PUP-ADS DOST-SEI

UNDERGRADUATE
MOCK EXAM
2024
 RATIONALE
The Undergraduate Mock Examinations (UME) is derived from the
initiative of the Polytechnic University of the Philippines – Association
of DOST Scholars (PUP--ADS) to extend virtual support in securing the
slot of incoming college freshmen for the DOST-SEI Undergraduate
Scholarship during the transition to post-pandemic period. This
initiative is continued in the academic year 2023-2024 with the hope
of encouraging the incoming undergraduate students to pursue a
Science & Technology-related course. The event is set to be executed
on the third week of March 2024 that shall cater the interested
graduating senior high school batch of 2024 all over the Philippines.
This Undergraduate Mock Examinations shall be conducted through
online platforms and shall cover Science, Mathematics, Language,
and Abstract—categories relevant for effective preparation of the
future scholars in the actual DOST-SEI Undergraduate Examinations.
 OBJECTIVES
The Undergraduate Mock Examinations to be conducted by PUP-ADS
in March 2024 shall have the following objectives:

To prepare incoming college freshmen for the DOST-SEI

Undergraduate Examinations 2024.;
To expand Undergraduate Scholarship applicants’ knowledge in
preparation for the examination;
To help increase the passing rate of scholars for the 2024 DOST-
SEI Undergraduate Scholarship; and
To introduce PUP-ADS as a reliable linkage for scholars and
incoming scholars.
 TIMELINE
MARCH 4 MARCH 11-16 MARCH 16-25 MARCH 30

UME TEASER CONFIRMATION EVALUATION RESULT

REGISTRATION EXAMINATION REVIEWER

MARCH 9-15 MARCH 16 MARCH 17-25

2pm to 5pm
 DESCRIPTION
The PUP-ADS Undergraduate Mock Examination 2024 shall test
aspiring DOST-SEI Undergraduate Scholars in several topics. This
mock examination shall cover topics ranging from the Sciences,
Mathematics, Language, and Abstract categories just like the
upcoming DOST-SEI Undergraduate Scholarship Examination in April.

The target participants will be notified through engagement posts like

the event teaser on March 4, 2024. There will also be sample
examination questions for each category. These will be served as the
countdown posters from March 13 to 16, 2024.

The PUP-ADS official online accounts shall post the sample questions
for each category which can be answered by interested participants
by commenting or sharing their thoughts.
D-3 on March 13, 2024 for Mathematics category
D-2 on March 14, 2024 for Science category
D-1 on March 15, 2024 for Abstract category
D-day on March 16, 2024 for Language category
Since the Undergraduate Mock Examination shall be conducted
virtually, then, the registration form will be available from March 9 to
15, 2024. Moreover, the confirmation email containing their
respective examinee ID number and the examination platform link
shall be sent within March 11 to 16, 2024.

The PUP-ADS Undergraduate Mock Exam 2024 will be a one-day

examination done synchronously using private Youtube link only
provided to registered participants. On March 16, 2024, the PUP-ADS
shall reiterate the guidelines on taking the examination that will
commence at 2pm to 5pm.
GUIDELINES:

All participants must be registered a day prior to the actual PUP-

ADS Undergraduate Mock Examinations 2024.

Each participant shall utilize their unique examination ID number

sent via email together with the YouTube link.

The unique examination ID number shall be used to be redirected

to the corresponding form link.

The program shall proceed as follows

1:30 to 1:40 pm Opening Remarks

1:40 to 1:55 pm PUP-ADS AVP
1:55 to 2:00 pm UME 2024 Orientation
2:00 to 5:00 pm Exam Proper
5:00 to 5:10 pm Closing Remarks
 The result of the PUP-ADS Undergraduate Mock Examination
2024 shall be sent via email on March 22, 2024, which will also
include the evaluation form link.
Each participant must accomplish the evaluation link to redeem
the reviewer booklet prepared by the PUP-ADS.

The examination shall consist of 30 items for the Language

Assessment, 50 items for the Mathematical Assessment, 30 items for
the Abstract Assessment, and 50 items for the Science Assessment.

Moreover, the top 10 scorers shall be recognized on the official

accounts of PUP-ADS preferably on the 30th of March 2024 together
with the tabulated result of all examinees.

To assess the success of the Undergraduate Mock Examinations 2024,

an official list of Undergraduate Mock Exam participants shall be
compared with the official list of passers from the DOST-SEI
Undergraduate Scholarship. This way, PUP-ADS will be able to gauge
the passing rate of participants of the undergraduate mock
examinations in the actual undergraduate scholarship exams.
 LANGUAGE
I. GRAMMAR
FOR ITEMS 1- 10: Choose the letter that corresponds to the section of the sentence
containing an error. If there is no error, choose D, indicating that the sentence
contains no error. Each item may have up to one error labaled.

A B C D
1. Between the three of us, I think I am the finest vocalist. No error.
A B C D
2. While Louise was cutting papers, Angel maked origami. No error.
A B C D
3. To Marie, Miss Cathy is not only a governess but a friend. No error.
A B C
4. Although her father had died early on, Ellah was fortunate to have a friend in
D
Miss Taylor. No error.
A B C
5. Emma is either feeling depressed about the wedding nor already craves Miss
D
Taylor's companionship. No error
 A B C
6. The Continental Congress is drafting a constitution for the delegates they will
D
address in July. No error.
A B C
7. The 15-year-old boy Arnold, along with his classmates and their parents, are
D
going to the beach. No error.
A B C
8. Kate‘s difficulty lies in the fact that her comfortable life under Miss Olivia is
D
over. No error.
A B C
9. For Alyzza, her thirteen years with the Woodhouses are hard to forget.
D
No error.
A
10. "How can I build new connections and friendships"? That must have crossed
B C
Mark's mind as he observed his former roommate, now going far away, embracing
D
their friends one after the other. No error.
II. READING COMPREHENSION
FOR ITEMS 11- 20: Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each
item.

The koala bear, a marsupial commonly found in Australia, is endangered. Often

mistaken as bears, they are, in fact, associated with wombats. Their newborns stay
in their mothers’ pouches for several months after birth.

Koala bears live on gum trees known as eucalyptus. Being a nocturnal animal,
koala bears usually rest during the day and become active only at night.

Koala bears are soft. They have thick, woolly, grey or brown fur. Their fur keeps
them warm during the cold season. On their limbs are rough pads, enabling the
koala bears to grip the branches of the eucalyptus.

Koala bears are herbivores. They feed on the gum leaves. Having a keen sense of
smell, they are able to differentiate between edible and poisonous gum leaves.

11. _____ belong to the group of mammals known as marsupials.

a. Koala bears and eucalyptus
b. Wombats and koala bears
c. Bears and koala bears
d. Wombats and bears
12. The word that has the same meaning as “active at night” is:
a. Endangered
b. nocturnal
c. herbivores
d. keen

13. The ____ keeps the koala bears warm during the cold season
a. pouch
b. gum leaf
c. thick fur
d.rough pad

14.The koala bears use their ____ to tell the non-poisonous leaves from the
poisonous ones.
a. thick fur
b. ability to smell
c. ability to see
d. body resistance
Telescopes opened our eyes to the modern age of astronomy. 2 It was
Galileo who first used this instrument to observe the skies up close. 3
Through the telescope, Galileo discovered that moons orbit around Jupiter.
4 Scientists after him then discovered that there are eight moons in the said
planet. 5 Early telescopes were able to show that the sun and not the Earth
is the center of the universe. 6 The more advanced telescopes that came
later revealed geography and weather on the planets in the solar system. 7
Telescopes also helped in studying phenomena in the physical world like
the speed of light and gravity. 8 The wise use of telescopes made us better
understand our universe.

15. What is the purpose of sentence 8?

a. To draw an inference
b. To provide an illustration
c. To conclude the paragraph
d. To restate the first sentence

16. Same text as item #8 (Telescopes).

The use of telescopes led to important discoveries. Which sentences
support this?
a. Sentences 3 and 5
b. Sentences 1 and 8
c. Sentences 2 and 6
d. Sentences 6 and 7
Read the passage carefully, then answer the questions on the basis of what is stated
or implied.

