Final examination review

1. The inefficiencies created by more and more people working together is called:

A. groupthink.

B. social loafing.

C. process losses.

D. deindividuation.

2. In comparing teams and group members, which statement is most likely true?

A. Team members can readily identify who is and who is not on the team; identifying
members of a group may be more difficult.

B. Group members have common goals; teams may not have the same degree of
consensus about goals.

C. Group members often have more differentiated and specialized roles than team
members.

D. Task interdependence typically is greater with groups than with teams.

3. The phenomenon of reduced effort by people when they are not individually
accountable for their work is referred to as:

A. process loss.

B. social loafing.

C. group polarization.

D. group storming.

4. _____ refers to any time people increase their level of work due to the presence
of others.

A. Social facilitation

B. Additive tasking

C. Social loafing
 D. Overbounding

5. The _____ stage of development of groups is characterized by polite

conversation, the gathering of superficial information about fellow members, and
low trust.

A. norming

B. storming

C. forming

D. performing

6. The clear emergence of a leader and the development of group norms and
cohesiveness are the key indicators of the _____ stage of group development.

A. norming

B. performing

C. forming

D. storming

7. Functional, interdependent roles are characteristic of which stage of group

development?

A. Forming

B. Storming

C. Norming

D. Performing

8. Which term refers to the set of expected behaviors associated with a particular
job or position?

A. Group role
 B. Groupthink

C. Social facilitation

D. Punctuated equilibrium

9. A manager makes the following statement to a subordinate, "I need this report
back in five minutes, and it had better be perfect." Which term best describes this
type of role conflict?

A. Interrole conflict

B. Intrasender role conflict

C. Person-role conflict

D. Intersender role conflict

10. Receiving conflicting information from two or more people about their
expectations for your work behavior reflects:

A. intersender role conflict.

B. intrasender role conflict.

C. interrole conflict.

D. person-role conflict.

11. What type of conflict most likely occurs when a store manager encourages a
salesperson to mislead customers about the quality of the store's products if
deception is inconsistent with the salesperson's values and beliefs?

A. Interrole conflict

B. Intrasender role conflict

C. Intersender role conflict

D. Person-role conflict

12. Molly, a member of a product development team, is most likely experiencing

_____ if she wonders, "Just what am I supposed to be doing?"
 A. role ambiguity

B. role conflict

C. role overload

D. role insufficiency
13. ____ are the informal rules that groups adopt to regulate and regularize group
members' behaviors.

A. Values

B. Norms

C. Ethics

D. Outputs

14. The sum of forces that attract members to a group, provide resistance to leaving
it, and motivate them to be active in it is called:

A. group polarization.

B. social facilitation.

C. group cohesion.

D. punctuated equilibrium.

15. Which of the following is a possible solution for groupthink?

A. Increasing group cohesiveness and engaging in more overbounding

techniques.

B. Isolating the group from outside sources which might bias decision making.

C. Establishing an independent subgroup to make recommendations.

D. Using mind-guards to screen negative input from the group.

16. Which question is most relevant to the task variable of team design?

A. Are there too few or too many team members?

B. Does the team have a meaningful piece of work?

C. Has the team leader established a flexible climate?

D. Does the team have an appropriate amount of diversity?

17. Which term refers to interactions among team members, such as how they
communicate with each other?

A. Punctuated equilibrium

B. Organizational shells

C. Group polarization

D. Group dynamics

18. For a team to do well, the individuals composing the team must sometimes not
maximize their individual effort. This is referred to as:

A. subsystem nonoptimization.

B. limited span of control.

C. organizational process loss.

D. intersender role conflict.

39. At the organizational level, the Team Leadership Model (TLM) suggests that
leaders examine the _____ that may be impacting the team.

A. motivations

B. creative skills

C. reward systems

D. interpersonal behaviors
19. What is the LEAST likely way that a leader could improve team effectiveness?

A. Putting subtle pressure on dissenting members of the team to ensure concept

cohesiveness

B. Designing input-stage variables at the individual, organizational, and team

design levels

C. Ensuring that the team has a clear sense of purpose and performance
expectations

D. Providing coaching while the team is performing its task

20. Goals are most effective when they are:

A. vaguely worded.

B. challenging.

C. general.

D. easy.

21. It is most likely important to have specific goals for the purpose of:

A. eliminating competition.

B. encouraging teamwork.

C. measuring progress.

D. delegating tasks.

22. Which of the following statements about feedback is most likely FALSE?

A. Sometimes supervisors hesitate to use positive feedback because they

believe subordinates will view it as insincere.

