CFPS MOCK TEST 01

1. Many Commercial cooking establishements have grease extraction or

control devices downstream of the hood to remove grease and odors from
the effulient stream. Where are most of these devices installed ?
a. On the roof top immediately before the fan.
b. In ceiling space
c. In mezzanines
d. Just above the cooktop

2. What is the typical fire load of content in typcial nursing home patient room
?
a. 2.6
b. 3.2
c. 3.9
d. 4.3

3. When responding to fire, there are generally two types of tactice or stratagies
for extinguishment. Which of these is one of them.
a. Aggressive
b. Automated
c. Defensive
d. Manual

4. A Surface with the aborbitivity with maximum value of 1 is known as

a. Visual radiation
b. A Black body
c. A white body
d. A Black surface

5. The FPH indicates that a high rise is defined as buidling where floor of an
occupiable story is greater than _____ above the lowest level of fire
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department access.
a. 40 ft
b. 75 ft
c. 100 ft
d. 150 ft

6. Which of the following is a practice or approach for providing all hazards or

all risk protection to a community ?
a. Combined response
b. Mutual aid
c. Community risk reduction
d. Risk Analysis

7. Which of these are thermosensitive devices designed to react at

predetermined temprature by automatically releasing the a stream of water
and distributing it in specified pattern and quantities over designated areas ?
a. Aerosol suppression systems
b. Water Spray system
c. Water mist system
d. Automatic sprinkler system

8. A fire Protection Engineer should develop a detailed fire alarm system

design, based on combination of three primary goals, life safery, Property
safety and which of these ?
a. Cutural or historic value
b. Structual safety
c. Mission Protection
d. Environment safety

9. The assignment of appropriate level of safety to buildings is based on

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minimum design loads, by occupacy type, from the ASCE what occupancy
type involves sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally unoccupied ?
a. Occupancy Type 1
b. Occupancy Type 2
c. Occupancy Type 3
d. Occupancy Type 4

10. The Practice of Fire protection revolves around how to best meet a code
requirement or client objective. The principle tools of this decision making
process include which of these ?
a. Consideration
b. Treatment
c. Analysis
d. Project Management

11. What minimum Pressure should be maintained at hydrant delivering the

required fire flow ?
a. 20 Psi
b. 5 psi
c. 30 psi
d. 50 psi

12. According to FPH, What NFIRS occupancy classifications are convents,

bunkhouses, workers barracks and nursing quarters ?
a. Board and care facility
b. Apartment building
c. Lodging and rooming houses
d. Dormitories houses

13. You are investigating a lead causes of US structure fire between 1992-2002

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according to the table annual averages. Which of the following created the
greatest direct property damages
a. Identified cooking equipments
b. Electrical distribution or lighting equipment
c. Lightening
d. Identified heating equipment.

14. Some fuel gases are used in hot work Process such as oxyfule gas welding
which of the following has lowest neutral flame temprature ?
a. MAP
b. Hydrogen
c. Propylene
d. Acetylene

15. The means by which an occupant is alerted to a fire ?

a. Lead to non adaptive fire behavior
b. Trigger dangerous fire behavior
c. Determine the degrees of threat perceived
d. Elicit an avoidance of action

16. Fire Protection Safeguard for gas storage revolve around which of these ?
a. Ignition by static electricity
b. The container/gas combination
c. Indoor or outdoor storage
d. Transportation

17. Which of these refrigerants would be the least concern in terms of both
flammability and toxicity ?
a. R-134a

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b. R-143a
c. R-290
d. R-717

18. When an officer must determine the relative importance of size up which of
the following is considered to be an operational priority ?
a. Time of the day
b. Building construction type
c. Extinguishment
d. Presence of sprinkler

19. The Reliability of Fire alarm system and components has shown that, for
most physical systems when the failure rate is plotted verses time a curve of
familiar shape result that is known as
a. Guassian curve
b. Bathtub Curve
c. Life time curve
d. Turn on Curve

20. Which of the require general structural integrity that spread of the local
damage beyond an area dispropotionate to the original local area ?
a. Engineering Processes
b. Material guidelines
c. Building codes
d. Installation Procedure

21. Generally, what type of fires are associated with lowest rate of flame
spread, highest heat flux and highest burn rate?
a. Wall or vertical surface fires
b. Ceiling, horizontal or downward surface fires
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c. Upward facing surface fires

d. Both upward facing and downward facing surface fires

22. When investigating major fire situations, ______ procedures are developed
to address complex events and timelines.
a. STEP
b. STAIR
c. STAGE
d. STAR

23. Which law is expressed in this formula?

q = εσT4 kW/m2
a. Stefan-Boltzmann’s
b. Planck’s
c. Kirchoff’s
d. Local Thermodynamics

24. The three approaches to structural frame and barrier design for fire
resistance include : standard fire resistance testing and building code
requirements; analytical calculations to determine fire resistance; and which
of these?
a. Analytical models for fire exposure characteristics
b. Standard load and force resistance design
c. Analytical structural methods based on real fire exposure characteristics
d. Critical investigation of materials and products

25. In addition to regularly scheduled inspections, sprinkler systems may also

undergo which of these?
a. Spring and Fall inspections
b. Summer and Fall inspections

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c. Fall and Winter inspections

d. Winter and Spring inspections

26. Where extremely fast response is required, the sprinkler pipe is prefilled
with water up to the open sprinklers, which are equipped with blow off plugs
or caps. This is a special variety of which type of system?
a. Wet pipe
b. Preaction
c. Water mist
d. Deluge

27. In addition to including fire alarm and suppression systems, a fire protection
system safeguarding equipment must take into account which of these?
a. System and data redundancy
b. Physical storage of equipment
c. Facility security
d. Emergency plans and procedures

28. Hydrostatic testing of fire extinguishers by halogenated agent should be

performed at what minimum interval?
a. Annually
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 12 years

29. According to a table in FPH, what is the minimum installation clearance for
steam pipes carrying steam at pressure above 15 psig (103 kPa), but not over
500 psig(3450 kPa)?
a. ½ in (13 mm)
b. 1 in (25 mm)

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c. 3 in (76 mm)
d. 6 in (152 mm)

30. At what minimum frequency shouls the amount of expellent gases be

checked on a chemical suppression system, to ensure there is sufficient gas
to provide effective discharge?
a. Annually
b. Semiannually
c. Quarterly
d. Monthly

31. Which of these provides requirements for installation of sprinkler system in

the one and two-family dwelling environment?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 13A
c. NFPA 13D
d. NFPA 13R

32. According to FPH, what is the minimum frequency that waterflow and
supervisory devices should be inspected for a water mist system?
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Semiannually

33. Which type of suppression system is accepted by International Maritime

Organization (IMO) as replacement for halon or CO2 in marine machinery
spaces?
a. Foam water
b. Water mist

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c. Water spray
d. Wet chemical

34. Fire hazard can be quantified as they relate to physical and chemical
characteristics of the ______ with which they are associated.
a. Products
b. Construction
c. Materials
d. Occupancies

35. The typical priorities in fire risk management involves which of these?
a. Evaluating facilities and properties
b. Developing programs and assigning responsibilities to manage risk
c. Providing cost/benefit analysis for loss control alternatives
d. Establishing incident commanders

36. Application of water mist system include offshore drilling and which of
these?
a. Industrial kitchens
b. Environment with carbon fuels
c. IT server rooms
d. Flammable liquids

37. You are charged with travel time for a crowd of occupants. Which of these
is a fundamental characteristic of crowd movement to consider in your
calculation?
a. Occupancy classification
b. Flow
c. Fire size
d. Smoke density
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38. The inspection of which detectors must verify the optical clarity of lenses as
well as a clear, unobstructed line of sight of the fire?
a. Radiant-energy sensing detectors
b. Flashover detectors
c. Smoke detectors
d. Flashpoint detectors

39. Which occupancy type has an additional requirement for smoke barriers to
separate floors, that must carry a 1-hour fire resistance rating?
a. Educational building
b. Health care facilities
c. Single family homes
d. Assembly halls

