GT-05

NEET GRAND TEST - 05 (15-02-2024)

SR ELITE (SET – 1)
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on side-1 and side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min duration and Text Booklet contains 200 questions. The test pattern comprises of two sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section-A will consist of 35 questions and Section-B will have 15 questions, out of
these 15 questions, candidate can chose to attempt any 10 questions.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4.
5.
SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & MPL
Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall.
The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
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 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
BOTANY (4) Four cell divisions with no chromosome
SECTION - A replication
1. Which of the following is not a product of 7. Which of the following is a hetero
light reaction? polysaccharide?
(1) NADH (2) NADPH (1) Chitin (2) Glucose
(3) ATP (4) O2 (3) Agar (4) Cellulose
2. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular 8. Match the following
respiration Column – I Column – II
(1) Functions as electron carrier a) F. Griffith 1. E. coli
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis b) Hershey and Chase 2. Bacteriophage
(3) Function as an enzyme c) Meselson and Stahl 3. Faba beans
(4) Final electron acceptor for anaerobic d) Taylor 4. Pneumococcus
respiration (1) a – 4, b – 1, c – 2, d – 3
3. Assertion (A) : During gel electrophoresis, (2) a – 4, b – 2, c – 1, d – 3
the DNA fragments move towards anode (3) a – 2, b -1, c – 3, d – 4
Reason (R) : DNA fragments are negatively (4) a – 4, b -3, c – 2, d -1
charged molecules 9. What is untrue regarding the mustard flower?
(1) A and R are true, R is the correct (1) Tetramerous flowers
explanation of the A (2) False septum in ovary
(2) A and R are true, R is not a correct (3) Parietal placentiation
explanation of the A (4) Four stamens
(3) A is true and R is false 10. Vegetative cell of pollen grains
(4) Both A and R are false (1) Floats in the cytoplasm of generative cell
4. When a desirable gene is inserted in to the (2) Has large irregular shaped nucleus
recognition site of ClaI of PBR322 and is (3) Is smaller than generative cell
introduced in to a host bacterium then the (4) Produce male gametes by mitosis
host bacterium will 11. Golgi apparatus is the important site of
(1) Loose its resistance to tetracycline only formation of
(2) Loose its resistance to ampicillin only a) Glycoproteins b) Glycolipids
(3) Remain sensitive to both ampicillin and c) Nucleoproteins d)Protein synthesis
tetracycline (1) a and d only
(4) Become resistant to both tetracycline and (2) b and c only
ampicillin (3) a and c only
5. In anaerobic respiration, pyruvic acid in (4) a and b only
muscles forms 12. Ethylene is used for thinning of cotton. What
(1) ATP (2) Lactic acid is the meaning of thinning?
(3) Acetyl Co –A (4) NAD (1) Removal of weeds
6. Chromosome number is reduced during (2) Uprooting some plants so that others grow
meiosis because the process consists of well
(1) Two cell divisions without any (3) Producing thin and long fibres
chromosome replication (4) Abscission of excess flowers and young
(2) Two cell divisions and only a single fruits to allow better growth of remaining
round of chromosome replication fruits
(3) A single cell division without any
chromosome replication
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 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
13. How many of the following beverages are 19. If 16 chromosomes are present in somatic cell
produced by distillation of the fermented of a plant, then find the incorrect match
broth? (1) Zygote – 16 (2) Perisperm – 8
Whisky, wine, rum, brandy, beer (3) Nucellus – 16 (4) Generative cell -8
(1) 5 (2) 4 20. Asseriton (A) : Multiple alleles cannot be
(3) 3 (4) 1 observed in the genotype of an individual but
14. Which of the following heavy radioisotopes can be observed in a population
is not suitable for DNA labeling? Reason (R) : A gene may have more than two
(1) 3H (2) 32P alleles, but two of them occur in a diploid
(3) 15N (4) 35S individual at a time.
15. Which of the following step explains (1) A and R are true, R is the correct
transformation with respect to Griffith explanation of the A
experiment? (2) A and R are true, R is not a correct
(1) Mouse inoculated with normal living ‘R’ explanation of the A
strain of bacteria (3) A is true and R is false
(2) Mouse inoculated with normal living ‘S’ (4) Both A and R are false
strain of bacteria 21. Which of the following criteria must be
(3) Mouse inoculated with heat killed ‘S’ fulfilled by a biomolecule that can act as
strain of bacteria genetic material?
(4) Mouse inoculated with heat killed ‘S’ A) It should be able to replicate
strain along with normal living ‘R’ strain of B) It should be structurally and chemically
bacteria stable
16. Which of the following trait express in only C) It should be able to undergo mutations
homozygous condition slowly
a) Yellow seed (cotyledon) colour D) It should be able to express itself in the
b) Green pod colour form of Mendelian characters
c) inflated pod shape (1) All except D (2) All except A
d) Terminal position of flower (3) A and B only (4) A, B, C and D
e) Yellow pod colour 22. Virus with RNA as genetic material
(1) Only e (2) a, b, c a) TMV b) QB bacteriophage
(3) a, b, c, d, e (4) d & e c) HIV d) Bacteriophage
17. RNA polymerase III is responsible for (1) a,b and d only (2) b,c and d only
transcription of (3)a,c and d only (4) a,b and c only
(1) tRNA, 5S rRNA, snRNA 23. Read the following statements with regard to
(2) hnRNA, snRNA, tRNA dicot stem and select the right choice
(3) 23S rRNA, 5S rRNA, snRNA a) The epidermis is devoid of cuticle
b) The cells of endodermis are rich in starch
(4) 28S rRNA, 58S rRNA, tRNA
grains
18. A child with blood group genotype c) The pericycle is present on the inner side
I A I B is born of a women with genotype of endodermis and above the phloem in the
I B I B . The father could not be a man of form of semilunar patches of sclerenchyma
genotype d) The vascular bundles are arranged in a ring
(1) c and d are incorrect
(1) I A I A (2) I A I B
(2) b, c and d are incorrect
(3) I B I B (4) I A I
(3) a, b and d are correct
(4) b, c and d are correct
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 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
