.

UPSC Prelims
Test Series 2024

TEST 26

Full Length

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
T.B.C. Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - I
TEST - 26
CURRENT AFFAIRS
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST
BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in
Hindi and English. Each comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
5. All items carry equal marks.
6. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
7. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN ALL THE QUESTIONS
There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer is given by the
candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. If a candidate gives more than one
answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same
penalty as above to that question. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
1. परीीक्षाा प्राारम्भ होोनेे केे तुुरन्त बााद आप इस परीीक्षण पुुस्ति�िकाा कीी पड़तााल अवश्य कर लेंं कि� इसमेंं कोोई बि�नाा छपाा, फटाा याा छूूटाा हुुआ पृृष्ठ अथवाा प्रश्नांं�श
आदि न हो। यदि ऐसा है, तो इसे सही परीक्षण पुस््ततिका से बदल लेें।
2. इस परीीक्षण पुुस्ति�िकाा पर सााथ मेंं दि�ए गए कोोष्ठक मेंं आपकोो अपनाा अनुुक्रमांं�क लि�खनाा हैै।
परीक्षण पुस््ततिका पर और कुछ न लिखेें।
3. इस परीीक्षण पुुस्ति�िकाा मेंं 100 प्रश्नांं�श (प्रश्न) दि�ए गए हैंं। प्रत्येेक प्रश्नांं�श हि�न्दीी और अंंग्रेेजीी दोोनोंं मेंं छपाा हैै। प्रत्येेक प्रश्नांं�श मेंं चाार प्रत्युुत्तर
(उत्तर) दिए गए हैैं। इनमेें से एक प्रत््ययुत्तर को चुन लेें, जिसे आप उत्तर-पत्रक पर अंकित करना चाहते हैैं। यदि आपको ऐसा लगे कि एक से अधिक
प्रत््ययुत्तर सही हैैं, तो उस प्रत््ययुत्तर को अंकित करेें जो आपको सर्वोत्तम लगे। प्रत््ययेक प्रश््नाांश के लिए केवल एक ही प्रत््ययुत्तर चुनना है।
4. आपकोो अपनेे सभीी प्रत्युुत्तर अलग सेे दि�ए गए उत्तर पत्रक पर हीी अंंकि�त करनेे हैंं। उत्तर पत्रक मेंं दि�ए गए नि�र्देेश देेखेंं ।
5. सभीी प्रश्नांं�शोंं केे अंंक समाान हैंं।
6. कच्चेे कााम केे लि�ए पत्रक, परीीक्षण पुुस्ति�िकाा केे अंंत मेंं संंलग्न हैंं।
7. गलत उत्तरोंं केे लि�ए दण्ड :
सभी प्रश्ननों मेें उम््ममीदवार द्वारा दिए गए गलत उत्तरोों के लिए दण््ड दिया जाएगा।
प्रत््ययेक प्रश्न के लिए चार वैकल््पपिक उत्तर हैैं। उम््ममीदवार द्वारा प्रत््ययेक प्रश्न के लिए दिए गए एक गलत उत्तर के लिए प्रश्न हेतु नियत किए गए अंकोों का
एक-तिहाई दण््ड के रूप मेें काटा जाएगा। यदि कोई उम््ममीदवार एक से अधिक उत्तर देता है, तो इसे गलत उत्तर माना जाएगा, यद्यपि दिए गए उत्तरोों मेें से
एक उत्तर सही होता है, फिर भी प्रश्न के लिए उपर््ययुक््ततानुसार ही उसी तरह का दण््ड दिया जाएगा। यदि उम््ममीदवार द्वारा कोई प्रश्न हल नहीीं किया जाता है
अर््थथात् उम््ममीदवार द्वारा उत्तर नहीीं दिया जाता है, तो उस प्रश्न के लिए कोई दण््ड नहीीं दिया जाएगा।

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ध््ययान देें: अनुदेशोों का िहन््ददी रूपान््तर इस पुिस््तका के मुख््यपृष््ठ पर छपा है।


Q 1. Consider the following statements regarding
Enforcement Directorate (ED):
1. ED was established under the Ministry of Home
Affairs.
2. The ED Director is appointed by the President.
3. ED has the authority to take actions against
violations of PMLA (prevention of money laundering
act).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q 2. Consider the following statements regarding the
State Human Rights Commission (SHRC):
1. The SHRC is a constitutional body.
2. State Human Rights Commission has the
power to inquire into violations only if they are
listed in List II of the State List or List III of the
Concurrent List.
3. The SHRC has authority equivalent to a civil
court for judicial proceedings.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
.
Q 5. Consider the following statements concerning the
financial aspects of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs):
1. Panchayats across India primarily rely on state
government and internal resource generation
for their financial sustenance.
2. The Gram Panchayats have a more diverse tax
domain compared to intermediate and District
Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 6. Consider the following statements regarding the
limitations of State Public Service Commission (SPSC):
1. The SPSC is consulted while making reservations
for backward classes.
2. The state government can exclude posts, services,
and matters from the purview of the SPSC.
3. The SPSC cannot make regulations specifying
matters where its consultation is not necessary.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q 3. Consider the following initiatives: Q 7. Consider the following statements:

1. Atal Innovation Mission 1. The President can appoint an acting judge of a
2. School Education Quality Index high court as the chief justice of the high court.
3. India Export Promotion Index 2. The chief justice of a high court can request a
retired judge to act as a judge of the high court for a
How many of the above is/are initiatives of NITI Aayog?
temporary period with the consent of the governor.
(a) Only one
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only 1
(c) All three
(b) Only 2
(d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q 4. Consider the following statements regarding the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
functioning of the district councils in the Sixth Q 8. Consider the following statements regarding the
Schedule areas: vacation of seats in the State Legislature:
1. The district councils possess legislative powers 1. A member may resign his seat by writing to the
without the Governor’s assent. Governor.
2. Autonomous regions within a district can be 2. A member can be expelled from the House for
formed by the Governor. promoting enmity between different groups.
3. The district councils can establish primary 3. A person vacates his seat if his election is
schools, hospitals, parks without any restrictions. declared void by the court.
How many of the above statements are correct? How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

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Q 1. प्रवर्ततन नि�देेशाालय (ED) केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार Q 5. पंंचाायतीी रााज संंस्थााओं (PRI) केे वि�त्तीीय पहलुुओं सेे संंबंंधि�त
कीीजि�ए: नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. ED काा गठन गृृह मंंत्राालय केे तहत कि�याा गयाा थाा। 1. सम्पूूर्णण भाारत मेंं पंंचाायतेंं अपनेे वि�त्तीीय स्त्रोोत केे लि�ए मुुख्य रूप
2. ED नि�देेशक कीी नि�युुक्ति�ि रााष्ट्रपति� द्वााराा कीी जाातीी हैै। सेे रााज्य सरकाार और आंंतरि�क संंसााधनोंं केे सृृजन पर नि�र्भभर हैंं।
3. ED केे पाास PMLA (धन शोोधन नि�वाारण अधि�नि�यम) केे 2. मध्यवर्तीी और जि�लाा पंंचाायतोंं कीी तुुलनाा मेंं ग्रााम पंंचाायतोंं केे
उल्लंंघन केे खि�लााफ काार्ररवााई करनेे काा अधि�काार हैै। पाास अधि�क वि�वि�ध कर अधि�काार क्षेेत्र हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक (a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल दोो (b) केेवल 2
(c) सभीी तीीन (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(d) कोोई नहींं (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
Q 2. रााज्य माानवााधि�काार आयोोग (SHRC) केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त Q 6. रााज्य लोोक सेेवाा आयोोग (SPSC) कीी सीीमााओं केे संंबंंध मेंं
कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. SHRC एक संंवैैधाानि�क नि�कााय हैै। 1. पि�छड़ेे वर्गोंं केे लि�ए आरक्षण काा प्राावधाान करतेे समय SPSC
2. रााज्य माानवााधि�काार आयोोग कोो उल्लंंघनोंं कीी जांं�च करनेे काा सेे पराामर्शश कि�याा जााताा हैै।
अधि�काार केेवल तभीी हैै जब वेे रााज्य सूूचीी कीी सूूचीी II याा 2. रााज्य सरकाार पदोंं, सेेवााओं और माामलोंं कोो SPSC केे दाायरेे
समवर्तीी सूूचीी कीी सूूचीी III मेंं सूूचीीबद्ध होंं। सेे बााहर कर सकतीी हैै।
3. SHRC केे पाास न्याायि�क काार्ययवााहीी केे लि�ए सि�वि�ल कोोर्टट केे 3. SPSC उन माामलोंं कोो नि�र्दि�िष्ट करनेे वाालेे नि�यम नहींं बनाा
समाान शक्ति�ियांं� हैै। सकताा जहांं� उसकाा पराामर्शश आवश्यक नहींं हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक (a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो (b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन (c) सभीी तीीन
(d) कोोई नहींं (d) कोोई नहींं
Q 7. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
Q 3. नि�म्नलि�खि�त पहलोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: 1. रााष्ट्रपति� कि�सीी उच्च न्याायाालय केे काार्ययवााहक न्याायााधीीश कोो
1. अटल इनोोवेेशन मि�शन उच्च न्याायाालय काा मुुख्य न्याायााधीीश नि�युुक्त कर सकताा हैै।
2. स्कूूलीी शि�क्षाा गुुणवत्ताा सूूचकांं�क 2. उच्च न्याायाालय काा मुुख्य न्याायााधीीश रााज्यपााल कीी सहमति� सेे कि�सीी
3. भाारत नि�र्याा�त संंवर्धधन सूूचकांं�क सेेवाानि�वृृत्त न्याायााधीीश सेे अस्थाायीी अवधि� केे लि�ए उच्च न्याायाालय
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनीी पहल नीीति� आयोोग कीी हैै/हैंं? केे न्याायााधीीश केे रूप मेंं काार्यय करनेे काा अनुुरोोध कर सकताा हैै।
(a) केेवल एक उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(b) केेवल दोो (a) केेवल 1
(c) सभीी तीीन (b) केेवल 2
(d) कोोई नहींं (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
Q 4. छठीी अनुुसूूचीी क्षेेत्रोंं मेंं जि�लाा परि�षदोंं केे काार्योंं केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: Q 8. रााज्य वि�धाानमंंडल मेंं पदोंं कीी रि�क्ति�ि केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं
1. जि�लाा परि�षदोंं केे पाास रााज्यपााल कीी सहमति� केे बि�नाा वि�धाायीी पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
शक्ति�ियाँँ� होोतीी हैंं। 1. कोोई सदस्य रााज्यपााल कोो पत्र लि�खकर अपनेे पद सेे इस्तीीफाा देे सकताा हैै।
2. कि�सीी जि�लेे केे भीीतर स्वाायत्त क्षेेत्र काा गठन रााज्यपााल द्वााराा 2. वि�भि�न्न समूूहोंं केे बीीच शत्रुुताा कोो बढ़ाावाा देेनेे केे लि�ए कि�सीी
कि�याा जाा सकताा हैै। सदस्य कोो सदन सेे नि�ष्काासि�त कि�याा जाा सकताा हैै।
3. जि�लाा परि�षदेंं बि�नाा कि�सीी प्रति�बंंध केे प्रााथमि�क वि�द्याालय, 3. यदि� कि�सीी व्यक्ति�ि काा चुुनााव न्याायाालय द्वााराा शूून्य घोोषि�त कर
अस्पतााल, पाार्कक काा नि�र्माा�ण कर सकतीी हैंं। दि�याा जााताा हैै तोो वह अपनाा पद खाालीी कर देेताा हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैंं? उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक (a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो (b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन (c) सभीी तीीन
(d) कोोई नहींं (d) कोोई नहींं

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Q 9. Consider the following statements regarding the Q 12. Consider the following statements about
appointment and removal of Governors: parliamentary committees:
1. The “Punchhi Commission - 2010” recommended 1. The Public Accounts Committee cannot
that there should be a provision for the question Parliament’s policy but can intervene
impeachment of the governor by the state in day-to-day administration.
legislature.
2. According to the constitution, state chief minister 2. The Departmental Standing Committees focus
have a role in the governor’s appointment. solely on public expenditure and financial
3. In SR Bommai case, the Supreme Court accountability.
interpreted Article 356 of the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
correct? (a) Only 1
(a) Only one (b) Only 2
(b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None
Q 13. With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider
Q 10. Consider the following statements about the the following statements:
election of the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha in
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India
India:
can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme
1. The election of the Deputy Speaker shall be Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with
held on such date as the Speaker may fix. the prior permission of the President of India.
2. The provisions of rules governing the election
2. A High Court in India has the power to review
of the Speaker also apply to the election of the
its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Deputy Speaker.
3. The position of Deputy Speaker is above the
other members in Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
How many of the above statements is/are (a) Only 1
correct? (b) Only 2
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None
Q 14. Consider the following statements about the
Q 11. Consider the following statements: effects of a National Emergency on fundamental
1. Question Hour allows MPs to ask questions to rights:
ministers and seek accountability. 1. Article 19 is automatically suspended when a
2. Zero Hour is a formal part of the rules of National Emergency is declared on the basis of
parliamentary procedure. war/external aggression.
3. Unstarred Questions are answered orally on 2. Proclamation of emergency can suspend right
the floor of the House during Question Hour. to move any court for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only 1
(b) Only two (b) Only 2
(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q 9. रााज्यपाालोंं कीी नि�युुक्ति�ि और नि�ष्काासन केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त Q 12. संंसदीीय समि�ति�योंं केे बाारेे मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. “पुंं�छीी आयोोग – 2010” नेे सि�फाारि�श कीी कि� रााज्य वि�धाानमंंडल 1. लोोक लेेखाा समि�ति� संंसद कीी नीीति� पर सवााल नहींं उठाा सकतीी
द्वााराा रााज्यपााल पर महााभि�योोग चलाानेे काा प्राावधाान होोनाा चााहि�ए। लेेकि�न दि�न-प्रति�दि�न केे प्रशाासन मेंं हस्तक्षेेप कर सकतीी हैै।
2. संंवि�धाान केे अनुुसाार, रााज्यपााल कीी नि�युुक्ति�ि मेंं रााज्य केे
मुुख्यमंंत्रीी कीी भूूमि�काा होोतीी हैै। 2. वि�भाागीीय स्थाायीी समि�ति�याँँ� केेवल साार्ववजनि�क व्यय और वि�त्तीीय
3. SR बोोम्मई माामलेे मेंं सुुप्रीीम कोोर्टट नेे संंवि�धाान केे अनुुच्छेेद जवााबदेेहीी पर ध्याान केंंद्रि�त करतीी हैंं।
356 कीी व्यााख्याा कीी थीी|
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक (a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल दोो (b) केेवल 2
(c) सभीी तीीन (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(d) कोोई नहींं (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2

Q 10. भाारत मेंं लोोकसभाा केे उपााध्यक्ष केे चुुनााव केे बाारेे मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त Q 13. भाारतीीय न्याायपाालि�काा केे संंदर्भभ मेंं, नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार
कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: कीीजि�ए:

1. उपााध्यक्ष काा चुुनााव अध्यक्ष द्वााराा नि�र्धाा�रि�त ति�थि� पर होोताा हैै।
2. अध्यक्ष केे चुुनााव कोो नि�यंंत्रि�त करनेे वाालेे नि�यमोंं केे प्राावधाान
उपााध्यक्ष केे चुुनााव पर भीी लाागूू होोतेे हैंं।
3. लोोकसभाा मेंं उपााध्यक्ष काा पद अन्य सदस्योंं सेे ऊपर होोताा हैै।
1. भाारत केे रााष्ट्रपति� कीी पूूर्वव अनुुमति� सेे भाारत केे मुुख्य न्याायााधीीश
द्वााराा भाारत केे सर्वोोच्च न्याायाालय केे कि�सीी भीी सेेवाानि�वृृत्त
न्याायााधीीश कोो सर्वोोच्च न्याायाालय केे न्याायााधीीश केे रूप मेंं
काार्यय करनेे केे लि�ए बुुलाायाा जाा सकताा हैै।
2. भाारत मेंं एक उच्च न्याायाालय केे पाास सर्वोोच्च न्याायाालय कीी
तरह अपनेे फैैसलेे कीी समीीक्षाा करनेे कीी शक्ति�ि हैै।

उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक (a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल दोो (b) केेवल 2
(c) सभीी तीीन (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(d) कोोई नहींं (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2

Q 11. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: Q 14. मौौलि�क अधि�काारोंं पर रााष्ट्रीीय आपाातकााल केे प्रभाावोंं केे बाारेे मेंं
नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. प्रश्नकााल सांं�सदोंं कोो मंंत्रि�योंं सेे प्रश्न पूूछनेे और जवााबदेेहीी
मांं�गनेे कीी अनुुमति� देेताा हैै। 1. जब युुद्ध/बााह्य आक्रमण केे आधाार पर रााष्ट्रीीय आपाातकााल
कीी घोोषणाा कीी जाातीी हैै तोो अनुुच्छेेद 19 स्वतःः हीी नि�लंंबि�त होो
2. शूून्यकााल संंसदीीय प्रक्रि�याा केे नि�यमोंं काा एक औपचाारि�क जााताा हैै।
हि�स्साा हैै। 2. आपाातकााल कीी उद्घोोषणाा मौौलि�क अधि�काारोंं केे प्रवर्ततन केे
लि�ए कि�सीी भीी न्याायाालय मेंं जाानेे केे अधि�काार कोो नि�लंंबि�त
3. प्रश्नकााल केे दौौराान अताारांं�कि�त प्रश्नोंं काा उत्तर सदन मेंं कर सकतीी हैै।
मौौखि�क रूप सेे दि�याा जााताा हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक (a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल दोो (b) केेवल 2
(c) सभीी तीीन (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(d) कोोई नहींं (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2

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Q 15. With reference to amending Directive Principles
of State Policy in the Constitution, consider the
following statements:
1. The procedure for amending Directive Principles
requires a special majority in both Houses of
Parliament.
2. Unlike Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles can
be amended by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha.
3. The President’s assent is not required for
amending any Directive Principle.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
.
Q 18. Consider the following statements:
1. In the provincial legislatures, the seats were to
be distributed on communal basis.
2. Allocation of seats was to be made for labourers,
landlords, traders and industrialists.
3. The existing seats of the provincial legislatures
were to be doubled.
How many of the above mentioned were included
in the provisions of the Communal Award?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q 16. Which of the following is correct regarding the Q 19. Consider the following statements with respect
Pirpur Committee? to Karachi Session of Indian National Congress
(a) It was a report prepared by the Princely states held in 1931:
on the atrocities done by congress. 1. Goal of “Purna Swaraj” was reiterated.
(b) It was a committee used as an underground
2. Resolution on National Economic Programme.
society for anti-British revolutionaries during
the individual satyagraha. 3. The National Planning Committee was set up
(c) It was a committee to ensure the balance under Jawahar Lal Nehru.
between the Cabinet Mission and Indian 4. It was presided over by Madan Mohan Malviya.
Nationalists.
(d) It was a committee that prepared a detailed
How many of the above mentioned statements
report regarding the atrocities of the Congress is/are correct?
Ministries on Muslims. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q 17. Consider the following statements with reference
(c) Only three
to comparison between the Non-Cooperation
movement (NCM) and the Civil Disobedience (d) All four
Movement (CDM):
Q 20. Consider the following pairs:
1. NCM had a clear objective of complete
independence compared to CDM.
2. Many labour upsurges coincided with the CDM Organizations Founder
because of the All India Trade Union Congress 1. Yugantar Group Barindra Kumar
(AITU). Ghosh
3. There was a massive participation of peasants 2. Anushilan Samiti Promotha Mitter
and business in CDM compared to NCM. 3. Dacca Anushilan Samiti Surya Sen
How many of the above statements is/are
correct? How many of the above given pairs is/are
(a) Only one correctly matched?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None

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Q 15. संंवि�धाान मेंं रााज्य केे नीीति� नि�देेशक तत्वोंं मेंं संंशोोधन केे संंदर्भभ मेंं, Q 18. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: 1. प्रांं�तीीय वि�धाानमंंडलोंं मेंं सीीटोंं काा वि�तरण सांं�प्रदाायि�क आधाार
पर कि�याा जाानाा थाा।
1. नि�देेशक तत्वोंं मेंं संंशोोधन कीी प्रक्रि�याा केे लि�ए संंसद केे दोोनोंं
सदनोंं मेंं वि�शेेष बहुुमत कीी आवश्यकताा होोतीी हैै। 2. मजदूूरोंं, जमींंदाारोंं, व्याापाारि�योंं और उद्योोगपति�योंं केे लि�ए सीीटोंं
2. मौौलि�क अधि�काारोंं केे वि�परीीत, नि�देेशक तत्वोंं कोो लोोकसभाा मेंं काा आवंंटन कि�याा जाानाा थाा।
सााधाारण बहुुमत सेे संंशोोधि�त कि�याा जाा सकताा हैै।
3. कि�सीी भीी नि�देेशक तत्व मेंं संंशोोधन केे लि�ए रााष्ट्रपति� कीी 3. प्रांं�तीीय वि�धाानमंंडलोंं कीी मौौजूूदाा सीीटोंं कोो दोोगुुनाा कि�याा जाानाा थाा।
सहमति� कीी आवश्यकताा नहींं होोतीी हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कोो सांं�प्रदाायि�क अधि�नि�र्णणय केे प्राावधाानोंं मेंं
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? शाामि�ल कि�याा गयाा थाा?

