MT-01

151. During aestivation in frogs, gaseous exchange takes place through

______
1) Anaerobic respiration
2) Stored oxygen
3) Lungs
4) Skin
Ans: Cutaneous respiration
152. What is the shape of the sinus venosus?
1. Spherical
2. Irregular
3. Triangular
4. Cylindrical
Ans : Triangular
153. In frog, the ventricle opens into ______
1. conus arteriosus
2. sinus venosus
3. hepatic portal vein
4. vena cava
Ans: Conus arteriosus/truncus arteriosus
154. Which of these statements is true about frog?
1. It lives both on land and in sea water
2. They cannot survive in freshwater
3. Rana tigrina is a rare species
4. They belong to class Amphibia
Ans: Amphibians
155. Frogs are _______
1. homeothermic
2. endothermic
3. poikilothermic
4. heterothermic
Ans: Poikilothermic/cold blooded
156. How many statements are incorrect about frog?
A. They have smooth and slippery skin due to mucous
B. The colour of dorsal side is generally pale yellow
C.On the ventral side the skin is olive green
D. The frog never drinks water but absorb through the skin
E. Body of frog is divided in to head, neck and trunk
1) 2 2) 1 3) 4 4) 3
Ans : Frogs are olive green dorsally and pale yellow ventrally
157. Where are the copulatory pads in male frog present?
1. Second digit of the hindlimbs
2. First digit of the hindlimbs
3. First digit of the forelimbs
4. Second digit of the forelimbs
Ans : In male frog, base of first digit has large pad to press the
female abdomen
158. Which of these characteristics of frog is the reason for its short alimentary
canal?
1. Carnivorous
2. Sexual dimorphism
3. Amphibian
4. Chordate
Ans: Herbivores need long alimentary canal because digestion of
cellulose takes longer time. Carnivorous animals cannot digest
cellulose, hence they have a shorter intestine.
159. Identify ‘3’ in the pathway of food ingested by frog.

