Mechanical General Exam by BV

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Mechanical General
BV I&F Korea Hanjun Kim
Version 00 – Feburary 2010
1. Why does weldable stainless steel (i.e. 316L) contain less carbon than standard
grade stainless steels?
Answer) To prevent intergranular corrosion by carbide chromium.
316L has lower carbon allowed. It will be less susceptible to sensitization, a
condition caused when carbon combines with chromium around the grain
boundaries, thereby depleting the grain boundary areas of chromium. That
would make the grain boundary areas less corrosion resistant. Sensitization
occurs with heating into 800℉ to 1300℉ region, so it’s a welding or annealing
problem.
The 316L will also be softer than straight 316, again due to the lower carbon.

2. Name two test methods that determine material toughness?


Answer) Impact test (Charpy V-Notch & Izod test) & Drop-weight test

3. What is NACE MR0175?


Answer) Standard Material Requirements for Sulfide Stress Cracking
Resistant Metallic Materials for Oilfield Equipment

4. According to NACE MR0175 what is the normal maximum hardness of carbon and
low ally steels exposed to sour service?
Answer) HRC 22

5. In addition to hardness testing, what is the other main requirement in NACE


MR0175?
Answer) Chemical composition and heat treatment including PWHT.

6. What additional mechanical test is done a material for low temperature service?
Answer) Impact Test

7. Can Hardness test results be used as guide line for determining tensile strength?
Answer) Yes

8. What is a WPS?
Answer) A WPS(Welding Procedure Specification) is a written qualified
welding procedure prepared to provide direction for making production welds
to Code requirement. The completed WPS shall describe all of the essential,
nonessential and when required supplementary essential variables for each
welding process used in the WPS.

9. Define procurement.
Answer) Procurement is the acquisition of goods and/or services at the best
possible total cost of ownership, in the right quality and quantity, at the right
time, in the right place and from the right source for the direct benefit or use of

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corporations, individuals, or even governments, generally via a contract, or it
can be the same way selection for human resource.

10. What international standard gives the requirement for quality assurance system?
Answer) ISO 9001

11. What is a “PQR”?


Answer) PQR(Procedure Qualification Record) is a record of the welding data
used to weld a test coupon. The completed PQR shall document all essential
variables and when required supplementary essential variables for each
welding process used during the welding of the test coupon.

12. What is a “WPQ”?


Welder/Welding Performance Qualification
Answer) Record of Tests. The record of Welder/Welding Operator Performance
Qualification(WPQ) tests shall include the essential variables, the type of test
and test results, and the ranges qualified in accordance with QW-452 for each
welder and welding operator.

13. What American national standard gives pipe welding procedure and welder qualificati
on requirements?
Answer) ASME Sec. IX

14. Why is “preheat” so critical in welding alloy steels?


Answer) To prevent underbead crack

15. What is the purpose of post weld heat treatment?


Answer)
For stress relief after welding
For de-hydrogen treatment
For decrease hardness value

16. What is the minimum required tensile value of an E7018 Electrode?


Answer) 70 ksi

17. What extra precaution must be taken with low hydrogen electrodes?
Answer) Electrodes shall be dried at 300 ~ 350℃.
Low hydrogen electrode coverings shall be limited to a maximum moisture
content not exceeding 0.4% by weight. These electrodes shall not be used at
relative humidity-temperature combinations that exceed either the relative
humidity or moisture content in the air that prevailed during the testing
program.

18. Name at least 6 attributes/items that you would expect to be contained in a steel

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material test report?
Answer) Mechanical property, Heat No., Chemical composition, Manufacturer,
Material specification, Purchase order No.

19. What is a mil? ( 1 mil?)


Answer) 1/1000 in. / coated film thickness checking unit.

20. Describe the acronym and welding process for : SMAW


Answer) Shield Metal Arc Welding / An arc welding process with an arc
between a covered electrode and the weld pool. The process is used with
shielding from the decomposition of the electrode covering, without the
application of pressure, and with filler metal from the electrode.