(a) केेवल एक (a) केेवल एक

(b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन (b) केेवल दोो
(d) कोोई नहींं
(c) सभीी तीीन
Q 16. पीीरपुुर समि�ति� केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन साा सहीी हैै?
(d) कोोई नहींं
(a) यह कांं�ग्रेेस द्वााराा कि�ए गए अत्यााचाारोंं पर रि�याासतोंं द्वााराा तैैयाार
कीी गई एक रि�पोोर्टट थीी। Q 19. 1931 मेंं आयोोजि�त भाारतीीय रााष्ट्रीीय कांं�ग्रेेस केे करााचीी अधि�वेेशन केे
(b) यह व्यक्ति�िगत सत्यााग्रह केे दौौराान ब्रि�टि�श वि�रोोधीी क्रांं�ति�काारि�योंं संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
केे लि�ए एक भूूमि�गत सोोसाायटीी केे रूप मेंं उपयोोग कीी जाानेे
वाालीी समि�ति� थीी। 1. “पूूर्णण स्वरााज” काा लक्ष्य दोोहराायाा गयाा।
(c) यह कैैबि�नेेट मि�शन और भाारतीीय रााष्ट्रवाादि�योंं केे बीीच संंतुुलन 2. रााष्ट्रीीय आर्थि�िक काार्ययक्रम पर संंकल्प|
सुुनि�श्चि��त करनेे केे लि�ए एक समि�ति� थीी। 3. रााष्ट्रीीय योोजनाा समि�ति� काा गठन जवााहर लााल नेेहरू केे अधीीन
(d) यह एक समि�ति� थीी जि�सनेे मुुसलमाानोंं पर कांं�ग्रेेस मंंत्रि�मंंडलोंं कि�याा गयाा थाा।
केे अत्यााचाारोंं केे संंबंंध मेंं एक वि�स्तृृत रि�पोोर्टट तैैयाार कीी थीी। 4. इसकीी अध्यक्षताा मदन मोोहन माालवीीय द्वााराा कीी गई थीी।

Q 17. असहयोोग आंंदोोलन (NCM) और सवि�नय अवज्ञाा आंंदोोलन (CDM) उपर्युु�क्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
केे बीीच तुुलनाा केे संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: (a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो
1. CDM कीी तुुलनाा मेंं NCM काा पूूर्णण स्वतंंत्रताा काा स्पष्ट उद्देेश्य (c) केेवल तीीन
थाा। (d) सभीी चाार

2. अखि�ल भाारतीीय ट्रेेड यूूनि�यन कांं�ग्रेेस (AITU) केे काारण Q 20. नि�म्नलि�खि�त युुग्मोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
CDM केे सााथ कई श्रमि�क वि�द्रोोह हुुए थेे।
संंगठन संंस्थाापक
3. NCM कीी तुुलनाा मेंं CDM मेंं कि�साानोंं और व्याापाारि�योंं कीी 1. युुगांं�तर समूूहबाारीीन्द्र कुुमाार घोोष
अधि�क भाागीीदाारीी थीी। 2. अनुुशीीलन समि�ति�प्रोोमोोथाा मि�त्राा
3. ढााकाा अनुुशीीलन समि�ति�सूूर्यय सेेन
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
उपरोोक्त दि�ए गए युुग्मोंं मेंं सेे कि�तनेे युुग्म सहीी सुुमेेलि�त हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक (a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो (b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन (c) सभीी तीीन
(d) कोोई नहींं (d) कोोई नहींं

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Q 21. Consider the following statements with regard to Q 25. Consider the following statements regarding Al
the freedom struggle in princely states: Beruni:
1. Responsible government in the princely states 1. He was the first Muslim writer who learnt
was demanded for the first time in 1916 Sanskrit language.
Lucknow session of Indian national congress 2. Historical writing in chronological order began
(INC). in India before his arrival in India.
2. Purna Swaraj was never declared as the Which of the statements given above is/are
objective of the Congress for the princely states. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Only 1
correct? (b) Only 2
(a) Only 1 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q 26. Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. He promoted irrigation system by building
Q 22. Consider the following statement: canals.
1. Gopuram evolved during Vijayanagar period. 2. He established many towns, educational
2. ‘Thousand pillared mandapa’ was one of the centres and hospitals.
striking features of the Vijayanagar period. 3. He translated the ancient Sanskrit works into
Which of the statements given above is/are Persian and Arabic.
correct? Which of the above statements are correct about
(a) Only 1 Firoz Tughlaq?
(b) Only 2
(a) Only 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
Q 23. Consider the following statement regarding
Mughal architecture: (d) 1, 2 and 3

1. Mughal adopted “Bangla Dome” in their

architecture. Q 27. The term ‘Apabhramsa’ was used in medieval
2. Fatehpur Sikri show the influence of the Sanskrit texts to denote:
architectural styles of Gujarat and Malwa. (a) Outcasts among the Rajputs
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Deviations from Vedic rituals
correct? (c) Early forms of some of the modern Indian
(a) Only 1 languages
(b) Only 2 (d) Non-Sanskrit verse metres
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q 28. Consider the following statement:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. According to Shankaracharya, Hinduism and
Q 24. Who all among the following designed Taj Mahal? Buddhist believes in the existence of Atman.
1. Geronimo Veroneo 2. Moksha and Nirvana had same view on Self and
2. Ustad Isa Effendi Universal Soul.
3. Ustad Ahmad
Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the statements given above is/are
below: correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2 (a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q 21. रि�याासतोंं मेंं स्वतंंत्रताा संंग्रााम केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर Q 25. अल बेेरूनीी केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: 1. वह पहलेे मुुस्लि��म लेेखक थेे जि�न्होंंनेे संंस्कृृत भााषाा सीीखीी थीी।
1. भाारतीीय रााष्ट्रीीय कांं�ग्रेेस (INC) केे 1916 केे लखनऊ सत्र मेंं 2. उनकेे भाारत आगमन सेे पहलेे हीी भाारत मेंं काालाानुुक्रमि�क
पहलीी बाार रि�याासतोंं मेंं उतरदाायीी सरकाार कीी मांं�ग कीी गई थीी। इति�हाास लेेखन प्राारंंभ होो गयाा थाा।
2. रि�याासतोंं केे लि�ए पूूर्णण स्वरााज कोो कांं�ग्रेेस केे उद्देेश्य केे रूप मेंं
कभीी घोोषि�त नहींं कि�याा गयाा थाा। उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?

उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं? (a) केेवल 1
(a) केेवल 1 (b) केेवल 2
(b) केेवल 2 (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
Q 26. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
Q 22. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथन पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. गोोपुुरम काा वि�काास वि�जयनगर कााल केे दौौराान हुुआ। 1. उसनेे नहरोंं काा नि�र्माा�ण करवााकर सिं�ंचााई व्यवस्थाा कोो बढ़ाावाा
2. ‘हजाार स्तंंभोंं वाालाा मंंडप’ वि�जयनगर कााल कीी प्रमुुख दि�याा थाा।
वि�शेेषतााओं मेंं सेे एक थाा। 2. उसनेे अनेेक नगरोंं, शैैक्षि�क केेन्द्रोंं तथाा अस्पताालोंं कीी स्थाापनाा
कीी थीी।
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं? 3. उसनेे प्रााचीीन संंस्कृृत रचनााओं काा फ़ाारसीी और अरबीी मेंं
(a) केेवल 1 अनुुवााद कि�याा थाा।
(b) केेवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं फि�रोोज तुुगलक केे बाारेे मेंं उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन सेे कथन सहीी हैंं?
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2 (a) केेवल 1 और 2
(b) केेवल 2 और 3
Q 23. मुुगल वाास्तुुकलाा केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथन पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: (c) केेवल 1 और 3
1. मुुगलोंं नेे अपनीी वाास्तुुकलाा मेंं “बांं�ग्लाा गुंं�बद” कोो अपनाायाा (d) 1, 2 और 3
थाा।
2. फ़तेेहपुुर सीीकरीी पर गुुजराात और माालवाा कीी स्थाापत्य शैैलीी काा Q 27. ‘अपभ्रंंश’ शब्द काा प्रयोोग मध्यकाालीीन संंस्कृृत ग्रंंथोंं मेंं यह दर्शाा�नेे केे
प्रभााव दि�खताा हैै। लि�ए कि�याा गयाा थाा:

उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं? (a) रााजपूूतोंं केे बीीच बहि�ष्कृृत
(a) केेवल 1 (b) वैैदि�क अनुुष्ठाानोंं सेे वि�चलन
(b) केेवल 2 (c) कुुछ आधुुनि�क भाारतीीय भााषााओं केे प्राारंंभि�क रूप
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं (d) गैैर-संंस्कृृत छंंद लय
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
Q 28. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथन पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
Q 24. नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कि�सनेे तााज महल कोो डि�जााइन कि�याा थाा?
1. शंंकरााचाार्यय केे अनुुसाार हिं�ंदूू और बौौद्ध आत्माा केे अस्ति�ित्व मेंं
1. गेेरोोनि�मोो वेेरोोनि�योो वि�श्वाास करतेे हैंं।
2. उस्तााद ईसाा एफेंंदीी 2. मोोक्ष और नि�र्वाा�ण काा स्वयंं और वि�श्वाात्माा पर एक हीी
3. उस्तााद अहमद दृृष्टि�िकोोण थाा।

नीीचेे दि�ए गए कोोड काा उपयोोग करकेे सहीी उत्तर चुुनेंं: उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल 1 और 2 (a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल 2 और 3 (b) केेवल 2
(c) केेवल 1 और 3 (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(d) 1, 2 और 3 (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2

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Q 29. Consider the following statements regarding the Q 34. Consider the following statements regarding the
social system of the Sangam Period: Ecological Pyramids:
1. Sangam caste system was similar to Aryan caste 1. The Pyramid of Biomass may assume an
system. inverted shape in an Aquatic Ecosystem.
2. The Velalas of South India were the Sudras of 2. The Pyramid of energy is inverted in shape in a
North India. grassland ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. The Pyramid of Numbers is always upward.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a)Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b)Only two
Q 30. Consider the following statements: (c)All three
1. Pliny in his book Natural History mention about (d)None
the Satavahanas. Q 35. Consider the following statements:
2. Megasthenes does not give any references 1. Bioaccumulation refers to the tendency of
about the Satavahana dynasty. pollutants to concentrate as they move from
Which of the above statements is/are correct? one trophic level to the next.
(a) Only 1 2. Biomagnification can be defined as the increase
(b) Only 2 in concentration of a pollutant from the
(c) Both 1 and 2 environment to the first organism in a food chain.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Homeostasis can be defined as the capacity of
Q 31. Consider the following statements regarding the ecosystem for self-regulation.
Stupa at Amravati: How many of the above statements is/are correct?
1. The figure of the Buddha is represented by a (a) Only one
symbol of lotus. (b) Only two
2. The figures at Amravati Stupas are slightly (c) All three
rounder, tall and slim. (d) None
3. The Amravati art are simple and represent
Q 36. Consider the following statements:
spontaneous naturalism of Sanchi.
1. The corals receive their coloration from the
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
zooxanthellae living in their tissues.
2. Polyps are tiny animals that help soft corals to
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
build reefs.
3. The Coral Reef Breakthrough was launched by
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Greenpeace to preserve coral reefs around the
Q 32. Which of the following Mudra is not depicted in world.
Gandhara art? How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Dhyanamudra
(a)Only one
(b) Dharmachakramudra
(b)Only two
(c) Bhumisparshamudra
(c)All three
(d) Padmasanamudra
(d)None
Q 33. Consider the following statements: Q 37. Consider the following:
1. An ecotone contains some organisms which are 1. Biopiles
entirely different from adjoining communities. 2. Composting
2. Mangroves represent an ecotone between 3. Biosparging
marine and terrestrial ecosystems. 4. Bioaugmenting
Which of the above are Ex situ bioremediation
Which of the above statements is/are correct? techniques?
(a) Only 1 (a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Only 2 and 4

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Q 29. संंगम कााल कीी साामााजि�क व्यवस्थाा केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं Q 34. पाारि�स्थि�िति�क पि�राामि�डोंं केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार
पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: कीीजि�ए:
1. संंगम जााति� व्यवस्थाा आर्यय जााति� व्यवस्थाा केे समाान थीी। 1. जलीीय पाारि�स्थि��ति�कीी तंंत्र मेंं बाायोोमाास पि�राामि�ड काा आकाार
2. दक्षि�ण भाारत केे वेेल्लााल उत्तर भाारत मेंं शूूद्र थेे। उल्टाा होो सकताा हैै।
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं? 2. घाास केे मैैदाान केे पाारि�स्थि��ति�कीी तंंत्र मेंं ऊर्जाा� पि�राामि�ड आकाार
(a) केेवल 1 उल्टाा होोताा हैै।
(b) केेवल 2 3. संंख्यााओं काा पि�राामि�ड सदैैव ऊपर कीी ओर होोताा हैै।
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2 (a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो
Q 30. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: (c) सभीी तीीन
प्लि��नीी नेे अपनीी पुुस्तक नेेचुुरल हि�स्ट्रीी मेंं साातवााहनोंं काा
1. (d) कोोई नहींं
उल्लेेख कि�याा हैै। Q 35. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
2. मेेगस्थनीीज साातवााहन वंंश केे बाारेे मेंं कोोई उल्लेेख प्रदाान नहींं 1. जैैवसंंचय सेे ताात्पर्यय प्रदूूषकोंं कीी एक पोोषीी स्तर सेे दूूसरेे पोोषीी
करताा हैै। स्तर तक जाातेे समय सांं�द्रि�त होोनेे कीी प्रवृृत्ति� सेे हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? 2. जैैवआवर्धधन कोो पर्याा�वरण सेे खााद्य श्रृंं�खलाा मेंं पहलेे जीीव तक
(a) केेवल 1 प्रदूूषक कीी सांं�द्रताा मेंं वृृद्धि� केे रूप मेंं परि�भााषि�त कि�याा जाा
(b) केेवल 2 सकताा हैै।
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं 3. समस्थैैति�कीी (Homeostasis) कोो पाारि�स्थि��ति�कीी तंंत्र कीी
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2 स्व-नि�यमन क्षमताा केे रूप मेंं परि�भााषि�त कि�याा जाा सकताा हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
Q 31. अमराावतीी स्तूूप केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: (a) केेवल एक
1. बुुद्ध कीी आकृृति� कोो कमल केे प्रतीीक द्वााराा दर्शाा�याा गयाा हैै। (b) केेवल दोो
2. अमराावतीी स्तूूप कीी आकृृति�याँँ� थोोड़ीी गोोल, लम्बीी और पतलीी हैंं। (c) सभीी तीीन
3. अमराावतीी कलाा सरल हैै और सांं�चीी कीी सहज प्रकृृति�वााद कोो (d) कोोई नहींं
दर्शाा�तीी हैै। Q 36. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा कथन सहीी हैै? 1. कोोरल अपनाा रंंग उनकेे ऊतकोंं मेंं रहनेे वाालेे ज़ोोक्सांं�थेेलाा सेे
(a) केेवल 1 और 2 प्रााप्त करतेे हैंं।
(b) केेवल 2 और 3 2. पॉॉलीीप्स छोोटेे जाानवर हैंं जोो नरम कोोरल कोो रीीफ केे नि�र्माा�ण
(c) केेवल 1 और 3 मेंं मदद करतेे हैंं।
(d) 1, 2 और 3 3. वि�श्व मेंं कोोरल रीीफ कोो संंरक्षि�त करनेे केे लि�ए ग्रीीनपीीस द्वााराा
कोोरल रीीफ ब्रेेकथ्रूू लॉॉन्च कि�याा गयाा थाा।
Q 32. नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन सीी मुुद्राा गांं�धाार कलाा मेंं चि�त्रि�त नहींं हैै? उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन गलत हैै/हैंं?
(a) ध्याानमुुद्राा (a) केेवल एक
(b) धर्ममचक्रमुुद्राा (b) केेवल दोो
(c) भूूमि�स्पर्शशमुुद्राा (c) सभीी तीीन
(d) पद्माासनमुुद्राा (d) कोोई नहींं
Q 33. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: Q 37. नि�म्न पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. इकोोटोोन मेंं कुुछ ऐसेे जीीव होोतेे हैंं जोो नि�कटवर्तीी समुुदाायोंं सेे 1. बाायोोपााइल्स
बि�ल्कुुल अलग होोतेे हैंं। 2. कम्पोोस्टिं�ं�ग
2. मैंंग्रोोव समुुद्रीी और स्थलीीय पाारि�स्थि��ति�क तंंत्र केे बीीच इकोोटोोन 3. बाायोोस्पाार्जिं�ंग
केे रूप मेंं काार्यय करतेे हैंं। 4. जैैव संंवर्धधन
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन सीी बााह्य-स्थाानेे बाायोोरेेमेेडि�एशन तकनीीकेंं हैंं?
(a) केेवल 1 (a) केेवल 1 और 2
(b) केेवल 2 (b) केेवल 2 और 3
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं (c) केेवल 1 और 3
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2 (d) केेवल 2 और 4