Concerning Things For Which Men, And Especially Princes, Are Praised Or
Blamed

IT REMAINS now to see what ought to be the rules of conduct for a prince towards
subject and friends. And as I know that many have written on this point, I expect I
shall be considered presumptuous in mentioning it again, especially as in discussing
it I shall depart from the methods of other people. But, it being my intention to write
a thing which shall be useful to him who apprehends it, it appears to me more
appropriate to follow up the real truth of a matter than the imagination of it; for
many have pictured republics and principalities which in fact have never been
known or seen, because how one lives is so far distant from how one ought to live,
that he who neglects what is done for what ought to be done, sooner effects his ruin
than his preservation; for a man who wishes to act entirely up to his professions of
virtue soon meets with what destroys him among so much that is evil.

Hence it is necessary for a prince wishing to hold his own to know how to do
wrong, and to make use of it or not according to necessity. Therefore, putting on
one side imaginary things concerning a prince, and discussing those which are
real, I say that all men when they are spoken of, and chiefly princes for being more
highly placed, are remarkable for some of those qualities which bring them either
blame or praise; and thus it is that one is reputed liberal, another miserly, using a
Tuscan term (because an avaricious person in our language is still he who desires to
possess by robbery, whilst we call one miserly who deprives himself too much of the
use of his own); one is reputed generous, one rapacious; one cruel, one
compassionate; one faithless, another faithful; one effeminate and cowardly,
another bold and brave; one affable, another haughty; one lascivious, another
chaste; one sincere, another cunning; one hard, another easy; one grave, another
frivolous; one religious, another unbelieving, and the like. And I know that everyone
will confess that it would be most praiseworthy in a prince to exhibit all the above
qualities that are considered good; but because they can neither be entirely
possessed nor observed, for human conditions do not permit it, it is necessary for
him to be sufficiently prudent that he may know how to avoid the reproach of those
vices which would lose him his state; and also to keep himself, if it be possible, from
those which would not lose him it; but this not being possible, he may with less
hesitation abandon himself to them. And again, he need not make himself uneasy at
incurring a reproach for those vices without which the state can only be saved with
difficulty, for if everything is considered carefully, it will be found that something
which looks like virtue, if followed, would be his ruin; whilst something else, which
looks like vice, yet followed brings him security and prosperity.

NICCOLO MACHIAVELLI
The Prince (1532)
17. The author implies that for the prince to endure he must learn to be
a. Ideal
b. Practical
c. Immoral
d. Trusting
e. Cautious

18. The author‘s attitude towards humanity is

a. Ambivalent
b. Neutral
c. Contemptuous
d. Pitiful
e. Hopeful

19. The author mentions all of the following virtues and vices for which
princes are praised or blamed EXCEPT
a. brave and cowardly
b. compassionate and cruel
c. liberal and miserly
d. selfless and selfish
e. sincere and chaste
20. All of the following can be inferred from the reading material EXCEPT
a. People are idealists.
b. A vicious prince will not succeed.
c. A virtuous prince will not succeed.
d. People expect the prince to be vicious.
e. People expect the prince to be virtuous.

III. ANALOGY
FOR ITEMS 21- 30: Choose the word or set of words that best completes
the following relationship.

21. great : greet ;

a. steal : still
b. peal : peel
c. fair: fare
d. buy:vie

22. affection : infatuation ;

a. lenient : forgive
b. large : gigantic
c. frankness : candor
d. timidity : cowardice
23. Lance : mbodf ; Julia :
a. kvmjb
b. Itkhz
c. bjmvk
d. zhtkl

24. Albert Einstein : Law of Gravity ; Alexander Fleming :

a. penicillin
b. monograph
c. telephone
d. sonogram

25. ode : poetry ;

a. theme: essay
b.fable : prose
c.tragedy : drama
d.conflict : short story

26. sponge : porous ; skunk :

a. shiny
b. carnivorous
c. nocturnal
d. smelly
27. braggart : modesty ;
a. wallflower : timidity
b. fledgling : experience
c. invalid : malady
d. embezzler : greed

28. TOK : SNJ ; LAP :

a. JNS
b. MBQ
c. KZO
d. LPT

29. Japan : Tokyo ; Georgia :

a. Tbilisi
b. Atlanta
c. Kabul
d. Sri Lanka

30. History : Herodotus ; Geography :

a. Euclid
b. Gregor Mendel
c. Aristotle
d. Eratosthenes
IV. SEQUENCE
31. Which among the following is the correct sequence of the sentences below?

1. The image of a good teacher is one who is constantly reflecting about how best
to help different types of learners learn.

2. The National Competency-Based Teacher Standards (NCBTS) define a new

paradigm of teaching where the teacher is viewed as a knowledge professional
who is responsible for facilitating learning.
3. Good teaching is defined in terms of those practices that help students learn
better.
4. Competency-based means that the standards or criteria for characterizing good.

The NCBTS can be used as a self assessment tool for professional development.
a. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
c. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
d. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2

32. Arrange the following words in a meaningful order.

1. Death 2. Marriage 3. Education 4. Birth 5. Funeral
a. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5.
c. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
d. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
33. Arrange the following words in a meaningful order.
1. Word 2. Paragraph 3. Sentence 4. Letters 5. Phrase
a. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
b. 4, 4, 3, 5, 2
c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
d. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

FOR ITEMS 34- 35: Each passage consists of six sentences. The first and sixth
sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been
removed and jumbled up. These are labeled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper
order for the four sentences.

34. S1: Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the north of Italy.
P : There are about four hundred old stone bridges joining the island of Venice.
Q : In this city there are no motor cars, no horses, no buses.
R : These small islands are near one another.
S : It is not an island but a hundred and seventeen islands. S6: This is because
Venice has no streets.

The proper sequence should be:

a. PQRS
b. PRQS
c. SRPQ
d. PQSR
35. S1: Smoke oozed up between the planks.
P : Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship.
Q : The rising gale fanned the smoldering fire.
R : Everyone now knew there was fire on board.
S : Flames broke out here and there. S6: Most people bore the shock bravely.

The proper sequence should be:

a. SRQP
b. QPSR
c. RSPQ
d. QSRP

FOR ITEMS 36- 37: Choose the best order and sequence of the following sentences
to form a well-organized paragraph.
36.
(A) The basic steps in building a website are easy to remember and registering a
domain name is the usual priority.
(B) Designing a layout will come after that.
(C) Finally, adding more content and social media presence are required to keep
your site active.
(D) Then you need a hosting provider to host your site's content in the World Wide
Web.

a. ABCD
b. ADBC
c. ACBD
d. ADCB
37
(A) Speaking in English every day is also proven effective.
(B) Another way is watching English movies and TV shows particularly with English
subtitles.
(C) Reading articles in books, newspapers, and magazines is just among the helpful
ways.
(D) There are many ways to improve and develop English proficiency.

a. DCBA
b. DACB
c. DABC
d. DCAB

FOR ITEMS 38- 40: Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and
(F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.