24. Which of the following is not true w.r.t (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
bacteria correct explanation of A
(1) They show most extensive metabolic (3) A is true and R is false
diversity when compared with other groups (4) A is false and R is true
of organisms 29. Read the following statements
(2) Mostly heterotrophic A) Two nucleotides of opposite strands are
(3) Sexual reproduction occurs by gametic linked by phosphodiester bonds
fusion B) The pitch of the DNA is 3600
C) The distance between the successive base
(4) Cell walls are made up of
pairs would be 3.4nm
heteropolysaccharides + aminoacids D) B -DNA consist of ten purines and ten
25. Genes do not occur in pairs in pyrmidines in each helix
(1) Somatic cell (1) A, B and C are correct
(2) Spore mother cell (2) B, C and D are correct
(3) Embryo (3) B, C and D are incorrect
(4) Gamete (4) A,B,C are incorrect
26. Mycorrhizal association is found in the 30. The yield of ATP in krebs cycle per glucose
following at substrate level phosphorylation
(1) Cycas (2) Pinus (1) 2 (2) 24
(3) Castor (4) Citrus (3) 6 (4) 28
27. Read the following lists 31. Read the following statements-
List-I List-II Statement A – Ribulose Bisphosphate is the
I) Fimbriae A) Antibiotic most abundant enzyme in the world.
resistant genes Statement B – Photorespiration doesn't occur
II) Chromatophores B) Cell wall in C 4 plants.
formation Choose the correct option-
III) Mesosome C) Membranous (1) A is correct and B is incorrect
extensions having (2) B is correct and A is incorrect
(3) A and B are correct
pigments
(4) A and B are incorrect
IV) Plasmid D) Attachment 32. Untrue about disc florets
of bacteria to (1) Are bisexual
host tissue (2) Shown basal placentation
E) Buoyancy (3) Actinomorphic
(1) I-C II-A III-D IV-B (4) Superior ovary
33. Which of the following strand act as template
(2) I-D II-C III-A IV-B
for DNA synthesis
(3) I-D II-C III-B IV-A (1) 5'  3'
(4) I-E II-D III-A IV-C (2) 3'  5'
28. Assertion. (A): Concentration of ions is (3) Both of the strands
significantly higher in the vacuole than in the (4) Either of the strands
cytoplasm. 34. Capping is-
Resons(R): Tonoplast facilitates active (1) Addition of methyl guanosine
triphosphate at 5' end
transport of ions against concentration
(2) addition of adenylate residue at 3' end
gradient into vacoule.
(3) addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
at 3' end
explanation of A.
(4) addition of adenylate residue at 5' end
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 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
35. The following events are/is not a part of a) A major part is anaerobically digested to
‘pollen pistil interaction’ produce CH4 gas
A) Pollination b) A small portion is used as inoculum to
B) Germination of pollen grain start another cycle of secondary treatment
C) Growth of pollen tube through style c) Major portion is used as a biofertilizer
D) Entry of pollen tube into the ovule d) It is released into rivers
E) Fertilisation (1) c and d only
(1) A and B (2) B and C (2) b and c only
(3) A and E (4) A, B, C, D and E (3) a and b only
SECTION - B (4) a and d only
36. Vascular bundles in dorsiventral leaves are A 43. Select the correct statement about G1 phase
and having B xylem (1) Cell is metabolically inactive
A B (2) DNA in the cell does not replicate
(1) Conjoint and closed Abaxial (3) It is not a phase of synthesis of
(2) Conjoint and closed Adaxial macromolecules
(3) Radial and open Abaxial (4) Cell stops growing
(4) Radial and closed Abaxial 44. Choose the incorrect
37. Which of the following secondary (1) Spooling – technique used to collect
metabolites are used as drugs? DNA, that is separated out after purification
A) Ricin B) Vinblastin (2) Elution – separation of DNA fragments
C) Cellulose D) Carotenoids from gel plates by washing with solvents
E) Curcumin (3) Biolistics – method to introduce
(1) A and E (2) B and D recombinant DNA into nucleus of animal
(3) B and E (4) A and C
cells
38. Micropropagation is
(1) Propagation of microbes in vitro (4) Heat shock – is a procedure to transform
(2) Propagation of plants in vitro bacterial host cells
(3) Propagation of cells in vitro 45. Which one is not directly involved in
(4) Growing plants on smaller scale translation
39. The term not related to ‘centriole’ structure is (1) tRNA (2) mRNA
(1) Hub (3) DNA (4) ATP
(2) Triplet 46. Read the following statements
(3) Cartwheel like organisation i) Prokaryotic mRNA is capless and tailless
(4) Doublet where as eukaryotic mRNA is with cap and
40. All of the given algae store mannitol as tail
reserve food material, except
(1) Laminaria (2) Ectocarpus ii) The precursor of prokaryotic mRNA is
(3) Fucus (4) Gelidium hnRNA
41. Apocarpous condition is found in iii) In eukaryotes transcription occurs in
a) Lotus b) Papaver nucleus and translation in cytoplasm.
c) Mustard d) Michelia Which of the above statements are correct
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only (1) i & iii are correct
(3)c and d only (4) a and d only (2) ii & iii are correct
42. What is the fate of activated sludge in STP (3) i only is correct
(4) i, ii, iii are correct
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 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
47. What is true regarding Cry protein? B Q-R-S-complex II
Repolarization
(a) It is produced by Cry gene of Bacillus of ventricles
thuringiensis C T-wave III Hypokalemia
(b) It is an insoluble inactive crystalline D Reduction in the IV Depolarization
protein within bacteria size of T-wave of atria
(c) It turns active in the gut of insects due to Choose the correct answer from the options
alkaline PH given below.
(d)It is used as biofertilizer as well as (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
biocontrol agent (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(1) a,c and d only (2) b,c and d only (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) a,b and d only (4) a,b and c only (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
48. Incorrect w.r.t Poaceae family 53. Select the favorable conditions required for
(1) root - fibrous the formation of oxyhemoglobin at the
(2) inflorescence - compound spike alveoli of lungs
(3) fruit - caryopsis 
(1) High PO2 , High PCO2 , less H , high
(4) ovary – inferior
temperature
49. Assertion: When plant having taproot, it may 
(2) Low PO2 , High PCO2 , more H , high
also contain adventitious roots
Reasons: When plant is having fibrous root temperature