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Q 38. Consider the following statements: Q 42. Which one of the following protected areas is
1. Wildlife sanctuaries enjoy a greater degree of best known as the home of the hangul?
protection than National Park. (a) Periyar National Park
2. Grazing of livestock is prohibited in the National Park. (b) Rajaji National Park
3. Wildlife sanctuary can be created for a particular (c) Dachigam National Park
species whereas a National Park is not primarily (d) Gorumara National Park
focused on a particular species. Q 43. Consider the following statements with reference
How many of the above statements is/are correct? to the “Uniform Civil Code” (UCC) which has been
(a) Only one in news recently :
(b) Only two 1. Currently, no part of India has a uniform civil code.
(c) All three 2. It is one of the ideals that are meant to be kept in mind
(d) None by the state when it formulates policies and enacts laws.
Q 39. Consider the following statements: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. The State Government may notify any private (a) Only 1
land as a Conservation Reserve with the prior (b) Only 2
consent of the owner of the land. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Conservation Reserves and Community (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Reserves are the outcomes of Amendments to Q 44. Consider the following statements with reference
the Wildlife Protection Act in 2003. to the “Horizon 2047” framework which has been
Which of the above statements is/are correct? in news recently :
(a) Only 1 1. It is a joint project of NASA and ISRO.
(b) Only 2 2. It mainly focuses on studying outer planets and
(c) Both 1 and 2 Black holes.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
Q 40. Consider the following:
(b) Only 2
1. Water Vapour
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Carbon Monoxide
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Methane
4. Perfluocarbons
Q 45. Consider the following statements with reference
Which of the above are direct greenhouse gases to “Comprehensive and progressive agreement
under the Kyoto Protocol? for transpacific partnership (CPTPP)”:
1. Currently, United Kingdom (UK) is the only
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 2, 3 and 4
member from Europe in the group.
2. Currently, Japan has the largest economy
(c) Only 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
among the members of the group.
3. India is not the part of the group.
Q 41. Consider the following pairs regarding wildlife
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
sanctuaries of India: (a) Only one
Protected Areas State (b) Only two
1. Bhoramdev Wildlife West Bengal (c) All three
Sanctuary (d) None
Q 46. Consider the following statements with reference
2. Ranipur Wild Life Madhya Pradesh
Sanctuary to the recently launched ‘Project WAVE (World of
Advance Virtual Experience)’:
3. Thanthai Periyar Tamil Nadu
1. It is related to space tourism.
Wildlife Sanctuary
2. It has been launched by the SpaceX.
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only 1
(b) Only two (b) Only 2
(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q 38. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: Q 42. नि�म्नलि�खि�त संंरक्षि�त क्षेेत्रोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा हंंगुुल केे घर केे रूप मेंं जाानाा
1. वन्यजीीव अभयाारण्योंं कोो रााष्ट्रीीय उद्याान कीी तुुलनाा मेंं अधि�क जााताा हैै?
संंरक्षण प्रााप्त हैै। (a) पेेरि�याार रााष्ट्रीीय उद्याान
2. रााष्ट्रीीय उद्याान मेंं पशुुओं कोो चराानाा प्रति�बंंधि�त हैै। (b) रााजााजीी रााष्ट्रीीय उद्याान
3. वन्यजीीव अभयाारण्य कि�सीी वि�शेेष प्रजााति� केे लि�ए घोोषि�त कि�याा (c) दााचीीगााम रााष्ट्रीीय उद्याान
जाा सकताा हैै जबकि� एक रााष्ट्रीीय उद्याान मुुख्य रूप सेे कि�सीी (d) गोोरुमााराा रााष्ट्रीीय उद्याान
वि�शेेष प्रजााति� पर केंंद्रि�त नहींं होोताा हैै। Q 43. हााल हीी मेंं खबरोंं मेंं रहेे “समाान नाागरि�क संंहि�ताा (UCC)” केे संंदर्भभ
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
(a) केेवल एक 1. वर्ततमाान मेंं भाारत केे कि�सीी भीी हि�स्सेे मेंं समाान नाागरि�क संंहि�ताा
(b) केेवल दोो लाागूू नहींं हैै।
(c) सभीी तीीन 2. यह उन आदर्शोंं मेंं सेे एक हैै जि�सेे रााज्य द्वााराा नीीति�यांं� बनाातेे
(d) कोोई नहींं और काानूून बनाातेे समय ध्याान मेंं रखाा जाानाा चााहि�ए।
Q 39. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
1. रााज्य सरकाार भूूमि� केे स्वाामीी कीी पूूर्वव सहमति� सेे कि�सीी भीी नि�जीी (a) केेवल 1
भूूमि� कोो संंरक्षण रि�जर्वव केे रूप मेंं अधि�सूूचि�त कर सकतीी हैै। (b) केेवल 2
2. वन्यजीीव संंरक्षण अधि�नि�यम मेंं 2003 केे संंशोोधन केे (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
परि�णाामस्वरूप संंरक्षण रि�जर्वव और साामुुदाायि�क रि�जर्वव कीी (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
अवधाारणाा वि�कसि�त हुुई। Q 44. हााल हीी मेंं खबरोंं मेंं रहेे “क्षि�ति�ज 2047(Horizon 2047)”
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? फ्रेेमवर्कक केे संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
(a) केेवल 1 1. यह नाासाा (NASA) और इसरोो (ISRO) काा संंयुुक्त प्रोोजेेक्ट हैै।
(b) केेवल 2 2. यह मुुख्य रूप सेे बााहरीी ग्रहोंं और ब्लैैक होोल केे अध्ययन सेे
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं संंबंंधि�त हैै।
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2 उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
Q 40. नि�म्न पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: (a) केेवल 1
1. जलवााष्प (b) केेवल 2
2. काार्बबन मोोनोोऑक्सााइड (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
3. मीीथेेन (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
4. परफ्लूू काार्बबन Q 45. “वृृहद एवंं प्रगति�शीील ट्रांं�स-पैैसि�फि�क भाागीीदाारीी (CPTPP)” केे
क्योोटोो प्रोोटोोकॉॉल केे तहत उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन सीी प्रत्यक्ष ग्रीीनहााउस संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
गैैसेंं हैंं? 1. वर्ततमाान मेंं, यूूनााइटेेड किं�ंगडम (UK) इस समूूह मेंं यूूरोोप सेे
(a) केेवल 1, 2 और 3 एकमाात्र सदस्य हैै।
(b) केेवल 2, 3 और 4 2. वर्ततमाान मेंं, समूूह केे सदस्योंं मेंं जाापाान कीी अर्थथव्यवस्थाा सबसेे बड़ीी हैै।
(c) केेवल 3 और 4 3. भाारत इस समूूह काा हि�स्साा नहींं हैै|
(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4 उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
Q 41. भाारत केे वन्यजीीव अभयाारण्योंं केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त युुग्मोंं पर (a) केेवल एक
वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: (b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन
संंरक्षि�त क्षेेत्र रााज्य
(d) कोोई नहींं
1. भोोरमदेेव वन्यजीीव अभयाारण्य पश्चि��म बंंगााल Q 46. हााल हीी मेंं लॉॉन्च कि�ए गए ‘प्रोोजेेक्ट WAVE (वर्ल्ड�ड ऑफ एडवांं�स वर्चुु�अल
2. राानीीपुुर वन्य जीीव अभयाारण्य मध्य प्रदेेश एक्सपीीरि�यंंस)’ केे संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. यह अंंतरि�क्ष पर्ययटन सेे संंबंंधि�त हैै।
3. थाानथााई पेेरि�याार वन्यजीीव अभयाारण्य तमि�लनााडुु 2. इसेे स्पेेसएक्स (SpaceX) द्वााराा लॉॉन्च कि�याा गयाा हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे युुग्म सहीी सुुमेेलि�त हैै/हैंं? उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक (a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल दोो (b) केेवल 2
(c) सभीी तीीन (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(d) कोोई नहींं (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2

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Q 47. Recently,“Global Survey on Digital and Q 51. Which of the following countries have joined the
Sustainable Trade Facilitation” which was in the BRICS in 2024?
news has been released by : 1. Iran
2. Egypt
(a) United Nations Economic and Social
3. Argentina
Commission for Asia and the Pacifics (UNESCAP)
4. Ethiopia
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and
5. Saudi Arabia
Development (UNCTAD)
6. UAE
(c) United National Development Programme
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(UNDP)
(a) Only 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
(d) Organization for Economic Cooperation and
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
Development (OECD)
(c) Only 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6
Q 48. Consider the following pairs with reference to (d) Only 1, 2, 3, and 4
“Defence exercise of India” with other countries: Q 52. Consider the following statements with respect
Exercise Country to LUPEX Mission:
1. SALVEX Singapore 1. It is a joint mission by ISRO and NASA.
2. Nomadic Elephant Thailand 2. The mission aims to explore the South Pole of
3. Bold Kurukshetra France the moon.
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
matched? (a)Only 1
(a) Only one (b)Only 2
(b) Only two (c)Both 1 and 2
(c) All three (d)Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None Q 53. Which of the places in India has a Strategic
Petroleum Reserve as per Phase I?
Q 49. Consider the following statements with reference 1. Manglore (Karnataka)
to “Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE)” 2. Barmer (Rajasthan)
reports which has been released recently : 3. Padur (Karnataka)
1. It has been released by the National Biodiversity 4. Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)
Authority. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. As per report the Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
has been ranked as the best-maintained tiger (b) Only 1, 2 and 3
reserve in India. (c) Only 1, 3 and 4
(d) Only 2, 3 and 4
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 Q 54. Recently, when the new parliament building was
(b) Only 2 inaugurated, ‘Senegol’ was in the news. Which
(c) Both 1 and 2 dynasty does ‘Senegol’ originate backs to?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Pandyas
Q 50. Consider the following statements with reference (b) Chera
to “Chennai High Level Principles “which has been (c) Pallavas
(d) Cholas
in news recently :
Q 55. The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework was launched
1. It is related to Blue economy. jointly by the USA and other partner countries of
2. It has been released by International Seabed the Indo-Pacific region on May 23, 2022 at Tokyo.
Authority (ISA). The framework is structured around four pillars.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which among the following is NOT a pillar?
(a) Only 1 (a) Supply Chains
(b) Only 2 (b) Clean Energy, De-carbonization, and Infrastructure
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Tax and Anti-corruption
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Digital economy and Cyber security

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Q 47. हााल हीी मेंं खबरोंं मेंं रहेंं, “डि�जि�टल और सतत व्याापाार सुुवि�धाा पर Q 51. नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन साा देेश 2024 मेंं ब्रि�क्स मेंं शाामि�ल हुुआ हैै?
वैैश्वि�िक सर्वेेक्षण” कोो जाारीी कि�याा गयाा हैै: 1. ईराान
2. मि�स्र
(a) एशि�याा और प्रशांं�त केे लि�ए संंयुुक्त रााष्ट्र आर्थि�िक और 3. अर्जेंंटीीनाा
साामााजि�क आयोोग (UNESCAP) 4. इथि�योोपि�याा
(b) व्याापाार और वि�काास पर संंयुुक्त रााष्ट्र सम्मेेलन (UNCTAD) 5. सऊदीी अरब
(c) संंयुुक्त रााष्ट्रीीय वि�काास काार्ययक्रम (UNDP) 6. संंयुुक्त अरब अमीीराात
(d) आर्थि�िक सहयोोग और वि�काास संंगठन (OECD) नीीचेे दि�ए गए कोोड काा उपयोोग करकेे सहीी उत्तर चुुनेंं:
(a) केेवल 1, 2, 3, 4, और 5
Q 48. अन्य देेशोंं केे सााथ “भाारत केे रक्षाा अभ्याास” केे संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, और 6
युुग्मोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: (c) केेवल 1, 2, 4, 5, और 6
(d) केेवल 1, 2, 3, और 4
व्याायााम देेश
1. सााल्वेेक्स सिं�ंगाापुुर Q 52. LUPEX मि�शन केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
2. नोोमेेडि�क एलीीफैंंट थााईलैंंड 1. यह इसरोो (ISRO) और नाासाा (NASA) काा संंयुुक्त मि�शन हैै।
3. बोोल्ड कुुरूक्षेेत्र फ्रांं�स 2. मि�शन काा लक्ष्य चंंद्रमाा केे दक्षि�णीी ध्रुुव काा अध्ययन करनाा हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे युुग्म सहीी सुुमेेलि�त हैै/हैंं? (a) केेवल 1
(a) केेवल एक (b) केेवल 2
(b) केेवल दोो (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(c) सभीी तीीन (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
(d) कोोई नहींं Q 53. चरण I केे अनुुसाार भाारत मेंं कि�स स्थाान पर रणनीीति�क पेेट्रोोलि�यम
रि�जर्वव हैै?
Q 49. हााल हीी मेंं जाारीी कीी गई “प्रबंंधन प्रभाावशीीलताा मूूल्यांं�कन (MEE)” 1. मैंंगलोोर (कर्नाा�टक)
रि�पोोर्टट केे संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: 2. बााड़मेेर (रााजस्थाान)
1. इसेे रााष्ट्रीीय जैैव वि�वि�धताा प्रााधि�करण द्वााराा जाारीी कि�याा गयाा हैै। 3. पाादुुर (कर्नाा�टक)
2. रि�पोोर्टट केे अनुुसाार केेरल मेंं पेेरि�याार टााइगर रि�जर्वव कोो भाारत 4. वि�शााखपटनम (आंंध्र प्रदेेश)
मेंं सबसेे अच्छेे रखरखााव वाालेे बााघ रि�जर्वव केे रूप मेंं स्थाान नीीचेे दि�ए गए कोोड काा उपयोोग करकेे सहीी उत्तर चुुनेंं:
दि�याा गयाा हैै। (a) 1,2,3, और 4
(b) केेवल 1, 2, और 3
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? (c) केेवल 1, 3, और 4
(a) केेवल 1 (d) केेवल 2, 3, और 4
(b) केेवल 2 Q 54. हााल हीी मेंं जब नए संंसद भवन काा उद्घााटन हुुआ तोो ‘सेंंगोोल ‘ चर्चाा�
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं मेंं थाा. ‘सेंंगोोल’ कीी उत्पत्ति� कि�स रााजवंंश सेे हुुई हैै?
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2 (a) पांं�ड्य
(b) चेेर
Q 50. हााल हीी मेंं खबरोंं मेंं रहेंं “चेेन्नई उच्च स्तरीीय सि�द्धांं�त”, केे संंदर्भभ मेंं (c) पल्लव
नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: (d) चोोल
1. यह नीीलीी अर्थथव्यवस्थाा सेे संंबंंधि�त हैै।
2. इसेे इंंटरनेेशनल सीीबेेड अथॉॉरि�टीी (ISA) द्वााराा जाारीी कि�याा Q 55. इंंडोो-पैैसि�फि�क इकोोनॉॉमि�क फ्रेेमवर्कक कोो संंयुुक्त रााज्य अमेेरि�काा और
गयाा हैै। इंंडोो-पैैसि�फि�क क्षेेत्र केे अन्य भाागीीदाार देेशोंं द्वााराा 23 मई, 2022 कोो
टोोक्योो मेंं संंयुुक्त रूप सेे लॉॉन्च कि�याा गयाा थाा। यह फ्रेेमवर्कक चाार स्तंंभोंं
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? पर आधाारि�त हैै। नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन-साा एक स्तंंभ नहींं हैै?
(a) केेवल 1 (a) आपूूर्ति�ि श्रृंं�खलाा
(b) केेवल 2 (b) स्वच्छ ऊर्जाा�, डीी-काार्बोोनााइजेेशन और बुुनि�याादीी अवसंंरचनाा
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं (c) कर और भ्रष्टााचाार वि�रोोधीी
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2 (d) डि�जि�टल अर्थथव्यवस्थाा और सााइबर सुुरक्षाा

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Q 56. Consider the following pairs: Q 61. “COBWEB PHENOMENON”, a term in news
Ports in News Country recently, is related to:
1. Chancay Port Argentina (a) Fiscal policy
2. Haifa Port Lebanon (b) Monetary policy
3. Danube Port Russia (c) External commercial borrowing
(d) Fluctuating prices of pulses
How many of the above is/ are correct?
Q 62. Santiago Consensus related to:
(a) Only one
(a) Developed Countries
(b) Only two
(b) Developing Countries
(c) All three
(c) African countries
(d) None
(d) G7 Countries
Q 57. Which one of the following deserts is known for a Q 63. With reference to ‘Gold collar job’, consider the
rich commercial reserve of Lithium? following statements:
(a) Patagonian desert 1. It is a subdivision of Tertiary sector of Indian Economy.
(b) Atacama desert 2. It can be from both organized and Unorganized sector.
(c) Kalahari desert 3. It focuses on the creation, interpretation of
(d) Namib desert new and existing ideas.
How many of the statements given above is/are
Q 58. Consider the following statements with respect
correct?
to the Vibrant Village Programs: (a) Only One
1. The program is being implemented along the (b) Only Two
hilly states along the Himalaya. (c) All Three
2. Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created (d) None
by the district administration with the help of Q 64. Consider the following statements about
Gram Panchayats. President’s Standard and Colours:
3. The program will be implemented by the 1. It is the highest honour that can be bestowed
Ministry of Defense. upon any military unit.
How many of the above statements is/ are correct? 2. Indian Army became the first of the three divisions
(a) Only one of the Armed Forces to receive this award.
(b) Only two Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
(c) All three (a) Only 1
(d) None (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 59. The term “Blue Carbon”, has been in the news Q 65. Which of the following activities is/are undertaken
recently. It refers to: by CSO (Central Statistical Organization)?
(a) carbon dioxide that is absorbed from the (a) Human Development Statistics
atmosphere and stored in the ocean. (b) Gender Statistics
(b) carbon dioxide released from the ocean and (c) Conduct of Annual Survey of Industries
wetlands. (d) All of the above
(c) carbon dioxide stored in tropical evergreen Q 66. Consider the following statements:
rainforests like the Amazon. 1. Promoting cooperative federalism
(d) carbon dioxide absorbed by microorganisms 2. Actively monitoring and assessing program
present in soil. implementation.
3. Emphasizing technology upgrades and capacity
Q 60. Which of the following are NOT the member of building.
the Eurasian Economic Union? How many above is/are objectives of NITI Aayog?
(a) Kazakhstan (a)Only One
(b) Armenia (b)Only Two
(c) Kyrgyzstan (c)All Three
(d) Uzbekistan (d)None