38.
(A) It causes a lot of physical problems especially for our eyes, body and mind.
(B) Such a lifestyle makes man lazy and excessively dependent on machines.
(C) Innovative products such as computers, laptops, mobile phones,
(D) Harmful radiation causes various terminal diseases.
(E) Technology has advanced rapidly and man cannot seem to live without it now.
(F)iPads have made things easier for us, but it also has its disadvantages. Which of
the following options is the correct arrangement?

a. E C B A D F b. E C F A D B
c. D C B A E F d. D E B A C F
39
(A) One effective way is to diversify his funds to different investments like real estate,
stocks and money instruments like bonds and trust funds.
(B) It is always best to expand money to different investment wheels.
(C) A wise investor must not put all his eggs in one basket.
(D) He should always consider the risks involved in investing his money.

a. CBAD
b. CBDA
c. CDAB
d. CDBA

40. Choose the correct order

1) is 2) at 3) TV 4) film 5) midnight 6) a 7) on 8) great 9) There

a. 9, 1, 6, 8, 7, 4, 3, 2, 5
b. 9, 1, 6, 8, 4, 7, 3, 5, 3
c. 9, 1, 6, 8, 4, 7, 3, 2, 5
d. 9, 6, 1, 8, 4, 7, 3, 2, 5

V. VOCABULARY
41. After four consecutive nights without sleep, Miss Cortez felt sluggish and
incapable of exertion.
a. sleepy
b. slow
c. depressed
d. vigorous
42. Alexa and Miss Cortez are like sisters; the latter‘s position as governess is only
nominal.
a. fictitious
b. fitting
c. titular
d. temporary
e. traditional

43. When the doctor announced that William’s surgery had been successful
mitigated his family’s fear.
a. operation
b. gesture
c. alleviate
d. aggravate

44. We better be prepared to discount what William has to say about his in-laws.
a. discontinue
b. discriminate
c. deprecate
d. disregard

45. Alexa had to refinish the marred surface of the table.

a. disfigured
b. dull
c. mirrored
d. polished
46. When her mother died, Alexa became the mistress of the house.
a. A woman who is married
b. A woman having an illicit affair
c. A woman who owns her own house
d. A woman in a position of authority
e. A woman who earns her living by sewing

47. When the Cotez’ family reached the oasis, they were able to slake their thirst.
a. beach
b. lakeside
c. dessert
d. quench

48. Alexa’s indulgent father gives her everything she asks for.
a. affectionate
b. diligent
c. loving
d. wealthy
e. generous

49. According to the label of the medicine, it should take effect in about thirty
minutes.
a. be administered
b. dissolve completely
c. lose its strength
d. produce results
50. I like to state that cognition is essentially a human faculty.
a. the act of standing
b. the act of thinking
c. the act of speaking
d. the act of manufacturing

51. Despite the early loss of her mother, Alexa has a happy disposition.
a. heart
b. home
c. life
d. situation
e. character

52. Daydreaming bears a specious resemblance to the working of the creative

imagination.
a. false
b. honest
c. naive
d. questionable

53. Alexa‘s unrestrained self-confidence tends to alloy her good life.

a. demean
b. bind
c. blend
d. ruin
e. unify
54. Does anyone agree with Descartes, who said, “I think, ergo I am”?
a. yet
b. nonetheless
c. therefore
d. concerning

55. Dogmatic statements are suspect to the modern skeptical mind.

a. statement of cynicism
b. statement of value
c. statements of absolute certitude
d. statement of trust

VI. SYNONYMS/ ANTONYMS

A. SYNONYMS B. ANTONYMS

56. Strange 59. Optimum

a. Error a. Favorable
b. Certain b. Minimum
c. Quaint c. Chosen
d. True d. Worst

57. Awry 60. Heed

a. Crooked a. Notice
b. Psychological b. Listen
c. Startled c. Ignore
d. Started d. Follow
 ANSWER KEY (LANGUAGE)
No. Answer Explanation

among (among describes the relationship

1 B
between three or more things)

2 C made (incorrect used of past tense)

3 C but also

4 D

5 B or (correlative conjunction)

it (the antecedent “Congress” is singular, so the

6 C
correct pronoun should be "it")

is (prepositional phrases have no effect on the

7 C
form of the verb)

8 C with

9 C is (unit of time)

Question mark (?) should be inside the

10 A
parentheses
No. Answer Explanation

11 B

12 B

13 C

14 B

Sentence 8: The wide use of telescopes made us better

15 C
understand our universe is a concluding sentence.

Options C and D are specific details that do not capture

the major idea about telescopes.
Option A is an illogical statement since the scientists and
16 B not the telescopes who studied gravity and speed of light.

Option B captures the main idea about telescopes being

a useful tool in studying planets and space.

17 B

18 A

19 D

20 D
No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer

21 B 31 A 41 B 51 E

22 D 32 D 42 C 52 D

23 A 33 A 43 C 53 A

24 A 34 C 44 D 54 C

25 B 35 A 45 A 55 C

26 D 36 B 46 D 56 C

27 B 37 A 47 D 57 A

28 C 38 B 48 E 58 B

29 A 39 C 49 D 59 D

30 D 40 C 50 B 60 C
 SCIENCE
1. In an experiment, mold spores were cultivated in two groups under the same
conditions, with the exception that one group was grown in complete darkness
and the other group was only exposed to ultraviolet light to find out how UV
radiation affected the formation of mold spores. Hence, the group of mold
spores grown in total darkness is known as the __________.
a. control
b. hypothesis
c. dependent variable

d. limiting factor

2. When heating water in a kettle, the hot water rises and the cooler water moves

down to replace it, creating a circular motion. This demonstrates which method

of heat transfer?

a. By reflection
b. By conduction
c. By radiation
d. By convection
3. In the human body, the digestive tract secretes enzymes which serve as catalysts
to increase the speed of chemical reaction. These enzymes are added to the human
body to assimilate the simpler substance of macromolecules. In this case, the
process in which the large molecules break into smaller ones is called _______
a. Cohesion
b. Condensation reaction
c. Adhesion
d. Hydrolysis

4. Paolo, along with his friends, went to Baguio for Holy Week. During the trip, he
noticed that pressure was building up in his eardrums. This happens because ____.
a. The decrease in oxygen as height increases
b. The air pressure inside the ear is greater than the outside pressure
c. The air pressure outside the ear is greater than the inside pressure
d. A vacuum develops inside the ear as the air becomes thinner

5. What occurs when an atom of chlorine and an atom of hydrogen become a

molecule of hydrogen chloride?
a. A chemical bond is broken and energy is released.
b. A chemical bond is broken and energy is absorbed.
c. The energy is released while a chemical bond is formed.
d. The energy is absorbed while a chemical bond is formed.
6. An atom is electrically neutral because the ________.
a. number of protons is equal to the number of electrons
b. number of protons is equal to the number of neurons
c. ratio of the number of neutrons to the number of electrons is 1:1
d. ratio of the number of neutrons to the number of protons is 2:1

7. If Kikay observed two liquids for her chemistry class. When she dipped the litmus
paper in the vinegar, she noticed it changed to red, while the litmus paper turned
into blue when dipped into bleach. What does this indicate?
a. Vinegar is basic, while bleach is acidic.
b. Vinegar is acidic, while bleach is neutral.
c. Vinegar is neutral, while bleach is basic.
d. Vinegar is acidic, while bleach is basic.

8. Which formula represents an ionic compound?

9. The total number of the unique element/s in is __.
a. 7
b. 9
c. 3
d. 4

10. At a constant pressure, the temperature of Nitrogen gas was amplified that
causing the average kinetic energy of its molecules to ___________.
a. reduce and the volume of the gas sample to shrink
b. reduce and the volume of the gas sample to expand
c. surge and the volume of the gas sample to shrink
d. surge and the volume of the gas sample to expand

11. Covalent bond happens between non-metallic elements like hydrogen and
oxygen. To form water, the oxygen atom bonds with two hydrogen atoms. Hence,
the electrons in formed covalent bond are _____.
a. transferred from one atom to another
b. captured by the nucleus
c. mobile with a metal
d. shared between two atoms
12. What is the net charge on an ion that has 9 protons, 11 neutrons, and 10
electrons?
a. +1
b. +2
c. -1
d. -2

13. Yuan is making a list of boiling temperatures of important laboratory and

industrial solvents as a reference for his experiment tomorrow. His professor
instructed him that they would be using values in absolute temperature. Yuan
noticed that the boiling temperature of acetone is listed as 56.2 degrees Celsius.
What should be its converted value of temperature following the professor's
instruction?
a. -329 F
b. - 217 K
c. 217 F
d. 329 K
14. What is the total number of shared electrons in a molecule of the substance
shown?
a. 22
b. 11
c. 9
d. 6

15. Given the unbalanced ionic equation:

When this equation is balanced, both Fe3+ and Fe have a coefficient of

__________.
a. 1, since a total of 6 electrons are transferred.
b. 2, since a total of 6 electrons are transferred.
c. 1, since a total of 3 electrons are transferred.
d. 2, since a total of 3 electrons are transferred.