40. Which of the following does FPH indicate must be viewed as a living
document?
a. Building design
b. Pre-incident plans
c. Site plans
d. Mutual and pacts

41. Which extinguishing agents utilize the extinguishing mechanism of

saponificaiton?
a. Water
b. Wet and dry chemicals
c. Clean agents
d. Carbon dioxide

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42. The FPH indicates that smoke alarms in one-and two family dwellings are
to be replaced when they fail to respond to the operability test (i.e. pushing
the test button) or after_____from the date of manufacture
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 11 years

43. Four categories of occupant characterstics influence the ability to survive in

the fire. Which of the following is one of those categories?
a. Age
b. Staff
c. Return
d. Setting

44. Which of the following ensures the responding emergency personnel known
as much as they can about a facility’s construction, occupancy and fire
protection systems before an incident occurs?
a. Pre incident planning
b. Disaster preparedness
c. Management of free operations
d. Organization for fire loss prevention

45. Which supervisory service system involves both active security patrol tour
and passive security patrol tour initiating devices?
a. Non compulsory tour
b. Elective tour
c. Demand tour
d. Compulsory tour

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46. When assessing life safety in buildings, the qualified evaluator must have a
good understanding of a range of concepts, including which of these?
a. Ignition potential and fire hazards
b. Fire growth stages
c. Emergency medical services
d. Incident management

47. Which type of smoke detectors is used to protect large spaces, such as
atriums, auditoriums and manufacturing areas?
a. Spot type aspirating
b. Video based
c. Photoelectric light scattering type
d. Photoelectric light obstruction type

48. In a computer room that also contains paper and other ordinary
combustibles, which of these extinguisher should be provided?
a. Class D extinguisher
b. Dry chemical extinguisher
c. CO2 extinguisher
d. Foam extinguisher

49. At a petrochemical plant, what is the storage tank spacing requirement

between Class II cone tanks and floating roof tanks (> 10,000 < 3,00,000
barrels)?
a. 0.5 × D
b. 1 × D
c. 1 × D 50′ minimum
d. 1.5 × D 100′ minimum

50. Boiler rooms, incinerator rooms, storage rooms above 100 ft2 (9.3 m2) paint

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shops, and maintainence shops are generally separated by what rated of fire
rated construction?
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 1.5 hour
d. 2 hour

51. The hazard of a building may relate to its type of construction. Building
construction can be classified based on _____ of the construction material
used
a. Degree of fire resistance
b. Rate of pyrolysis
c. Maximum heat energy
d. Heat of gasification

52. The process following flashover when smoke recirculates towards the fire
causing reduced oxygen for combustion and a reduced heat release rate is :
a. Ventilation
b. Post-flashover
c. Vitiation
d. Smoke discharge

53. Which of the following is probably the most important measure used to
characterize the flammability hazard of a given material?
a. Heat release rate
b. Ignition temperature
c. Flame ignition transfer
d. Flame propagation propensity

54. Which of the following is included in the four phases of emergency

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preparedness management?
a. Response
b. Readiness
c. Salvage
d. Intensification

55. Uniform building code requires new hotels with______sleeping rooms,

regardless of height, to be protected with automatic sprinklers and active fire
protection system.
a. 16 or more
b. 20 or more
c. 30 or more
d. 50 or more

56. In addition to a primary power supply, emergency voice/alarm

communication systems must have 24 hours of standby power, followed
by___of operation.
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours

57. Smoke is a threat to life safety. The nature and concentration of generated
smoke depend on which of the following factors?
a. The temperature of the air
b. Number of the exits in the area
c. Whether the product is flamming or pyrolizing
d. The location of the product

58. At what minimum frequency should hydrants be flushed, by allowing full

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flow at least for one minute?

a. Semiannually
b. Annually
c. Every 2 years
d. Every 3 years

59. The factor of safety generally varies from ______ depending upon the
reliability or variability of data on which the value of strength and
consequences of failure are determined.
a. 1.0 to 2.5
b. 1.5 to 3.0
c. 2.0 to 4.0
d. 2.5 to 4.5

60. With materials raw cotton, grains, powder and coal caution should be taken
to avoid______with special handling equipments such as conveyors.
a. Heat of friction
b. Spontaneous ignition
c. Electrostatic discharge
d. Heat of gasification

61. Which decision making model is evolved from studies of decision makers
(such as fire officers) in complex, time critical situation?
a. Conceptual model
b. Naturalistic model
c. Recognition primed model
d. Stress model

62. In chemical processing plants, which of these is the primary method to

control spills?

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a. Preventing spills
b. Wet benches
c. Special carts
d. Use the hazard ranking approach

63. Which electrically operated waterflow alarm initiating device is inserted

into the riser just above the point at which the water supply piping enters the
building from underground?
a. Fire alarm box
b. Vane type switch
c. Mechanical guard
d. Pressure operated switch

64. A connection from a reliable public waterworks system of

adequate_______is the prefered or primary supply for automatic sprinkler
system.
a. Volume and Flow
b. Density and Strength
c. Capacity and Pressure
d. Force and Stream

65. Refrigerants are identified by ______ as specified in ANSI/ASHRAE 34

a. A Color Coded label
b. Their Chemical name
c. A numerical Designation
d. Their Trade Name

66. A key element in the residential fire protection is the development and
practice of a family escape paln. NFPA provides information on how to
formulate this plan and its ____

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a. EDITH
b. FEITH
c. FEP
d. PTE

67. Which of these is defined as a contineuous membrance or membrance with

discontiuities created by protected openings with a specified fire protection
rating. Where such membrance are designed and constructed with a
specified fire resistance rating to limit the spread of fire.
a. Fire Barriers
b. Fire Doors
c. Fire Partitions
d. Fire Walls

68. Which of these container guidelines for proper location of automatic

sprinkler heads near ducts to avoid obstruction of water distribution ?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 14
c. NFPA 16
d. NFPA 18

69. Which of these sprinkler been found to be effective means of suppressing

fire involves fires ?
a. Mist sprinkler
b. Pre- actions sprinkler
c. ESFR Sprinkler
d. Small Drop Sprinkler

70. During Fire loss investigation, which of these statements is true about
exigent circumstances ?

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a. The fire department has determined that there is no further risk

b. The insurance assessor has revoked scene investigation
c. Duration of the fire department presence depends on ownver
d. The Fire department needs to assess continuing risk.

71. Which of the followings is a terms used to describe the size range of water
molecules contained in a representative sample of spray or mist?
a. Propotioning
b. Drop size distribution
c. Flux density
d. Spray momentum.

72. You are performing risk assessment and analysis of a facility, which of
these describe the first step in the risk assessment process ?
a. Hazard identification
b. Setting goals and objectives
c. Conducting Probablity analysis
d. Severity analysis

73. Based upon a table in FPH, what are the egress distance limitations for an
unsprinklered general purpose industrial occupancy ?
a. 50 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 250 ft

74. Which foaming agent is capable of forming water solution films on the
surface of flammalbe hydrocarbon liquids ?
a. AFFF
b. AR
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c. FFFP
d. P agent

75. Which of the following ignition test uses a 100 mm circular horizontal
specimen which is exposed to known heat flux from the tungten quartz
heater and time to ignition is measured ?
a. Cone calorimeter
b. ICAL
c. FPA
d. LIFT

76. The appropriate selection of a design fire’s growth is important to obtaining

a realistic prediction of which of these?
a. Time to start of evacuation
b. Likelihood of occurrence
c. Number of occupants
d. Probability of flashover

77. Which of the following describes clean fire suppression agents?

a. Electricity conductive
b. Form a blanket on the fuel surface
c. Vapourize readily
d. Listed for use on combustible metals

