ACING

ND
2 SEMSESTER
GST
With

IGBINOBA
ETINOSA
GABRIEL
SECuring your GENeral goals
08148203203
#UNIBEN SUG’23
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 1
 A short message from IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL.

Dearest 100L scholar,

I know you have been putting in a lot of work to ensuring you ace your
100L examinations. This material is here to also assist that process.
The material is composed of easy to navigate 100L GST likely questions
and precisely for YOU to pass this examination in flying colours.
Personally, my dream is seeing YOU pass and not just that, seeing YOU
pass in flying colours and effortlessly.
So, chin up and go ACE this.

-YOUR FRIEND,
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL.

IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 2
 GENERAL STUDIES (GST) QUESTIONS
WITH

IGBINOBA GABRIEL ETINOSA

GABRIEL– GETTING TO KNOW HIM…
GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) is a 400-Level University of Benin
student from the department of medicine and surgery with over four
years of experience in servant leadership, capacity building, and effective
representation.
As Robert Greenleaf said: "To lead is to serve".
Having served in several capacities, here are some areas he has and is
currently executing active leadership;
Pre-Tertiary/High School Leadership:
✓ Senior Prefect and Commissioner for Sciences, Brano High School
Benin City (2015)
✓ State Advisor to the President and Local School Chapter President,
Junior Engineering Technician Scientist Organization of Nigeria
(JETSON) (2015)
Church Leadership:
✓ Secretary General, Music Department, New Glory Baptist Church
(NGBC), Sapele Road. (2017)
✓ Lead Person, Drama Crew and Media Department, NGBC (2017 to
2019)
✓ Secretary General, Nigerian Baptist Youth Fellowship, Local Church
Chapter (2019)

IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 3
 ✓ Chapter President, Royal Ambassadors of Nigeria (RAN) (2020-
2021)
University of Benin Medical Students Association (UBEMSA):
✓ Member of Parliamentary Body, UBEMSA Congress (2018/2019)
✓ Director of Public Relations, UBEMSA (2020/2021)
Nigerian Medical Students Association (NiMSA):
✓ National Publicity Officer, Standing Committee on Capacity
Building, NiMSA SCOCB (2021)
✓ National Publicity Board Member, Nigerian Medical Students
Association (2022-Present)
Student Union Government, University of Benin;
✓ Administrator Council of Student Bodies PROs University of Benin.
(2021/2022)
✓ Lead Graphic Designer SUG Committee on Publicity (2023)
✓ Lead Graphic Designer, SUG Presidential Committee of the League
of BRANIACS (2023)
Junior Chamber International, UNIBEN Collegiate Chapter:
✓ Member (2018/2019 till present)
✓ Head of Ike Odogwu Family, JCI UNIBEN (2021/2022)
National Union of Benin Students (NUBS), UNIBEN:
✓ Iyama(NUBS Chief) of the Faculty of Medicine (2023)
‘IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL YOU THE VERY BEST AS YOU PREPARE FOR
YOUR GST PAPERS.’

IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 4
 GST121

IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 5
CHAPTER 1: CONFLICT ISSUES AND
THE BASIC ASSUMPTIONS: THE
NIGERIAN EXPEREINCE
1. Which of the following exemplifies
conflict?
A. Fight B. Battle C. Contend D. All of the
above
2. Miscommunication and stereotypes is a
form of:
A. Data conflict B. Structural conflict C.
Relationship conflict D. Interest conflict
3. Conflict resolution can also be expressed
as:
A. Civil law rule B. Alternative dispute
resolution C. Conflict escalation D. Violent
resistance
4. The expression “Alternative dispute
resolution” comprises ALL except one of
the following
A. Arbitration B. Mediation C. Conciliation
D. Use of Charms
5. One of the benefits of conflict is
A. It is a vehicle of change B. The
oppressor benefits C. The oppressed is
taught a lesson D. NOTA
6. According to the Marxist theory of
conflict
A. There is a class struggle between
freeman and slave B. Class struggle
between father and son C. Class struggle
between man and job D. Class struggle
between man and God
7. Which amongst the following is not a
component of the definition of conflict?
Disagreement B. Parties involved C.
Interests D. Peace
8. One of the following is not part of the
categories of conflict
Relationship conflict B. Data conflict C.
Interest conflict D. Personal conflict
9. Threat may be ______ or ______
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
A. Perceived or actual B. Tangible or
intangible C. Correct or wrong D. All of the
above
10. The act of conflict involves the
A. Protagonist and antagonist B. Protagonist
and antagonist C. protagonist and
Antagonist D. All of the above
CHAPTER 2: SOME ETHICAL
DIMENSIONS OF CONFLICT
RESOLUTION
1. Conflict could be seen as a disagreement
where the parties involved perceive__to
their needs, interests or concerns?
A. Abuse B. Deprivation C. Threat D.
Fulfillment
2. A mode of exploitation where an
exploiter goes through someone else to
exploit another is known as __
exploitation? A. Mediated B.
Modified C. Exemplified D. Direct
3. John Stuart Mill’s dimension of the
theory of utilitarianism was __
oriented? A. Materially B.
Intellectually C. Greatest happiness D.
Least happiness
4. The ethical theory that was founded in
the goodwill principle was developed
was developed by _______? A. Jeremy
Bentham B. David Ross C. John Rawls
D. Immanuel Kant
5. In a conflict situation, a basic need or
want that people may have that does not
appear on the surface to be related to the
problem is described as ______? A.
Agenda setting B. Hidden interest C.
Rule setting D. Mediation
CHAPTER 3: DEVELOPING A
CULTURE OF PEACE
1. Women should be involved in peace-
building because
pg. 6
A. Women are children’s primary or A. Equality B. Monitor C.
frontline educators B. Women are barely Representative D. Negotiator
life givers C. Woken recognize the ills of the 6. How many forms of Ombudsman office
society than men D. Men are redundancy so we have?
2. Peace entails the following except A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5
A. The absence of war B. Justice and 7. A non-violent approach to conflict
equality C. Respect and tolerance D. Police resolution whose goal is to reach an
brutality agreement between two or more parities in a
3. The term culture of peace was initiated by dispute through a decision-making between
_____ the parties, is known as
A. UNESCO B. ECOWAS C. A. Concerned approach B. Power
UNICEFM D. WHO approach C. Negotiation approach D.
4. It is important to enlighten citizens to Persuasive approach
shun violence and embrace a _____ 8. An independent high level public official
A. Peace B. Tolerance C. Culture of peace responsible to the parliament and appointed
D. Universality by the constitution to monitor administrative
activities of government is known as _____
CHAPTER 4: THE PLACE OF PEACE A. Classical Ombudsman B. Monitor
IN NATIONAL UNITY AND Ombudsman C. Neo-Classical ombudsman
DEVELOPMENT D. Executive Ombudsman
1. ______ technique of conflict resolution 9. The active participation in the negotiating
employs shuttle diplomacy in mediating process of the third party itself is known as
peace between conflict parties A. Meditation B. Settlement C.
A. Conciliation B. Arbitration C. Persuasion D. Inquiry
Adjunction D. Mediation 10. Conciliation encompasses elements of
2. The expression “Alternative Dispute both mediation and ____
Resolution” comprises ALL except one of A. Reconciliation B. Arbitration C.
the following Inquiry D. Settlement
A. Arbitration B. Mediation C.
Conciliation D. Use of Charms
3. According to _____, the term conflict can CHAPTER 5: THE ROLE OF
be defined as the manifestation of hostile CITIZENSHIP DEVELOPMENT AND
attitude in the face of conflicting interest EDUCATION IN NATIONAL PLACE
over resources, identity, power, status or AND UNITY
values 1. The history of citizenship is divided into
A. Ikejiani 2009 B. Onu 2009 C. eras viz
Williams 2009 D. Terry 2012 A. Before the French Revolution B.
4. Which of these ombuds term is gender After the French Revolution C. Both A and
inclusive? _____ B D. Only one era
A. Ombudsperson B. Ombudsoffice C. 2. There are how many eras of citizenship
Ombudsman D. All of the above ______
5. Ombudsman from its place of origin A. 2 B. 6 C. 7 D. 3
means 3. Infant dependency and maternal
sharpening characterizes ______
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 7
A. Biological Citizenship B. Family
Citizenship C. Stratified social citizenship
D. Formative citizenship
4. Citizenship education means teaching
people their rights and obligations to their
country because ______
A. It’s the education for peaceful
coexistence B. It is a product of critical
social relationships among individuals and
groups
5. Citizenship in Greece was ______
A. Universal B. Participatory C.
Dictatorship D. None of the above
6. A well-integrated family would have the
following effects on the child’s citizenship
development
A. Makes the child to lose focus as to
his/her role in society B. Makes the child to
be in his own world only C. Makes him
have the spirit of cooperation and
accommodation D. Reject
societal/environmental regulations always
CHAPTER 6: CONFLICT
MANAGEMENT AND PEACE
BUILDING
1. All but one are examples of conflict
management model ______
A. Hegemonic control B. Federalization
C. Power sharing D. Centralization
2. At the pre-conflict stage, efforts are made
by _____ to resolve the dispute
A. Peace maker B. Third party C.
Interested party D. A and B
3. All the following ensure peaceful
resolution of dispute except
A. Oath taking B. Intervention C. Elders
forum mechanism D. Ostracism
4. Which of the following is not a stage in
conflict management?
A. Pre-conflict B. Conflict C. Bio-
conflict D. Post conflict stage
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
5. The deployment of security agents to
restore peace, law, and order in troubled
zones as an approach to conflict
management is called
A. Intervention approach B.
Arbitration approach C. Mediation
approach D. Negotiation approach
6. From the perspective of conflict studies,
the crisis between Ife and Modakeke can be
regarded as _____ conflict
A. Intra-state B. State C. Inter-state D.
International
7. A conflict term which seeks to change the
negative energy of violence and destruction
associated with conflict into a positive
energy for peace and development is known
as conflict
A. Resolution B. Management C.
Transformation D. Prevention
8. Inter-state conflict is also known as ____
conflict
A. Domestic B. Across local government
C. International D. A and B
9. The Boko Haram issue in Nigeria is more
of a ______
A. Political conflict B. Religious conflict
C. Economic conflict D. Cultural conflict
10. One of the following is not an element in
the peace-building programme ____
A. Disarmament B. Reconstruction C.
Re-integration D. Demobilization
CHAPTER 7: PEER MEDIATION AND
PEACE CLUBS: EMPOWERING
YOUTHS WITH PEACE BUILDING
SKILLS.
1. Which of these is not a feature of
mediation?
A. Control over proceedings B. Speed C.
Flexibility D. Convenience
2. A voluntary assemblage of
students/youths who are sufficiently
concerned about the prospect of peace in the
pg. 8
community and who are thus motivated not A. NegotiateB. Mediate C. Intervene D.
only to acquire as much conflict resolution Prevent
skills as possible, but are prepared to expand 10. For peer mediation process to progress
in every way the building of peace culture is smoothly, disputants must be willing to stay
known as calm and control their
A. Youth meetings B. Youth clubs C. A. EmotionsB. Interest C. Anger D.
Students union D. Peace clubs Opinion
3. Peer mediation promotes a positive school
environment such that students are equipped CHAPTER 8: ALTERNATIVE
with a peaceful ______ DISPUTE RESOLUTION
A. Society B. Way to Resolve Conflict 1. The method of settling disputes which
C. Environment D. Relationship combine the element of both
4. Peer mediation reduces the time diplomatic and judicial procedures is
administrators and ______ expend dealing A. Conciliation B. Customary ADR C.
with disciplinary problems Alternative dispute resolution D.
A. Executives B. CounselorsC. Arbitration
Authorities D. Government 2. Where there exist differences of opinion
5. A situation in which disputants are not on factual matters in a dispute, which
communicating efficiently and resolution require the ascertainment of the precise facts
seems impossible thereby leading to meeting in contention. One of the following is best
each disputant individually, can be described suited
as A. Resort to force B. InquiryC. Court
A. Private meeting B. CaucausingC. action D. Use of the police
Bias D. Confidential 3. The expression “Alternative Dispute
6. An individual engaged in an argument of Resolution” comprises ALL except one of
conflict is known as the following
A. Quarrel B. Fighter C. DisputantD. A. Arbitration B. Meditation C.
Escalate Conciliation D. Use of charms
7. In a conflict situation, a basic need or 4. Which of the following is not a feature of
want that people may have that does not mediation?
appear on the surface to be related to the A. Control over proceedings B. Speed C.
problem is described as Flexibility D. Convenience
A. Agenda Setting B. Hidden InterestC. 5. The Hague conference was called in what
Rule setting D. Mediation year?
8. To intervene between two or more A. 1869 B. 1960 C. 1989 D. 1899
disputing parties in order to bring about an 6. The conference that made provision for
agreement is known as inquiry as an alternative to the use of
A. Intervention B. Resolution C. arbitration is known as
Prevention D. Mediation A. Berlin conference B. Concert of
9. To discuss with one another or others in Europe C. Hague conferenceD. League of
order to come to terms or reach an Emperors
agreement means to ______ 7. Alternative dispute resolution is made up
of non-judicial and ______ methods
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 9
A. Political B. JudicialC. Cultural D.
General
8. All the means of dispute resolution are
operative only upon the consent of the
A. Mediator B. Judge C. Court D.
Particular parties
9. A disagreement over a point of law or
fact, a conflict of legal views or of interests
between two persons, is known as
A. Disagreement B. Disputant C.
DisputeD. Third party
10. Some alternative dispute resolution
programmed are voluntary while others are
Involuntary B. MandatoryC. Skeptical D.
Uncalled for
CHAPTER 9: GENDER
MAINSTREAMING IN PEACE
BUILDING PROCESS.
1. Women should be involved in peace-
building because
A. Women are children’s primary or
frontline educatorsB. Women are barely
life givers C. Women recognize the ills of
the society than men D. Men are redundancy
2. In spite of women being targeted in
conflict, men _______
A. Get detained B. Some get missing C.
Some get constricted D. All of the above
3. Resolution 1325 of United Nation
Security Council _____
A. Acknowledges the specific gender
impact of armed conflicts on women and
young girls B. Alludes the role women
and young girls can play in peace-
buildingC. A and B above D. None of
the above
4. The important tool for international
organizations and peacekeeping troops
accruing to Tony Blair, is found in United
Nations Resolution
A. 1325B. 234 C. 1745 D. 5307
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
5. The importance of women in peace
process was recognized in the United
Nations Security council’s resolution in
________
1403 B. 1325C. 1426 D. 1503
CHAPTER 10: GENDER IN
PEACEKEEPING AND PEACE
BUILDING
1. Gender concerns became increased
focus at National and International
debates since the ______
A. 1960s B. 1970sC. 1980s D. 1950s
CHAPTER 11: THE ROLE OF
INTERNATIONAL ORGANISATION
IN CONFLICT RESOLUTION
1. The public category of international
organizations is known as ______
A. Public corporations B.
Intercontinental organizations C. Inter-
governmental organizationsD.
International non-governmental
organizations
2. During the civil war in Guinea Bissau,
these two countries battled for geopolitical
pre-eminence in the tiny African country
A. America and France B. China and
Russia C. Britain and France D. France and
Portugal
3. During the civil war, Guinea Bissau
became a stage on which anachronistic
European ______ diplomacy was played
out
A. GunboatB. Global C. National D.
Superpower
4. In relation of the war in Cote d’ Ivoire, an
extra-ordinary ECOWAS summit was held
on 18th December, 2002 in _______
A. Banjul B. Pretoria C. Abuja D. Dakar
5. In respect of the war in Cote d’ Ivoire, a
high level summit was held in _______ on
16 December, 2002
A. Nigeria B. South Africa C. TogoD.
Ghana
pg. 10
6. The Abuja peace meeting in relation to 7. The Abuja peace meeting in relation to
Guinea Bissau Civil war is also referred to Guinea Bissau civil war took place on
as ________ November 2, ______
A. Abuja Agreement B. Abuja Accord A. 1999 B. 1993 C. 1995 D. 1998
C. Abuja Role D. Abuja Achievement