16. Which among these requires the highest amount of mechanical work?
a. Lifting a 2-kilogram wooden box 6 meters high
b. Lifting a 3-kilogram plastic box 5 meters high
c. Lifting a 4-kilogram iron bar 4 meters high
d. Lifting a 5-kilogram silver bar 3 meter high
17. Which of the following consumed the greatest amount of energy?
a. A 20-watt incandescent bulb is used for 24 hours.
b. A 40-watt fluorescent lamp used for 8 hours
c. A 60-watt electric fan used for 6 hours
d. A 100-watt LCD TV used for 4 hours

18. The following figure shows a block that is being pulled along the floor. What is
the acceleration of the block?
a. 2 meters per second squared
b. 3 meters per second squared
c. 4 meters per second squared
d. 6 meters per second squared

19. The figure on the right shows a bucket hanging motionless from a rope.
Assuming that the rope has no mass. What is the net force on the bucket?
a. 0.0 N
b. 2.0 N
c. 9.8 N
d. 20 N
20. Bimby works on weekends at Barnaby's Pizza Parlor. His primary responsibility
is to transfer a crate full of ingredients from the storage room to the kitchen. If a 50-
kg crate is pushed 15 m with a force of 20 N. How much work is done?
a. 300 J
b. 750 J
c. 1 KJ
d. 15 KJ
21. The students are tasked to create a 3D model showing the stages of mitosis
using Oreo cookies, what is the correct order of the stages of mitosis?
a. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
b. Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase
c. Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase, Metaphase
d. Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase, Prophase

22. Which of the following is an example of endocytosis?

a. the secretion of proteins like enzymes
b. the placement of integral membrane protein
c. the flipping of the plasma membrane
d. intake of small membrane vesicles
23. Which of the following statements is not FALSE?
a. Cells can be easily seen with the naked eyes.
b. In a unicellular organism, a single cell can perform all its functions.
c. In multicellular organisms, the size and shape of cells is uniform.
d. Cells do not contain nucleic acid.

24. Which of the following are NOT organelles found in animal cells?
a. chloroplast and ribosomes
b. cellular membrane and cytoplasm
c. mitochondria and ribosomes
d. chloroplast and central vacuole
Given below are four events that occur during the synthesis and transport of
proteins.
1. Protein is transported to Golgi apparatus for packaging.
2. Translation of mRNA occurs in the cytosol.
3. Protein is transported to the cell membrane.
4. Protein is transported to rough endoplasmic reticulum for processing.
Which of the following is the correct order of these events?
a. 2, 1, 4, 3
b. 1, 3, 2, 4
c. 2, 4, 1, 3
d. 3, 2, 1, 4
26. Northern elephant seals were hunted by humans in the 1890s, reducing their
population size to 20 individuals. Even though their population is now over 30,000,
the seals still have reduced genetic variation. What is the best explanation of this
phenomenon?
a. Relative fitness
b. Founder effect
c. Bottleneck effect
d. Heterozygote advantage

27. Certain cavefish and salamanders have non-functional eyes, which are
remnants of the functional eyes of their ancestors. Such examples of “leftover”
structures are referred to as:
a. Homologous structures
b. Analogous structures
c. Vestigial structures
d. Genetic drift
28. There have been five mass extinction events in Earth throughout its history, with
the most recent being the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction 66 million years ago.
Contrarily, an event often described as the Biological Big Bang is the phenomenon
that explains the sudden appearance of many phyla of living animals in the fossil
record, between 535–525 million years ago. What is this phenomenon?
a. Anagenesis
b. Continental Drift
c. Cambrian Explosion
d. Permian Mass Extinction

29. It is widely recognized that the first humans first evolved in Africa. It is also
estimated that the human body is composed of trillions of cells. The first cells on
Earth were likely to be:
a. Anaerobic prokaryotes
b. Protozoans
c. Amino acids
d. Ribozymes
30. Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals are some of the essential
nutrients needed by organisms on this Earth to survive and thrive. These are brought
upon by different cycles that transport these nourishments from their environment to
their bodies. Some entities like bacteria supplement these cycles. In which nutrient
cycle do bacteria play a key role in the conversion of an essential organic
compound from its atmospheric form to a form usable by organisms?
a. Water Cycle
b. Carbon Cycle
c. Nitrogen Cycle
d. Phosphorus Cycle

31. Using the measurement of ________, “Dark Matter” was first discovered.
a. Galaxy rotation curves
b. Gravitational microlensing of compact objects in the Milky Way halo
c. The velocity of the Milky Way toward the Virgo cluster
d. The velocity of Andromeda toward the Milky Way

32. During a lunar eclipse, the Moon has the phase:

a. Full
b. New
c. Last Quarter
d. First Quarter
33. Stars do die. Very massive stars exhaust their fuel rapidly, resulting in a lifespan
of only a few hundred thousand years. In contrast, smaller stars consume fuel at a
slower pace, allowing them to shine for several billion years. What is the single
most important characteristic in determining the course of a star’s evolution?
a. Mass
b. Density
c. Distance
d. Absolute brightness

34. The best way to write 567, 903 in scientific notation is:
a. 5.67 x 10^5
b. 5.67 x 10^6
c. 6 x 10^4
d. 5.67903 x 10^5

35. Under what conditions do hydrogen nuclei merge to form helium nuclei during
the process of nuclear fusion?
a. High pressure and high volume
b. Pressure and water
c. High heat and pressure
d. Hydrogen nuclei cannot undergo nuclear fusion
36. In older physical theories, energy and mass were seen as distinct entities until
Albert Einstein introduced the theory of special relativity expressed in the equation
below. It follows that E is the kinetic energy while m is the mass of a body. What
does the c^2 represent?
a. Mass
b. Energy
c. Speed of light
d. Wavelength

37. What color are the hottest stars?

a. Red
b. Blue
c. White
d. Yellow

38. What does being close to the sun mean to the inner planets?
a. Consists primarily of rock
b. Makes them bigger
c. Makes them orbit in the same direction
d. They will spiral.
39. A cell membrane is:
a. Permeable
b. Semipermeable
c. Impermeable
d. None of the above
40. A dog breeder wants to have a poodle with black fur, if the allele for black fur
(B) is dominant to the gene for brown fur (b). Two poodles are crossed. One poodle
is homozygous for black fur, and the other is heterozygous. What percentage of the
offspring are expected to have black fur?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%

41. The layer characterized as the thinnest among the layers of the Earth, which has
two kinds: continental and oceanic, is called ______.
a. Mantle
b. Outer Core
c. Crust
d. Tectonic Plates
42. The type of rock that forms once lava cools down and hardens is called _____
rock.
a. Magma
b. Igneous
c. Sedentary
d. Sedimentary

43. The following are human activities that trigger and speed up landslides except:
a. Deforestation
b. Terracing
c. Excavation
d. Irrigation
44. As of March 2022, the Philippine Atmospheric, Geophysical and Astronomical
Services Administration (PAG-ASA) adopted a tropical cyclone classification which
is determined by associated wind strength. On October 2, 2023, the tropical
cyclone with the international name Koinu was in the Philippine Area of
Responsibility (PAR) and had a maximum sustained wind of 120kph. Koinu is an
example of ______ based on tropical cyclone classification.
a. Super Typhoon
b. Typhoon
c. Tropical Depression
d. Severe Tropical Depression
45. Absolute dating methods provide specific time ranges and dates of origin of an
object by measuring its physical properties. Radiocarbon dating, an absolute dating
method, analyzes the amount of chemical fluorine absorbed by the object to
determine the amount of time it has been underground.
a. The first statement is true, but the second statement is false.
b. The first statement is false, but the second statement is true.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are false.

46. Which among the following sources of energy is renewable?

a. Biomass
b. Oil Thermal
c. Natural Gas
d. Coal

47. Plates that are moving away from each other are called
a. convergent
b. divergent
c. transform
d. strike slip
48. Suppose that humans are 60% genetically similar to a banana and that only
2% of the DNA constitutes the gene, how much of the human DNA is shared with a
banana?
a. 60%
b. 40%
c.12%
d.1.2%

49. The Mesozoic era came after the Paleolithic era when humans first appeared.
Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous are subdivided periods of Mesozoic era.
a. The first statement is true, but the second statement is false.
b. The first statement is false, but the second statement is true.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are false.

