KCET MODEL QUESTION PAPER- CHEMISTRY

1. The correct statement regarding entropy is

(1) At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is +Ve.
(2) At 0°C the entropy of a perfect crystalline solid is zero.
(3) At absolute zero temperature, entropy of a perfectly crystalline solid is zero.
(4) At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of all crystalline substance is zero.
2. An organic compound X is oxidized by using acidified K2Cr2C7 solution. The product obtained reacts
with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The compound X is
(1) Ethanal (2) CH3CH2CH3
(3) 2-Propanol (4) Ethanol
3. Benezene carbaldehyde is reacted with concentrated NaOH solution to give the products A and B. The
product A can be used food preservative and the product B is an aromatic hydroxyl compound where
OH group is linked to sp3 hybridised carbon atom next to Benzene ring. The products A and B are
respectively,
(1) Sodium benzoate and phenyl methanol
(2) Sodium benzoate and picric acid
(3) Sodium benzoate and phenol
(4) Sodium benzoate and cresol
−
4. The amount of current in Faraday’s required for the reduction of 1 mol of 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂72 ions to Cr3+ is,
(1) 2F (2) 4F
(3) 1F (4) 6F
5. A secondary cell is one
(1) Can be recharged by passing current through it in the same direction
(2) Can not recharged
(3) Can be recharged
(4) Can be recharged by passing current through it in the opposite direction
6. Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the following equilibria
1
(a) NO g + O2 𝑔 NO2 g
2

(b) 2NO2 g 2NO 𝑔 + O2 g

are related as:

2 (2) 2
(1) K2 = K2 =
K1 𝐾12

(3) K1 = K2 (4) K1 = 2 K 2
7. For a chemical reaction,
mA → xB, the rate law is r = k[A]2. If the concentration of A is doubled, the reaction rate will be
(1) Quadrupled (2) Unchanged
(3) Doubled (4) Increase by 8 times
8. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:
Which of the below setting is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom>
n l m s
1
(1) 5 3 0 +
2
1
(2) 3 2 -3 +
2
1
(3) 4 0 0 −
2
1
(4) 3 2 -2 −
2
9. Which of the following compound is most acidic?

(1) (2)

(3) Cl – CH2 – CH2 – OH (4)

10. The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4gm of CO 2 is,

(1) 6 x 1022 (2) 12 x 1023
(3) 1.2 x 1023 (4) 6 x 1023
11. HCl gas is covalent and NaCl is an ionic compound. This is because
(1) Hydrogen is a non-metal
(2) Electro negativity difference between H and Cl is less than 2.1
(3) Sodium is highly electro +Ve
(4) HCl is a gas
12. In the reaction :

(1) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 (2) OH

(3) C2H2 (4) CH3CH2OSO3H
13. Which of the following is correct about H-bonding in DNA?
(1) A – G, T – C (2) A – A, T – T
(3) A – T, G – C (4) G – T, A – C
Which of the following sequence is correct regarding field strength of ligands as per spectrochemical
14.
series?
(1) Fˉ < SCNˉ < CNˉ < CO (2) SCNˉ < CO < Fˉ < CNˉ
(3) SCNˉ < Fˉ < CNˉ < CO (4) CNˉ < Fˉ < CO < SCNˉ
15. Which of the following is incorrect in a galvanic cell>
(1) Reduction occurs at cathode
(2) The electrode at which electrons are lost is called cathode.
(3) Oxidation occurs at anode
(4) The electrode at which electrons are gained is called cathode
16. Which of the following gives positive Fehling’s solution test?
(1) Glucose (2) Protein
(3) Sucrose (4) Fats
17. IUPAC name of the compound
(1) 2-Bromo-2-butene (2) 1-Bromo but 3-ene
(3) 1-Bromo but-2-ene (4) Bromo butane
18. Electrophile that participates in nitration of benzene is
(1) NO+2 (2) NOˉ3
+
(3) NO (4) NO
19. An organic compound A on reduction gives compound B, which on reaction with trichloromethane and
caustic potash forms C. The compound ‘C’ on catalytic reduction gives N-methyle benzenamine, the
compound ‘A’ is,
(1) Nitromethane (2) Benzenamine
(3) Nitrobenzene (4) Methanamine
20. Main axis of diatomic molecule is Z. The orbitals px and py overlap to form
(1) σ – molecular orbital (2) No bond is formed.
(3) Π – molecular orbital (4) δ – molecular orbital
21. Ethanol is converted in to ethoxy ethane,
(1) By heating Ethanol with excess of conc. H2SO4 at 443K
(2) By heating with conc. H2SO4 at 273K
(3) By heating excess of ethanol with conc. H2SO4 at 140°C
(4) By treating with conc. H2SO4 at room temperature
−
22. The increasing order of bond order O2, O+ − 2
2 , O2 and 𝑂2 is
−
(1) 𝑂22 , O− +
2 , O2 , O2
(2) O2− − +
2 , O2 , O2 , O2
− −
(3) O+ − 2
2 , O2 , O2 , 𝑂2
(4) O2 , O+ − 2
2 , O2 , 𝑂2
ⅆ𝐵
23. 3A → 2B, rate of reaction + is equal to
ⅆ𝑡
2ⅆ 𝐴 (2) 1ⅆ 𝐴
(1) − −
3 𝑑𝑡 3 𝑑𝑡
3ⅆ 𝐴 (4) ⅆ𝐴
(3) − +2
2 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
24. The hybridization of C in diamond graphite and ethyne is in the order
(1) sp3, sp2, sp (2) sp2, sp3, sp
(3) sp3, sp, sp2 (4) sp, sp2, sp3
25. In the reaction: Fc(OH)3(s) Fe3+(aq) + 3OHˉ(aq) if the concentration of OH ions is decreased by ¼ times,
then the equilibrium concentration of Fe3+ will increase by,
(1) 16 times (2) 4 times
(3) 8 times (4) 64 times
26. Predict the product ‘C’ in the following series of reactions:

(1) CH3CH(OH)C6H5 (2) (CH3)2C(OH)C6H5

(4) CH3CH(OH)C2H5
(3)

27. An organic compound contains C=40%, H= 13.33% and N = 46.67%. its empirical formula is
(1) C3H7N (2) CHN
(3) C2H2N (4) CH4N
If the bond energies of H-H, Br-Br and H-Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol-1 respectively. then ∆H° for
28.
the reaction:
H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g) is
(1) +103 kj (2) -103 kj
(3) -261 kj (4) +261 kj
29. Specific conductance of 0.1M HNO3 is 6.3 x 10-2 ohm-1 cm-1. The molar conductance of the solution is
(1) 6.300 ohm-1 cm-1 mol-1 (2) 63.0 ohm-1 cm-1 mol-1
(3) 630 ohm-1 cm-2 mol-1 (4) 315 ohm-1 cm2 mol-1
30. For spontaneity of a cell, which is correct?
(1) ∆G = +ve, ∆E = +ve (2) ∆G = -ve
(3) ∆G = 0, ∆E = 0 (4) ∆G = -ve, ∆E = 0
31. Half-life of a reaction is found to be inversely proportional to the fifth power of its initial concentration,
the order of reaction is
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 3 (4) 4
32. What will be the value of x in Fex+, if the magnetic moment μ = 24 BM?
(1) 0 (2) +1
(3) +2 (4) +3
33. The property of halogens which is not correctly matched is
(1) I > Br > Cl > F (density) (2) F > Cl > Br > I (electron gain enthalpy)
(3) F > Cl > Br > I (ionization enthalpy) (4) F > Cl > Br > I (electro negativity)
34. In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes faster SN1 reaction?

(i) (ii)
(B)
(A)
i. ii. i. ii.
(D)
(C) iii.
iv. iii. iv.
35. All Cu(II) halides are known, except the iodide, the reason for it is that
(1) Cu+2 has much more negative hydration enthalpy
(2) Cu+2 ion has smaller size
(3) Iodide is bulky ion
(4) Cu+2 oxidises iodide to iodine
36. The correct IUPAC name of Cis-Platin is
(1) Diammine dichloride platinum (O) (2) Diammine diammine platinum (IV)
(3) Diammine dichlorido platinum (II) (4) Diammine dichlorido platinum (IV)
37. Crystal Field Splitting Energy (CFSE) for [CoCl6] is 18000 cm-1. The Crystal Field Splitting Energy
4-