system is never having tap root in it (3) Low PO2 , Low PCO2 , more H , high
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the temperature

correct explanation of A (4) High PO2 , low PCO2 , less H , low
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the temperature
correct explanation of A 54. Match the following column-I and select the
(3) A is true but R is false correct option
(4) R is true but A is false Column-I Column-II
A) Floating ribs I. Located between
50. The term prothallus refers to
2nd and 7th ribs
(1) Reduced gametophyte of bryophytes
B) Acromion process II. Head of the
(2) Reduced gametophyte of pteridophytes
Humerus
(3) Reduced sporophyte of pteridophytes
C) Scapula III. Clavicle
(4) Reduced sporophyte of bryophytes
D) Glenoid cavity IV. Do not connect
ZOOLOGY
with sternum
SECTION – A (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
51. The type of epithelium found in the hollow (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
organs like bronchioles and fallopian tube (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
which functions to move particles or mucus (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-I
in specific direction is: 55. If a Geneticist uses the blind approach for
(1) Squamous epithelium sequencing the whole genome of an organism
containing all the coding and noncoding
(2) Columnar epithelium
sequence, followed by assigning the
(3) Cuboidal epithelium functions of different regions, such a
(4) Ciliated epithelium methodology is called
52. Match the column-I with column-II (1) Gene mapping
Column-I Column-II (2) Expressed sequence tags
A P-Wave I Depolarization (3) Sequence annotation
of ventricles (4) Bioinformatics
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 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
56. During muscle contraction which of the
following events occur?
A) H zone disappears or decreases
B) A band widens
C) I band reduces in width
D) Myosin hydrolyses ATP, releasing the
ADP and Pi
E) Z lines attached to Actins are pulled
inwards
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) A, B, C and D only
(2) A, C, D and E only
(3) B, C, D and E only
(4) B, C and E only
57. Match the column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A Malpighian tubules I Frog
B Hepatic portal system II Cockroach
C Pseudocoelom III Nereis
D Metamerism IV Ascaris
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
58. The signals for the parturition process
originates form
(1) Hormones of ovary and uterus
(2) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(3) Smooth muscles of uterus
(4) Placenta and its secretions
59. Given below are two statements. One is
labelled as Assertion A and other labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: Thalassemia and sickle cell
anaemia in man are caused due to a problem
in globin molecule synthesis.
Reason R: Thalassemia differs from sickle
cell anaemia in that thalassemia is a
qualitative problem of synthesizing an
incorrectly functioning globin whereas sickle
cell anaemia is quantitative problem of
synthesizing few globin molecules.
7
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both A and R true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
60. Auto immune disorder affecting
neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is
called as
(1) Arthritis
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Gout
61. Which of the following set of diseases are not
completely curable in human beings?
(1) HIV infection, gonorrhea and
trichomoniasis
(2) Hepatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV
infection
(3) Genital herpes, HIV infection and syphilis
(4) Hepatitis-B, gonorrhoea and syphilis
62. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
(1) In man insulin is synthesized as a
proinsulin
(2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
as C-peptide
(3) The functional insulin has A and B chains
linked together by hydrogen bonds
(4) Genetically engineered insulin is
produced in E.coli
63. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Human brain is the central
information processing organ and acts as
command and control system.
Statement-II: Brain controls the voluntary
movements, balance of the body and
functioning of important vital organs in the
body.
In the light of above statements, choose the
correct answer from the option given below.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
false
(3) Statement-I is correct statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
true
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
64. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often
due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body.
Which type of immune response is
responsible for such rejection?
(1) Humoral immune response
(2) Cell medicated immune response
(3) Auto immune response
(4) Physiological immune response
65. For effective treatment of the disease early
diagnosis and understanding its pathology is
very important. Which of the following
molecular diagnostic techniques is very
useful for early detection?
(1) Western blotting technique
(2) Southern blotting technique
(3) ELISA test (technique)
(4) Hybridization technique
66. Given below are two statements. One is
labelled as Assertion A and other labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: DNA fingerprinting involves
identifying differences in specific regions in
DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA.
Reason R: DNA fingerprinting is the basis of
paternity testing.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both A and R true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
67. Identify the autosomal recessive genetic
disorders from the following
A) Phenyl ketonuria
B) Haemophilia
C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
D) Cystic fibrosis
E) Turner’s syndrome
F) Sickle cell anaemia
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) B, C D and E only
8
(2) A, D and F only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, C, E and F only
68. Identify the fossil man showed the following
characteristics
A) Brain capacity is 1400CC
B) Used hides to protect their body
C) Buried their dead bodies
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) Australopithecus (2) Homo habilis
(3) Homo erectus (4) Neanderthal man
69. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Biodiversity hotspot regions
are with very high levels of species richness
and high degree of endemism.
Statement-II: Sixth extinction of species,
presently in progress is faster than in the pre
human times, due to human activities.
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the option given below.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
false
(3) Statement-I is correct statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
true
70. Which of the following hormone levels will
cause the release of ovum (Ovulation) from
the graafian follicle?
(1) High concentration of progesterone
leading to its maximum level
(2) Low concentration of Estrogen
(3) Low concentration of F S H
(4) Rapid secretion of L H leading to its
maximum level
71. The rate of formation of new organic matter
by consumers like deer in an ecosystem is
(1) Primary productivity
(2) Gross Primary productivity
(3) Net Primary productivity
(4) Secondary productivity
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
72. The Earth summit held in Rio Janeiro in 1992
was called upon all nations to take
appropriate measures
(1) for immediate steps to discontinue use of
CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer.
(2) to reduce CO2 emissions and global
warming
(3) for conservation of biodiversity and
sustainable utilization of its benefits
(4) to assess threat posed to native species by
invasive weed species
73. Which of the following is an example of
hormone releasing IUD?
(1) Cu-T (2) LNG-20
(3) Cu-7 (4) Multi load-375
74. Which part of brain in man is responsible for
thermoregulation?
(1) Cerebrum (2) Hypothalamus
(3) Medulla oblongata (4) Corpus callosum
75. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. if the
frequency of dominant allele A=0.6, then
what will be the frequency of homozygous
dominant, heterozygous and homozygous
recessive individuals in the population?
(1) 0.36AA-0.24Aa-0.16aa
(2) 0.36AA-0.48Aa-0.16aa
(3) 0.16AA-0.36Aa-0.48aa
(4) 0.36AA-0.16Aa-0.48aa
76. Given below are two statements. One is
labelled as Assertion A and other labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: Chikungunya and dengue are
viral diseases. They are transmitted to
humans by infected female Aedes mosquito.
Reason R: Proximity of mosquito breeding
sites to human habitation is a significant risk
factor for both these diseases.
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
77. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates
RBC formation is produced by
(1) Alpha cells of pancreas
(2) Juxta glomerular cells of kidney
9
(3) Cells of bone marrow
(4) Cells of adeno hypophysis
78. Match the column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A Hyperthyroidism I Diabetes mellitus
B Deficiency of II Grave’s disease
insulin
C Low production III Diabetes insipidus
of corticoids
D Low production IV Addison’s disease
of ADH
Select the correct option given below.
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
79. Select the correct route for the passage of
sperms in male frogs.
(1) Testis-vasa efferntia-kidney-seminal
vesicle-urino genital tract-cloaca
(2) Testis-vasa efferntia-Bidder’s canal- urino
genital tract-anus
(3) Testis-vasa efferntia- kidney- Bidder’s
canal- urino genital tract-cloaca
(4) Testis- Bidder’s canal- kidney- vasa
efferntia- urino genital tract-cloaca
80. Which of the following group of insects are
economically useful to humans?
(1) Anopheles, Culex and Bombyx mori
(2) Apis indica, Bombyx and Laccifer
(3) Bombyx mori, Apis indica and Aedes
(4) Aedes, Bombyx mori and Laccifer
81. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: If the head of cockroach is cut
off, it will still live for a few days.
Statement-II: In cockroach, the head holds
a bit of a nervous system but the remaining
part of nervous system is situated in the
ventral part of the thorax and abdomen.
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the option given below.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
false
(3) Statement-I is correct statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is incorrect, but statement-II
is true
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82. Given below are two statements: (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
Statement-I: Periodic abstinence is a natural false
method in which the couples avoid coitus (3) Statement-I is correct statement-II is false
from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle. (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
Statement-II: In coitus interruptus the male true
partner withdraws his penis from the vagina SECTION – B
just after ejaculation. 86. Which of the following statements are
In light of the above statements, choose the correct?
correct answer from the option given below. A) An excessive loss of body fluid from the
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true body switches off osmoreceptors
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are B) ADH facilitates water reabsorption to
false prevent diuresis
(3) Statement-I is correct statement-II is false C) ANF causes vasodilation
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is D) ADH causes increase in blood pressure
true E) ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR
83. Given below are two statements: Choose the correct answer from the options
Statement-I: The ability of frog to change given below.
(1) A and B only (2) B, C and D only
the colour to hide from its enemies is called
(3) A, B and E only (4) C, D and E only
camouflage 87. Which of the following statements are correct
Statement-II: During hibernation and regarding skeletal muscle?
aestivation frog depends on cutaneous A) Muscle bundles are held together by
respiration collagenous connective tissue layer called
In light of the above statements, choose the fascicle
correct answer from the option given below. B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true a store house of calcium ions
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are C) Striated appearance of skeletal muscle
false fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and
(3) Statement-I is correct statement-II is false myosin proteins.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
true D) M line is considered as functional unit of
84. A person shows symptoms like sneezing, contraction called sarcomere
watery eyes running nose and difficulty in Choose the correct answer from the options
breathing, on exposure to certain substances given below.
in air. Which type of antibody produced (1) A B and C only (2) B and C only
during such condition? (3) A, C and D only (4) C and D only
(1) IgE (2) IgA
88. Which of the following are not the effects of
(3) IgG (4) IgM
parathyroid hormone?
85. Given below are two statements:
A) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
Statement-I: Impulse transmission across a 
B) Decreases Ca level in the blood
chemical synapse is always faster than that 
across an electrical synapse C) Reabsorption of Ca by renal tubules