50. As peat is subjected to greater heat and pressure, the moisture content _______
whereas the carbon content _______.
a. decreases, increases
b. increases, decreases
c. increases, increases
d. decreases, decreases
51. In plants, the phloem transports nutrients and water in a bidirectional manner.
Suppose that sucrose translocated towards a growing bud, what direction will it
take?
a. Downward
b. Upward
c. Lateral
d. Transverse

52. What feedback loop occurs when calcium levels in the serum increase to stop
the parathyroid gland from producing parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
a. Negative feedback
b. Immediate feedback
c. Positive feedback
d. Control feedback

53. The ozone layer is in the atmosphere to protect the Earth from the harmful
ultraviolet radiation coming from the sun. It is a part of the _______ and is
composed of ______.
a. thermosphere, nitrogen
b. stratosphere, carbon
c. stratosphere, oxygen
d. thermosphere, carbon
54. Dry ice transforms into carbon dioxide gas when exposed at room temperature.
What type of physical change is exhibited?
a. Condensation
b. Melting
c. Sublimation
d. Evaporation

55. The gravitational pull from the moon causes _____ that affects the bodies of
water on the Earth.
a. typhoon
b. tropical cyclones
c. tidal force
d. tsunami

56. _______ is the subsystem of the Earth where all the living organisms exist, and
_________ is the gaseous subsystem that protects and supports life.
a. Biosphere, asthenosphere
b. Geosphere, lithosphere
c. Biosphere, atmosphere
d. Hydrosphere, photosphere
57. Weathering, erosion, deposition, and naturally occurring events that may or
may not directly affect the geology of the Earth is called _______.
a. Anthropological Processes
b. Geological Processes
c. Astrological Processes
d. Geometrical Processes

58. Continental Drift Theory was proposed by Alfred Wegener. This theory
centralizes on the idea of having a supercontinent that drifted apart over time.
a. The first statement is true, but the second statement is false.
b. The first statement is false, but the second statement is true.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are false.

59. The following are the factors that made life possible on Earth except
a. water
b. atmosphere
c. nutrients
d. archaebacteria
60. The following are the properties of minerals except
a. Luster refers to the ability of the mineral’s surface to reflect light.
b. Hardness refers to the minerals’ ability to resist scratching.
c. Attractiveness refers to the ability of the mineral to attract the eyes.
d. Malleability is the property that refers to the ability to be shaped through
beating or pounding without breaking.

61. Using the egg as an analogy to the layers of the Earth. What does the layer
between the albumen (white) and the shell represent?
a. Mantle
b. Moho Discontinuity
c. Gutenberg
d. Lehmann

62. The illustration below represents the partial inner structure of the Earth. Different
layers are represented by 1, 2, 3, and 4. Some depths below are also shown.
What is the chemical composition of the layer numbered 4?
a. solid nickel and iron
b. silicon oxide and aluminum oxide
c. iron and magnesium
d. basalt and granite
63. How does the composition and density of oceanic crust differ from that of
continental crust?
a. The oceanic crust is thicker, less dense, and is composed of granitic rocks,
while the continental crust is thinner, denser, and is composed of basaltic
rocks.
b. The oceanic crust is thinner, denser, and is composed of granitic rocks,
while the continental crust is thicker, less dense, and is composed of basaltic
rocks.
c. The oceanic crust is thinner, less dense, and is composed of basaltic rocks,
while the continental crust is thicker, denser, and is composed of granitic
rocks.
d. The oceanic crust is thinner, denser, and is composed of basaltic rocks,
while the continental crust is thicker, less dense, and is composed of granitic
rocks.
64. Millie has visited different continents in the past years, but the most memorable
for her is the one where she saw a lot of penguins and seals. Considering the
animals mentioned, which biome is present in that continent?
a. Desert
b. Tundra
c. Grassland
d. Tropical Rainforest
65 Imagine you have a pet hermit crab named Mr. Crabs. Mr. Crabs can adapt
and survive both in freshwater and in saltwater. Which aquatic biome do you think
is Mr. Crabs’ natural habitat?
a. River
b. Stream
c. Estuary
d. Freshwater Lake

66. John gifted Anna a volcanic rock that he claims was from billions of years ago.
Anna, then, was eager to confirm its age. Considering John’s claim, what dating
technique should Anna use?
a. Relative dating: superposition
b. Relative dating: fossil succession
c. Absolute dating: carbon dating
d. Absolute dating: potassium-argon dating

67. According to NASA, which of these are the signs of Climate Change?
a. Rise of sea levels
b. Decline of Arctic Sea ice
c. Increasing frequency of extreme events
d. All of the above
68. Mitigation of Climate Change requires knowledge about the use of renewable
and non-renewable energy sources. Which of the following statements is the best
application of this knowledge?
a. Shifting from disposable to reusable containers
b. Disposing of trash properly
c. Implementing policies to limit the use and burning of fossil fuels
d. None of the above

69. Jermiane has pythons as her pets. One day, she found out that one of her
pythons gave birth to a young live one rather than laying eggs, which is the typical
expectation for snakes. As she studied deeper, she found out that the eggs were just
inside the python’s body before it finally developed. Which reproductive strategy is
demonstrated?
a. Oviparity
b. Viviparity
c. Ovoviviparity
d. Reptile

70. What type of Uranium is used in nuclear power plants?

a. U-235
b. U-238
c. U-234
d. U-233
71. Solar energy is possible where there is _______.
a. wind
b. sunlight
c. oil
d. coal

72. During the onset of the rainy season in the Philippines, which atmospheric
phenomenon is responsible for the sudden increase in precipitation over the
archipelago?
a. ENSO
b. PAG-ASA
c. DOST
d. ITCZ

73. The Philippines has two seasons, namely:

a. Winter and Fall
b. Summer and Spring
c. Dry and Wet
d. El Niño and La Niña
74. You observe that when you are looking at the front of your house at 8:00 AM,
the sun is to the right of you. Returning to the exact same spot at 4:00 PM, you
notice that the sun is now to the left of you. At which direction were you facing at
8:00 AM and 4:00 PM?
a. North
b. South
c. East
d. West

75. Suppose your province is near an active flowing body of water, what do you
think is the most efficient way to utilize it?
a. Build hydropower plants to convert the kinetic energy into hydroelectric
energy
b. Install solar panels and convert the sunlight to electricity
c. Build windmills or turbines
d. None of the above

76. Which is not an example of an environmental hazard?

a. Cadmium
b. Bacteria
c. Carbon
d. Extreme weather events
77. The temperature of Earth remains stable when:
a. The amount of solar energy absorbed by Earth decreases.
b. The Earth reduces the sunlight it receives.
c. The Earth reflects the same amount of energy as it absorbs.
d. The amount of radiation decreases and the albedo increases.

78. Which of the following damages the Ozone Layer?

a. CFCs
b. Freon
c. Aerosols
d. All of the above

79. What are the advantages of Solar Power?

a. Sunlight is free and accessible.
b. Solar Panels are cheap.
c. It does not produce the greenhouse effect.
d. Both a and c are correct.

