NAVIGATION b.

pulse spacing
c. pulse width
DME d. none of the above

1. DME airborne equipment is also 11. Is the frequency which each pulse
called pair has
a. PPS
a. transponder b. PRF
b. interrogator c. PFR
c. transmitter d. none of the above
d. receiver

2. DME ground equipment is called

a. transponder
b. interrogator
c. transmitter 12. The condition which exists when
d. receiver the interrogator is attempting to
acquire and lock onto the response
3. Transponder equipment consist of to its own interrogations.
a. transmitter a. track mode
b. receiver b. search mode
c. both a & b c. PRF
d. none of the above d. none of the above

4. 12.36 us time in DME is equivalent 13. The time the transmitter is

to activated to send reply pulses
a. 2 NM a. track mode
b. one way trip distance b. reply to interrogation
c. 1 NM c. duty cycle
d. none of the above d. one cycle per second

5. The total channel for 14. The transmitter is unloaded in

interrogation is the remaining 98.1 % of the time
a. 63
means
b. 126
c. 252 a. no reply
d. none of the above b. receive interrogation
c. no power dissipation
6. Pulse spacing for Y-channel d. all of the above
interrogation in microseconds
a. 12 15. Aperiod immediately following
b. 30 the decoding of a valid
c. 36 interrogation
d. 24 a. reply efficiency
b. effective radiated power
7. DME transponders are collocated c. receiver delay time
with VOR with respect to d. receiver dead time
a. frequency
b. identification 16. Directs the interrogation pulses
c. power to the receiver and the reply
d. both a & b pulses to antenna
a. mixer
8. As the distance to DME station b. ferris discriminator
decreases, the slant range error c. coder
a. remains constant d. none of the above
b. increases
c. decreases 17. Amplifies the small interrogation
d. is insignificant pulses
9. The time as measured between the a. PA
90 and 10 percent amplitude points b. Modulator
of the pulse c. Gaussian pulse shaper
a. rise time d. none of the above
b. decay time
c. both a & b 18. This is only a LF amplifier
d. pulse duration a. mixer
b. modulator
10. Thetime interval between the 50% c. IF amplifer
amplitude points on the leading d. video amplifer
edges of the pulses
a. pulse duration
19. Thereadout is maintained
steadily
a. velocity memory
b. static memory
c. automatic standby
d. none of the above

20. Deliberaterandom variation of

the time interval between
successive interrogations
a. PRF
b. duty cycle
c. jitter
d. none of the above
VOR
9. When sidebands modulate a
1. The magnitude of the resultant carrier with other than 0 deg
envelope in quadrature phasing: difference in RF phase, a
a. Will be constant at Ec process called
b. Will never be less than Ec. takes place.
c. Will be sometimes less a. space modulation
than Ec. b. phase modulation
d. None of the above. c. amplitude modulation
d. frequency modulation
2. The desired objective in
combining Ess with Ec is to
10. When two volts of total
have them at:
sideband signal space modulates
a. 90
a 10-volt carrier, the maximum
b. 0 and 180
c. 210 space modulation factor is
d. 75
a. 0.2
b. 0.02
3. Space modulation Factor is c. 2
given by the formula: d. 20
a. Ecs cos / Ecm
b. Ess sin / Ec
c. Ess cos / Ec 11. The Doppler of a periodic wave
d. Esm / Ecm from a moving source, the
received frequency will be
4. Misphasing in space modulation __________________ than the
is caused by: radiated frequency as it moves
a. The relative phase of
current in the antennas, away.
and Tx lines are incorrect. a. lower
b. Ecs is greater than Ess b. higher
c. Magnitude of the carrier is c. the same
large d. none of the above
d. All of the above
5. As misphasing of Ess with
12. In a CVOR (Conventional VOR),
respect to Ec is increased: the 30 Hz AM signal is the
a. Harmonics Develops
b. Indication of fundamental phase voltage.
frequencies at the receiver a. carrier
becomes less b. reference
c. Effective space modulation c. variable
is reduced d. none of the above
d. All of the above
13. In a CVOR (Conventional VOR),
6. It is used as reference in the 30 Hz FM signal is the
obtaining maximum space
modulation: phase voltage.
a. Space modulation factor a. carrier
b. Quadrature phasing b. reference
c. DDM = 0 c. variable
d. DDM = .155 d. none of the above