Statement-II: Transmission of an impulse D) Decreases the absorption of Ca from
across electrical synapse is similar to impulse digested food
E) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
conduction along a single axon.
Choose the correct answer from the options
In light of the above statements, choose the
given below.
correct answer from the option given below.
(1) B, D and E only (2) A and E only
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(3) B and C only (4) A and C only
10
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
89. A colour blind man marries the daughter of 92. Given below are two statements:
another colour blind man whose wife had a Statement-I: In gene therapy of Adenosine
normal genotype for colour vision. Identify de aminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient
the correct statement with reference to their
requires periodic infusion of genetically
children.
(1) All the children would be colourblind engineered lymphocytes.
(2) All the sons are colour blind Statement-II: Genetically engineered
(3) None of the daughters would be
lymphocytes are not immortal cells.
colourblind but sons are colourblind
(4) Half of their sons and half of their In the light of above statements, choose the
daughters are colour blind correct answer from the option given below.
90. Select the correct statements with respect to
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
the mechanism of sex determination in grass
hopper (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
A) It is an example of female hetero gamety. false
B) Male produces two different types of (3) Statement-I is correct statement-II is false
gametes either with or without X (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
chromosome. true
C) Total number of chromosomes (autosomes 93. Given below are two statements. One is
and allosomes) is same in both males and labelled as Assertion A and other labelled as
females. Reason R
D) All eggs bear an additional X Assertion A: In cockroach several ommatidia
chromosome besides the autosomes. of a compound eye receive several images of
Choose the correct answer from the options an object, such a vision is known as mosaic
given below. vision.
(1) B and D only Reason R: Mosaic vision is with less
(2) A, C and D only sensitivity but with more resolution, being
(3) A only common during night hence it is called
(4) A and C only nocturnal vision.
91. Match the column-I with column-II In the light of the above statements, choose
Column-I Column-II the correct answer from the options given
A Edward I Long term eco below
Wilson system (1) Both A and R true and R is the correct
experiments explanation of A
B Paul Ehrlich II Species-Area (2) Both A and R true but R is not the correct
relationship
explanation of A
C David Tilman III Popularized the
term Biodiversity (3) A is true but R is false
D Von IV Rivet popper (4) A is false but R is true
Humboldt hypothesis 94. In which of the following animal digestive
Select the correct option given below. tract has additional chambers like crop and
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV gizzard?
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (1) Pigeon (2) Frog
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) Crocodile (4) Macropus
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
11
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
95. Given below are two statements. 99. The unique mammalian characteristics are
Statement-I: The milk of transgenic cow (1) Hair, tympanic membrane and mammary
Rosie was nutritionally more balanced glands
product for human babies than normal cow (2) Hair, pinna and mammary glands
milk. (3) Hair, pinna and indirect development
Statement-II: The human protein   (4) Pinna, monocondylic skull and mammary
antitrypsin was used to treat emphysema, a glands
respiratory problem. 100. Which of the following statements is not
In the light of above statements, choose the correct?
correct answer from the option given below. (1) Pyramid of energy is always upright
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true (2) Pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are upright
false (3) Pyramid of number in a grassland
(3) Statement-I is correct statement-II is false ecosystem is upright
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is (4) Pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally
true inverted
96. Select the correct stamens PHYSICS
a) Platyhelminthes are triploblastic, pseudo SECTION – A
coelomate and bilaterally symmetrical 101. A vehicle travels half the distance L with
organisms speed v1 and the other half with speed v 2 ,
b) Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and then its average speed is
fertilization is external v v 2v  v
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 2
c) In sponges fertilization is external and 2 v1  v2
development is direct 2v1v2 L  v1  v2 
d) Ctenophores are exclusively marine, (3) (4)
v1  v2 v1v2
diploblastic and bioluminescent organisms
102. A shell is fired from a cannon with velocity v
e) In echinoderms larvae are radially
m/s at an angle  with the horizontal
symmetrical but adults are bilaterally direction. At the highest point in its path it
symmetrical organisms explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One
Choose the correct answer from the options of the pieces retraces its path to the cannon
given below. and the speed in m/s of the other piece
(1) a,b and d only (2) b and d only immediately after the explosion is
(3) b,c and d only (4) c,d and e only (1) 3v cos  (2) 2v cos 
97. Cardiac muscles are 3v 3v cos 
(3) cos  (4)
(1) Involuntary, cylindrical and striated 2 2
(2) Involuntary, branched and striated 103. Two rings of same mass and radii R are
(3) Voluntary, spindle shaped and striated placed with their planes perpendicular to each
(4) Voluntary, branched and striated other and centres at a common point. The
98. What is the genetic disorder in which an radius of gyration of the system about an axis
individual has an overall masculine passing through the centre and perpendicular
to the plane of one of the ring is
development, Gynaecomastia and is sterile?
R
(1) Down’s syndrome (1) 2R (2)
2
(2) Turner’s syndrome
(3) Edward’s syndrome 3 3
(3) R (4) R
(4) Klinefelter’s syndrome 2 2
12
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
104. In SHM, the acceleration is ahead of velocity wave to form a stationary wave such that the
by a phase angle point x = 0 is a node. The equation for the
0  other wave is
(1) 0 (2) (1) a sin(kx  ωt) (2)  a cos(kx  ωt)
2
(3)  (4) 2 (3)  a cos(kx  ωt) (4)  a sin(kx  ωt)
105. A body slides down from rest on a 111. A plano convex lens of refractive index 1
frictionless inclined plane which ends in a fits exactly into a plano concave lens of
frictionless vertical circular loop of diameter refractive index  2 . Their plane surfaces are
D. Then the minimum height h of the body in
parallel to each other. If R is radius of
term of D so that it may just complete the
curvature of curved surfaces of lenses, focal
loop, is
length of combination is
(1) h = (5D/2) (2) h = (5D/4)
R 2R
(3) h = (3D/4) (4) h = (D/4) (1) (2)
1   2 1   2
106. A uniform chain has mass M and length L
respectively. It is lying on a smooth R R
(3) (4)
horizontal table with half of its length 2  1   2  1  2
hanging vertically down. The work done in 112. Distance of an object from the first focus of
pulling the chain completely on to the table is an equiconvex lens is 10 cm and the distance
(1) MgL/2 (2) MgL/4 of its real image from second focus is 40 cm.
(3) MgL/8 (4) MgL/16 The focal length of the lens is
107. The E.M. wave with shortest wavelength (1) 20 cm (2) 25 cm
(3) 10 cm (4) 40 cm
among the following is 113. For which one of the following Bohr model is
(1) Microwaves not valid
(2) Ultraviolet rays
(3) X – rays
(1) Single ionized helium atom He 
(4) Gamma – rays (2) Deuteron atom
108. If L1 and L 2 are the lengths of the first and (3) Singly ionized neon atom Ne 
second resonating air columns in a resonance (4) Hydrogen atom
tube, then the wavelength of the note 114. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver
produced is 300 MW. The energy released due to fission
(1) 2  L2  L1  (2) 2  L2  L1  of each nucleus of uranium atom U 238 is
170 MeV. The number of uranium atoms
 L   L  fissioned per hour will be
(3) 2  L2  1  (4) 2  L2  1 
 2  2 (1) 30 x 1025 (2) 4 x 1022
109. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental 20 15
(3) 10 x 10 (4) 5 x 10
frequency f in air. The pipe is dipped
115. If the wavelength of light in an experiment on
vertically in water, so that half of it is in
photo electric effect is doubled keeping the
water. The fundamental frequency of the air intensity constant
column is now (1) The photo electrons may or may not be
f 3f emitted
(1) (2) (2) The stopping potential decreases if
2 4
electrons are emitted
(3) 2f (4) f
(3) The photo electric current does not
110. A wave represented by the equation y = a change if electrons are emitted
cos (kx  ωt) is superposed with another (4) All the above
13
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
116. An electron moving with an initial velocity 121. In the following indicator diagram, the net
V  V0 i in a magnetic field B  B0 j . Then, amount of workdone will be
its de- Broglie wavelength
(1) remains constant
(2) increases with time
(3) decreases with time
(4) first increases then decreases
117. A full wave rectifier is used to convert 50 Hz
ac to dc. Then the number of pulses per sec
present in the rectified voltage is
(1) 50 (2) 100
(3) 200 (4) 400
118. In the following circuit the equivalent (1) Positive (2) Negative
resistance between A and B is (3) Zero (4) Infinity
122. The intensity of electric field at a point
between the plates of a charged capacitor
(1) Is directly proportional to the distance
between the plates
(2) Is inversely proportional to the distance
(1) 20
 (2) 10  between the plates
3
(3) Is inversely proportional to the square
(3) 16  (4) 20  of the distance between the plates
119. The potential energy of a particle (4) Does not depend upon the distance
that varies with distance x is between the plates
x 123. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a
V  x    x   sin . A dimensionless
 magnetic field required W units of work to
combination of constants , ,  is turn it through 600. The torque required to
maintain the needle in this position will be
 2
(1) (2) (1) 3W (2) W
 