GST122
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 11
CHAPTER ONE: NIGERIAN HISTORY
IN PRECOLONIAL TIMES -
SOUTHERN NIGERIA
1. In Benin traditional society, the carpenters
and the ivory carvers and wood were
traditionally referred to as _______ and
_______ . respectively (A) Iweka and Evbo
(B) Igbesamwan and Ovbiogbe (C) Owina
and Ewebo (D) Igbesamwan and Owina
2. The racist view of Africa propagated by
the early _____ who visited the continents.
(A) Arabs (B) Americans (C) Europeans
(D) Asians
3. Literary sources of Nigeria history can be
divided into _____ categories. (A) Two (B)
Four (C) Five (D) Three
4. ______ art as it is known involves terra
cotta and brass moulding in bronze etc. (A)
Igbo (B) Ife (C) Benin (D) AOTA
5. Trans Atlantic slave trade dominate costal
Nigerians relations for close to _____
centuries. (A) Four (B) Two (C) Five (D)
Three
6. According to Walter Rodney (1992) in his
book "How Europe Underdeveloped
Africa", Africa first had contact with
Europeans in _____ (A) Twenty first
century (B) Fourteenth century (C)
Fifteenth century (D) Nineteenth century
7. Among the literary sources of Nigerian
history, which literary work helped us to get
insight into the history of early people of
West Africa from the eight century to
fifteenth century? (A) Arab schools (B)
African written (C) European (D) Malian
schools
8. _____ is a historical science and method
whereby the past is reconstructed through
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
analysis and interpretation of excavated
natural objects. (A) Anthropology (B)
Ethnology (C) Geography (D) Archaeology
9. History has it that “Hausa Kola” was first
produced in (A) Yoruba land (B) Hausa
land (C) Ibo land (D) Urhobo land
10. Which of the following cultures first had
contact with Europeans? (A) Ife (B) Benin
(C) Hausa/Fulani (D) Igbo-Ukwu
CHAPTER 2: NIGERIAN HISTORY IN
PRE-COLONIAL TIMES - NORTHERN
NIGERIA
1. The introduction of _____ became an
essential factor in the consolidation and
expansion of Kanem Borno and the Hausa
states (A) Aku (B) Mosques (C) Islam (D)
Jihad
2. Archaeological evidence suggests that
parts of Nigeria have been settled by man
and the Paleolithic period of _____ (A)
500,000-9,000BC (B) 100,000-500,000BC
(C) 1,000-100,000BC (D) NOTA
3. The ____ are probably the only ethnic
group in Africa without a distinct territory of
their own. (A) Mumuye (B) Hausa (C)
Fulani (D) Kanuri
4. Which of the following is not among
some of the important Kanem Bornu kings?
(A) Mai Dunama Dubbalem (B) Mai Hume
Jilimi (C) Mai Ali Gaji (D)Mai Gamu
Malin
5. The Hausa/Fulani culture fall under the
_____ (A) Sudan savanna (B) Guinea
savanna (C) Sahel savanna (D) Justice and
peace
6. Fulani scholar, Usman Dan Foido
declared Jihad was in the year (A) 1804 (B)
1809 (C) 1575 (D)1928
7. Which one of the following was
established by the Fulani Jihadist in 1804?
pg. 12
(A) Sakata caliphate (B) Kanem Bornu (C)
Hausa states (D) Borgu kingdom
8. The Bayajida legends tell us about the
foundation of _____? (A) Hausa states (B)
Benin Kingdom (C) Oyo empire (D) Kanem
Bornu empire
9. One of the notable impacts of Islam to
nation building during the 17th century was
_____? (A) Islam introduced the art of
writing and recording (B) Islam promoted
western Education (C) Islam ended slave
trade D. NOTA
10. The movement of the Hausa people to
their present location coincided with the (A)
Industrial revolution (B) Paleolithic period
(C) Grazing period (D)Neolithic revolution
CHAPTER 3: THE DYNAMICS OF
THE EVOLUTION OF NIGERIA AS A
POLITICAL UNIT
1. The partitioning and scramble for Africa
conference took place in the Berlin
conference of _____ (A) 1888/1889 (B)
1884/1885 (C) 1881/1882 (D) 1880/1881
2. Amalgamation of Northern and Southern
Nigeria by Lord Lugard took place in _____
(A) 1939 (B) 1914 (C) 1963 (D) 1947
3. British objective in Nigeria before
independence was the pursuit of economic
goals in the form of (A) developing the
country technologically (B) Improving
manufacturing of computers (C) Improving
industrialization (D) getting cheap raw
materials
4. In what year was the protectorate of
Southern Nigeria divided into two as the
Western region and Eastern region? (A)
1939 (B) 1914 (C) 1906 (D) 1969
5. ______ was the first premier of the
Western Region. (A) Samuel Ladoke
Akintola (B) Obafemi Awolowo (C)
Nnamdi Azikiwe (D) Olusegun Obasanjo
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
6. The entity called Nigeria became a
Republic in what year? (A) 1906 (B) 1914
(C) 1963 (D) 1960
7. The following were factors that led to the
Nigerian civil war except (A) Strong ethnic
sentiment (B) Corruption (C) Neo-
colonialism (D) Mistrust among the major
ethnic groups
8. When was the colony of Lagos merged
with the Protectorate of Southern Nigeria to
be known as the colony and protectorate of
Southern Nigeria? (A) 1960 (B) 1939 (C)
1914 (D) 1906
9. Who effected the amalgamation of the
Southern and Northern protectorates? (A)
Mary Slessor (B) Fredrick Lugard (C)
James Vaughan (D) Hatch Ken
10. The idea for the amalgamation of the
Southern and Northern protectorates was
first recommended by a British special
committee in August (A) 1898 (B) 1913 (C)
1899 (D) 1899
CHAPTER 4: HISTORY OF WESTERN
EDUCATION IN NIGERIA
1. Which is the type of education which the
individuals receive from parents, family
members, community, and local
environment? (A) Non formal (B) Formal
(C) Informal (D) AOTA
2. It is an organized educational activity
outside the framework of the classroom
designed to provide the selected type of
learning. (A) Informal (B) Non-formal (C)
NOTA (D) AOTA
3. The success of early missionary education
in Nigeria can be attributed to the pioneering
efforts of _____ (A) Beid Macaulay (B) Dr.
Baikie (C) Dr. James Africans Horton (D)
Rev. S.A. Crowther
4. One of the impediments to Nigerian
education is ______ (A) Foreign language
(B) Culture (C) Indiscipline (D) AOTA
pg. 13
5. One of the following is not a form of
education that is acquired outside the formal
school system. (A) B.Sc degree in
economics (B) Family planning (C)
Community development (D) Vocational
training
6. The following personalities were
instrumental to the introduction of Western
Education in Nigeria except _____ (A) Rev.
Samuel Ajayi Crowther (B) Rev. Townsend
(C) Mrs. De Graft (D) Bishop Desmond
Tutu
7. The Colony of Lagos was excised from
the Gold Cost in what year? (A) 1959 (B)
1887 (C) 1890 (D) 1953
8. The first government secondary school in
Nigeria was established in what year? (A)
1921 (B) 1909 (C) 1919 (D) 1920
9. The first government secondary school in
Nigeria was located in which Nigeria city?
(A) Lagos (B) Ibadan (C) Calabar (D) Benin
10. The church first established seminary in
an island off the coast of Nigeria known as
_____ (A) Sao Thome (B) Guinea (C)
Guinea Bissau (D) Cape Verde
CHAPTER 5: MAJOR CULTURE
AREAS OF NIGERIA
1. The ______ are probably the only ethnic
group in Africa without a distinct territory of
their own. (A) Mumuye (B) Hausa (C)
Fulani (D) Kanuri
2. Some authorities put the number of
cultural groupings and systems in Nigeria as
_____ (A) 374 (B) 400 (C) 359 (D) 297
3. Sociologists and anthropologists have
proposed well over ____ definitions of
culture (A) 250 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 100
4. How many categories of Fulani do we
have? (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 4
5. In the period of legitimate trade, the Niger
Delta were known in the production of ____
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
product. (A) Palm oil (B) Slave (C) Gold
(D) AOTA
6. The cultures of the Niger Delta region
belong to the ethnic groups described as
______ (A) The Minorities (B) The Ethnic
groups (C) The majority (D) The Niger
Delta Region
7. All the following were products of
legitimate trade in pre-colonial Nigeria
except ____ (A) Palm oil (B) Kernel (C)
Indigo (D) Slave
8. Which of the following are not in the
forest region of Nigeria? (A) Benin (B)
Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Kanuri
9. _____ is not one of the basic
characteristics of culture. (A) Culture is
shared (B) Culture is learned (C) Culture is
not dynamic (D) Culture is integrated
10. The name „‟mammy water” means (A)
Mother of waters (B) Mother of all rivers
(C) Bride of the seas (D) Owner of all
water
CHAPTER 6: NATIONAL ECONOMY:
BALANCE OF TRADE AND
ECONOMIC SELF-RELIANCE
1. At the attainment of independence in
Nigeria, agriculture accounted for ______ of
the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). (A) 30
percent (B) 40 percent (C) 50 percent (D)
60 percent
2. In Nigeria, out of the total labor force in
the 1960s _____ absorbed 75 percent. (A)
Industry (B) Agriculture (C) Mining and
querying (D) Wholesale and retail
3. _____ introduced the Green revolution
into Nigeria with the target of making the
nation selfsufficient in staple foods by 1985.
(A) General Olusegun Obasanjo (B) Major
General Yakubu Gowon (C) Alhaji Shehu
Shagari (D) NOTA
4. A major conditionality for the Structural
Adjustment Programmes in Nigeria during
pg. 14
the General Ibrahim Babangida
administration was the ______ (A)
Indigenous production of goods (B)
Devaluation of the naira (C)
Discouragement of privatization and
deregulation (D) Discouragement of foreign
investment
5. Which of these is not an impediment to
foreign trade? (A) Exchange control (B)
Quantitative restriction (C) Export tariff (D)
Specialization
6. A systematic record of all economic
transaction between the residents of the
reporting country and the residents of
foreign countries during a given period of
time is referred to as _______ (A) Balance
of the economy (B) Balance of trade (C)
Balance of payment (D) Balance sheet
7. The difference between the value of
merchandise or visible exports is known as
_____ (A) Balance of trade (B) Import
Distribution (C) Equitable Distribution (D)
Export promotion
8. A nation's determination to rely on the
utilization of domestic resources to produce
most of its required goods and services, is
referred to as (A) Balance of payment (B)
Balance of Trade (C) Self-Reliance (D)
Foreign trad
CHAPTER 7: EDUCATION AND
NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT IN
NIGERIA: A HISTORICAL
PERSPECTIVE
1. Development is: (A) The progressive
achievement from a lower to a higher form
(B) The progressive advancement from a
simpler to a more complex form (C) An
evolution (D) All of the above
2. A good education should be free from
moral indoctrination but rich in moral _____
(A) Training (B) Morality (C) Doctrine (D)
Insight
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
3. The Shehu Shagari administration
introduced the education policy programme
tagged 6-3-3-4 system in what year? (A)
1981 (B) 1982 (C) 1985 (D) 1987
CHAPTER 8: SOCIAL JUSTICE,
INDIVIDUAL AND NATIONAL
DEVELOPMENT
1. Social justice is ______ (A) Human
Development (B) Human right (C) All of
the above (D) None of the above
2. Plato postulated that apart from wisdom,
courage, and temperance, one of the virtues
that makes a good individual is ______ (A)
Faith (B) Endurance (C) Justice (D) Self
reliance
CHAPTER 9: MORAL AND
POLITICAL RIGHTS OF CITIZENS
1. The commonest mode of acquiring the
citizenship of a state besides by birth, is
through naturalization. This is normally one
of ____ ways. (A)Two (B) Three (C) Four
(D) Five
2. Which of these is a condition for
acquiring citizenship status? (A) Birth (B)
Residency (C) All of the above (D) None of
the above
3. How many years would an individual at
least live in America before he can become a
citizen? (A) 25 (B) 5 (C) 12 (D) 20
4. The generality of privileges and rights
bestowed on members of a nation is called
___ (A) Human right (B) Citizenship (C)
Fundamental freedom (D) Right of franchise
5. ______ is referred to one or those who
were born into or classified within the
penumbra of the ruling class of the Athenian
state, the Aristocratic class, philosopher
kings and the guardians. (A) Citizen (B)
Population (C) Warrior (D) Privilege
6. A citizen possesses rights so as to
contribute to the _____ and not to act
unsocially or unworthily. (A) World (B)
Society (C) Social end (D) Values
pg. 15