7. When carrier and sidebands are 14. In a DVOR (Doppler VOR), the 30
mixed in any transmitter Hz FM signal is the
circuit, the process is called
a. space modulation phase voltage.
b. transmitter modulation a. carrier
c. amplitude modulation b. reference
d. phase modulation c. variable
d. none of the above
8. Vectorially, that portion or
component of the total 15. In a DVOR (Doppler VOR), the 30
sidebands which is in phase Hz AM signal is the
with the carrier is the phase voltage.
a. carrier
a. Sine projection of Ess b. reference
b. Cosine projection of Ess c. variable
c. Tangent projection of Ess d. none of the above
d. None of the above
16. The sideband antenna rotation d. 18
of a DVOR is
24. The resultant waveform when the
. reference signal and variable
a. clockwise signal is combined in space is
b. counter clockwise called a
c. axial .
d. none of the above
a. cardioid pattern
17. The sideband antenna rotation b. course width
of a CVOR is c. blending function
d. course line
.
a. clockwise 25. The resultant or radiated
b. counter clockwise waveform of a variable signal
c. axial of a VOR is called
d. none of the above
.
18. The variation in level fed to a. omni-directional
the sideband antennas in DVOR b. figure of eight
is called the
c. cardioid pattern
function. d. none of the above
a. bleeping
b. breeding 26. The resultant or radiated
c. bleaching waveform of a reference signal
d. blending of a VOR is called

19. The carrier frequency of a VOR .

is modulated by a. omni-directional
b. figure of eight
. c. cardioid pattern
a. 30 Hz
b. 9960 Hz d. none of the above
c. Neither a nor b
d. Both a and b 27. The output of a goniometer’s
sinusoidal signal is fed to the
antenna slot.
20. A modulation process wherein a. NE-SW
the sidebands are combined with b. NW-SE
the carrier in space or outside c. both a and b
the transmitting equipment. d. none of the above
a. Amplitude Modulation 28. The output of a goniometer’s
b. Frequency Modulation cosine pattern signal is fed to
c. Space Modulation the
d. None of the above
21. A VOR System is composed of antenna slot.
. a. NE-SW
a. VOR Transmitting Station b. NW-SE
b. VOR Receiving Station c. both a and b
c. Neither a nor b d. none of the above
d. Both a and b 29. The reference and variable
phase modulations of a VOR
22. A navigational aid that is shall be along the
designed to provide bearing reference magnetic meridian
information to aircrafts. through the station.
a. VOR
b. DME a. in-phase
c. Localizer b. out-of-phase
d. Glidepath c. bi-phase
d. none of the above
23. The modulation index of an FM
signal in a VOR has a 30. The polarization of a VOR
modulation index of antenna radiation is
. .
a. 12 a. horizontal
b. 14 b. vertical
c. 16 c. both a and b
 d. neither a nor b

31. The VOR monitor will initiate

transfer/shutdown when the
bearing error exceeds
degree.
a. 0.25
b. 0.50
c. 0.75
d. 1.0

32. The VOR monitor will initiate

transfer/shutdown when the
modulating components falls
down below
percent.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
ILS modulation
b. Difference in depth of
1. Which
of the following airport modulation
does not have an ILS equipment c. Displacement in depth of
installed. modulation
a. Subic International d. Displacement of
Airport difference in modulation
b. General Santos
International Airport 7. Whichof the ILS sub-system can
c. Bacolod International provide a correct descent and
Airport approach of the runway?
d. Cagayan de Oro Airport: a. Localizer, Glideslope,
and Marker Beacons
2. Which of the statement is false? b. Localizer, Glideslope,
a. CSB signal is a full AM and T-DME
waveform by which both 90 c. Localizer and
Hz and 150 Hz is in phase Glideslope only
with the carrier d. Both a and b
b. Zero crossing point after
the third period of the 90 8. Oneof the requirements to
Hz signal shall coincide in generate or produce the SBO
time with zero crossing signal is that sidebands of the
point after the 5th period 90 Hz and 150 Hz shall be
of the 150 Hz signal to
generate an SBO signal. a. Out of phase with the
c. SBO signal is an AM waveform Carrier
signal where 90 Hz and 150 b. In phase
Hz may have the same c. In phase reversal
amplitude. d. Both a and c.
d. Both b and c.
9. Which statement is true
3. The vertical plane that defines a. According to CAR-ANS Part 6
the zero-micro ampere (0 DDM) of also known as the Manual of
the runway is produced by what standards for Radio
ILS sub-system? navigation aids, ILS is the
a. Glideslope standard visual precision
b. Localizer approach and landing.
c. Marker Beacon b. ILS consist of sub-system
d. T-DME known as the localizer, the
4. A fly up indications means that glide slope, and marker
a. The aircraft moves above the beacons which can provide
glide path, the needle will visual information to an
move up approaching aircraft.
b. The aircraft moves above the c. In the event that the marker
glide path, the needle will beacons are costly to use due
move down to terrain problem, a DME
c. The aircraft moves below the cannot be used to provide
glide path, the needle will distance information as part
move up of the system,
d. The aircraft moves below the d. Both a and b.
glide path, the needle will
10. Ahybrid bridge circuits is used
move down
5. The course deviation indicator’s
in the ILS equipment as:
vertical needle deflects 75 micro a. Divider and combiner
amperes left of the meter, which b. Antenna recombining
means that the aircraft receives network
a/the: c. Antenna distribution
a. 90 Hz signal predominating network
the 150 Hz signal d. All of the above
b. 90 Hz signal only
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above 11. TheILS T- point is only limited
at what tolerance height in
6. What does DDM stands for? meters?
a. Depth in difference of a. +3 meters
 b. - 3 meters coverage from 10° to 35°
c. ± 3 meters c. To make the course pattern
d. None of the above more directional
d. Both a and b
12. The ILS T-Point is also known as
a. Threshold point
b. Reference datum
c. Touch down point
d. Threshold reference