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Q 56. नि�म्नलि�खि�त युुग्मोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: Q 61. हााल हीी मेंं समााचाारोंं मेंं चर्चि�ित शब्द “कोोबवेेब फेेनोोमेेनन(COBWEB
PHENOMENON)” कि�ससेे संंबंंधि�त हैै:
चर्चि�ित बंंदरगााह देेश (a) रााजकोोषीीय नीीति�
1. चांं�केे पोोर्टट अर्जेंंटीीनाा (b) मौौद्रि�क नीीति�
2. हााइफ़ाा पोोर्टट लेेबनाान (c) बााह्य वााणि�ज्यि�िक उधाार
3. डेेन्यूूब पोोर्टट रूस (d) दाालोंं कीी कीीमतोंं मेंं उताार-चढ़ााव
Q 62. सैंंटि�याागोो आम सहमति� संंबंंधि�त हैै:
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे सहीी हैै/हैंं? (a) वि�कसि�त देेश
(a) केेवल एक (b) वि�काासशीील देेश
(b) केेवल दोो (c) अफ्रीीकीी देेश
(c) सभीी तीीन (d) G7 देेश
(d) कोोई नहींं
Q 63. ‘गोोल्ड कॉॉलर जॉॉब’ केे संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
Q 57. नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन-साा मरुस्थल लि�थि�यम केे समृृद्ध व्याावसाायि�क 1. यह भाारतीीय अर्थथव्यवस्थाा केे तृृतीीयक क्षेेत्र काा एक उपखंंड हैै।
भंंडाार केे लि�ए जाानाा जााताा हैै? 2. यह संंगठि�त और असंंगठि�त दोोनोंं क्षेेत्रोंं सेे होो सकताा हैै।
(a) पेंंटाागोोनि�यन मरुस्थल 3. यह नए और मौौजूूदाा वि�चाारोंं केे नि�र्माा�ण, व्यााख्याा पर केंंद्रि�त हैै।
(b) अटााकाामाा मरुस्थल उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कि�तनेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(c) काालााहाारीी मरुस्थल (a) केेवल एक
(d) नाामीीब मरुस्थल (b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन
Q 58. वााइब्रेंंट वि�लेेज प्रोोग्रााम केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार (d) कोोई नहींं
कीीजि�ए: Q 64. ‘रााष्ट्रपति� केे माानक और रंंग पुुरस्काार’ केे बाारेे मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं
1. यह प्रोोग्रााम हि�माालय सेे सटेे पहााड़ीी रााज्योंं मेंं हीी क्रि�यांं�वि�त पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
कि�याा जाा रहाा हैै। 1. यह कि�सीी भीी सैैन्य इकााई कोो दि�याा जाानेे वाालाा सर्वोोच्च
2. जि�लाा प्रशाासन द्वााराा ग्रााम पंंचाायतोंं कीी मदद सेे वााइब्रेंंट वि�लेेज सम्माान हैै।
एक्शन प्लाान बनाायाा जााएगाा। 2. भाारतीीय सेेनाा यह पुुरस्काार प्रााप्त करनेे वाालीी सशस्त्र बलोंं कीी
3. प्रोोग्रााम काा काार्याा�न्वयन रक्षाा मंंत्राालय द्वााराा कि�याा जाा रहाा हैै। तीीनोंं डि�वीीजनोंं मेंं सेे पहलीी बन गई हैै।
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? (a) केेवल 1
(a) केेवल एक (b) केेवल 2
(b) केेवल दोो (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(c) सभीी तीीन (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
(d) कोोई नहींं Q 65. CSO (केंंद्रीीय सांं�ख्यि�िकीी संंगठन) द्वााराा नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/
सेे गति�वि�धि�याँँ� संंचाालि�त कीी जाातीी हैंं?
Q 59. हााल हीी मेंं चर्चाा� मेंं रहाा “ब्लूू काार्बबन” शब्द संंदर्भि�ित करताा हैै: (a) माानव वि�काास सांं�ख्यि�िकीी
काार्बबन डााइऑक्सााइड जोो वाायुुमंंडल सेे अवशोोषि�त होोतीी हैै
(a) (b) लिं�ंग सांं�ख्यि�िकीी
और समुुद्र मेंं जमाा होोतीी हैै। (c) उद्योोगोंं केे वाार्षि�िक सर्वेेक्षण काा संंचाालन
(b) समुुद्र और आर्द्ररभूूमि� सेे उत्सर्जि�ित काार्बबन डााइऑक्सााइड। (d) उपरोोक्त सभीी
(c) अमेेज़ॅॅन जैैसेे उष्णकटि�बंंधीीय सदााबहाार वर्षाा�वनोंं मेंं संंग्रहीीत Q 66. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
काार्बबन डााइऑक्सााइड। 1. सहकाारीी संंघवााद कोो बढ़ाावाा देेनाा|
(d) मि�ट्टीी मेंं मौौजूूद सूूक्ष्मजीीवोंं द्वााराा अवशोोषि�त काार्बबन डााइऑक्सााइड। 2. काार्ययक्रम काार्याा�न्वयन कीी सक्रि�य नि�गराानीी और मूूल्यांं�कन करनाा।
3. प्रौौद्योोगि�कीी उन्नयन और क्षमताा नि�र्माा�ण पर जोोर देेनाा।
Q 60. नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन यूूरेेशि�यन आर्थि�िक संंघ काा सदस्य नहींं हैै? उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे नीीति� आयोोग केे उद्देेश्य हैै/हैंं?
(a) कजााकि�स्ताान (a) केेवल एक
(b) आर्मेेनि�याा (b) केेवल दोो
(c) कि�र्गि�िस्ताान (c) सभीी तीीन
(d) उज़्बेेकि�स्ताान (d) कोोई नहींं

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Q 67. ‘Pump-Priming’ term is related to: Q 71. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Govt spending diastrophism:
(b) RBI interest rate hike 1. All processes that move, elevate or build
(c) Share market up portions of the earth’s crust come under
(d) Bank rate diastrophism.
2. Diastrophism includes orogenic processes,
Q 68. Consider the following statements regarding epeirogenic processes and earthquakes.
‘Inflation’: 3. In contrast to epeirogeny, orogeny takes place
overbroad, nonlinear areas, is relatively slow,
1. In India, only CPI used to measure inflation. and results in only mild deformation.
2. Inflation targeting in India is set by Central
Government in consultation with RBI, once in How many of the statements given above is/are
five years. incorrect?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Only one
correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only 1 (c) All three
(b) Only 2 (d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q 72. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Mass movements:
Q 69. Consider the following statements regarding 1. Mass movements transfer the mass of rock
“International Women’s Day (IWD)”: debris down the slopes under the direct
1. The theme for IWD 2024 is “empower women’s influence of gravity and geomorphic agents.
world”. 2. Weathering is a pre-requisite for mass
movement.
2. This day is observed annually by United Nation
3. Gravity exerts its force on products of
since 1975. weathering and not on bedrock.
Which of the above given statements is/are How many of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) Only 1 (a) Only one
(b) Only 2 (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

Q 70. Consider the following statements regarding NITI Q 73. Consider the following statements regarding
Aayog MPI (Multi-dimentional poverty index) erosional landforms:
report: 1. V-shaped valleys are characteristic erosional
1. MPI measures simultaneous deprivations landforms formed by the action of glaciers.
across the three equally weighted dimensions 2. A canyon is a deep valley with very steep to
of health, education, and standard of living. straight sides and it is almost equal in width at
its top as well as its bottom.
2. The report shows steep decline in number of 3. Cirques are large, bowl-shaped depressions
multidimensionally poor from 24.85% to 5.96% formed by the erosional action of rivers in
between 2015-16 and 2019-21. regions of intense rainfall.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the statements given above is/are
correct? incorrect?
(a) Only 1 (a) Only one
(b) Only 2 (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

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Q 67. ‘पम्प-प्रााइमिं�ंग’ शब्द कि�ससेे संंबंंधि�त हैै: Q 71. डाायस्ट्रोोफि�ज्म केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:

(a) सरकाारीी व्यय 1. वेे सभीी प्रक्रि�यााएँँ जोो पृृथ्वीी कीी क्रस्ट केे हि�स्सोंं मेंं हलचल
(b) आरबीीआई द्वााराा ब्यााज दर मेंं वृृद्धि� उत्पन्न करतीी हैंं, उसेे ऊपर उठाातीी हैंं याा नि�र्माा�ण करतीी हैंं,
(c) शेेयर बााजाार डाायस्ट्रोोफि�ज्म केे अंंतर्गगत आतीी हैंं।
(d) बैंंक दर 2. डाायस्ट्रोोफि�ज्म मेंं ओरोोजेेनि�क प्रक्रि�यााएंं, एपि�रोोजेेनि�क प्रक्रि�यााएंं
और भूूकंंप शाामि�ल हैंं।
Q 68. ‘मुुद्राास्फीीति�’ केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: 3. एपि�रोोजेेनीी केे वि�परीीत ओरोोजेेनीी व्याापक गैैररेेखीीय क्षेेत्रोंं मेंं
अपेेक्षााकृृत धीीमीी गति� सेे होोतीी हैै और इसकेे परि�णाामस्वरूप
1. भाारत मेंं मुुद्राास्फीीति� कोो माापनेे केे लि�ए केेवल CPI काा उपयोोग केेवल हल्काा वि�रूपण होोताा हैै।
कि�याा जााताा थाा।
2. भाारत मेंं मुुद्राास्फीीति� काा लक्ष्य RBI केे पराामर्शश सेे केंंद्र सरकाार उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कि�तनेे गलत हैै/हैंं?
द्वााराा पांं�च सााल मेंं एक बाार नि�र्धाा�रि�त कि�याा जााताा हैै। (a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं? (c) सभीी तीीन
(a) केेवल 1 (d) कोोई नहींं
(b) केेवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं Q 72. वृृहद संंचरण केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2 1. वृृहद संंचरण गुुरुत्वााकर्षषण और भूू-आकृृति�क काारकोंं केे
प्रत्यक्ष प्रभााव केे तहत चट्टाान केे मलबेे केे द्रव्यमाान कोो ढलाानोंं
Q 69. “अंंतर्राा�ष्ट्रीीय महि�लाा दि�वस (IWD)” केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं सेे नीीचेे स्थाानांं�तरि�त करताा हैंं।
पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: 2. वृृहद संंचरण केे लि�ए अपक्षय एक पूूर्वव-आवश्यकताा हैै।
3. गुुरुत्वााकर्षषण बल अपक्षय केे उत्पाादोंं पर आरोोपि�त होोताा हैै न
1. IWD 2024 काा वि�षय “महि�लााओं कीी दुुनि�याा कोो सशक्त कि� चट्टाान पर।
बनाानाा” हैै।
2. यह दि�वस 1975 सेे संंयुुक्त रााष्ट्र द्वााराा प्रति�वर्षष मनाायाा जााताा हैै। उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कि�तनेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं? (b) केेवल दोो
(a) केेवल 1 (c) सभीी तीीन
(b) केेवल 2 (d) कोोई नहींं
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2 Q 73. अपरदनाात्मक भूू-आकृृति�योंं केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर
वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
Q 70. नीीति� आयोोग केे MPI (बहुुआयाामीी गरीीबीी सूूचकांं�क) रि�पोोर्टट केे संंबंंध 1. V-आकाार कीी घााटि�याँँ� ग्लेेशि�यरोंं कीी गति�वि�धि�योंं द्वााराा नि�र्मि�ित
मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: वि�शि�ष्ट अपरदनाात्मक भूू-आकृृति�याँँ� हैंं।
2. कैैन्यन एक गहरीी घााटीी हैै जि�सकीी भुुजााएँँ बहुुत खड़ीी सेे सीीधीी
1. MPI स्वाास्थ्य, शि�क्षाा और जीीवन स्तर केे तीीन समाान रूप सेे होोतीी हैंं और इसकीी चौौड़ााई शीीर्षष और तल दोोनोंं पर लगभग
महत्वपूूर्णण आयाामोंं मेंं एक सााथ अभााव कोो माापताा हैै। बरााबर होोतीी हैै।
2. रि�पोोर्टट केे अनुुसाार 2015-16 और 2019-21 केे बीीच 3. सर्कक (Cirques) बड़ेे, कटोोरेे केे आकाार केे अवसााद हैंं जोो
बहुुआयाामीी गरीीबोंं कीी संंख्याा मेंं 24.85% सेे 5.96% कीी तीीव्र वर्षाा� वाालेे क्षेेत्रोंं मेंं नदि�योंं कीी अपरदन क्रि�याा द्वााराा बनतेे हैंं।
गि�राावट दर्जज कीी गई हैै।
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कि�तनेे गलत हैै/हैंं?
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल 1 (a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल 2 (b) केेवल दोो
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं (c) सभीी तीीन
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2 (d) कोोई नहींं

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Q 74. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: River terraces are basically products
of deposition.
Statement-II: River terraces are formed as a result
of deposition by the river stream on floodplain.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
incorrect
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect
Q 75. Consider the following statements regarding the
structure of the atmosphere:
1. The stratosphere is characterized by a decrease
in temperature with increasing altitude.
2. The troposphere is the layer of the atmosphere
where most weather phenomena occur.
3. Radio waves transmitted from the earth are
reflected back to the earth by mesosphere
layer.
How many of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q 76. Consider the following statements:
1. Conduction is important in heating the upper
layers of the atmosphere.
2. The convective transfer of energy is confined
only to the troposphere.
3. The transfer of heat through horizontal
movement of air is called convection.
How many of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
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.
Q 77. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Earth experiences the highest
temperatures in the subtropics in the northern
hemisphere rather than at the equator.
Statement-II: Subtropical areas tend to have less
cloud cover than equatorial areas
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
incorrect
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
Q 78. Consider the following statements:
1. A strong coriolis force is necessary for the
formation of tropical cyclones.
2. Dry air inhibits the development of tropical cyclones.
3. Strong vertical wind shear is conducive to
tropical cyclone development.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q 79. Consider the following statements regarding
dew, fog, and mist:
1. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that
the dew point is at or below the freezing point.
2. Fog is most commonly observed in coastal
areas.
3. Fog contains more moisture than the mist.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q 80. Consider the following statements:
1. During an earthquake, the point where the
energy is released is called epicentre.
2. The point on the earth’s surface, nearest to the
focus of an earthquake, is called hypocentre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
19
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Q 74. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
कथन-I: नदीी वेेदि�काा मूूलतःः नि�क्षेेपण केे उत्पााद हैंं।
कथन-II: नदीी वेेदि�काा बााढ़ केे मैैदाान पर नदीी कीी धााराा द्वााराा नि�क्षेेपण केे
परि�णाामस्वरूप वि�कसि�त होोतीी हैंं।
उपरोोक्त कथनोंं केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन साा सहीी हैै?
(a) कथन-I और कथन-II दोोनोंं सहीी हैंं और कथन-II, कथन-I
कीी सहीी व्यााख्याा हैै|
(b) कथन-I और कथन-II दोोनोंं सहीी हैंं और कथन-II, कथन-I
कीी सहीी व्यााख्याा नहींं हैै|
(c) कथन-I सहीी हैै और कथन-II गलत हैै|
(d) कथन-I और कथन-II दोोनोंं गलत हैंं|
Q 75. वाायुुमंंडल कीी संंरचनाा केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार
कीीजि�ए:
1. समतााप मंंडल कीी वि�शेेषताा बढ़तीी ऊंंचााई केे सााथ ताापमाान
मेंं कमीी हैै।
2. क्षोोभमंंडल वाायुुमंंडल कीी वह परत हैै जहांं� अधि�कांं�श मौौसम
संंबंंधीी घटनााएंं घटि�त होोतीी हैंं।
3. पृृथ्वीी सेे प्रसाारि�त रेेडि�योो तरंंगेंं मध्यमंंडल परत द्वााराा वाापस
पृृथ्वीी पर पराावर्ति�ित होो जाातीी हैंं।
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कि�तनेे गलत हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन
(d) कोोई नहींं
Q 76. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. वाायुुमंंडल कीी ऊपरीी परतोंं कोो गर्मम करनेे मेंं चाालन क्रि�याा
महत्वपूूर्णण भूूमि�काा नि�भाातीी हैै।
2. ऊर्जाा� काा संंवहनीीय स्थाानांं�तरण केेवल क्षोोभमंंडल तक हीी
सीीमि�त हैै।
3. वाायुु कीी क्षैैति�ज गति� सेे ऊष्माा काा स्थाानांं�तरण संंवहन कहलााताा
हैै।
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कि�तनेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन
(d) कोोई नहींं
.
Q 77. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
कथन-I: उत्तरीी गोोलाार्धध मेंं पृृथ्वीी काा ताापमाान भूूमध्य रेेखाा केे बजााय
उपोोष्णकटि�बंंधीीय क्षेेत्र मेंं उच्चतम होोताा हैै।
कथन-II: उपोोष्णकटि�बंंधीीय क्षेेत्रोंं मेंं भूूमध्यरेेखीीय क्षेेत्रोंं कीी तुुलनाा मेंं
बाादल आच्छाादन कम होोताा हैै।
उपरोोक्त कथनोंं केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन साा सहीी हैै?
(a) कथन-I और कथन-II दोोनोंं सहीी हैंं और कथन-II, कथन-I
कीी सहीी व्यााख्याा हैै|
(b) कथन-I और कथन-II दोोनोंं सहीी हैंं और कथन-II, कथन-I
कीी सहीी व्यााख्याा नहींं हैै|
(c) कथन-I सहीी हैै और कथन-II गलत हैै|
(d) कथन-I और कथन-II दोोनोंं गलत हैंं|
Q 78. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. उष्णकटि�बंंधीीय चक्रवाातोंं केे नि�र्माा�ण केे लि�ए मजबूूत
कोोरि�ओलि�स बल आवश्यक हैै।
2. शुुष्क हवाा उष्णकटि�बंंधीीय चक्रवाातोंं केे वि�काास मेंं बााधाा हैै।
3. मजबूूत ऊर्ध्वा�ा�धर पवन अपरूपण उष्णकटि�बंंधीीय चक्रवाात
वि�काास केे लि�ए अनुुकूूल हैै।
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कि�तनेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन
(d) कोोई नहींं
Q 79. ओस, कोोहराा और धुंं�ध केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार
कीीजि�ए:
1. ओस केे नि�र्माा�ण केे लि�ए यह आवश्यक हैै कि� ओस बिं�ंदुु,
हि�मांं�क बिं�ंदुु पर याा उससेे नीीचेे होो।
2. कोोहराा सबसेे अधि�क तटीीय क्षेेत्रोंं मेंं देेखाा जााताा हैै।
3. कोोहरेे मेंं धुंं�ध कीी तुुलनाा मेंं अधि�क नमीी होोतीी हैै।
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कि�तनेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन
(d) कोोई नहींं
Q 80. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. भूूकंंप केे दौौराान जि�स बिं�ंदुु पर ऊर्जाा� नि�कलतीी हैै उसेे अधि�केंंद्र
कहाा जााताा हैै।
2. पृृथ्वीी कीी सतह पर भूूकंंप केे केंंद्र केे नि�कटतम बिं�ंदुु कोो
अवकेेन्द्र (हााइपोोसेंंटर) कहाा जााताा हैै।
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2