1. Larynx
2. Pharynx
3. Gizzard
4. Crop
Ans: Pharynx is present between buccal cavity and esophagus
160. Which of these statements is true with respect to the anatomy of frog?
1. The oviduct and ureters are merged in female frog
2. The urinary and genital ducts are separate in male frogs
3. The urinary bladder is ventral to the rectum
4. Frogs are uricotelic
Ans : On dorsal side rectum and ventral to it is urinary bladder
161. How many pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain of frog?
1. 12
2. 8
3. 10
4. 6
Ans: 10 pairs in pisces and amphibia while 12 pairs in reptiles, birds
and mammals
162. What lies between the medulla oblongata and spinal cord in frogs?
1. Foramen lacerum
2. Foramen magnum
3. Foramen ovale
4. Foramen of Monro
Ans: Foramen magnum is large opening in occipital bone of skull
through which spinal cord passes into vertebral canal
163. Which of these is a cellular aggregation in frog?
1. Tympanum
2. Eyes
3. Nasal epithelium
4. Internal ears
Ans: eyes and ears are organs while remaining sensory structures
present as cell aggregate
164. Which of these structures attach the testes to the kidneys in male frogs?
1. Tympanum
2. Bidder’s canal
3. Mesorchium
4. Sensory papillae
Ans: Double fold of peritoneum is called mesorchium
165. Which of these is not a function of cloaca in frogs?
1. Passing of faecal matter
2. Passing of sperm or ova
3. Passing of urine
4. None of the mentioned
Ans: Cloaca is common chamber for 3 systems such as digestive,
excretory and reproductive system
166. Which of these statements is true with respect to frog?
1. They are pests for agricultural crop
2. Legs of frogs can be eaten
3. They do not play a part in ecological balance
4. They are herbivores
Ans: In some countries muscular legs of frog used as food by man
167. The following genotypes were observed in a population:
Genotype Numbers -HH 90, Hh 60,hh 50
Which of the following is the correct frequency of H allele and what will be
the expected number of HH in the given population?
1) 0.60 and 72
2) 0.80 and 96
3) 0.50 and 32
 4) 0.30 and 90
Ans: Frequency of H allele = [90 + 60/2] / 200
= [90 + 30] / 200 = 120 / 200 = 0.60
Expected no. of HH = 0.6 x 0.6 = 0.36
In population = 0.36 x 200 = 72
Therefore, Option 1 is the Correct answer.
168. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the genotype frequencies
are:
1. f(A1A1) = 0.59
2. f(A1A2) = 0.16
3. f(A2A2) = 0.25
What are the frequencies of two alleles at this locus?
1) A1 = 0.41 A2 = 0.59
2) A1 = 0.33 A2 = 0.67
3) A1 = 0.67 A2 = 0.33
4) A1 = 0.55 A2 = 0.44
Ans: Frequency of allele A1 = {f(A1A1) + f(A1A2)/2}
= 0.59 + 0.16/2 = 0.59 + 0.08 = 0.67
Frequency of allele A2 = {f(A2A2) + f(A1A2)/2}
= 0.25+ 0.16/2 = 0.25 + 0.08 = 0.33
Therefore, Option 3 is the Correct answer.
169. In a random sample of 400 individuals from population are alleles of trait
in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 36 individuals are homozygous for allele ‘a’. How
many individuals in the sample are expected to carry at least one allele ‘A’?
1) 36
2) 168
3) 364
4) 196
Ans: Carries at least one allele A = AA + Aa
Aa = 36
AA + Aa + aa = 400
AA + Aa = 400 – 36 = 364
AA + Aa = 364
Therefore, Option 3 is the Correct answer.
170. If 98 out of 200 individuals in a population express the RECESSIVE
PHENOTYPE, what percent of the population would be HETEROZYGOUS?
1. 24
2. 0.42
3. 49
4. 42
 Ans : Total = 200
Recessive = 98
Aa = q^2 = 98/200 = 0.49
Q^2 = 0.49
Q = 0.7
P+q=1
P = 0.3
HETEROZYGOTES = Aa = 2pq = 2 x 0.3 x 0.7 = 0.42
In percentage = 0.42 x 100 = 42%
Therefore, Option 4 is the Correct answer.
171. If 51% of population carry ‘’atleast” one copy of recessive allele, find the
frequency of DOMINANT individuals?
1. 0.91
2. 0.7
3. 0.42
4. 0.49
Ans :51% carry at least 1 recessive allele means it can be either Aa or
aa.
So, Aa + aa = 51% = 51/100 = 0.51
2pq + q^2 = 0.51
P^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1
P^2 + 0.51 = 1
P^2 = 1 – 0.51 = 0.49
P = 0.7
Q = 0.3
Frequency of DOMINANT individuals = AA + Aa
= p^2 + 2pq
= (0.7)^2 + 2 x 0.7 x 0.3
= 0.49 + 0.42
= 0.91
Therefore, Option 1 is the Correct answer
172. In a population of 1000 cats, if we have 840 black cats and 160 white
cats.Calculate the frequency of Homozygous dominant individuals if Black is
dominant to white?
1. 0.16
2. 0.48
3. 0.36
4. 0.60
Ans: Black (BB + Bb) = 840
White (bb) = 160
 Bb = q^2 = 160/1000 = 0.16
Q^2 = 0.16
Q = 0.4
P = 0.6
Homozygous dominant = BB = p^2 = (0.6)^2 = 0.36
Therefore, Option 3 is the Correct answer.
173. 19% dominant individuals are there in a population.What is the dominant
and recessive allele frequency?
1. 0.5, 0.5
2. 0.1, 0.9
3. 0.9, 0.1
4. 0.7, 0.3
Ans : AA + Aa = 19% = 19/100 = 0.19
AA + Aa + aa = 1
0.19 + aa = 1
Aa = 0.81
Q^2 = 0.81
Q = 0.9
P = 0.1
Dominant allele = p = 0.1
Recessive allele = q = 0.9
Therefore, Option 2 is the Correct answer.
174. In a population which is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a
recessive allele for a certain genetic trait is 0.40. What % of individuals would be
expected to show the dominant trait in the next generation?
1. 16%
2. 32%
3. 84%
4. 96%
Ans : q= 0.40
P+q = 1
P+0.40=1
P=1-0.40
P=0.60
Dominant trait means Dominant Genotype= AA + Aa
=p^2+2pq = (0.60) ^2 +2×0.60×0.40 = 0.36 + 0.48= 0.84
In percentage=0.84×100=84%
Therefore, Option 3 is the Correct answer.
175. In a population that is in equilibrium, the proportion of individuals showing
the dominant trait at a given locus having two alleles is 84%. The frequency of
the recessive allele in the population is
1. 0.4
2. 0.3
3. 0.2
4. 0.16
Ans: Dominant trait means Dominant Genotype= AA+Aa
AA + Aa = p^2+2pq = 84% = 84/100 = 0.84
P^2+2pq + q^2 = 1
0.84 + q^2 = 1
q^2 = 1 – 0.84 = 0.16
q^2 = 0.16
q = 0.4
Therefore, Option 1 is the Correct answer.
176. The frequency of two alleles in a population is 0.19(B) and 0.81(b). If the
population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what will be the percentage of
heterozygous individuals in the population?
1. 19
2. 81
3. 31
4. 49
Ans: Heterozygotes are represented by the 2pq term.
Heterozygous individuals (Bb)=2pq
=2 × 0.19 ×0.81 = 0.31
In percentage=0.31×100=31%
Therefore, Option 3 is the Correct answer.
177. Animals undergo inactive stage during winters. It is called
1. Acclimatisation
2. Hibernation
3. Aestivation
4. Adaptation
Ans: Hibernation is winter sleep and Aestivation is summer sleep
178. Animals have innate ability to escape from predation. Which is the
incorrect example for this concept?
1. Colour change in Chameleon
2. Enlargement of body by swallowing air in puffer fish
3. Poison fangs of snakes
4. Melaninin moths
 Ans : Poison fangs of snakes are to capture its prey not to escape
from predation. Fangs help in predation
179. Flame cells are the excretory structures for
1. Annelida
2. Coelenterates
3. Platyhelminthes
4. Echinodermata
Ans: Flame cells are also called protonephridia or solenocytes.
These are most primitive excretory structure hence called
protonephridia.
180. Notochord occurs throughout life and all through the length of the body in
1. Cephalochordata
2. Hemichordata
3. Urochordata
4. Vertebrata
Ans: Notochord is persistence in cephalochordata
181. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is
not correct?
1. The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings
2. The enzymes of the electron transport chain are embedded in the outer
membrane
3. The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
4. The outer membrane resembles a sieve that
Ans: ETC and oxysomes are present in inner membrane of
mitochondrial membrane
182. Middle lamella of plant cell is mainly composed of
1. Hemicellulose
2. Muramic acid
3. Calcium pectate
4. Phosphoglycerides
Ans : The middle lamella is a cementing layer of the plant cell wall
that holds together adjacent plant cells. It is usually made of calcium
and magnesium pectates.
183. The nuclear envelope is a derivative of
1. Golgi complex
2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
3. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
4. Microtubules
Ans : Nuclear membrane is found attached to RER which produce
each other
184.