21. Describe the acronym and welding process for SAW


Answer) Submerged Arc Welding / An arc welding process that uses an arc or
arcs between a bare metal electrode or electrodes and the weld pool. The arc
and molten metal are shielded by a blanket of granular flux on the workpieces.
The process is used without pressure and with filler metal from the electrode
and sometimes from a supplemental source (welding rod, flux, or metal
granules).

22. Describe the acronym and welding process for GMAW


Answer) Gas Metal Arc Welding / An arc welding process that uses an arc
between a continuous filler metal electrode and the weld pool. The process is
used with shielding from an externally supplied gas and without the
application of pressure.

23. A welder qualified in the 5G position may weld in what positions according to ASME I
X?
Answer) Flat position (1G), Vertical position (3G), Overhead position (4G)

24. What type of SS filler material is commonly used to join 304 SS to carbon steel or as
the first layer when overlaying CS with SS
Answer) E 309 type

25. What is carbon equivalent and what is it importance in welding?


Answer) The equivalent carbon content concept is used on ferrous materials,
typically steel and cast iron, to determine various properties of the alloy when
more than just carbon is used as an alloyant, which is typical. The idea is to
convert the percentage of alloying elements other than carbon to the
equivalent carbon percentage, because the iron-carbon phases are better
understood than other iron-alloy phases.
In welding, equivalent carbon content (CE) is used to understand how the
different alloying elements affect hardness of the steel being welded. This is

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then directly related to hydrogen-induced cold cracking, which is the most
common weld defect for steel, thus it is most commonly used to determine
weldability.

26. What is PMI?


Answer) Positive Material Identification (PMI) is performed using a handheld
device; the device scans the pipe or metallic materials using an emitted
electromagnetic wave (x-ray fluorescence/XRF) and receives a reply that is
spectrographically analyzed.

27. TRUE or FALSE: Assuming there are no discontinuities, the weld is stronger than the
base materials being joined.
Answer) True

28. TRUE or FALSE: Circumferential seams are always welded before longitudinal
seams.
Answer) False

29. Why are shielding gases used during welding?


Answer) To protect the weld area from atmospheric gases, such as oxygen,
nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and water vapour.

30. When weld repairs are required, to whom should you make the report?
a) To the welder whose mark is on the weld
b) To another welder, better trained
c) To the welding foreman
d) To the project engineer

Answer) a

31. What professional attributes are most helpful in performing inspection duties?
a) Being informed, impartial and consistent
b) Being close friends with welders and superiors
c) Having past welding experience

Answer) a

32. How can you identify an individual low-hydrogen electrode which a welder is already
consuming to make a weld?
a) Ask the welder what it was
b) Read the classification number printed on the covering near the stub end
c) Ask the welding foreman

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Answer) b

33. What joint fit-up should an inspector insist on?


a) Tolerances specified on drawings or specifications
b) Tight fit of butt joints, to preserve dimensions of the weldment
c) Whatever gap comes up, if not obviously too big for welder to span

Answer) a

34. Which welders are allowed to work on a “code” job?


a) Only those with certification papers from former jobs
b) Only those tested by the fabricator for this particular job
c) Only those qualified in accordance with the job specs

Answer) c

35. What is thermal expansion?


a) The increase in temperature of metal adjacent to the weld
b) The change in shape of metal as it becomes malleable near the liquid state
c) The increase in volume of metal due to increased temperature
d) None of the above

Answer) c

36. How is residual stress relieved?


a) Bend the metal back and forth
b) Drill hoes in nonstructural areas
c) Heat the metal to a designated temperature and quench it with water
d) Heat the metal to a designated temperature and then cooling it uniformly

Answer) d

37. What is shielding?


a) Shielding is thermal protection from the welding process
b) Shielding is protection from radioactivity present during the welding process
c) Shielding is the technique of blanketing the welding area with gases or fluxes
d) None

Answer) c

38. If the root opening is too close, what corrective action should be taken?
a) Apply more heat in the welding process

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b) Increase the opening by jacking apart, cutting, grinding, or grouping before
welding
c) Either a or b
d) None of the above

Answer) d

39. What is the difference between discontinuities and defects?


a) A defect is a rejectable discontinuity
b) Discontinuities are in the base metal and defects are in weld metal
c) No difference
d) A discontinuity is always a rejectable defect