20

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.
Q 81. Consider the following statements regarding Q 84. Recently Atmospheric Perturbations around
earthquake waves: Eclipse Path (APEP) mission was in the news. In
1. Primary waves change the volume of the this regard, consider the following statements:
material through which they propagate. 1. This flagship mission is launched by the
2. Secondary waves (S-waves) are also known as European Space Agency.
shear waves and can only travel through solid 2. The objective is to study the far side of the moon.
materials. 3. APEP will detect changes using instruments
such as Langmuir probes, electric field probes,
3. Love waves are a type of surface wave that
and magnetometers.
move with a side-to-side motion perpendicular
to the direction of wave travel. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
How many of the statements given above is/are (b) Only two
incorrect? (c) All three
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q 85. Which of the following statements is correct
(c) All three about “Bortle Scale”?
(d) None (a) A scale that describes the size of explosive volcanic
eruptions based on magnitude and intensity.
Q 82. Which of the following are evidence in support of (b) A scale is used to measure the intensity of hurricanes.
(c) A scale used to measure the airspeed, and
the Continental Drift Theory?
airflow in the indoor environment such as in
1. Jig-Saw-Fit ventilation ducts.
2. Tillite (d) A scale to quantify the brightness of the night
3. Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans sky as a function of location.
4. Placer Deposits
5. Lemuria landmass Q 86. With reference to the Aeolus satellite, consider
Select the correct answer using the code given the following statements:
below: 1. This satellite is launched by the private company
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 Space X.
(b) Only 1, 3, 4 and 5 2. The core aim is to acquire profiles of Earth’s
(c) Only 1, 2 and 5 wind on a global scale.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q 83. Consider the following statements regarding (a)Only 1
“Aditya – L1 mission”: (b)Only 2
(c)Both 1 and 2
1. It is the first space-based observatory class
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Indian solar mission to study the Sun.
2. The Solar Ultra-Violet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) Q 87. Recently, a Defibrillator was seen in the news, which
payload images the Solar Photosphere and of the following is true about the Defibrillator?
Chromosphere in near Ultra-violet. (a) A tool for screening for tuberculosis (TB) and
tuberculosis diagnosis.
3. L-1 is one of the stable Lagrange points lying
(b) An alternative therapy that involves inserting
along the line connecting the two large masses. thin needles into targeted areas of the body.
(c) A device that provides an electric shock to the
How many of the above statements is/are heart to allow it to get out of a potentially fatal
correct? abnormal heart rhythm.
(a) Only one (d) A device can be used for the treatment of
(b) Only two patients with chronic kidney disease who may
(c) All three also be suffering from cardiorenal syndrome
(d) None and hypertension.

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.
Q 81. भूूकंंपीीय तरंंगोंं केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
Q 84. हााल हीी मेंं एटमोोस्फेेरि�क परटरबेेशन अरााउंंड द एक्लि�िप्स पााथ
(APEP) मि�शन खबरोंं मेंं थाा, इसकेे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं
1. प्रााथमि�क तरंंगेंं उस पदाार्थथ काा आयतन बदल देेतीी हैंं जि�सकेे पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
मााध्यम सेे वेे फैैलतीी हैंं| 1. यह मि�शन यूूरोोपीीय अंंतरि�क्ष एजेंंसीी द्वााराा लॉॉन्च कि�याा गयाा हैै।
2. द्वि�तीीयक तरंंगोंं (S-तरंंगोंं) कोो अपरूपण तरंंगोंं केे रूप मेंं भीी 2. इसकाा उद्देेश्य चंंद्रमाा केे सुुदूूर भााग काा अध्ययन करनाा हैै।
जाानाा जााताा हैै और यह केेवल ठोोस पदाार्थोंं मेंं हीी गमन कर 3. APEP लैंंगमुुइर प्रोोब्स, वि�द्युुत क्षेेत्र प्रोोब्स और मैैग्नेेटोोमीीटर
सकतीी हैंं। जैैसेे उपकरणोंं काा उपयोोग करकेे परि�वर्ततनोंं काा पताा लगााएगाा।
3. लव तरंंगेंं एक प्रकाार कीी सतहीी तरंंग होोतीी हैंं जोो तरंंग कीी दि�शाा उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
केे लंंबवत दि�शाा मेंं गति� करतीी हैंं। (a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल दोो
उपर्युु�क्त कथनोंं मेंं सेे कि�तनेे गलत हैै/हैंं? (c) सभीी तीीन
(a) केेवल एक (d) कोोई नहींं
(b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन Q 85. नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन साा कथन “बोोर्टटल स्केेल” केे बाारेे मेंं सहीी हैै?
(d) कोोई नहींं (a) एक पैैमाानाा जोो परि�मााण और तीीव्रताा केे आधाार पर वि�स्फोोटक
ज्वाालाामुुखीी वि�स्फोोटोंं केे आकाार काा वर्णणन करताा हैै।
Q 82. नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन सेे सााक्ष्य महााद्वीीपीीय वि�स्थाापन सि�द्धांं�त काा (b) तूूफाान कीी तीीव्रताा कोो माापनेे केे लि�ए उपयोोग कि�याा जाानेे वाालाा
समर्थथन करतेे हैंं? एक पैैमाानेे।
(c) इनडोोर वााताावरण जैैसेे वेंंटि�लेेशन नलि�कााओं मेंं हवाा कीी गति�
1. जि�ग-सॉॉ-फि�ट और वाायुु प्रवााह कोो माापनेे केे लि�ए उपयोोग कि�याा जाानेे वाालाा
2. टि�लााइट एक पैैमाानाा।
3. महाासाागरोंं केे पाार समाान आयुु कीी चट्टाानेंं (d) स्थाान केे आधाार पर राात केे आकााश कीी चमक कोो माापनेे
4. प्लेेसर नि�क्षेेप काा एक पैैमाानाा।
5. लेेमुुरि�याा भूूभााग Q 86. एओलस (Aeolus) उपग्रह केे संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर
वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
नीीचेे दि�ए गए कोोड काा उपयोोग करकेे सहीी उत्तर चुुनेंं: 1. इस सैैटेेलााइट कोो नि�जीी कंंपनीी स्पेेस एक्स (SpaceX) नेे
(a) केेवल 1, 2 और 3 लॉॉन्च कि�याा हैै।
(b) केेवल 1, 3, 4 और 5 2. मुुख्य उद्देेश्य वैैश्वि�िक स्तर पर पृृथ्वीी कीी वाायुु परि�च्छेेदि�काा काा
(c) केेवल 1, 2 और 5 अध्ययन करनाा हैै।
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 और 5
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
Q 83. “आदि�त्य - L1 मि�शन” केे संंबंंध मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार (a) केेवल 1
कीीजि�ए: (b) केेवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
1. यह सूूर्यय काा अध्ययन करनेे वाालाा पहलाा अंंतरि�क्ष-आधाारि�त (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
वेेधशाालाा श्रेेणीी काा भाारतीीय सौौर मि�शन हैै।
2. सोोलर अल्ट्राा-वाायलेेट इमेेजिं�ंग टेेलीीस्कोोप (SUIT) पेेलोोड Q 87. हााल हीी मेंं, डि�फााइब्रि�लेेटर शब्द समााचाारोंं मेंं चर्चि�ित थाा, डि�फााइब्रि�लेेटर
अल्ट्राा-वाायलेेट केे नि�कट सौौर फोोटोोस्फीीयर और क्रोोमोोस्फीीयर केे बाारेे मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कौौन साा सत्य हैै?
कीी तस्वीीरेंं लेेताा हैै। (a) तपेेदि�क (TB) और तपेेदि�क नि�दाान कीी जांं�च केे लि�ए एक
3. L-1 दोो बड़ेे द्रव्यमाानोंं कोो जोोड़नेे वाालीी रेेखाा केे सााथ स्थि��त उपकरण।
स्थि��र लैैग्रेंंज बिं�ंदुुओं मेंं सेे एक हैै। (b) एक वैैकल्पि�िक चि�कि�त्साा जि�समेंं शरीीर केे लक्षि�त क्षेेत्रोंं मेंं
पतलीी सुुइयांं� घुुसाानाा शाामि�ल हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? (c) एक उपकरण जोो हृदय कोो संंभाावि�त घाातक असाामाान्य हृदय गति�
(a) केेवल एक सेे बााहर नि�कलनेे केे लि�ए केे लि�ए बि�जलीी काा झटकाा देेताा हैै।
(b) केेवल दोो (d) एक उपकरण काा उपयोोग क्रोोनि�क कि�डनीी रोोग वाालेे रोोगि�योंं
(c) सभीी तीीन केे इलााज केे लि�ए कि�याा जाा सकताा हैै जोो काार्डि�ियोोरेेनल
(d) कोोई नहींं सिं�ंड्रोोम और उच्च रक्तचााप सेे भीी पीीड़ि�त होो सकतेे हैंं।

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Q 88. With reference to the Foot and mouth disease Q 92. Consider the following statements:
(FMD), consider the following statements: 1. Quantum entanglement explains how two
subatomic particles can be intimately linked to
1. It is a severe, highly contagious bacterial disease.
each other even if separated by billions of light-
2. It is a transboundary animal disease (TAD) that
years of space.
affects the production of livestock and disrupts
2. Qubits can exist in superposition states along
regional and international trade in animals and
with distinctive positions of zero and one.
animal products.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
3. National Animal Disease Control Programme
(a) Only 1
was launched by government of India to
(b) Only 2
eradicate FMD by 2050.
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the above statements is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one Q 93. Consider the following statements with reference
(b) Only two to “Registration of Birth and Death (amendment)
(c) All three act, 2023”:
(d) None
1. The registration of births and deaths falls under
Q 89. Zinc Finger Nucleases, Transcription Activator- the Union List of Indian Constitution.
Like Effector Nucleases, and Prime Editing are 2. The act paves way for digital birth certificate to
associated with which of the following? be used as a single document for government
jobs as well as marriage registration.
(a) 3D Printing
(b) Gene Editing Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Fertilisers (a)Only 1
(d) Nuclear technology (b)Only 2
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q 90. With reference to the “Sickle Cell Anaemia”,
consider the following statements: Q 94. Consider the following statements with reference
1. It is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders. to the “Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR)”:
2. Ayushman Bharat- Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya 1. Banks don’t earn interest on the money deposit
Yojana provides full treatment for Sickle Cell under ICRR.
Disease free of cost. 2. ICRR applies to the total deposit base of the banks.
3. No vaccine is available for the treatment of the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Sickle Cell Anaemia. (a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
How many of the above statements is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) All three Q 95. Consider the following statements with reference
(d) None
to the “Lakhpati Didi initiative”:
Q 91. Consider the following: 1. The Ministry of Cooperation has launched the
1. Increase in crop yield initiative.
2. Increase in need of pesticides 2. A Lakhpati Didi is one who is a member of Self-
3. Increase in cost of production Help Group and earns an annual household
4. Resistance to pests and disease income of Rupees One Lakh (₹1,00,000) or more.
5. Enhanced nutrient composition 3. Under this initiative, women are provided with
Which of the above are benefits of use of skill training along with credit facilities.
Genetically Modified Seeds? How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (a) Only one
(b) Only 2, 3 and 4 (b) Only two
(c) Only 1, 4 and 5 (c) All three
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) None

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Q 88. खुुरपकाा और मुंं�हपकाा रोोग (FMD) केे संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं Q 92. नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: 1. क्वांं�टम एंंटैंंगलमेंंट यह दर्शाा�ताा हैै कि� कैैसेे दोो उपपरमााण्वि�िक
1. यह एक गंंभीीर, संंक्राामक जीीवााणुु रोोग हैै। कण एक-दूूसरेे सेे घनि�ष्ठ रूप सेे जुुड़ेे होो सकतेे हैंं, भलेे हीी वेे
2. यह एक सीीमाा पाार पशुु रोोग (TAD) हैै जोो पशुुधन केे अरबोंं प्रकााश-वर्षष कीी दूूरीी पर स्थि��त होंं।
उत्पाादन कोो प्रभाावि�त करताा हैै और पशुुओं और पशुु उत्पाादोंं मेंं 2. क्यूूबि�ट, शूून्य और एक कीी वि�शि�ष्ट स्थि��ति� केे सााथ
क्षेेत्रीीय और अंंतर्राा�ष्ट्रीीय व्याापाार कोो बााधि�त करताा हैै। सुुपरपोोजि�शन अवस्थाा मेंं मौौजूूद होो सकतेे हैंं।
3. 2050 तक FMD कोो समााप्त करनेे केे लि�ए भाारत सरकाार उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा कथन गलत हैै/हैंं?
द्वााराा रााष्ट्रीीय पशुु रोोग नि�यंंत्रण काार्ययक्रम शुुरू कि�याा गयाा थाा। (a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल 2
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(a) केेवल एक (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
(b) केेवल दोो
(c) सभीी तीीन Q 93. “जन्म और मृृत्युु पंंजीीकरण (संंशोोधन) अधि�नि�यम, 2023” केे संंदर्भभ
(d) कोोई नहींं मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. जन्म एवंं मृृत्युु काा पंंजीीकरण भाारतीीय संंवि�धाान कीी संंघ सूूचीी
Q 89. जिं�ंक फिं�ंगर न्यूूक्लीीज, ट्रांं�सक्रि�प्शन एक्टि�िवेेटर-लााइक इफ़ेेक्टर केे अंंतर्गगत आताा हैै।
न्यूूक्लीीज़ और प्रााइम एडि�टिं�ंग नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कि�ससेे संंबंंधि�त हैंं? 2. यह अधि�नि�यम सरकाारीी नौौकरि�योंं केे सााथ-सााथ वि�वााह
(a) 3D प्रिं�ंटिं�ंग पंंजीीकरण केे लि�ए एकल दस्ताावेेज़ केे रूप मेंं डि�जि�टल जन्म
(b) जीीन संंपाादन प्रमााण पत्र काा उपयोोग करनेे काा माार्गग प्रशस्त करताा हैै।
(c) उर्ववरक उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(d) परमााणुु प्रौौद्योोगि�कीी (a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल 2
Q 90. “सि�कल सेेल एनीीमि�याा” केे संंदर्भभ मेंं, नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
कीीजि�ए: (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
1. यह वंंशाानुुगत लााल रक्त कोोशि�काा वि�काारोंं काा एक समूूह हैै।
2. आयुुष्माान भाारत- प्रधाानमंंत्रीी जन आरोोग्य योोजनाा सि�कल सेेल Q 94. “वृृद्धि�शीील नकद आरक्षि�त अनुुपाात (ICRR)” केे संंदर्भभ मेंं
रोोग काा पूूर्णण इलााज निः�ःशुुल्क प्रदाान करतीी हैै। नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
3. सि�कल सेेल एनीीमि�याा केे इलााज केे लि�ए कोोई टीीकाा उपलब्ध नहींं हैै। 1. बैंंक ICRR केे तहत जमाा पूँँ�जीी पर ब्यााज अर्जि�ित नहींं करतेे हैंं।
2. ICRR बैंंकोंं केे कुुल जमाा आधाार पर लाागूू होोताा हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल एक (a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल दोो (b) केेवल 2
(c) सभीी तीीन (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(d) कोोई नहींं (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
Q 95. “लखपति� दीीदीी पहल” केे संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार
Q 91. नि�म्न पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: कीीजि�ए:
1. फसल कीी उपज मेंं वृृद्धि� 1. सहकाारि�ताा मंंत्राालय नेे यह पहल शुुरू कीी हैै।
2. कीीटनााशकोंं कीी आवश्यकताा मेंं वृृद्धि� 2. लखपति� दीीदीी वह हैै जोो स्वयंं सहाायताा समूूह कीी सदस्य हैै
3. उत्पाादन लाागत मेंं वृृद्धि� और एक लााख रुपयेे (�1,00,000) याा उससेे अधि�क कीी
4. कीीटोंं एवंं रोोगोंं केे प्रति� प्रति�रोोध वाार्षि�िक घरेेलूू आय अर्जि�ित करतीी हैै।
5. उन्नत पोोषक तत्व संंरचनाा 3. इस पहल केे तहत, महि�लााओं कोो कौौशल प्रशि�क्षण केे सााथ-
सााथ ऋण सुुवि�धााएंं भीी प्रदाान कीी जाातीी हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन सेे आनुुवंंशि�क रूप सेे संंशोोधि�त बीीजोो केे लााभ हैंं? उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कि�तनेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
(a) केेवल 1, 2 और 3 (a) केेवल एक
(b) केेवल 2, 3 और 4 (b) केेवल दोो
(c) केेवल 1, 4 और 5 (c) सभीी तीीन
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 और 5 (d) कोोई नहींं

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Q 96. Consider the following statements with reference Q 99. Consider the following statements with reference
to recently launched “Rail-Sea-Rail Transportation to National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP)
initiative”: which has been in news recently:
1. It has been launched jointly by the Ministry of 1. It comes under the Ministry of Social Justice
Railways and the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Empowerment.
and Waterways. 2. The programme is in line to implement Article
2. It is related to ease passenger ferry services in 41 of the Indian Constitution.
coastal areas of India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1
(a)Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b)Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(c)Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q 100. LK-99, which has been in news recently, is related
Q 97. Recently Fujiwhara effect was in news. It is to which of the following?
related to which of the following? (a) Superconductor/Insulator
(a) Biodiversity (b) Exoplanet
(b) Inflation (c) Invasive alien species
(c) Cyclones (d) Asteroid
(d) Diseases

Q 98. Consider the following statements with reference

to Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF)
council :
1. Decisions of the GBFF Council are to be taken
through majority voting system.
2. As much as 20 percent of GBFF fund will
support Indigenous-led initiatives to protect
and conserve biodiversity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a)Only 1
(b)Only 2
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

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Q 96. हााल हीी मेंं शुुरू कीी गई “रेेल-समुुद्र-रेेल परि�वहन पहल” केे संंदर्भभ मेंं Q 99. रााष्ट्रीीय साामााजि�क सहाायताा काार्ययक्रम (NSAP) जोो हााल हीी मेंं खबरोंं
नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए: मेंं रहाा हैै, केे संंदर्भभ मेंं नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. इसेे रेेल मंंत्राालय और बंंदरगााह, जहााजराानीी और जलमाार्गग 1. यह साामााजि�क न्यााय और अधि�काारि�ताा मंंत्राालय केे अंंतर्गगत हैै।
मंंत्राालय द्वााराा संंयुुक्त रूप सेे लॉॉन्च कि�याा गयाा हैै। 2. यह काार्ययक्रम भाारतीीय संंवि�धाान केे अनुुच्छेेद 41 कोो लाागूू करनेे
2. यह भाारत केे तटीीय क्षेेत्रोंं मेंं याात्रीी नौौकाा सेेवााओं कोो आसाान केे अनुुरूप हैै।
बनाानेे सेे संंबंंधि�त हैै।
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?
उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं? (a) केेवल 1
(a) केेवल 1 (b) केेवल 2
(b) केेवल 2 (c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं (d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2
Q 100. हााल हीी मेंं खबरोंं मेंं रहाा LK-99 , नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे कि�ससेे संंबंंधि�त
Q 97. हााल हीी मेंं फुुजि�व्हााराा प्रभााव खबरोंं मेंं थाा। यह नि�म्नलि�खि�त मेंं सेे हैै?
कि�ससेे संंबंंधि�त हैै? (a) सुुपरकंंडक्टर/इंंसुुलेेटर
(a) जैैव वि�वि�धताा (b) एक्सोोप्लैैनेेट
(b) मुुद्राास्फीीति� (c) आक्राामक वि�देेशीी प्रजााति�याँँ�
(c) चक्रवाात (d) क्षुुद्रग्रह
(d) रोोग

Q 98. वैैश्वि�िक जैैव वि�वि�धताा फ्रेेमवर्कक कोोष (GBFF) परि�षद केे संंदर्भभ मेंं
नि�म्नलि�खि�त कथनोंं पर वि�चाार कीीजि�ए:
1. GBFF परि�षद केे नि�र्णणय बहुुमत मतदाान प्रणाालीी केे मााध्यम
सेे लि�ए जाातेे हैंं।
2. GBFF फंंड काा 20 प्रति�शत हि�स्साा जैैव वि�वि�धताा कीी रक्षाा
और संंरक्षण केे लि�ए स्वदेेशीी नेेतृृत्व वाालीी पहल काा समर्थथन
करताा हैै।

उपरोोक्त मेंं सेे कौौन साा/सेे कथन सहीी हैै/हैंं?