Ans : 1

185. Which of the following respiratory disorders is characterized by chronic

inflammation and narrowing of the airways?
1. Pneumonia
2. Tuberculosis
3. Asthma
4. Emphysema
Ans: Asthma causes wheezing due to difficulty in exhalation because
of narrowing of bronchioles
186. During exhalation, which of the following processes occurs?
1. Diaphragm contracts, increasing lung volume
2. Rib cage expands, lowering air pressure in the lungs
3. Diaphragm relaxes, decreasing lung volume
4. Air is drawn into the lungs
Ans: Exhalation is passive process in which diagram muscles and
intercostal muscles related
187. Which of the following can be cured by hemodialysis?
1. Renal calculi
2. Glomerulonephritis
3. Uremia
4. All of these can be cured by hemodialysis
Ans: Hemodialysis is a boom for uremic patients through out world
188. Most water and salts are reabsorbed in
 1. DCT
2. Bowman s capsule
3. PCT
4. DCT and PCT
Ans : 75 to 80% filtrate is absorbed in PCT
189. Which one of the following is showing the correct sequential order of
vertebrae in the vertebral column of human beings?
1. Cervical – lumbar – thoracic – sacral – coccygeal
2. Cervical – thoracic – sacral – lumbar – coccygeal
3. Cervical – sacral – thoracic – lumbar – coccygeal
4. Cervical – thoracic – lumbar – sacral – Coccygeal
Ans : cervical vertebrae 7, thoracic 12, lumbar 5, sacral 5 (1) and
coccygeal 4 (1).
190. The correct arrangements of cranial meninges from outermost to
innermost is
1. Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid
2. Arachnoid, dura mater, pia mater
3. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater
4. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
Ans : Outer dura mater tough, middle arachnoid protective and inner
pia mater nutritive
191. Endemic goitre relates to
1. Increased Pancreas function
2. Increased Thyroid function
3. Decreased Thyroid function
4. Decreased Pancreas function
Ans: Endemic goitre is due to deficiency of iodine required for
synthesis of thyroxine
192. What is the name of the adrenal cortex’s outer layer?
1. Zona reticulari
2. Zona glomerulosa
3. Zona pellucida
4. Zona fasciculata
Ans : Outer zona glomerulosa, middle zona fasciculata and inner
zona reticularis
193. Which one of these is not a result of the release of catecholamines?
1. Piloerection
2. Dilated pupils
3. Production of glycogen
4. Increase in heart rate
 Ans : Catecholamines increases glucose level of blood to face
emergency
194. During embryonic development, the baby starts moving, and hair starts
appearing on the head during embryonic development of
1. Fourth month
2. Fifth month
3. Eight month
4. Ninth month
Ans : 2
195. Human Immunodeficiency Virus causes AIDS by attacking a type of white
blood cell called_______.
1. CD4
2. CD3
3. CD8
4. None of the above
Ans: CD4 is receptor protein of GP-120 on HIV.
So only the CD4 cells get infected by HIV i.e. macrophages and
helper T cells
196.
 Ans: 2
197. Test tube baby implies which of the following techniques?
1. IUI
2. ICSI

3. GIFT
4. ZIFT
Ans: In IVF the ZIFT is done i.e. either zygote or upto 8 celled embryo
is transferred into fallopian tube
198. Which of the following is not the characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?
 1. Irreversible
2. Easily available
3. User-friendly
4. Effective with least side effects
Ans : Contraceptives must be reversible
199. The region of biosphere reserve that is protected legally, where no human
activity takes place is known as
1. transition zone
2. buffer zone
3. core zone
4. restoration zone
Ans : The core zone, often known as the natural zone, is a highly
protected area inside a biosphere reserve that should be left
undisturbed by human activities.
200. The hot spots of biodiversity are characterized by:
1. low endemicity and low threat of extinction
2. low endemicity and high threat of extinction
3. high endemicity and low threat of extinction
4. high endemicity and high threat of extinction
Ans: Because biodiversity underpins all life on Earth, these hotspots
have significant global value as they contain species and habitats
that are found nowhere else.