13. An aircraft is approaching at 21. A Marker beacon situated at a

the center of runway, at what distance of around 800 meters
percentage of modulation of from the runway threshold will
signal does it receive? display visual indicator on
a. 0 percent aircraft’s cockpit upon receiving
b. 20% the beacon’s signal of what
c. 40% color?
d. 80% a. White
14. referring to question no. 3, b. Yellow
what would be its reading? c. Blue
a. 0.0 DDM d. It will not display any
b. 0.155 DDM color
c. 0 micro ampere
22 Localizer is a ground based
d. Both a and c
navigational equipment which
provides what kind of information?
15. A quality by which your signal
can be trusted and will prevent a. Lateral information
radiation in the event of b. Vertical information
radiating a false signal in ILS c. Distance information
a. Quality d. All of the above
b. Reliability
23. A pilot is receiving the ILS
c. Integrity
d. Availability tone of a specific airport.
Which of the following Morse
16. What is the General Equation for code most likely the pilot
receives?
the CSB signal?
a. I-CRK
17 The general equation for the SBO b. M-LAA
signal can be written as c. ILS
d. Both a and c
18 The course width of the ILS is 4
degrees what would be the DDM 24. Which statement is true for a
measured in half width point pilot using the ILS Glideslope?
(edge of course point)? a. As the aircraft moves left
a. 0.155 of centerline the needle
b. 0.0755 moves to the right
c. 0.175 b. When the aircraft is in the
d. 0.0875 centerline the needle is in
the center of CDI
19. Category of an ILS which has no c. As the aircraft moves right
decision height to be consider of centerline the needle
during an ILS approach moves to the left
a. Category I d. The needle is at the center
b. Category II of the CDI when on path.
c. Category III
25. A fly down indication means that
d. None of the above
a. As the aircraft moves below
20. A combination of Clearance CSB the glide path the needle
and SBO is required by ICAO will move up
Annex 10 to what purpose b. As the aircraft moves above
a. To mask the side lobes the glide path the needle
produced by the course will move down
pattern
b. To create the localizer
 c. As the aircraft moves below
the glide path the needle
will move down
d. As the aircraft moves above
the glide path the needle
will move up
26. Which of the conventional ILS
sub-system can provide a correct
descent and approach of the
runway?
a. Localizer, Glideslope, and
Marker Beacons
b. Localizer, Glideslope, and E-
DME
c. Localizer, Glideslope only
d. Both a and b
27. Acourse deviation indicator of
an aircraft provides the pilot on
his landing the following
information:
a. Lateral guidance information
only
b. Vertical guidance information
only
c. Vertical and lateral guidance
only
d. Vertical, horizontal, and
distance information
28. Aircraft on course indicates that
the information receives means
a. Aircraft is in the middle of
the runway
b. Aircraft is at the center of
the runway
c. Aircraft is traversing the
runway at the center
d. All of the above
29. Which statement is false
a. According to CAR-ANS Part 6
also known as the Manual of
Regulations for Radio
navigation aids, ILS is the
standard non- visual
precision approach and
landing.
b. ILS consist of sub-system
known as the localizer, the
glide slope, and marker
beacons which can provide
visual information to an
approaching aircraft.
c. In the event that the marker
beacons are costly to use due
to terrain problem, a DME can
be used to provide distance
information as part of the
system.
d. Both a and b.
30. When an aircraft using the ILS
information from a ground-based
station at a distance of 10
Nmile, it is said that the ILS
receiver is receiving what kind
of signal.
a. Space Modulated signal
b. Amplitude Modulated signal
c. Transmitter modulated signal
d. All of the above
31. This module of ILS increases the
power of both CSB and SBO to a
desired output level
a. Modulator
b. Power-Amplifier
c. Relay