78. Mutual and plans, pacts or aggrements, are created among fire and rescue
services and other emergency responderes:
a. To lend assistance across jurisdictional boundaries
b. To provide joint dispatch, and combine training
c. To offer assistance following a disaster in community
d. To grant financial aid to purchase speciality fire fighting equipment
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79. Which sprinkler system should be used when system components are
exposed to temperatures below 40°F (4°C)?
a. Wet pipe systems
b. Preaction systems
c. Dry pipe systems
d. Deluge systems

80. In modern, high rise apartment buildings, the introduction of required areas
of refuge serves three purposes. Which one of the following is one of them?
a. Limiting the number of occupants that need to use stairways
b. Limiting the spread of fire and fire produced conatainments
c. Limiting the hazard events to a single fire
d. Limiting construction costs by providing a tenable space on the same
level

81. The thermal effect of a material is the direct product of thermal

conductivity, heat capacity and which of these?
a. Heat emission
b. Self-sustained combustion
c. Volume
d. Density

82. Fire alarm systems may provide three type of signals. Which of the type
provides the warning of fire danger which requires immediate action?
a. Alarm
b. Supervisory
c. Trouble
d. Control

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83. The assignment of appropriate levels of safety to buildings is based on

minimum design loads from the American Society of Civil Engineers. What
does Occupancy type II include?
a. Buildings that are deemed to be essential to the public welfare,
communication and transportation
b. Important facilities such as schools, detention facilities and those of
home utilities
c. Most commercial, residential and instituional structures
d. Structures such as sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally
unoccupied

84. Fire pumps used in healthcare occupancies must be electrically supervised

in accordance with:
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 20
c. NFPA 101*
d. NFPA 5000*

85. In a ceiling jet that is not caused by direct flame impingement, maximum
temperature and velocity______ steadily as the radial distance from the
plume centerline_____due to a combination of air entrainment from below
the jet and heat loss to the ceiling above the jet.
a. Decrease; decreases
b. Increase; decreases
c. Increase; increases
d. Decrease; increases

86. Which of these focuses on quality instruction for fire, rescue and emergency
response staff and states that “the quality of an educational is as good as its
instructional staff”?

a. NFPA 1001
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b. NFPA 1041
c. NFPA 1403
d. NFPA 1500

87. Which of these is true about an explosion (deflagration) vent?

a. It is a flammable liquid protectiion technique
b. It requires calculation of lowest burning velocity
c. It is only effective in open environments
d. It protect an enclosure from damaging pressures

88. Resonable requirements to protect semiconductor facilities from a fire or

related hazards include which of these?
a. The proper use of cleanrooms
b. Survillence system requirements
c. Manufacturing equipment design requirements
d. Production and support equipment

89. Which of the following is true about storing metal particles and fines from
grinding operations?
a. If stored in drums, metal particles will not ignite
b. Fines can be submerged in animal or vegetabel oil
c. Metal particles immersed in water cannot ignite
d. Fines generate flammable methane

90. Based on the average walking speeds for various categories of users in
shopping centers, which of these user category has the fastest walking
speed?
a. Pregnant women
b. Able bodied adult walking with another person
c. Adult with a child and a baby/toddler
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d. Older adult walking alone

91. Tanks larger than 660 gal(2500L) can be installed in buildings, provided
they are located in an enclosure constructed of walls, floor and ceiling that
provide a what minimum fire resistance rating?
a. Not less than 3 hours
b. Not less than 2 hours
c. Not less than 4 hours
d. Not less than 1.5 hours

92. Of the three basic mechanism of heat transfer, which two are similar in that
their rate of heat transfer can be determined T = T1 – T2 , a simple
temperature difference?
a. Conduction and Radiation
b. Conduction and Convection
c. Convection and Radiation
d. Only the heat of convection can be determined this way

93. With special handling equipments such as conveyors, the heat of friction
can cause fires when used for materials like raw cotton, grains and which of
these?
a. Cardboard boxes
b. Coal
c. Residues
d. Sandpaper

94. Carbon-dioxide is a widely used fire extinguishing agents that is especially

effective on flammable liquid fires, gas fires and fires involving:
a. Flammable metals
b. Vegetable oil or cooking fat

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c. Wood, paper or cloth

d. Electrically energized equipment

95. Which of the following is a comprehensive standard for pre-incident

planning for emergency response?
a. NFPA 1201
b. NFPA 1250
c. NFPA 1600
d. NFPA 1620

96. Which of following provides a statistically derived method to define the

vertical loads and lateral forces to which buildings may be subjected, as well
as uniform margins of safety in design?
a. Engineering processes
b. Material design standards
c. Building codes
d. Design load standards

97. Fires established on vertical combustible surfaces are especially dangerous

because:
a. Flames transition from turbulent to steady laminar flow
b. Of the potential for rapid upward fire spread
c. Of the air induced by the flames themselves
d. Convective heating is lower above the active burn region

98. The movement of speed of an evacuating crowd is a function of:

a. Density
b. A constant (based on feet or meters)
c. Denseness
d. Specific Flow
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99. The five E’s of Community Risk Reduction include:

a. Encouragement, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and
economic incentives
b. Education, enforcement, encouragement, emergency response and
economic incentives
c. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economic
incentives
d. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economy

100. In a low hazard storage occupancy (whether sprinkled or unsprinkled)

the maximum travel distance to an exit is:
a. No limit requirement
b. 150 ft (45 m)
c. 175 ft (53 m)
d. 200 ft (61 m)

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1. Many Commercial cooking establishements have grease extraction or

control devices downstream of the hood to remove grease and odors from
the effulient stream. Where are most of these devices installed ?
a. On the roof top immediately before the fan.
b. In ceiling space
c. In mezzanines
d. Just above the cooktop

2. What is the typical fire load of content in typcial nursing home patient room
?
a. 2.6
b. 3.2
c. 3.9
d. 4.3

3. When responding to fire, there are generally two types of tactice or stratagies
for extinguishment. Which of these is one of them.
a. Aggressive
b. Automated
c. Defensive
d. Manual

4. A Surface with the aborbitivity with maximum value of 1 is known as

a. Visual radiation
b. A Black body
c. A white body
d. A Black surface

5. The FPH indicates that a high rise is defined as buidling where floor of an
occupiable story is greater than _____ above the lowest level of fire
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department access.
a. 40 ft
b. 75 ft
c. 100 ft
d. 150 ft

6. Which of the following is a practice or approach for providing all hazards or

all risk protection to a community ?
a. Combined response
b. Mutual aid
c. Community risk reduction
d. Risk Analysis

7. Which of these are thermosensitive devices designed to react at

predetermined temprature by automatically releasing the a stream of water
and distributing it in specified pattern and quantities over designated areas ?
a. Aerosol suppression systems
b. Water Spray system
c. Water mist system
d. Automatic sprinkler system

8. A fire Protection Engineer should develop a detailed fire alarm system

design, based on combination of three primary goals, life safery, Property
safety and which of these ?
a. Cutural or historic value
b. Structual safety
c. Mission Protection
d. Environment safety

9. The assignment of appropriate level of safety to buildings is based on

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minimum design loads, by occupacy type, from the ASCE what occupancy
type involves sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally unoccupied ?
a. Occupancy Type 1
b. Occupancy Type 2
c. Occupancy Type 3
d. Occupancy Type 4

10. The Practice of Fire protection revolves around how to best meet a code
requirement or client objective. The principle tools of this decision making
process include which of these ?
a. Consideration
b. Treatment
c. Analysis
d. Project Management

11. What minimum Pressure should be maintained at hydrant delivering the

required fire flow ?
a. 20 Psi
b. 5 psi
c. 30 psi
d. 50 psi

12. According to FPH, What NFIRS occupancy classifications are convents,

bunkhouses, workers barracks and nursing quarters ?
a. Board and care facility
b. Apartment building
c. Lodging and rooming houses
d. Dormitories houses

13. You are investigating a lead causes of US structure fire between 1992-2002

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according to the table annual averages. Which of the following created the
greatest direct property damages
a. Identified cooking equipments
b. Electrical distribution or lighting equipment
c. Lightening
d. Identified heating equipment.