CHAPTER 10: RELIGION IN
NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT
1. Religion is defined as “the way” by ___
(A) Christians (B) Muslims (C) Japanese
(D) Buddhist
2. Cow is sacred to the ______ (A) Buddhist
(B) Hindu (C) Shinto (D) AOTA
3. African Traditional religion centers on
____ areas. (A) Four (B) Two (C) Three
(D) Five
4. ______ emphasizes beliefs and creeds
which others do not. (A) Islam (B)
Christianity (C) Confucians (D) AOTA
5. One significant impact of Christian
missions in Nigeria was ____ (A)
Establishment of churches (B)
Establishment of schools (C) Abolition of
slave treads (D) AOTA
6. One of the notable impacts of Islam to
Nation building during the 17th century was
____ (A) Islam introduced the art of
writing and recording (B) Islam promoted
western Education (C) Islam ended slave
trade (D) NOTA
7. The religion which is described as “the
noble eight-fold path”, is known as ____ (A)
Hare Krishna (B) Atheism (C) Islam (D)
Buddhism
8. Among the Basa people, supreme God is
referred to as _____ (A) Shuki (B) Bakashili
(C) Owo (D) Agwatana
9. Among the people of Gwari, supreme
God is referred to as ____ (A) Sheko (B)
Basa (C) Kagoro (D) Ndemili
10. Among the people of Jukun, supreme
God is known as ____ (A) Tamini (B)
Bakashili (C) Shido (D) Adavu
CHAPTER 11: ENVIRONMENTAL
SANITATION AND NATIONAL
DEVELOPMENT
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
1. Environmental pollution includes ___ (A)
Air (B) Water (C) Noise (D) All of the
above
2. Heavy metals, halogenated hydrocarbon
(DDT) and uranium are described as ______
(A) Man made chemical wastes (B)
Conservative (C) Particular wastes (D) All
of the above
3. The effect of climate change is the
perpetuation of hunger and poverty in (A)
Africa (B) Scandinavian (C) Australia (D)
Middle East
4. Ozone exists in the greatest concentration
in the _______ (A) Atmosphere (B)
Environment (C) Stratosphere (D) Society
5. The ozone is how many kilometers above
the earth surface? (A) 10-15km (B) 15-
40km (C) 41- 53km (D) 5-10km
6. Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) is used for all
the following except one (A) Refrigerators
(B) Foaming agents (C) Aerosols (D)
Manure
7. Ozone serves as a _____ which protects
the earth from the dangerous ultraviolet
radiation (A) Flashlight (B) Shield (C) Flash
of Pan (D) Cover
8. As a form of motivation, the federal
government promise and award of ______ to
the second cleanest state capital (A)
N600,000 (B) N500,000 (C) N400,000 (D)
N1 million
9. As a form of motivation, the federal
government promises and awards the sum of
_____ to the third cleanest state capital (A)
N400,000 (B) N200,000 (C) N300,000 (D)
N500,000
10. The use of constituted task force and
local government area sanitation authority is
ineffective because offenders are arranged
only on _____ days (A) Working (B) Week
(C) Court sitting (D) Sanitation
pg. 16
GST123

IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 17
Chapter 1: Introduction To The Science
of Biology
1. To simplify complex situation, a
Scientist will need a ______
A. Point object B. Rats C. Scientific law
D. Model
2. If experiments bear out the hypothesis, it
may be regarded as a ______
A. Hypothesis B. Model C. Theory or
law of nature D. None of the above
3. All organisms consist of small ______
typically too small to be seen by the naked
eye, but big enough for an optical (light)
microscope
A. Tissues B. Organs C. Cells D.
Organelles
4. There are ______ one celled and ______
many celled organisms
A. Unicellular and multicellular B.
Acellular and non cellular C. Bicellular and
dicellular D. None of the above
5. There are estimated about ______ cells in
a human body
A. 6 x 10^13 B. 6 x 10^2 C. 6 x 10^3 D.
6 x 10^12
6. A human red blood cell is about ______
in diameter
A. 5mm B. 0.5mm C. 0.05mm D.
0.005mm
7. Some cells are short lived, for example
the human red blood cell lives for ______
A. 2 days B. 12 days C. 120 days D. 150
days
8. The nucleus of a cell _____
A. Is surrounded by a single layer of
membrane B. Is contained within the
nucleolous C. Is the region of the cell where
ribosomes are degraded D. Contains DNA
9. Structure called the power house of the
cell is ______
A. Golgi bodies B. Nucleus C.
Mitochondria D. Chloroplast
10. The term cell was proposed by ______
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
Robert Hooke B. Robert Brown C. W.
Fleming D. A. V. Leeuwenhoek
Chapter 2: The Origin and Diversity of
Life
1. Which of the following is a kingdom
within the domain Eukarya?
A. Virus B. Monera C. Fungi D.
Archaea
2. What feature is common to prokaryotes,
fungi, and plants?
A. A nucleus B. Single cell C. At one
time membership in the kingdom monera D.
Cell walls
3. Which of the following organisms first
gave earth its oxygen containing
atmosphere?
A. Cyanobacteria B. Methanogens C.
Early protozoans D. Plants
4. Which of the following was probably not
present in the primitive earth’s atmosphere?
A. CH4 B. O2 C. NH3 D. H2O
5. In a prokaryotic cell, the ____ site of
protein synthesis
A. Ribosomes B. Cell wall is C. Pilli are
D. Nucleoid region
6. Heterotrophic eukaryotes that digest their
food externally and absorb the small
molecules are referred to as _______
A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Protozoans D.
Plants
7. Life is organized in a hierarchical fashion.
Which one of the following sequences
illustrates that hierarchy as it increases in
complexity?
A. Ecosystem, population, organ system,
cell, community, molecule, organ, organism,
tissue population, organ system, cell,
community, molecule, organ, organism,
tissue
B. Molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ
system, organism, population community,
ecosystem
pg. 18
C. Cell, molecule, organ system, organ, A. Mono hybrid cross B. Dihybrid cross
population, tissue, organism, ecosystem, C. Reciprocal cross D. Back cross
community 5. A carrier of a genetic disorder who does
D. Organism, organ system, tissue, not show symptoms is most likely to be
population, organ, community, cell, _____ to transmit it to offspring
ecosystem, molecule A. Heterozygous for the trait and able
8. Groups of similar individuals who tend to B. Heterozygous for the trait and unable C.
mate with each other in a limited Homozygous for the trait and able D.
geographical area is known as Homozygous for the trait and unable
A. Species B. System C. Organ D. 6. Which of the following genetic notation is
Community used to represent Klinefelter’s syndrome?
9. Which of the following is not a division A. XYY B. XXY C. XXX D. YO E. XO
of the Ecosphere? 7. Humans have ______ pairs of
A. Telosphere B. Atmosphere C. chromosomes
Lithosphere D. Hydrosphere A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 24 E. 25
10. Another name for the Cyanobacteria is 8. The first 22 pairs of human chromosomes
_______ are referred to as
Blue-green algae B. Red-green algae C. A. Autosomes B. Chromosomes C. Sex
Yellow-red algae D. Blue-green yeast E. chromosomes D. Polysomes E.
Red-green yeast Dictyosomes
9. Which of the following is not a type of
Chapter 3: Theory of Heredity and sex determination?
Evolution A. XX-XO B. XX-XY C. YY-YO D.
1. What is testcross ______ XY-XX E. ZW-ZZ
A. A mating between an individual of
unknown genotype and an individual
homozygous recessive for the trait of Chapter 4: Man and Microbes
interest B. A mating between an individual 1. One of the following is an example of
of unknown genotype and individual bacterial disease ______
heterozygous for the trait of interest C. A A. Rabies B. LASSA FEVER C.
mating between an individual of unknown Cholera D. Malaria
genotype and an individual homozygous 2. Petroleum is mainly a mixture of
dominant for the trait of interest D. A A. Carbon B. Hydrocarbon C.
mating between two individuals Hydrogen D. None of the options provided
heterozygous for the trait of interest 3. Traditionally, living organisms were
2. Which of the following syndrome gives divided into two groups, but modern science
rise to a tall aggressive male? has included a third group known as ______
A. XYY B. XXY C. XXX D. YYY A. Animalia B. Plantae C. Monera D.
3. The phenotypic ratio resulting from a Protista E. Fungi
dihybrid cross showing independent 4. Microorganisms include the following
assortment is expected to be ______ A. except __
1:2:1 B. 3:1 C. 9:1:1:3 D. 9:3:3:1 A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Protozoa D.
4. A cross involving only one pair of Slime molds E. None of the above
contrasting characteristics is called _____
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 19
5. ______ is usually being referred to as sub A. The breaking and formation of
cellular in structure bonds B. Loss of electron C. The increase of
A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Protozoa D. atomic number D. Dissolution of substances
Slime molds E. None of the above in water
6. Viruses are ________ parasites 5. The name given to the table showing
A. Facultative B. Obligate C. Semi systematic arrangements of elements found
facultative D. Semi obligate E. None of the in nature is called _____
above A. Chemical table B. Periodic table C.
7. _______ is regarded as the smallest Physical table D. Mathematical table
cellular organism 6. Which of the following is not a compound
A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Protozoa D. _____
Slime molds E. None of the above A. HCl B. H2SO4 C. SiO2 D. Zn
8. Viruses can only replicate with the aid of 7. Which of the following separating
______ techniques is suitable for the separation of
A. Nutrient agar B. Dead host C. Living blood cells from plasma
host D. Vector host E. Only plant host A. Filtration B. Centrifugation C.
9. Another name for the Cyanobacteria is Chromatography D. Distillation
________ 8. The branch of chemistry that deals with
A. Blue-green algae B. Red-green algae the abstract, theoretical and mathematical
C. Yellow-red algae D. Blue-green yeast E. study of nature is _____
Red-green yeast A. Inorganic B. Organic C. Physical D.
10. Which of the following does not form a None of the above
structure of the bacterial cell? 9. A substance that cannot be split into
A. Basal body B. Fimbriae C. Cell wall simpler substances by any known chemical
D. Flagellum E. None of the above process is a/an
A. Element B. Compound C. Mixture D.
Atom
Chapter 5: Chemistry and you 10. The process of conversion of liquid to its
1. The branch of chemistry that studies the gaseous form is called
conditions for reactions to take place is Boiling B. Vaporization C. Viscosity D.
_______ Sublimation
A. Inorganic chemistry B. Organic
chemistry C. Physical chemistry D. Chapter 6: Chemistry and the
Environmental chemistry environment
2. Chemistry may be sub-divided into the 1. Which of the following is an
following _____ anthropogenic source of
A. Inorganic B. Organic C. Physical D. environmental pollution?
All of the above A. Automobile exhaust B. Domestic
3. What is the composition of an atom waste C. Agricultural waste D. All of the
______ above
A. Proton B. Neutron C. Electron D. All 2. Which of the following is not VOC?
of the above A. Methane B. Benzene C. Xylene D.
4. What exactly is chemical reaction? Ammonia

IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23 pg. 20
3. Which of the following is a natural source
of environmental pollution?
Automobile exhaust B. Industrial waste C.
Volcanic eruption D. Agricultural waste
Chapter 7: Chemistry and the Industry
1.When vegetable oil are converted to soap
by a base, the process is referred to as ?
A.Hydrogenation B. Esterification C.
Saponification D. Basicity
Chapter 8: Carbon Compounds In Food,
Petroleum And Medicine
1. Which of the following macromolecular
substances is a polymer of amino acid?
A. Carbohydrate B. Esters C. Proteins
D. Fats and Oil
2. Hydrocarbons are compounds consisting
of mainly
A. Carbon and halogen B. Hydrogens
and chlorine C. Carbon and hydrogen D.
Gas
3. Carbohydrates are made up of
A. Protein B. Fats C. Lipids D. Carbon,
Hydrogen, and Oxygen
4. _______ is the reaction of long chain
ester and alkaline solution
A. Esterification B. Saponification C.
Fermentation D. Hydrolysis
5. LPG is an acronym for ______
Looped Petroleum Gas B. Local Petroleum
Gas C. Liquefied Petroleum gas D. None
of the above
Chapter 9: HISTORY AND
PHILOSOPHY OF PHYSICS
1. Which of the following is not true about
the heliocentric universe?
A. The sun is the center of the universe
B. The earth is the center of the universe
C. The sun is bigger than the earth D. The
earth and other planets move round the sun
in a circle
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
2. The laws of planetary motion are credited
to
A. Tycho Brahe B. Nicolaus Copernicus
C. Isaac Newton D. Johannes Kepler
3. ______ was a pointer to the fact that we
are not living in a geocentric but a
heliocentric universe
A. Laws of planetary motion B.
Newton’s law of gravitation C. Newton’s
equations of motion D. Laws of
weightlessness
4. Whose scientific work, shifted the world
view from Greek “self evident” axiom that
emphasized deduction, to induction through
experiments observation theorem?
A. Johannes Kepler B. Isaac Newton C.
Galilei Galileo D. Tycho Brahe
5. Theory of relativity is credited to ______
A. Johannes Kepler B. Isaac Newton C.
Albert Einstein D. Tycho Brahe
6. In the nineteenth century, the
philosophers attributed to the principle of
causation to
A. Follow philosophers B. Deities C.
Isaac Newton D. God E. None of the above
7. All of the following are the branches in
physics except ____
A. Acoustics B. Mechanics C. History D.
Genetics
8. The history of science as a whole began
______
A. 50,000 years ago B. 5,000 years ago
C. 500 years ago D. 2,600BC
9. The first natural philosopher, who was
also credited with predicting the eclipses of
the sun in 585 BC is ______
A. Socrates B. Aristotle C. Thales D.
Pythagoras
10. The notion of envisaging the universe as
a machine governed by the inflexible laws
by the ancient Greeks is referred to as
______
pg. 21
A. Existentialism B. Rational
Materialism C. Realism D. Atheism
Chapter 10: Nature of Physics
1. What is the unit of force?
A. Joules B. Watt C. Newton D. Meter
2. A vector of magnitude one (1) that
indicates direction is?
A. Position vector B. Unit Vector C.
Resultant vector D. Null vector
3. What is the rate of change of velocity
with time called?
A. Speed B. Acceleration C. Force D.
Displacement
4. The quantitative measure of the amount of
inertia in a body is called?
A. Velocity B. Weight C. Energy D.
Mass
5. The tendency of a body to maintain a state
or resist a change is _______
A. Energy B. Inertia C. Weight D.
Mass
6. According to Newton’s first law of
motion, which of the statements below is
correct about the passengers in a passenger
van when it comes to a sudden stop from a
very high speed?
A. The passengers will shout Eya driver
B. They will continue in motion unless
they are belt up C. Many of them will just
faint D. They will demand for their transport
fare
7. The unit of energy is ______?
A. Watt B. Joule C. Newton D. Ohms
8. The unit of power is ______
A. Joules B. Ohm C. Watt D. Pressure
9. Which of the following is the correct
expression for the energy of an object?
A. Force/distance B. Force x distance C.
Distance/Force D. Distance/time
10. Which of the following is NOT true
about unit vectors?
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
A. They have a magnitude of 1 B. They
have the same effect as two or more vectors
put together C. They are direction
indicators D. The three unit vectors
representing the Cartesian coordinate system
are mutually perpendicular
Chapter 11: Basic Concept of Energy
1. Which of the following is not a type
of radiation?
A. Alpha rays B. Beta rays C. Electric
current D. X-ray
2. To cause a change in the state of a body,
we need ______
A. Force B. Dynamic C. Energy D.
Power
3. _____ is said to be done when the
application of a force causes a body to
change its position
A. Velocity B. Power C. Work D.
Movement
4. Whenever work is done, ______ is used
up
A. Momentum B. Energy C. Money D.
Muscle
5. Which of the following is not a type of
energy?
A. Light B. Heat C. Wave D. Sound
6. Which of the following statements below
is/are not correct about heat energy?
A. Its unit is the Joules B. It flows from
region of higher temperature to region of
lower temperature C. It flows from region
of lower temperature to region of higher
temperature D. It is a thermal energy
transferred via atomic collision
Chapter 12: Everyday Physics
1. The part of the human eye that is
sensitive to light is called?
A. Retina B. Lens C. Iris D. Ball
2. The path taken by light is called?
A. Beam B. Optics C. Ray D. Lens
pg. 22
3. All organisms require ______ for their
metabolic reactions
A. Food B. Protein C. Enzymes D.
Energy
CHAPTER 14: CIVIL ENGINEERING
1. Waste management technique that
involves the removal of suspended solid
particles from liquid waste by gravitational
settling is known as? (A) ion exchange (B)
oxidation and reduction (C) sedimentation
(D) screening
2. A block moulder who fabricates 6inches
block for a residential building is likely to
join these blocks together using? (A)
mortar (B) pestle (C) plaster (D) blender
(E) All of the above
3. Granite is a common structural road
element which forms its? (A) surfacing (B)
Stone base (C) sub base (D) grade (E) All
of the above
4. Civil engineering has to do with? (A)
Transformers (B) Cars (C) Canals (D) All
of the above
5. The structural elements of a bridge
include all of following except? (A) slab (B)
beam (C) foundation (D) curtain
6. Which of these is not a branch a land
surveying? (A) Geodetic (B) Topographic
(C) Cadastral (D) None of the above
7. A civil engineering structure fulfill all of
these except? (A) load resistance (B)
deformation within limit (C) safety (D)
archeology
8. The natural soil upon which a road is
constructed is known as _? (A) subgrade
(B) sub-base (C) Base course (D) surfacing
CHAPTER 15: STRUCTURAL
ENGINEERING
1. Which of the following is not a type of
beam section? (A) I section (B) hollow
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
section (C) hollow rectangular section (D)
solid rectangular section (E) None of the
above
2. Which of these is not a structural element
of a building? (A) roof (B) beam (C) column
(D) slab (E) None of the above
3. Which of these types of loads is dynamic
in nature? (A) live loads (B) dead loads (C)
real loads (D) imposed loads (E) ultimate
loads
4. A change in the original size and shape of
a structure caused by application of load or
moment or some change in temperature is
called? (A) disastrous change (B) ultimate
change (C) real change (D) recoverable
change (E) deformation
5. For stability, structures must? (A) remain
in shape (B) resist loads (C) aesthetically be
sound (D) None of the above (E) all of the
above
6. Structural engineering materials include
all but one of the following? (A) steel (B)
timber (C) concrete (D) clay (E) None of the
above
7. An artifact is defined in structural
engineering as any object that is? (A) of
archeological importance (B) of good
artistic impression (C) of imposing
architectural stature (D) for man's use and
for his convenience (E) None of the above
8. Structural engineering curriculum was
designed? (A) to encourage specialisation