Answer) a

40. Which NDE method can detect incomplete fusion?


a) Magnetic particle
b) Radiography
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

Answer) b

41. Which NDE method is the best for locating laminations?


a) Radiography
b) Ultrasonics
c) Both a and b are equally sensitive to laminations
d) None of the above

Answer) b

42. Which of the following welding process is typically used when access to the back side
of the weld is not possible.
a) GMAW
b) SAW
c) GTAW
d) FCAW

Answer) c

43. List at least four essential variable for SMAW pipe welding.
Answer) Base Metals, Filler Metals, Preheat, PWHT,

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44. List at least three different types of hardness tests.
Answer) Brinell, Rockwell, Vickers

45. When performing tack welding on a material that will later be welded using a qualified
procedure that requires a preheat of 200℉ does the area to be tack welded require
preheat even though the tack weld will be removed later prior to welding?
Answer) Yes, preheat required.

46. To ensure continued accuracy, Inspection devices must be periodically


a) polished
b) corrected
c) calibrated
d) rust-proofed
e) all of the above

Answer) c

47. List two inspection tools or instruments that are typically used to measuring pre-heat?
Answer) Temperature Sensitive Materials (Tempilstik or Thermochrome),
Contact Thermometer, Thermocouple, Optical or Electrical Devices for
Contactless Measurement

48. What does ASME Section V address?


Answer) Non-Destruction Method

49. TRUE or FALSE – Stainless steel is usually are welded with less current than is
required for mild steel.
Answer) TRUE

50. List two types of material where a DC welding machine would be used?
Answer) Ni Alloy Steel & Aluminium

51. Why is there always a straight face of approximately 3mm on a bevel?


Answer) Full penetration.

52. Name four groove weld positions and their purpose.


Answer)
A. Flat position (1G) : Plate in a horizontal plane with the weld metal deposited
from above.
B. Horizontal position (2G) : Plate in a vertical plane with the axis of the weld
horizontal.
C. Vertical position (3G) : Plate in a vertical plane with the axis of the weld
vertical.
D. Overhead position (4G) : Plate in a horizontal plane with the weld metal
deposited from underneath.

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53. What’s code definition of procedure of RT
Answer) ASME Section V

54. What’s definition of welding qualification?


Answer) ASME Section IX

55. What’s record of result for Tensile Test?


Answer) Tensile & Yield Strength, Elongation, Reduction of Area

56. What’s a kind of welding joints?


Answer) Butt joint, Corner joint, T-joint, Lap joint, Edge joint, Slot lap joint

57. What’s kind of test for Welding Procedure Qualification Test?


Answer) Mechanical test (Tension test : 2 pcs & Guided Bend test : 4 pcs)

58. What’s possible to check MT or PT on the open surface of non-ferrous material?


Answer) PT

59. What’s rage of limitation for MT & PT?


Answer)
PT : On the open surface for ferrous & non-ferrous material
MT : On the surface and sub-surface for ferrous material

60. What’s mean of defect echo for UT?


Answer) Depth, Length, Size

61. How is result to remove flushing of Penetrant for PT?


Answer) Not Accept.

62. What’s used the purpose of Penetrameter?


Answer) To check Sensitivity

63. Is it possible to check the defect for RT?


Answer) Blow hole, Slag Inclusion, Lack of Fusion, Incomplete Penetration,
Crack, etc.

64. What’s use of purpose on the screen of RT?


Answer) Intensifying Screen – the material that is placed in direct contact with
radiographic film in order to reduce the exposure time (by emitting electrons
or electromagnetic radiation in the visible light spectrum) and/or improve film
quality (by absorbing longer wavelength scattered radiation.)

65. Is it possible to perform of used 250kv of RT on the 100mm of stainless steel?

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Answer) No.

66. How to treat the surface for UT?


Answer) The examination surfaces shall be free of irregularities, loose foreign
matter, or coatings which interfere with ultrasonic wave transmission.

67. How to prevent arc strike on the material when it is performed DC prod method?
Answer) To Copper Mesh

68. What’s kind of essential variable for SMAW?


Answer) Base metals, Filler metals, Preheat, Condition of PWHT

69. How method of storage for low hydrogen welding rod?


Answer) To keeping the 300~350℃ dry oven.