d. Driver
32. For a 2F Capture effect glide
slope, the clearance, signal has
a modulating signal of
a. 90 Hz
b. 150 Hz
c. Carrier only
d. Both a and b
33. An aircraft is located center
runway and the vertical needle is
at the center of the CDI, what is
the % modulation of each tone.
a. 20 %
b. 40%
c. 80%
d. None of the above
34. Referring to question no. 3,
what is the % modulation if the
vertical needle stays at 75 µA
of the CDI
a. 20 %
b. 40%
c. 80%
d. None of the above
35. The half course sector is a
horizontal plane containing the
course line and limited by loci
of points nearest to the course
of what DDM?
a. 0.155
b. 0.0755
c. 0.175
d. 0.08175
36. Whatis the frequency difference the front course line.
of clearance signal and course b. 31.5 km (17 NM) between
signal? 10 degrees and 35 degrees
a. 50 KHz from the front course line.
b. 8 KHz c. 18.5 km (10NM) outside
c. 90 Hz of plus or minus 35 degrees
d. 150 Hz if coverage is provided.
d. All of the above
37 It represents the centerline of
the runway when monitored back into 43. The keying rate of Marker
the equipment upon detection beacons is maintained within plus
or minus?
a. CSB a. 35%
b. SBO b. 10%
c. Position c. 5%
d. Width d. 15%
44. Component of the ILS equipment
38. Whichof the following is not that supplies Dc voltages to
part of the Localizer Antenna several components like the
System. monitor unit, control unit,
a. Monitor and Feed Cable transmitter unit and the MPU.
b. Antenna Network a. Regulator Unit
b. DC/DC unit
c. Field Antenna c. Rectifier unit
d. Obstruction lights d. All of the above
39. Ingeneral application, 45. It provides the 108 to 110 MHz
increasing the number of with a built in DIP switch for 50
antennas for the localizer means KHz plus minus 4 KHz steps
a. number of lobes increases selection
b. radiated signal becomes more a. RF Oscillator
directional b. PLL Synthesizer
c. back course is produced c. Modulator Unit
d. None of the above
d. increases the coverage of
the localizer 46. Component of the ILS equipment
that generates ideal signal and
40. What is the percent of use to calibrate the monitor
modulation of 150 Hz tone if the units.
horizontal needle stays at 150µA a. Modulator unit
above 2.0° glide path angle? b. Test Signal Generator
a. 12.25% c. MPU
b. 31.25% d. Generator Unit
c. 27.25%
d. 80% 47. Components of ILS that
switches transmitter 1 to
41. Which is not true? transmitter 2 and vice versa
a. The determination of consisting of the same type of
course sector of the coaxial relays.
localizer depends only on the a. Antenna Change over unit
b. MPU
length of the runway
c. Control Unit
b. Course sector is d. Remote Control Status
limited only from 3 to 6 Unit
degrees as per ICAO and CAR-
ANS standards 48. In the NEC Localizer
c. Course width is the equipment, the 90+150 signal is
same as the course sector generated from what part of the
d. All of the statements localizer equipment?
are correct a. Generator unit
b. RF Oscillator
42. The coverage of the localizer c. Modulator unit
sector shall extend from the d. PLL Synthesizer
localizer antenna to what
distances? 49. Which statement/s is/are true
a. 46.3 km (25v NM) within and correct?
plus or minus 10 degrees from a. ILS use non-visual
approach procedures that may
 not require runway visibility 56. What will be the depth of
during approach and landing modulation of the larger signal
b. The vertical landing if the CDI horizontal needle
plane containing the runway indicates a 75 uA reading fly
centerline is defined by a VHF down indication?
transmitter called the a. 44.375%
localizer b. 35.625%
c. Both a and b are correct c. 44.735%
d. Both a and b are not d. 35.265%
true
57. Referring to item 56, what is
50. The automatic monitor system the DDM reading?
shall provide a warning a. 8.75%
designated control point located b. 7.75%
at c. 7.57 %
a. ANS Office d. 8.57%
b. Control Tower
c. Site 58. At low angles misphasing, the
d. None of the above harmonic magnitude is low