(B) due to other engineering disciplines
being uninteresting (C) to increase number
of structures in Nigeria (D) because of its
superiority to other engineering disciplines
(E) all of the above
9. One of these is not a study area for the
intending structural engineer? (A) organic
chemistry (B) theory of structures (C)
design of structures (D) strength of materials
(E) engineering materials
pg. 23
10. If the main column of a commercial
crushes under the weight of its service loads
this failure does not meet one of the
following design criteria? (A) suitability (B)
serviceabilty (C) aesthetics (D) economy (E)
safety
CHAPTER 16: ELECTRICAL AND
ELECTRONIC ENGINEERING
1. What type of electrical machine is
required to convert electrical energy from a
lower level to a higher level is called? (A)
step up transformer (B) step down
transformer (C) motor (D) generator (E) all
of the above
2. Which of these these devices can convert
the potential energy of tides to into electric
energy? (A) condenser (B) pump (C)
compressor (D) turbines
3. How many hydroelectric power stations
are there in Nigeria? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
4. All the following are examples of power-
generating machines except? (A) internal
combustion engines (B) turbines (C)
Generators (D) refrigerators
5. Generator converts _ energy? (A)
mechanical to electrical (B) electrical to
mechanical (C) electromechanical to
electromechanical (D) All of the above
6. Electronics engineering deals with? (A)
high voltage and high current (B) low
voltage and low current (C) high voltage
and low current (D) low voltage and high
current
7. The fundamental principle of generation
of electrical energy is based on? (A) eddy's
law of electromagnetic induction (B) Lenz
law of electromagnetic induction (C)
Coulomb's law of electromagnetic induction
(D) Faraday law of electromagnetic
induction
8. Silver is not normally used as a conductor
because _? (A) it is not a good conductor
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
(B) it is too light (C) it is expensive (D)
None of the above
9. Hydropower and thermal power will are
types of energy power generation? (A) false
(B) true
10. The Simplest system of distribution
consist of two conductors live and _? (A)
central (B) branch (C) earth (D) neutral
CHAPTER 17: INTRODUCTION TO
COMPUTER ENGINEERING
1. The pascal 1642 mechanical computers
(machines) has which capacity? (A)
addition and substraction (B) addition,
substraction, multiplication and division (C)
polynomial evaluation by method of finite
difference (D) general purpose (E) None of
the above
2. The Leibniz 1671 mechanical computers
(machines) had which capacity? (A)
addition and substraction (B) addition,
substraction, multiplication and division
(C) polynomial evaluation by method of
finite difference (D) general purpose (E) All
of the above
3. The baggage: difference machine 1827
mechanical computers (machine) had which
capacity? (A) addition and subtraction (B)
addition, subtraction, multiplication and
division (C) polynomial evaluation by
method of finite difference (D) general
purpose (E) None of that above
4. The errors resulting from complex
calculation handled by humans are attributed
to all except? (A) carelessness (B) fatigue
(C) distraction (D) technological
development
5. The function of the brain in the human
computational system includes all except?
(A) to interpret instructions (B) to store
instruction to be executed (C) to carry out
specific data manipulation (D) to ensure the
outline sequence in the paper is followed
pg. 24
6. A computer network is a collection of _
and _? (A) printer and scanners (B) key
board and monitors (C) computers and
Peripheral devices (D) hard disks and
memory
7. A network established between computers
within a building is called? (A) Local area
network (B) wide area network (C) small
area network (D) building area network
8. The baggage: Analytical machine 1834
mechanical computers (machine) had which
capacity? (A) addition and substraction (B)
addition, substraction, multiplication and
division (C) polynomial evaluation by
method of finite difference (D) General
purpose computation (E) all of the above
9. Zuse: Z3 1941 Mechanical computers
(machines) had which capacity? (A)
addition and substraction (B) addition,
substraction, multiplication and division (C)
polynomial evaluation by method of finite
difference (D) General purpose
computation (E) None of the above
10. Aiken: Harvard Mark 1 1944 mechanical
computers (machines) had which capacity?
(A) addition and substraction (B) addition,
substraction, multiplication and division (C)
polynomial evaluation by method of finite
difference (D) General purpose
computation (E) None of the above
CHAPTER 18: MECHANICAL
ENGINEERING
1. A good refrigerant should should have the
following properties except? (A) it should be
chemically inert and stable (B) it should not
be flammable (C) it should not be corrosive
(D) it should not be explosive (E) it should
be toxic
2. Application of refrigeration include the
following except? (A) domestic refrigeration
(B) commercial refrigeration (C) industrial
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
refrigeration (D) air conditioning (E) None
of the above
3. Which of the following is not involved in
the operation of Air conditioning system?
(A) combustion (B) temperature control (C)
humidity control (D) air cleaning (E) air
movement
4. In air conditioning system the transfer of
energy from the air which causes a decrease
in temperature of the air is known as? (A)
heating (B) humidification (C) cooling (D)
dehumidification (E) air circulation
5. An example of fluid machine which add
energy to the fluid as? (A) turbines (B)
internal combustion engines (C) generator
(D) pump (E) None of the above
6. The study that is primary concerned with
the design, manufacture, operation,
maintenance, repair and further development
of machine or machine system is known as?
(A) mechanical engineering (B) metallurgy
(C) mechanics (D) production engineering
7. In the refrigeration systems, heat is
extracted from the cooler the space by the
following component? (A) condenser (B)
generator (C) evaporator (D) compressor
8. Which of the following is a key
component of a refrigeration system? (A)
compressor (B) generator (C) injector (D)
carburetor
9. The working fluid used in the
refrigeration cycle is called? (A) fuel (B) gas
(C) refrigerant (D) petrol
10. A mechanical device which maintains
the temperature of an enclosed area below
that of its initial surroundings is called? (A)
fan (B) pump (C) refrigerator (D)
compressor (E) turbines
CHAPTER 19
1. A good refrigerant should should have the
following properties except? (A) it should be
chemically inert and stable (B) it should not
pg. 25
be flammable (C) it should not be corrosive
(D) it should not be explosive (E) it should
be toxic
2. Application of refrigeration include the
following except? (A) domestic refrigeration
(B) commercial refrigeration (C) industrial
refrigeration (D) air conditioning (E) None
of the above
3. Which of the following is not involved in
the operation of Air conditioning system?
(A) combustion (B) temperature control (C)
humidity control (D) air cleaning (E) air
movement
4. In air conditioning system the transfer of
energy from the air which causes a decrease
in temperature of the air is known as? (A)
heating (B) humidification (C) cooling (D)
dehumidification (E) air circulation
5. An example of fluid machine which add
energy to the fluid as? (A) turbines (B)
internal combustion engines (C) generator
(D) pump (E) None of the above
6. The study that is primary concerned with
the design, manufacture, operation,
maintenance, repair and further development
of machine or machine system is known as?
(A) mechanical engineering (B) metallurgy
(C) mechanics (D) production engineering
7. In the refrigeration systems, heat is
extracted from the cooler the space by the
following component? (A) condenser (B)
generator (C) evaporator (D) compressor
8. Which of the following is a key
component of a refrigeration system? (A)
compressor (B) generator (C) injector (D)
carburetor
