully, which of these
157. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes cannot possibly represent one-dimensional
5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, followed motion of a particle.

Date :-15/03/2020
again by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward,
and so on. Each step is 1 m long and requires 1 s.
How long the drunkard takes to fall in a pit
13 m away from the start.
1) 2)
1) 32 sec 2) 35 sec
3) 37 sec 4) 39 sec
158. A car moving along a straight highway with speed
of 126 km h–1 is brought to a stop within a distance
of 200 m. What is the retardation of the car
(assumed uniform)
3) 4)
1) 4.9 ms–2 2) 3.06 ms–2
3) 3.06 ms–2 4) 3.06 ms–2
159. A player throws a ball upwards with an initial 163. A wheel of radius 1 m rolls forward half a
speed of 29.4 m s –1. What is the direction of revolution on a ho rizo ntal gro und. The
acceleration during the upward motion of the magnitude of the displacement of the point
ball? of the wheel initially in contact with the
1) Zero 2) Horizontal ground is
3) Upward 4) Downward
1) 2m 2) 2 m
3) pm 4) 2  4 m

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 13 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11

164. A three-wheeler starts from rest, accelerates 169. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is
uniformly with 1 m s–2 on a straight road for 10 s,
and then moves with uniform velocity. What do  5
y  10x    x 2 . If we assume g = 10 ms–2 then the
you expect this plot to be during accelerated  9
motion range of projectile (in metre) is
1) straight line 2) parabola 1) 36 2) 24
3) increasing slope 4) decreasing slope 3) 18 4) 9
165. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along
170. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity
a fixed direction is shown in figure. Obtain the
of 600 km/hr and at a height of 1960 m. When it is
distance traversed by the particle between t = 2 s
to 6 s. vertically above a point A on the ground, a bomb
is released from it. The bomb strikes the ground at
point B. The distance AB is
1) 1200 m 2) 0.33 km
3) 33.3 km 4) 3.33 km
171. Pick out the only vector quantity in the following
list : temperature, pressure, impulse, time,
1) 30 m 2) 36 m power, total path length, energy, gravitational
3) 60 m 4) 72 m potential, coefficient of friction, charge.
166. A body is projected with an angle . The 1) temperature
maximum height reached is h. If the time of 2) gravitational potential
flight is 4s and g = 10 m/s2, then value of h is 3) charge
1) 40 m 2) 20 m
4) impulse
3) 5m 4) 10 m

Date :-15/03/2020
172. Three girls skating on a circular ice ground of
167. A body is projected with a speed u m/s at an angle
 with the horizontal. The kinetic energy at the radius 200 m start from a point P on the edge of
the ground and reach a point Q diametrically
3
highest point is th of the initial kinetic energy.. opposite to P following different paths as shown
4
in figure. For which girl the magnitude of the
The value of  is
displacement vector is equal to the actual length
1) 30o 2) 45o of path skate ?
3) 60o 4) 120o
168. Three particles A, B and C are projected from
the same point with the same initial speeds
making angle 30o, 45o, and 60o, respectively, with
the horizontal. Which of the follo wing
statements is correct?
1) A, B, and C have upequal ranges
2) Ranges of A and C are equal and less than 1) A 2) B
that of B. 3) C 4) All same
3) Ranges of A and C are equal and greater
than that of B
4) A, B and C have equal ranges

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 14 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11

173. A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular 177. Read each statement below carefully and identify
park of radius 1 km, reaches the edge P of the
park, then cycles along the circumference, and
returns to the centre along QO as shown in
figure. If the round trip takes 10 min, what is the
average velocity and average speed of the
cyclist?
1) 0 , 21.43 km h–1
2) 3.571 km h–1, 0
3) 21.43 km h–1 , 3.571 km h–1
4) 21.43 km h–1 , 0
174. A man can swim with a speed of 4.0 km h–1 in
still water. He crosses a river 1.0 km wide if the
river flows steadily at 3.0 km h–1 and he makes
his strokes normal to the river current? How far
down the river does he go when he reaches the
other bank ?
the false statement
1) The net acceleration of a particle in circular
motion is always along the radius of the
circle towards the centre.
2) The velocity vector of a particle at a point
is always along the tangent to the path of
the particle at that point.
3) The acceleration vector of a particle in
uniform circular motion averaged over one
cycle is a null vector.
4) None of the above
178. î and ĵ are unit vectors along x and y-axis
respectively. What is the magnitude and
direction of the vectors î + ĵ . What are the
components of a vector A = 2 î + 3 ĵ along the
direction of ( î + ĵ )
5 5
1) 45o, (iˆ  ˆj) 2) 60o, (iˆ  ˆj)
2 2

Date :-15/03/2020
1) 750 m 2) 750 km 1
3) 45o, (iˆ  ˆj) 4) 45o, ( î + ĵ )
3) 4 km 4) 15 km 2
175. The ceiling of a long hall is 25 m high. What is 179. Which quantity can be associated with vectors
the maximum horizontal distance that a ball 1) the length of a wire bent into a loop
thrown with a speed of 40 m s–1 can go without 2) a plane area
hitting the ceiling of the hall ? 3) a sphere
1) 170.5 m 2) 150.5 m 4) mass of a body
3) 120 m 4) 130 m 180. A bullet fired at an angle of 30° with the
176. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal hits the ground 3.0 km away. By
horizontal distance of 100 m. How much high adjusting its angle of projection, one hopes to
above the ground can the cricketer throw the hit a target 5.0 km away. Assume the muzzle
same ball? speed to be fixed, and neglecting air resistance
1) 25 m 2) 50 m it's maximum range is
3) 75 m 4) 80 m 1) 1.85 m 2) 3.46 m
3) 6.24 m 4) 5.18 m

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 01 15 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11