14. Some fuel gases are used in hot work Process such as oxyfule gas welding
which of the following has lowest neutral flame temprature ?
a. MAP
b. Hydrogen
c. Propylene
d. Acetylene

15. The means by which an occupant is alerted to a fire ?

a. Lead to non adaptive fire behavior
b. Trigger dangerous fire behavior
c. Determine the degrees of threat perceived
d. Elicit an avoidance of action

16. Fire Protection Safeguard for gas storage revolve around which of these ?
a. Ignition by static electricity
b. The container/gas combination
c. Indoor or outdoor storage
d. Transportation

17. Which of these refrigerants would be the least concern in terms of both
flammability and toxicity ?
a. R-134a

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b. R-143a
c. R-290
d. R-717

18. When an officer must determine the relative importance of size up which of
the following is considered to be an operational priority ?
a. Time of the day
b. Building construction type
c. Extinguishment
d. Presence of sprinkler

19. The Reliability of Fire alarm system and components has shown that, for
most physical systems when the failure rate is plotted verses time a curve of
familiar shape result that is known as
a. Guassian curve
b. Bathtub Curve
c. Life time curve
d. Turn on Curve

20. Which of the require general structural integrity that spread of the local
damage beyond an area dispropotionate to the original local area ?
a. Engineering Processes
b. Material guidelines
c. Building codes
d. Installation Procedure

21. Generally, what type of fires are associated with lowest rate of flame
spread, highest heat flux and highest burn rate?
a. Wall or vertical surface fires
b. Ceiling, horizontal or downward surface fires
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c. Upward facing surface fires

d. Both upward facing and downward facing surface fires

22. When investigating major fire situations, ______ procedures are developed
to address complex events and timelines.
a. STEP
b. STAIR
c. STAGE
d. STAR

23. Which law is expressed in this formula?

q = εσT4 kW/m2
a. Stefan-Boltzmann’s
b. Planck’s
c. Kirchoff’s
d. Local Thermodynamics

24. The three approaches to structural frame and barrier design for fire
resistance include : standard fire resistance testing and building code
requirements; analytical calculations to determine fire resistance; and which
of these?
a. Analytical models for fire exposure characteristics
b. Standard load and force resistance design
c. Analytical structural methods based on real fire exposure characteristics
d. Critical investigation of materials and products

25. In addition to regularly scheduled inspections, sprinkler systems may also

undergo which of these?
a. Spring and Fall inspections
b. Summer and Fall inspections

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c. Fall and Winter inspections

d. Winter and Spring inspections

26. Where extremely fast response is required, the sprinkler pipe is prefilled
with water up to the open sprinklers, which are equipped with blow off plugs
or caps. This is a special variety of which type of system?
a. Wet pipe
b. Preaction
c. Water mist
d. Deluge

27. In addition to including fire alarm and suppression systems, a fire protection
system safeguarding equipment must take into account which of these?
a. System and data redundancy
b. Physical storage of equipment
c. Facility security
d. Emergency plans and procedures

28. Hydrostatic testing of fire extinguishers by halogenated agent should be

performed at what minimum interval?
a. Annually
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 12 years

29. According to a table in FPH, what is the minimum installation clearance for
steam pipes carrying steam at pressure above 15 psig (103 kPa), but not over
500 psig(3450 kPa)?
a. ½ in (13 mm)
b. 1 in (25 mm)

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c. 3 in (76 mm)
d. 6 in (152 mm)

30. At what minimum frequency shouls the amount of expellent gases be

checked on a chemical suppression system, to ensure there is sufficient gas
to provide effective discharge?
a. Annually
b. Semiannually
c. Quarterly
d. Monthly

31. Which of these provides requirements for installation of sprinkler system in

the one and two-family dwelling environment?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 13A
c. NFPA 13D
d. NFPA 13R

32. According to FPH, what is the minimum frequency that waterflow and
supervisory devices should be inspected for a water mist system?
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Semiannually

33. Which type of suppression system is accepted by International Maritime

Organization (IMO) as replacement for halon or CO2 in marine machinery
spaces?
a. Foam water
b. Water mist

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c. Water spray
d. Wet chemical

34. Fire hazard can be quantified as they relate to physical and chemical
characteristics of the ______ with which they are associated.
a. Products
b. Construction
c. Materials
d. Occupancies

35. The typical priorities in fire risk management involves which of these?
a. Evaluating facilities and properties
b. Developing programs and assigning responsibilities to manage risk
c. Providing cost/benefit analysis for loss control alternatives
d. Establishing incident commanders

36. Application of water mist system include offshore drilling and which of
these?
a. Industrial kitchens
b. Environment with carbon fuels
c. IT server rooms
d. Flammable liquids

37. You are charged with travel time for a crowd of occupants. Which of these
is a fundamental characteristic of crowd movement to consider in your
calculation?
a. Occupancy classification
b. Flow
c. Fire size
d. Smoke density
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38. The inspection of which detectors must verify the optical clarity of lenses as
well as a clear, unobstructed line of sight of the fire?
a. Radiant-energy sensing detectors
b. Flashover detectors
c. Smoke detectors
d. Flashpoint detectors

39. Which occupancy type has an additional requirement for smoke barriers to
separate floors, that must carry a 1-hour fire resistance rating?
a. Educational building
b. Health care facilities
c. Single family homes
d. Assembly halls

40. Which of the following does FPH indicate must be viewed as a living
document?
a. Building design
b. Pre-incident plans
c. Site plans
d. Mutual and pacts

41. Which extinguishing agents utilize the extinguishing mechanism of

saponificaiton?
a. Water
b. Wet and dry chemicals
c. Clean agents
d. Carbon dioxide

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42. The FPH indicates that smoke alarms in one-and two family dwellings are
to be replaced when they fail to respond to the operability test (i.e. pushing
the test button) or after_____from the date of manufacture
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 11 years

43. Four categories of occupant characterstics influence the ability to survive in

the fire. Which of the following is one of those categories?
a. Age
b. Staff
c. Return
d. Setting

44. Which of the following ensures the responding emergency personnel known
as much as they can about a facility’s construction, occupancy and fire
protection systems before an incident occurs?
a. Pre incident planning
b. Disaster preparedness
c. Management of free operations
d. Organization for fire loss prevention

45. Which supervisory service system involves both active security patrol tour
and passive security patrol tour initiating devices?
a. Non compulsory tour
b. Elective tour
c. Demand tour
d. Compulsory tour

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46. When assessing life safety in buildings, the qualified evaluator must have a
good understanding of a range of concepts, including which of these?
a. Ignition potential and fire hazards
b. Fire growth stages
c. Emergency medical services
d. Incident management

47. Which type of smoke detectors is used to protect large spaces, such as
atriums, auditoriums and manufacturing areas?
a. Spot type aspirating
b. Video based
c. Photoelectric light scattering type
d. Photoelectric light obstruction type

48. In a computer room that also contains paper and other ordinary
combustibles, which of these extinguisher should be provided?
a. Class D extinguisher
b. Dry chemical extinguisher
c. CO2 extinguisher
d. Foam extinguisher

49. At a petrochemical plant, what is the storage tank spacing requirement

between Class II cone tanks and floating roof tanks (> 10,000 < 3,00,000
barrels)?
a. 0.5 × D
b. 1 × D
c. 1 × D 50′ minimum
d. 1.5 × D 100′ minimum

50. Boiler rooms, incinerator rooms, storage rooms above 100 ft2 (9.3 m2) paint

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shops, and maintainence shops are generally separated by what rated of fire
rated construction?
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 1.5 hour
d. 2 hour

51. The hazard of a building may relate to its type of construction. Building
construction can be classified based on _____ of the construction material
used
a. Degree of fire resistance
b. Rate of pyrolysis
c. Maximum heat energy
d. Heat of gasification

52. The process following flashover when smoke recirculates towards the fire
causing reduced oxygen for combustion and a reduced heat release rate is :
a. Ventilation
b. Post-flashover
c. Vitiation
d. Smoke discharge