(a) केेवल 1
(b) केेवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 दोोनोंं
(d) न तोो 1, न हीी 2

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UPSC TEST PAPER - 26 (SOLUTIONS)
Q 1. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Enforcement Directorate
was established in 1956 as ‘Enforcement Unit’ under
the Department of Economic Affairs. In 1960,
the administrative control of the Directorate was
transferred from the Department of Economic Affairs
to the Department of Revenue.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The ED Director is
appointed by central government on recommendation
of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance
Commissioner.
Statement 3 is correct: While the ED has powers to
undertake search, seizure, and arrest actions under
PMLA and violations of foreign exchange laws, Fugitive
Economic Offenders Act. but it’s not the sole authority,
as various provisions and agencies might be involved.
Q 2. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The SHRC is a statutory body
that operates at the state level. It’s a state-specific body
established under the Protection of Human Rights Act
of 1993.
Statement 2 is Correct: The SHRC can only address
violations falling under List II of the State List or List III
of the Concurrent List, as per the act.
Statement 3 is Correct: The SHRC possesses powers
similar to a civil court for conducting judicial
proceedings.
Q 3. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
1 is correct: The Atal Innovation Mission is a flagship
initiative of NITI Aayog, focusing on fostering
innovation and entrepreneurship in India.
2 is correct: The School Education Quality Index is an
initiative driven by NITI Aayog to assess and improve
the quality of school education across states.
3 is correct: Export Promotion Index is a comprehensive
tool that measures the export preparedness of the States
and UTs in India released by NITI Aayog.
Q 4. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The district councils require the
Governor’s assent for laws they pass on specific matters.
Statement 2 is correct: The Governor can indeed form
autonomous regions within a district.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While the district councils can
establish primary schools, they do have certain restrictions
and need the Governor’s assent for such establishments.
Test Paper-26 Full Length (Solutions)
https://t.me/visioniastestseries2024
.
Q 5. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Panchayats depend heavily
on grants from Union and State Governments rather
than internal resource generation.
Statement 2 is correct: Gram Panchayats possess
a broader tax domain compared to higher-level
Panchayats, which rely more on non-tax revenue.
Q 6. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Parallel to the Union Public Service Commission at
the Centre, there is a State Public Service Commission
(SPSC) in the state. The same set of Articles (i.e., 315 to
323 in Part XIV) of the Constitution deals with SPSC.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The SPSC is not consulted
while making reservations for backward classes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The governor can exclude
posts, services, and matters from the SPSC’s purview.
Statement 3 is correct: The SPSC cannot make
regulations specifying matters where its consultation is
not necessary.
Q 7. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The President can appoint
an acting judge of a high court when the office of the
judges other than the chief justice is vacant, not when
the chief justice is temporarily absent.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: The chief justice of a high
court can request a retired judge to act as a judge of the
high court for a temporary period with the consent of
the President, not the governor.
Q 8. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: A member may resign his seat
by writing to the Chairman of the legislative council or
Speaker of the legislative assembly.
Statement 2 is correct: A member can be expelled from
the House for promoting enmity between different
groups.
Statement 3 is correct: A person vacates his seat if his
election is declared void by the court.
Q 9. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Punchhi Commission’s
recommendation for the impeachment of the governor
by the state legislature is correct. This is a unique
provision suggested by the commission to ensure
accountability and check the arbitrary exercise of power.
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Statement 2 is incorrect: The statement about the
state chief minister having a say in the governor’s
appointment is incorrect. The appointment of the
governor is a prerogative of the President, and the Chief
Minister does not have a direct role in it.
Statement 3 is correct: In SR Bommai case, the Supreme
Court interpreted Article 356 of the constitution.
Q 10. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The election of the Deputy
Speaker is held on a date fixed by the Speaker.
Statement 2 is correct: The provisions of the rules
governing the election of the Speaker apply to the
election of the Deputy Speaker.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The position of Deputy
Speaker is same as the other members in the house. The
Deputy Speaker becomes active only when he acts as or
discharges the functions of Speaker.
Q 11. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Question Hour is the time when
MPs ask questions to ministers and seek accountability
for the functioning of their ministries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Zero Hour is an informal tool
available to members and is not part of the formal rules
of parliamentary procedure.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Unstarred Questions are not
Ans:ed orally on the floor of the House during Question
Hour but are given written Ans:s by Ministers.
Q 12. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Public Accounts
Committee cannot intervene in day-to-day
administration and cannot question Parliament’s policy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Departmental Standing
Committees cover all ministries and departments, these
committees helps deeper analysis of bills and not solely
focused on public expenditure and financial accountability.
Q 13. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 128 of Indian
Constitution, any retired judge of the Supreme Court
of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme
Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior
permission of the President of India.
Statement 2 is correct: Being a Court of Record, the
High Court can review its own judgments under Article
226 of the Constitution of India.
Q 14. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 19 is automatically
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suspended when a National Emergency is declared, No
separate order for suspension is required (Article 358).
However, 44th Constitutional Amendment made it clear
that Article 19 will not be automatically suspended on
the basis of armed rebellion.
Statement 2 is correct: The President can suspend
the right to move any court for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency
under Article 359. But the suspension of enforcement
is related only to those Fundamental Rights which are
specifically mentioned in Presidential order.
Q 15. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Amending Directive Principles
requires a special majority in both Houses of Parliament,
as stated in Article 368.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Like Fundamental Rights,
Directive Principles cannot be amended by a simple
majority in the Lok Sabha.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The President’s assent is
required for amending any part of the Constitution,
including Directive Principles.
Q 16. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
In November 1938, a Pirpur Committee report was
submitted by the Muslim league. In the report, it
charged the congress for interference with the religious
rites, suppression of Urdu and propaganda of Hindi,
denial of legitimate representation and suppression in
economy of the Muslims.
Q 17. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Civil Disobedience Movement differed from the Non-
Cooperation Movement:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The stated objective this time
was complete independence and not just remedying
two specific wrongs and a vaguely worded swaraj.
The methods involved violation of law from the very
beginning and not just non-cooperation with foreign rule.
There was a decline in forms of protests involving
the intelligentsia, such as lawyers giving up practice,
students giving up government schools to join national
schools and colleges.
Muslim participation was nowhere near that in the
Non-Cooperation Movement level.
Statement 2 is incorrect: No major labour upsurge
coincided with the movement.
Statement 3 is correct: The massive participation of
peasants and business groups compensated for the
decline of other features.
The number of those imprisoned was about three times
more this time.
The Congress was organisationally stronger.
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Q 18. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The provision of communal award are:
Muslims, Europeans, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-
Indians, depressed classes, women, and even the
Marathas were to get separate electorates. Such an
arrangement for the depressed classes was to be made
for a period of 20 years.
In the provincial legislatures, the seats were to be
distributed on communal basis.
The existing seats of the provincial legislatures were to
be doubled.
The Muslims, wherever they were in minority, were to
be granted a weightage.
Except in the North West Frontier Province, 3 per cent
seats were to be reserved for women in all provinces.
The depressed classes to be declared/accorded the
status of minority.
The depressed classes were to get ‘double vote’, one to
be used through separate electorates and the other to be
used in the general electorates.
Allocation of seats was to be made for labourers,
landlords, traders and industrialists.
In the province of Bombay, 7 seats were to be allocated
for the Marathas.
So, option (c) is the correct Ans.
Q 19. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Karachi Session
reiterated the demand for “Purna Swaraj” (complete
independence), emphasizing it as the ultimate goal of
the Indian National Congress.
Statement 2 is correct: Resolutions on Fundamental
Rights and National Economic Programme were
discussed.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Planning
Committee was established much later, in 1938, and
Nehru’s proposal for it emerged during the Haripura
session of the INC.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The historical Karachi
Session of Congress in 1931 was presided by Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel.
Q 20. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Pair 1 is correct: Yugantar was a weekly which was
started by people like Barinder Kumar Ghosh and
Bhupendranath Dutta. In 1907, an abortive attempt was
made by the Yugantar group on the life of a very unpopular
British official, Sir Fuller (the first Lt. Governor of the
new province of Eastern Bengal and Assam).
Pair 2 is correct: The Anushilan Samiti was founded
by Promotha Mitter, Jatindranath Banerjee, Barindra
Kumar Ghosh and others in Calcutta in 1902.
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Pair 3 is incorrect: Dhaka Anushilan Samiti was a
branch of the Anushilan Samiti founded in the city of
Dhaka in November 1905. Initially a group of eighty
under the leadership of Pulin Behari Das, it “spread like
wildfire” throughout the province of East Bengal.
Q 21. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The policy of the Indian
National Congress towards the Indian states had been
first enunciated in 1920 at Nagpur. Here a resolution
calling upon the princes to grant full responsibility to
the government in their States had been passed. This
session also permitted residents of the States to become
members of the Congress. But they could not initiate
political activity in the States in the name of Congress
but only in their individual capacity or as members of
the local political organizations.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In the 1938 Haripura session
of the Congress, the objective was made clear. The
Purna Swaraj or complete independence, which is the
objective of the Congress, is for the whole of India,
inclusive of the States, for the integrity and unity of
India must be maintained in freedom as it has been
maintained in subjection.
Q 22. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The tall entrance towers or
gopurams, evolved under the Pandyas, continued in
Vijayanagar period also.
Statement 2 is correct: Raya Gopurams, towers in
commemoration of the visit of emperors in different
corners of the empire, are also important examples of
architecture of the period. Another feature was the so
called ‘thousand pillared mandapa’ a huge hall with
many rows of pillars.
Q 23. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The creation of large empires that brought different
regions under their rule helped in this cross-fertilisation
of artistic forms and architectural styles.
Statement 1 is correct: Mughal rulers were particularly
skilled in adapting regional architectural styles in the
construction of their own buildings. In Bengal, for
example, the local rulers had developed a roof that was
designed to resemble a thatched hut. The Mughals liked
this “Bangla dome” so much that they used it in their
architecture.
Statement 2 is correct: In Akbar’s capital at Fatehpur
Sikri many of the buildings show the influence of the
architectural styles of Gujarat and Malwa.
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Q 24. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Taj Mahal is the logical culmination of the development
of imperial architecture in the country.
Construction work began in 1632, and most of it was
completed by the year 1643.
Taj was said to be designed by an Italian, Geronimo Veroneo.
Amongst others whose names are mentioned as architects is
Ustad Isa Effendi and Ustad Ahmad from Lahore.
It would, thus, appear that there was no single designer
of the Taj. Like Mughal paintings, it was a collective
effort. Thus, Amanaf Khan Shirazi, it is agreed, was the
calligrapher, and Ismail Khan served as the dome builder.
So, option (d) is the correct.
Q 25. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Alberuni visited India along
with the army Mahmmud Ghaznavi. He was the first
Muslim writer who learnt Sanskrit language in order to
understand Indian culture and society.
Statement 2 is incorrect: He began the trend of writing
history in chronological order in India. Thus, the actual
history writing is considered to have started being
written from the time of Alberuni.
Q 26. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Firoz was concerned about the general welfare of his
subjects.
Statement 1 is correct: He improved parts of the
kingdom by starting new irrigation schemes such as
the building of canals. The Yamuna Canal is one of
these. He also established new towns such as Ferozpur,
Ferozabad, Hissar-Firoza and Jaunpur.
Statement 2 is correct: He increased the number of
educational centres and ‘hospitals.
Statement 3 is correct: Firoz was interested in the
ancient culture of India. A number of books in Sanskrit
including some of religion and philosophy were
translated into Persian and Arabic at his orders.
He also had two of the pillars of the emperor Ashoka
brought to Delhi and one of them was placed on the
roof of his palace.
Q 27. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Various form of Sanskrit in public dealing was termed
‘Apabhramsa’.
The term “Apabhramsa” was used in medieval Sanskrit
texts to denote early forms of some of the modern
Indian Languages.
Scholars have opined that different Hindi dialects of northern
India and Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi, Nepali, Shauryaseni
and Marathi etc. Are developed from Apabhramsa.
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Q 28. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The qualification of “Crypto-
Buddhist” is rejected by the Advaita Vedanta tradition,
highlighting their respective views on Atman, Anatta
and Brahman. According to Shankara, Hinduism
believes in the existence of Atman, while Buddhism
denies this.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Buddhists and Lokayatas,
wrote Shankara, assert that soul does not exist. There
are also differences in the understanding of what
“liberation” means. Nirvana, a term more often used in
Buddhism, is the liberating realization and acceptance
that there is no Self (anatman). Moksha, a term more
common in Hinduism, is liberating realization and
acceptance of Self and Universal Soul, the consciousness
of one’s Oneness with all existence and understanding
the whole universe as the Self.
Q 29. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The most distinctive feature
of the Tamil caste system was the Brahmin, for the
king, the merchants and the peasants. They did not
correspond to the Kshatriyas, the Vaisyas and the
Sudras of the Aryan caste system.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Sudras were part of the
Vedic caste system, whereas the Velalas had a distinct
role in the Sangam society.
Q 30. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Pliny who wrote book ‘Natural
History’ also made a mention about the satavahanas.
Information about the Satavahana dynasty and their
trade with the Roman Empire was mentioned in his
book Natural History.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Megasthenes who wrote
Indica also has given some references about the
satavahana dynasty. Megasthenes made a mention
about the satavahana administration in his book Indica.
He also stated that there were 30 towns in the kingdom
of satavahana.
Q 31. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The figures at Amravati Stupas
are slightly rounder, tall, slim and in fuller and more
delicate modelling. They are represented in most
difficult poses.
Statement 2 is correct: The figure of the Buddha is
seen here and there but he is frequently represented by
a symbol of lotus or footprints.
Overall, men, animals and vegetation are more elastic
and treated more elegantly than in the North.
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Statement 3 is incorrect: The Amravati art has neither
the simple and spontaneous naturalism of Sanchi nor
the unbashed lewdness of Mathura.
Its sensuousness is more refined, elegant and
sophisticated, compared to that of Sanchi or Bharhut.
The artists of Amravati conceived the delicate and
voluptuous beauty of the human body and attained a
complete mastery of an advanced technique for the full
realisation of their conception.
The art reached its highest level at Amravati in the
middle of the second century A.D.
Q 32. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
In all the Buddha depicted in the Gandhara Art is
shown making four types of hand gestures and this is a
remarkable feature in this art. The gestures are as follows:
Abhayamudra: Don’t fear
Dhyanamudra: Meditation
Dharmachakramudra: A preaching Mudra
Bhumisparshamudra: Touching the Earth
Q 33. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Ecotone is a zone of junction
between two or more diverse ecosystems. Examples are
grasslands, estuaries, and river banks. Well-developed
ecotones contain some organisms which are entirely
different from that of the adjoining communities.
Statement 2 is correct: Mangrove forests represent an ecotone
between marine and terrestrial ecosystems. An ecotone may
be narrow or quite wide. It has conditions intermediate to the
adjacent ecosystems. Hence it is a zone of tension.
Q 34. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In the Pyramid of Biomass,
individuals in each tropic level are weighed. This gives
the total dry weight of all organisms at each trophic
level at a particular time.
Statement 2 is incorrect: An energy pyramid reflects the
laws of thermodynamics, with the conversion of solar
energy to chemical energy and heat energy at each trophic
level and with loss of energy being depicted at each transfer
to another trophic level. The pyramid is always upward.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The pyramid of numbers
is a graphic representation of the total number of
individuals of different species. It may not always be
upright, and may even be completely inverted.
Q 35. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bioaccumulation refers
to how pollutants enter a food. It can be defined as
the increase in concentration of a pollutant from the
environment to the first organism in a food chain.
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Statement 2 is incorrect: Biomagnification refers to
the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move
from one trophic level to the next.
Statement 3 is correct: Homeostasis is defined as a
self-regulating process by which a living organism can
maintain internal stability while adjusting to changing
external conditions.
Q 36. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Coral is a living animal. Corals have
a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae microscopic
algae which live on coral. The corals receive their coloration
from zooxanthellae living within their tissues.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There are two types of
corals hard corals and soft corals, such as sea fans and
gorgonians. Only hard corals build reefs. The builders
of coral reefs are tiny animals called polyps.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The International Coral Reef
Initiative (ICRI), has launched the Coral Reef Breakthrough in
partnership with the Global Fund for Coral Reefs (GFCR) and
the High-Level Climate Champions (HLCC).
Q 37. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Ex-situ bioremediation techniques involve the
contaminated material to be treated elsewhere.
Techniques:
3 Biopiles: It is a hybrid of landfarming and
composting. Engineered cells are constructed as
aerated composted piles.
3 Composting: It is a biological process in which
microorganisms, mainly fungi and bacteria
decompose degradable organic waste into humus.
Bioventing, Biosparging, and Bioaugmentation are in
situ bioremediation techniques.
Q 38. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: National parks are given a
greater degree of protection than wildlife sanctuaries
with human activity greatly restricted.
Statement 2 is correct: Certain activities that are
regulated in sanctuaries, such as grazing of livestock,
are prohibited in the National parks.
Statement 3 is correct: Wildlife sanctuary can be created
for a particular species whereas a National Park is not
primarily focused on a particular species. For example,
grizzled Giant Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary in Srivalliputhur.
Q 39. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Conservation reserve is
an area owned by the state government adjacent to
National Parks and sanctuaries for protecting the
landscape, seascape and habitat of fauna and flora.
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The state government may notify any community land
or private land as a community reserve, provided that the
members of that community or individuals concerned are
agreeable to offer such areas for protecting flora and fauna.
Statement 2 is correct: Conservation Reserve and
Community Reserves are the outcome of Amendments
to the Wildlife Protection Act in 2003. It provided a
mechanism to provide recognition and legal backing to
the community-initiated efforts in wildlife protection.