3
  (3) W (4) 2W
(3) (4) 2
  124. A wheel of 20 metallic spokes each 40 cm
120. Choose the correct statement long is rotated with a speed of 180 rev/min in
a) In applying Gauss law, the charges may be a plane normal to the horizontal component
located any where inside the Gaussian of earth’s magnetic field H e at a place. If
surface H e  0.4G (Gauss) at that place, the induced
b) The electric field due to a charge emf between the axle and the rim of the
configuration with total charge zero may not wheel is
be zero (1) 192 107 V
(1) Both a and b are true
(2) a is true and b is false
(2) 256 107 V
(3) Both a and b are false (3) 148 107 V
(4) a is false and b is true
(4) 110 107 V
14
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
125. Assertion (A): In a Meter Bridge experiment, 129. Two small spheres each having the charge Q
null point for an unknown resistance made of are suspended by insulating threads of length
metal is measured. Now, the unknown L from a hook. This arrangement is taken in
resistance is put inside an enclosure space where there is no gravitational effect,
maintained at a higher temperature. The null then the angle between the two suspensions
point can be obtained at the same point as and the tension in each will be
before by decreasing the value of the standard 1 Q2 1 Q2
(1) 180 o , (2) 90 o ,
resistance in the other gap. 4 0 (2 L) 2
4 0 L2
Reason (R) : Resistance of a metal increases 1 Q2 1 Q2
(3) 180 o , (4) 180 o ,
with increase in temperature. 4 0 2 L 2
4 0 L2
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 130. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the
correct explanation of (A) cycle ABCDA as shown in the P-V diagram.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT The efficiency of the cycle is
the correct explanation of (A) P 2P,V 2P,2V