80. Rise of sea levels indicate:

a. More water
b. Climate Change
c. Bigger bodies of water
d. Healthier habitat for animals
 ANSWER KEY (SCIENCE)

No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer

1 A 11 D 21 A 31 A

2 D 12 C 22 D 32 A

3 D 13 D 23 B 33 A

4 B 14 A 24 D 34 A

5 C 15 B 25 C 35 C

6 A 16 C 26 C 36 C

7 D 17 A 27 C 37 B

8 D 18 A 28 C 38 A

9 C 19 A 29 A 39 B

10 D 20 A 30 C 40 D
 ANSWER KEY (SCIENCE)

No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer

41 C 51 B 61 B 71 B

42 B 52 A 62 A 72 D

43 B 53 C 63 D 73 C

44 B 54 C 64 B 74 A

45 A 55 C 65 C 75 A

46 A 56 C 66 D 76 C

47 B 57 B 67 D 77 C

48 D 58 C 68 C 78 D

49 B 59 D 69 C 79 D

50 A 60 C 70 A 80 B
 MATHEMATICS
1. Find the 4th term of the arithmetic sequence with the first two terms 1 and 4.
a. 7
b. 10
c. 16
d. -10

2. Simplify: 8√3-2√27+√ (48.)

a. 6√3
b. 6√4
c. 6
d. 6√5

3. In acute △ ABC, sin A = 3/7. Find cos A.

a. 4√2/7
b. 3√5/7
c. 2√10/7
d. 5√2/7
4. Simplify: 10!/7!
a. 720
b. 504
c. 5040
d. 210

5. Find the value of x.

a. 75°
b. 130°
c. 60°
d. 50°

6. Find the equation of the line with intercepts at (0,4) and (-2,0).
a. y = 2x+4
b. y = −2x+4
c. y = 0.5x+4
d. y = −0.5x+4
7. If P is an angle in a triangle and cos P = 5/13 , find csc P.
a. 11/10
b. 9/8
c. 6/5
d. 13/12

8. Find the coordinates of the vertex of the parabola y = 2x^2 + 4x − 3.

a. (-1, -5)
b. (1, 3/2)
c. (2, -3)
d. (-2, 5/2)

9. What is the probability of getting exactly two heads in flipping a fair

coin four times?
a. 1/4
b. 3/8
c. 1/2
d. 5/8
10. What is the sum of 1 – 2 + 3 – 4 + 5 – 6 + … + 2024?
a. -1012
b. 0
c. 1012
d. 2024

11. In △ABC, BC = 6, CA = 7, and AB = 8. Find

a. 7/3
b. 3/7
c. 4/3
d. 1/4

12. In how many ways can one choose a set of 3 chemistry books and 2
physics books from 7 different chemistry books and 5 different physics
books?
a. 350
b. 700
c. 1050
d. 1400
13. If 2, a, b, and 8 are consecutive terms of a harmonic sequence, what is
a + b?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 20/3
d. 16

14. If 5x, 2x-1, and -2x form an arithmetic sequence, find the 4th term.
a. -11x
b. -11
c. -5x
d. -10

15. Line FH is perpendicular to line CD and line ED is perpendicular to line

FC. If ∠FGD is 126°, what is the value of y and x?
a. x = 35°, y = 36° c. x = 46°, y = 54°
b. x = 54°, y = 54° d. x = 36°, y = 54°
16. A diameter of a circle has endpoints (6, 3) and (12, −7). Find the
equation (in center-radius form) of the circle having the same center but twice
the radius as this circle.
a.
b.
c.
d.

17. A person has two parents, four grandparents, eight grand-parents, and
so on. How many ancestors does a person have 10 generations back?
a. 1024
b. 2046
c. 2048
d. 1023

18. Factor completely: 4x^3 + 9x^2 − 4x − 9.

a. (x−1)(x+1)(4x+9)
b. (x+1)(x+1)(4x-9)
c. (x+1)(x+1)(4x+9)
d. (x−1)(x-1)(4x-9)
19. A businessman buys sacks of rice at Php 1600 per sack and sells them
120% up the price. How much is he selling each sack of rice?
a. Php 1940
b. Php 1960
c. Php 1900
d. Php 1920

20. Find the coordinates of the vertex of

a. (0, 26)
b. (2, 0)
c. (-26, 3)
d. (-1,1)

21. An equilateral triangle and a regular hexagon have the same perimeters.
What is the ratio of the area of the triangle to the area of the hexagon?
a. 2:3
b. 1:3
c. 2:9
d. 1:9
22. The highest point of a parabola has coordinates (−1, 4). If it passes
through the point (−3, −4), find the x-intercepts of the parabola.
a. −1 ± √2
b. −2 ± 3
c. 3 ± √2
d. 4 ± √3

23. In how many ways can the letters of the word DIVISIBLE be arranged
without having 2 I’s next to each other?
a. 70560
b. 35280
c. 25200
d. 151200

24. Ten percent of 450 is 20% of what number?

a. 180
b. 225
c. 360
d. 450
25. From 12 noon to 3:40 pm, how many degrees does the tip of the hour
hand travel?
a. 135°
b. 220°
c. 110°
d. 180°

26. If √(2x-2) = 10, what is √(x+1)?

a. √51
b. 2 √13
c. 3√6
d. 10

27. Find the value of x.

a. 30°
b. 130°
c. 60°
d. 90°
28. What is the slope of the line tangent to the circle = 10 at the
point (−1, −3)?
a.
b.
c.
d.

29. In △ABC, AB = 4 cm, BC = 6 cm, and AC = 8 cm. Let D be a point on

AC so that BD = AB. Find AD.
a.
b.
c.
d.

30. How many integers between 60 and 600 are divisible by 7?

a. 76
b. 75
c. 78
d. 77
31. Find the constant k if x - 2 is a factor of f(x) =
a. 7
b. 6
c. 5
d. 8

32. What is the probability that three randomly chosen people were born on
three different days of the week?
a.
b.
c.
d.

33. Of ten fifty-peso bills, three are counterfeit. Six bills are chosen at
random. What is the probability that all counterfeit bills are chosen?
a.
b.
c.
d.
34. What value of the constant k will make x^2− 9x + k a perfect trinomial
square?
a.
b.
c.
d.

35. If f(2x − 1) = x, what is f(2)?

a.
b.
c.
d.

36. The sides of a polygon are 3,4,5,6, and 7cm. Find the perimeter of a
similar polygon, if the side corresponding to 5 cm is 9 cm long.
a. 25 cm
b. 35 cm
c. 45 cm
d. 65 cm
37. The first term of a geometric sequence is 1536, and the common ratio is
1/2. Which term of the sequence is 6?
a. 7
b. 5
c. 8
d. 9

38. How many triangles can be formed by 8 points, no three of which are
collinear?
a. 64
b. 48
c. 72
d. 56

39. Find the number of positive integers less than 500 000 which contain the
block 678, with the 3 digits appearing consecutively and in this order.
a. 1600
b. 1400
c. 1500
d. 1200
40. Find the cosine of the smallest acute angle of the triangle whose sides
have lengths 4, 5, and 6.
a.
b.
c.
d.

41. If 3x + 4y = 7 and 3y – 7x = 14, what is 7y – 4x?

a. 30
b. 29
c. 32
d. -29

42. The lengths of the leg of a right triangle are 15cm and 8cm. Find the
length of the hypotenuse.
a. 17m
b. 16cm
c. 20cm
d. 17cm
43. Two fair dice are rolled? What is the probability that the product of the
resulting numbers is an odd prime?
a.
b.
c.
d.

44. On a map, 3 cm represents 25 km. How far apart are two cities if they
are 6.6 cm apart on the map?
a. 50 km
b. 60 km
c. 55 km
d. 65 km

45. Ken started playing basketball at 10:33 am, and stopped at 2:29 pm.
How many minutes was he playing?
a. 216 minutes
b. 226 minutes
c. 236 minutes
d. 246 minutes
46. If the sum of two numbers is 24 and their difference is 96, what is their
product?
a. 2304
b. -2160
c. -1728
d. 6912

47. A standard traffic light turns green then yellow then red, then green,
yellow, red, and so on. What is the 2018th light?
a. green
b. red
c. yellow
d. orange

48. A 180-page book has the same number off photos on each page. If the
number of photos was reduced by 3 on each page, the number of pages
would need to be increased by 30. How many photos are there all in all?
a. 3780
b. 3750
c. 3810
d. 3840
49. The 3rd, 6th, and 10th terms of an arithmetic sequence form a geometric
sequence. Find the common ratio.
a.
b.
c.
d.