53. Which of the following is probably the most important measure used to
characterize the flammability hazard of a given material?
a. Heat release rate
b. Ignition temperature
c. Flame ignition transfer
d. Flame propagation propensity

54. Which of the following is included in the four phases of emergency

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preparedness management?
a. Response
b. Readiness
c. Salvage
d. Intensification

55. Uniform building code requires new hotels with______sleeping rooms,

regardless of height, to be protected with automatic sprinklers and active fire
protection system.
a. 16 or more
b. 20 or more
c. 30 or more
d. 50 or more

56. In addition to a primary power supply, emergency voice/alarm

communication systems must have 24 hours of standby power, followed
by___of operation.
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours

57. Smoke is a threat to life safety. The nature and concentration of generated
smoke depend on which of the following factors?
a. The temperature of the air
b. Number of the exits in the area
c. Whether the product is flamming or pyrolizing
d. The location of the product

58. At what minimum frequency should hydrants be flushed, by allowing full

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flow at least for one minute?

a. Semiannually
b. Annually
c. Every 2 years
d. Every 3 years

59. The factor of safety generally varies from ______ depending upon the
reliability or variability of data on which the value of strength and
consequences of failure are determined.
a. 1.0 to 2.5
b. 1.5 to 3.0
c. 2.0 to 4.0
d. 2.5 to 4.5

60. With materials raw cotton, grains, powder and coal caution should be taken
to avoid______with special handling equipments such as conveyors.
a. Heat of friction
b. Spontaneous ignition
c. Electrostatic discharge
d. Heat of gasification

61. Which decision making model is evolved from studies of decision makers
(such as fire officers) in complex, time critical situation?
a. Conceptual model
b. Naturalistic model
c. Recognition primed model
d. Stress model

62. In chemical processing plants, which of these is the primary method to

control spills?

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a. Preventing spills
b. Wet benches
c. Special carts
d. Use the hazard ranking approach

63. Which electrically operated waterflow alarm initiating device is inserted

into the riser just above the point at which the water supply piping enters the
building from underground?
a. Fire alarm box
b. Vane type switch
c. Mechanical guard
d. Pressure operated switch

64. A connection from a reliable public waterworks system of

adequate_______is the prefered or primary supply for automatic sprinkler
system.
a. Volume and Flow
b. Density and Strength
c. Capacity and Pressure
d. Force and Stream

65. Refrigerants are identified by ______ as specified in ANSI/ASHRAE 34

a. A Color Coded label
b. Their Chemical name
c. A numerical Designation
d. Their Trade Name

66. A key element in the residential fire protection is the development and
practice of a family escape paln. NFPA provides information on how to
formulate this plan and its ____

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a. EDITH
b. FEITH
c. FEP
d. PTE

67. Which of these is defined as a contineuous membrance or membrance with

discontiuities created by protected openings with a specified fire protection
rating. Where such membrance are designed and constructed with a
specified fire resistance rating to limit the spread of fire.
a. Fire Barriers
b. Fire Doors
c. Fire Partitions
d. Fire Walls

68. Which of these container guidelines for proper location of automatic

sprinkler heads near ducts to avoid obstruction of water distribution ?
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 14
c. NFPA 16
d. NFPA 18

69. Which of these sprinkler been found to be effective means of suppressing

fire involves fires ?
a. Mist sprinkler
b. Pre- actions sprinkler
c. ESFR Sprinkler
d. Small Drop Sprinkler

70. During Fire loss investigation, which of these statements is true about
exigent circumstances ?

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a. The fire department has determined that there is no further risk

b. The insurance assessor has revoked scene investigation
c. Duration of the fire department presence depends on ownver
d. The Fire department needs to assess continuing risk.

71. Which of the followings is a terms used to describe the size range of water
molecules contained in a representative sample of spray or mist?
a. Propotioning
b. Drop size distribution
c. Flux density
d. Spray momentum.

72. You are performing risk assessment and analysis of a facility, which of
these describe the first step in the risk assessment process ?
a. Hazard identification
b. Setting goals and objectives
c. Conducting Probablity analysis
d. Severity analysis

73. Based upon a table in FPH, what are the egress distance limitations for an
unsprinklered general purpose industrial occupancy ?
a. 50 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 250 ft

74. Which foaming agent is capable of forming water solution films on the
surface of flammalbe hydrocarbon liquids ?
a. AFFF
b. AR
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c. FFFP
d. P agent

75. Which of the following ignition test uses a 100 mm circular horizontal
specimen which is exposed to known heat flux from the tungten quartz
heater and time to ignition is measured ?
a. Cone calorimeter
b. ICAL
c. FPA
d. LIFT

76. The appropriate selection of a design fire’s growth is important to obtaining

a realistic prediction of which of these?
a. Time to start of evacuation
b. Likelihood of occurrence
c. Number of occupants
d. Probability of flashover

77. Which of the following describes clean fire suppression agents?

a. Electricity conductive
b. Form a blanket on the fuel surface
c. Vapourize readily
d. Listed for use on combustible metals

78. Mutual and plans, pacts or aggrements, are created among fire and rescue
services and other emergency responderes:
a. To lend assistance across jurisdictional boundaries
b. To provide joint dispatch, and combine training
c. To offer assistance following a disaster in community
d. To grant financial aid to purchase speciality fire fighting equipment
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79. Which sprinkler system should be used when system components are
exposed to temperatures below 40°F (4°C)?
a. Wet pipe systems
b. Preaction systems
c. Dry pipe systems
d. Deluge systems

80. In modern, high rise apartment buildings, the introduction of required areas
of refuge serves three purposes. Which one of the following is one of them?
a. Limiting the number of occupants that need to use stairways
b. Limiting the spread of fire and fire produced conatainments
c. Limiting the hazard events to a single fire
d. Limiting construction costs by providing a tenable space on the same
level

81. The thermal effect of a material is the direct product of thermal

conductivity, heat capacity and which of these?
a. Heat emission
b. Self-sustained combustion
c. Volume
d. Density

82. Fire alarm systems may provide three type of signals. Which of the type
provides the warning of fire danger which requires immediate action?
a. Alarm
b. Supervisory
c. Trouble
d. Control

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83. The assignment of appropriate levels of safety to buildings is based on

minimum design loads from the American Society of Civil Engineers. What
does Occupancy type II include?
a. Buildings that are deemed to be essential to the public welfare,
communication and transportation
b. Important facilities such as schools, detention facilities and those of
home utilities
c. Most commercial, residential and instituional structures
d. Structures such as sheds or agricultural buildings that are normally
unoccupied

84. Fire pumps used in healthcare occupancies must be electrically supervised

in accordance with:
a. NFPA 13
b. NFPA 20
c. NFPA 101*
d. NFPA 5000*

85. In a ceiling jet that is not caused by direct flame impingement, maximum
temperature and velocity______ steadily as the radial distance from the
plume centerline_____due to a combination of air entrainment from below
the jet and heat loss to the ceiling above the jet.
a. Decrease; decreases
b. Increase; decreases
c. Increase; increases
d. Decrease; increases

86. Which of these focuses on quality instruction for fire, rescue and emergency
response staff and states that “the quality of an educational is as good as its
instructional staff”?

a. NFPA 1001
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b. NFPA 1041
c. NFPA 1403
d. NFPA 1500

87. Which of these is true about an explosion (deflagration) vent?

a. It is a flammable liquid protectiion technique
b. It requires calculation of lowest burning velocity
c. It is only effective in open environments
d. It protect an enclosure from damaging pressures

88. Resonable requirements to protect semiconductor facilities from a fire or

related hazards include which of these?
a. The proper use of cleanrooms
b. Survillence system requirements
c. Manufacturing equipment design requirements
d. Production and support equipment

89. Which of the following is true about storing metal particles and fines from
grinding operations?
a. If stored in drums, metal particles will not ignite
b. Fines can be submerged in animal or vegetabel oil
c. Metal particles immersed in water cannot ignite
d. Fines generate flammable methane