B. Leaders may give positive feedback infrequently if they believe good

performance is expected.

C. Research shows that subordinates believe their leaders give more feedback
 than their leaders think they do.

D. Followers will most likely perform at a higher level if they are given accurate,
frequent feedback.

23. Which of the following would LEAST likely improve a leader's feedback skills?

A. Being flexible

B. Being critical

C. Being descriptive

D. Being specific

24. Which of the following is most likely a true statement about feedback?

A. Feedback should focus on facts rather than inferences.

B. Overly descriptive feedback is too complex to be useful.

C. Feedback is ineffective if given too soon after the behavior occurs.

D. Providing both positive and negative feedback during one session is

contradictory.
25. The first requirement for a team intervention to be successful is:

A. brainstorming a range of positive feedback techniques.

B. raising awareness about how teams really work.

C. providing instrument-based team feedback.

D. practicing behaviors with team role play.

26. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the Rocket Model of
Team Effectiveness?

A. Power

B. Morale
 C. Vision

D. Buy-in

27. According to the Rocket Model, the first step to building high-performing teams is
to:

A. identify the constituencies affecting the team.

B. evaluate team and individual goals.

C. build buy-in for the program.

D. establish expected norms.

29. Based on the norms component of the Rocket Model, which statement is most likely
FALSE?

A. If the team or team leader is not explicit about setting the rules that govern team
behavior, norms will simply evolve over time.

B. Norms about how often and how long the team meets should be driven by the team's
purpose and goals.

C. The most important team norms relate to decision making, communication, and
accountability.

D. Leaders should address norms before discussing the context or mission

components.

28. According to the Rocket Model, which of the following would LEAST likely build
buy-in?

A. Developing a compelling vision or purpose for the team

B. Involving team members in the rule-setting process

C. Exhibiting a high level of personal consideration

D. Establishing the credibility of the team leader

29. The power component of the Rocket Model most likely relates to a team's:
 A. leadership style.

B. commitment.

C. accountability.

D. resources.
30. Teams with high levels of morale most likely:

A. accomplish goals with limited resources.

B. handle interpersonal conflict effectively.

C. require few one-one-one meetings.

D. delegate responsibilities frequently.

31. Which statement about delegation is most likely FALSE?

A. Delegation is a simple way for leaders to free themselves of time-consuming

chores.

B. Delegation is an overused management option that frustrates most followers.

C. Delegation increases the number of tasks accomplished by work groups.

D. Delegation gives followers developmental opportunities.

32. How does delegation most likely strengthen the organization?

A. By developing valuable customers

B. By utilizing more virtual teams

C. By monitoring quality control

D. By stimulating innovation

33. Which of the following is a common reason that leaders avoid delegation?

A. Subordinates are too busy.

 B. The task is too insignificant.

C. The costs are too extensive.

D. Subordinates are too unskilled.

34. What is the first step of effective delegation?

A. Establishing a specific timeframe

B. Deciding what activity to hand over

C. Determining the objectives of the task

D. Choosing an individual for the assignment

35. When delegating an assignment, which of the following questions is LEAST

relevant to address?

A. How has the task been accomplished in the past?

B. What are the limits of the subordinate's authority?

C. How does the task relate to industry standards?

D. What sources of help are available?

36. When giving performance feedback privately to a subordinate, what should a leader most likely
emphasize?

A. Positive behaviors and results

B. Developmental opportunities

C. Inadequacies and misbehaviors

D. Necessary changes for the future.

37. What is the first step in the coaching model developed by Peterson and Hicks?

A. Determining what task to assign

B. Creating a long-term development plan

 C. Conducting a gaps-of-the GAPS analysis

D. Establishing a relationship based on trust

38. What should a coach most likely do to help a follower stick to a development
plan?

A. Conduct a GAPS analysis

B. Establish long-term objectives

C. Schedule regular reflection sessions

D. Delegate simple and challenging tasks

39. Which statement best summarizes the leader-member exchange (LMX) theory?

A. It highlights the flexibility needed by leaders.

B. It focuses on interactions between leaders and followers.

C. It looks at the positive and negative characteristics of situations.

D. It considers the effects of leader decision-making on group members.

40. The normative decision model is limited only to:

A. decision making.

B. task behaviors.

C. goal accomplishment.

D. goal expectancy.

41. If a decision has a rational or objectively determinable "better or worse"

alternative, the leader should select the better alternative. This most likely refers
to:

A. strategic agility.

B. decision acceptance.

C. problem solving.
 D. decision quality.

42. Which of the following statements about the normative decision model is true?

A. The model shifts focus away from the leader and followers to the situation.

B. Decision tree questions focus on the problem and situational factors.

C. The model focuses on the effects of formal authority systems.

D. It is about personal opinions rather than theory.

43. Which two broad categories of leader behaviors did the situational leadership
model originally identify?

A. Directive and supportive

B. Transformational and transactional

C. Behavior-oriented and cognitively-oriented

D. Initiating structure and consideration

44. According to the situational leadership theory, four types of leadership behavior
can be identified. They include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. delegating.

B. selling.

C. participating.

D. modeling.
45. Follower readiness refers to a(n):

A. follower's ability and willingness to accomplish a particular task.

B. assessment of an individual's personality in certain situations.

C. personal trait or value that is difficult to change.

D. follower's reaction to certain leadership styles.

46. What should leaders first assess in order to apply the situational leadership
model?
 A. The level of task and relationship behavior that will likely produce successful
outcomes.

B. The readiness level of the follower relative to the task to be accomplished.

C. The leader's behavior that best suits the current situation and task.

D. The historical behavior patterns of the leader and follower.

47. In terms of the four leadership styles of situational leadership, a high task/low
relationship behavior is referred to as:

A. delegating.

B. selling.

C. participating.

D. telling.
48. The delegating leadership style has:

A. high task/low relationship behavior.

B. low task/low relationship behavior.

C. high task/high relationship behavior.

D. low task/high relationship behavior.

49. Which of the following statements is most likely true of the leadership theories?

A. Situational Leadership suggests that leaders remain consistent in their

behaviors.

B. The contingency model emphasizes flexibility in leader behaviors.

C. Situational Leadership asserts that leaders should use a decision tree in

stressful situations.

D. The contingency model suggests that leader effectiveness depends on

selecting the right kind of leader for a certain situation.
50. Situational Leadership suggests that effective leaders base behavior upon:

A. valued rewards.

B. follower maturity.

C. task structure.

D. leader-member relations.

51. Which of the following instruments does Fiedler's contingency theory use to
determine the relevant characteristic of the leader?

A. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

B. The California Personality Inventory

C. The Least Preferred Co-worker Scale

D. The Five Factor Personality Inventory

52. Which of the following statements about high-LPC leaders is most likely true?

A. If tasks are being accomplished in an acceptable manner, they will move to

their secondary level of motivation, which is forming and maintaining
relationships with followers.
B. They focus on improving their relationships with followers after they are
assured that assigned tasks are being satisfactorily accomplished.
C. They are primarily satisfied by establishing and maintaining close
interpersonal relationships.
D. They primarily gain satisfaction from task accomplishment.

53. What is the weakest element of situational favorability?

A. Subordinate acceptance

B. Leader-member relations

C. Task structure

D. Position power

54. The highest levels of situational favorability most likely occur when:
 A. leader-member relations are good, the task is structured, and position power
is high.

B. there are high levels of leader-member conflict, the task is unstructured, and
the leader uses reward power.

C. leader-member relations are good, the task is unstructured, and position

power is low.

D. there are high levels of leader-member conflict, the task is structured, and the
leader uses coercive power.

55. According to the path-goal theory, which leader behavior is most likely
characterized by remaining open and approachable to followers?

A. Achievement-oriented leadership

B. Directive leadership

C. Participative leadership

D. Supportive leadership

56. Leaders exhibiting participative leadership are most likely to:

A. emphasize status differentials among followers.

B. establish norms and procedures immediately.

C. share work problems with followers.

D. be viewed as demanding.

57. Which of the following statements about the path-goal theory is most likely
FALSE?

A. The three sub-elements in situation favorability are the task, the formal
authority system, and the primary work group.

B. Redundant leader behaviors might be interpreted by followers as a lack of

understanding.
 C. If a task is very structured, informal authority decreases follower motivation
levels.