9. The working fluid used in the
refrigeration cycle is called? (A) fuel (B) gas
(C) refrigerant (D) petrol
10. A mechanical device which maintains
the temperature of an enclosed area below
that of its initial surroundings is called? (A)
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
fan (B) pump (C) refrigerator (D)
compressor (E) turbines
CHAPTER 20
1. Product layout is suitable for what type of
production method? (A) job production (B)
mass production (D) batch production (C)
robot manufacturing (E) None
2. Either _ production layout can be adopted
by companies that are into batch production?
(A) fixed and functional (B) functional or
product (C) product or group (D) group or
functional (E) None
3. What are the two prominent programmes
that constitute production engineering
department at the University of Benin? (A)
industrial and biomedical engineering (B)
manufacturing is and biomedical and
engineering (C) mechanical and
manufacturing engineering (D) industrial
and manufacturing engineering
4. Non ferrous metals include the following
except? (A) Alloy steel (B) tungsten (C)
molybdenum and their alloys (D) copper
5. Magnetite contains about? (A) 66% iron
(B) 70% iron (C) 80% iron (D) 50% iron
6. How many options of making steel are
available in Nigeria? (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
7. Which of the following is not a
basic manufacturing process? (A) casting
(B) metal forming (C) mechaning (D) none
CHAPTER 21
1. The following are unit operations except?
(A) crystallisation (B) biotechnology (C)
drying (D) distillation (E) extraction
2. The following include ten greatest
achievements of chemical engineering
except? (A) microbial fermentation (B) the
human reactor (C) liquefied air (D) wonder
drugs for the masses (E) the atom
3. The liquefied of the purified nitrogen can
be used to do the following except? (A)
pg. 26
recover petroleum (B) freeze foods (C)
produce semiconductors (D) Prevent
unwanted reactions (E) smelt copper
4. Liquefied oxygen can be used to do the
following except? (A) make steel (B) weld
metals together (C) recover petroleum (D)
smelt copper (E) support the lives of the of
patients in the hospital
5. One of the following engineers was refers
to as an alkali inspector in 1880?(A)Davis
Norton (B) George E. Davis (C) A. D.
Little (D) Mc Adams (E) T. O. K Audu
6. The fourth largest field in engineering is
_? (A) chemical engineering (B) civil
engineering (C) computer engineering (D)
electrical and electronic engineering (E)
mechanical engineering
7. One of the first industries that witnessed a
massive upsurge as a consequence of
industrial revolution is the _? (A) chemical
industry (B) process industry (C) textile
industry (D) manufacturing industry (E)
brewery industry
8. The list of ten greatest Achievements of
chemical engineering was compiled by? (A)
Nigerian society of chemical engineers (B)
World Congress of chemical engineers (C)
The American institute of chemical
engineers (D) The world Congress of
achievement analysis (E) None
9. The first industries that witnessed a
massive upsurge as a consequence of the
industrial revolution is? (A) music industry
(B) chemical industry (C) petroleum
industry (D) textile industry
10. The following include ten greatest
achievement of chemical engineering
except? (A) The human reactor (B)
microbial fermentation (C) liquefied air
(D) wonder of drugs for the masses
CHAPTER 22
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
1. In what form of energy is the solar
radiation reaching the earth's ocean stored
as? (A) chemical (B) electrical (C) Thermal
(D) mechanical
2. The mass attractive force between which
of the following results in tidal energy? (A)
moon and sun (B) moon and wave (C) sun
and wave (D) moon and ocean
3. The water waves of interest for
conversion of wave energy are created by
the action of what forces on the water
surface? (A) wave forces (B) wind forces
(C) gravitational forces (D) ocean forces
4. One of the oldest widely used sources of
energy is? (A) biomass (B) wind (C) coal
(D) solar
5. How many hydroelectric power stations
are in Nigeria? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D)5
6. Natural gas is characterized by 88%
methane? (A) true (B) false (C) indifferent
(D) All of the above (E) None of the above
7. Renewable energy resources are those
which will _ themselves naturally in a
relatively short time?(A)replenish (B)
increase (C) destroy (D) deplate
8. The following are renewable energy
resources except? (A) coal (B) solar (C)
geothermal (D) biomass
9. Which of the following does not belong to
the family of renewable energy? (A) solar
energy (B) wind energy (C) wave energy
(D) coal energy
10. Which of the following processes cannot
utilise solar energy? (A) heliothermal (B)
heliomechanical (C) heliochemical (D)
helioelectrical
CHAPTER 23
1. The only way to confirm the presence of
petroleum in a reservoir is to _? (A) Embark
on seismic (B) drill (C) core (D) log (E)
None
pg. 27
2. Which part of a drilling string helps in
boring a hole in a substance rocks? (A) pit
(B) Kelly (C) bit (D) Kelly (E) drilling
pipes and casting
3. BS&W is an impurity found in crude oil.
What is the full meaning? (A) base salt and
water (B) basic solid and water (C) basal
sedimentary and water (D) basal sediments
water (E) basic sediments and water
4. Petroleum is defined as a/an _? (A)
compound (B) atom (C) element (D) All of
the above (E) None of the above
5. An example(s) of crude oil produce(s)
is/are? (A) AGO (B) DPK (C) PMS (D) All
(E) None
6. _are length of pipes cemented in place
used to stabilize a well before production of
crude oil can be activated? (A) borehole (B)
rig (C) drill collars (D) bits (E) casting
7. Natural gas is characterized by 88%
methane? (A) true (B) false (C) indifferent
(D) All (E) None
8. The least fluid that can be found in a
reservoir is? (A) gas (B) water (C) oil (D)
All (E) None
9. Where and when was the first commercial
well drilled in Nigeria? (A) Bayelsa, 1955
(B) Oloibiri, 1956 (C) Ondo, 1955 (D)
Rivers, 1956 (E) None
10. Which property of a rock defines its
storage capacity? (A) porosity (B)
permeable (C) porous (D) permeability
CHAPTER 24
1. The processing of materials for reuse as a
different product is known as? (A)
reclamation (B) Energy recovery (C)
sanitary land fill (D) None
2. Which of the following is not true about
proper waste management strategies? (A)
THIS PROJECTS WAS SUPPORTED BY OLAYE FORTUNE (SOUTHSIDEGOD) [08163721142] AND DC
MARVEL [09025385413], THE AUTHORS OF “THE 100L DISTINCTION SERIES” MATERIALS.
IGBINOBA ETINOSA GABRIEL (UNIBEN SEPTIAN) IS SECuring yout GENeral goals – 08148203203 – SUG’23
creating public awareness on the
environmental and health problems caused
by indiscriminate waste disposal (B)
establishment of community waste
collection programs (C) increase level of
recycling and waste reduction (D) None
3. The use of sunlight to degrade organic
material waste is known as? (A)
biodegradation (B) photosynthesis (C)
pyrolysis (D) photodegradation
4. The type of biodegradation that involves
the provision of enabling environment for
the growth and multiplication of
microorganisms found in organic wastes in
known as? (A) bioaugmentation (B)
biostimulation (C) biocatalysis (D) None
5. The process whereby waste substances
are combusted in oxygen-free atmosphere is
known as? (A) pyrolysis (B) incineration
(C) thermography (D) None
6. Waste are? (A) valuable materials (B)
recyclable materials (C) viable materials (D)
value defective materials
7. Waste can exist in the following states of
matter which are? (A) Solid, liquid, gas (B)
liquid, gas, ice (C) domestic, commercial,
industrial (D) biodegradable, non-
biodegradable
8. Agricultural solid waste is about _ percent
of the total solid waste generated in urban
states? (A) 58% (B) 43% (C) 45% (D) 63%
9. Animal waste and agricultural vegetation
account for _ respectively? (A) 58% & 15%
(B) 43% & 32% (C) 43% & 15% (D) 58%
& 32
10. Solid waste can be converted to natural
gas by? (A) aerobic digestion process (B)
industrial process (C) Anaerobic digestion
process (D) catalytic oxidation process
pg. 28