90. Based on the average walking speeds for various categories of users in
shopping centers, which of these user category has the fastest walking
speed?
a. Pregnant women
b. Able bodied adult walking with another person
c. Adult with a child and a baby/toddler
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d. Older adult walking alone

91. Tanks larger than 660 gal(2500L) can be installed in buildings, provided
they are located in an enclosure constructed of walls, floor and ceiling that
provide a what minimum fire resistance rating?
a. Not less than 3 hours
b. Not less than 2 hours
c. Not less than 4 hours
d. Not less than 1.5 hours

92. Of the three basic mechanism of heat transfer, which two are similar in that
their rate of heat transfer can be determined T = T1 – T2 , a simple
temperature difference?
a. Conduction and Radiation
b. Conduction and Convection
c. Convection and Radiation
d. Only the heat of convection can be determined this way

93. With special handling equipments such as conveyors, the heat of friction
can cause fires when used for materials like raw cotton, grains and which of
these?
a. Cardboard boxes
b. Coal
c. Residues
d. Sandpaper

94. Carbon-dioxide is a widely used fire extinguishing agents that is especially

effective on flammable liquid fires, gas fires and fires involving:
a. Flammable metals
b. Vegetable oil or cooking fat

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c. Wood, paper or cloth

d. Electrically energized equipment

95. Which of the following is a comprehensive standard for pre-incident

planning for emergency response?
a. NFPA 1201
b. NFPA 1250
c. NFPA 1600
d. NFPA 1620

96. Which of following provides a statistically derived method to define the

vertical loads and lateral forces to which buildings may be subjected, as well
as uniform margins of safety in design?
a. Engineering processes
b. Material design standards
c. Building codes
d. Design load standards

97. Fires established on vertical combustible surfaces are especially dangerous

because:
a. Flames transition from turbulent to steady laminar flow
b. Of the potential for rapid upward fire spread
c. Of the air induced by the flames themselves
d. Convective heating is lower above the active burn region

98. The movement of speed of an evacuating crowd is a function of:

a. Density
b. A constant (based on feet or meters)
c. Denseness
d. Specific Flow
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99. The five E’s of Community Risk Reduction include:

a. Encouragement, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and
economic incentives
b. Education, enforcement, encouragement, emergency response and
economic incentives
c. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economic
incentives
d. Education, enforcement, engineering, emergency response and economy

100. In a low hazard storage occupancy (whether sprinkled or unsprinkled)

the maximum travel distance to an exit is:
a. No limit requirement
b. 150 ft (45 m)
c. 175 ft (53 m)
d. 200 ft (61 m)

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1. Using the FPH, match each building type on the left with its typical occupancy
classification shown on the right. Fill in the appropriate letter on the lines shown

2. Which three items help to determine the occupancy classification or subclassification

of a project?
a. Type of hazards, type of activity occurring, size of building
b. Size of the building, type of wall ratings, type of activity occurring
c. Type of activity occurring, type of hazards, number of occupants
d. Size of the building, number of occupants, type of wall ratings

3. The Life Safety Code distinguishes between new and existing occupancies. Which of
the following scenarios would not create a new occupancy?
a. A project that was designed but not occupied before the new edition of the code was
enforced
b. A company that is hiring a number of new employees
c. A company that is relocating to another building
d. A company that is moving into its new office headquarters

4. Which of the following use types is usually not considered an Educational occupancy?
a. College classrooms
b. Dance studios
c. Elementary school classrooms

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d. a and b

5. Which of the following building types may not always be considered a Residential
occupancy?
a. Monasteries
b. Halfway houses
c. Nursing homes
d. Hotels

6. Which of the following building types would be the least likely to be a mixed
occupancy?
a. Restaurant
b. High security prison
c. High school
d. Hotel

7. When there is more than one type of occupancy in the same building, in which case
must they meet the requirements of the most stringent occupancy classification?
a. If they are considered separated mixed occupancies
b. If they are considered non separated mixed occupancies
c. If they are considered mixed multiple occupancies
d. b and c

8. In some cases, you may decide to increase the occupant load of a space so that it is
higher than that determined by the load factor. When you do so, you must also do which
of the following.
a. Make sure you provide additional exiting as required for the increased number.
b. Make sure all the walls within the building or space are rated.
c. Typically, get approval from a code official for the increased number.
d. a and c

9. What do you need to know in order to determine the required occupant load for a space?
a. Load factor and square footage

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b. Building type and occupancy classification

c. Number of occupants and load factor
d. Load factor and building type

10. When a building has more than one occupancy, the occupant load for the whole
building is determined by which of the following?
a. The occupancy that allows the largest number of people
b. The occupancy with the largest area
c. The occupancy that uses the highest load factor
d. The occupancy loads of each individual occupancy added together.

11. Which of the following are affected by means of egress requirements?

a. Finish selections
b. Occupant loads
c. Fire ratings of walls
d. a and c

12. Which of the following statements about a means of egress is not correct?
a. It is a continuous and unobstructed path of travel.
b. It can consist of vertical and horizontal passageways.
c. It affects all buildings, new and existing.
d. All of the above are correct.

13. Which of the following is not considered a type of exit?

a. Exit stair
b. Exit corridor
c. Exterior door
d. Horizontal exit

14. Horizontal exits are most commonly found in which of the following occupancy
classifications?
a. Institutional occupancies
b. Mercantile occupancies
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c. Residential occupancies
d. Educational occupancies

15. What is the term for the maximum distance a person should have to travel from any
position in a building to the nearest exit?
a. Means of egress
b. Natural path of travel
c. Common path of travel
d. Travel distance

16. What is the typical fire resistance rating of an exit access corridor in a nonsprinklered
building?
a. 2 hour
b. 1.5 Hour
c. 1 hour
d. No rating is required.

17. Match each NFPA standard on the left with the number designation shown on the right.
Fill in the appropriate letter on the lines shown

18. Which of the following devices is used to prevent the movement of air, smoke, gases,
and flame through large concealed spaces?
a. Firestops
b. Draftstops
c. Fireblocking
d. Dampers

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19. Which of the following can be used to help control smoke during a fire?
a. Smoke barriers
b. Pressurized exits
c. Sprinklers
d. a and b

20. Which of the following would compromise the rating of a 1 hour fire resistant wall
assembly?
a. Using a building material differently than specified by the manufacturer
b. Not using rated caulk at the seams and joints
c. Installing an electrical box in the wall cavity for a switch
d. a and b

21. Which is not a method to determine if a wall is rated?

a. Check with the maintenance department
b. Check to see if the wall is labeled above the ceiling
c. Check the original construction documents
d. Check to see if the door has a label

22. Match each NFPA standard on the left with the number designation shown on the right.
Fill in the appropriate letter on the lines shown.

23. What type of system directs occupants out of the building during an emergency by
verbal command?

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a. Emergency voice alarm communication system

b. Accessible warning system
c. Visual/audible alarm system
d. a and c

24. Which of the following is not considered a detection system?

a. Smoke or heat detectors
b. Manual fire alarms
c. Firestops
d. b and c

25. Which of the following statements about detection systems is correct?

a. Smoke detectors should be located next to the intersection of a wall or ceiling.
b. If heat detectors are used, smoke detectors are not necessary for accurate detection
c. Smoke detectors are especially effective in detecting smoldering fires.
d. All of the above are correct.