Q 40. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The greenhouse effect is the process through which
heat is trapped near the Earth’s surface by substances
known as ‘greenhouse gases.’ Imagine these gases as a
cozy blanket enveloping our planet, helping to maintain
a warmer temperature than it would have otherwise.
The GHG inventory covers the seven direct greenhouse
gases under the Kyoto Protocol:
3 Carbon dioxide (CO2)
3 Methane (CH4)
3 Nitrous oxide (N2O)
3 Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
3 Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
3 Sulfur hexafluoride (SF6)
3 Nitrogen trifluoride (NF3)
So, option (c) is correct.
Q 41. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Pair 1 is incorrect: Bhoramdev Wildlife Sanctuary
is a unique and culturally significant protected area
in Chhattisgarh. The Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary
holds ecological significance and is home to various
tribal communities.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Ranipur Tiger Reserve is located in
the Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh. The Fauna of
the sanctuary are Black Duck, Chinkara, Sambar, Bear,
Leopard, wolf, Wild Dog & Blue Bull. In flora Bamboo,
Palas, Khair, Mahua, Dhau, Salai, Tendu etc.
Pair 3 is correct: The Tamil Nadu government has
declared 80,114.80 hectares of reserve forests in Bargur
Hills in Erode district, as the Thanthai Periyar Wildlife
Sanctuary. This stretch of protected forests links the
Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve with Cauvery South Wildlife
Sanctuary and has been notified as the 18th wildlife
sanctuary in the State.
Q 42. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Dachigam National Park is located in Jammu and
Kashmir. The name literally stands for ‘ten villages’,
which could be in memory of the ten villages that were
relocated in order to create the park.
Dachigam was initially established to ensure the supply
of clean drinking water to Srinagar city. A protected
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area since 1910, it was declared a national park in 1981.
The park is best known as the home of the hangul, or
Kashmir stag.
So, option (c) is correct.
Q 43. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: A UCC means one law for
the entire country, which would apply to all religious
communities in their personal matters such as marriage,
divorce, inheritance, adoption, and succession. In
Goa common civil code has been in practice, the
Portuguese Civil Code of 1867.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 44 of Indian constitution
deals with uniform civil code. It forms part of Directive
principle of state policy(DPSP) (Article 35-Article 51).
As, per Constituon ,States must keep in mind about
these ideals(DPSP) when it formulates policies and
enacts laws.
Q 44. Ans:(d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Horizon 2047 framework
is a trajectory of bilateral ties of India and France till
2047. It was concluded in recent meeting between India
and France ,marking 25 years of their strategic relations.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Horizon framework
includes many sectors like defence, nuclear energy &
space .It also includes a roadmap for the Indo-Pacific .
Under this two countries also reinforced ties on critical
technology especially in artificial intelligence, and
quantum computing among others.
Q 45. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Recently , United Kingdom
(UK) signed the treaty to join CPTPP. The UK became
the 12th member and the first in Europe to join the
group since its inception.Its members are Australia,
Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New
Zealand, Peru, Singapore , Vietnam and UK.
Statement 2 is correct: Currently ,Japan has the largest
economy among the members of the group. Japan is
the 4th-largest economy in the world by nominal GDP
behind the United States, China, and Germany.
Statement 3 is correct: India is not the part of the group.
As, Developed countries dominate this group, India’s
manufacturing sector may not be able to compete. Also
on the agriculture front, farmers will not be able to face
competition mainly from Australia and New Zealand’s
the cheap and subsidised products.
Q 46. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the project WAVE,
an electronic bank guarantee (e-BG) service has been
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introduced to ease traditional paper-based processes.
This move will reduce the turn-around time of the bank
guarantee issuance and delivery to the beneficiary from
an industry average of 3-4 working days to a few minutes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian bank has launched
the facility to avail pre-approved business loans, an
end-to-end digital journey, for eligible individuals and
proprietor firms to cater to their respective businesses.
Q 47. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Recently, Global Survey on Digital and Sustainable
Trade Facilitation has been releasedby United Nations
Economic and Social Commission for Asia Pacific’s
(UNESCAP). It is a bi-annual survey that deals with
trade facilitation measures taken by individual countries.
Q 48. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Pair 1 is incorrect: SALVEX-The Seventh edition of
the Indian Navy – US Navy, Salvage and Explosive
Ordnance Disposal (EOD) exercise, SALVEX, was
conducted recently in Kochi.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Nomadic Elephant – 2023 -It is a
joint military exercise between India-Mongolia.This
year it was conducted at Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia from
17 to 31 July 2023.
Pair 3 is incorrect : The Singapore Army and Indian
Army participated in the 13th edition of Exercise Bold
Kurukshetra, a bilateral armour exercise from 06-13
March 2023 at Jodhpur Military Station, India
Q 49. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Management Effectiveness
Evaluation (MEE) of Tiger Reserves in India (5th cycle)
has been released by National Tiger Conservation
Authority (NTCA). The government has been using
the MEE to assess tiger reserves nationwide since its
inception in 2006. It is being jointly conducted by the
National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and
the Wildlife Institute of India (WII).
Statement 2 is correct: 51 tiger reserves were evaluated
in current cycle of MEE. The Periyar Tiger Reserve
in Kerala has been ranked as the best-maintained tiger
reserve in India. 12 tiger reserves ranked in the ‘Excellent’
category, followed by 21 in the ‘Very Good’ category, 13
in the ‘Good’ category, and 5 in the ‘Fair’ category.
Q 50. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Recently, “Chennai High-
Level Principles for a Sustainable and Resilient Blue/
Ocean-based Economy”,unanimously adopted by G20
members at the meeting of Environment and Climate
Ministers, which was held in Chennai in July 2023. Blue
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economy - According to the World Bank, it refers to
the sustainable use of ocean resources for economic
growth, better livelihoods and jobs, and the health of
the ocean ecosystem.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under India’s presidency,
the G20 released Chennai High-Level Principles for a
Sustainable and Resilient Blue/Ocean-based Economy.
This unique document provides a set of fundamental
principles that can guide further development of
national-level strategies and policies on Blue Economy by
G20 members and other countries as well, on a voluntary
basis, as per national circumstances and priorities.
Q 51. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
In 2006, Brazil, Russia, India and China created the
“BRIC” group. South Africa joined in 2010, making
it “BRICS”. The group was designed to bring together
the world’s most important developing countries,
to challenge the political and economic power of the
wealthier nations of North America and Western
Europe. Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the
United Arab Emirates (UAE) were invited to become
members with effect from 1 January 2024.
So, option (c) is correct.
Q 52. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indo-Japanese (ISRO &
JAXA) LUPEX mission will explore the permanently
shadowed regions or the dark side of the moon.
Statement 2 is correct. The launch vehicle for the
mission will be a Japanese rocket, the lander system
will be developed by ISRO while the rover by Japan
Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), and its landing
point will be the south pole of the moon. LUPEX
mission is going to be very useful for future sampling
missions and landing of humans on the surface of the
moon by 2040. The latest details to emerge from the
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) suggest
that the mission could live for 100 days on the lunar
surface, which is more than five times the mission life
of India’s successful lunar mission Chandrayaan-3.
Q 53. Ans: (c )
Explanation:
Under Phase-I of Strategic Petroleum Reserve program,
Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Limited completed
the construction and filling of strategic crude oil in
underground rock caverns with 5.33 MMT capacity at
three locations namely Visakhapatnam (1.33 MMT)
in Andhra Pradesh and Mangalore (1.5 MMT) &
Padur (2.5 MMT) in Karnataka which can be used in
emergencies particularly from serious disruptions in
global crude oil supply chain.
So, option (c) is correct.
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Q 54. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
According to historians, Sengol is related to the
Chola dynasty. During the Chola dynasty, Sengol was
traditionally given to the new monarch by the departing
king. It is regarded as the epicenter of power. When a
monarch of the Chola Empire named his successor, the
sceptre, known as Sengol in Hindi, was handed over
as a symbol of the transfer of power. This is a custom
that dates back to the Chola Empire. Sengol is viewed
as a representation of equitable and fair government,
particularly in Tamil Nadu and other southern states.
The unique aspect is that this Sengol was given to the
first Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru as a symbol of
independence and the transfer of power on August 14,
1947, at midnight.
So, option (d) is correct.
Q 55. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
In May 2022, the United States launched the Indo-
Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF)
with Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Fiji India,
Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia,
New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand,
and Vietnam .Through this initiative, the IPEF
partners aim to contribute to cooperation, stability,
prosperity, development, and peace within the region.
This framework will offer tangible benefits that fuel
economic activity and investment, promote sustainable
and inclusive economic growth, and benefit workers
and consumers across the region. The 14 IPEF partners
represent 40 percent of global GDP and 28 percent
of global goods and services trade. The launch began
discussions of future negotiations on the following
pillars: (1) Trade; (2) Supply Chains; (3) Clean Energy,
Decarbonization, and Infrastructure; and (4) Tax and
Anti-Corruption.
So, option (d) is correct.
Q 56. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The port of Chancay, 60
kilometers (37 miles) north of the Peruvian capital of
Lima, will be “the gateway from South America to Asia.
The port is part of China’s Belt and Road Initiative.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Port of Haifa is the
largest of Israel’s three major international seaports, the
others being the Port of Ashdod, and the Port of Eilat.
Its natural deep-water harbor operates all year long and
serves both passenger and merchant ships. The port
was in news when Adani group has acquired the port.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Ukraine’s Danube ports
have become a key artery for the country’s huge export
volumes of grain as Russia blocks the Black Sea.
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Q 57. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The Atacama Desert in northern Chile holds the
world’s largest lithium brine deposits, with lithium
concentrations much higher than in hard rock deposits.
Lithium brine extraction is currently the most cost-
effective method of lithium production due to these
high concentrations. The Atacama is one of the driest
places on Earth. Mining does not directly consume
drinkable freshwater, but does pump large volumes of
brine from aquifers.
So, option (b) is correct.
Q 58. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The Union Cabinet during February 2023 approved
the Centrally Sponsored Scheme- “Vibrant Villages
Programme” (VVP) for the Financial Years 2022-23 to
2025-26 with financial allocation of Rs. 4800 Crore. It
aims for a comprehensive development of the selected
villages in 46 blocks in 19 districts of abutting northern
border in the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal
Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and UT of Ladakh.
The program envisages focused areas of interventions
in the select villages for creation of opportunities for
livelihood generation through promotion of tourism &
cultural heritage, skill development & entrepreneurship
and development of cooperative societies including
agriculture/horticulture, cultivation of medicinal
plants/herbs etc. The interventions also include
providing road connectivity to unconnected villages,
housing & village infrastructures, energy including
renewable energy, television & telecom connectivity.
The objective of the program is to create sufficient
incentives for people to stay on in the selected villages.
Q 59. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Blue carbon refers to carbon dioxide that is absorbed
from the atmosphere and stored in the ocean. “Blue”
refers to the watery nature of this storage. The vast
majority of blue carbon is carbon dioxide that has
dissolved directly into the ocean. Much smaller
amounts are stored in underwater sediments, coastal
vegetation and soils; carbon-containing molecules,
such as DNA and proteins; and ocean life from whales
to phytoplankton. International agreements aimed at
curbing climate change have focused growing attention
on coastal blue carbon: carbon stored by saltwater
ecosystems in their vegetation and soils. In terms of
total area, these ecosystems—salt marshes, mangroves,
seagrass meadows—have a small global footprint, but
their deep, water-logged soils can bury many times
more carbon per acre than even a tropical rainforest.
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Q 60. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
In theory, the Eurasian Economic Union (EEU or
EEAU) is an ambitious project for economic integration
in the former Soviet region. Its formal objectives are
to create a common market much like the European
Union (EU). It aims to achieve this by coordinating
economic policy, eliminating non-tariff trade barriers,
harmonizing regulations, and modernizing the
economies of its five member states. The Eurasian
Economic Union comprises five member states: Russia,
Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Armenia.
So, option (d) is correct.
Q 61. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
“COBWEB PHENOMENON”, Large-scale price
fluctuations in the Indian pulse market can be attributed
to a cyclical pattern. When prices are elevated in a
particular year, it incentivizes more farmers to cultivate
pulses in the following year, resulting in an oversupply
and subsequent price decline. Conversely, lower prices
discourage farmers from planting pulses in the next
season, leading to underproduction and a subsequent
price increase.
So, option (d) is correct.
Q 62. Ans:(b)
Explanation:
Former World Bank Group President James
Wolfensohn, speaking in Santiago, emphasized the
significance of this model for developing countries.
At its core, the model advocates for inclusive growth,
which encompasses not only economic aspects but also
social dimensions. This socio-economic development
paradigm is expected to exhibit distinctive local
characteristics. India officially adopted it in 2002.
So, option (b) is correct.
Q 63. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Gold collar occupations (high
paying job) associated with Quinary Activities (Tertiary
Sector).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Gold collar job examples
include highly compensated roles such as senior
business executives and government officials,
exclusively from the organized sector. Notably, medical
professionals, such as doctors, are classified as white-
collar professionals.
Statement 3 is correct: Gold collar jobs involve
top decision-makers, emphasize the generation,
restructuring, and comprehension of novel and
established concepts, as well as data analysis, utilization
of emerging technologies, and their assessment.
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Q 64. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The award of the President’s
Standard and Colours is the highest honour that can be
bestowed upon any military unit.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian Navy was the
first to be presented with the President’s Standard
and Colours. It was presented on 27 May 1951 by Dr.
Rajendra Prasad on 27 May 1951.
Q 65. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
The Central Statistical Organization (CSO) serves as
the coordinating body for statistical activities within the
country and establishes statistical standards, with the
National Statistical Office (NSO) estimating national
income. Recently, the CSO introduced a revised series
of national accounts, using the 2011-12 base year to
calculate economic growth, which now includes data
on unorganized manufacturing and services.
In a significant decision, the government has opted to
merge the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) with
the CSO under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation (MoSPI). This move, formalized through
an order dated May 23, 2019, has led to the creation of a
comprehensive entity called the National Statistical Office
(NSO), formed by combining the NSSO and CSO.
The CSO engages in various activities, including:
Compilation of Human Development Statistics Generation
of Gender Statistics, Conducting the Annual Survey of
Industries, National Income Accounting, Compiling the
Index of Industrial Production, Creating Consumer Price
Indices for Urban Non-Manual Employees.
So, option (d) is correct.
Q 66. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The government replaced the Planning Commission
with NITI Aayog in 2015.It was established as an extra-
constitutional body through a resolution of the Union
Cabinet. NITI Aayog serves as the premier policy think
tank of the Government of India, aimed at promoting
both cooperative and competitive federalism. It adopts
a bottom-up approach to policymaking
Objectives of NITI Aayog:
3 Promoting cooperative federalism.
3 Creating mechanisms for crafting credible plans at
the grassroots level.
3 Incorporating national security interests into
economic strategy and policy.
3 Giving particular attention to vulnerable sections
of society to ensure they benefit sufficiently from
economic advancement.
3 Actively monitoring and assessing program
implementation.
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3 Emphasizing technology upgrades and capacity
building.
So, option (c) is correct.
Q 67. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Typically, during recession period, governments aim
to stimulate the economy by increasing spending and
implementing measures such as reducing interest rates
and taxes.
So, option(a) is correct.
Q 68. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Inflation which means rise in prices of goods and
services within a particular economy wherein, the
purchasing power of consumers decreases, and the
value of the cash holdings erode. Inflation measures the
average price change in a basket of commodities and
services over time.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, both WPI and CPI
are used to measure inflation.
Statement 2 is correct: Inflation targeting in India is set
by Central Government in consultation with RBI, once
in five years. Inflation targeting - It is a monetary policy
where the central bank sets a specific inflation rate as its
goal and adjusts its monetary policy to achieve that rate.
The RBI and Government of India signed a Monetary
Policy Framework Agreement in 2015. Inflation
targeting indicates the primacy of price stability as
the key objective of monetary policy. RBI would aim
to contain consumer price inflation within 6 % and
within 4% with a band of (+/-) 2%.
Q 69. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations has
designated theme for International Women’s Day 2024
as “Investing in women: Accelerate progress”.
Statement 2 is correct: The United Nations began
celebrating the day in 1975, and two years later, in 1977,
the United Nations General Assembly invited member
states to proclaim March 8 as the UN Day for Women’s
Rights and World Peace.
Q 70. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
As per NITI Aayog’s Report ‘National Multidimensional
Poverty Index: A Progress Review 2023’ A record 13.5
crore people moved out of multidimensional poverty
between 2015-16 and 2019-21
Based on the latest National Family Heath Survey
[NFHS-5 (2019-21)], this second edition of the National
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) represents
India’s progress in reducing multidimensional poverty
between the two surveys, NFHS-4 (2015-16) and
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NFHS-5 (2019-21). It builds on the Baseline Report of
India’s National MPI launched in November 2021. The
broad methodology followed is in consonance with the
global methodology.
Statement 1 is correct: The National MPI measures
simultaneous deprivations across the three equally
weighted dimensions of health, education, and
standard of living that are represented by 12 SDG-
aligned indicators. These include nutrition, child
and adolescent mortality, maternal health, years of
schooling, school attendance, cooking fuel, sanitation,
drinking water, electricity, housing, assets, and bank
accounts. Marked improvement is witnessed across all
the 12 indicators.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Report, India
has registered a significant decline of 9.89 percentage
points in number of India’s multidimensionally poor
from 24.85% in 2015-16 to 14.96% in 2019-2021.
Between 2015-16 and 2019-21, the MPI value has nearly
halved from 0.117 to 0.066 and the intensity of poverty
has reduced from 47% to 44%, thereby setting India on
the path of achieving the SDG Target 1.2 (of reducing
multidimensional poverty by at least half) much ahead
of the stipulated timeline of 2030. It demonstrates the
Government’s strategic focus on ensuring sustainable and
equitable development and eradicating poverty by 2030,
thereby adhering to its commitment towards the SDGs.
Q 71. Ans:(a)
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: All processes that
move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust
come under diastrophism. They include (i) orogenic
processes involving mountain building through
severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of
the earth’s crust; (ii) epeirogenic processes involving
uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust;
(iii) earthquakes involving local relatively minor
movements; (iv) plate tectonics involving horizontal
movements of crustal plates.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Epeirogeny, in geology,
broad regional upwarp of the cratonic (stable interior)
portions of continents. In contrast to orogeny,