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false B C

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
126. The breaking stress of a wire depends upon
(1) length of the wire A D
P,V P,2V
(2) radius of the wire V
(3) material of the wire 2
(4) shape of the cross-section (1) 1 (2)
13
127. Two soap bubbles of radii 4mm and 6mm are 2
kept in contact. Radius of curvature at their (3) (4) zero
15
point of contact is
131. The errors in the measurement which arise
(1) 2mm (2) 5mm
(3) 12mm (4) 24mm due to unpredictable fluctuations in
128. Four particles each of mass m are placed at temperature and voltage supply are
four vertices of a rectangle having side length
(1) Personal errors
as 3l0 and 4l 0 . The potential energy of the
(2) Least count errors
Gm 2 (3) Random error
system in is
l0 (4) Instrumental errors
132. An a.c current is given by
i  3sin wt  4cos wt amp. Its rms value is
(1) 5A (2) 7A
5
(3) (4) 5 2
2
133. A bimetallic strip is made of aluminium and
steel (  Al   st ) . On heating, the strip will
(1) 7/6 (2) 47/30
(1) remain straight.
(3) 47/60 (4) 7/12
(2) get twisted.
(3) will bend with aluminium on concave
side.
(4) will bend with steel on concave side.

15
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
134. The number of translatioaonal degrees of
freedom of a diatomic gas is
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 6
135. A particle of charge q and mass m starts
moving from the origin under the action of an
electric field E  E ˆi and magnetic field
B  Biˆ with a velocity υ  υoˆj . The speed (1) ML (2) 2 ML
(3) 4 ML (4) 16 ML
of the particle will become 2 υ o after a time
139. A particle of mass m is projected with an
2mυo 2Bq initial velocity u at an angle  to horizontal.
(1) t  (2) t
qE mυo The torque of gravity on projectile at
3 Bq 3 mυo maximum height about the point of
(3) t  (4) t projection is
mυo qE
mgu 2 sin 2
SECTION B (1) (2) mgu 2 sin 2
136. A particle moves according to the law 2
a = - ky. Find the velocity as a function of mgu 2 sin  1
distance y where v 0 is initial velocity and a (3) (4) mu 2 sin 2
2 2
is the acceleration. 140. The energy of EM wave is of the order of 15
(1) v  v02  ky2
2
(2) v  v02
2
 2ky keV. Then this wave belongs to
(1)  –rays spectrum
(3) v2  v02  2ky2 (4) v2  v02  ky2
(2) X-rays spectrum
137. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a (3) Infra-red spectrum
speed of 500 m/s and a bomb released from (4) Ultraveiolet spectrum
it, strikes the ground in 10 sec. Angle at 141. The minimum number of NAND gates
which it strikes the ground will be required to produce OR gate is
g  10m / s2  (1) one
(3) three
(2) two
(4) four
1 1
(1) tan 1   (2) tan 1   142. Two Nicols are oriented with their principal
5 2 planes making an angle of 60° . The
(3) tan 1 1 (4) tan 1  5 percentage of incident unpolarized light
which passes through the system is
138. A string of length L is fixed at one end and
(1) 50 % (2) 100 %
carries a mass M at the other end. The string
(3) 12.5 % (4) 37.5 %
2 143. A satellite is orbiting just above the surface
makes revolutions per second around the
 of the Earth with period T. If d is the density
vertical axis through the fixed end as shown of the earth and G is the universal constant of
in the figure, then tension in the string is 3π
gravitation, the quantity
Gd
2 3
(1) T (2) T
(3) T (4) T