51. The Carrier frequency of the 59. For an M-Array Glideslope,

2F Glidepath equipment is 334.404 clearance signal is fed to what
MHz. What is the clearance antenna?
carrier frequency?
a. 333.960 MHz a. Upper antenna only
b. 334.400 MHz b. Upper and lower antenna
c. Lower antenna only
c. 334.396 MHz d. None of the above
d. 334.392 MHz

52. It consists of two antennas of 60. The carrier signal can be

which the upper antenna is placed mathematically written in this
three times the height of the equation
lower antenna
a. Sideband Glideslope 61. One of the disadvantages of
b. Null reference the ILS is that aircrafts fly
Glideslope straight in towards the runway
c. M-Array Glideslope during approach and landing
d. M-array Capture Effect because ILS has
a. No segmented approach
53. A deviation along the course b. multi-path effect
line is called c. Sensitive areas
a. Course Interference d. Critical areas
b. Scalloping
c. Course bend 62. This document specifies the
d. None of the above requirements for the radio
navigational aids systems to be
54. What will be the depth of complied with by the service
providers and equipment suppliers
modulation of the larger signal,
if the CDI horizontal needle a. Doc 9871
indicates a 150 uA reading fly b. Manual of Standards for
down indication Radio navigational Aids
a. 47.85% c. ICAO Annex Volume 10
b. 48.75% d. Both B and C
c. 48.57%
d. 52.25% 63. What is the nominal distance
of the glide path antenna to the
55. Referring to item 54, what runway centerline?
will be the depth of modulation a. 120 m
of the smaller signal? b. 120 ft
a. 31.15% c. 300 m
b. 31.25% d. 300 ft
c. 31.43%
d. 27.5%
64. A component of the ILS
equipment that distributes the RF 71. Monitoring (feedback sample of
signals from the transmitter to RF via COAX)
the localizer and glide path
antennas Ans: INTEGRAL MONITORING

a. antenna network 72. Input RF fed to hybrid

b. monitor network circuit, what will be the
c. hybrid circuit resulting amplitude Ans: 50% OR .707
d. combining network
73. A/C normally received LLZ at
65. An approaching aircraft on the
left of the runway receives the 75uA, CDI vertical needle abrupt
localizer at 0.150 uA. What will to center
be the equivalent value in Ans: LLZ SHUTDOWN
DDM003F
74. Monitor to cease radiation if:
a. 0.155 DDM Ans:POWER IS BELOW 50
b. -0.155 DDM
c. 0.000155 DDM
d. -0.0 DDM 75. Measure of space modulation
determined by ratio of energy by
66. The CDI’s horizontal needle the SB to the energy by the
deflects upward while the carrier
vertical needle stays on the Ans: DDM
center. What is the current
status of the aircraft with
respect to the CDI readings?

a. The aircraft is below

glidepath angle and at the
runway centerline
b. The aircraft is above
glidepath angle and at the
runway centerline
c. The aircraft is below
glidepath angle and the
localizer might be out of
service
d. Both a and c are correct

67. The runway half course sector

can be calculated using this
formula Insert formula pero none
of the above sagot haha

68. A component of the ILS

equipment that transfers the
system from Main to standby
transmitter when alarm is
detected
a. MPU
b. Antenna Switching Unit
c. Static Relay
d. Distributor unit
69. A component of the ILS
Localizer Equipment that produces
the 1020 Hz, 90 Hz, and 150 Hz
signal.
a. Modulator
b. Generator unit
c. Synthesizer
d. Coupler

70. Course line shifted to the

left; one tone is greater than
the other
Ans: CARR MOD BAL
NEW NAV AIDS

31. DME distance _____ as the slant

error increases (nabaligtad)

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. Remains constant

d. Insignificant

32. A glidepath antenna system of

which the upper antenna is placed
three times the height of the lower
antenna

a. Null reference Glideslope

b. Sideband Glideslope (answer for 2

antennas)

c. M-array glideslope (answer for 3

antennas)

d. Both b and c (no number of

antennas specified)

33. Weather Condition which gives

pilot sufficient visibility

a. Visual Met Condition

b. …

c. …

d. …

34. Outer marker beacon frequency is

a. 400 Hz

b. 1300 Hz

c. 3000 Hz