26. Which class of standpipe is designed for use by building occupants?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. b and c

27. Which of the following would affect the need for a sprinkler system?
a. Building size
b. Occupancy type
c. Specific room use
d. All of the above

28. Which type of sprinkler system would typically be used where the system would be
exposed to freezing temperatures?
a. Wet pipe system

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b. Dry pipe system

c. Deluge system
d. Fast response system

29. Which of the following is not a type of sprinkler head?

a. Residential
b. Pendant
c. Large drop
d. Fast response

30. Which of the following specialty types of rooms or areas is the most likely to use a non
water based fire extinguishing system?
a. Restaurant kitchen
b. Atrium
c. Trash chute
d. Boiler room

31. Which of the following sprinkler head orientations are available recessed and surface
mounted?
a. Pendant and sidewall
b. Upright and pendant
c. Concealed and sidewall
d. Upright and concealed

32. What is the fire resistance rating requirement for primary structural frame including
columns, girders, and trusses in a type V-B structure?
a. 0 hours
b. 1hour
c. 2 hours
d. HT

33. The minimum horizontal area of the window well use for emergency escape shall be 9
square feet, with a minimum dimension of ________. The area of the window well

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shall allow the emergency escape and rescue opening to be fully opened.
a. 24 inch
b. 30 inch
c. 32 inch
d. 36 inch

34. Storage shall be maintained 2 feet or more below the ceiling in nonsprinklered areas of
buildings or a minimum of _____________ below sprinkler head deflectors in
sprinklered areas of buildings. Exceptions ignored.
a. 18 inches
b. 16 inches
c. 22 inches
d. 20 inches

35. A space within a building enclosed by smoke barriers on all sides, including the top
and bottom.
a. Fire block
b. Smoke Compartment
c. Smoke block
d. Smoke Barrier

36. Division 1.3. Explosives that have a fire hazard and either a minor blast hazard or a
minor projection hazard or both, but not a mass explosion hazard.
a. Division 1.1. Explosives
b. Division 1.2. Explosives
c. Division 1.3. Explosives
d. Division 1.4. Explosives

37. Asphalt (tar) kettles shall not be located within _______________ of any combustible
material, combustible building surface or any building opening and within a controlled
area identified by the use of traffic cones, barriers or other approved means. Asphalt
(tar) kettles and pots shall not be utilized inside or on the roof of a building or structure.
Roofing kettles and operating asphalt (tar) kettles shall not block means of egress,
gates, roadways or entrances.

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a. 2 ft.
b. 10 ft
c. 20 ft.
d. 50 ft.

38. Fire detection systems using heat detection devices are among the oldest still in service.
They are relatively inexpensive compared to other types of systems, and they are the
least prone to false activations. They are typically the ____________ type of system to
activate under fire conditions .
a. Best
b. Most Expensive
c. Fastest
d. Slowest

39. Because heat is a product of combustion, devices that use the following primary
principle of physics can detect the presence of heat.
a. Heat causes expansion of various materials.
b. Heat causes melting of certain materials
c. Heated materials have thermoelectric properties that are detectable.
d. any of the above

40. Materials that react explosively with water without requiring heat or confinement.
a. Class 1 Water-Reactive Material
b. Class 2 Water-Reactive Material
c. Class 3 Water-Reactive Material
d. Class 4 Water-Reactive Material

41. Liquids having a closed cup flash point at or above 140°F (60°C) and below 200°F
(93°C).
a. Class 2
b. Class 3a
c. Class 3b

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d. None of the above

42. What color are manual fire alarm boxes required to be?
a. Yellow, orange or red
b. Orange
c. Red
d. White and red

43. Which of the following is an example of unsafe behaviors?

a. Dispensing or transferring flammable and combustible liquids improperly
b. Dispensing or transferring flammable and combustible liquids in the presence of an
open flame or ignition source
c. Using unapproved flammable or combustible liquids for cleaning
d. Storing flammable or combustible liquids in mechanical or electrical Spaces
a. All of the above

44. It is responsible for processing signals from detection (actuating) devices and
transmitting them to the local or other alarm system alerting devices such as audible
and visual alarm devices or an alarm company monitoring location.
a. smoke alarm
b. fire alarm control panel
c. fire detector
d. supervisory switch

45. What is the maximum number of occupants per 200 gross square feet allowed in a
commercial kitchen?
a. 1 occupant for each 200 gross square feet.
b. 2 occupants for each 200 gross square feet
c. 3 occupants for each 200 gross square feet
d. 4 occupants for each 200 gross square feet.

46. The purpose of the code is to establish the _______________ requirements to safeguard
the public health, safety and general welfare

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a. Maximum
b. Reasonable
c. Minimum
d. Voluntary

47. A listed device that senses visible or invisible particles of combustion.

a. smoke detector
b. smoke alarm
c. nuisance alarm
d. thermal detector

48. As applied to a fire door or other opening, means equipped with an approved device
that will ensure closing after having been opened.
a. Automatic
b. self-closing
c. motorized
d. self-automated

49. A sprinkler system employing open sprinklers attached to a piping system connected
to a water supply through a valve that is opened by the operation of a detection system
installed in the same area as the sprinklers. When this valve opens, water flows into the
piping system and discharges from all sprinklers attached thereto.
a. open ended sprinkler system
b. manual sprinkler system
c. pressurized sprinkler system
d. deluge system

50. An area where persons unable to use stairways can remain temporarily to await
instructions or assistance during emergency evacuation.
a. Balcony
b. Area of Refuge
c. Fire Escape
d. Fire Room

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51. Which of the following is not listed as a requirement to be included in fire safety plans?
a. The procedure for reporting a fire or other emergency.
b. The life safety strategy and procedures for notifying, relocating or evacuating
occupants, including occupants who need assistance.
c. The normal routes of fire department vehicle access.
d. The location of smoke alarms and detection devices.
e. The occupancy assembly point, the locations of fire hydrants.

52. In Combustible Dust-Producing Operations, accumulation of combustible dust shall be

kept to a minimum in the interior of buildings. Accumulated combustible dust shall be
collected by vacuum cleaning or other means that will not place combustible dust into
suspension in air. __________________ shall not be used to remove dust from
surfaces.
a. vacuum cleaning
b. forced air blowing
c. water mist filters
d. forced air or similar methods
e. B and D

53. In high-rise buildings automatic sprinkler systems must be tested every ____________
Exceptions ignored
a. Year
b. 2 year
c. 5 Year
d. 10 Years

54. A container holding powder coating material that is aerated from below so as to form
an air-supported expanded cloud of such material that is electrically charged with a
charge opposite to that of the object to be coated. Such object is transported through
the container immediately above the charged and aerated materials in order to be
coated.
a. fire extinguisher
b. electrostatic fluidized bed
c. solid powder fire extinguisher

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d. powder condensed flash suppressant

55. The Fire Separation Distance is the distance measured from the building face to which
of the following
a. The closest interior lot line.
b. To the centerline of a street, an alley or public way;
c. To an imaginary line between two buildings on the lot.
d. Any one of the above

56. Trained crowd managers must be provided for facilities or events where more than
1,000 persons congregate. The minimum number of crowd managers is established at
a ratio of one crowd manager to every __________ persons
a. 50
b. 250
c. 100
d. 300

57. In which section of the NFPA codes would you find the standards for the National
Electrical Code?
a. NFPA 61
b. NFPA 69
c. NFPA 70
d. NFPA 655

58. A hand held portable fire extinguisher is installed in a Class C fire hazard area. The
extinguisher's weight is 44 lbs. What is the minimum allowable height that this fire
extinguisher can be installed above the floor?
a. no limit, can be placed directly on the floor
b. 4 Inches
c. 12 Inches
d. 3.5 Inches

59. Storage on racks of Class I, II, III or IV commodities which exceed 40 feet in height
and storage on racks of high-hazard commodities which exceed 30 feet in height

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a. high-rack combustible storage.

b. rack combustible storage.
c. extra-high-rack combustible storage
d. any of these

60. Those with a total chemical heat of combustion that is less than or equal to 8,600 British
thermal units per pound (Btu/lb) (20 kJ/g).
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4

61. What is the maximum allowable travel distance between fire extinguishers for Class A
fire hazards in a extra high hazard occupancy setting?
a. 35 ft.
b. 50 ft.
c. 75 ft.
d. 100 ft.