16
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
144. A piece of wax weighs 18.03gm in air. A 151. The radius of second Bohr orbit in terms of
metal piece weighs 17.03gm in water. When the Bohr radius ao in Li2+ is
both tied together and weighed in water as 2a0 4a0
15.23gm. Find the specific gravity of wax (1) (2)
3 3
(1) 0.82 (2) 0.909 4a0 2a0
(3) 0.64 (4) 0.58 (3) (4)
9 9
145. The first law of thermodynamics is based on
152. Which among the following species has
the law of conservation of
unequal bond lengths?
(1) Energy (2) Mass
(1) XeF4 (2) SiF4
(3) Momentum (4) Pressure
146. For the given circuit, find the potential (3) SF4 (4) BF4
difference VA  VB 153. A set of solutions is prepared using 180g of
A C G H water as solvent and 10g of different non-
volatile solutes A, B and C. The relative
10V 20V lowering of vapour pressure in the presence
5 10
5V 2 of these solutes are in the order
F E D B (Given molar mass of A=100gmol-1 , B=200g
(1) 12 V (2) 15 V mol-1, C=10000g mol-1.
(3) 10V (4) 5V (1) A>B>C (2) A>C>B
147. In a transformer, the coefficient of mutual (3) B>C>A (4) C>B>A
inductance between the primary and the 154. Given below are two statements
secondary coil is 0.2 H. When the current StatementI(SI) : The limiting molar
changes by 5 ampere/second in the primary, conductivity of KCl(strong electrolyte) is
the induced e.m.f in the secondary will be higher compared to that of CH 3COOH (weak
(1) 5V (2) 1V electrolyte).
(3) 25V (4) 10V StatementIIS(II) : Molar conductivity
148. Two point charges Q and – 3Q are placed at decreases with decrease in concentration of
some distance apart. If the electric field at electrolyte.
the location of Q is E then at the locality of In the light of the above statements, choose
3Q , it is the most appropriate answer from the options
(1)  E (2) E / 3 given below.
(3)  3 E (4) E / 3 (1) Both SI & SII are true.
149. Eight small drops, each of radius r and (2) SI is false and SII is true
having same charge q are combined to form a (3) SI is true and SII is false
(4) Both SI and SII are false
big drop. The ratio between the potentials of
155. The difference between H and U
the bigger drop and the smaller drop is
(H  U ) when the combustion of one
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 8 mole of heptane ( ) is carried out at a
150. One feels hotter at the top of the flame than temperature T is equal to
the sides because of (1) -4RT (2) 3RT
(1) Conduction (2) Convection (3) 4RT (4) -3RT
(3) Radiation (4) All the above
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
17
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
156. If a reaction follows the Arrhenius equation, B. Competitive ii. Molecule
1 inhibitor crucial for
the plot lnk vs gives straight line with a
( RT ) communication in
slope (-y) unit. The energy required to the body
activate the reactant is C. Receptor iii. Molecule
Y binding to a site
(1) unit (2) -Y unit other than the active
R
(3) YR unit (4) Y unit site of enzyme
157. Given below are two statements D. Poison iv. Molecule
StatementI S(I): The numerical value of the binding to the
equilibrium constant for a reaction indicates enzyme covalently
the extent of the reaction. (1) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
StatementII S(II): An equilibrium constant (2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
give information about the rate at which the (3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
equilibrium is reached. (4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
In the light of the above statements, choose 161. Consider the reaction 2A+B+3C  P+2Q
the most appropriate answer from the options starting with 3mol of A, 2mol of B and 6mol
given below. of C, number of moles of products P and Q
(1) Both SI & SII are true. produced would respectively be
(2) SI is false and SII is true (1) 2 & 4 (2) 4 & 2
(3) SI is true and SII is false (3) 3 & 1.5 (4) 1.5 & 3
(4) Both SI and SII are false 162. Assertion(A): Sucrose is a reducing sugar.
158. In the reaction of oxalate with permanganate Reason(R): On hydrolysis sucrose bring the
in acidic medium the number of electrons change in sign of rotation from dextro(+) to
laevo(-)
involved in producing one molecule of CO2 is
In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) 10 (2) 5 the most appropriate answer from the options
(3) 2 (4) 1 given below.
159. Which of the following statements regarding (1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct
 - amino acids are correct explanation of A
I. Proteins on hydrolysis gives only  - (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A
amino acids.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
II. Gln stands for Glutamic acid
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
III. Amino acids with equal number of amino
and carboxyl groups are neutral amino acids 163. If KSP of Ag 2CO3 is 8  1012 the molar
IV. All naturally occurring  - amino acids solubility of Ag 2CO3 in 0.1M AgNO3
are optically active. solution is
(1) I & III (2) I, II & IV (1) 8 1012 M (2) 8 1013 M
(3) III & IV (4) II, III & IV (3) 8 1010 M (4) 8 1011 M
160. The correct match between List I and List II 164. The ratio of mass percent of C and H of an
is organic compound C x H y is 6 : 1. The
List I List II
molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is
A. Allosteric effect i. Molecule
(1) C2 H 6 (2) C2 H 2
binding to the active
stie of enzyme (3) CH 2 (4) C2 H 4

18
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
165. The reduction potential of hydrogen Reason(R): As the size of lanthanoids
electrode in neutral solution at 298K is decreases covalent character of hydroxides
(1) -0.41V (2) +0.41V decreases and basic character increases.
(3) -0.49V (4) 0 In the light of the above statements, choose
166. Consider the following pairs of electrons the most appropriate answer from the options
1 given below.
A: a) n=3 =1 m  1 ms  
2 (1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct
1 explanation of A
b) n=3 =2 m  1 ms   (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
2
1 correct explanation of A
B. a) n=3 =2 m  2 ms   (3) A is not correct but R is correct
2
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
1
b) n=3  2 m  1 ms   170. Which of the following reagent is suitable to
2
distinguish keto form of the compounds
1
C. a) n=4  2 m  2 ms   given below.
2 OH
1 OH
b) n  3 =2 m  2 ms  
2
The pair of electron present in degenerate I II

orbitals is/are (1) Tollens’ reagent (2) 2, 4 – D.N.P

(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) NH 2OH (4) R  Mg  X
(3) Only C (4) Both B and C 171. A compound ‘X’ is acidic and it is soluble in
167. For the reaction 2NO2  N 2O2  O2 rate NaOH solution but does not react with
d [ NO2 ] NaHCO3 solution. Compound X also gives
expression is as follows =K violet colour with neutral FeCl3 solution. The
dt
compound ‘X’ is
[ NO2 ]n where K= 3 102 mol 1 Lsec-1. OH
OH
If the rate of formation of oxygen is
4 1 1
1.5 10 mol Litre Sec then the molar
concentration of NO2 in mole Litre 1 is (1) (2)
CH2OH CH2OH
(1) 0.51 (2) 0.015
(3) 0.214 (4) 0.10
168. The enthalpy of combustion at 250C of H2(g)
cyclohexane ( ) and cyclohexene( ) are (3) (4)
-241, -3920 and -3800KJ/mol respectively.
172. When borax is heated with CoO on a
The enthalpy of hydrogenation of
platinum loop, blue colour bead formed is
cyclohexene ( ) is
largely due to
(1) -121KJ/mol (2) +121KJ/mol
(1) B2O2
(3) -242KJ/mol (4) +242/KJ/mol
169. Given below are two statements. One is (2) Co( BO2 ) 2
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (3) CoB4O7
labelled as Reason(R) (4) Co[ B4O5 (OH ) 4 ]
Assertion(A): La (OH )3 is the most basic
while Lu (OH )3 is the least basic.
19
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
173. Assertion(A): Thin layer chromatography is NH2
an adsorption chromatography.
Reason(R): A thin layer of silica gel is spread
over glass plate of suitable size acts as an
adsorbent in T.L.C. (2)
(1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct N=N
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the (3)
correct explanation of A NO2
(3) A is correct but R is not the correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
174. Which of the following VA group hydride is
thermally most stable? (4)
(1) SbH 3 (2) AsH 3 178. Choose the correct name for compound
(3) PH 3 (4) NH 3 given below