70. How much range of film density?


Answer) X-Ray : 1.8~4.0 & γ-Ray : 2.0~4.0

71. What’s record of Charpy impact test report?


Answer) Specimen Material, Test Temperature, Size, Energy

72. What does a CVN test say about the material?


Answer) Notch roughness

73. Being a charpy test failed on one specimen, what is required to re-perform the test?
Answer) One retest may be performed. Each individual value of the remaining
three specimens shall equal or exceed the minimum specified average value.
Retest specimens shall be removed from the original test weldment(s). If
specimens cannot be provided from these weldments, a new test weldment
shall be performed and all mechanical tests required by this code shall be
performed.

74. What is Izod testing?


Answer) A notched sample is generally used to determine impact strength. An
arm held at a specific height (constant potential energy) is released. The arm
hits the sample and breaks it. From the energy absorbed by the sample, its
impact strength is determined. The Izod impact test differs from the Charpy
impact test in that the sample is held in a cantilevered beam configuration as
opposed to a three point bending configuration.

75. What should be included in a charpy test?


Answer) Test temperature, Energy value for each test specimen, When
specified – percentage shear fracture mils of lateral expansion

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76. How is shear fracture determined?
Answer)
1. Measure the length and width of the brittle portion of the fracture
surface and determine the percent shear area depending on the units
of measurement.
2. Compare the appearance of the fracture of the specimen with
a fracture appearance chart.
3. Magnify the fracture surface and compare it to a precalibrated
overlay chart or measure the percent shear fracture area by means
of a planimeter.
4. Photograph the fractured surface at a suitable magnification and
measure the percent shear fracture area by means of a planimeter.

77. How is pipe material identified?


Answer) Unified Numbering System (UNS). In this system a letter is followed
by a five-digit number which, taken together, uniquely defines each particular
composition. Many of the conventions adopted in the AISI/SAE system were
incorporated into the UNS numbers.

78. Define what is an essential variable.


Answer) Essential variables are those in which a change, as described in the
specific variables, is considered to affect the mechanical properties of the
weldment, and shall require requalification of the WPS.

79. Which information shall be filled in a WPS?


Answer) P-Number, Filler Metal used, Preheat, PWHT, Thickness, Process,
Welding data.
A complete WPS shall describe in detail all of the variables which are essential,
supplementary essential and non-essential to the welding process employed
in the procedure.

80. What are the way the electrodes are identified?


Answer) Arc welding electrodes are identified using the AWS numbering
system and are made in sizes from 1/16 to 5/16.

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81. What defects can be expected in GMAW (MIG) when the groove is tight?
Answer) Lack of fusion, Slag inclusion

82. Are any cracks allowed in bend testing of Procedure Qualification? – And for Welder
Qualification?
Answer) For acceptance, the surface shall contain no discontinuities
exceeding the following dimensions:
A. 1/8 in. [3mm] measured in any direction on the surface
B. 3/8 in. [10mm]–the sum of the greatest dimensions of all discontinuities
exceeding 1/32 in. [1mm], but less than or equal to 1/8 in. [3mm]
C. 1/4 in. [6 mm] – the maximum corner crack, except when that corner
crack results from visible slag inclusion or other fusion type discontinui
ty, then the 1/8 in. [3 mm] maximum shall apply.

83. When welding chrome alloys, what must be checked to assure proper welding?
Answer) As the carbon increases and as the chromium increases, high
hardenability results and a preheat of as high 400℃ will be required,
particularly for heavy sections.

84. What tests are necessary for PQR?


Answer) Tension test & Bend test

85. It is suggested to use Cobalt 60 to radiograph welded portions of


1/4” C.S. thickness?
Answer) No. (Co-60 : Min. Thickness 50 mm / Max. Thickness 150 mm)

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86. Define film artifacts.
Answer) Spurious indication on a radiograph arising from, but not limited to,
faulty manufacture, storage, handling, exposure, or processing

87. What is IQI?


Answer) Image Quality Indicator / A device whose image in a radiograph is
used to determine RT quality level. It is not intended for use in judging the size
nor for establishing acceptance limits of discontinuities.