62. You have been given architectural plans for a new building being constructed. What is
the occupancy load for single-use. The building will be used as a single-story parking
garage, 100 feet by 75 feet (30.48 m by 22.86 m).
a. 37 Persons
b. 80 Persons
c. 103 Persons
d. None of the above

63. ______________ notification signaling appliances are the most common types of
alarm-signaling systems used for signaling a fire alarm in a structure.
a. Audible
b. Visual
c. Bells
d. Strobe

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64. ___________ fires involve oils and greases normally found in commercial
kitchens and food preparation facilities using deep fryers.
a. Class A
b. Class F
c. Class K
d. Class M

65. The time period that the penetration firestop system, including the penetrating item,
limits the maximum temperature rise to 325°F (163°C) above its initial temperature
through the penetration on the nonfire side when tested in accordance with ASTM E
814 or UL 1479.
a. A Rating
b. C Rating
c. F Rating
d. T Rating

66. A secondary power supply must be provided for a fire detection and alarm system, so
that the system will be operational even if the main power supply fails. The secondary
system must be able to make the fire detection and alarm system fully operational
within __________ seconds of the main power supply’s failure.
a. 10
b. 30
c. 60
d. 120

67. The opening around a penetrating item in a fire resistance-rated construction.

a. Dead Space
b. Annualar Space
c. Fire Blocking Space
d. Seal Housing

68. What is the occupant load of a building that was formerly a warehouse and has recently
been turned into a nightclub? The area of this facility measures 100 feet by 150 feet.

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As a nightclub, it will contain unconcentrated tables and chairs around a large dance
floor.
a. 100 Persons
b. 500 Persons
c. 1000 Persons
d. 2000 Persons

69. The use of a solid or liquid hazardous material involving a closed vessel or system that
remains closed during normal operations where vapors emitted by the product are not
liberated outside of the vessel or system and the product is not exposed to the
atmosphere during normal operations; and all uses of compressed gases.
a. Open System
b. Encapsulated System
c. Concealed System
d. Closed System

70. Aerosol product rooms and general-purpose warehouses containing aerosol products
must be provided with an approved _____________ fire alarm system where required
by the NFPA
a. Manual
b. Automatic
c. Remoted Controlled
d. Fume Activated

71. Which of the following in not listed as a requirement for approved fire safety plans as
outlined in the International Fire Code? Floor plan identifying the locations of the
following is not required?
a. Primary Evacuation Route
b. Accessible Egress route
c. Exit Signs
d. Fire Alarm Annuciator and Controls

72. A gas that is capable of reacting with other materials only under abnormal conditions
such as high temperatures, pressures and similar extrinsic physical forces. Within the
context of the code, inert gases do not exhibit either physical or health hazard properties

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as defined (other than acting as a simple asphyxiant) or hazard properties other than
those of a compressed gas. Some of the more common inert gases include argon,
helium, krypton, neon, nitrogen and xenon
a. Flammable Gas
b. Inert Gas
c. Ignition Gas
d. None of these

73. The primary difference between a central station system and a proprietary system is
that the receiving point for alarms in a central station system is located
__________________the protected premises and is monitored by a contracted service.
a. Outside
b. Within
c. In a central location of
d. In the same central panel as other devices such as security system

74. In which section of the NFPA codes would you find the Standards for Explosion
Prevention Systems?
a. NFPA 61
b. NFPA 69
c. NFPA 85
d. NFPA 655

75. When a fire-alarm system initiates a trouble signal, indicating an electrical failure in a
circuit or component, the trouble-signal indicator must have a source of power different
from the primary power source. This alternate source of power may be the secondary
power supply. Additionally, it may be from a totally independent power supply as long
as it does not involve the use of
a. A back up Generator
b. A back up Battery
c. A Car Battery
d. Dry Cell Batteries

76. The face of an exit sign illuminated from an external source shall have an intensity of
not less than ___________________

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a. 1 Foot Candle
b. 3 Foot Candle
c. 5 Foot Candle
d. 8 Foot Candle

77. A continuous and unobstructed way of egress travel from any accessibly point in a
building or facility to a public way.
a. Exit path
b. Restricted Area
c. Accessible Means of Egress
d. None of these

78. In assemblies used for structural fire resistance and fireresistance- rated construction,
where a fire wall also separates occupancies that are required to be separated by a fire
barrier wall, the ______________________ requirements of each separation applies.
a. most restrictive
b. least restrictive
c. most cost effective
d. most fire resistive

79. Which sprinkler system has air in the piping, water flow control, fire detection devices
and closed sprinklers
a. Wet
b. Dry pipe
c. Preaction
d. Deluge

80. You should recommaned which type of container for storing flammable liquid ?
a. Plastic bucket with air tight lid
b. Oil sumps
c. Approved Container
d. Glass Carboyes

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81. When transfering flammable or Combustible liquids from the containers what
precautions must be taken to prevent spark due to static electricity
a. Wet the floor with water
b. Insulate the container
c. Provide bonding wire between the containers
d. Use only non mettalic tranfer Hose

82. Priciple most closely describe how water extinguishes fire ?

a. Removal of fuel
b. Reduction of Temprature
c. Exclusion of Oxygen
d. Interupption of chemical chain reactions

83. A pitot Tube and Guage are used for

a. Measure Gallonage
b. Measure pressure loss
c. Take Residuel Pressure Reading
d. Take A flow Reading

84. Standard governing the classification and marking of hazardous materials in fixed
facilities are published in NFPA Standard
a. 101
b. 704
c. 1001
d. 1021

85. The purpose of School Fire Exit Drills is to :

a. Increased speed in evacuating all children
b. Instill discplined and order
c. Ensure that all exits are being used and are not locked
d. Ensure orderly exit of all personnel under controlled supervision.

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86. For Safety Reasons, total flooding system must be provided with ________ as well as
discharge alarms
a. Tamper Switches
b. Predischarging alarms
c. Manual pull station
d. A PRV

87. A rating assigned to a material based on the speed and extent to which flame travels
over its surface is called a ______ rating.
a. Burning Ember
b. Fire Resistive
c. Flashover
d. Flame spread

88. Which of the following is the part of rate fire door ?

a. Lintel
b. Sash
c. Latching Hardware
d. Exit Signage

89. When panic hardware is required, occupants should be able to open the door by
applying a force not more than ______ pounds
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

90. The maximum allowable size for approved safety cans for flammable or combustible
liquids is ______ gallons
a. 2.5
b. 2
c. 1
d. 5

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91. Which of the following contributes to interior finishes spread ?

a. Interior finishes
b. Entry of the compartment fire into the decay
c. Compartmentalization of the interior spaces
d. Oxygen Consumption

92. NFPA Describe locations where loding, boarding and personnel care are provided for
______ who are unrelaed to owner or operator are residential board and care
occupancies.
a. Less than four
b. Non ambulatory
c. Four or more
d. Ambulatory

93. Which of the following sprinkler system components is considered a main water
control valve ?
a. OS & Y Gate valve
b. Check valve
c. Alarm Check Valve
d. Globe Valve

94. Which of the following is a typical application for a clean agent fire.
a. Furniture building shop
b. Dip tank operations
c. Documents Storage
d. Drop Forge operations

95. The components of means of egress include :

a. Exit light
b. Exit
c. Exit Discharge
d. Both B and C are correct.

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96. During the first phase of the fire, the oxygen concentration within the room contain
approx. ________ percent oxygen.
a. 10
b. 16
c. 21
d. 79

97. Which group listed below contain the most commonly encountered combustible metals
?
a. Magnisium, sodium and potassium
b. Sulfur, sodium and steel
c. Magnisium, sodium and sulphur
d. Sulfur, steel and Magnisium

98. Pyrophoric Material can ignite when they come in contact with :
a. Air
b. Water
c. Sodium
d. Acid
99. Oily rags or clothes that have been contaminated with vegetable oils and disposed of
improperly may ignite :
a. Through spontanous ignition
b. Through thermal reactions
c. From Combustible Vapors
d. Through Chemical Reactions.

100. Performance based code are difficult to enforce because :

a. Performance of each inspector may be different
b. They are dependant upon supporting technical information of engineers and
architects
c. If data are entered inconsitently, performance will be inconsistence
d. The code may change may change frequently, based on its performance.

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