50. Find the value of x.

a. 70°
b. 65°
c. 80°
d. 85°

51. Simplify: 8√3 - 2√27 + √48

a. 6√3
b. 6√4
c. 6
d. 6√5
52. In 4 years, Carlo will be twice as long as he was 4 years ago. How old
is Carlo now?
a. 24
b. 20
c. 16
d. 12

53. The length of a rectangle is twice its width. If its perimeter is 24 cm, what
is its area in square centimeters?
a. 24
b. 32
c. 18
d. 36

54. Identify the domain in the relation y = 2x + 1 using set builder notation.
∈
a. {x : x R}
∈
b. {x : x R, x ≥ -1}
∈
c. {x : x R, x ≠ 1}
∈
d. {x : x R, }
55. Find the remainder when 2x^3 + 6x^2 + 5x + 2 is divided by x + 4.
a. – 40
b. – 50
c. – 60
d. – 30

56. Three numbers form an arithmetic sequence with common difference 3. If

the first is decreased by 2, the second is doubled, and the third is multiplied
by 5, the new numbers form a geometric sequence with distinct terms. Give
the three original numbers (in order).
a. 15, 18, and 21
b. 9, 12, and 15
c. 12, 15, and 18
d. 6, 9, and 12

57. The midpoint of P(7,-1) and R is Q(10.5,2). Find the coordinates of R.

a. (14,5)
b. (-4, 7)
c. (3,6)
d. (0,8)
58. Two chords of a circle intersect inside it. If the segments of one chord are
12 and 16 cm long, and one segment of the second chord is 24 cm, how
long is the other segment of the second chord?
a. 12 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 16 cm
d. 8 cm

59. What is the center of the circle with equation x^2 + y^2− 4y = 10?
a. (0,4)
b. (1,3)
c. (0,2)
d. (1,5)

60. If 73 is one more than twice a number, what is 50% of the number?
a. 36
b. 18
c. 23
d. 15
61. The legs of a right triangle have lengths cm and cm. How long (in cm) is
the median to the hypotenuse?
a. √2 cm
b. √5 cm
c. √3 cm
d. √7 cm

62. Set A has 4 elements and is a subset of B which has 2022 elements.
How many sets S are possible if A is a subset of S, and S is a subset of B?
a. 2^(2022)
b. 2^(2020)
c. 2^(2024)
d. 2^(2018)

63. How many 5-letter strings can be made from the word MANGO if each
string should start with a vowel.
a. 120
b. 48
c. 60
d. 24
64. Two tangents to a circle form an angle of 80°. How many degrees is the
larger intercepted arc?
a. 180°
b. 80°
c. 260°
d. 105°

65. If a_1= 2 and a_n= 3a_(n--1) + 2 for n ≥ 2, what is a_4?

a. 65
b. 90
c. 75
d. 80

66. Triangle ABC has sides AB = 6, BC = 9, and AC = 9. Point P is chosen

on side BC such that AP = 6. Find the ratio of BP to CP.
a. 4:5
b. 5:6
c. 3:8
d. 1:3
67. Pipes are being stored in a pile with 25 pipes in the first layer, 24 in the
second, and so on. If there are 12 layers, how many pipes does the pile
contain?
a. 220
b. 247
c. 234
d. 77

68. Simplify: 8!/6!

a. 30
b. 56
c. 48
d. 27

69. Find the radius of the circle with center (-3, 5) and which passes through
the origin.
a. 5
b. 4√2
c. √34
d. 3√3
70. Find the length of length of line AB.
a. 15 cm
b. 13 cm
c. 14 cm
d. 16 cm

71. In a class of Grade 12 students, the probability of a randomly chosen

student likes dogs is 0.72, that a student likes cats is 0.54, and that a student
likes dogs or cats is 0.89. Find the probability that a student likes both dogs
and cats.
a. 0.18
b. 0.37
c. 0.35
d. 0.26
72. A rectangle has sides of 4 and 6 units. On each of its four sides, squares
are drawn externally. Their centers form another quadrilateral. What is the
area of (in sq. units) of this quadrilateral?
a. 50 sq. units
b. 48 sq. units
c. 36 sq. units
d. 54 sq. units

73. Find the largest root x of 2x^3 + 5x^2 - 3x - 4 is divided by x + 2.

a. - 1
b. - 1/2
c. 2
d. 1/2

74. How many terms of the arithmetic sequence 2, 4.5, 7, 9.5, . . . must be
added in order for their sum to be 374?
a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 19
75. In isosceles triangle ABC, ∠A is 108°. Find the angle of ∠B.
a. 25°
b. 36°
c. 72°
d. 42°

76. When a polynomial is divided by x + 2, the quotient is x − 3 and the

remainder is −2. What is the polynomial?
a. − x – 8
b. − 7x + 6
c. − x + 1
d. − 4x – 5

77. Paula bought a dress at 20% discount. If she paid Php328 for it, how
much is the dress originally?
a. Php 411
b. Php 405
c. Php 406
d. Php 410
78. On a long street, Paula walked for 45 minutes for 3 km/h. Then she ran for
half an hour, and she found out that she is now 6 km from the starting point.
How fast did she run?
a. 8 km/h
b. 7.5 km/h
c. 7 km/h
d. 6.5 km/h

79. Find the equation of a line with the point (9, -5) and a slope of 3/4.
a. 4y - 3x = - 47
b. 4y + 3x = 47
c. (3/4)y – 3x = 47
d. 4y – 3x = 7

80. 2½kg of bananas and 2 kg of mangoes cost Php250.00, of which 46%

was for mangoes. What is the cost of bananas per kg?
a. Php 75.00
b. Php 46.00
c. Php 54.00
d. Php 57.50
81. Mr.Ong left Php35,000,000 to his three daughters. For every Php75 Jillian
received, Nica received Php100, and Lyndsay Received 175. What was the
total amount received by Nica?
a. Php4,0000,000
b. Php10,000,000
c. Php75,000,000
d. Php9,333,333

82. Noel works in a Car Parts Business Enterprise that pays him 5% on his first
Php25,000 sales, 3% on the next Php30,000 sales, and 7% commission on all
sales beyond Php55,000. If he sold Php150,000 in his first week, how much is
the total gross pay he will get?
a. Php8,000
b. Php8,800
c. Php22,800
d. Php10,500
83. What is the interest per period if a certain principal is compounded
quarterly at 24% interest?
a. 2%
b. 12%
c. 6%
d. 24%

84. How much money will be required after 2 years to repay a Php150,000
loan that is made today at 10% interest compounded annually?
a. Php181,500
b. Php180,000
c. Php160,900
d. Php309,000

85. Luisa invested Php50,000 in a stock with 6% simple interest compounded

bimonthly. How much interest will she accumulate at the end of the year?
a. Php53,045
b. Php51,545
c. Php3,045
d. Php1,545
 ANSWER KEY (MATHEMATICS)
No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer

1 B 16 C 31 A

2 A 17 B 32 B

3 C 18 A 33 B

4 A 19 D 34 D

5 C 20 A 35 A

6 A 21 A 36 C

7 D 22 A 37 A

8 A 23 C 38 D

9 B 24 B 39 C

10 B 25 C 40 B

11 C 26 B 41 B

12 A 27 C 42 C

13 C 28 A 43 D

14 A 29 B 44 B

15 D 30 D 45 C
No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer

46 B 61 C 76 A
47 C 62 D
77 D
48 A 63 B
78 B
49 A 64 C
79 A
50 B 65 D
80 C
51 A 66 A
81 B
52 D 67 C

53 B 68 B 82 B

54 A 69 C 83 C

55 B 70 C 84 A

56 C 71 B 85 C
57 A 72 A

58 D 73 D

59 C 74 B

60 B 75 B
 ABSTRACT
I. VERBAL REASONING
1. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
a. Theology
b. Biology
c. Psychology
d. Botany

2. Kangaroo: Marsupial
a. Chihuahua: Feline
b. Hippopotamus: Pachyderms
c. Hyenas: Ursidae
d. Weasels: Herpestidae

3. “Medicine” is to “Illness” as “Law” is to

a. Discipline
b. Standard
c. Anarchy
d. Self-Control
4. If SECRET is coded as UHVJY, how can CRUSH be written in that code?
a. CDLTF
b. JOPTS
c. EUYXN
d. OQSPV

5. PARACHUTE: AIR:: SEA:

a. Hard Hat
b. Lifebelt
c. Strap
d. Balloon

6.FRONT: HIND:: ANTERIOR:

a. Side
b. Head
c. Posterior
d. Midsection
7. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
a. Inch
b. Pound
c. Foot
d. Yard