88. What is the film density?


Answer) The quantitative measure of film blackening
D = log Io / I
(Where,
D = density,
Io = light intensify incident on the film,
I = light intensify transmitted)

89. Is it 1 MeV γ-ray apparatus suitable for radiograph 60mm thick C.S?
Answer)

90. What is the pulse echo technique?


Answer) An inspection method in which the presence and position of a
reflector are indicated by the echo amplitude and time.

91. What determine the amplitude of signed hight?


Answer)

92. What kind of NDE do you use for checking of lining?


Answer) UT

93. How roughly stabilize the probe distance and related amperage?
Answer)

94. Which type of current is preferable to use for surface indication check during MT?
Answer) Direct or Rectified Current

95. In which position the probes shall be put to clearly detect a weak surface crack?
Answer)

96. Why hard stamping ‘V’ notch is not allowed on high alloy steels?
Answer) Notches cause locally high stresses. A sudden fracture will occur if
the alloy cannot stretch to relieve such high stresses.

97. Which is the main purpose of floating head?

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Answer) Floating Head Heat Exchanger. A floating head is excellent for
applications where the difference in temperature between the hot and cold
fluid causes unacceptable stresses in the axial direction of the shell and tubes.
The floating head can move, i.e. provides the possibility to expand in the axial
direction. Note that the bundle cannot be pulled from the front end. For
maintenance both the front and rear end head, including the backing device,
must be disassembled. If pulling from the front head is required a type AET
should be selected.

98. What the back-seat test is intended for a gate valve?


Answer) The stem backseat shall be engaged and the packing gland bolting
shall be loose during the backseat test.

99. Which material are regarding A-105 and A-106 standards?


Answer)
A 105 : Carbon Steel Forgings for Piping Applications
A 106 : Seamless Carbon Steel Pipe for High-Temperature Service

100. What would the term 2-2J refer to?


Answer)

101. True or False : Qualification in the 6G position qualifies a welder in the all position
for groove?
Answer) True

102. True or False : Shear wave ultrasonic is the best nondestructive examination meth
ods for detecting fine surface cracks in steel forgings?
Answer) False

103. What is the difference between DCRP and DCEP?


Answer) No difference.
DCRP : Direct Current Reverse Polarity (electrode polarity : positive)
DCEP : Direct Current Electrode Positive

DCSP : Direct Current Straight Polarity (electrode polarity : negative)


DCEN : Direct Current Electrode Negative

104. What is autogenous welding?


a) Oxyacetylene welding
b) Sheet metal welding with the short-circuiting mode of SMAW
c) Welding with no added filler metal
d) None of the above

Answer) c

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105. Which way best describe how the presence of hydrogen adversely affects
the welding process?
a) It causes porosity
b) It causes brittleness and cracking
c) It causes lamination
d) All of the above

Answer) d

106. What does the gas which causes porosity come from?
a) Gas used in the welding process
b) Gas released from chemical reactions occurring during the welding process
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

Answer) b

107. What discontinuity would give rise to a series of remelted dots beside a weld, r
esembling a trail left in striking a match?
a) Linear porosity
b) Aligned microporosity
c) An arc strike
d) None of the above

Answer) c

108. When inspection a fillet weld name one reference you should use to judge
whether it is the proper size?
a) The experience of the inspector
b) Dimension specified on the construction drawings
c) Published ASME codes
d) None of the above

Answer) b

109. Define the “3G” welding position.


Answer) Vertical Welding Position : The welding position in which the weld
axis, at the point of welding, is approximately vertical, and the weld face lies in
an approximately vertical plane.

110. In welding terms what is meant by the heat affected zone?

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Answer) The portion of the base metal whose mechanical properties or
microstructure have been altered by the heat of welding, brazing, soldering, or
thermal cutting.

111. How many minutes of arc in one degree?


a) 30
b) 60
c) 90
d) 120
e) 360

Answer) b

112. Where are the toes of a weld?


a) At the foot
b) Where the root meets the base metal
c) Junctions of weld face and base metal
d) Internal junction of welds made from opposite side of a joint

Answer) c

113. Explain the reason for specifying a maximum interpass temperature when welding
austenitic stainless steels?
Answer) To prevent weld decay

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