175. Match List I with List II Br

List I List II
(1) (4E)-5-Bromohex-4-en-2-yne
Compound Shape
(2) (2E)-2-bromohex-4-yne-2-ene
A. XeF6 i. Distorted octahedral (3) (2E)-2-bromohex-2-en-4-yne
B. XeO3 ii. Square planar (4) (4E)-5-Bromohex-2-en-4-yne
C. XeOF4 iii. Pyramidal 179. The nature of oxides V2O3 and CrO is

iv. Square pyramidal indexed as ‘X’ and ‘Y’ type respectively. The
D. XeF4
correct set of X and Y is
Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) X=basic, Y=amphoteric
given blow.
(2) X= amphoteric, Y= basic
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, d-ii
(3) X=acidic, Y=acidic
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, d-iii
(4) X=basic, Y=basic
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, d-ii
180. Basic strength of the following anions is in
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, d-iii
the order of
176. The element that shows greater ability to   
form p  p multiple bonds is CH 3  C H 2 , H 2C  CH , H  C  C
(1) Si (2) Ge (A) (B) (C)
(3) Sn (4) C (1) B>A>C (2) C>B>A
177. The Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of (3) A>C>B (4) A>B>C
Nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount 181. The halogen which has greater bond
of Nitrogen in which one of the following dissociation energy after Cl 2 is
compounds.
(1) F2
(2) Br2
(1) N (3) I2
(4) Both Cl 2 and F2 have same bond
dissociation energy
20
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
182. The major product(P) formed in the Br
following reaction is

N K
CH2Br Br
i.
P CH2COOC2H5
ii. OH/H2O
(3)
(1) COOC2H5
O

NH-CHi.2-
Br
(4)
(2) COOH
CH2OH

OCH2CH3

(3) 184. Consider the following statements regarding

O the first ionisation enthalpy of Boron is less
than Berrylium.
I. It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s
NH electron.
II. 2p electron of Boron is more shielded
from the nucleus by the inner core of
O electrons than the 2s electrons of Be.
(4) III. 2s electron has more penetration power
CH2NH2 than 2p electron
IV. Atomic radius of B is more than Be
The correct statements are
(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV
183. In a set of reactions ethylbenzene yielded a (3) I, II and IV (4) II, III and II
product D. Here ‘D’ is NaNO2  HCl
185. C6H5 NH2  CuCN H3O +
CH2CH3 273K
 A 
KCN
 B  C
1) KMnO4 KOH
B
Br
C
C2H5OH
D ‘C’ in the following reaction
2) H3O+ FeCl3 H+
(1) C6 H5CH 2 NH 2 (2) C6 H5OH
(1) (3) C6 H 5COOH (4) C6 H 5CHO
CH2 -CH -COOC2H5
1
Br SECTION - B
186. The correct order of bond orders of
C22 , N22 and O22 is respectively.
(2)
(1) C22  N22  O22
(2) O22  N22  C22
(3) C22  O22  N22
(4) N22  C22  O22
21
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
187. Consider the following statements. (1) 5 (2) 11
I. The PH of a mixture containing 400ml of (3) 15 (4) 100
0.1M H 2 SO4 and 400ml of 0.1M NaOH will 193. Potassium permanganate on heating at 513k
be approximately 1.3 gives one of the product which is
II. Ionic product of water is temperature (1) paramagnetic and green
dependent (2) diamagnetic and colourless
III. Le-chatelier’s principle is applicable to (3) paramagnetic and colourless
common-ion effect (4) diamagnetic and green
IV. A mixture of HClO4  NaClO4 acts as 194. An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with
benzene sulphonyl chloride gives compound
an acidic buffer.
B. B is soluble in dil NaOH solution. The
The correct statements are
compound ‘A’ is
(1) I, II and IV (2) II and III
(1) C6 H 5  N (CH 3 ) 2
(3) I and II (4) I, II and III
188. The quantity which changes with (2) C6 H 5 NHCH 2CH 3
temperature is (3) C6 H 5CH 2 NHCH 3
(1) Mole fraction (2) Mass percentage
(4) C6 H 5 CH  NH 2
(3) Molarity (4) Molality CH
|
3
189. A mixture of inorganic substances on
195. The set that represents the pair of neutral
treatment with H 2 SO4 (dilute) gives out a
oxides of nitrogen.
gas which turns K 2Cr2O7 paper green and (1) NO and N2O (2) N2O and N2O3
lead acetate paper black. The mixture (3) N2O and NO2 (4) NO and NO2
contains 196. Given below are two statements one is
(1) Nitrite (2) Nitrate labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is
(3) Sulphite (4) Sulphide labelled as Reason(R).
rd
190. In 3 group cationic analysis, NH 4Cl is Assertion(A): Size of BK+3 is less than that of
NP+3 ion.
added before adding NH 4OH . This is due to
Reason(R): The above is a consequence of
(1) decrease the concentration of OH  lanthanoid contraction.
(2) increase the concentration of OH  In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) increase concentration of Cl  the most appropriate answer from the options
(4) prevent interference of PO43 ion given below.
(1) A is false but R is true
191. Which type of linkage is present in (2) A is true but R is false
Nucleotide between base and sugar? (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(1) Peptide linkage correct explanation of A
(2) Glycosidic linkage (4) Both A and R are true but R is the correct
(3) N-glycosidic linkage explanation of A
(4) Amide linkage 197. Wrong match is
192. If values of H 0 and S 0 for a reaction are (1) Co – carbonyl
77.2 KJ mole and 48 J mole K (2) H 2 O - aqua
1 (3) CN  - cyanato
respectively. Then find the value of log .
k
(4) NO2 - nitrito - N
Given temperature is 300K
22
 NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)
198. The number of sigma bonds between
Sulphur and oxygen atoms in S2O82 and the
number of sigma bonds between Sulphur and
Sulphur atoms in rhombic Sulphur
respectively are
(1) 4 and 6 (2) 8 and 8
(3) 4 and 8 (4) 8 and 6
199. Which of the following co ordination
compounds has bridging carbonyl ligand?
(1) [Co2 (CO )8 ] (2) [ Mn2 (CO )10 ]
(3) [Cr (CO )6 ] (4) [ Fe(CO )5 ]
200. Number of    conjugations in the given
compound is

(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 7 (4) 8

23
NEET GT-05 (15-02-24)

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