8. If GRAY is coded as 4132, DANCE is coded as 53697, how can is GRACE

be coded in that language?
a. 41397
b. 51973
c. 9547
d. 32471

3.Which word does NOT belong with the others?

a. Adverb
b. Punctuation
c. Preposition
d. Noun
10. ARCHIVE : DOCUMENTS;
a. warehouse: merchandise
b. cinema: projector
c. theater: plays
d. library: shelves

11. FERRO : Fire GEO :

a. Air
b. Iron
c. Earth
d. sand

12. If a clock shows 2:30, what will be the angle between the hour hand and
the minute hand?
a. 45 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 105 degrees
d. 120 degrees
13. If the word "CLOCK" is written as "XOLKC," how is the word "LAMP"
written?
a. MPLA
b. PLAM
c. MPLA
d. PLMA

14.COPERNICUS: Astronomy :: NEWTON :

a. Astrology
b. Archaeology
c. Meteorology
d. Calculus

15. If all books are made of paper, and some papers are recycled, which of
the following statements must be true?
a. All recycled materials are books.
b. Some recycled materials are books.
c. All books are recycled materials.
d. Some books are not recycled materials.
16. Which of the following words is spelled incorrectly?
a. Minuscule
b. Conscientious
c. Acquiesce
d. Liaison

17. If "cat" is to "feline," then "dog" is to .

a. Mammal
b. Canine
c. Pet
d. Furry

18. BRUSH : PAINTER :: .

a. anchor : sailor
b. blueprint : architect
c. shaves : barber
d ammer : carpenter
19. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
a. expressway
b. street
c. freeway
d. interstate

20. TIMIDITY: COWARDICE :: .

a. affection : infatuation
b. large : gigantic
c. frankness: candor
d. lenient : forgive

21.W is the mother of X and Y. If Z is the husband of Y. What is W to Z?

a. Mother-in-law
b. Sister
c. Mother
d. Aunt
22. Clara saw the movie on Friday. Maria saw the movie three days prior
to Lara but four days after Clara. On which day did Lara see the movie?
a. Friday
b. Saturday
c. Sunday
d. Monday

23. Robert is facing east. First he turns 80° in clockwise and then 200° in
the anticlockwise direction. Again he turns 110° in clockwise direction
then which direction Robert is facing now?
a. North West
b. North East
c. South West
d. South East

24. ALEXANDER FLEMING : PENICILLIN :: ALBERT EINSTEIN :

a. sonogram
b. telephone
c. law of gravity
d. monograph
25.Compass is to direction as odometer is to .
a. mileage
b. speed
c. standpoint
d. straight line

26. Which of the given shapes is the correct mirror image?

27. What would the 3D shape look like from above?

28. Which of the given shapes is the same 3D shape but in a different
position ?

29. Which of the given shapes is a rotation of the main image?

30. Which of the given shapes is a rotation of the main image?

31. Which of the four choices below is the rotated version of the given
figure?
32. Which is the next figure in the series?

33. Two pieces of the cube puzzle with three adjacent faces in each piece
are shown and to be used to form a cube. Each face is drawn with a
figure different from other sides. Which view fits the arrangement of the
symbol when the cube is assembled?
34. Which is the next figure in the series?

35. Which of the four choices is the result when the figure is cut by a plane
as shown below?
36. Which one is identical to this figure?

37.If you rotate the given figure, which of the following will be the result?
38. A three-dimensional object is shown, Which top side view is correct?

39.Which of the four figures below will show when all the given parts are
fitted together?
 40.What shape is needed to complete the series below?

II.\ MECHANICAL REASONING

41. Which point of view leaves most room for error?
42. What color should you avoid if you don’t want it to overheat quickly
on a sunny day?

43.Which letter represents north-east?

44. Which container is being represented in this graph as it is filled with
water?

45. Which of the following liquids would boil the quickest?

46. Given the set of front and rear wheels, which bicycle will reach a
greater distance upon one rotation of the pedal?

a. Bicycles J and M
b. Bicycles K and L
c. Bicycle J only
d. Bicycle L only

47. Which gears are rotating counterclockwise?

a.2 and 3
b.1 and 3
c. 2 only
d.1 and 2
48. Multiple holes of the same size are drilled on one side of the container
but on different heights. The container is filled with water, which of the
following will be the flow of the water jet on the holes?

a. Container A only
b. Containers B and C
c. Containers D only
d. Container C only

49. How many bulbs will light up when the switch is closed?

a. 0
b. 4
c. 2
d. 1
50. The pictures below show pairs of metal blocks and their temperatures.
Which of these correctly shows the direction that heat energy will move?

a. Pair W
b. Pair X
c. Pair Y
d. Pair W and Y

51.How many switches need to be closed to light up one bulb?

a. All switches
b. Two switches
c. One switch
d. Three switches
52. Different types of blocks are subjected to burning wood. If the same
amount of heat from the burning wood is absorbed by the rectangular
block at a given short time interval, which block has the hottest top
surface? Provided that all blocks have the same length, width and
thickness.

a. Aluminum
b. Steel
c. Brick
d. Copper

53.Which weight requires the least force to move?

a. A
b. B
c. Both require the same forces
d. None of the above
54. If gear X turns clockwise at a constant speed of 10 rpm. How does
gear Y turn?

a. Counter clockwise, 10 rpm

b. Clockwise, 10 rpm
c. Counter clockwise, 20 rpm
d. Clockwise, 20 rpm

55. Arrange through which medium the sound travel does front he slowest
to fastest.

I. Solid
II. Liquid
III. Gas

a. I, II, III
b. I, III, II
c. II, III, I
d. III, II, I
56. You construct a water tank with a horizontal exit pipe at the bottom.
You want the water to exit the pipe at high speed when the tank is full.
Which of the tank designs below should you consider?

57. You are playing with a ball on an uneven surface as shown in the
figure below. Assuming that the ball moves from point A to point D across
the surface, at what point from the figure will your ball have a minimum
gravitational potential energy?

a. Point A
b. Point B
c. Point C
d. Point D
58. What is the main function of a pulley?
a. to decrease the strength of a construction crane
b. to override the power of an electric motor
c. to add energy to a system
d. to change the direction of a pulling force

59. The suspension system on a bicycle is likely to use which of the

following mechanical devices?
a. a chain
b. a pulley
c. a gear
d. a spring

60.Which of the kites illustrated below will fly the highest in the shortest
possible time?
 ANSWER KEY (ABSTRACT)
No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer

1 A 16 D 31 C 46 A

2 B 17 B 32 C 47 C

3 C 18 D 33 A 48 D

4 C 19 B 34 D 49 B

5 B 20 A 35 D 50 C

6 C 21 A 36 C 51 B

7 B 22 D 37 C 52 D

8 A 23 B 38 B 53 B

9 B 24 C 39 B 54 D

10 A 25 A 40 C 55 D

11 C 26 A 41 C 56 B

12 C 27 C 42 A 57 B

13 B 28 D 43 B 58 D

14 D 29 D 44 C 59 D

15 B 30 C 45 B 60 B
 ABOUT PUP-ADS
The Polytechnic University of the Philippines - Association of DOST Scholars (PUP--
ADS) is a university-wide organization that helps, enhances, and refines PUP DOST
scholars. It acts as a support system for all DOST scholars in various science and
technology-related fields. Moreover, PUP--ADS conducts inclusive projects and
events that unite, integrate, and develop the character and leadership of scholars.

The PUP-ADS is a socio-academic organization established to serve and unite all

DOST-SEI scholars in PUP. It envisions to serve not only the DOST-SEI scholars of
PUP but also the whole student body, to instill in their hearts the ideals of character,
leadership, and service. Along its pillars, it expects to develop the students’
assiduous pursuit of excellence as its primary goal and to enhance its members’
abilities in their field of expertise.

The organization is duly bound for highly dedicated service to the community where
it is stationed. Aside from serving as a support system to fellow scholars in PUP, PUP-
ADS shall also serve as a vessel for the promotion of human values and virtues to
ensure their intellectual, social, and moral well-being and growth of all members as
well as of the whole community. Extension services are designed to enhance the
development of the members’ capacities in their field.