D. It maintains that follower and situational variables can impact each other.
58. In terms of the path-goal theory, which of the following is considered a situational
factor?

A. The decision quality

B. Leader-member relations

C. Position power

D. The task

59. According to research, between 50-90 percent of all new businesses fail within
five years due to:

A. insufficient investment capital.

B. managerial incompetence.

C. unethical business practices.

D. poor target marketing.

60. Which individuals are good at building teams and getting results through others?

A. Cheerleaders

B. Taskmasters

C. Competent managers

D. Figurehead managers

61. Which individuals achieve short-lived results because they treat followers very
poorly?

A. Taskmasters

B. Figureheads
 C. Competent managers

D. Cheerleaders
62. Cheerleaders:

A. only focus on getting results.

B. avoid the spotlight.

C. tend to treat followers poorly.

D. are people-centered.

63. Which type of leader does not want attention and has difficulties with both
building teams and getting results?

A. Taskmasters

B. Competent managers

C. Figureheads

D. Cheerleaders
64. Which of the following most likely underlies the management derailment pattern
of being unable to lead and build a team?

A. The presence of dark-side traits

B. Inadequate distribution channels

C. Poor product development decisions

D. Lying about business and financial results

65. Managers who derail due to an inability to build relationships with co-workers are
most likely:

A. overly sensitive.

B. domineering.

C. self-conscious.
 D. lazy.

66. In the context of managerial derailment, _____ is a factor associated with

destructive leadership.

A. inability to adapt to new situations

B. failure to meet business objectives

C. inability to build relationships

D. inability to build and lead teams

67. When people in positions of authority face extremely tough situational or follower
events that temporarily interfere with their ability to build teams and get results, it
is known as:

A. chronic managerial incompetence.

B. authoritarian management.

C. impoverished management.

D. episodic managerial incompetence.

68. _____ is defined as the relevant knowledge a person can leverage to solve a
problem.

A. Managerial competence

B. Technical expertise

C. Subject matter expertise

D. Team-building know-how

69. _____ are followers who seek forgiveness rather than permission and offer
alternative solutions.

A. Slackers
 B. Brown-nosers

C. Criticizers

D. Self-starters

70. Which of the following is NOT a dark-side personality trait?

A. Cautious

B. Mischievous

C. Charismatic

D. Diligent

71. Which dark-side personality trait most likely describes a leader who is spineless
and won't stand up for subordinates?

A. Skeptical

B. Colorful

C. Dutiful

D. Imaginative

72. Because of their narcissistic tendencies, _____ leaders often get quite a bit done.

A. reserved

B. bold

C. dutiful

D. colorful

73. Leaders with this dark-side trait have an unhealthy mistrust of others, are
constantly questioning the motives and integrity of their followers, and are vigilant
for signs of disloyalty. Which dark-side personality trait is defined by this
statement?
 A. Bold

B. Excitable

C. Skeptical

D. Cautious

74. Diligent leaders are most likely to:

A. blame others for their mistakes.

B. deal with stress by trying to gain favors from superiors.

C. frustrate their staffs through micro-management.

D. be unconcerned about the welfare of their staff.

75. Which dark-side personality trait is associated with a leader who becomes
withdrawn during times of stress?

A. Excitable

B. Reserved

C. Skeptical

D. Dutiful

76. Which of the following statements concerning dark-side traits is most likely
FALSE?

A. Many dark-side traits covary with social skills.

B. Everyone has at least one dark-side personality trait.

C. Dark-side traits are usually apparent only when leaders are attending to their
public image.

D. Dark-side traits usually emerge during crises or periods of high stress and
serve as coping mechanisms.

77. Which managerial types have most likely gained insight into their dark-side traits
and found ways to negate the debilitating effects of these traits on followers?
 A. Competent Managers

B. Taskmasters

C. Cheerleaders

D. Figureheads

78. Jim Collins' study of highly successful companies that subsequently failed
indicated that these firms went through a five-stage process toward failure. What
is the first stage of the process?

A. Leaders focus on succession planning initiatives, and firms expand globally.

B. Firms focus on external factors such as competitors and changing

technologies.

C. Leaders strive to merge with successful companies to gain more market

share.

D. Firms become insulated by success, and leaders adopt an entitlement

mentality.