epeirogeny takes place overbroad, nonlinear areas, is
relatively slow, and results in only mild deformation.
Q 72. Ans:(d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Mass movements transfer the
mass of rock debris down the slopes under the direct
influence of gravity. Mass movements are aided by
gravity and no geomorphic agents like running water,
glaciers, wind, waves and currents participate in the
process of mass movements.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Weathering is not a pre-requisite
for mass movement though it aids mass movements.
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Mass movements are very active over weathered slopes
rather than over un weathered materials.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The movements of mass may
range from slow to rapid, affecting shallow to deep
columns of materials and include creep, flow, slide and
fall. Gravity exerts its force on all matter, both bedrock
and the products of weathering.
Q 73. Ans:(c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: V-shaped valleys are
characteristic erosional landforms formed by the action of
rivers. These valleys are deep with steep sides and are often
found in mountainous regions where rivers erode the
landscape over time. V-shaped valleys are actually formed
by rivers, not glaciers. Glaciers create U-shaped valleys.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A gorge is a deep valley with
very steep to straight sides and a canyon is characterised
by steep step-like side slopes and may be as deep as a
gorge. A gorge is almost equal in width at its top as well
as its bottom. In contrast, a canyon is wider at its top
than at its bottom. In fact, a canyon is a variant of a gorge.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Cirques are large, bowl-
shaped depressions formed by the erosional action of
glaciers in mountainous regions, not by rivers. They are
typically found at the heads of valleys and are common
features of glaciated landscapes.
Q 74. Ans:(d)
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect: River terraces are indeed flat,
elevated landforms found along river valleys. River
terraces are basically products of erosion.
Statement- II is incorrect: River terraces are formed
as a result of vertical erosion by the stream into its own
depositional floodplain.
Q 75. Ans:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: In the stratosphere, the
temperature increases with increasing altitude due to the
presence of the ozone layer, which absorbs ultraviolet
radiation from the Sun and heats the surrounding air.
This temperature inversion is a characteristic feature of
the stratosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: The troposphere is indeed the
lowest layer of the atmosphere, extending from the
Earth’s surface up to an altitude of approximately 10
kilometers. Most weather phenomena, such as clouds
and precipitation, occur in the troposphere.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The ionosphere is located
between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. It
contains electrically charged particles known as ions,
and hence, it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves
transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the
earth by this layer.
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Q 76. Ans:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The air in contact with the
land gets heated slowly and the upper layers in contact
with the lower layers also get heated. This process is
called conduction. Conduction is important in heating
the lower layers of the atmosphere, not upper layers of
the atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: Process of vertical heating of
the atmosphere is known as convection. The convective
transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The transfer of heat through
horizontal movement of air is called advection.
Horizontal movement of the air is relatively more
important than the vertical movement.
Q 77. Ans:(a)
Explanation:
The subtropics are regions located between the Tropic
of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, approximately
23.5 degrees north and south of the equator, respectively.
Earth experiences the highest temperatures in the
subtropics in the northern hemisphere rather than at
the equator.
These regions typically experience very hot and dry
conditions due to their proximity to the equator and
the descending limbs of the Hadley cells, which create
high-pressure systems and inhibit cloud formation. As
a result, sunlight is more intense, and temperatures
tend to be higher compared to other latitudes.
Many desert regions, such as the Sahara Desert in Africa
and the Sonoran Desert in North America, are located
within the subtropical zones and experience some of
the highest temperatures recorded on Earth. Hence,
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Q 78. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A high Coriolis force, resulting
from the Earth’s rotation, is necessary for the formation
and organization of tropical cyclones. The Coriolis
force helps to initiate the cyclonic rotation of air
around a low-pressure center, leading to the formation
of a tropical cyclone.
Statement 2 is correct: Dry air typically inhibits the
development of tropical cyclones as it suppresses the
condensation and release of latent heat energy required
for their formation and intensification. Moist air is
essential for providing the necessary moisture and
latent heat energy for tropical cyclone development.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Weak vertical wind shear favors
the development and maintenance of tropical cyclones,
while strong vertical wind shear is detrimental. It allows
the storm to maintain its organization and intensify.
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Q 79. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: When the moisture is deposited
in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid
objects (rather than nuclei in air above the surface) such
as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as
dew. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the
dew point is above the freezing point.
Statement 2 is correct: Fog is indeed commonly
observed in coastal areas where warm, moist air from the
ocean comes into contact with cooler land surfaces. This
leads to condensation and fog formation, particularly
when the air is cooled to its dew point temperature.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The only difference between
the mist and fog is that mist contains more moisture
than the fog. In mist, each nuceli contains a thicker layer
of moisture. Mists are frequent over mountains as the
rising warm air up the slopes meets a cold surface. Fogs
are drier than mist and they are prevalent where warm
currents of air come in contact with cold currents.
Q 80. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: During an earthquake, the
point where the energy is released is called the focus of
an earthquake, alternatively, it is called the hypocentre.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The energy waves travelling
in different directions reach the surface. The point on
the surface, nearest to the focus, is called epicentre. It
is the first one to experience the waves. It is a point
directly above the focus.
Q 81. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: P-waves (P stands for primary)
are compressional earthquake waves that pass through
the interior of the Earth. P-waves are primary waves
that compress and expand the material in the direction
of wave travel, P-waves change the volume of the
material through which they propagate. Top of Form
Statement 2 is correct: Secondary waves (S-waves) are
also known as shear waves and can only travel through
solid materials, not through liquids. Unlike P-waves,
S-waves cannot travel through the Earth’s outer core,
which is molten.
Statement 3 is correct: Love waves are indeed a type
of surface wave that move with a side-to-side motion
perpendicular to the direction of wave travel. They are
responsible for the horizontal shaking during an earthquake.
Q 82. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Alfred Wegener-a German meteorologist who put
forth a comprehensive argument in the form of “the
continental drift theory” in 1912. This was regarding
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the distribution of the oceans and the continents.
According to Wegener, all the continents formed a
single continental mass and mega ocean surrounded
the same. The super continent was named PANGAEA,
which meant all earth. The mega-ocean was called
PANTHALASSA, meaning all water.
A variety of evidence was offered in support of the
continental drift. Some of these are given below:
3 Jig-Saw-Fit: The shorelines of Africa and South
America facing each other have a remarkable and
unmistakable match in Jig-Saw-Fit pattern.
3 Placer Deposits: The occurrence of rich placer
deposits of gold on the Ghana coast and the
absolute absence of source rock in the region is an
amazing fact. The gold bearing veins are in Brazil
and it is obvious that the gold deposits of the Ghana
are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two
continents lay side by side.
3 Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans: The belt of
ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast
matches with those from western Africa. The earliest
marine deposits along the coastline of South America
and Africa are of the Jurassic age. This suggests that
the ocean did not exist prior to that time.
3 Tillite: It is a sedimentary rock formed out of
deposits of glaciers. The glacial tillite provides
unambiguous evidence of paleoclimates and also of
drifting of continents.
3 Lemuria landmass: When identical species of
plants and animals adapted to living on land or in
freshwater are found on either side of the marine
barriers, a problem arises regarding accounting for
such distribution. The observations that Lemurs
occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to
consider a contiguous landmass ‘Lemuria’ linking
these three landmasses.
So, option (d) is correct.
Q 83. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Aditya L1 is the first space-based
observatory class Indian solar mission to study the Sun.
The spacecraft is planned to be placed in a halo orbit
around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth
system, which is about 1.5 million km from the Earth.
Statement 2 is correct: The Visible Emission Line
Coronagraph (VELC) studies the solar corona and dynamics
of Coronal Mass Ejections. The Solar Ultra-Violet Imaging
Telescope (SUIT) payload images the Solar Photosphere and
Chromosphere in near Ultra-violet (UV) and also measures
the solar irradiance variations in near UV.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Of the five Lagrange points, three
are unstable and two are stable. The unstable Lagrange
points - labelled L1, L2, and L3 - lie along the line connecting
the two large masses. The stable Lagrange points - labelled
L4 and L5 - form the apex of two equilateral triangles that
have large masses at their vertices.
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Q 84. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: As parts of the world get
plunged into partial darkness during the October 14
annular solar eclipse, NASA will send rockets flying
into the shadow of the eclipse. The mission is called
Atmospheric Perturbations around Eclipse Path or
APEP. The acronym was chosen because Apep is also
the name of the serpent god from ancient Egyptian
cosmology.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A NASA-sounding rocket
mission will launch three rockets during the 2023
annular eclipse in October to study how the sudden
drop in sunlight affects our upper atmosphere.
Statement 3 is correct: APEP will detect changes in
the ionosphere using instruments such as Langmuir
probes, electric field probes, magnetometers, ionization
gauges, and accelerometers.
Q 85. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
The Bortle Scale is an attempt to quantify the brightness
of the night sky as a function of location. Amateur
astronomers can use the Bortle Scale to get a numerical
value that relates what objects can be seen on a given
night with what may be hidden under the cloak of light
pollution.
It provides an excellent guide to the darkness of an
observing site and is also useful in comparing sites
among a variety of sites around the world.
So, option (d) is correct.
Q 86. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: ESA’s Earth Explorer,
Aeolus, was launched into space on 22 August 2018
and was retired on 30 April 2023. Surpassing scientific
expectations and exceeding its planned life in orbit, the
mission has been hailed as one of ESA’s most successful.
Statement 2 is correct: Aeolus was the first satellite
mission to acquire profiles of Earth’s wind on a global
scale. These observations improved weather forecasts
and climate models.
Q 87. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
A defibrillator is a device that provides an electric shock
to your heart to allow it to get out of a potentially fatal
abnormal heart rhythm, or arrhythmia, — ventricular
tachycardia (with no pulse) or ventricular fibrillation
— and back to a normal rhythm.
Defibrillation is most effective when a healthcare
provider delivers the shock as soon as possible after an
arrhythmia starts.
So, option (c) is correct.
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Q 88. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Foot and mouth disease
(FMD) is a severe, highly contagious viral disease of
livestock that has a significant economic impact. The
disease affects cattle, swine, sheep, goats and other
cloven-hoofed ruminants.
Statement 2 is correct: FMD is a transboundary animal
disease (TAD) that deeply affect the production of
livestock and disrupting regional and international
trade in animals and animal products. The disease is
estimated to circulate in 77% of the global livestock
population, in Africa, the Middle East and Asia, as well
as in a limited area of South America.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The overall aim of the National
Animal Disease Control Programme for FMD and
Brucellosis (NADCP) is to control FMD by 2025 with
vaccination and its eventual eradication by 2030. This will
result in increased domestic production and ultimately in
increased exports of milk and livestock products.
Q 89. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
A ZFN is an artificial endonuclease that consists of a
designed zinc finger protein (ZFP) fused to the cleavage
domain of the FokI restriction enzyme. A ZFN may be
redesigned to cleave new targets by developing ZFPs
with new sequence specificities.
For genome engineering, a ZFN is targeted to cleave a
chosen genomic sequence. The cleavage event induced
by the ZFN provokes cellular repair processes that in
turn mediate efficient modification of the targeted
locus.
Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases
(TALENs) are of a similar construction as ZFNs. They
are derived from naturally occurring plant pathogenic
bacteria and contain DNA binding proteins called
TALEs. The TALE is 33–35 amino acids in length and
recognizes a single base pair of DNA.
Prime editing is a ‘search-and-replace’ genome editing
technology in molecular biology by which the genome
of living organisms may be modified.
So, option (b) is correct.
Q 90. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Sickle cell disease (SCD) is a
group of inherited red blood cell disorders. Red blood
cells contain haemoglobin, a protein that carries
oxygen. Healthy red blood cells are round, and they
move through small blood vessels to carry oxygen to all
parts of the body.
Statement 2 is correct: Ayushman Bharat- Pradhan Mantri
Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) provides full treatment
for Sickle Cell Disease, free of cost to its beneficiaries.
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Statement 3 is incorrect: The specific schedule of
immunizations recommended by the ACIP for patients
with sickle cell disease includes the Haemophilus
influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine, pneumococcal vaccines
(PCV7, PCV13, PPSV23), and the meningococcal
vaccines for serogroups A, C, W, and Y (MenACWY),
and serogroup B (MenB).
Q 91. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Genetically modified crops (GM crops) are plants used
in agriculture, the DNA of which has been modified
using genetic engineering methods.
Agricultural plants are one of the most frequently
cited examples of genetically modified organisms
(GMOs). Some benefits of genetic engineering in
agriculture are increased crop yields, reduced costs for
food or drug production, reduced need for pesticides,
enhanced nutrient composition and food quality,
resistance to pests and disease, greater food security,
and medical benefits to the world’s growing population.
So, option (c) is correct.
Q 92. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Quantum entanglement is a
bizarre, counterintuitive phenomenon that explains
how two subatomic particles can be intimately linked
to each other even if separated by billions of light-years
of space.
Statement 2 is correct: A quantum bit is any bit
made out of a quantum system, like an electron or
photon. Just like classical bits, a quantum bit must
have two distinct states: one representing “0” and one
representing “1”. Unlike a classical bit, a quantum bit
can also exist in superposition states, be subjected to
incompatible measurements, and even be entangled
with other quantum bits.
Q 93. Ans:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The registration of births
and deaths falls under the Concurrent List. The
Concurrent List is a list of 52 items given in the Seventh
Schedule to the Constitution of India. Both union
and states have the power to legislate on the subjects
mentioned in the concurrent list.
Statement 2 is correct: The act paves way for digital
birth certificate to be used as a single document for
government jobs as well as marriage registration The
Registration of Birth and Death Act was enacted in 1969.
Registration of Birth and Death (amendment) act, 2023
is the first amendment to this act. This amendment
will help in implementation of e-governance with
provisions like Electronic certificates for birth and
death, linking data with Aadhar etc..
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Q 94. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Banks don’t earn interest on
Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR)”. Recently,
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) asked banks to maintain
an Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR) of 10%.
RBI has taken this temporary measure to drain excess
liquidity from the banking system.
Statement 2 is incorrect: CRR is the liquid cash that
scheduled commercial banks need to keep with RBI as
a certain percentage of their demand liabilities. ICRR
is similar to CRR,but unlike CRR, which applies to
the total deposit base, ICRR specifically targets new
deposits.ICRR is applied to the incremental increase in
deposits made by customers within a certain period.
Q 95. Ans:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Lakhpati didi initiative is
launched by Ministry of Rural Development. It is
based on women-centric development approach. It
aims to catalyze economic empowerment and financial
independence among women in rural areas.
Statement 2 is correct: A Lakhpati Didi is a Self-Help
Group member who earns an annual household income
of Rupees One Lakh (₹1,00,000) or more.This income
is calculated for at least four agricultural seasons and/or
business cycles, with an average monthly income exceeding
Rupees Ten Thousand (₹10,000), so that it is sustainable.
Statement 3 is correct: Recently, the Government
announced skill development training of over two
crore women under the ‘Lakhpati Didi’ scheme, which
aims to encourage them to start micro -enterprises.
Under skill development training Women would be
trained in skills like plumbing, LED bulb making, and
operating and repairing drones, among others.
Q 96. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of Coal has taken
an initiative to promote Rail-Sea-Rail which aims to
integrate Rail-Sea-Rail (RSR) transportation for the efficient
movement of domestic coal.It has many advantages. Firstly,
it is likely to reduce congestion on the All-Rail Route by
providing an additional alternative mode of coal evacuation.
Secondly, it creates export opportunities by building
infrastructure that can be utilized for exports in the future
and lastly, RSR has significantly lower carbon footprint.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It aims to integrate
Rail-Sea-Rail (RSR) transportation for the efficient
movement of domestic coal. This multimodal
transportation system allows for the seamless
transportation of coal from mines to ports and then to
end-users, reducing transportation costs and improving
logistic efficiency.
 https://upscmaterial.online/
Q 97. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Cyclones are among the most intense weather systems
on the planet. Fujiwhara effect happens when two
tropical cyclones get close enough to each other to
create a shared center, forcing the two storms to whip
around that common central point. If one of the cyclon
is stronger than the other, the effect usually leads to the
weaker one being gobbled up by the more powerful
cyclone. If the cyclones are similar in strength, they can
sometimes merge or just slingshot around each other
and continue on their way.
Q 98. Ans:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Global Biodiversity
Framework Fund (GBFF) has been designed to
mobilize and accelerate investment in the conservation
and sustainability of wild species and ecosystems,
whose health is under threat from wildfires, flooding,
extreme weather, and human activity including urban
sprawl. Decisions of the GBFF Council are taken by
consensus . The first council meeting of the Global
Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF) took place
recently in Washington DC, United States, February
8-9, 2024
Statement 2 is correct: As much as 20 percent of its
resources will support Indigenous-led initiatives to
protect and conserve biodiversity. It will also prioritize
support for Small Island Developing States and Least
Developed Countries, which will receive more than a
third of the fund’s resources.
Test Paper-26 Full Length (Solutions)
https://t.me/visioniastestseries2024
.
Q 99. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It comes under the Ministry
of Rural development . The Scheme was launched in
1995 and includes five sub-schemes. These are ,Indira
Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme , Indira
Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme , Indira
Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme etc.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 41 of Indian Constitution
direct the state to provide public assistance to citizen
in case of unemployment, old age, sickness and
disablement and other cases. The National Assistance
Programme (NSAP) is in line to implement Article 41
of the Constitution.
Q 100. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
LK-99 also called PCPOSOS, is a gray–black,
polycrystalline compound, identified as a copper-doped
lead‒oxyapatite . A group of scientist from South
Korea had published two research papers claiming
that they had discovered the room-temperature
superconductivity phenomena in a material called
LK-99. However, the claims of material LK-99 depicting
the room temperature superconductivity proved
inconsistent. Independent scientists have found that
the material reported by South Korean scientists to
be a superconductor is actually an insulator.
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