(CFSE) for [CoCl4]2-

(1) 8000 cm-1 (2) 10,000 cm-1
(3) 18000 cm-1 (4) 16000 cm-1
38. Among the following, the products formed by the reaction of anisole with HI are:
(1) Benzene + Methanol (2) Phenol + Methane
(3) Phenol + Iodomethane (4) Sodium phenate + Methanol
39. Identify the products A and B in the reactions:
R – X + AgCN → A + Ag X
R – X + KCN → B + KX
(1) A = RNC ; B = RCN (2) A = RNC ; B = RNC
(3) A = R ϴ NC ; B = RCN (4) A = RCN ; B = RNC
40. An organic compound with molecular formula C7H8O dissolves in NaOH and gives a characteristic
colour with FeCl3. On treatment with bromine, it gives a tribromo derivative C 7H5OBr3. The
compound is
(1) m – Cresol (2) p – Cresol
(3) Benzyl alcohol (4) O – Cresol
41. In Kolbes reaction the reacting substances are
(1) Sodium phenate and CCl4 (2) Phenol and CHCl3
(3) Sodium phenate and CO2 (4) Phenol and CCl4
42. In Carbylamine test for primary amines the resulting foul smelling product is
(1) CH3NC (2) COCl2
(3) CH3NCl2 (4) CH3CN
43. Ethanoic acid undergoes Hell-Volhard Zelinsky reaction but Methanoic acid does not, because of
(1) Absence of α – H atom in ethanoic acid
(2) Higher acidic strength of ethanoic acid than methanoic acid
(3) Presence of α – H atom in methanoic acid
(4) Presence of α – H atom in ethanoic acid
44. The general name of the compound formed by the reaction between aldehyde and alcohol is
(1) Glycol (2) Acetate
(3) Ester (4) Acetal
45. Reaction by which benezaldehyde can not be prepared is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

46. The test to differentiate between pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one is

(1) Fehling’s test (2) Iodoform test
(3) Baeyer’s test (4) Benedict’s test
47. A Nucleic acid, whether DNA or RNA gives on complete hydrolysis, two purine bases, two pyrimidine
bases, a pentose sugar and phosphoric acid. Nucleotides which are intermediate products in the
hydrolysis contain
(1) Purine or pyrimidine base and ortho-phosphoric acid
(2) Purine or pyrimidine base, a pentose sugar and ortho-phosphoric acid
(3) Purine or pyrimidine base and pentose sugar
(4) A purine base, pentose sugar and ortho-phosphoric acid
48. The work done when 2 moles of an ideal gas expands reversibly and isothermally from a volume of 1 L
to 10 L at 300K is (R=0.0083 kJ K mol-1)
(1) 0.115 kJ (2) 58.5 kJ
(3) 11.5 kJ (4) 5.8 kJ
49. An aequeous solution of alcohol contains 18g of water and 414g of ethyl alcohol. The mole fraction of
water is
(1) 0.7 (2) 0.9
(3) 0.1 (4) 0.4
50. If wavelength of photon is 2.2 x 10-11 and h=6.6 x 10-34 J s, then momentum of photon
(1) 1.0452 x 10-44 kg m s-1 (2) 6.89 x 10+43 kg m s-1
(3) 3 x 10-23 kg m s-1 (4) 3.33 x 10-22 kg m s-1
51. Elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 19, 37 and 55 respectively. Which of the following
statements is true about them?
(1) Z would have the highest ionization potential
(2) Y would have the highest ionization potential
(3) Their ionization potential would increase with increasing atomic number
(4) Y would have an ionization potential between those of X and Z
52. The IUPAC name for

(1) 1-carboxybutan-3-one (2) 4-oxopentanoic acid

(3) 1-hydroxy pentane-1, 4-dione (4) 1, 4-dioxopentanol
53. 1 mole of HI is heated in a closed container of capacity 2 L. At equilibrium half a mole of HI is
dissociated. The equilibrium constant of the reaction is
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.35
(3) 1 (4) 0.5
54. Which among the following has highest pH?
(1) 1 M H2SO4 (2) 0.1 M NaOH
(3) 1 M HCl (4) 1 M NaOH
55. In which of the following compounds, an element exhibits two different oxidation states?
(1) N2H4 (2) N3H
(3) NH2CONH2 (4) NH4NO3
56. Identify A and B in the reaction

(1) A: CH3CH-CH3 (2) A: CH3-CH-CH3

│ │
Br Br
B: CH3-CH2-CH2-I B:CH3-CH-CH3
│
I
(3) A: CH3-CH2-CH2-Br (4) A : CH3-CH2-CH2-Br
B : CH3-CH2-CH2-I B : CH3-CH-CH3
│
I
57. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of concentration
(1) 0.005 M (2) 0.001 M
(3) 0.004 M (4) 0.002 M
58. Solubility of a gas in a liquid increases with
(1) Increase of P and decrease of T (2) Decrease of P and decrease of T
(3) Increase of P and increase of T (4) Increase of P and increase of T
59. The rise in boiling point of a solution containing 1.8g of glucose in 100g of solvent is 0.1°C. the molal
elevation constant of the liquid is
(1) 2 K kg/ mol (2) 10 K kg/ mol
(3) 0.1 K kg/ mol (4) 1 K kg/ mol
60. If 3 g of glucose (molar mass = 108g) is dissolved in 60g of water at 15°C, the osmotic pressure of the
solution will be
(1) 6.57 atm (2) 5.57 atm
(3) 0.34 atm (4) 0.65 atm